1

AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS

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TOPIC No. 1
Fuselage, Wings and Stabilizing Surfaces
Definitions, Loads Applied to Aircraft Structures
1)Tension/Tensile Load
One which tends to stretch a
structural member.
Components designed to resist tensile loads are known as ties.

2)Compression/Compressive loads
Opposite of tensile loads and tend to
shorten structural members.
Components designed to resist
compressive loads are known as struts.

3)Shear
Shear is a force which tends to slide
one face of the material over an
adjacent face.
Riveted joints are designed to resist shear forces.

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Combination Loadings
Bending
Bending of the structure
involves the three basic
loadings:
Tension as the outer edge
stretches.
Compression as the inner edge squeezes together.
Shear across the structure as the forces try to split it.

Torsion/Twisting force
Produce tension at the outer
edge
Compression in the centre
Shear across the structure.

Stress
Stress is the internal force per unit area.
Stress is defined as the force per unit of area and
is measured in units of N/mm2 or MN/m2.
(DGCA)
Strain
Strain is defined as the deformation
caused by the action of stress on a
material.
It is normally given as the change in
dimension expressed as a
percentage of the original
dimensions of the object.

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Buckling
Buckling occurs to thin sheet
materials when they are subjected
to end loads and if subjected to
compressive forces.

Elasticity
Property of matter by virtue of which
an object regains its original shape
and size is called elasticity.

Elastic Limit
Maximum load a material can take and sustain it elastic property
or elasticity.
If any load takes the structure beyond the elastic limit, the
permanent deformation will take place(DGCA)

Design Limit Load (DLL)

This is the maximum load that the designer would expect the
airframe or component to experience in service.
These values are based on ‘g’-forces and derived from failure
values determined experimentally at the design stage.

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Design Ultimate Load (DUL)

The DUL is the DLL × the safety factor.
DUL=DLL × SAFETY FACTOR
The minimum safety factor specified in design requirements is
1.5.
The structure must withstand DUL without collapse.

Safety Factor
The safety factor is the ratio of the ultimate load to the limit load.

Design Philosophies
Safe Life
The safe life of an aircraft structure is defined as the minimum
life during which it is known that no catastrophic damage
should occur.
Life-counts for components of assemblies may be recorded
as a number of flying hours, cycles of landing, pressurization
events, accelerations or even on a calendar basis.
After the elapsed life-count or fatigue cycle (typically
pressurisations or landings) has been reached, the item is
replaced or overhauled.
In the operational life of the aircraft, and to minimize the chances
of failure due to fatigue, aircraft designers apply the principle of
Fail-safe construction or Damage tolerance.

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Fail-safe Structure
If failure of a critical subsystem will cause severe losses, back-up
systems are often employed, for example, commercial aircraft
have a minimum of two engines.
They are designed such that fully loaded airplane can take-off
even if one engine fails.
If a structure element fails, the load it was carrying will be
transferred to the other member.

Damage Tolerant structure

Fail-safe structures are rather heavy due to the extra structural
members required to protect the integrity of the structure.
Damage tolerant structure eliminates the extra structural
members by spreading the loading of a particular structure over a
larger area.
This means that the structure is designed so that damage can be
detected during the normal inspection cycles before a failure
occurs.

Fatigue
Weakness in metal or other material caused by repeated
variation of stress.
Repeatedly applied and then removed a nominal load to and from
a metal part(Known as cyclic load), the part would break after a
certain number of load-unload cycle, even when the maximum
cyclic stress level applied was much lower that the ultimate
stress

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This behaviour became to be known as fatigue because it was

originally thought the metal got tired.

Station Numbers
A method of locating components on the aircraft must be
established in order that maintenance and repairs can be carried
out.
Stations: Designate location along the length of the a/c.
Station numbers are given in inches Forward or aft

Water Line: Vertical position from a ground line or horizontal

datum.

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Buttock line: Designate location left/right on the A/c.

Aircraft Structures
Fuselage
The fuselage is the main structure or body of the aircraft and
carries the aircraft payload i.e. the passengers and/or freight as
well as the flight crew and cabin staff in safe, comfortable
conditions.

Pressurized Aircraft
Structures must also be capable of supporting the axial and hoop
stresses imposed by the pressurization forces.

Axial Stress/Longitudinal Stress

Set up in the fuselage of aircraft
when pressurized and tend to
elongate the fuselage.

Hoop Stress/Radial Stress

Hoop or radial stresses are set up in addition to axial stress and
tend to expand fuselage cross section area.
“SHAPE OF THE FUSELAGE IS CIRCULAR”(DGCA)
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Fuselage Construction
There are three main types of construction in use:
Truss or framework type generally used for light, non-
pressurized, aircraft.

Monocoque - Generally used for light aircraft

Semi-monocoque is more widely used on most other aircraft.

This type of structure is now generally referred to as Stressed
Skin.

Framework

Framework consists of light gauge

steel tubes welded together to
form a frame.
It is a strong, easily constructed
and relatively trouble free basic
structure.
The framework is covered by a lightweight aluminium alloy or
fabric skin to give an enclosed, aerodynamically efficient load
carrying compartment.

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Monocoque Construction
All the loads are taken by the
skin with just light internal
frames or formers to give the
required shape.
Even slight damage to the skin
can seriously weaken the
structure.
Extra strength needs to be built
in around holes in the structure for windows, doors or
undercarriages as these will weaken the structure.
This type of construction is only suitable for smaller aircraft.

Semi-monocoque Construction
As aircraft became larger and the
air loads greater the pure
monocoque structure was not
strong enough
Additional structural members
known as stringers (stiffeners)
and longerons were added to run
lengthwise along the fuselage
joining the frames together. (DGCA)
The light alloy skin is then attached to the frames and stringers by
riveting or adhesive bonding.
Stringers stiffen the skin and assist the sheet materials to
carry loads along their length.

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Frames
Frames are vertical structures that
are open in their centre.
They are designed to take the major
loads and give the aircraft its shape

Bulkheads
The bulkheads are similar to frames
but are usually solid but may have
access doors.
They are also designed to give the
fuselage its shape and take some of the main loads.

Firewalls
There has to be means of separating the flight deck and cabin
from the engine. This is called a firewall.
The firewall is required to protect the flight crew and passengers
in the event of an engine fire.

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Flight Deck and Passenger Cabin Windows

Flight Deck Windows
The flight deck windows fitted to
pressurized aircraft must withstand
both the loads of pressurization and
impact loads from birdstrikes.
An electrically conducting coating,
applied to the inside of the outer glass
panel is used to heat the window.
This prevents ice from forming and
makes the window more resilient and able to withstand
birdstrikes.
“WINDOW CONSISTS OF FIVE LAYERS”

Direct Vision (DV) Windows

An opening window, normally referred to as a DV window must be
provided in the control cabin to enable the pilot to land the aircraft
safely should forward vision be restricted.
The DV window can be used in the event of a failure of the
demisting system.
Can be opened in flight if the aircraft is depressurized.
Depending on size, may also be used as an emergency exit.

Mainplanes (Wings)

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Biplane
Braced monoplane
Cantilever monoplane

Biplane
Highly resistant to
bending and twisting.
Used on low speed A/C.
Produces More Drag.

Braced Monoplane
Also used on low speed
aircraft.

Cantilever Monoplane
The mainplanes(wings) have to
absorb the stresses due to lift
and drag in flight and, if of
cantilever design, their own
weight when on the ground.
This will be achieved by building the wing around one or more
main load bearing members known as spars.
These are constructed so that they will absorb the downwards
bending stresses when the aircraft is on the ground.

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However when the aircraft is in flight the wing not only has to have
the flexibility to bend upwards but needs enough stiffness to
resist the torsional loads which will cause twisting.
Bending stress relief mounting the engines on the wing and
positioning the major fuel tanks within the wing. During flight
the fuel in the wing tanks is the last to be used.
Note: The maximum bending moment occurs at the wing root.

TORSION BOX STRUCTURE

Front spar and rear
spar: (Bending and
twisting)Constructed so
that they will absorb the
downward bending
stress when on the
ground and the
upwards, rearwards and
twisting stress when in
flight.
Skin: takes the loads
due to differences in air
pressures and the mass
and inertia of the fuel (if
any) in the wing tanks.
Stringers: are spanwise
members giving the wing rigidity by stiffening the skin in
compression.
Ribs: these maintain the aerofoil shape of the wings, support
the spars, stringers and skin against buckling and pass

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concentrated loads from engines, landing gear and control

surfaces into the skin and spars.

Questions
1. What is the purpose of the wing main spar?
a. To withstand bending and torsional loads
b. To withstand compressive and torsional loads
c. To withstand compressive and shear loads
d. To withstand bending and shear loads
2. What is the purpose of wing ribs?
a. To withstand the fatigue stresses
b. To shape the wing and support the skin
c. To house the fuel and the landing gear
d. To provide local support for the skin
3. What is the purpose of stringers?
a. To absorb the torsional and compressive stresses
b. To produce stress risers and support the fatigue metres
c. To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and
stiffening the skin
d. To support the primary control surfaces
4. The airframe structure must remain substantially intact
after experiencing:
a. the design ultimate load times a 1.5 safety factor
b. the design limit load plus the design ultimate load
c. three times the safety factor

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d. the design limit load times a 1.5 factor of safety

5. In the construction of airframes the primary purpose of
frames or formers is to:
a. provide a means of attaching the stringers and skin panels
b. oppose hoop stresses and provide shape and form to the
fuselage
c. form the entrance door posts
d. support the wings
6. How can wing bending moments be reduced in flight?
a. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and keeping the centre section
fuel tanks full for as long as possible
b. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and using the fuel in the wings
last
c. By having tail-mounted engines and using aileron ‘down-
float’
d. By having wing-mounted engines and using the wing fuel
first
7. Regarding a safe life structure:
1. will only fail after a known number of operations or hours of
use.
2. should not fail until a predicted number of fatigue cycles
has been achieved.
3. has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify
faults.
4. is changed before its predicted life is reached.
a. 1 and 2 apply
b. 1 and 3 apply
c. 2, 3 and 4 apply
d. all of the above apply.
8. A fail-safe structure:
1. has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify
faults.
2. is changed before its predicted life is reached.

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3. has redundant strength which will tolerate a certain amount

of structural damage.
4. is secondary structure of no structural significance.
a. 1 and 2 apply
b. 1 and 3 apply
c. 3 and 4 apply
d. all of the above apply
9. The skin of a modern pressurized aircraft:
a. is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the
monocoque principle
b. houses the crew and the payload
c. provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by
keeping out adverse weather
d. is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the
structural loads
10. The primary purpose of the fuselage is to:
a. support the wings
b. house the crew and payload
c. keep out adverse weather
d. provide access to the cockpit
11. Station numbers (Stn) and water lines (WL) are:
a. a means of locating airframe structure and components
b. passenger seat locations
c. runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal
d. compass alignment markings
12. Flight deck windows are constructed from:
a. an amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber
pressure seals
b. strengthened glass with shock absorbing clear vinyl
interlayers and rubber pressure seals
c. strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conducting
coat for de-icing and rubber pressure seals
d. strengthened glass with rubber seals
13. A cantilever wing:
a. is externally braced with either struts and/or bracing wires
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b. is supported at one end only with no external bracing

c. has both an upper an lower aerofoil section
d. folds at the root section to ease storage in confined
spaces
14. A torsion box:
a. is a structure within the fuselage to withstand
compression, bending and twisting loads
b. is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and
ribs to resist bending and twisting loads
c. is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks,
flight controls and landing gear
d. is a structure designed to reduce the weight
15. A lightening hole in a rib:
a. prevents lightning strikes damaging the fuselage
b. provides a means of passing cables and controls through
a pressure bulkhead
c. collects and disposes of electrical charges
d. lightens and stiffens the structure
16. Control surface flutter:
a. provides additional lift for take-off and landing in the
event of engine failure
b. occurs at high angles of attack
c. is a destructive vibration that must be damped out within
the flight envelope
d. is a means of predicting the critical safe life of the wing
17. Control surface flutter is minimized by:
a. reducing the moment of the critical engine
b. aerodynamic balance of the control cables
c. changing the wings before they reach their critical life
d. mass balance of the control surface
18. A damage tolerant structure:
a. has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over
a large area

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b. is light, non load bearing structure, damage to which will

not adversely affect the aircraft
c. is replaced when it reaches its predicted life
d. need not be repaired until the aircraft undergoes deep
maintenance
19. Aircraft structures consists mainly of:
a. light alloy steel sheets with copper rivets and titanium or
steel materials at points requiring high strength
b. magnesium alloy sheets with aluminium rivets and
titanium or steel at points requiring high strength
c. aluminium alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel
materials at points requiring high strength
d. aluminium sheets and rivets with titanium or steel
materials at points requiring high strength
20. The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) of an aircraft is:
a. the maximum permissible take-off mass of the aircraft
b. the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with no
usable fuel
c. the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with zero
payload
d. the maximum permissible landing mass
Answers

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

a b c d b b c b d b a b

13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

b b d c d a c b

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TOPIC NO.-2
HYDRAULICS
• Hydraulics is the science relating to the behaviour of
liquids under various conditions and in aircraft the hydraulic
system provides a means of operating large and remote
components that it would not be possible to operate
satisfactorily by other means.
• Hydraulic systems provide the power for the operation of
components such as landing gear, flaps, flight controls,
wheel brakes, windshield wipers etc.
Pascal’s Law
• “If a force is applied to a liquid in a
confined space, then this force will
be felt equally in all directions”.
• Hydraulic pressure is created only
when an attempt is made to
compress fluid.

FORCE = PRESSURE × AREA

PRESSURE = FORCE PER UNIT AREA
FORCE = TOTAL LOAD AVAILABLE

Bramah’s Press

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• Smaller the area under

load, the greater the
pressure generated.

• Larger the area under

pressure, the greater
will be the load
available.

• FORCE × DISTANCE
(piston A) = FORCE × DISTANCE (piston B)

• 1000 × 0.6 = 2000 × the distance moved by piston ‘B’

• so the distance moved by piston ‘B’ = 0.3 m

Passive Hydraulic System

• A passive
hydraulic
system is
one in
which there
is no pump
and
pressure is
only produced when a force is applied to a piston.
• A good example of this would be a light aircraft braking
system.
The ideal properties of a hydraulic fluid are:
Incompressible(ensuring Non-flammable.
instantaneous operation.)

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Good lubricating properties. Resistant to evaporation, low

volatility. (how easy a
substance will vaporize)

Good viscosity with a high freedom from sludging and

boiling point and low freezing foaming.
point

flash point above 100°C. Non-corrosive.

Reasonably priced and Chemically Inert

readily available

HYDRAULIC FLUID TYPES (DGCA)

DEF STAN 91-48 SKYDROL
Colour - Red Purple
Used with synthetic rubber Used with synthetic rubber
seals (Neoprene) seals (Butyl).
Mineral based oil Synthetic Fluid
FLAMMABLE fire resistant

“Hydraulic fluids should be handled with care as they are

considered to be a skin and eye irritant.”

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Seals
Seals perform a very important
function in a hydraulic system,
in preventing leakage of
fluid.

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Basic Hydraulic system System

There are six main components
common to all hydraulic systems:
1. Reservoir of oil, which
delivers oil to the pump and
receives oil from the actuators.

2. Pump, either hand, engine or

electrically driven.

3. Selector or control valve,

enabling the operator to select
the direction of the flow of fluid
to the required service and
providing a return path for the
oil to the reservoir.

4. a jack, or set of jacks or actuators, to actuate the

component.

5. a filter, to keep the fluid clean.

6. a relief valve, as a safety device to relieve excess

pressure.

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Reservoirs
A reservoir provides
storage space for the
system fluid, It also
provides sufficient air
space to allow for any
variations of
fluid.(DGCA)

Air pressure is normally

supplied from the
compressor section of
the engine or the cabin
pressurization system.
A reservoir also contains a relief valve, to prevent over
pressurization; connections for suction pipes to the pumps,
and return pipes from the system;

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Filters
Filters are fitted in both
suction and pressure lines
i.e. both sides of the
pump and sometimes in
the return line to the
reservoir;
a suction filter to protect
the pump,
a pressure filter to ensure
the cleanliness of fluid
during use.
They remove foreign
particles from the fluid,
and protect the seals and
working surfaces in the
components.
Some filters are fitted with
a device which senses the pressure differential across the
filter element, and releases a visual indicator, in the form of a
button or illuminates a warning lamp, when the pressure
differential increases as a result of the filter becoming
clogged.
CASE DRAIN FILTERS- to enable pump lubricating fluid to
be used to monitor pump condition

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Pumps

Draw oil from the

reservoir and deliver a
supply of fluid to the
system. Pumps may be:
Hand operated
Engine driven
Electric motor driven
Pneumatically (air
turbine motor) (ATM)
Ram air turbine
(HYDRAT or RAT)
Hydraulically (Hyd. motor driving a hyd. pump). Known as a
Power Transfer Unit or PTU.

Hand Pumps: may be the only source of power in a small,

light aircraft hydraulic system, but in larger aircraft are
employed: To allow ground servicing to take place without
the need for engine running. (DGCA)
so that lines and joints can be pressure tested.
so that cargo doors etc., can be operated without power.

The hand pump is usually a double acting pump (delivers

oil on both strokes) in a very compact body.

