3.2.

2 Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2) Specific Examination

1. Contrast and definition are the two major factors that determine the of the
radiograph:

(a) Density

(b) Sensitivity

(c) Graininess

(d) Intensity

2. Scatter radiation:

(a) Is not controllable

(b) Is controllable to some extent, but cannot be completely eliminated

(c) Can be eliminated completely by changing the kV

(d) Can be eliminated completely by using lead intensifying screens

3. Which of the following factors will affect the definition of the radiographic image?

(a) Intensity of radiation

(b) Film density

(c) Tube current

(d) Focal spot size

4. Slow films:

(a) Give better definition than fast films

(b) Are faster than fast films

(c) Require shorter exposure times than fast films

(d) Usually have less contrast than fast films

5. Contrast is defined as the comparison between on different areas of the radiograph:

(a) Density

(b) Sensitivity
(c) Sharpness

(d) Latitude

6. Definition is defined as the measure of the of the outline of the image in the
radiograph.

(a) Density

(b) Sensitivity

(c) Sharpness

(d) Latitude

7. As radiation (X ray or gamma ray) energy is lowered:

(a) Radiation of longer wavelength and better penetration is produced

(b) Radiation of shorter wavelength and better penetration is produced

(c) Radiation of shorter wavelength and less penetration is produced

(d) Radiation longer wavelength and less penetration is produced

8. Dark crescent-shaped indications on a radiographic film are most likely caused by:

(a) Crimping film after exposure

(b) Crimping film before exposure

(c) Sudden extreme temperature change while processing

(d) Warm or exhausted fixer

9. Lead screen are primarily used to:

(a) Improve the quality of the radiography by increasing the effect of scatter radiation

(b) Intensify the primary beam

(c) Decrease film graininess

(d) Reduce density of film

10. Static marks are most often caused by:

(a) Film bent when inserted in a cassette or holder

(b) Foreign material or dirt imbedded in screens

(c) Scratches on lead foil screens

(d) Improper film handling techniques

11. When radiographic energy is decreased:

(a) The subject contrast decreases

(b) The film contrast decreases

(c) The subject contrast increases

(d) The film contrast decreases

12. The major cause for poor definition is:

(a) A source-to-film distance which is too long

(b) Screens which are too thin

(c) Film graininess

(d) Too small a source size

13. In order to increase latitude so that thick and thin portions may be radiographed at
reasonable viewing densities simultaneously:

(a) Fluorescent screen should be employed

(b) Led screens should be at least 5 mm thick

(c) The cassette may be loaded with two separate films of different speeds

(d) Radiograph the object at low energy

14. A dark circle type indication appearing on a radiograph that is the result of the failure of
a core support to completely melt is called:

(a) A hot tear

(b) A gas hole

(c) An unfused chaplet

(d) A spongy shrink

15. Dark rounded indications with rather smooth edges appear on the radiograph of casting
made in sand mould. These indications would be interpreted as:

(a) Slag inclusions

(b) Misrun

(c) Shrinkage

(d) Gas holes

16. A dark, sharply defined, straight line in the centre of the weld, and running parallel with
the length of the weld should be interpreted as:

(a) Porosity

(b) Incomplete penetration

(c) A slag inclusion

(d) Lack of fusion

17. A dark, jagged, linear indication appears on a radiograph of a casting. The area is a
transition area between a thick and a thin section. This indication should be interpreted as:

(a) A hot tear

(b) A gas hole

(c) An unfused chaplet

(d) A spongy shrink

18. In a radiograph of a weld there is an indication appearing at the end of the weldbead. It
appears as a dark rounded indication with fine small tails coming from around the rounded
indication giving it some what of a star-shaped appearance. This would probably be:

(a) A crater crack

(b) A slag inclusion

(c) Root concavity

(d) A star crack

19. The density of the radiograph through the weld area is 3.2 while the density in the base
metal is 2.9. This would probably indicate:
(a) Too high a kV was used

(b) Too low a kV was used

(c) There is excessive weld reinforcement

(d) Weld underfill

20. When radiographing a part which contains a crack, it will appear on the radiograph as:

(a) A dark continuous line

(b) A light, irregular line

(c) Either a dark or light line

(d) A dark linear indication which could be continuous or intermittent

21. If it were necessary to radiograph 18 cm (7 in.) thick steel product, which of the
following gamma ray sources would most be used?

