24/HV/M–2023–14 Booklet Series

Serial No.
Candidate’s Roll Number

Question Booklet
A
LANGUAGE, GENERAL STUDIES AND PHYSICS
Time Allowed : 2:30 Hours Maximum Marks : 150

Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Question Booklet is divided into three Parts—Part–I, Part–II and Part–III. Part–I contains
questions of Language (Qualifying), Part–II contains questions of General Studies and Part–III
contains questions of Physics.
2. Part–I consists of Question Nos. 1 to 30, Part–II consists of Question Nos. 31 to 70 and Part–III
consists of Question Nos. 71 to 150. The questions and their responses are printed in English
and Hindi versions both of Part–II and Part–III.
3. All questions carry equal marks.
4. Immediately after commencement of the examination, you should check up your Question
Booklet and ensure that the Question Booklet Series is printed on the top right-hand corner
of the Booklet. Please check that the Booklet contains 48 printed pages including two pages
(Page Nos. 46 and 47) for Rough Work and no page or question is missing or unprinted or
torn or repeated. If you find any defect in this Booklet, get it replaced immediately by
a complete Booklet of the same series.
5. You must write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page. Do not write
anything else on the Question Booklet.
6. An Answer Sheet will be supplied to you separately by the Invigilator to mark the answers. You
must write your Name and other particulars in the space provided on Page–1 of the Answer
Sheet provided, failing which your Answer Sheet will not be evaluated.
7. You should encode your Roll Number and the Question Booklet Series A, B, C or D as it is
printed on the top right-hand corner of the Question Booklet with Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen in
the space provided on Page–2 of your Answer Sheet. If you do not encode or fail to encode the
correct series of your Question Booklet, your Answer Sheet will not be evaluated correctly.
8. Each question comprises of five responses—(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You are to select ONLY ONE
correct response and mark it in your Answer Sheet. Your total marks will depend on the number
of correct responses marked by you in the Answer Sheet.
9. In the Answer Sheet, there are five circles— A , B , C , D and E against each question. To
answer the questions, you are to mark with Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen ONLY ONE circle of your
choice for each question. Select only one response for each question and mark it in your Answer
Sheet. If you mark more than one answer for one question, the answer will be treated as wrong.
Use Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen only to mark the answer in the Answer Sheet. Any erasure
or change is not allowed.
10. You should not remove or tear off any sheet from the Question Booklet. You are not allowed to
take this Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet out of the Examination Hall during the
examination. After the examination has concluded, you must hand over your Answer Sheet
to the Invigilator. Thereafter, you are permitted to take away the Question Booklet with you.
11. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render you liable to such action or
penalty as the Commission may decide at their discretion.
12. Candidates must assure before leaving the Examination Hall that their Answer Sheets will be kept
in Self Adhesive LDPE Bag and completely packed/sealed in their presence.

‹`mZ X| : AZwXoem| H$m {h›Xr Í$nm›Va Bg nwpÒVH$m Ho$ Ap›V_ n•> na N>nm h°ü&
 PART—I
( LANGUAGE )

Directions (Q. Nos. 1 and 2) : Fill in 5. Rainy season comes before

the blanks with suitable articles like
(A) winter
‘a’, ‘an’ and ‘the’ :
(B) spring
1. There are 30 or 31 days in _____
(C) summer
month.
(A) the (D) More than one of the above
(B) a (E) None of the above
(C) an
(D) More than one of the above 6. The eighth month of the year is
(E) None of the above
(A) July
2. My father is _____ engineer in (B) September
the Water Works Department.
(C) October
(A) the
(D) More than one of the above
(B) an
(C) a (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above 7. Sister-in-law is
(A) husband’s sister
3. Which of the following is a part
of bedroom? (B) wife’s sister
(A) Pillow (C) brother’s wife
(B) Table lamp
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Curtains
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
8. Cousins are
4. Which of the following is a part
of a room? (A) maternal
(A) Window (B) paternal
(B) Ceiling (C) siblings
(C) Floor
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 2
 9. "Mm±Xr' e„X _| H$m°Z-gr gßkm h°? 13. {deofU H$m ‡_wI ^oX H$m°Z-gm Zht h°?
(A) –Ï`dmMH$ gßkm (A) Agmd©Zm{_H$ {deofU
(B) Om{VdmMH$ gßkm (B) JwUdmMH$ {deofU
(C) ^mddmMH$ gßkm (C) n[a_mUdmMH$ {deofU
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$ (D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht (E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht

10. {ZÂZ{b{IV e„Xm| _| go H$m°Z-gm "EH$dMZ' h°? 14. {ZÂZ{b{IV _| go H$m°Z-gm Aew’ e„X h°?
(A) hÒVmja (A) dr^Àg
(B) N>m`m (B) bJmZ
(C) Am±gy (C) AmJm_r
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht

11. {h›Xr e„XH$moe _| "j' H$m H´$_ {H$g dU© Ho$

15. {ZÂZ{b{IV _| go H$m°Z-gm ew’ dV©Zr dmbm
~mX AmVm h°?
e„X h°?
(A) Ã Ho$ n¸mV≤
(A) j{Ã`
(B) k Ho$ n¸mV≤
(B) jÃr`
(C) H$ Ho$ n¸mV≤
(C) CÇmdb
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht
12. ""{OgH$s `h nwÒVH$ h°, Cgo bm°Q>m Xmoü&'' Bg
dmä` _| H$m°Z-gm gd©Zm_ h°? 16. {ZÂZ{b{IV _| go H$m°Z-gm "VÀg_' e„X h°?
(A) {Z¸`dmMH$ (A) Ka
(B) gß~ßYdmMH$ (B) ÒZoh
(C) nwÈfdmMH$ (C) N>oX
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$ (D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht (E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 3 [ P.T.O.

 17. {ZÂZ{b{IV _| go H$m°Z-gm {dXoer e„X h°? 21. {ZÂZ{b{IV _| go H$m°Z-gm e„X Í$ãT> e„X Zht
(A) ~mK h°?

(B) narjm (A) bH$ãS>r

(C) Mm` (B) ObYmam

(C) _h{f©
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht
18. aMZm Ho$ AmYma na "{OZ e„Xm| Ho$ IßS> gmW©H$
Z hm|' C›h| H$m°Z-gm e„X H$hm OmVm h°? 22. "Im[aO' {H$g ^mfm H$m e„X h°?
(A) Í$ãT> (A) Aa~r
(B) `m°{JH$ (B) \$magr