Engine driven pumps (EDP) or electrically driven pumps may be

classified as follows:

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Constant Delivery (Fixed Volume) Type Pump(ACOV)

Constant Pressure (Variable Volume) Pump

Constant Delivery (Fixed

Volume) Type Pump.
This pump supplies fluid at a
constant rate and therefore
needs an automatic cut-out
or relief valve to return the
fluid to the reservoir when the
jacks have reached the end of
their travel, and when the system is not operating, it requires an
idling circuit.
This pump is usually a single or double stage gear pump giving a
large flow at a small pressure.

Constant Pressure (Variable Volume) Pump. (DGCA)

This pump supplies fluid at a variable volume and controls its
own pressure, this type of pump is typically fitted in modern
aircraft whose systems operate at 3000-4000 psi.

Automatic Cut-out Valves (ACOV)

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• An automatic cut-out valve

(ACOV) is fitted to a system
employing a constant delivery
(fixed volume) pump, to
control system pressure and to
provide the pump with an idling
circuit when no services have
been selected.
• An accumulator is fitted as part of the power system when a
cut-out is fitted.
• The accumulator maintains the system pressure when
the pump is in its ‘cut-out’ position.

Hydraulic Accumulators
• An accumulator is fitted:
• to store hydraulic fluid
under pressure.

• to provide an
emergency supply of
fluid to the system in the
event of pump failure.

• Rapid fluctuations of system pressure which can be felt

and heard as ‘hammering’ in the system.(DGCA)

Hydraulic Jacks (Actuators)

Purpose: To convert fluid flow into linear or rotary
motion.(Hydraulic pressure into mechanical movement)

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Construction:
They vary in size
and construction
depending on the
operating loads,
but all consist of:
An outer
cylinder in which
slides a piston
and seal
assembly.
Types of Jacks (Actuators). Three types of jack are used for
different purposes

Single Acting.
Is normally used as a locking device,
The lock being engaged by spring pressure and released by
hydraulic pressure.
A typical application is a landing gear downlock.
Double Acting Unbalanced.
Is used in most aircraft systems.
Therefore, the operation which offers the greater resistance
is carried out in the direction in which the piston rod extends;
for example, in raising the landing gear.
Double Acting Balanced Jack.
equal force can be applied to both sides of the piston,
is often used in applications such as nose wheel steering
and flying control boost systems.
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Hydraulic Lock (DGCA)

When fluid is trapped between the piston of the jack and a
non-return valve, a “hydraulic lock” is said to be formed.
Because the fluid is incompressible and is unable to flow
through the system.

Pressure Control (DGCA)

Relief valves are used for:

expansion (thermal relief).
ultimate system protection (full flow relief).
mechanical overload protection (flap relief).

All act as safety devices to relieve excess pressure in the

system back to reservoir.

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Pressure Maintaining
Valves. or priority
valve, is basically a
relief valve which
maintains the pressure
in a primary service at a
value suitable for
operation of that
service, regardless of
secondary service requirements.

Pressure Reducing
Valves. A pressure
reducing valve is often used
to reduce main system
pressure to a value
suitable for operation of a
service such as the wheel
brakes.
Brake Control Valves. is essentially a variable pressure
reducing valve, which controls pressure in the brake
system according to the position of the pilot’s brake pedals,
the anti-skid system and autobrake selections as required.

Flow Control

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Non-return Valves:
The most common device used
to control the flow of fluid is the
non-return valve, which
permits full flow in one
direction, but blocks flow in the opposite direction.
This valve is also known as a One Way Check valve or Non-
reversible valve.
One Way Restrictor Valves (or choke):
A restrictor valve may
be similar in
construction to a non-
return valve, but a
restrictor valve is
designed to permit
limited flow in one
direction and full flow in the other direction;

A restrictor valve is used in a number of locations in order to

limit the speed of operation of an actuator in one direction
only. It may, for instance, be used to slow down flap
retraction or landing gear extension (up line for both).

Shuttle Valves. (DGCA)

• These are often used
in landing gear and
brake systems, to
enable an alternate
system to operate
the same actuators as the normal system.
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Sequence Valves. (DGCA)

• Sequence valves
are often fitted in
a landing gear
circuit to ensure
correct operation
of the landing
gear doors and
jacks.

Questions
1. A force of 100 N is applied to 2 separate jacks, the area of
one is 0.02 m2 and the other is 0.04 m2:
a. the smaller jack will exert a pressure of 2000 Pa and the
larger 4000 Pa

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b. the smaller jack will exert a pressure of 5000 Pa and the

larger 2500 Pa
c. both jacks will move at the same speed
d. both have the same load
2. A pre charge pressure of 1000 bar of gas is shown on the
accumulator gauge. The system is then pressurized to 1500
bar, so the accumulator will read:
a. 500 bar
b. 1000 bar
c. 1500 bar
d. 2500 bar
3. The pressure gauge of a hydraulic system provides
information regarding the pressure of:
a. the air in the accumulator
b. the air and hydraulic fluid in the system
c. the proportional pressure in the system
d. the hydraulic fluid in the system
4. A shuttle valve:
a. is used to replace NRVs
b. allows two supply sources to operate one unit
c. allows one source to operate two units
d. acts as a non-return valve
5. Def. Stan 91/48 is ---------- and is ------------- based:
a. red, mineral
b. red, synthetic
c. green, mineral
d. purple, synthetic
6. A restrictor valve:
a. is used to restrict the number of services available after
loss of system pressure
b. controls the rate of movement of a service
c. controls the rate of build-up of pressure in the system
d. controls the distance a jack moves
7. With a hyd lock there is:
a. flow, but no jack movement
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b. no flow but jack continues to move under gravitational

effects
c. no flow, jack is stationary
d. constant flow
8. The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is
replaced. This would lead to:
a. high operating fluid temperature
b. system failure from leaks and blocked filters, high temp
and possible corrosion
c. a rise in the reservoir fill level
d. normal operation, it does not matter which fluid is used
9. Accumulator floating piston:
a. pushes the fluid up when being charged
b. pushes the fluid down when being charged
c. provides a seal between the gas and fluid
d. prevents a hydraulic lock
10. A relief valve:
a. relieves below system pressure
b. maintains pressure to a priority circuit
c. relieves at its designed pressure
d. prevents excessive pressure through increased fluid
temperature
11. The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is:
a. to compensate for leaks, displacement and expansion
b. to allow a space into which spare fluid may be stored
c. to indicate system contents
d. to maintain fluid between a jack and the accumulator
12. With air in the hydraulic system you would:
a. ignore it because normal operation would remove it
b. bleed the air out of the system
c. allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself
d. expect it to operate faster
13. The pressure filter in a hydraulic system:
a. filters the fluid returning to the tank

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b. is fitted down stream of the pump

c. can be by passed when maximum flow is required
d. clears the fluid as it leaves the reservoir
14. Pascal’s law states that:
a. pressure is inversely proportional to load
b. liquid is compressible
c. oxygen can be used to charge the accumulators
d. applied force acts equally in all directions
15. A constant pressure hydraulic pump is governed by:
a. an automatic cut-out
b. engine RPM
c. a control piston
d. a swash plate that senses the fluid temperature
16. A high pressure hydraulic pump:
a. needs a positive fluid supply
b. does not need a positive fluid supply
c. outlet pressure is governed by centrifugal force
d. does not need a cooling fluid flow
17. Case drain filters are:
a. fitted to prevent debris from the reservoir reaching the
system
b. designed to allow hydraulic pump lubricating fluid to
drain to atmosphere
c. to enable pump lubricating fluid to be used to monitor
pump condition
d. fitted in the reservoir outlet
18. The purpose of an accumulator is to:
a. relieve excess pressure
b. store fluid under pressure
c. store compressed gas for tyre inflation
d. remove air from the system
19. With a one way check valve (NRV):
a. flow stops when input pressure is greater than output
pressure

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b. flow stops when the thermal relief valve off loads the
hand pump
c. flow starts when input pressure is less than output
pressure
d. flow stops when input pressure is less than output
pressure
20. A restrictor valve is physically fitted in the:
a. U/C up line and flap up line
b. U/C down line and flap up line
c. U/C down line and flap down line
d. supply line to the U/C retraction actuator
21. In the case of a failure of a cut-out valve:
a. a full flow relief valve is fitted down stream of it
b. a full flow relief valve is fitted upstream of it
c. a full flow relief valve is not required
d. the terminal pressure will be controlled by adjusting the
pump rpm
22. Hydraulic pressure of 3000 Pa is applied to an actuator,
the piston area of which is 0.02 m2 and the same pressure is
exerted on actuator whose area is 0.04 m2:
a. both have the same force
b. both jacks will move at the same speed
c. the smaller jack will exert a force of 600 N and the larger
1200 N
d. the smaller jack will exert a force of 60 N and the larger
120 N
23. A separator in an accumulator:
a. isolates the gas from the fluid
b. reduces the size of the accumulator required
c. removes the dissolved gases from the fluid
d. maintains the fluid level in the reservoir
24. In an operating hydraulic actuator the pressure of the fluid
will be:

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a. greatest near to the actuator due to the load imposed on

the jack
b. greatest at the opposite end to the actuator due to the
load imposed on the actuator
c. high initially, falling as the actuator completes its travel
d. the same at all points
25. The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir are checked.
They indicate that the reservoir is at the full level. The system
is then pressurized. The contents level will:
a. fall below the “full” mark
b. fall to a position marked ‘full accs charged’
c. remain at the same level
d. rise above the “full” mark
26. A pressure maintaining or priority valve:
a. enables ground operation of services when the engines
are off
b. is used to ensure available pressure is directed to
essential services
c. is used to control pressure to services requiring less than
system pressure
d. is used to increase pressure in the system
27. A hydraulic lock occurs:
a. when the thermal RV operates
b. when fluid by passes a system and returns to the tank
c. when flow is stopped and the actuator is not able to move
d. when fluid and air enters the cylinder and only fluid is
allowed to bypass to the reservoir
28. In an enclosed system pressure is felt:
a. more at the piston head than the rest of the cylinder
b. more at the cylinder end than the piston head
c. more when the piston is moving than when it is stationary
d. the same at both ends between the piston and the
cylinder head
29. A non-return valve:
a. can only be fitted if provided with a by-pass selector
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b. closes if inlet pressure exceeds outlet pressure

c. opens if inlet pressure equals outlet pressure
d. closes if inlet pressure ceases
30. Low gas pressure in accumulator causes:
a. rapid jack movements
b. no effect on system
c. rapid pressure fluctuations while system is operating
d. rapid and smooth operation of system
31. Hammering in system:
a. is normal and does not affect the system’s efficiency
b. is caused by pipe diameter fluctuations
c. is an indication that a further selection is necessary
d. is detrimental to the system
32. The specification of hydraulic fluids, mineral, vegetable or
ester based is:
a. always distinguishable by taste and smell
b. generally distinguishable by colour
c. generally distinguishable by colour only if they are from
the same manufacturer
d. cannot be distinguished by colour alone
33. An ACOV will:
a. provide an idling circuit when a selection is made
b. extend the life of the accumulator
c. provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is fully
charged
d. ensure the pump is always on load
34. The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to:
a. allow the parking brake to remain on overnight if required
b. allow a reduced pressure to the wheel brake system to
prevent the wheels locking
c. prevent over pressurizing the reservoir as altitude
increases
d. prevent total loss of system fluid if the brake pipeline is
ruptured

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35. A shuttle valve will allow:

a. the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down
b. the pressure pump to off load when the system pressure
is reached
c. two independent pressure sources to operate a
system/component
d. high pressure fluid to return to the reservoir if the Full
Flow Relief Valve fails
36. The purpose of a reservoir is to:
a. compensate for temperature changes
b. compensate for small leaks, expansion and jack
displacement
c. compensate for fluid loss
d. minimize pump cavitation
37. When the hydraulic system pressure is released:
a. reservoir air pressure will increase
b. reservoir fluid contents will rise if reservoir is lower than
other components in the system
c. reservoir fluid contents will fall if reservoir is the highest
point in the system
d. reservoir contents are dumped overboard
38. Hydraulic pressure in a closed system:
a. is greater in pipes of larger diameters
b. is greater in pipes of smaller diameters
c. does not vary with pipe diameter
d. varies in direct proportion to the system demands
39. Skydrol hydraulic fluid:
a. needs no special safety precautions or treatment
b. is flame resistant but is harmful to skin, eyes and some
paints
c. is highly flammable and harmful to skin, eyes and some
paints
d. is highly flammable but not harmful in any other way
40. Skydrol hydraulic fluid can be used to replenish:

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a. any hydraulic system without restriction

b. hydraulic systems that have butyl rubber seals only
c. any hydraulic system in an emergency
d. hydraulic systems that have neoprene seals only
41. A variable displacement pump on system startup will be
at:
a. minimum stroke
b. an optimized position depending on fluid viscosity
c. maximum stroke
d. mid stroke
42. The purpose of a reservoir is:
a. to provide a housing for the instrument transmitters
b. to enable the contents to be checked
c. to allow for fluid displacements, small leaks, thermal
expansion and contents monitoring
d. to provide a housing for the main system pumps and so
obviate the need for backing pumps
43. Hydraulic Thermal Relief Valves are fitted:
a. to release all the pressure back to return in an overheat
situation
b. to release half the pressure back to return in an overheat
situation
c. to relieve excess pressure back to the actuator in an
overheat situation
d. in isolated lines only to relieve excess pressure caused by
temperature rises
44. A main system hydraulic pump:
a. does not need a positive fluid supply if primed before
startup
b. always needs a positive fluid supply in order to prevent
cavitation
c. does not need a positive fluid supply in order to prevent
cavitation
d. can be run dry without causing any damage

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45. Different diameter actuators supplied with the same

pressure at same rate:
a. exert the same force
b. will lift equal loads
c. will move at the same speed
d. exert different forces
46. A force of 1500 N is applied to a piston of area 0.002 m² and
generates a force of---- -(1)------non a piston of area 0.003 m².
The pressure generated is -----(2)----- and, if the smaller piston
moves 0.025 m, the work done is -----(3)------.
a. (1) 56.25 J (2) 750 000 Pa (3) 750 000 N
b. (1) 750 000 N (2) 2250 P (3) 56.25 J
c. (1) 225 N (2) 75 000 Pa (3) 562.5 J
d. (1) 2250 N (2) 750 000 Pa (3) 37.5 J
47. The following statements relate to hydraulic
accumulators. The function of an accumulator is to:
1. Store fluid under pressure
2. Dampen pressure fluctuations
3. Allow for fluid expansion
4. Replace the need for a reservoir
5. Absorb some of the landing loads
6. Allow for thermal expansion
7. Prolong the period between pump cut-in and cut-out
8. Provide the initial pressure when a selection is made and
the pump is cut-out
9. Provide an emergency reserve of pressure in the event of
pump failure
Which of the following applies?
a. All of the statements are correct
b. None of the statements are correct
c. Statements 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 8 and 9 are correct
d. Statements 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, and 9 are correct
48. The seal materials used with hydraulic fluids to DEF/STAN
91-48 and SKYDROL 700 specification are respectively:

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a. natural rubber and neoprene

b. neoprene and natural rubber
c. butyl and neoprene
d. neoprene and butyl
49. To prevent cavitation of the pump a hydraulic reservoir
may be:
a. pressurized
b. bootstrapped
c. above the pump
d. all of the above
50. A hand pump is usually fitted for:
a. ground servicing purposes
b. lowering the landing gear in an emergency
c. pressurizing the oleo struts in the air
d. retracting the gear after take-off

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TOPIC NO.-3
LANDING GEAR
The functions of the landing gear are:
• To provide a means of manoeuvring the aircraft on the
ground.

• To support the aircraft at a convenient height to give

clearance for propellers and flaps, etc. and to facilitate
loading.

• To absorb the kinetic energy of landing and provide a

means of controlling deceleration.

Landing Gear Types –

Fixed
Retractable
Fixed Landing Gear
Three types of fixed landing gear:
Spring steel leg,
Rubber cord
Oleo-pneumatic strut
Spring Steel Legs.

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• Spring steel legs are usually

employed at the main
undercarriage positions.

• The leg consists of a tube,

or strip of tapered spring steel, the upper end being
attached by bolts to the fuselage and the lower end
terminating in an axle on which the wheel and brake are
assembled.

Rubber Cord.
• When rubber cord is used as a shock-absorb, the
undercarriage is usually in the form of tubular struts,
designed and installed so that the landing force is directed

against a number of turns of rubber in the form of grommet

or loop.

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Oleo-pneumatic Struts.
• Some fixed main undercarriages,
and most fixed nose
undercarriages, are fitted with an
oleo-pneumatic shock absorber
strut.

CONSTRUCTION
• The outer cylinder is fixed rigidly
to the airframe structure, and
houses an inner cylinder and a
piston assembly.

• The interior space being partially

filled with hydraulic fluid and inflated with compressed
gas (air or nitrogen).

• The inner cylinder is free to rotate and move up and down

within the outer cylinder, but these movements are limited
by the torque links, (scissor-links) which connect the
inner cylinder to the steering collar.
• The steering collar arms are connected through spring struts
to the rudder pedals, and a shimmy damper is attached to
the steering collar.
Oleo-pneumatic Strut Operation

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• Under static conditions the weight

of the aircraft is balanced by the
strut gas pressure and the inner
cylinder takes up a position
approximately midway up its stroke.

• Under compression (e.g. when

landing), the strut shortens and fluid
is forced through the gap between
the piston orifice and the metering
rod, this restriction limiting the
speed of upward movement of the
inner cylinder.

• As the internal volume of the

cylinders decreases, the gas
pressure rises until it balances the upward force.