(a) Cs–137

(b) Tm–170

(c) Ir–192

(d) Co–60

22. Almost all gamma radiography is performed with:

(a) Tm-170

(b) Natural isotopes

(c) Radium

(d) Ir-192 or Co-60

23. The half value layer of lead for Co-60 is approximately 13 mm (0.5 in). If the radiation
level on the source side of a 38 mm (1.5 in) lead plate is 0.64 Gy/h (64 R/h):, the radiation level
on the opposite side is:

(a) 0.08 Gy/h (8 R/h).

(b) 0.213 Gy/h (21.33 R/h).

(c) 0.107 Gy/h (10.67 R/h).

(d) 0.32 Gy/h (32 R/h).

24. The degree of concentration of the radioactive material in gamma ray sources is referred
to as the:

(a) Atomic weight of the source

(b) Half-life of the source

(c) Quality of the source

(d) Specific activity of the source

25. If 37 GBq (1 Ci), of Ir-92 produces dose rate of 0.59 Gy/h (59000 mR/h) at 30.5 cm (1
foot), how much dose in Gy/h (R/h) will 370 GBq (10 Ci) produce at the same distance?

(a) 0.59 Gy/h (59000 R/h)

(b) 0.0059 Gy/h (590 R/h)

(c) 5.9 Gy/h (590,000 R/h)

(d) 0.00059 Gy/h (59 R/h)

26. Co-59 becomes Co-60 when it is placed in a nuclear reactor where it captures:

(a) A proton

(b) Contamination

(c) Neutron

(d) An electron

27. Approximately how long would it take for a 370 GBq (10 Ci) Co-60 source to decay to
92.5 GBq (2.5 Ci)?

(a) 5.3 days

(b) 5.3 years

(c) 10.6 days

(d) 10.6 years

28. An NDT technician is using a 740 GBq (20 Ci) source of Ir-192, he is standing at a distance
of 305 cm (10 feet). What dose rate will he receive? (Show your working)
29. In the above question, at what distance from the source the technician be to receive 20
mSv/h (2R/h)?

30. The dose rate for a technician standing 610 cm (20 ft), from a 1295 GBq (35 Ci) Ir- 192
source is 5.16 mSv (516.25 mR/h). If he continues standing at his location, how much lead
shielding will be required to reduce the dose rate to 0.02 mSv (2mR/h)?

31. The specific activity of radioactive isotope is expressed in:

(a) MeV (million electron-volts)

(b) Ci/g (Curies per gram) or Becquerel per kg

(c) R/h (Roentgens per hour or gray per hour

(d) Counts per minute

32. The general method of producing X rays involves the sudden deceleration of high
velocity electrons in a solid body called a:

(a) Focus cup

(b) Filament

(c) Target

(d) Cathode

33. The velocity of electrons striking the target in an X ray tube is a function of:

(a) The atomic number of the cathode material

(b) The atomic number of the filament material

(c) The voltage applied

(d) The current flow in the tube

34. The primary form of energy conversion when an X ray tube is energized results in the
production of:

(a) Primary X rays

(b) Secondary X ray

(c) Short wavelength X ray

(d) Heat
35. The radiation from 37 GBq (1 Ci) of Co-60 (0.145 Gy or 14.5R at 30.5 cm or 1 foot) is
attenuated in air to approximately 5mR/h at a distance of approximately:

(a) 914.5 cm (30 feet)

(b) 1524 cm (50 feet)

(c) 3048 cm (100 feet)

(d) 6096 cm (200 feet)

36. The standard dose rate of a radioactive isotope is expressed in:

(a) Roentgens per hour per curie at any standardised distance not exceeding 75 feet

(b) Roentgens per hour per curie per foot

(c) Roentgens per hour at a distance of one foot

(d) Curies per hour

(e) Distance required to 2 mR/h

37. Tick the items that are characteristic of X or gamma radiation:

is a particle has mass

ionizes matter travels at the speed of light

harmful to humans has high frequency

38. Tick the items that are characteristic of X or gamma radiation:

is electromagnetic penetrates matter

has odour is visible

causes fluorescence in some materials

is non-destructive to humans

39. At 61 cm (two feet) from a radiation source, radiation intensity is 3 Gy/h (300 R/h). What
is the Intensity at 244 cm (8 feet) from the source?