(C) `moJÍ$ãT> (C) VwH$s©

(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht
23. Aew’ Am°a ew’ dV©Zr H$m H$m°Z-gm `wΩ_ ghr
19. {ZÂZ{b{IV _| go {H$g dmä` _| "AH$_©H$
Zht h°?
{H´$`m' h°?
(A) H$mo_bmß{JZrççH$mo_bmßJr
(A) Cgo _V bOmAmoü&
(B) gwlyfmççewlyfm
(B) ~m{bH$m bOmVr h°ü&
(C) _mhmÀ_çç_hmÀÂ`
(C) godH$ ZXr go JmJa ^aVm h°ü&
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht
24. ""CgH$m ^{dÓ` COdb h°ü&'' Bg dmä` _|
20. {ZÂZ{b{IV _| go H$m°Z-gm XoeO e„X h°? aoImß{H$V e„X H$s ew’ dV©Zr H$m°Z-gr h°?
(A) Amdmam (A) CÇdb
(B) ^m¢am (B) C¡db
(C) nadb (C) CÇmdb
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$ (D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht (E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 4
 25. EH$ N>moQ>r AmH•${V H$m M_H$sbm dJ©, Omo ÒH´$sZ 28. {h›Xr ^mfm Ho$ CX≤^d H$m H$mb _mZm OmVm h°
na {H$gr {Mï H$s pÒW{V H$mo ÒnÔ> H$aVm h°,
Cgo ä`m H$hVo h¢? (A) 500 B©0 ny0

(A) H$aga (B) 500 B©0

(B) {Mn (C) 1000 B©0

(C) H$_mßS> (D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$

(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$ (E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht

(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht
29. ^maVr` H$mÏ`emÛ _| j_merb, JÂ^ra,
pÒWa{MŒm, Òdm{^_mZr Edß —ãT> ‡{Vk Zm`H$ H$mo
26. "Hw$ÈjoÃ' Ho$ boIH$ H$m ä`m Zm_ h°?
H$hm J`m h°
(A) h[aAm°Y
(A) Yrab{bV
(B) lrYa nmR>H$
(B) YramoXmŒm
(C) _°{WbreaU Jw·
(C) Yra ‡emßV
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht

27. ""OgmoXm h[a nmbZ° Pwbmd°ü&

hbamd° XwbamB _Îhmd¢, OmoB-gmoB H$Nw> Jmd¢ü&&'' 30. {OZ e„Xm| na qbJ, dMZ, H$maH$ H$m H$moB©
‡^md Z nãS>o, do H$hbmVo h¢
C∫$ H$mÏ`-nß{∫$`m| _| H$m°Z-gm ag h°?
(A) Ï``
(A) ˚m•ßJma
(B) {dH$mar
(B) dra
(C) A{dH$mar
(C) dmÀgÎ`
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(D) Cn`w©∫$ _| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht (E) Cn`w©∫$ _| go H$moB© Zht

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 5 [ P.T.O.

 PART—II
( GENERAL STUDIES )

31. The floor of a rectangular hall 34. The equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0 has

has a perimeter 250 meters. If two distinct real roots, if
the cost of painting the four
walls at the rate of R 10 per
(A) b 2 - 4ac < 0
(meter ) 2 is R 15,000, then the
height of the hall is
(B) b 2 - 4ac > 0
(A) 7 meters
(B) 16 meters
(C) b 2 - 4ac = 0
(C) 6 meters
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
32. Which of the following
statements is not true?
(A) Every natural number is a
whole number. 35. Mohan can do a bit of work in
(B) Every integer is a whole 25 days which can be completed
number. by Sohan in 20 days. Both
together labour for 5 days and
(C) Every natural number is an afterward Mohan leaves off. How
integer number. long will Sohan take to complete
(D) More than one of the above the remaining work?
(E) None of the above
(A) 20 days
33. The average of 7 consecutive
numbers is 20. The largest of
(B) 11 days
these numbers is
(A) 20
(C) 14 days
(B) 21
(C) 23 (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 6
 36. If X = a 2 - b 2, Y = 30 and 39. Myopia is a disease in which a
a + b = 15, then person cannot see

(A) X is lesser than Y if a = b (A) distant objects clearly

(B) X is greater thanY if a > b (B) nearby objects clearly

(C) Y is greater than X if a = b (C) nearby as well as distant

objects clearly
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

37. The probability of a non leap

year selected at random will 40. The term ‘heredity’ chiefly refers
contain 53 Sundays is to

1 (A) anatomy
(A)
7
(B) meiosis
2
(B)
53 (C) genetics

1 (D) More than one of the above

(C)
53
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above 41. The cans in which food is

packed are coated with tin and
not zinc because
38. If 712x + 6 = 49 3x +12 , then the
value of x is (A) tin is more reactive than
zinc
(A) 3
(B) zinc is more reactive than
(B) 4 tin

(C) 7 (C) zinc is costlier than tin

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 8
 42. The process in which 44. Trachoma disease is related to
atmospheric carbon dioxide is
converted into carbohydrates (A) lungs
during photosynthesis is
(B) ears

(C) eyes
(A) oxidation
(D) More than one of the above

(B) reduction (E) None of the above

(C) hydrolysis 45. Which of the following makes

use of Newton’s third law of
motion?
(D) More than one of the above
(A) Archery

(E) None of the above (B) Space rocket

(C) Venturimeter

(D) More than one of the above

43. The quality of a printer is
determined as (E) None of the above

(A) words per inch 46. Particles which can be added to

the nucleus of an atom without
changing its chemical properties
(B) strike per inch are

(A) neutrons
(C) dots per inch
(B) electrons

(C) protons
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 10
 47. Before Elon Musk announced 50. What is the full form of INDIA, a
change of the signature Blue recently formed alliance of
Bird logo to Sign ‘X’ logo, who is opposition political parties?
regarded as the creator of
Twitter’s iconic Bird in its final (A) Indian National Develop-
version in 2012? mental Inclusive Alliance
(A) Jack Dorsey
(B) Indian National Develop-
(B) Martin Grasser
ment for Improvement
(C) Noah Glass Alliance
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Indian National Develop-
(E) None of the above mental Inclusive Associa-
tion
48. Who is the Director of the
famous film Oppenheimer, a film (D) More than one of the above
about high-concept science,
released this year?
(E) None of the above
(A) Christopher Nolan
(B) Guy Ritchie
(C) Laura McGann
51. What message was sent by
(D) More than one of the above Chandrayaan–2 lunar orbiter to
Chandrayaan–3’s lander module
(E) None of the above
when it established contact with
it in August 2023?
49. Which one of the following has
pulled out from hosting the
(A) “Welcome home”
2026 edition of Commonwealth
Games due to huge estimated
expenditure on its organization? (B) “Chalo chand ke paar
chalein”
(A) London, UK
(B) Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia (C) “Welcome, buddy”

(C) Victoria, Australia

(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 12
 52. Name the former President of 55. As per geographical area,
China who crushed the pro- arrange the following physio-
democracy movement in 1989. graphic units of India in
ascending order
(A) Mao Tse Tung
1. Central highlands
(B) Yang Shangkun
2. Great plains
(C) Jiang Zemin 3. Coastal plains
(D) More than one of the above 4. Northern Mountains

(E) None of the above Select the correct answer using

the codes given below.