• As the upward force decreases, the gas pressure acts as a

spring and extends the inner cylinder. The speed of
extension is limited by the restricted flow of fluid through
the orifice.

• Normal taxiing bumps are cushioned by the gas pressure

and dampened by the limited flow of fluid through the
orifice.

• Movement of the rudder pedals turns the nose wheel to

facilitate ground manoeuvres, the spring struts being
provided to allow for vertical movement of the nose
wheel, and prevent shocks from being transmitted through
the rudder control system.

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Retractable Landing Gear

• Improve aircraft performance by reducing drag.

• Retraction is normally effected by a hydraulic system,
but pneumatic or electrical systems are also used.

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• Retractable
landing gear is also
provided with
mechanical locks
to ensure that each
undercarriage is
locked securely in
the retracted and
extended
positions.
• Devices to indicate
to the crew the
position of each undercarriage; and means by which
the landing gear can be extended in the event of failure
of the power source.(Three green DOWN & LOCKED)
• Means are provided to prevent retraction with the
aircraft on the ground, and to guard against landing
with the landing gear retracted.

There are two main types of landing gear.

Nose wheel, which are often referred to as tricycle and tail
wheel aircraft that are also called tail draggers(DGCA)
Most aircraft use the “tricycle layout”, where the two main
undercarriage units are positioned just aft of the C of G and
support up to 90% of the aircraft’s weight and all initial landing
shocks.

Loads Sustained by the Landing Gear

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An undercarriage unit has to withstand varying loads during its life.

These loads are transmitted to the mountings in the aircraft
structure, so these too must be very strong. The loads sustained
are:
• Compressive (static and on touchdown).
• Rearward bending.
• Side (during crosswind landings, take-offs, and taxiing).
• Forwards (during push back).
• Torsional (ground manoeuvring).

Its design is complicated by several requirements:

• Castoring.
• Self-centring.
• Steering.
• Anti-shimmy.
• Withstand shear loads.

Castoring
• Castoring is the ability of the nose wheel to turn to
either side in response to the results of differential braking or
aerodynamic forces on the rudder.

Self-centring
• Automatic self-centring of the nose wheel is essential
prior to landing gear retraction.
• If the nose gear is not in a central position prior to its
retraction, the restricted space available for its stowage will

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not be sufficient and severe damage may be caused to the

aircraft structure as the hydraulic system forces the gear
upwards.
• Centring is achieved by either a spring loaded cam or
a hydraulic dashpot.

Nose Wheel Steering

• Steering is required to enable the pilot to manoeuvre the
aircraft safely on the ground. Early methods involved the
use of differential braking.
• Powered steering using hydraulic systems are now
common to most large commercial aircraft, allowing the
engines to be set at the minimum thrust for taxiing, thereby
saving fuel.
• This method of steering is more accurate and also reduces
tyre and brake wear and noise pollution.
Steering is controlled, depending on the type of aircraft, by:
• A separate steering wheel.
• Operation of rudder pedals.

• Incorporated in the steering system are:

• Self-centring jack.
• Shimmy damper.

Nose Wheel Shimmy

• Due to the flexibility of tyre side walls, an unstable, rapid
sinusoidal oscillation or vibration known as shimmy is
induced into the nose undercarriage.

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• Excessive shimmy, especially at high speeds, can set up

vibrations throughout the aircraft and can be dangerous.
• Worn or broken torque links, wear in the wheel bearings
and uneven tyre pressures can all increase the tendency
to shimmy.

• Shimmy can be reduced in several ways:

Provision of a hydraulic lock across the steering jack piston.
Fitting a hydraulic damper.
Fitting heavy self-centring springs.
Double nose wheels.

A Hydraulic Gear Retraction System

• A hydraulic system for retracting and extending a landing
gear normally takes its power from engine driven pumps,
alternative system being available in case of pump failure.
• This type of system normally provides for powered
retraction of the landing gear, extension being by ‘free-
fall’,
• On some light aircraft a self-contained ‘power pack’ is used,
which houses a reservoir and selector valves for the landing
gear and flap systems.

Gear Position Indication(DGCA)

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Many large aircraft also have main gear door lock indicators to
confirm the doors are locked in their correct position.

To prevent inadvertent retraction of the landing gear when the

aircraft is resting on its wheels, a safety device is incorporated
which prevents movement of the selector lever.
This safety device consists of a spring-loaded plunger which
retains the selector in the down position and is released by the
operation of a solenoid.
Electrical power to the solenoid is controlled by a switch mounted
on the shock absorber strut (part of the air\ground logic circuits).
When the strut is compressed the switch is open, but as the strut
extends after take-off, the switch contacts close and the
electrical supply to the solenoid is completed, thus releasing the
selector lever lock and allowing the landing gear to be selected up.
Ground Locks
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Ground locks or landing gear

locking pins are a further safety
feature which is intended to prevent
collapse of the gear when the
aircraft is unpowered on the
ground.
They will usually consist of pins or
metal sleeves which interfere
unpowered with the operation of the
gear in such a way that it is
impossible for the gear to move when
they are in position.
They are fitted with warning flags
which should prevent the crew from
getting airborne with them still in
position on the gear. This can be prevented by ensuring that the
ground locks are removed before flight and stowed on board
the aircraft and the flight crew are informed that they have
been removed and stowed safely on the aircraft.

Air/Ground Logic System(DGCA)

Inevitably there are systems of all types which need to be selected
on or off in response to the criterion of whether the aircraft is
airborne or not.

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This effect can be obtained by merely placing microswitches or

the main landing gear oleos so that their position will be changed
when the weight of the aircraft compresses the oleo, or
alternatively, on take-off, when the weight of the wheel and bogie
assembly extends the oleo.

Topic No.-5
AIRCRAFT TYRES
Aircraft wheels are fitted with pneumatic tyres which may be
tubeless or have an inner tube.
Tubes tend to be fitted to light and older aircraft.

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Tyres are usually inflated with nitrogen which absorbs shock and
supports the weight of the aircraft.

Tyre Covers
The tyre cover consists of a
casing made of rubber
which is reinforced with
plies of cotton, rayon or
nylon cords.
During the construction of
the cover, the plies are
fitted in pairs and set so
that the cords of adjacent
plies are at 90 degrees to
one another in the case of
bias (cross-ply) tyres and
from bead to bead at approximately 90 degrees to the centre
line of the tyre in radial tyres.

To absorb and distribute load shocks, and protect the casing

from concussion damage, two narrow plies embedded in thick

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layers of rubber are situated between the casing and the tread,
these special plies are termed breaker strips

The casing is retained on the rim of the wheel by interlocking the

plies around inextensible steel wire coils to form ply overlaps,
this portion of the cover is known as the bead.
The tyre manufacturers give each tyre a ply rating. This rating
does not relate directly to the number of plies in the tyre, but is
the index of the strength of the tyre.

The Regions of the Tyre

CROWN
SHOULDER
SIDEWALL
BEAD

The most popular tread pattern is that

termed Ribbed, which has circumferential
grooves around the tyre to assist in water
dispersion and to help prevent
aquaplaning (hydroplaning).
Nose wheel tyres, particularly those fitted
to aircraft with the engines mounted on
the rear fuselage, may have a chine
moulded onto the shoulder.
This is to direct water away from the engine intakes and so
prevent flameouts due to water ingestion.

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Inner Tubes
An inner tube is manufactured by an extruding machine, which
forces a compound of hot rubber through a circular die, thus
producing a continuous length of tubing. The requisite length is
cut off, the ends are then butt welded and a valve is fitted.
The Inflation Valve
Each inflation valve operates as a non-return valve.
The valve core is not considered to be a perfect seal.
The inflation valve must always be fitted with a valve cap, the
valve cap also prevents dirt entering the valve.
Tubeless Tyres
These tyres are similar in construction to that of a conventional
cover for use with a tube, but an extra rubber lining is vulcanized
to the inner surface and the underside of the beads. This lining,
which retains the gas pressure, forms an gas tight seal on the
wheel rim.

Tyre Pressures

Low Pressure 25 - 35 psi , used on grass surfaces.

Medium Pressure 35 - 70 psi, used on grass surfaces or on

medium firm surfaces without a consolidated base.

High Pressure 70 - 90 psi, and is suitable for concrete runways.

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Extra High Pressure Over 90 psi (some tyres of this type are
inflated to 350 psi), the tyre is suitable for concrete runways.

RATED INFLATION PRESSURE

Creep is less likely to occur if the tyre air pressure is

correctly maintained.

This figure applies to a cold tyre not under load, that is, a
tyre not fitted to an aircraft.

Distortion of the tyre cover when the weight of the aircraft is

on it will cause the tyre pressure to rise by 4%. When
checking the tyre pressure of a cold tyre fitted to an aircraft
you should mentally add 4% to the rated tyre pressure.

During use, that is during taxiing, take-off or landing, the

tyres will become heated. This can cause up to a further
10% rise in tyre pressure.

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Aquaplaning(DGCA)

Aquaplaning is a phenomenon caused by a wedge of

water building up under the tread of the tyre and breaking
its contact with the ground.

Aquaplaning speed, in Nautical Miles per Hour, the speed

that the tyre loses contact can be found by applying the
formula.

AQUAPLANING SPEED = 9 √P (where P = the tyre pressure

in psi)
(OR) AQUAPLANING SPEED = 34 √P (where P = the tyre
pressure in kg/cm2, bar)

The possibility of aquaplaning increases as the depth of the

tread is reduced, it is therefore important that the amount of
tread remaining is accurately assessed

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Reduction of Tyre Wear

With the increased size of modern airports, taxi distances also
increase, thus increasing the amount of tyre wear and risk of
damage.
To minimize tyre wear therefore, it is recommended that a speed
of no more than 25 mph (40 kph) should be reached during taxi.
Over-inflation will cause excessive wear to the crown of
the tyres whilst under-inflation is the cause of excessive
shoulder wear.

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TOPIC NO.-6
Aircraft Brakes
In common with most braking systems, aircraft wheel brakes
function by using friction between a fixed surface and a moving
one to bring an aircraft to rest, converting kinetic energy into
heat energy.

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The amount of heat generated in stopping a large modern

aircraft, is enormous, the problem of dissipating this heat has
been a challenge to aircraft designers and scientists for years.
Plate or Disc Brakes
All modern aircraft now use plate brakes operated by hydraulic
systems as their means of slowing down or stopping (Similar to
car brakes)
light aircraft would be able to utilize a single plate disc brake.
large aircraft would be a multi-plate unit.
SINGLE PLATE DISC BRAKES(LIGHT
AIRCRAFTS)
• Small light aircraft typically
achieve effective braking using a
single disc keyed or bolted each
wheel.
• As the wheel turns so does the
disc.
• Braking is accomplished by applying friction to both sides
of the disc from a non rotating calliper bolted to the
landing gear axle flange.

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MULTI PLATE DISC BRAKE(LARGE AIRCRAFTS)

• The physical size of the
braking area has been
increased by employing
multiple brake plates
sandwiched between
layers or friction
material.
• Construction the rotating
plates (rotors) are keyed
to revolve with the outer
rim of the wheel.
• Stationary plates carrying the friction material (stators)
are keyed to remain stationary with the hub of the wheel
• In the unfortunate event of a wheel or brake fire, the best
extinguishant to use is dry powder(DGCA)
• Carbon is also used for manufacturing brake units because
it has much better heat absorbing and dissipating
properties.
• Carbon brakes are also much lighter .
• The disadvantage is their increased cost and shorter life.
• If the brakes become too hot, they will not be able to
absorb any further energy and their ability to retard (slow
down) the aircraft diminishes. This phenomenon is
termed Brake Fade.

Brake Release
• When the pilot releases the pressure on the brake
pedals, the brake adjuster assemblies will move the

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pressure plate away from the stators and rotor

assemblies, thus allowing them to move slightly apart.
• If the return spring inside the adjuster assembly ceases
to function, or if the unit is wrongly adjusted, then
they could be the cause of a brake not releasing
correctly. This is termed brake drag.

Brake Wear

• Aircraft brakes are

designed to give good
retardation, while at
the same time
avoiding excessive
wear of the brake
lining material.
• It is important that the
thickness of the
brake lining material
is carefully monitored.

There are several methods of determining the amount

of brake lining material which remains on the brake
unit, the following are just some of those methods.

• On multiple disc brake systems, the most popular

method of gauging the depth of brake lining material
remaining is by checking the amount that the
retraction pin (or the indicator pin, as it is sometimes
called) extends from (or intrudes within) the spring
housing with the brakes selected on.
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• If the brake is a single disc unit, the amount of brake

lining material remaining can be checked by once
again applying the brakes and measuring the distance
between the disc and the brake housing and ensuring
that it is no less than a minimum value.

Brake System Operation

• Operation of the brake pedals on the flight deck, allows
hydraulic fluid under pressure to move small pistons which,
by moving the pressure plate, force the stator pads against
the rotor plates, with the resultant friction slowing the plates
down.
▪ On a small aircraft the hydraulic pressure from
the brake pedals may be enough to arrest its
progress.
▪ On a large aircraft it is obvious that foot power
alone will be insufficient, some other source of
hydraulic power is required. This is supplied by
the aircraft main hydraulic system.

Brake Modulating Systems

• Optimum braking is important in the operation of modern
aircraft with their high landing speeds, low drag and high
weight, particularly when coupled with operation from short
runways in bad weather.
• The pilot is unable to sense when the wheels lock and so the
first requirement of a brake modulating system is to provide
anti-skid protection.
• Skidding wheel provides very little braking effect.

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Effects of Anti-skid Systems on Performance

• An anti-skid system will reduce the braking distance on
both take-off and landing.
• An inoperative anti-skid system will increase the take-off
and landing distances required.
Note Take-off is prohibited with an inoperative anti-skid
system on a wet runway

To enable the pilot to have full control of the brakes for

taxiing and manoeuvring, the anti-skid system is
deactivated, either manually or automatically, when the
aircraft has slowed down to below approximately 20
mph,(DGCA) it is assumed then that there is no further
danger of skidding

Autobrakes
• This system permits automatic braking when using the
normal brake system during landing rollout or during a
rejected take-off (RTO).
• The autobrake system is not available when using the
alternate brake system.
• Anti-skid protection is provided during autobrake
operation.
• With RTO selected, maximum brake pressure will be
applied automatically when all thrust levers are
closed at ground speeds above 85 knots.
Parking Brake

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• The parking brake handle operates a shut-off valve in

the return line to the reservoir from the anti-skid
valves.
• To apply the parking brake depress the foot pedals,
apply the parking brake lever, then release the foot
pedals.
• Hydraulic pressure is now trapped in the brakes
because the return line from the anti-skid valves is
closed.
• This will be capable of maintaining the brakes ‘on‘ for
overnight parking if required.

Brake Temperature Indicators

• Larger aircraft types, (B747, B777, A340, A380
etc.) may be fitted with Brake Temperature
Indicators.
• Sensors are arranged to sample the temperature
of the brakes of each individual wheel.
• The brake temperatures are constantly monitored
by the system, if the temperature of any brake
assembly rises above a predetermined level then
a “HIGH TEMP” indicator light illuminates.
• Should any brake temperature go above that level
at which the High Temp warning light illuminates,
then a brake “OVERHEAT” caption will come on.