(a) 0.12 Gy/h (12 R/h)

(b) 1.2 Gy/h (120 R/h)

(c) 0.1875 Gy/h (18.75 R/h)

(d) 0.28 Gy/h (28 R/h)

40. Define the following by selecting appropriate numbers from the second column:

curie 1. Million electron volts

roentgen 2. Unit of absorbed dose of radiation

Half value layer 3. Geometric unsharpness

kVp 4. Milliampere × minute

MeV 5. Time required for a radioactive isotope to lose half of its original activity
Ug 6. Rate of disintegration of a radioactive isotope

rad 7. Curie per gram

mA-min 8. Kilovolt peak

Half-life 9. Thickness of material which reduces the radiation to half of its original
intensity

definition 10. Degree of image sharpness

41. Number these radiographic film processing steps in their correct sequence: Stop Bath
Fixing

Wetting Agent Washing

Developing Drying

42. Source to film distance for first exposure is 91.5 cm (36 inches) and is changed to 122 cm
(48 inches) for the second exposure. Time 1 was 900 mA-sec. How many mA- min will the
second exposure require?

Answer:

43. A good Cobalt-60 shot is made on a 7.6 cm (3 inches) steel casting using an exposure
time of 10 minutes and a source-to-film distance of 91.5 (36 inches). If it is necessary to change
the source-to-film distance to 61 cm (24 inches), what exposure time would produce a similar
radiograph if all other conditions remain the same?

(a) 1.6 minutes

(b) 4.4 minutes

(c) 6.4 minutes

(d) 8.8 minutes

44. A radiographic exposure with 3700 GBq (100 Ci) source of Ir-192 using source to film
distance of 60 cm results in a radiation intensity of 0.12 Gy/h (11.8 R/h) and a radiographic
density of 2.5. The intensity of radiation needed to obtain the same density when the source to
film distance is changed to120 cm is:

(a) 0.472 Gy/h (47.2 R/h)

(b) 0.118 Gy/h (11.8 R/h)

(c) 0.029 Gy/h (2.9 R/h)

(d) 0.236 Gy/h (23.6 R/h)

45. A 7.6 cm (3 inches) thick test specimen is radiographed with a source having size of

1.3 cm (1/2 inch), the film is placed in contact with the test specimen. The source to film
distance is 40.6 cm (16 inches).The geometric unsharpness obtained is:

(a) 0.1 cm

(b) 0.3 cm

(c) 0.5 cm

(d) 1.0 cm

46. Radiographic equivalence factors for Inconel and 304 stainless steel are 1.4 and 1.0
respectively. What is the approximate equivalent thickness of Inconel requiring the same
exposure as 1.27 cm (½ inch) thickness of 304 stainless steel?

(a) 1.27 cm (0.50 inches)

(b) 1.78 cm (0.70 inches)

(c) 0.9 cm (0.36 inches)

(d) 3.55 cm (1.40 inches)

47. The approximate radiographic equivalence factors for steel and copper at 220 kV are

1.0 and 1.4 respectively. If it is desirable to radiograph a 1.27 cm (0.5 inch) piece of copper, what
thickness of steel would require about the same exposure characteristics?

(a) 1.78 cm (0.7 inches)

(b) 0.9 cm (0.35 inches)

(c) 3.55 cm (1.4 inches)

(d) 2.54 cm (1.0 inch)

48. If an exposure time of 60 seconds and source to film distance of 365.7 m (1200 feet) is
necessary for a particular exposure, what exposure time would be needed for an equivalent
exposure if the source- to-film distance is changed to 457.2 m (1500 feet)?