53. Who has elected for the second (A) 3, 1, 2, 4

term as Ireland’s Prime (B) 1, 2, 3, 4
Minister?
(C) 2, 4, 1, 3
(A) Sanna Marin
(D) More than one of the above
(B) Robert Abela (E) None of the above
(C) Leo Varadkar
56. Arrange the following ranges
(D) More than one of the above from North to South in
sequence :
(E) None of the above
1. Ladakh

54. African Union was made a 2. Karakoram

permanent member in the G–20 3. Pir Panjal
Summit held in India. Who is
4. Zanskar
the Chairman of the African
Union? Select the correct answer using
the codes given below.
(A) Azali Assoumani
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) Justin Trudeau
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) Ursula von der Leyen
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 14
 57. During the monsoon season in 60. When running water cuts
India, most of the cyclones have through clayey soils and makes
their origin deep channels, they lead to

(A) between 8° N and 13° N (A) gully erosion

latitude
(B) sheet erosion
(B) between 10° N and 15° N
latitude (C) deforestation

(C) between 16° N and 21° N (D) More than one of the above
latitude
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

61. Which of the following receives
heavy rainfall in the month of
58. Which of the following areas is October and November?
not landslide-prone area?
(A) Hills of Garo, Khasi and
(A) Western Ghats Jaintia

(B) Eastern Ghats (B) Coromandel Coasts

(C) Himalayan Regions (C) Plateau of Chota Nagpur

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

59. Which of the following coasts of

62. Cultivation of fruits and
India is most affected by violent
vegetables is called
tropical cyclones?
(A) floriculture
(A) Malabar

(B) Coromandel (B) agriculture

(C) Konkan (C) horticulture

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 16
 63. Who provided leadership in the 67. Queen Victoria’s Proclamation
districts of Patna, Ara and was issued on which of the
Shahabad during the Revolt of following dates?
1857 in Bihar? (A) 1 November, 1857
(A) Raj Kumar Shukla (B) 27 March, 1858
(B) Namdar Khan (C) 1 November, 1858
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Kunwar Singh
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
68. Which of the following
(E) None of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Raja Rammohan Roy was
64. The Partition of Bengal was
the pioneer of modern
made effective on
education.
(A) 14 October, 1905
(B) Swami Dayanand
(B) 15 October, 1905 proclaimed India for
(C) 16 October, 1905 Indians.
(D) More than one of the above (C) Vivekananda participated in
the Parliament of World
(E) None of the above
Religions.
65. The Quit India Resolution was (D) More than one of the above
adopted by the Congress in (E) None of the above
Bombay on 69. Who among the following
(A) 7 August, 1942 became India’s unofficial
Ambassador to England?
(B) 8 August, 1942
(A) Surendranath Banerjee
(C) 9 August, 1942
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) More than one of the above (C) Swami Vivekananda
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
66. The British ruled India for a long
70. Who described the Government
period due to the
of India Act, 1935 as a ‘Charter
(A) liberal policies of the of Slavery’ ?
Congress (A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) imprisonment of Indian (B) Netaji Subhas Chandra
leaders Bose
(C) policy of Divide and Rule (C) Maulana Hasrat Mohani
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 18
 PART—III
( PHYSICS )

71. Laser light beamed at the moon, 74. The nearest star to our solar
takes 2·56 seconds to return system is 4·29 light-year away.
after reflection at the moon’s How much is this distance in
surface. The radius of the lunar terms of parsecs?
orbit around the earth would be (A) 1323 parsecs
(A) 3 × 84 ´ 10 5 km (B) 1·323 parsecs
(C) 132·3 parsecs
(B) 3 × 84 ´ 10 5 m
(D) More than one of the above
5 (E) None of the above
(C) 0 × 384 ´ 10 km

(D) More than one of the above 75. A capacitor of capacitance

C = (2 × 0 ± 0 ×1) mF is charged to a
(E) None of the above voltage V = (20 ± 0 × 5) volts. The
total charge on the capacitor
72. The technique used to measure within the error would be
large time intervals is
(A) (40 × 0 ± 3 × 0) ´ 10 -6 C
(A) solar eclipse
(B) (40 × 0 ± 0 × 3) ´ 10 -6 C
(B) radioactive dating
(C) relativistic technique (C) (40 × 0 ± 3 × 0) ´ 10 6 C
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

76. Which of the following is the

73. The voltage across a lamp
most precise device for
is V = (6 × 0 ± 0 ×1) volt, and current
measuring length?
passing through it is
I = (4 ± 0 × 2) ampere. Considering (A) Vernier calliper with 20
the power consumed P = VI , by divisions on sliding scale
the electric lamp within error (B) Screw gauge having pitch
limit would be 1 mm and 100 divisions on
circular scale
(A) (24 ± 1× 6) watt
(C) An optical instrument that
(B) (24 ± 16) watt
can measure length within
(C) (0 × 24 ± 1× 6) watt a wavelength of light
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 20
 77. For photoelectric emission, 80. Two trains, each having a speed
tungsten requires light of of 30 km/hr are headed at each
wavelength 2300 Å. If light of other on the same track. A bird
1800 Å wavelength is incident that can fly 60 km/hr, flies off
on it, the emission the front of one train, when they
were 60 km apart and heads
(A) takes place
directly to the other train. On
(B) does not take place reaching the train, the bird flies
back to the first train. The total
(C) may not take place
distance the bird travels before
(D) More than one of the above the train collides would be
(E) None of the above (A) 60 km
(B) 30 km
(C) 90 km
78. The wavelength of photon of (D) More than one of the above
energy 1 keV is 1×24 ´ 10 -9 m. The (E) None of the above
frequency of 1 MeV photon
81. The displacement of a particle
would be
moving along x-axis is given
(A) 1× 24 ´ 1015 as X = 18t + 15t 2 . The instan-
taneous velocity at t = 25 s
(B) 2 × 4 ´ 10 20 would be
(A) 18 m/s
(C) 12 × 4 ´ 1015 (B) 28 m/s
(C) 78 m/s
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above 82. Monochromatic light of
14
frequency 6 × 0 ´ 10 hertz is
79. The small unit of area, used to produced by a laser. If the power
measure area of nuclear cross- emitted is 2 × 0 ´ 10 -3 watt, then
section is
the number of photons emitted
(A) Bohr magneton per second by the laser is
(B) Barn (A) 5 × 0 ´ 10 -5
(B) 5 × 0 ´ 1015
(C) Rydberg
(C) 7 × 96 ´ 1019
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 22
 83. The speed measured by the 87. If a particle moving in
speedometer of a scooter is straight line, has displacement
(A) average x = 10t + 15t 2 , (here x is in
meters and time t is in second)
(B) instantaneous
the average acceleration would
(C) final
be
(D) More than one of the above
(A) 90 m/s 2
(E) None of the above
(B) 9 m/s 2
84. The position of an object is given
(C) 900 m/s 2
by x = 2t 2 + 3t. Its motion would
be (D) More than one of the above
(A) uniform (E) None of the above
(B) non-uniform
(C) partial uniform 88. When moving object covers
(D) More than one of the above equal distance in equal time, the
object is said to have
(E) None of the above
acceleration