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Questions
1. Oil is used in an oleo strut to:
a. support the weight of the aircraft
b. limit the speed of compression of the strut
c. lubricate the piston within the cylinder
d. limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut
2. The nose wheel assembly must be centred before
retraction because:
a. there is limited space in the nose wheel bay
b. the aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose
wheel is not straight
c. the tyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is
not straight
d. it will remove any slush or debris which may have
accumulated on take-off
3. The movement of the gear on lowering is normally damped
to:
a. prevent the fluid becoming aerated
b. counteract the force of gravity which would bring the gear
down too fast
c. make the lowering time greater than the raising time
d. prevent the hydraulic fluid becoming overheated
4. Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on the ground is:
a. not possible because the system is not powerful enough
b. prevented by the ground/air logic system
c. always a danger after the ground locks have been
removed
d. the responsibility of the first officer when he is on the
aircraft

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5. Creep (slippage):
a. is not a problem with tubeless tyres
b. refers to the movement of the aircraft against the brakes
c. alignment can rip out the inflation valve on tubed tyres,
and deflate the tyre
d. can be prevented by painting lines on the wheel and tyre
6. Tyre wear when taxiing can be reduced by:
a. restricting the use of brakes and using thrust reversers
b. taxiing at less than 40 kph
c. staying on the smoothest parts of the taxiway
d. taxiing at less than 25 knots
7. To prevent scrubbing the tyres while taxiing , you should:
a. use tyres with fusible plugs
b. make sharp turns only if you have high speed tyres fitted
c. turn no sharper than the minimum specified radius
d. deflate the tyres to a minimum pressure
8. The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is:
a. CO2
b. dry powder
c. freon
d. water

9. When inflating a tyre fitted to an aircraft, the tyre pressure

reading on the gauge should be modified by:
a. 10 psi
b. 10%
c. 4 psi
d. 4%
10. The most likely cause of brake fade is:
a. oil or grease on the brake drums
b. worn stators
c. the pilot reducing the brake pressure
d. the brake pads overheating
11. The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a
large aircraft comes from:

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a. the aircraft main hydraulic system

b. the pilots brake pedals
c. a self-contained power pack
d. the hydraulic reservoir
12. Which of the following statements will produce the
shortest landing run?
i. Crossing the threshold at the correct height and speed
ii. Applying full anti-skid braking as quickly as possible after
touchdown
iii. Using maximum pedal pressure but releasing the pressure
as the wheels start to skid
iv. The use of cadence braking
v. Use of minimum braking pressure early in the landing run
and maximum pressure towards the end
vi. Application of reverse thrust as early as possible in the
landing run
vii. Deployment of the lift dumpers/speed brakes as early as
possible in the landing run
a. (i), (ii), (vi), (vii)
b. (i), (iii), (vi), (vii)
c. (i), (iv), (vi), (vii)
d. (i), (v), (vi), (vii)
13. The formula which gives the minimum speed (VP) at which
aquaplaning may occur is:
a. VP = 9 × √P where P is kg/cm2 and VP is in knots
b. VP = 9 × √P where P is psi and VP is in mph
c. VP = 9 × √P where P is psi and VP is in knots
d. VP = 34 × √P where P is kg/cm2 and VP is in mph
14. An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi, its minimum
aquaplaning speed will be:
a. 135 mph
b. 135 knots
c. 145 knots
d. 145 mph

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15. Landing gear ground locking pins are:

a. fitted before flight to ensure the landing gear locks are
fully cocked
b. removed prior to flight and returned to stores
c. fitted after flight to maintain a hydraulic lock in the
downlock jack
d. removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where
they are visible to the crew
16. The most likely cause of brake unit dragging is:
a. dirt between the rotor and stator assemblies
b. grease on the rotor assembly
c. the brake pressure being too high
d. incorrect operation of the adjuster assemblies
17. A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is:
a. aircraft is overweight
b. the tyre pressures are too high
c. the aircraft is incorrectly loaded
d. a torque link is worn or damaged
18. Creep (slippage):
a. can damage the braking system
b. can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel
rim
c. may cause excess wear
d. never occurs on new tyres
19. The anti-skid system would be used:
a. on landing runs only
b. on take-off runs only
c. for take-off on icy runways
d. for both take off and landing runs
20. A hydraulic gear extension/retraction mechanism consists
of sequence valves, uplocks and:
a. an anti-skid braking system
b. downlocks
c. torque links
d. a shock absorber
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21. A nose wheel steering control system:

a. prevents the nose wheel from castoring at all times
b. allows the nose wheel to castor within preset limits about
the neutral position
c. allows the nose wheel to castor freely at all times
d. prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nose
wheels are not centralized

22. At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10 mph the anti-skid braking

system is:
a. inoperative
b. operative
c. operative only on the nose wheel brakes
d. operative only on the main wheel brakes
23. The tyre pressures are checked after a long taxi to the
ramp following landing. The pressures will have:
a. fallen by 15% from their rated value
b. risen by 15% from their rated value
c. remained constant
d. risen by 10% of their original weight-on-wheels value
24. The ply rating of a tyre:
a. always indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre
carcass
b. never indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre
carcass
c. indicates whether or not an inner tube should be fitted
d. is the index of the tyre strength

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AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEM

CALORIFIC VALUE
The energy contained in a fuel, determined by measuring the heat
produced by the complete combustion of a specified quantity of
it.

PISTON ENGINE FUELS

1. Piston engine aircraft uses gasoline fuels grouped under title
AVGAS (Aviation Gasoline)
2. Octane rating
a) Measure of a fuel’s resistance to detonation.

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b) Octane rating does not relate to the energy content of the

fuel.
c) Carbon deposits and pits in pistons leave small amount of
fuel which pre-ignite by heat of compression.
d) The higher the octane number, the more compression the
fuel can withstand before detonating.

GAS TURBINE FUELS

Gas turbine engine aircraft uses kerosene fuels

MOGAS : Highly volatile and can cause carburettor icing and

vapour locking.

FLASHPOINT
The flashpoint of a liquid is the lowest temperature at which the
vapour it produces will burn in air

CLOUDY FUEL
a. If the cloudiness appears to rise quite rapidly
towards the top of the sample then air is present.

b. If the cloud falls quite slowly towards the bottom

of the sample then water is present in the fuel.

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c. A cloudy appearance usually indicates the presence of water.

JET FUEL ADDITIVES

a. FSII : A certain amount of water is present in fuel, FSII contains
an icing inhibitor and fungal suppressant.

b. HITEC : A lubricating agent is added to the fuel to reduce wear

in the fuel system components.
c. STATIC DISSIPATOR : Eliminate the hazards of static
electricity generated by the movement of fuel, particularly during
refuelling and defueling.
d. Corrosion Inhibitors : protect ferrous metals in fuel handling
system ,such as pipelines and storage tanks from corrosion.

WATER IN THE FUEL

Water is always present in fuel, measures can be taken to
minimise water accretion once the fuel has been transferred to
the aircraft tanks.
a. Water Drainer
b. Fuel heater
c. Atmosphere Enclosure

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WAXING
1. Waxing is the depositing of heavy
hydrocarbons from the fuel at low
temperatures.
2. The deposits take the form of
paraffin wax crystals which can clog
the fuel filter.

Effect of waxing can be minimised by

a. The refinery keeping the levels of heavy hydrocarbons low.
b. The inclusion of a fuel heater in the engine fuel system.

BOILING
1. The temperature at which a fuel boils will
vary with the pressure on its surface.

2. As an aircraft climbs, the pressure on the

surface of
the fuel reduces and with that reduction
comes an
increased likelihood that the fuel will boil and form
vapour in the pipelines.

3. Fuel booster pumps fitted inside the tanks can

overcome this problem by
pressurising the fuel in the
pipelines from the tank to the
engine.

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THE EFFECT OF SPECIFIC GRAVITY

1. The specific gravity of a
liquid varies inversely
with
its temperature.

2. SG is the ratio of the

density of a substance to
the
density of a reference substance.

FUEL SYSTEMS
1) Integral tank

a) Inside of the wings, the centre section torsion box and

horizontal stabiliser provide large volume fuel storage.

b) The advantage of this type of tank is that there is little extra

weight added to the aircraft.

2) Rigid tank

a) A sealed metal container mounted in the aircraft wing or

fuselage.

b) Add extra weight, most popular on light aircraft.

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c) This type of tank may be fitted externally on the wing tip.

3) Flexible tanks

a) Made of sealed rubberised fabric sometimes referred to as a

fuel bladder or bag tanks.
b) This type of tank requires structure inside the aircraft to
attach and support it.
c) They are typically mounted inside the wing or fuselage

BAFFLES

a) Fitted within the tank to

minimise the large inertial
forces generated when the fuel
surges during aircraft
manoeuvres, acceleration,
deceleration or sideslip.

b)Baffles check valves : Which

allow the fuel to flow inboard but not outboard towards the
wing tips during manoeuvres.

FUEL DISTRIBUTION

Vent system

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a) May include vent valves and vent surge tank. Allows the air
pressure above the fuel in the tank to equalise with the
ambient pressure.

b) Also provide for ram air to be introduced to partially

pressurise the tanks in flight to assist the fuel flow and help to
reduce fuel boiling at altitude.

c) Any fuel overflowing into the vent system is collected by the

vent/surge tank and recycled back to the main tank.

Booster pumps
a) Normally fitted in pairs in
each tank.

b) They are a necessity in high

altitude to prevent cavitation of
the engine driven pump.

c) Booster pumps are typically

centrifugal pump driven by AC induction motors providing low
pressure (20 – 40 psi) and high flow.

d) In the event of a double booster pump failure in one main

tank the aircraft minimum equipment list will invariably limit the
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aircraft to a maximum operating altitude to prevent fuel

starvation.
Collector tank (Feeder box):
a) The booster pumps are
fitted in a collector tank or
feeder box which always
holds a measured quantity of
fuel to allow the pumps to be
continually submerged in
fuel thereby preventing pump
cavitation.

Cross – feed and shut off valve : To enable fuel to be fed from
any tank to any engine and isolated in the event of a fault or
emergency.

High and low level float switches or level sensors

1. High level switches are used to automatically close the

refuel valve when the tank is full during refuelling.

2. The low level switches are used to maintain a required

minimum fuel in the main tanks during fuel jettison or
dumping.

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Baffles : To dampen rapid movement of fuel (surging and

sloshing) during manoeuvring.
Over pressure relief valve : In the event of the fuel tank being
over pressurised due to a malfunction a relief valve may be
incorporated to prevent structural damage to the tank.

The normal sequence of fuel usage after take-off would be to

use the centre tank fuel first followed by the wing tank fuel.
The sequence helps to relieve the wing bending stress.
When the booster pumps can no longer pump fuel from the
centre tank the residual fuel can be removed to the No1 tank
by use of the centre tank scavenge system.

There is a temperature sensor in the No1 tank which will

transmit the fuel tank temperature to an indicator on the
control panel.

The APU takes its fuel from the No1 tank from a bypass valve
if there are no booster pumps operating.

FUEL JETTISON OR DUMP

1.Fuel dumping is accomplished by pumping fuel out of a dump

master valve, typicallyone on each wing at the trailing edge.

2.The fuel dumping process will be automatically stopped when

the minimum level hasbeen reached.

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FUEL QUANTITY MEASUREMENT

There are two methods of measuring fuel quantity.
1.Measuring volume by varying a resistance by a float normally
restricted to light aircraft,is subjected to manoeuvring error and
cannot compensate for variations of density

2.Measuring weight or mass by varying capacitance -essential on

modern passenger aircraft, does not suffer from manoeuvring
error and can compensate for variations of density.

The Capacitive Method

1.The primary advantage of capacitance type technology
are no moving parts and fuel quantity is measured in
mass rather than volume.
2.The dilelectric is either fuel or air depending on the
quantity of fuel in tank.
3.The current that flows in the circuit now depends on 4
factors, the level of voltage applied, the frequency of
supply, the size of the plates and the dilelectric
constant of the material separating the plates.
4.The amount of current flowing in the circuit therefore depends
on the amount offuel/air between the plates.

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5.Fuel density factor : Cold fuel is denser than warm fuel. Hence
there are more pounds ofcold fuel in a system than warm fuel,
which is more important in large aircraft becausethe power of the
engine is determined by the pounds of fuel burned not the gallon.
6.The system can be made sensitive to the specific gravity
(density) of the fuel so thatalthough the volume of a quantity of
fuel may increase with a temperature rise, theresulting decrease
in the specific gravity will ensure that the indicated mass remains
the same.
7.To compensate for change in aircraft attitude the capacitive
system may have many
capacitor probes in the tank connected in parallel to ‘average’
the measurement.
AIRCRAFT REFUELLING

Before fuelling an aircraft, fuelling zones should be established.

These zones will extend at least 6m (20 feet) radially from the
filling and venting points on the aircraft and the fuelling
equipment.

Within these zones the following restrictions apply:

1.There should be no smoking

2.If the exhaust of an A.P.U. which is required during the fuelling

operation discharges into the zone, then it must be started
before filler caps are removed or fuelling connections made

3.If the A.P.U. stops for any reason during fuelling, it

should not be started again until fuelling has
ceased.

4.Ground power units, (G.P.U.’s) should be located as

far away as practical from the fuelling zones and
not be connected or disconnected while fuelling is

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in progress.

5.Fire extinguishers should be located so as to be readily

Accessible

PRECAUTIONS BEFORE FUELLING

1.The aircraft should be bonded (grounded) to the fuelling
equipment using dedicated wires and clips. Reliance
must not be placed upon conductive hoses for effective
bonding.

2.When overwing refuelling, the hose nozzle should be

bonded (grounded) to the aircraft structure before
removing the tank filler cap. Similarly, even funnels,
filters and cans should be bonded to the aircraft. Plastic

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funnels or pipes should never be used.

3.When underwing pressure refuelling, the mechanical
metal to metal contact between the aircraft fitting and the
nozzle end eliminates the need for a separate hose-end bonding
cable.

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Topic No.- 4
Aircraft Wheels

The wheels and tyres of an aircraft support it when on the ground

and provide it with a means of mobility for take-off, landing and
taxiing.
The pneumatic tyres cushion the aircraft from shocks due to
irregularities both in the ground surface and occasionally, lack
of landing technique.
The main wheels, and in some cases nose wheels, house brake
units which control the movement of the aircraft and provide a
means of deceleration on landing.

Aircraft Wheels
Aircraft wheels are so designed as to facilitate tyre replacement.
Wheels are classified as follows:
Loose and detachable flange.
Divided.

Loose and Detachable Flange Wheel

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Wheels of this type, are made with one flange integral with the
wheel body, and the other loose and machined to fit over the
wheel rim.
The difference between the loose flange type and the
detachable flange type is the method by which the removable
flange is secured, the loose flange is retained by a locking
device on the wheel rim, and the detachable flange is secured
to the wheel body by nuts and bolts.
A detachable flange may be a single piece, or two or three

pieces bolted together.

LOOSE FLANGE WHEEL

DETACHABLE FLANGE WHEEL

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(Split Hub)
The divided wheel consists of
two half wheels, matched
up and connected by bolts
which pass through the two
halves, the bolts are fitted
with stiff nuts, or, if one half
of the wheel is tapped, each
bolt is locked with a locking
plate.

This wheel is designed to be used with a tubeless tyre.

A seal, incorporated at the joint, prevents abrasion between the
two halves and provides an airtight joint.
When used with a conventional tyre, the wheel inflation valve
is removed to enable the tube inflation valve to be fitted
through the rim.

Creep (DGCA)
When in service, the tyre has a tendency to rotate, creep
(slippage) around the wheel. This creep, if excessive, will tear out
the inflation valve and cause the tyre to burst.
Creep is less likely to occur if the tyre air pressure is correctly
maintained, but additional precautions may be incorporated in
the design of the wheel.
Methods of counteracting/monitoring creep are as follows:

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Knurled Flange. The inner face of the wheel flange is

milled so that the side pressure of the tyre locks
the beads to the flange.

Tapered Bead Seat. The wheel is tapered so that the

flange area is of greater diameter than at the centre of the rim.
When the tyre is inflated, the side pressure forces the bead
outwards to grip the rim.

Creep Marks. Creep can be detected by

misalignment of two matched white lines one painted on the
wheel and one on the tyre.

Wheel Material
Aircraft wheels are either cast or forged, then machined and
ground to the required finish. They are made of:
Aluminium alloy.
Magnesium alloy.

Wheels for Tubeless Tyres

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Wheels for tubeless tyres are similar in construction to non-

tubeless but have a finer finish and are impregnated with
Bakelite to seal the material.
‘O’ ring seals are used between the parts of the wheel to prevent
leakage.
Unlike tubed wheels, the valve is built into the wheel itself and is
thus not affected by creep though creep may still damage the
tyre.

Fusible Plugs (DGCA)

Under extra hard braking conditions the heat generated in the
wheel, tyre and brake assembly could be sufficient to cause a
tyre blowout, with possible catastrophic effect to the aircraft.
To prevent a sudden blowout fusible plugs(DGCA) are fitted in
some tubeless wheels.
These plugs are held in position in the wheel hub by means of a
fusible alloy, which melts under excessive heat conditions and
allows the plug to be blown out by the tyre air pressure.
This prevents excessive pressure build-up in the tyre by allowing
controlled deflation of the tyre.
An example of a fusible plug is shown in Figure 4.2, they are made
for 3 different temperatures, being colour coded for ease of
identification:
Red - 155°C
Green - 177°C
Amber - 199°C

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TOPIC NO.-7
Aircraft Pneumatic Systems
A pneumatic system is fitted in most modern aircraft to supply
some or all of the following aircraft systems.
• Air conditioning
• Pressurization

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• Aerofoil and engine anti-icing

• Air turbine motors
✓ Engine starting
✓ Hydraulic power
✓ Thrust reverse
✓ Leading and trailing edge flap/slat operation
• Pneumatic rams, e.g. thrust reverser actuation
• Cargo compartment heating
Most of these systems use high volume low pressure airflow
bled from the compressor stages of a gas turbine engine.
Other sources of supply are engine driven compressors or
blowers, auxiliary power unit bleed air and ground power
units.

Temperature
Cabin air temperature should be maintained within the
range 65°F to 75°F, (18°C to 24°C).
Relative Humidity
Ideally the relative humidity within the cabin should be
approximately 30%.
Note: the relative humidity at 40 000 ft is only 1 to 2%

Systems Used for Non-pressurized Flight

Ram Air Systems
• Used in unpressurized piston engined aircraft,
• Ambient atmospheric air is introduced to the cabin through
forward facing air intakes.
• Some of this ram air can be heated by exhaust or
combustion heaters and then mixed with the cold ambient
air in varying proportions to give a comfortable cabin
temperature.

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• It is of extreme importance that the supply (ram) air does

not come into contact with, or is contaminated by, the
exhaust gases or the air used for combustion.
• A typical system for a light aircraft,which also features hot
windscreen demisters and a fresh air blower for use on
the ground when there is no ram air.
• The heater muff or exhaust muff is a close fitting cowl
around the exhaust pipe which allows ram air to come into
close contact with the hot exhaust pipe to provide hot air for
heating the cabin.
• Fresh cold air can be allowed into the cabin through the
ram air inlets on the wing leading edge.

Combustion Heater
• The fuel used in the heater is normally that which is used in
the aircraft’s engines and the heater works by burning a
fuel/air mixture within the combustion chamber.
• The system is designed so that there is no possibility of
leaks from inside the chamber contaminating the cabin air.
• In addition the system must be provided with a number of
safety devices which must include:
• Automatic fuel shut-off in the event of any malfunction.
• Adequate fire protection in the event of failure of the
structural integrity of the combustion chamber.