(a) 75 seconds

(b) 94 seconds

(c) 48 seconds

(d) 38 seconds

49. The technique requires 2500 mA-sec exposure. How long would the exposure time be in
minutes using:

(a) 5 mA Answer:

(b) 10 mA Answer:

50. Using a 250, kV 10 mA X ray unit, the technique chart indicates an exposure time of 1200
mA-sec. Using maximum mA, how many minutes should be used?

Answer:

51. Source to film distance for first exposure is 91.5 cm (36 inches) and is changed to 60.1
cm (24 inches) for the second exposure. Time #1 was 900 mA-sec. How many minutes will the
second exposure require at the same mA?

Answer:

52. Subject contrast and film contrast are the two factors that comprise radiographic:

(a) Definition
(b) Distortion

(c) Contrast

(d) Graininess

53. Scatter radiographic contrast.

(a) Reduces

(b) Increases

(c) Does not affect

54. ‘Film contrast’ is the inherent ability of a film to show for a given change in film
exposure.

(a) No appreciable change in density

(b) Graininess

(c) A difference in density

(d) No graininess

55. The range of the specimen thickness that can be adequately recorded on a radiograph is
known as the of the radiograph.

(a) Sensitivity

(b) Latitude

(c) Accuracy

(d) Intensity

56. Source-to-object distance, object-to-film distance, and source size are the three factors
that control the of the radiograph.

(a) Density

(b) Exposure

(c) Film size

(d) Unsharpness
57. The ‘multi-film’ technique may be used when one radiograph film does not have enough
to produce a satisfactory radiograph of a specimen.

(a) Latitude

(b) Definition

(c) Graininess

(d) Activity

58. When a fast film and a slow one are loaded in the same cassette (multi-film technique),
the slow film can be expected to record adequately the

(thinner) or (thicker) sections of a specimen.

59. What governs the penetrating power of an X ray beam?

(a) Kilovoltage

(b) Time

(c) Activity

(d) Milliamperage

60. The shorter the wavelength of X or gamma rays:

(a) The higher their energy

(b) The faster they travel

(c) The smaller their penetrating power

(d) The closer they are to becoming radio waves

61. A large source size can be compensated for by:

(a) Increasing source-to-specimen distance

(b) Addition of lead screens

(c) Increasing specimen-to-film distance

(d) Increasing penumbra

62. The maximum film density to which the radiograph should be exposed is dependent
upon:
(a) The quality of the film viewer

(b) The variation in thickness of the specimen

(c) The speed of the film

(d) The graininess of the film

63. The selection of the proper source-to-film distance is a primary factor in controlling:

(a) Contrast

(b) Unsharpness

(c) Graininess

(d) Scatter

64. When the penumbra on a radiograph measures less than 0.5 mm (0.020 inches), the
image will appear to unaided eye of the film interpreter as:

(a) Fuzzy

(b) Sharp

(c) Distorted

(d) Dark

65. Two X ray machines operating at same nominal kilovoltage and milliamperage settings:

(a) Will produce the same intensities and energies of radiation

(b) Will produce the same intensities but produce different energies of radiation

(c) Will produce the same energies but may produce different intensities of radiation

(d) May give not only different intensities, but also different energies of radiation

66. The fact that gases, when bombarded by radiation, ionise and become electrical
conductors make them useful in:

(a) X ray transformers

(b) X ray tubes

(c) Masks

(d) Radiation detection equipment

67. An acceptable quality radiograph should include:

(a) Proper identification

(b) Correct penetrameter and visible holes

(c) Location markers

(d) All of the above

68. A weld discontinuity which consists of unmelted joint surfaces at the root, and which
may be caused by poor fit-up, is called:

(a) Hot short cracking

(b) A slag inclusion

(c) Incomplete penetration

(d) Burn through

69. Which of the following welding discontinuities would be most difficult to image
radiographically:

(a) Planar lack of fusion

(b) Incomplete penetration

(c) Undercut

(d) Slag inclusions

70. The average energy of a Ir-192 source is approximately:

(a) 60-80 keV

(b) 660 keV

(c) 400 keV

(d) 1.2 MeV

72. The half-life of Th-170 is approximately:

(a) 74 days

(b) 129 days

(c) 5.3 years

(d) 30.1 years

73. If the required exposure time for a 50 Curie Ir-192 source is 4 minutes, what exposure
time would be required at 25 Curie source:

(a) 4 minutes

(b) 8 minutes

(c) 2 minutes

(d) 16 minutes

74. Which of the following is not a function of the lead screen placed around radiographic
film?

(a) Increase the photographic action on the film

(b) Selectively absorbs scattered radiation

(c) Intensifies effects of the primary radiation beam

(d) To mask the test piece

75. Which of the following is a function of the lead screen placed around radiographic film?

(a) Masks the test piece

(b) Improves geometric unsharpness

(c) Intensifies effects of the primary radiation beam

(d) None of the above

76. What is the best advantage achieved in exposure time, using front and back lead
screens, as compared to exposure time without screens?

(a) About the same, but less scatter

(b) About twice as great, but less scatter

(c) 1/2 to 1/3

(d) Not related

77. Gamma ray or high voltage X ray radiography, using film without lead screens, is likely to
result in:
(a) Mottling of the film

(b) Increased geometric unsharpness

(c) No apparent difference, but increased exposure time

(d) No apparent difference, but decreased exposure time

78. Fluorescent screens are seldom used in industrial radiography because:

(a) Light leaks degrade the film image

(b) Film fogging can result if used in the vicinity of fluorescent lights

(c) Poor definition and screen mottle can result

(d) None of the above

79. An advantage of a double versus a single emulsion film is:

(a) It is higher speed

(b) It is finer grained

(c) It is lower speed

(d) None of the above

80. A radiograph is made using film X with an exposure of 10 mA-min. Film density in the
area of interest is 1.0. If it is desired to achieve a density of 2.0 in the area of interest, what
exposure is required? (Log relative exposure = 1.1 for a density of 1.0 and 1.62 for a density of
2.0)

(a) 41.67 mA-min

(b) 10 mA-min

(c) 12.6 mA-min

(d) 33.1 mA-min

3.2.3 Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2) Answers to questions

Radiographic Testing Level 2 Answers to Questions

General Examination Specific Examination

1 a 35 a 69 b 1 b 35 b 69
a

2 b 36 c 70 d 2 b 36 c 70
d

3 b 37 d 71 b 3 d 37 * 71
b

4 d 38 c 72 a 4 a 38 * 72
b

5 b 39 c 73 d 5 a 39 c 73
b

6 c 40 d 74 a 6 c 40 * 74
b

7 a 41 b 75 a 7 d 41 * 75
c

8 b 42 c 76 b 8 a 42 * 76
c

9 d 43 a 77 b 9 b 43 b 77
a

10 d 44 b 78 a 10 d 44 c 78
c

11 a 45 d 79 d 11 c 45 b 79
a

12 b 46 a 80 c 12 c 46 c 80
d

13 d 47 a 81 b 13 c 47 a
14 d 48 c 82 c 14 c 48 b

15 a 49 b 83 d 15 d 49 *

16 b 50 c 84 b 16 b 50 *

17 c 51 d 85 d 17 a 51 *

18 b 52 d 86 c 18 d 52 c

19 c 53 c 87 d 19 d 53 a

20 b 54 a 88 c 20 d 54 c

21 a 55 c 21 d 55 b

22 a 56 d 22 d 56 d

23 b 57 b 23 d 57 a

24 b 58 b 24 a 58 *

25 b 59 a 25 c 59 a

26 a 60 b 26 c 60 a

27 d 61 b 27 d 61 a

28 c 62 a 28 * 62 a
29 b 63 b 29 * 63 b

30 c 64 d 30 * 64 b

31 a 65 b 31 b 65 d

32 b 66 c 32 c 66 d

33 b 67 d 33 c 67 d

34 a 68 d 34 c 68 c