85. The position of the body is given (A) zero

by x = A sin wt. The time at (B) infinite
which the displacement would
be maximum would be (C) finite
(A) p/w (D) More than one of the above
(B) p/2w (E) None of the above
(C) pw
(D) More than one of the above 89. A ball is thrown vertically
(E) None of the above upward with a velocity of
20 m/s from the top of a
86. If the change in velocity of a building. If g = 10 m/s 2 , then
body is equal for equal interval how high will the ball rise?
of time, it is said to move with
(A) 20 m
(A) uniform acceleration
(B) 2 m
(B) non-uniform acceleration
(C) 200 m
(C) exponential acceleration
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 24
 90. A car moving with a speed of 93. A block of 8 kg, initially at rest is
50 km/hr can be stopped by pulled to right along a friction-
brakes after covering 6 m. What less horizontal surface by a
would be the minimum stopping constant force of 12 N. The
distance, if the car is moving at velocity of the block after it has
a speed of 100 km/hr? moved 3 meters would be
(A) 24 m (A) 3 m/s
(B) 2·4 m (B) 30 m/s
(C) 240 m (C) 0·3 m/s
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

91. A cricket ball is thrown at a 94. A small pebble drop of mass

speed of 28 m/s in a direction 1 gram falling from a cliff of
30º above horizontal. The height 1 km hits the ground
maximum height attained by the with a speed of 50 m/s. The
ball would be work done by the resistive force
(A) 10 m would be
(B) 100 m (A) 8·75 joules
(C) 1000 m (B) –8·75 joules
(D) More than one of the above (C) –87·5 joules
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
92. A rocket of mass 0·1 kg has fuel
of mass 0·02 kg, which it burns
95. A body of mass m released from
out in 3 seconds. It starts from
rest, from the top of a smooth
rest on horizontal smooth track
inclined plane of height h. Just
and attains speed of 20 m/s
before it hits the ground, its
after the fuel is burn out. The
speed is given as
thrust on the rocket due to the
burning of fuel would be (A) 2gh
(A) 2 newton (B) (2gh )½
(B) 2/3 newton
(C) 2(g / h )½
(C) 3/2 newton
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 26
 96. If a spring force is expressed as 99. A person trying to lose weight,
the difference between the initial lifts a 100 kg mass up to
and final value of potential 0·5 meter, 1000 times. If the
energy function, then the spring potential energy lost each time,
force is said to be he lowers the mass, is
dissipated, the work done
(A) conservative
against the gravitational force is
(B) non-conservative
(A) 49000 joules
(C) relaxation (B) 49 joules
(D) More than one of the above (C) 490 joules
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
97. The principle of conservation of
mechanical energy states that if 100. A child of mass 20 kg takes a
only conservation forces do ride on a curved slide of height
work, the mechanical energy 6 meters. The child starts from
rest at the top. The speed of the
(A) remains constant
child at the bottom would be
(B) decreases (A) 11 m/s
(C) increases (B) 10 km/s
(D) More than one of the above (C) 1 m/s

(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
98. A block of mass m is extended to
a position x m and released from 101. A spring is cut into two equal
rest. If the maximum velocity is halves. The spring constant of
at any point x, and x lies in each half will be
between -x m and x m , then x (A) same as that of original
would be equal to spring
(A) zero (B) twice, as that of original
spring
(B) -x m
(C) one-half, as that of original
(C) +x m spring
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 28
102. If the momentum of a body 105. A comet moves around the sun
increased by 300%, then in an elliptical orbit. The work
percentage increase in done by the gravitational force
momentum would be due to sun over every complete
orbit of the comet would be
(A) 300%
(A) infinite
(B) 400%
(B) finite
(C) 100%
(C) zero
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

103. An electron and a proton are

detected in a cosmic-ray 106. A helicopter lifts an astronaut of
experiment, the first with kinetic 72 kg, 15 meters vertically from
energy of 10 keV and second the ocean by means of a cable. If
with 100 keV, respectively. How the acceleration acting on the
are their velocities related? astronaut is g/10, the force from
the helicopter would be
(A) Proton moving faster
(A) 11880 joules
(B) Electron moving faster
(B) 10880 joules
(C) Both electron and proton
(C) 980 joules
move with same velocity
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

107. A boy of mass 40 kg walks up a

104. The casing of a rocket in its flight stair to a vertical distance
flight from earth to moon burns of 12 meters in a time interval of
due to friction. The required 40 seconds. The rate of doing
heat energy for burning comes work against the force of gravity,
from g = 10, would be
(A) rocket (A) 120 watt
(B) atmosphere (B) 12 watt
(C) sun (C) 100 watt
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 30
108. In an elastic collision in between 111. A pump on the ground floor of
two bodies of equal mass, the a building can pump water to fill
kinetic energy is conserved a tank of volume 30 m 3 in
(A) after the collision 15 minutes. If the tank is
40 meters above the ground and
(B) during the collision efficiency of pump is 30%, then
(C) before the collision the electric power consumed is
(A) 43·57 kW
(D) More than one of the above
(B) 435·7 kW
(E) None of the above (C) 4·35 kW
(D) More than one of the above
109. A railway carriage having mass (E) None of the above
8000 kg moving with a velocity
54 km/hour collides with 112. In an atom, electron revolves in
another stationary carriage of a circular orbit of radius 0·53 Å
same mass. The loss of kinetic with a velocity 2 × 2 ´ 10 6 m/s
energy would be
with an angle 30º. If the mass
(A) 450 kilojoules of electron is 9 ´ 10 -31 kg, the
angular momentum of the
(B) 250 kilojoules
electron would be
(C) 45 kilojoules (A) 52 × 47 ´ 10 -34 kg m 2 /s
(D) More than one of the above (B) 5 × 247 ´ 10 -34 kg m 2 /s
(E) None of the above
(C) 524 × 7 ´ 10 -34 kg m 2 /s

(D) More than one of the above

110. The power of a motor capable of
raising 2000 litres of water from (E) None of the above
a well of 120 meters deep in
113. If the linear and angular
5 minutes would be (g = 9·8,
momentum of a rigid body are
density of water 1 kg/litre)
not changing with time, the
(A) 7·840 kW body is said to be in
(B) 78·40 kW (A) equilibrium
(B) unstable equilibrium
(C) 784 kW
(C) finite equilibrium
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 32
114. The bottom of ship is made 117. An energy of 484 joules is spent
heavy to keep centre of gravity in increasing the speed of a
(A) at low level flywheel from 60 r.p.m. to
360 r.p.m. The moment of
(B) at high level
inertia of the flywheel would be
(C) at medium level
(A) 0·7 kg-m 2
(D) More than one of the above
(B) 7·0 kg-m 2
(E) None of the above
(C) 70 kg-m 2
115. A particle on a rotating disc has (D) More than one of the above
initial and final angular
positions as (E) None of the above

(i) -2 rad, +6 rad

118. The angular speed of a
(ii) -4 rad, -8 rad
motor wheel is increased from
(iii) +6 rad, +2 rad 1200 r.p.m. to 3120 r.p.m. in
16 seconds. Its uniform angular
In which case the particle acceleration would be
undergoes a negative displace-
ment? (A) 4p rad/s 2
(A) (i) (B) 0·4p rad/s 2
(B) (ii) (C) 40p rad/s 2
(C) (iii)
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
119. A wheel has a constant angular
116. The moment of inertia I of a
acceleration of 3·0 rad/s 2 .
rigid body about an axis of
During 4·0 seconds interval, it
rotation and rotational kinetic
turns through an angle of
energy (KE) of the body rotating
120 rad. Its initial angular speed
with unit angular velocity about
at t = 0 would be
that axis is related as
(A) 2·4 rad/s
(A) I = 2KE
(B) I = KE (B) 24 rad/s