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• Automatic shut-off if the outlet air temperature becomes

too high.

Systems Used for Pressurized Flight

❖ Engine Driven Cabin Supercharger (Blower) Systems
• When a supply of air from the compressor of a gas
turbine engine for air conditioning or pressurization is
not available, cabin air supply may be provided by
blowers driven through the accessory gearbox or by
turbo-compressors driven by bleed air.
• Such systems were necessary for piston engined and
turbo-propeller aircraft and are used for some turbojet
aircraft where the air supply from the compressor is
considered to be too dirty (contaminated).
• These blowers may be of the centrifugal type.
• The blower must be capable of supplying the required
mass flow of air under all operating conditions which
means that at sea level with the engine running at high
speed too high a mass flow will be delivered, therefore
in order to prevent over pressurization of the supply
ducts, a mass flow controller signals spill valves to vent
the excess air flow to atmosphere.

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• The hot and cold air supplies are mixed in varying

proportions to maintain the delivery temperature at a

comfortable level for both passengers and

crew(Selection and control may be automatic or manual)
❖ Engine Bleed Air Systems
• This the most widely used method of supplying charge air
for the air conditioning systems of modern aircraft.
• Hot pressurized air is supplied to the bleed air duct from
the LP/HP compressor.
• A tapping is then taken from the duct to supply the air
conditioning system.
• This air is passed through a mass flow controller or a
modulated engine bleed air valve and since the bleed air
supply is always at a higher temperature than that
required for passenger comfort a means of cooling this air
is accomplished by the air conditioning pack.

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Heat Exchanger
These components operate on the principle of surface heat
exchange and normally use ram air as the cooling medium.
Ground Cooling Fan
The ground cooling fan, as its name implies, allows the air
conditioning system to be used when the aircraft is on the
ground by drawing (or pushing) air across the primary and, if
necessary, the secondary heat exchangers.
Water Separator
The water separator removes the
excess water which condenses
during the cooling process.
This is a problem at low altitude
and when running the system
on the ground during conditions
of high humidity.

Humidifier
In aircraft operating at high
altitudes for long periods of time it
may be necessary to increase the
moisture content of the
conditioning air.
Physical discomfort arising from
low relative humidity.
This is the function of the humidifier.

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The aircraft’s drinking water supply is used and the water is

atomized by air from the air conditioning supply.

Ram Air Valves

The ram air valves (inlet and outlet doors) are opened and closed
by the pack controller and regulate the amount of air entering the
ram air duct.
This is done automatically as part of the temperature control
system and during landing and take-off in order to prevent
ingestion of foreign matter.
TOPIC NO.-8
Pressurization Systems
• Modern aircraft operate more efficiently at high altitudes
and have high rates of climb and descent.
• An aircraft flying at high altitude is pressurized to allow
passengers and crew to function normally without the
need for additional oxygen.

• Up to an altitude of 10 000 ft, the air pressure and

consequently the amount of oxygen is sufficient for
humans to operate without too many problems.

• Cabin pressurization systems are designed to produce

conditions equivalent to those of approximately 8000 ft.

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• Once the cabin altitude reaches 10 000 ft the crew must

be on oxygen, and at 15 000 ft cabin altitude the
passengers must be on emergency oxygen.

The Aircraft Structure

• Airframe structure must, therefore, be strong enough to
withstand the differential pressures generated without
being too heavy and therefore uneconomic in operation.
• The difference in pressure between the inside and outside of
the pressurized areas of the aircraft or differential pressure
produces hoop stresses which are applied cyclically every
time the aircraft is pressurized and de-pressurized causing
fatigue which can, ultimately, lead to structural failure.
• Keeping the maximum differential pressure to its lowest
practical value reduces the hoop stress.

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• Typical maximum differential pressures for large jet

transport aircraft are between 8 and 9 psi (552-621 hPa).

(DGCA)

System Control
• Cabin Pressurization is controlled by having a constant
mass flow of air entering the cabin and then varying the
rate at which it is discharged to atmosphere.
• The constant mass flow of air is supplied by the air
conditioning system via the mass flow controller and is
discharged to atmosphere by the discharge or outflow
valves.
• Closing the valve reduces the outflow and increases the
pressure,
• Opening the valve increases the outflow and reduces the
pressure.

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In addition to the outflow valves the following safety devices

must be fitted to any cabin Pressurization system.
Safety valve.
• A simple mechanical outwards pressure relief valve fitted
to relieve positive pressure in the cabin when the maximum
pressure differential allowed for the aircraft type is exceeded
i.e. prevents the structural max. diff. being exceeded.
• This valve will open if the pressure rises to max. diff. plus 0.25
psi.
Inwards relief (inwards vent) valve.

• A simple mechanical inwards relief valve is fitted to

prevent excessive negative differential pressure which will
open if the pressure outside the aircraft exceeds that
inside the aircraft by 0.5 to 1.0 psi.

Dump Valve.
• A manually operated component, the Dump Valve, will
enable the crew to reduce the cabin pressure to zero for
emergency de-Pressurization.
• Blow out panels are fitted between passenger and cargo
compartments in order to prevent excessive differences in
pressure occurring between these areas in the event of, for
example, a cargo door opening in flight

Ditching control

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• Closes all the discharge valves to reduce the flow of water

Into the cabin in the event of a forced landing in water.

System Operation
There are two modes of
operation,
• auto (1 & 2) and
manual with the
outflow valves being
electrically operated
by either of the two AC
motors under the
control of the automatic controllers or by the DC motor for
emergency or manual operation.
• Only one controller is in use at any one time, the other
being on standby.
• The standby controller will automatically take over in the
event of failure of the other controller.
NOTE: On older aircraft the controller will reduce the
differential pressure to zero on touchdown. To summarize: if
the differential pressure is increasing the discharge valves are
closing, if the differential pressure is decreasing then the
discharge valves are opening and if the differential pressure is
constant then, since the mass flow in is constant, the
discharge valve will not move.

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Cabin rates of climb and descent should be carefully monitored

and should not normally exceed 500 ft/min during the climb or
300 ft/ min in the descent in order not to cause too much
discomfort for the passengers, particularly those with colds etc.
and to reduce the effect of rapid pressure changes in the ears.
Questions
1. Main and nose wheel bays are:
a. pressurized
b. unpressurized
c. conditioned
d. different, with the mains being unpressurized and the
nose pressurized
2. Normal maximum negative differential pressure is:
a. when atmospheric pressure exceeds cabin pressure by
the amount permitted by the system controls
b. where the cabin pressure falls below aircraft altitude
pressure at which time the inward relief valve opens
c. when the cabin pressure exceeds the atmospheric
pressure by 0.5 psi
d. the pressure at which the duct relief valve is set to
operate
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3. When would the negative differential limit be

reached/exceeded?
a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude
b. During ground pressure testing
c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs
d. When changing to manual operation
4. A/C in level flight: if cabin altitude increases, pressure diff:
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. nil
5. In level pressurized flight what does the outflow valve do?
a. Close
b. Adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally partially
open
c. Open to increase air conditioning
d. Adjust to provide maximum flow, and is normally almost
closed
6. In a turbo-compressor or bootstrap system the cooling air
is:
a. ram air
b. engine by pass air
c. cabin air
d. compressor air
7. The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the
minimum. This is more important:
a. in descent
b. in climb
c. in periods when the dehumidifier is in use
d. in cruise
8. A cabin humidifier is used:
a. on the ground in conditions of low relative humidity
b. at high altitude
c. at low altitude

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d. on the ground in high ambient temperatures

9. Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on the:
a. number of pressurization cycles
b. number of explosive decompressions
c. number of landings only
d. number of cycles at maximum differential
10. If the forward oil seal in an axial flow compressor fails,
cabin air will be:
a. contaminated
b. unaffected
c. ‘b’ is only correct if synthetic oil is used
d. ‘a’ will be correct only if the aircraft is inverted
11. Rate of change of cabin altitude is shown on a:
a. special gauge
b. aircraft VSI
c. cabin pressure controller
d. gauge reading a percentage of Max Diff Pressure
12. Cabin discharge valve (pneumatic) is supplied with:
a. air data computer output information
b. cabin and static pressure
c. cabin pressure, static and air speed information
d. cabin pressure only
13. What is the purpose of the duct relief valve?
a. To protect the undercarriage bay
b. To ensure the compressor pressure is regulated
c. To prevent damage to the ducts
d. To relieve excess pressure to compressor return line
14. What system is installed to control the air conditioning?
a. Emulsifier and water extractor
b. Impingement type dehydrator and humidifier
c. Dehydrator only
d. Humidifier only
15. How is the (charge) air cooled in a bootstrap (turbo-
compressor) system?
a. By expanding over turbine
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b. By expanding over turbine driving compressor

c. Via an air cooled radiator
d. By passing it through the fuel heater
16. At the max differential phase, the discharge phase is:
a. open
b. closed
c. under the control of the rate capsule
d. partly open
17. What is the purpose of inward relief valves?
a. To prevent negative differential
b. To back up the duct relief valve
c. To allow positive pressure to be bled off in an emergency
d. To back up the outflow valve
18. On a ground pressurization test, if the cabin suffers a rapid
de-pressurization:
a. the temperature will rise suddenly
b. water precipitation will occur
c. damage to hull may occur
d. duct relief valve may jam open
19. A heat exchanger functions by:
a. combining ram and charge air
b. mixing the various vapours inside the heat exchanger
c. passing charge air through ducts and cool air around
ducts
d. removing the static charge
20. Maximum differential pressure:
a. is the maximum authorized pressure difference between
the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient
pressure
b. is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump
c. is the pressure loss over a given time limit
d. is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is
designed to carry
21. A humidifier is fitted to:

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a. extract the moisture content in the air

b. filter the air
c. increase the moisture content in the air when operating at
high altitude
d. to ensure the cabin air is saturated at high altitude
22. If the discharge or outflow valve closes:
a. the duct relief valve will take control
b. the inward relief valve would assume control
c. the safety valve would limit the positive pressure
difference
d. the safety relief valve would limit the negative pressure
difference
23. Air for conditioning and pressurization is taken from:
a. the engine compressor or cabin compressor
b. the engine by pass duct or thrust reverse by pass duct
c. the engine compressor or ram turbine
d. the engine turbine or cabin compressor
24. Safety valves are biased:
a. inwards
b. outwards
c. in the direction sensed by the SVC
d. neither a nor b
25. Cabin compressors:
a. increase their flow in cruise conditions
b. decrease their flow in cruise conditions
c. increase their flow in proportion to increases of altitude
differential pressure and reduction in engine rpm in order to
maintain the mass flow
d. deliver minimum air at sea level via the cold air unit
26. In a pressurization circuit the sequence of operation is for
the:
a. inward relief valve to open before the safety valve
b. outflow valve to operate before the safety valve
c. outflow valve to operate after the safety valve

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d. outflow valve to operate the same time as the safety valve

27. In the cruise at 30 000 ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from
4000 ft to 6000 ft:
a. cabin differential will increase
b. cabin differential will not be affected
c. cabin differential will decrease
d. nil.
28. An aircraft climbs from sea level to 16 000 ft at 1000 ft per
min, the cabin pressurization is set to climb at 500 ft per min
to a cabin altitude of 8000 ft. The time taken for the cabin to
reach 8000 ft is:
a. the same time as it takes the aircraft to reach 16 000 ft
b. half the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16 000 ft
c. twice the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16 000 ft
d. three times the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16 000 ft
29. The aircraft inhibiting switch connected to the A/C landing
gear:
a. allows the aircraft to be pressurized on the ground
b. stops pressurizing on the ground and ensures that there is
no significant pressure differential
c. ensures that the discharge valve is closed
d. cancels out the safety valve on the ground
30. Negative differential is limited by:
a. dump valve
b. inward relief valve
c. outflow valve
d. safety valve
31. To maintain a steady and constant airflow regardless of
altitude or cabin pressure:
a. a duct relief valve is fitted
b. a venturi device is fitted
c. a mass flow controller is fitted
d. a thermostatic relief valve is fitted
32. The term “pressurization cycle” means:

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a. air introduced into a fuselage under pressure only

b. air introduced into a fuselage under pressure until the
time the air is released
c. air discharged from the fuselage, above 15 psi
d. the frequency in Hz the pressure cycles from the rootes
blowers enter the fuselage
33. Inward Relief Valves operate:
a. in conjunction with the cabin pressure controller when
there is a negative diff
b. in conjunction with the cabin altitude selector when there
is negative diff
c. when manually selected during the emergency descent
procedure
d. automatically when there is a negative diff
34. Safety valves operate:
a. at higher than maximum differential
b. as soon as initiation takes place
c. at a lower diff than a discharge valve
d. at a set value, which is selected
35. Ditching Cocks are operated:
a. automatically when the soluble plugs dissolve
b. to shut all outflow valves
c. to direct pressure into flotation bags
d. for rapid depressurization
36. Duct Relief Valves operate when:
a. excessive pressure builds up in the air conditioning
system supply ducts
b. to keep cabin pressure close to ambient pressure
c. to prevent the floor from collapsing should baggage door
open
d. the cooling modulator shutters reach the optimized
position
37. During a normal pressurized cruise, the discharge valve
position is:
a. at a position pre-set before take-off
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b. partially open
c. open until selected altitude is reached
d. closed until selected altitude is reached
38. A dump valve:
a. automatically opens when fuel is dumped
b. is controlled manually
c. is opened automatically when the safety valve opens
d. is controlled by the safety valve integrating line
39. When air is pressurized the % of oxygen:
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. nil
40. If pressure is manually controlled:
a. an extra member is required to monitor system operation
b. the climb rate would be maintained automatically
c. climb rate could not be maintained
d. care should be taken to ensure climb/descent rates are
safe
41. An aircraft is prevented from pressurizing on the ground
by:
a. the auto deflating valve on the main oleos
b. inhibiting microswitches on the landing gear
c. inhibiting microswitches on the throttles
d. the pressure control master switch
42. If the pressurization air is passed over the cold air unit
compressor it:
a. increases the charge air temperature
b. decreases the charge air temperature
c. decreases the charge air pressure
d. makes no change to the charge air condition
43. If the cabin pressure increases in level flight does the
cabin VSI shows:
a. rate of climb

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b. no change unless the aircraft climbs

c. rate of descent
d. nil
44. The term pressure cabin is used to describe:
a. pressurization of the flight deck only
b. the ability to pressurise the aircraft to a higher than
ambient pressure
c. the passenger cabin on an airliner
d. the ability to maintain a constant pressure differential at
all altitudes
45. A pressurization system works by:
a. essentially constant input mass flow and variable output
b. essentially constant output mass flow and variable input
c. does not start until an altitude of 8000 ft has been
reached
d. supplying hot gases from the engine exhaust unit to the
mass flow control system
46. When air is pressurized by an engine driven compressor, it
is also:
a. moisturized
b. heated
c. cooled
d. the temperature is not affected

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TOPIC NO.-9
Ice and Rain Protection
The formation of ice or frost on the surfaces of an aircraft will
cause a detrimental effect on aerodynamic performance.

No ICING ABOVE 40,000 ft(DGCA)

In no circumstances should a formation of ice or frost be allowed
to remain on the aircraft wing surfaces prior to take-off.
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AREAS REQUIRING PROTECTION

ENIGINE AIR INTAKE TAILPLANE LEADING EDGE
WING LEADING EDGE ALPHA PROBES
FIN LEADING EDGE SLATS
PROPELLERS COMPRESSOR INLET GUIDE
VANES
PITOT HEAD COCKPIT WINDOW

Two different approaches are generally used:

‘De-icing’ where ice is allowed to accumulate prior to being
removed.
‘Anti-icing’ where the object is to prevent any ice
accumulation.

There are a number of avenues which need exploring and these

include detection and warning systems and the methods used to
protect the aircraft, which can be any or all of the following:
Pneumatic Expanding rubber boots - mechanical.
Thermal Electrically heated.
Oil heated.
Air heated.
Liquid Freezing point depressant fluids. (FPD)
Ice detection Is provided automatically by the
provision of ice detectors which relay a warning to the flight
crew.

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Anti-icing Is the application of continuous heat or

fluid.
De-icing Is the intermittent application of fluid,
heat or mechanical effort

Detection Devices and Warnings

There are three main types of ice detector in current use:
The ice detector head.
The mechanical ice detector.
The element ice sensing unit.

Ice Detector Heads

Teddington Ice Detector.
• This detector consists of an
aerofoil shaped mast
protruding into the airflow
and visible from the cockpit.
• The mast incorporates a
heater element and a light
to illuminate the mast at
night .
• When icing conditions are encountered in flight, with the
heater power supply switched off, ice accumulates on the
mast and gives a direct visual indication of ice accretion.
• The heater may be switched on to dissipate accumulated
ice.

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Smiths Ice Detector.

• The Smiths ice detector
consists of a hollow tube,
attached to the aircraft by
one end and has holes
drilled in the leading and
trailing faces;
• There are four holes in the
leading edge and two in
the trailing edge.
• In flight under normal conditions, there is a pressure build
up in the probe which is sensed by a relay unit at the open
base of the tube.
• In icing conditions, the leading edge holes become
blocked by ice and a negative pressure is created in the
hollow tube, causing the relay unit to give a warning.
• A heater element is fitted around the tube to dissipate
accumulated ice.
Mechanical Ice Detectors
Rotary (Napier) Ice Detector.
In the Napier ice
detector a serrated
rotor shaft is
continuously driven
by an electric motor.
The shaft rotates
adjacent to a fixed
knife-edge cutter,
with a clearance
between them of less
than 0.002 inches.