(C) I = KE/2 (C) 0·24 rad/s

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 34
120. The maximum and minimum 123. Pascal’s law to calculate the
distances of a comet from pressure of a liquid is applicable
sun are 1× 4 ´ 1012 meter and when the fluid is
7 ´ 1010 meter. If the velocity (A) static
nearest to sun is 6 ´ 10 4 m/s, its (B) dynamic
velocity farthest from the sun
(C) static and dynamic
would be
(D) More than one of the above
(A) 3000 m/s
(E) None of the above
(B) 300 m/s
(C) 3 m/s 124. The equation which gives
(D) More than one of the above relation among the temperature
measured in Centigrade,
(E) None of the above
Fahrenheit and Reaumur scale
can be written as
121. A mass M is broken into two
parts, m and M - m. How are m C F - 32 R
(A) = =
and M related so that the 100 180 80
gravitational force between the C F - 32 R
two parts is maximum? (B) = =
180 100 80
(A) m = M /2
C F - 32 R
(C) = =
(B) m = 3 M 80 180 100
(C) M = m /2 (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
125. An average induced e.m.f. of
122. A saturn year is 29·5 times the 0·2 V appears in a coil when the
earth year. How far is the saturn current in it is changed from
from the sun, when the earth is 5·0 A in one direction to 5·0 A in
1× 5 ´ 10 8 km away from the sun? the opposite direction in 0·2 s.
The self-inductance of the coil is
(A) 14 × 3 ´ 10 8 km
(A) 4·0 mH
(B) 143 ´ 10 8 km
(B) 0·4 mH
10
(C) 14 × 3 ´ 10 km (C) 5·0 mH
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 36
126. A glass block has volume 129. 70 calories of heat is required to
15000 cm 3 . On heating from raise the temperature of 2 mol of
temperature 20 ºC to 45 ºC, its an ideal gas at constant
pressure from 30 ºC to 35 ºC. If
volume increases by 5 cm 3 . The
R = 2 cal/mol-K, the increase in
linear expansion coefficient
internal energy of the gas would
would be
be
(A) 4 × 4 ´ 10 -6 ºC -1
(A) 5 calories
(B) 44 ´ 10 -6 ºC -1 (B) 50 calories
(C) 440 ´ 10 -6 ºC -1 (C) 500 calories
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

127. The temperature of water at the 130. In a process, where after

top of waterfall and at its bottom interchange of heat and work,
remains the system restored to its initial
(A) equal state is known as

(B) different (A) linear process

(C) Nothing can be said (B) cyclic process

(D) More than one of the above (C) non-cyclic process

(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

128. When thermodynamic system
undergoes physical change at
constant pressure, then such 131. When air quickly leaks out of a
thermodynamic process is called balloon, it becomes

(A) isobaric process (A) hot

(B) isothermal process (B) cool

(C) adiabatic process (C) No change in heat

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 38
132. The first law of thermodynamics, 136. Eight dipoles of magnitude ±e is
ÑQ = ÑU + ÑW , for an iso- placed inside a cube. What will
thermal expansion of an ideal be the total flux coming out of
gas becomes the cube?
(A) ÑQ = ÑW (A) Zero
(B) ÑQ = ÑU
(B) Infinite
(C) ÑQ = 0
(D) More than one of the above (C) e
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above

133. During driving a car, the air (E) None of the above
pressure in car tyres
(A) decreases 137. A semicircle arch of radius a is
(B) increases charged uniformly and charge
(C) remains constant per unit length is l, the electric
(D) More than one of the above field at the centre would be
(E) None of the above (A) l/2pe 0a 2

134. The volume of a given mass of a (B) l/4pe 0a

gas at 27 ºC, 1 atmosphere
(C) l/4e 0a
pressure is 100 cc. Its volume at
327 ºC would be (D) More than one of the above
(A) 200 cc (E) None of the above
(B) 20 cc
(C) 2 cc
138. Two point charges separated by
(D) More than one of the above a distance d repel each other
(E) None of the above with a force of 9 N. If the
separation between them
135. The average distance travelled becomes 3d, the force of
by a molecule between two repulsion will be
successive collisions is known
as (A) 1 N
(A) mean free path (B) 3 N
(B) total free path
(C) 6 N
(C) exponential free path
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 40
139. The net charge on a current- 142. The equivalent resistance
carrying conductor remains between points A and B of the
(A) positive circuit shown would be
(B) negative
X
(C) zero A B
2R 2R Y R
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (A) RW
(B) R /2W
140. A gang condenser is formed by
(C) 2RW
interlocking several plates as
(D) More than one of the above
shown in the figure below.
(E) None of the above
The distance between the
consecutive plates is 0·885 cm 143. Which factor is immaterial for
and overlapping area of plates is the wire used in electric fuse?
5 cm 2 . The capacity of the unit (A) Length
is (e 0 = 8 × 85 ´ 10 -12 ) (B) Radius
(C) Material
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

(A) 1·06 pF 144. Find the resistance between the

(B) 4 pF points A and B situated on the
(C) 0·36 pF circle of diameter AB, 2 meters
shown in the figure below.
(D) More than one of the above
Both the halves of the circle
(E) None of the above and diameter are made of
uniform wire of resistance
141. The equivalent capacity in the
1 ´ 10 -4 W m -1 is
mentioned figure will be

d A B
d
d
(A) 2/3 ´ 10 -4 W
(A) e 0 A / 2d
(B) 2e 0 A / d (B) 2p ´ 10 -4 W
(C) e 0 A / d (C) 0 × 88 ´ 10 -4 W
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 42
145. Two parallel wires in free space 148. A transformer has efficiency of
are 10 cm apart and each 80%. It works at 4 kW and
carries a current of 10 amperes 100 volts. If the secondary
in the same direction. The force voltage is 240 volts, the current
on the wire exerts on the other, in primary coil would be
per meter of length
(A) 10 amperes
(A) 2 ´ 10 -4 N attractive
(B) 4 amperes
(B) 2 ´ 10 -7 N attractive
(C) 40 amperes
(C) 2 ´ 10 -4 N repulsive
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

146. A motor generates a 210 back 149. The photoelectric threshold

e.m.f., when the applied voltage frequency of a metal is g. When
is 240 volts and armature a light of frequency 4g is
current is 50 amperes. The incident on the metal, the
power dissipated in the motor is maximum KE of emitted
(A) 150 watt photoelectron will be

(B) 50 watt (A) 5/2 h g

(C) 100 watt (B) 3 h g
(D) More than one of the above
(C) 4 h g
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
147. In a series L-C-R circuit, the (E) None of the above
potential difference between
terminal of inductance is
60 volts, between terminals of 150. An electron and proton possess
capacitance is 30 volts and same KE. Their de Broglie
between the terminals of wavelength will be
resistance is 40 volts. The (A) greater the electron
supply voltage would be
(B) greater the proton
(A) 130 volts
(B) 10 volts (C) both electron and proton
have same value
(C) 50 volts
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

24/HV/M–2023–14/S5 (HS)/238-A 44
18/HV/M–2023–12 Booklet Series
Candidate’s Roll Number

Serial No.
Question Booklet
GENERAL STUDIES AND PHYSICS
Paper—4
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 120
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Question Booklet is divided into two Parts—Part–I and Part–II. Part–I contains questions of
GENERAL STUDIES. Part–II contains questions of PHYSICS.
2. Part–I consists of Question Nos. 1 to 40 and Part–II consists of Question Nos. 41 to 120.
All questions and their responses are printed in English as well as in Hindi versions.
3. Attempt questions from Part–I and Part–II.
4. All questions carry equal marks.
5. Immediately after commencement of the examination, you should check up your Question
Booklet and ensure that the Question Booklet Series is printed on the top right-hand corner
of the Booklet. Please check that the Booklet contains 48 printed pages including two
pages (Page Nos. 46 and 47) for Rough Work and no page or question is missing or unprinted
or torn or repeated. If you find any defect in this Booklet, get it replaced immediately by
a complete Booklet of the same series.
6. You must write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page. Do not write
anything else on the Question Booklet.
7. An Answer Sheet will be supplied to you separately by the Invigilator to mark the answers. You
must write your Name, Roll No., Question Booklet Series and other particulars in the space
provided on Page–1 of the Answer Sheet provided, failing which your Answer Sheet will not
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8. You should encode your Roll Number and the Question Booklet Series A, B, C or D as it is
printed on the top right-hand corner of the Question Booklet with Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen in
the space provided on Page–2 of your Answer Sheet. If you do not encode or fail to encode the
correct series of your Question Booklet, your Answer Sheet will not be evaluated correctly.
9. Each question comprises of five responses—(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You are to select ONLY ONE
correct response and mark it in your Answer Sheet. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each question. Your total marks will depend on the number of correct responses marked by you in
the Answer Sheet.
10. In the Answer Sheet, there are five circles— A , B , C , D and E against each question. To
answer the questions, you are to mark with Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen ONLY ONE circle of your
choice for each question. Select only one response for each question and mark it in your Answer
Sheet. If you mark more than one answer for one question, the answer will be treated as wrong.
Use Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen only to mark the answer in the Answer Sheet. Any erasure
or change is not allowed.
11. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidates, one-fourth of the
marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
12. You should not remove or tear off any sheet from the Question Booklet. You are not allowed to
take this Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet out of the Examination Hall during the
examination. After the examination has concluded, you must hand over your Answer Sheet
to the Invigilator. Thereafter, you are permitted to take away the Question Booklet with you.
13. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render you liable to such action or
penalty as the Commission may decide at their discretion.
14. Candidates must assure before leaving the Examination Hall that their Answer Sheets will be kept
in Self Adhesive LDPE Bag and completely packed/sealed in their presence.

‹`mZ X| : AZwXoem| H$m {h›Xr Í$nm›Va Bg nwpÒVH$m Ho$ Ap›V_ n•> na N>nm h°ü&
 PART—I
( GENERAL STUDIES )

1. How many three-digit numbers 4. 10% loss on selling price is what

are divisible by 5? percent loss on cost price?
(A) 180 (A) 9 1 %
11
(B) 200 (B) 9 2 %
11
(C) 120
(C) 10%
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
2. The value of
5. A pizza boy delivered two-fifths of
æ 1ö æ 1ö æ 1ö æ 1 ö his pizzas on day 1, three-fourths
ç1 + ÷ ç1 + ÷ ç1 + ÷ L ç1 + ÷
è 2ø è 3ø è 4ø è 120 ø of his pizzas on day 2 and 16 9 of

is his pizzas on day 3. On which

(A) 60·5 day did he deliver the most
pizzas if he had the same
(B) 30·0
number of pizzas in the
(C) 40·5 beginning of each day?
(D) More than one of the above (A) Day 1
(E) None of the above (B) Day 2
(C) Day 3
3. The distance between Delhi and
(D) More than one of the above
Agra is 200 km. Suppose you
are travelling from Delhi to Agra (E) None of the above
by a car. If you can maintain an
average speed of 90 km/hr for 6. The cost of carpeting a room
120 km and 40 km/hr for the 18 m long with a carpet 75 cm
remaining distance, how much wide at R 4·50 per metre is
time will you take, on average, to R 810. The breadth of the room
reach Agra? is
(A) 3 hr 20 min (A) 7 m
(B) 3 hr 30 min (B) 7·5 m
(C) 4 hr 45 min (C) 8 m
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–01–30 (HS)/24-A 2
 7. Two persons A and B complete a 9. An isotropic source of 2 candela
task in 15 days, when they work produces light flux equal to
together. Person A completes the
(A) 2p lumen
task in 20 days if he works
alone. How many days will B (B) 4p lumen
take to finish the task alone? (C) 8p lumen
(D) More than one of the above
(A) 35 days
(E) None of the above
(B) 25 days
10. The spray bottles used as
(C) 60 days window or household cleaner or
perfume sprayer work on
(D) More than one of the above
(A) capillary action
(E) None of the above (B) Bernoulli’s principle
(C) Pascal’s law

8. The sum of the numerator and (D) More than one of the above

denominator of a fraction is 11. (E) None of the above

If 1 is added to the numerator
and 2 is subtracted from the 11. The trade name of basic lead
2 carbonate is
denominator, it becomes . The
3
fraction is (A) white lead
(B) red lead
5
(A) (C) litharge
6
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
6
(B)
5
12. Which of the following elements
has the largest atomic radius?
3
(C) (A) Lithium
8
(B) Beryllium
(C) Boron
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–01–30 (HS)/24-A 4
 13. The phenomenon of photo- 17. The book entitled, Gyan Deepak
periodism in plants was was authored by a great saint
discovered by (A) Salar Masood Ghazi
(A) Garner and Allard
(B) Dariya Saheb
(B) Steward and Salisbury
(C) Imam Shah Faqih
(C) Thimann and Skoog
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

14. Silent Valley of Kerala is 18. Which agency in India has

preserved because launched UTSAH portal?
(A) it contains very rare species (A) UGC
of plants and animals (B) AICTE
(B) the soil is rich in minerals
(C) MCI
(C) the areas of land were used
(D) More than one of the above
extensively for agriculture
purposes (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above 19. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam Satellite
Launch Vehicle Mission was
launched on
15. During normal respiration in a
mammal, the diaphragm is (A) 13th February, 2023
(A) arched (B) 20th February, 2023
(B) flattened (C) 19th February, 2023
(C) lowered (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
20. In which city was the first
16. The most important cell type
pure green hydrogen plant
associated with the immunity of
commissioned?
the body is
(A) Hyderabad
(A) platelets
(B) lymphocytes (B) Mumbai