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The unit is mounted on the aircraft fuselage with

the rotor axis at right angles to the airflow.
Under normal conditions, little torque is required to
drive the rotor.

In icing conditions, ice builds up on the rotor and is

shaved off by the cutter.
This movement operates a microswitch which gives
an ice warning, or automatically initiates the anti-
icing sequence.

Rosemount (Vibrating Rod) Ice Detector.

• This detector consists of a
short cylindrical probe
mounted on a vibrator
housing which vibrates
the probe axially at about
35 kHz .
• If ice builds up on the
probe, the added mass
reduces the resonant
frequencies.
• When the frequency falls to a predetermined level,
an ice warning is given.
• The warning signal also operates a built in heater
element in the probe to shed accumulated ice.
• After six seconds, the heater switches off and the
icing cycle recommences.

Element Ice Sensing Unit

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Sangamo Weston Ice

Detector.
• Ice can only be formed
when there is a
combination of moisture
and freezing
temperatures.
• In the Sangamo Weston ice detector, these two
conditions are detected separately and, therefore,
icing conditions are detected rather than actual ice
formation.

Beta Particle Ice Detection Probe

• Two probes, mounted
perpendicularly from the
forward fuselage, plus a
relay and the flight deck
warning constitute the
basic system.
• Under nil ice conditions
the forward probe, an
emitter, will emit Beta
particles which are
detected by the rear probe, a detector.
• Beta particles are absorbed by ice so that, in icing
conditions, less particles are sensed by the
detector.

Mechanical ‘De-icing’

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De-icer Boots.
• The de-icer boots, or
overshoes, consist of
layers of natural rubber
and rubberized fabric
between which are
disposed flat inflatable
tubes closed at the
ends.

• The tubes are made of rubberized fabric and are

vulcanized inside the rubber layers.

• In some boots the tubes are so arranged that when the

boots are in position on a wing or tailplane leading
edge the tubes run parallel to the span; in others
they run parallel to the chord.

Thermal ‘Anti-icing’ and ‘De-icing’

• Hot air systems on modern aircraft are generally engine
bleed air and are said to be ‘anti-icing’.
• Heated air is ducted to the wings and tail units and
passes into the gap, providing sufficient heat in the outer
skin of the leading edge to melt ice already formed and
prevent further ice formation.

Fluid Systems

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This system prevents

the adhesion of ice on
surfaces by pumping
freezing point
depressant fluid
(FPD) to panels in the
leading edge of the
aerofoil, and allowing the fluid to be carried over the surface by
air movement.
The fluid is supplied from the storage tank to the pump through
an integral filter.
Windscreen Protection
Windshield or
Windscreen
Wipers.
Independent two
speed wipers are
usually provided
for both pilots.
They may be
electrically or
hydraulically powered, with two operating speeds.
Windscreen Rain Repellent System.
The rain repellent system is used with the wipers to improve
visibility during heavy rain.

Fluid De-icing System.

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The method employed in this system is to spray the windscreen

panel with a methyl-alcohol based fluid.

Propeller Protection Systems

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TOPIC NO.-10
SAFETY EQUIPEMENT

PUBLIC ADDRESS
a)When required, at least one microphone
to be available for use by the Flight
Attendant at each floor level exist in the
passenger compartment.
b)Flight Crew members to be able to use the
public address either through a
hand microphone or their normal headset
communications.

MEGAPHONES
a)Purpose is for passenger
information in the event of normal
aircraft power failure.
b)Battery powered
c)Checked by pressing the
transmit switch and listening for an
audible “Click” or the illumination
of a green neon light on the
megaphone.
d)Passenger Seats AvailableNo. of Megaphones
61-99 1
100 or more 2

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TORCHES
a)Positioned at each crew station including the flight deck.
b)Indication of serviceability is by a flashing red neon light
situated on the
body of the torch.

EMERGENCY EXIT DESCENT DEVICES

a)Equipment for evacuation process can
be a simple rope, a slide, an
inertial reel or a tape.
b)Inflatable escape slide are rigid and
double as slide rafts. Apron
slides need human effort to keep them
taut.
c)Crew escape methods still include simple rope system.

OVER-WING ESCAPE HATCHES

a)Escape hatches are located in the passenger cabin over the
wings.
b)Plug type hatches, held in place by mechanical locks and
aeroplane cabin pressure.
c)Can be opened from the inside or from the outside by a spring
loaded handle.

d)Hatch removal illuminates

the over-wing emergency exit
lights on the same

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sideprovided Cockpit Emergency Exit light switch – Armed

Position

OVER-WING ESCAPE STRAPS

Used as a hand hold in a ditching
emergency for passengers to walk
out on to the wing and step in to a
life raft.

CUT IN AREAS
a)Cut in areas are mandatory on
public transport aircraft over
3600Kgs
AUW.
b)Those areas which can be
broken from outside the aircraft in
an event
when normal emergency exits are
blocked or are unable to open.
c)Rectangular in shape, marked
by right angled corners.
d)Red or Yellow in colour and outlined in white if a contrast is
required.

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ESCAPE SLIDES
a)Inflatable rubber/nylon units which
are stored in compartments on the
bottom inner
face of entrance and service doors.
b)Slides incorporate a girt bar.
c)Escape slides are of two types – Fully
Automatic and
Semi Automatic.
d)Some large aircraft utilise the escape
slides as a survival
raft with accommodation for up to 60 people by
detaching the girt bar, it can be used in this mode.

DOORS/EMERGENCY EXITS
a)Doors may be electrically or manually operated.
b)Doors may act as Emergency Exits.
c)Must be outlined externally by a 5cm band in a contrasting
colour .

PERSONAL FLOATATION EQUIPMENT

1.The personal equipment is the life
jacket or Life
Preserver.
2.Jackets used for demonstration
purposes are usually
marked Demo Only or Dummy.
3.Buoyancy is achieved by inflating the
jacket with CO2
which is stored under pressure in
small bottle.
4.CO2 is released manually by the operation of a Red
Toggle or Lever.
5.A standby method of inflation by mouth is available.
6.Jackets are coloured yellow or Flame red.
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7.Following equipment may be on a Life Jacket:-

a.A whistle
b. A lifeline
c. A sea water activated light
d. A mirror
e. Sea water dye
f. Shark Repellent
8. A crew jacket may contain communication equipment or a
Search and
Rescue Beacon also known as PLB(PERSONAL BEACON
LOCATOR) or SARSE.

LOCATOR BEACONS
1. Self Buoyant
2. Dual Frequency 243.0 or 121.5MHz
3. Radio distress beacon transmitter with an 80 Mile range
4. 48 hours continuous transmission on the Civil and Military
International Aviation Distress Frequencies.

FIRST AID EQUIPMENT

1. First Aid Holdalls: Not sealed and are designed for use by
cabin crew
for the treatment of minor emergencies and ailments.
2. Slide/Raft kits: This First Aid Kit is situated in the survival pack
of the slide/raft and includes a survival booklet
3. Emergency First Aid Kits: Divided into two parts.
a. One for the cabin crew use.
b. other by qualified doctors only, other part is provided when
aircraft capacity is more than 30 seats and if any part of planned
route is more than 60 minutes flying time.

ANCILLARY EQUIPMENT
1. Fire-Proof Gloves: For using or handling overheated
equipment.
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2. Fire Axe or Jemmy: Used for levering and lifting hot panels
Fire Axe phased out in favour of the jemmy

EMERGENCY LIGHTING
1. An emergency lighting system independent of the main
lighting system must be installed.
2. The system must include-
a. Illuminated emergency exit marking, sources of general cabin
illumination, internal lighting in emergency exit areas and floor
proximity escape path marking.
b. External Emergency lighting
c. Exit signs must have red letters on a white electrically or self
illuminated background.
3. Design of the system must be (Emergency
Lighting)-
a. Operable from the flight station or
passenger compartment.
b. Capable of providing the
crew with a
warning light if not armed.
c. Capable of providing
illumination to the
areas on the wing and ground
where an
evacuee is likely to make his
first step or
contact.
d. The capacity of emergency
batteries must
be such that they are
capable of providing em
ergency lighting for a period
of at least
10 minutes.

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Topic no.-11
Aircraft Oxygen Equipment
In order for the body to function satisfactorily it requires oxygen
which it extracts from oxygenated blood provided by the lungs.
Insufficient oxygen is known as Hypoxia.
The symptoms of hypoxia can be summarized as follows:
• Apparent Personality Change
• Impaired Judgement
• Muscular Impairment
• Memory Impairment
• Sensory Loss

Impairment of Consciousness i.e. confusion, semi-

consciousness, unconsciousness and finally DEATH.
Time of Useful Consciousness(TUC)(DGCA)

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This is the time available for a pilot to recognize the

development of hypoxia and do something about it.
ALTITUDE TIME
45000 ft About 12 Sec
35000 ft 45-30 Sec
30000 ft 90-45 Sec
25000 ft 5-3 Min
18000 ft 30 Min

Lox is LIQUID OXYGEN (DGCA)

Available Systems
• In unpressurized
aircraft, oxygen equipment will
be installed for the use of
passengers and crew if the
aircraft is to fly above 10 000 ft
with portable oxygen sets
being provided if no fixed
installation exists.
• Crew oxygen is stored in High Pressure gaseous form
whilst passenger supplies may be of HP gas or be
chemically generated.
• Gaseous oxygen systems are generally of the diluter
demand type for crew use and the continuous flow type for

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passenger use, although some smaller aircraft may have the

continuous flow type for crew use as well.
• In both systems the gas is stored in cylinders at 1800
psi, the pressure being reduced to a suitable level for use.
Quantity (pressure) indication is provided by a gauge on the flight
compartment.
• In the event of an overpressure the cylinder is vented to
atmosphere through a safety (bursting) disc.(DGCA)
• Indication of this fact is given by a discharge indicator
located on the outer skin of the aircraft adjacent to the
oxygen storage bottle(s).
• The cylinders are fitted with “shut-off valves” to enable
them to be removed from the aircraft for maintenance
purposes.

Continuous Flow Oxygen System

• At the PRV the pressure is reduced to 80-100 psi for supply

to the mask connection points, where the pressure is
further reduced by the fitting of a calibrated orifice.
• This ensures that oxygen is supplied at the correct pressure
for breathing at a continuous rate when required.

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• In the case of pressurization failure, the masks are

presented automatically and oxygen flow will commence
when the passenger puts on the mask. (DGCA)
• Continuous flow regulators of the hand adjustable and
automatic type may be installed for crew and passenger
oxygen supply respectively.
• The system usually has a pressure gauge, a flow indicator
and a manual control knob used to regulate the flow
according to the cabin altitude.
• Flow indicators show that oxygen is flowing through the
regulator.
• They do not show how much is flowing or if the user is being
supplied with sufficient oxygen.

Diluter Demand System

This type of system is provided in most aircraft for flight crew use
and is separate and additional to passenger system.
Oxygen is diluted with air and supplied as demanded by the
user’s respiration cycle and the oxygen regulator.
There is a mask connection point for each crew member and the
supernumerary crew position.
A typical regulator operates as follows:-
With the oxygen supply ‘ON’ and ‘NORMAL’ oxygen selected,
diluted oxygen will be supplied to the crew member’s mask as
he/she inhales. As the cabin altitude increases and cabin air
pressure decreases the percentage oxygen increases until, at 32
000 ft cabin altitude, 100% oxygen is supplied. (DGCA)

100% oxygen will be supplied, regardless of altitude, if the crew

member selects 100% O2 on the regulator control panel.

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Selecting ‘EMERGENCY’ on the regulator will provide protection

against the inhalation of smoke and harmful gases by
supplying 100% O2 at a positive pressure.

When ‘TEST’ is selected, oxygen at a high positive pressure is

supplied to check masks for fit and other equipment for leakage.

Passenger Oxygen System

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• Continuous flow type supplied either by a high pressure

gaseous system or a chemical generator system.
• The masks are
stowed in the
passenger
service units
(PSU), the doors
of which will open automatically by a barometrically
controlled release mechanism if the cabin altitude reaches
14 000 ft or by manual selection from the flight deck.

o When the PSU doors open the masks drop to the “half-
hung” position. Pulling the mask towards the face
initiates the oxygen flow by opening a check valve on
the gas supplied system or operating the electrical
or percussion cap firing mechanism on the chemical
generator.

Chemical Oxygen Generators

• The generators are relatively light self-contained devices

and are located in each passenger, cabin attendants and
lavatory service units.

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• Oxygen is generated by the chemical reaction of sodium

chlorate (NaClO3) and iron (Fe). The complete reaction is
• NaClO3 + Fe = (NaCl + FeO) + O2.
• The sodium chlorate and iron core is shaped to provide
maximum oxygen flow at starting.
o Sufficient oxygen is supplied from the generator to
meet the requirements of descent in emergency
conditions (min of 15 mins).
o There has now been developed a chemical generator
which lasts for a period of 22 minutes.

o Caution. Once the chemical reaction has started, it

cannot be stopped.
o Surface temperatures of the generator can reach
232°C (450°F).
o A strip of heat sensitive tape or paint changes
colour, usually to black.
o Chemical generators have a shelf/installed life of ten
years.

Portable Oxygen Systems

First aid and sustaining portable oxygen cylinders are
installed, they consist of a cylinder containing normally 120
litres of oxygen at a pressure of 1800 psi in a carrying bag
with straps.
There are two flow rates,
NORMAL FLOW RATE- 2 litres per minute -lasts for 60
Min.
HIGH FLOW RATE - 4 litres per minute.- lasts for 30 Min

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AMERICAN OXYGEN CYLINDER IS GREEN

BRITISH OXYGEN CYLINDER IS BLACK WITH WHITE NECK

Crew Portable Oxygen Systems and Smoke Hoods

Standard portable oxygen bottles can be used by the crew
to enable them to move about the cabin during reduced
cabin pressure situations but for use when harsh
environmental conditions exist portable sets with a full
face smoke mask will be used.
They may be standard cylinders or may be special smoke
sets with built-in generators which can produce oxygen for
15 minutes(DGCA) once initiated.

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Questions
1. Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at
30 000 ft is approximately:
a. twenty seconds
b. eighty seconds
c. one to two minutes
d. six minutes
2. Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at
40 000 ft is approximately:
a. twenty seconds

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b. three minutes
c. eighty seconds
d. six minutes
3. The maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying
efficiency is not seriously impaired is:
a. 10 000 ft
b. 17 500 ft
c. 25 000 ft
d. 30 000 ft
4. In a pressure demand oxygen system:
a. each member of the crew has a regulator
b. each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply
c. oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow
d. oxygen demand will cause the pressure to rise
5. In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied:
a. only when the mask is plugged into the socket connection
b. only on passenger inhalation through the mask
c. only when the cabin altitude is above 18 000 ft
d. only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot
6 In a diluter demand system, selection of emergency on this
regulator will result in:
a. air mix supplied at emergency pressure
b. 100% oxygen supply as called for by the user
c. 100% oxygen at positive pressure
d. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure
7. If the aircraft suffers a decompression passenger oxygen
masks:
a. are released by the passengers
b. automatically drop to a half-hung (ready position)
c. are handed out by the cabin staff
d. must be removed from the life jacket storage

8. Oxygen cylinders are normally charged to:

a. 1000 psi
b. 1200 psi

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c. 1800 psi
d. 2000 psi
9. Rate of flow of oxygen is given in:
a. litres/minute
b. pounds/minute
c. litres/second
d. kilos/hour
10. The colour of American and European oxygen cylinders is:
a. red
b. blue
c. green
d. brown
11. Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders:
a. is relieved by a thermostat
b. is relieved by under pressurizing the bottle
c. is relieved by a bursting disc
d. is controlled by a thermal relief valve
12. To leak test an oxygen system use:
a. fairy liquid and de-ionized water
b. thin oil
c. acid free soap and distilled water
d. acid free soap and water
13. Lubrication of an oxygen component thread is by:
a. soap water
b. grease
c. oil
d. graphite
14. Satisfactory operation of the oxygen system is indicated
by:
a. flow indicators
b. lack of anoxia
c. aural reassurance
d. pressure indicators

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15. If the pressurization system fails and the cabin starts to

climb, then at 14 000 ft oxygen will be available to the
passengers by:
a. the stewardess who will hand out masks
b. the passengers grabbing a mask from the overhead
lockers
c. portable oxygen bottles located in the seat backs
d. masks automatically ejected to a half-hung position

16. When air is pressurized the % of oxygen:

a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. nil
17. In an emergency chemically produced oxygen is supplied
for a given period by:
a. sodium chlorate, iron power, an electrical firing system
and a filter
b. potassium chlorate, iron powder, an electrical firing
system and a filter
c. sodium chlorate, iron powder which is chemically
activated by air and then filtered
d. sodium chlorate and an electrical firing system
18. Passenger oxygen masks will present:
a. only when the cabin altitude reaches 14 000
b. only if selected by the crew
c. only if selected by the cabin staff
d. if selected manually / electrically / barometrically
19. The charged pressure of a portable oxygen cylinder is
normally:
a. 500 psi
b. 1200 psi
c. 1800 psi
d. 3000 psi

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20. With the control knob set to high, a 120 litre portable bottle
will provide oxygen for a period of:
a. 60 mins
b. 30 mins
c. 12 mins
d. 3 mins
21. At what altitude will the diluter-demand oxygen regulator
provide 100% pure oxygen:
a. 10 000 ft
b. 14 000 ft
c. 24 000 ft
d. 34 000 ft
22. A flow indicator fitted to an oxygen regulator indicates:
a. that exactly the correct amount of oxygen is being used by
the crew member
b. that oxygen is flowing through the regulator
c. that the crew member is correctly connected to the
regulator
d. that the system pressure reducing valve is supplying the
correct pressure to the regulator

23. What is the approximate time of useful consciousness

when hypoxia develops at the specified altitudes?
20 000 ft 30 000 ft
a. 2-3 min 10-15 sec
b. 10 min 2 min
c. 30 min 90-60 secs
d. 40 min 5 min
24. What is the effect on cabin temperature of a rapid de-
compression at 30 000 ft?
a. Sudden and extreme drop
b. Insignificant change over the first 2 minutes
c. A gradual decrease to ambient over a period of about 10
minutes if the cabin heating ceases

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d. A gradual decrease to ambient temperature over a period

of about 30 minutes if cabin heating continues
25. Susceptibility to hypoxia is increased by:
a. heat
b. noise
c. smoking
d. under-breathing
26. What is the approximate cabin altitude above which you
must breath 100% oxygen if you are to maintain an alveolar
partial pressure equal to that at sea level?
a. 26 000 ft
b. 30 000 ft
c. 34 000 ft
d. 38 000 ft

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Topic no-12
Smoke Detection
Smoke Detection
Smoke detection systems are employed where it is not possible
to keep a bay or compartment under constant physical
surveillance. E.g, Cargo, ElectricalEquipment etc.