(C) RBCs (C) Pune

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–01–30 (HS)/24-A 6
 21. Which year has been declared 25. Arrange the following thermal
by the UNO as the ‘International power projects of India from east
Year of Millets’? to west :
(A) 2023
(B) 2022 1. Kota
(C) 2024
2. Namrup
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
3. Obra
22. Who among the following won
the 2022 Nobel Peace Prize? 4. Parichha
(A) Ales Bialiatski
Select the correct answer
(B) Nadia Murad using the codes given below.
(C) Maria Ressa
(D) More than one of the above (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(E) None of the above
(B) 2, 4, 1, 3
23. Who is the Chairman of the
State Commission for Backward (C) 2, 3, 4, 1
Classes appointed by the Bihar
Government on 2nd January, (D) More than one of the above
2022?
(A) Justice Sanjay Kumar (E) None of the above
(B) Justice Balmiki Prasad
Sinha
(C) Justice Iqbal A. Ansari
26. Which type of climate is in India
(D) More than one of the above according to Trewartha?
(E) None of the above
(A) Savanna type
24. Which was the first movie in
Bhojpuri?
(B) Subtropical monsoon climate
(A) Ganga Maiya Tohe Piyari
Chadhaibo
(C) Mediterranean type
(B) Kanyadan
(C) Nadiya Ke Paar (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–01–30 (HS)/24-A 8
 27. What is the normal date 30. South Peninsular Upland is a
of withdrawal of south-west part of
monsoon at Hyderabad?
(A) Gondwana Land
(A) 1st October
(B) Laurentia Land
(B) 15th October
(C) Antarctica Continent
(C) 1st November
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

31. The percentage of population of

28. Which of the following States Bihar with respect to India’s
has maximum urbanization? total population is

(A) 8·58%
(A) Goa
(B) 10·10%
(B) Maharashtra
(C) 12·25%
(C) Karnataka
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

32. Which of the following pairs

29. ‘Malnad’ region is associated is not correctly matched with
with which of the following respect to south of Ganga region
plateaus of India? in Bihar?

(A) Telangana Plateau (A) Patna–Munger

(B) Maharashtra Plateau (B) Gaya–Arwal

(C) Karnataka Plateau (C) Patna–Vaishali

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–01–30 (HS)/24-A 10
 33. Who is called the ‘Prophet of 37. Who was appointed as the
New India’? ‘Commander in Chief’ by Birsa
Munda?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(A) Demka Munda
(B) Dayananda Saraswati
(B) Gaya Munda
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Sundar Munda
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

38. Who formed the Bihar Socialist

34. Which revolt is mentioned Party?
in Anandamath of Bankim
(A) Phulan Chand Tiwari and
Chandra Chattopadhyay?
Rajendra Prasad
(A) Sannyasi (B) Phulan Prasad Varma and
(B) Santhal Jayaprakash Narayan

(C) Indigo (C) Raj Kumar Shukla and

Swami Agnivesh
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

39. In which year was the ‘Bihar

35. Who was the founder of
Provincial Congress Committee’
‘Abhinav Bharat’ in London?
formed with its headquarters at
(A) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar Patna?
(B) P. M. Bapat (A) 1908
(C) Shyamji Krishna Varma (B) 1910
(C) 1906
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

36. Where was the Ghadar Party 40. Who established a branch of
established? the Anushilan Samiti in Patna
in 1913?
(A) France
(A) Ramananda Sinha
(B) Germany (B) Satish Jha
(C) United States of America (C) Sachindra Nath Sanyal
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–01–30 (HS)/24-A 12
 PART—II
( PHYSICS )

41. During an experiment, 43. A particle is projected with

quantities a, b, c are measured speed u from the top of a plane
and parameter Y = ab 2/ c 4 is inclined at an angle q with the
calculated. If the maximum horizontal. The distance from
percentage errors in the the point of projection to where
measurement of a, b and c are the particle strikes the plane
respectively 1%, 2% and 3%, will be
then the maximum percentage
2u 2
error in Y would be (A) tanq cosec q
g
(A) 13%
2u
(B) 17% (B) tanq sec q
g2

(C) 14%
2u 2
(D) More than one of the above (C) tanq sec q
g

(E) None of the above

(D) More than one of the above

42. What is an oscillator’s (E) None of the above

proportionality constant if the
damping force is proportional
to the velocity? 44. The specific heat of a substance
can be
(A) kg/s
(A) finite
(B) kg-m-s -1
(B) zero

(C) kg-s (C) negative

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–12 PHY (HS)/24-A 14

 45. A block of mass 2 kg is pulled 48. Which of the following energy
up on a smooth incline of changes involves frictional
angle 30° with the horizontal. forces?
If the block moves with an (A) Kinetic energy to heat
acceleration of 2 m/s 2 , then energy
the average power delivered
(B) Potential energy to sound
4 seconds after the motion
energy
starts, will be
(C) Chemical energy to heat
(A) 110·4 watt energy
(B) 220·8 watt (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(C) 55·2 watt

(D) More than one of the above 49. A body falling freely from
a height H hits an inclined
(E) None of the above plane in its path at a height h.
Due to impact, the direction of
46. The ratio of average velocity and velocity of the body becomes
average speed of a body is horizontal. For the body to take
maximum time to reach the
(A) 1
ground, h /H should be in the
(B) more than 1 ratio

(C) 1 or less than 1 (A) 2 :1

(B) 1 : 2
(D) More than one of the above
(C) 1 : 2
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above

47. In a head-on elastic collision of (E) None of the above

two bodies of equal mass 50. When you stretch a rubber
(A) velocities are interchanged band, the energy transferred
is stored in the form of
(B) momenta are interchanged
(A) potential energy
(C) faster body slows down and (B) muscular energy
slower body speeds up
(C) mechanical energy
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–12 PHY (HS)/24-A 16

 51. A piece of wood of mass 0·03 kg 53. A block of mass m is pushed
is dropped from the top of against a spring with spring
a building 100 m high. At the constant k fixed at one end
same time, a bullet of mass to a wall. The block slides
0·02 kg is fired vertically upward on a frictionless table resting
with a velocity of 100 m/s from against this wall. The natural
the ground. The bullet gets length of the spring is L and
embedded in the wooden piece is compressed to half its
after striking it. The time of natural length when the block
strike would be is released. The velocity of the
block after the spring acquires
(A) 4 s its natural length would be

2 k
(B) 2 s (A)
L m

(C) 1 s
L k
(B)
2 m
(D) More than one of the above

kL
(E) None of the above (C)
2m

(D) More than one of the above

52. A machine gun fires 60 bullets
per minute with a velocity of (E) None of the above
700 m/s. If each bullet has
a mass of 50 g, then the power 54. How much work is done in
developed by the machine gun is moving a charge of 5 C across
two points having a potential
(A) 250 watt difference of 16 V?

(B) 12250 watt (A) 65 J

(B) 40 J
(C) 2250 watt
(C) 80 J
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–12 PHY (HS)/24-A 18

 55. Suppose you lift a suitcase lying 57. Consider a light rod with two
on the floor and place it on heavy mass particles m A and
a table. The work done by you m B attached to its ends. Let XY
on the suitcase does not be a line perpendicular to the
depend on rod at a distance r1 from mass
m A and r 2 from mass m B . The
moment of inertia of the system
(A) the path taken by the
about XY would be
suitcase

(A) m A r12 + m B r 22
(B) the time taken by you in
this activity
(B) m A r12 - m B r 22
(C) the weight of the suitcase

m A r12
(D) More than one of the above (C)
m B r 22

(E) None of the above

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

56. The angular momentum of a
rigid body is L . If its kinetic
energy is halved, what will be 58. When does the moment of
its angular momentum? inertia of a body come into the
picture?