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Smoke and flame detectors operate according to several

different principles:
OPTICAL
IONISATION
Light detection system –
• Designed to respond to a change in visible light or a
change in infrared radiation.
• Uses a photoelectric cell positioned so that it can monitor
the surrounding area producing a change in current to
activate a warning circuit when a change of light or infrared
radiation striking the cell occurs.
• Activated by an open flame

Light refraction system –

• Uses a photoelectric cell
which is shielded from direct
light from a projection lamp
directed into a detection
chamber.
• Air from the compartment is
drawn through the chamber.
• When smoke is introduced
into the chamber light is
reflected from the smoke
particles and falls on the
photoelectric cell. .
• The test lamp illuminates
when the test is selected from
the flight deck and activates the smoke detector

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Ionization –
• uses a small piece of
radioactive material to
bombard the oxygen and
nitrogen molecules in the air
inside a detection chamber.
• Ionization takes place causing
a small current to flow
across the chamber and
through an external circuit.
• When smoke is introduced to the chamber the smoke
particles attach themselves to the oxygen and nitrogen
ions and reduce the current flow and activates the aural
and visual warning.

Smoke Hoods (DGCA)

Smoke hoods are a fairly recent innovation to emergency
equipment.
Owing to the training required to use a smoke hood it is only worn
by flight and cabin crews.
The basic unit provides protection against all forms of smoke
generated in a ground or flight emergency. A rubber neck seal
ensures complete insulation for the wearer whilst oxygen is
supplied via a self-contained system, the duration being a
minimum of 15 minutes.

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Fire Detection and Protection

Fire Detection/Protection system must
be fitted in engines, APUs and main
wheel wells.
A fire detection system must be capable
of providing rapid detection of a
localized fire or overheat condition,
however it must not automatically operate the fire extinguishers.
Fire Detection Systems
Detection methods can vary according to the position of the
equipment. Four methods of detection can be described as
follows:
Melting Link Detectors.
These are found in older aircraft and consist of a pair of contacts
held apart by a fusible plug.
At a predetermined temperature the fusible plug melts allowing
the contacts to close and a fire warning circuit is made.

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A major drawback with this detector is that the contacts will not
open after the fire has been extinguished thus giving a
permanent fire warning.

Differential Expansion Detectors.

This type of detector operates
on the principle of the
differential rate of expansion
of dissimilar materials.
They consist of a pair of
contacts mounted on a spring
bow assembly, fitted within an
expansion tube mounted on a base.
When heat is applied the tube expands at a greater rate then
the bow, drawing the contacts together, so providing power to
the Fire Warning Circuit.
A subsequent drop in temperature will cause the tube to
shorten, the contact will open and cancel the warning.

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Continuous Fire Detectors.

These detectors are commonly
known as Fire Wire Free From
False Detection, (FFFD)
Operate on the principle of
their elements having either a
negative coefficient of
resistance (Dec in resistance
with inc. in Temp) or a
positive coefficient of
capacitance.(Inc in
capacitance with inc in temp)

An element consists of a stainless steel tube, with a central

electrode insulated from the tube by a temperature sensitive
material.

The resistance of insulating material in the resistive type will

decrease with increase of temperature and current flow
(leakage) between the central electrode and the outer tube will
increase until, at a predetermined level, sufficient current will
flow and the warning system will operate. If the temperature
drops below a preset value the system will automatically reset.

In the case of the capacitance type an increase in temperature

causes an increase in capacitance.

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On receipt of left engine fire warning:

ACTION TO BE TAKEN IN CASE OF ENGINE FIRE(DGCA)

1. CLOSE LEFT THRUST LEVER

2. LEFT ENGINE HP OR ENGINE START LEVER CLOSE
3. PULL No. 1 FIRE HANDLE
4. NUMBER 1 ENGINE FIRE HANDLE ROTATE LEFT TO
MECHANICAL LIMIT AND HOLD FOR AT LEAST 1 SECOND. THIS
WILL DISCHARGE THE LEFT BOTTLE INTO THE LEFT ENGINE
5. IF AFTER 30 SECONDS FIRE WARNING REMAINS
ILLUMINATED ROTATE No. 1 FIRE HANDLE RIGHT TO ITS
MECHANICAL LIMIT AND HOLD FOR AT LEAST 1 SECOND. THIS
WILL DISCHARGE THE RIGHT BOTTLE INTO THE LEFT ENGINE.
6. LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
This is an example and individual aircraft checklists must be
consulted for the correct procedure to be followed.

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Auxiliary Power Unit Protection

APUs are constant speed self-contained gas turbines, which
derive their fuel supply from the aircraft system. Their services may
include, bleed air, hydraulic power, electrical power or a
combination of these. They can when certified be available for
airborne use.
APUs are self-monitoring and will auto shut down in the event of:
fire
oil pressure failure
overspeed
overheat
Note: Although APUs auto shut down a manual control panel is
normally included. Automatic discharge of the APU fire
extinguisher may be performed on some aircraft in some
circumstances.
FIRE EXTINGUISHERS(DGCA)
Bromochlorodifluromethane very effective against electrical
(BCF)(Halon1211) and flammable liquid fires.
Bromotrifluromethane (BTM)( used for the protection of
Halon 1301) APUs, power plants and cargo
compartments.
Water or Water Glycol for combatting fires involving
domestic materials.
Dry Chemical (Dry Powder) best known for its
application against wheel
and brake fires.
Carbon Dioxide (CO2) useful against engine fires as it
will extinguish the fire without
damaging the engine.
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Useful for containing metal

Sand fires such as magnesium or
titanium where liquids will
make matters worse.
Foam use on flammable liquid fires
and propane, it blankets the
flames by excluding oxygen.
NOTE: BCF & BTM are part of a group of Halogenated
Hydrocarbons commonly called FREON.

Hand Held Extinguishers

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Fire Compartments (DGCA)

The cockpit and passenger cabin are designated Class A
compartments, meaning that a fire may be visually detected,
reached and combatted by a crew member.
The engines are Class C compartments, and fire detection and
warning is provided.
There are five types of cargo compartments:
Class A and B crew members may reach and combat a source
of fire;
Class C or D which crew members cannot reach the source of
fire.
A Class E cargo compartment is one on aeroplanes only used
for the carriage of cargo.

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ELECTRICS & ELECTRONICS

An electric current is created when electrons are caused to move

through a conductor.
There are six basic means to provide the force which causes
electrons to flow:
Friction - static electricity
Chemical Action - cells and batteries (primary and secondary
cells)
Magnetism - generators and alternators
Heat - thermocouples (junction of two dissimilar metals)
Light - photo electric cell
Pressure - piezoelectric crystals

Of the six basic methods, only Chemical Action (batteries) and

Magnetism (generators) produce electrical power in sufficient
quantities for normal daily needs

Electromotive Force (EMF)

For electric current to flow there must be a force behind it.
Electromotive
Force (to make it
flow),In electrics if
the EMF decreases,
the flow of
electrons
decreases.
EMF is measured in units of Voltage. (DGCA)

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The number of volts is a measure of the EMF or Potential

Difference (pd) (the difference in electrical potential
between the positive and negative terminal).
Voltage is given the symbol V or E. .
The source of the voltage can be a battery or a generator.
To measure voltage a voltmeter is used.

Current( I )
The current (symbol I) in a conductor is the number of electrons
passing any point in the conductor in one second and is
measured in amperes or amps (symbol A).
Current can be measured by an instrument called an ammeter
which is connected into the circuit so that the current in the circuit
passes through the ammeter.
Effects of an electric current:
Heating Effect. When a current flows through a conductor it
always causes the conductor to become hot - electric fires, irons,
light bulbs and fuses.

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Magnetic Effect. A magnetic field is

always produced around the
conductor when a current flows
through it - motors, generators and
transformers.

Chemical Effect. When a current

flows through certain liquids
(electrolytes) a chemical change
occurs in the liquid and any metals
immersed in it - battery charging and
electroplating.

Current is measured by
Ammeter, Ammeter is connected in series and have low
resistance.
Voltage is measured by voltmeter, Voltmeter is
connected in Parallel and have high resistance.

Resistance
The obstruction in the circuit which opposes the current flow is
called resistance.
UNIT IS OHM(symbol Ω)(DGCA)
Factors Affecting the Resistance
Type of material. e.g. silver is a better conductor than copper
(DGCA)

Length. The longer the wire the greater the resistance

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Cross sectional area. The thicker the wire the smaller the
resistance

Temperature.
If resistance increases with an increase of temperature, the
resistor is said to have a Positive Temperature Coefficient
(PTC). (DGCA)
If resistance decreases with an increase of temperature, the
resistor is said to have a Negative Temperature Coefficient (NTC).

Resistors
Sometimes resistance is used to adjust the current flow in a
circuit by fitting resistors of known value. These can be either
fixed or variable and can be drawn like this.

Ohm’s Law
If the voltage remains constant, any increase in resistance will
cause a decrease in current and vice-versa (current inversely
proportional to resistance).
If the resistance remains the same, any increase in voltage will
cause an increase in current and vice- versa (current directly
proportional to voltage).
This is expressed as Ohm’s Law:
V = IR

Power
When a Force produces a movement then Work is said to have
been done, and the rate at which work is done is called Power.

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In an electric circuit work is done by the voltage causing the

current to flow through a resistance, creating heat, magnetism or
chemical action.
The rate at which work is done is called Power and is measured in
Watts.
Watts (W) = Voltage (V) × Amperes (I)
Three formulae for calculating power can be derived from the two
basic formulae V=IR and W=V×I
Voltage unknown W = I2 R
Resistance unknown W = V × I
Current unknown W = V2 / R

Each electrical circuit in an aircraft will be protected by a fuse or

circuit breaker which will prevent the maximum power rating of
a component to be exceeded by breaking the circuit if the current
increases.

Series and Parallel Circuits (DGCA)

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Questions - Theory
1. All effects of electricity take place because of the existence
of a tiny particle called the:
a. electric
b. proton
c. neutron
d. electron
2. The nucleus of an atom is:
a. positively charged
b. negatively charged
c. statically charged
d. of zero potential
3. An atom is electrically balanced when:
a. its protons and electrons balance each other
b. the protons outnumber the electrons
c. the electrons outnumber the protons
d. the electric and static charges are balanced
4. The electrons of an atom are:
a. positively charged
b. neutral
c. negatively charged
d. of zero potential
5. A material with a deficiency of electrons becomes:
a. positively charged
b. negatively charged
c. isolated
d. overheated
6. A material with a surplus of electrons becomes:
a. positively charged
b. negatively charged
c. over charged
d. saturated
7. Heat produces an electric charge when:

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a. like poles are joined

b. a hard and soft glass is heated
c. the junction of two unlike metals is heated
d. hard and soft material are rubbed together
8. Friction causes:
a. mobile electricity
b. basic electricity
c. static electricity
d. wild electricity
9. Chemical action produces electricity in:
a. a light meter
b. a generator
c. a primary cell
d. starter generator
10. A photo electric cell produces electricity when:
a. two metals are heated
b. exposed to a light source
c. a light source is removed
d. exposed to the heat of the sun

Questions - Units 1
1. The difference in electric potential is measured in:
a. kVARs
b. watts
c. amps
d. volts
2. Electrical power is measured in:
a. watts

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b. amperes
c. ohms
d. volts
3. The unit measurement of electrical resistance is:
a. the volt
b. the watt
c. the ohm
d. the ampere
4. An ammeter measures:
a. current
b. power dissipation
c. differences of electrical potential
d. heat energy
5. Materials containing ‘free electrons’ are called:
a. insulators
b. resistors
c. collectors
d. conductors
6. The unit used for measuring the EMF of electricity is:
a. the ohm
b. the ampere
c. the volt
d. the watt
7. The unit used for measuring:
a. current - is the volt
b. resistance - is the ohm
c. electric power - is the capacitor
d. EMF - is the amp
8. Three resistors of 60 ohms each in parallel give a total
resistance of:
a. 180 ohms
b. 40 ohms
c. 30 ohms
d. 20 ohms
9. A voltmeter measures:
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a. electromotive force
b. the heat loss in a series circuit
c. the current flow in a circuit
d. the resistance provided by the trimming devices
10. Watts =
a. resistance squared × amps
b. volts × ohms
c. ohms × amps
d. volts × amps
Questions - Units 2
1. The total resistance of a number of power consumer
devices connected in series is:
a. the addition of the individual resistances
b. the addition of the reciprocals of the individual resistance
c. twice the reciprocal of the individual resistances
d. the reciprocal of the total
2. The total resistance of a number of resistances connected
in parallel is:
a. R = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4
b. 1 R2 1 R1 = + + + 1 RT 1 R3 1 R4
c. = + + + 1 RT R1 R3 R2 R4
d. = + + + R T1 1 R 1 R R2 1 R4 1
3. Ohm’s Law states:
a. Resistance in ohms Electromotive force in volts Current in
amps =
b. Current in amps Electromotive force in volts Resistance in
ohms =
c. Electromotive force in volts Resistance in ohms Current in
amps =
4. A device consuming 80 watts at 8 amps would have a
voltage supply of:
a. 640 volts
b. 12 volts
c. 10 volts

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d. 8 volts
5. In a simple electrical circuit, if the resistors are in parallel,
the total current consumed is equal to:
a. the sum of the currents taken by the resistors divided by
the number of resistors
b. the sum of the currents taken by the resistors
c. the average current taken by the resistors times the
number of the resistors
d. the sum of the reciprocals of the currents taken by the
resistors
6. The symbol for volts is:
a. E or W
b. V or E
c. I or V
d. R or W
7. Electrical potential is measured in:
a. watts
b. bars
c. volts
d. ohms
8. If a number of electrical consuming devices were
connected in parallel, the reciprocal of the total resistance
would be:
a. the sum of the currents
b. the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances
c. the sum of their resistances
d. volts divided by the sum of the resistances
9. The current flowing in an electrical circuit is measured in:
a. volts
b. ohms
c. inductance
d. amps
10. Electromotive force is measured in:
a. amps × volts
b. watts
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c. ohms
d. volts
Questions - General
1. Ohm’s Law is given by the formula:
a. RV I =
b. RI V =
c. VR I =
d. R = V × I
2. The current flowing in a circuit is:
a. directly proportional to resistance, indirectly proportional
to voltage
b. directly proportional to temperature, inversely
proportional to resistance
c. inversely proportional to resistance, directly proportional
to voltage
d. inversely proportional to applied voltage, directly
proportional to temperature
3. The unit of EMF is the:
a. ampere
b. vol
c. watt
d. ohm
4. Potential difference is measured in:
a. amps
b. volts
c. watts
d. ohms
5. The unit of current is the:
a. ampere
b. volt
c. watt
d. ohm
6. The unit of resistance is the:
a. ampere

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b. volt
c. watt
d. ohm
7. Electrical power is measured in:
a. amperes
b. volts
c. watts
d. ohms
8. 1250 ohms may also be expressed as:
a. 1250 k ohms
b. 1.25 k ohms
c. 1.25 M ohms
d. 0.125 k ohms
9. 1.5 M ohms may also be expressed as:
a. 15 000 ohms
b. 1500 ohms
c. 150 000 ohms
d. 1500 k ohms
10. 550 k ohms may also be expressed as:
a. 550 000 M ohms
b. 0.55 M ohms
c. 55000 ohms
d. 0.55 ohms
11. If the voltage applied to a simple resistor increases:
a. current will decrease but power consumed remains
constant
b. resistance and power decrease
c. current flow will increase and power consumed will
increase
d. current flow increases and power consumed decreases

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Circuit Protection

In an electrical circuit, abnormal conditions may arise for a

variety of reasons, which can cause overcurrent or overvoltage
conditions. therefore necessary to protect circuits against all
such faults, by the use of fuses and circuit breakers.

Circuit Protection Devices

There are a number of protection devices used in aircraft
electrical systems but only 2 basic types are discussed here:
Fuses
Circuit breakers

A fuse normally opens the circuit before full fault current

is reached, (DGCA)
whereas the circuit breaker opens after the full fault
current is reached. (DGCA)
This means that when circuit breakers are used as the
protection device, both the circuit breaker and the
component must be capable of withstanding the full fault
current for a short time.
The circuit breaker has the capability, which the fuse has
not, of opening and closing the circuit, and can perform
many such operations before replacement is necessary.
➢ Fuses
There are 3 basic types of fuse currently in use on aircraft:

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Cartridge fuse
High rupture capacity (HRC) fuse
Current limiter fuse

➢ The Cartridge Fuse

The cartridge type fuse consists of a
tubular glass or ceramic body, 2 brass
end caps and a fuse element.
A fuse operates when the current flowing
through it is sufficient to melt the wire or strip element, the
time taken varying inversely with the current.
Fuses are rated in ‘amps’.(DGCA)
A blown fuse may be replaced with another of the correct
rating once only.
If it blows again when switching on, there is a defect in the
system and the fuse must not be changed again until the
circuit has been investigated.

➢ High Rupture Capacity (HRC) Fuses

The high rupture capacity (HRC) fuse is an improvement on
the cartridge type fuse.
It is used mainly for high current rated circuits.

➢ Current Limiters
Current limiters, as the name
suggests, are designed to limit the
current to some predetermined
amperage value.
They are also thermal devices, but
unlike ordinary fuses they have a high melting point, so that

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their time/ current characteristics permit them to carry a

considerable overload current before rupturing.
For this reason their application is confined to the
protection of heavy-duty power distribution circuits.
The output of a Transformer Rectifier Unit would be a
prime location for a current limiter to be used.

➢ Circuit Breakers
Circuit breakers combine the function of
fuse and switch and can be used for
switching circuits on and off in certain
circumstances.
They are fitted to protect equipment from
damage resulting from overload, or fault conditions.
Generally, the CB incorporates an automatic thermo-
sensitive tripping device and a manually or electrically
operated switch.
CBs are common on the flight deck of modern aircraft
and can be categorized as either:
a Non-trip Free Circuit Breaker, or
a Trip Free Circuit Breaker. (DGCA)

The non-trip free circuit breaker may be held in

under fault conditions and the circuit will be made,
this is clearly dangerous.
The trip free circuit breaker if held in under the same
circumstances, the circuit can not be made.
Pressing the re-set button will reset either CB if the fault
has been cleared.

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Questions - Circuit Breakers

1. In a circuit fitted with a non-trip free circuit breaker if a fault
occurs and persists:
a. if the reset button is depressed and held in, the circuit will
be made
b. the trip button may be pressed to reset, but not
permanently
c. a non-trip free circuit breaker can never be bypassed
d. the reset button may be pressed to make the circuit
permanent
2. A trip free circuit breaker that has tripped due to overload:
a. can be reset and held in during rectification
b. can never be reset
c. can be reset after overhaul
d. may be reset manually after fault has been cleared
3. Circuit breakers and fuses:
a. are used in DC circuits only
b. are used in AC or DC circuits
c. are used in AC circuits only
d. are used in low current circuits only
4. A trip free circuit breaker is one which:
a. cannot be reset by holding the lever in while the fault
persists
b. can be reset by holding the lever in while the fault persists
c. must be held in during checks to find faults
d. can be bypassed
5. If the reset button is pressed in the trip free circuit breaker,
the contacts with the fault cleared will:
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a. be made and kept made

b. only be made if there is a fuse in the circuit
c. reset itself only after a delay of 20 seconds
d. not be made and the reset will remain inoperative
6. A circuit breaker is a device for:
a. controlling rotor movement only
b. isolating the service on overload
c. isolating the battery when using the ground batteries
d. earthing the magnetos when switching off
7. A non-trip free circuit breaker is:
a. one which can make a circuit in flight by pushing a button
b. a wire placed in a conductor which melts under overload
c. another type of voltage regulator
d. an on-off type tumbler switch
8. A non-trip free circuit breaker that has tripped due to
overload:
a. can never be reset
b. can only be reset on the ground by a maintenance
engineer
c. can be reset and held in if necessary
d. cannot be reset while the fault is still there
9. A thermal circuit breaker works on the principle of:
a. differential expansion of metals
b. differential thickness of metals
c. differential density of metals
d. differential pressure of metals
10. Circuit breakers are fitted in:
a. series with the load
b. parallel with the load
c. across the load
d. shunt with the load
Questions - Fuses
1. A fuse is said to have blown when:

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a. an excess current has burst the outer cover and

disconnected the circuit from the supply
b. the circuit is reconnected
c. a current of a higher value than the fuse rating has melted
the conductor and disconnected the circuit from the supply
d. the amperage has been sufficiently high to cause the fuse
to trip out of its holder and has therefore, disconnected the
circuit from the supply
2. In a fused circuit the fuse is:
a. in parallel with the load
b. in series with the load
c. in the conductor between generator and regulator
d. only fitted when loads are in series
3. Overloading an electrical circuit causes the fuse to ‘Blow’.
This:
a. increases the weight of the insulation
b. fractures the fuse case
c. disconnects the fuse from its holder
d. melts the fuse wire
4. What must be checked before replacing a fuse?
a. The ohms of the circuit
b. The amps being used in the circuit
c. The amps capacity of the consuming device in the circuit
d. The correct fuse volt or watts rating
5. The size of fuse required for an electrical circuit whose
power is 72 watts and whose voltage is 24 volts is:
a. 24 amps
b. 10 amps
c. 5 amps
d. 15 amps
6. When selecting a fuse for an aircraft circuit the governing
factor is:
a. the voltage of the circuit
b. cable cross-sectional area
c. resistance of the circuit
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d. power requirements of the circuit

7. A fuse in an electrical circuit is ‘blown’ by:
a. cooler air
b. the breaking of the glass tube
c. excess voltage breaking the fuse wire
d. excess current rupturing the fuse wire
8. A fuse is used to protect an electrical circuit, it is:
a. of low melting point
b. of high capacity
c. of high melting point
d. of low resistance
9. Fuses:
a. protect the load
b. protect the cable
c. protect the generator
d. protect both the circuit cable and load
10. A current limiter:
a. is a fuse with a low melting point
b. is a circuit breaker
c. is a fuse with a high melting point
d. is a fuse enclosed in a quartz or sand

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CAPACITANCE

➢ Capacitors
➢ Introduction:
A capacitor can perform three basic functions:
Stores an electrical charge by creating an electrical field
between the plates.
Will act as if it passes Alternating Current
Blocks Direct Current flow

➢ Construction:
In its simplest form a
capacitor consists of two
metal plates separated by
an insulator called a
dielectric.
Wires connected to the plates allow the capacitor to be
connected into the circuit.

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Capacitance
The capacitance (C) of a capacitor measures its ability to
store an electrical charge.
The unit of capacitance is the FARAD (F).
Factors Affecting Capacitance:
Area of the plates - a large area gives a large capacitance

Distance between the plates - a small distance gives a

large capacitance

Material of the dielectric - different materials have

different values of capacitance.

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Batteries
The purpose of a battery in an aircraft is to provide an emergency
source of power when the generator is not running and to provide
power to start the engine.
A battery is made up of a number of cells which convert
chemical energy into electrical energy.
Primary Cell
A primary cell consists of two electrodes
immersed in a chemical called an
electrolyte.
The electrolyte encourages electron transfer
between the electrodes until there is a
potential difference between them.

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When the electron transfer ceases the cell is fully charged and
the potential difference is approximately 1.5 volts between the
two electrodes.
When the positive and negative terminals
are connected to an external circuit
electrons flow from the negative terminal
to the positive terminal through the
circuit.
As this circulation of electrons continues,
the negative electrode slowly dissolves in the electrolyte until it
is eventually eaten away and the cell is then “dead” and is
discarded.
Primary cells cannot be recharged.
Secondary Cells
Secondary cells work on the same principle as primary cells but
the chemical energy in the cell can be restored when the cell
has been discharged by passing a “charging current” through the
cell in the reverse direction to that of the discharge current.
In this way the secondary cell can be discharged and recharged
many times over a long period of time.(DGCA)
During recharging electrical energy is converted into chemical
energy which is retained until the cell is discharged again.
The Capacity of a cell is a measure of how much current a cell can
provide in a certain time.
Capacity is measured in Ampere hours (Ah) (DGCA)
A cell with a capacity of 80 Ah should provide a current of 8 A for
10 hours, or 80 A for 1 hr.
Capacity is normally measured at the 1 hour rate.

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Cells in Series Cells in Parallel

positive terminal of one cell is positive terminals are joined
connected to the negative together and the negative
terminal terminals are joined together
total voltage is the sum of the total voltage is that of one
individual cell voltages cell
But the capacity is that of one capacity is the sum of the
cell. individual cell capacities.

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Lead Acid Battery

One of the most common types of
secondary cell is the Lead Acid cell.
The active material of the positive
plate is lead peroxide and the
negative plate is spongy lead, both
plates are immersed in an
electrolyte solution of water and sulphuric acid.
The state of charge of a lead acid cell can be determined by
measuring the strength of the electrolyte solution.
Hydrometer which measures the specific gravity (SG).
A fully charged cell will have a SG of 1.27, a discharged cell will
have a SG of 1.17. (DGCA)
When the SG has fallen to 1.17 and the voltage to 1.8 volts the
cell should be recharged.
To charge a cell it is connected to a battery charger which applies
a slightly higher voltage to the cell and causes current to flow in
the reverse direction through the cell.
While this is happening the lead sulphate which had been
deposited on the plates is removed and the SG of the
electrolyte rises to 1.27.
The on load/nominal voltage of each cell of a lead acid battery
is 2 volts.
The off load voltage of each cell of a lead acid battery is 2.2
volts.
Electrolytes are highly corrosive and if spilled in aircraft can
cause extensive damage.

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The neutralizing agent to be used for an acid electrolyte is a

sodium bicarbonate solution.
Alkaline Battery (Nickel Cadmium, NiCad)
Lead acid batteries are still used in
some smaller aircraft but have been
largely replaced by Nickel Cadmium
(alkaline type) batteries.
The plates are nickel oxide and
cadmium and the electrolyte is
potassium hydroxide.
The SG of the electrolyte is 1.24 - 1.30.
The on-load voltage of one cell is about 1.2 volts.
Unlike the lead acid battery, the
relative SG of the nickel-cadmium
battery electrolyte does not change
and the voltage variation from “fully
charged” to “fully discharged,” is very
slight.
The terminal voltage remains
substantially constant at 1.2 volts throughout most of the
discharge.
NiCad batteries have a low thermal capacity; the heat generated
in certain conditions is faster than it can dissipate, so causing
a rapid increase in temperature.
This condition is known as a thermal runaway, and can cause
so much heat that the battery may explode.(DGCA)
Battery Checks

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The Capacity of a battery is the product of the load in amperes that

the manufacturers state it will deliver, and the time in hours that
the battery is capable of supplying that load.
The capacity is measured in ampere hours (Ah).(DGCA)
A 40 Ah battery when discharged at the 1 hour rate should supply
40 amps for the 1 hour. This is known as the ‘rated load’.
A Capacity Test, a test to determine the actual capacity of
aircraft batteries, is carried out every 3 months and the
efficiency must be 80% or more for the battery to remain in
service.DGCA
This capacity will ensure that essential loads can be supplied
for a period of 30 minutes following a generator failure. (DGCA)
Battery Charging
A Constant Voltage Charging system is employed with most lead
acid batteries to maintain the battery in a fully charged condition
during flight. With this system the output voltage of the generator
is maintained constant at 14 volts for a 12 volt battery and 28
volts for a 24 volt battery.
The generator voltage exceeds the battery voltage by 2 volts for
every 12 volts of battery potential.(DGCA)
NOTE: After starting an engine using the aircraft’s battery, whether
it is a lead acid battery or an alkaline battery, the generator, when
it is on line, recharges that battery.
A high charge rate could result in a battery overheating and
subsequent damage.

SHELF LIFE:(DGCA)

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Lead acid batteries are stored in a charged state to prevent

deterioration of the battery by sulphation.
NiCad batteries can be stored in a discharged state with no
detrimental effect to the battery and therefore have a longer
storage life or ‘shelf life’.

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Questions - Batteries 1
1. Battery voltage is tested with:
a. a megometer
b. a voltmeter on rated load
c. an ammeter with a rated voltage
d. a hygrometer
2. Two 12 V 40 Ah batteries connected in series will produce:
a. 12 V 80 Ah
b. 12 V 20 Ah
c. 24 V 80 Ah
d. 24 V 40 Ah
3. Two 12 V 40 Ah batteries connected in parallel will produce:
a. 12 V 80 Ah
b. 24 V 80 Ah
c. 12 V 20 Ah
d. 24 V 40 Ah
4. A battery capacity test is carried out:
a. 6 monthly
b. 2 monthly
c. 3 monthly
d. every minor check
5. An aircraft has three batteries each of 12 volts with 40 Ah
capacity connected in series. The resultant unit has:
a. a voltage of 36 and a capacity of 120 Ah
b. a capacity of 120 Ah and a voltage of 12
c. a capacity of 36 Ah and 120 watts
d. a voltage of 36 and a capacity of 40 Ah
6. An aircraft has a battery with a capacity of 40 Ah. Assuming
that it will provide its normal capacity and is discharged at the
10 hour rate:
a. it will pass 40 amps for 10 hrs

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b. it will pass 10 amps for 4 hrs

c. it will pass 4 amps for 10 hrs
d. it will pass 40 amps for 1 hr
7. Battery capacity percentage efficiency must always be:
a. 10% above saturation level
b. above 70%
c. 80% or more
d. above 90%
8. The method of ascertaining the voltage of a standard
aircraft lead acid battery is by checking:
a. the voltage on open circuit
b. the current flow with a rated voltage charge
c. the voltage off load
d. the voltage with rated load switched ON
9. A battery is checked for serviceability by:
a. using an ammeter
b. measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte
c. a boric acid solution
d. using an ohmmeter
10. In an AC circuit:
a. the battery is connected in series
b. a battery cannot be used because the wire is too thick
c. a battery cannot be used because it is DC
d. only NiCad batteries can be used
Questions - Batteries 2
1. The specific gravity of a fully charged lead acid cell is:
a. 1.270
b. 1.090
c. 1.120
d. 0.1270
2. The nominal voltage of the lead acid cell is:
a. 1.2 volts
b. 1.5 volts

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c. 1.8 volts
d. 2.0 volts
3. A lead acid battery voltage should be checked:
a. on open circuit
b. using a trimmer circuit
c. with an ammeter
d. on load
4. In an aircraft having a battery of 24 volts nominal off load
and fully charged the voltmeter would read:
a. 22 volts
b. 24 volts
c. 26 volts
d. 28 volts
5. The system used to maintain aircraft batteries in a high
state of charge is the:
a. constant current system
b. constant load system
c. constant resistance system
d. constant voltage system
6. If you connect two identical batteries in series it will:
a. double the volts and halve the capacity
b. reduce the voltage by 50%
c. double the volts and leave the capacity the same
d. double the volts and double the amps flowing in a circuit
with twice the resistance
7. The nominal voltage of an alkaline cell is:
a. 2.2 volts
b. 1.8 volts
c. 1.2 volts
d. 0.12 volts
8. The specific gravity of a fully charged alkaline cell is:
a. 0.120 - 0.130
b. 1.160
c. 1.240 - 1.30

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d. 1.800
9. The electrolyte used in the lead acid cell is diluted:
a. hydrochloric acid
b. sulphuric acid
c. boric acid
d. potassium hydroxide
10. The electrolyte used in an alkaline battery is diluted:
a. saline solution
b. sulphuric acid
c. cadmium and distilled water
d. potassium hydroxide solution
Questions - Batteries 3
1. The number of lead acid cells required to make up a twelve
volt battery is:
a. 8
b. 12
c. 6
d. 10
2. A voltmeter across the terminals of a battery with all
services off will indicate:
a. electromotive force
b. resistance
c. a flat battery
d. residual voltage
3. The voltage of a secondary cell is:
a. determined by the number of plates
b. determined by the area of the plates
c. determined by the diameter of the main terminals
d. determined by the active materials on the plates
4. The level of the electrolyte must be maintained:
a. just below the top plate
b. above the plates level with the filler cap
c. one inch below the top of the plates
d. just above the top of the plates
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5. To top up the electrolyte add:

a. sulphuric acid
b. distilled water
c. sulphuric acid diluted with distilled water
d. boric acid
6. Non-spill vents are used on aircraft batteries to:
a. prevent spillage of electrolyte during violent manoeuvres
b. stop spillage of the water only
c. prevent the escape of gases
d. prevent spillage during topping-up
7. The capacity of a lead acid battery is:
a. determined by the area of the plates
b. determined by the active materials on the plates
c. determined by the size of the series coupling bars
d. determined by the number of separators
8. Acid spillage in an aircraft can be neutralized by using:
a. caustic soda
b. soap and water
c. soda and water
d. bicarbonate of soda and water
9. When the battery master switch is switched off in flight:
a. the generators are disconnected from the bus bar
b. the ammeter reads maximum
c. the battery is isolated from the bus bar
d. the battery is discharged through the bonding circuit
diodes
10. When the generator is on line the battery is:
a. in parallel with the other loads
b. in series with the generator
c. in series when the generator is on line and is relayed when
the generator is off line
d. load sharing

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Answers - Batteries 1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b d a c d c c d b c

Answers - Batteries 2
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
a d d c d c c c b d

Answers - Batteries 3
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c a d d b a a d c a

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