(A) L (A) When the motion is

rotational
(B) L /2
(B) When the motion is linear

(C) L / 4 (C) When the motion is along

a curved path
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–12 PHY (HS)/24-A 20

 59. Two unequal masses are tied 61. A steel wire of 0·8 mm dia and
together with a compressed length 1 m is clamped firmly at
spring. When the chord is burnt points A and B, which are 1 m
with a matchstick releasing the apart and in same plane. A body
spring, the two masses will fly of mass M is hung at the middle
apart with equal of the wire such that midpoint
sags by 1 cm from the original
position. If Y = 2 ´ 1011 N/m 2 for
(A) kinetic energy
the wire, then the mass of the
body would be
(B) momentum

(A) 82 g
(C) acceleration
(B) 8·2 g
(D) More than one of the above
(C) 820 g
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

60. Thermal expansion in solids
with increasing temperature is
the consequence of

62. Inert gases exhibit

(A) dislocations in the lattice
(A) paramagnetism
(B) pressure of electron gas
(B) diamagnetism
(C) anharmonicity of lattice
vibration (C) ferromagnetism

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–12 PHY (HS)/24-A 22

 63. In the absence of external 65. In streamline flow
forces, the shape of a small
liquid drop is determined by
(A) the velocity of particles
always remains same
(A) viscosity of the liquid

(B) surface tension (B) the kinetic energies of all

particles arriving at a point
are same
(C) density of the liquid

(D) More than one of the above (C) the momenta of all particles
arriving at a point are same
(E) None of the above

(D) More than one of the above

64. What is the energy required to

(E) None of the above
move a body of mass m from
an orbit with radius 2R to
another orbit of radius 3R ?

GMm 66. If the temperature increases,

(A)
12R 2 what happens to the modulus
of elasticity?

GMm (A) Increases

(B)
6R

(B) Decreases
GMm
(C)
2R 2 (C) Remains constant

(D) More than one of the above

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–12 PHY (HS)/24-A 24

 67. When 1 kg of ice melts at 69. One mole of a perfect gas
0 °C into water at the same expands adiabatically which
temperature, the change in changes its pressure P1, volume
entropy is V1 and temperature T1 to P 2 ,
V 2 and T 2 respectively. If the
molar specific heat at constant
(A) 273 cal K -1
volume is C V , then the work
done by the gas would be
(B) 0·293 cal K -1
V
(A) RT1 log 2
V1
(C) 293 cal K -1

(D) More than one of the above (B) C V (T1 - T 2 )

(E) None of the above P12V12 - P 22V 22

(C)
R (T 2 - T1)

68. A force is exerted at 30° angle (D) More than one of the above
to a cube that is fixed on
a table surface. What kind of (E) None of the above
transformation will the cube go
through?
70. Which of the following materials
(A) The cube will just topple is unaffected by an applied
elastic force?

(B) Change in both shape and

(A) Copper
size
(B) Quartz
(C) Change in shape
(C) Rubber

(D) More than one of the above

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–12 PHY (HS)/24-A 26

 71. The motion of Halley Comet 74. In an isobaric expansion of a gas
around the Sun is not
(A) oscillatory (A) volume and temperature
(B) simple harmonic both increase

(C) translatory
(B) volume and temperature
(D) More than one of the above
both decrease
(E) None of the above

72. The amount of energy required (C) volume decreases and

to raise the temperature of temperature increases
a substance of 1 kg mass by
1 °C is called (D) More than one of the above
(A) specific entropy
(B) specific heat capacity (E) None of the above
(C) latent heat
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above 75. Consider a mixture of oxygen
and hydrogen kept at room
73. On a certain day, the temperature. In comparison to
temperature and relative H 2 molecule, O 2 molecule hits
humidity of air are respectively the wall of container with
20 °C and 80%. If the saturation
vapour pressures at 20 °C and
5 °C are respectively 17·5 mm (A) greater average speed
of Hg and 6·5 mm of Hg, then
the fraction of mass of water (B) smaller average speed
that condenses on falling of
temperature to 5 °C will be
(C) greater average kinetic
(A) 0·44
energy
(B) 0·51
(C) 0·48 (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–12 PHY (HS)/24-A 28

 76. In thermodynamics, which of 78. Which of the following techniques
the following statements are cannot be used for generating
true? electron-hole pairs in electronic
(1) Work is a path-independent devices?
function. (A) Thermal excitation
(2) Work is a path-dependent
(B) Impact ionization
function.
(3) Work is the area under the (C) Impurity injection
curve in a P-V diagram. (D) More than one of the above
(4) Work and heat energy are
(E) None of the above
completely interchangeable.
Select the correct answer using 79. Two periodic waves of
the codes given below.
amplitudes A1 and A 2 such
(A) 1 and 4 that A1 > A 2 pass through
(B) 1 and 2 a region. The difference
(C) 2 and 3 between maximum and minimum
resultant amplitudes possible is
(D) More than one of the above
(A) 2A 2
(E) None of the above

77. When the temperature of a gas (B) 2A1

in a rigid container is raised,
(C) A1 + A 2
the pressure exerted by the gas
on the container wall increases (D) More than one of the above
because
(E) None of the above
(A) molecules lose more kinetic
energy each time they strike
80. If the temperature of the source
the walls
is increased, the efficiency of
(B) molecules collide with each
Carnot engine
other more often
(A) increases
(C) molecules have high
average speed so that they (B) decreases
strike the container wall
(C) remains constant
more often
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–12 PHY (HS)/24-A 30

 81. Three charges +4q, Q and q 84. The V r.m.s. of a gas molecule
are placed in a straight line is 300 m/s. If its absolute
of length l at points distant 0, temperature is reduced to half
l /2 and l respectively. The value and molecular weight is doubled,
of charge Q , in order to make then the V r.m.s. will become
the net force on q zero, would be
(A) 75 m/s
(A) -2q
(B) 150 m/s
(B) -q (C) 300 m/s

(C) -q /2 (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above 85. In copper atom, 29 electrons

surround its nucleus. Consider
82. According to the law of two pieces of copper each
equipartition of energy, the weighing 10 g. Let us transfer
molar specific heat of solids one electron from one piece to
depends on another for every 1000 atoms
in the piece. The Coulombic
(A) temperature force between these two pieces
(B) mass of copper kept 10 cm apart after
transfer of electrons will be
(C) both temperature and mass
1
(e = 1 × 6 ´ 10 -19 C, = 9 ´ 10 9 ,
(D) More than one of the above 4pe 0

(E) None of the above

Avogadro number = 6 ´ 10 23 per mole
and at. wt. of copper = 63 × 5 g/mol)
83. Kirchhoff’s voltage law is
satisfied for (A) 2 × 08 ´ 1014 N

(A) a.c. circuits only

(B) 4 × 16 ´ 1014 N
(B) linear circuits only
(C) 6 × 32 ´ 1014 N
(C) non-linear circuits only

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–12 PHY (HS)/24-A 32

 86. What is the relation between 88. What is the phase difference
kinetic energy (E ) of a gas and between the tuning fork’s
its pressure (P ) ? prongs?

2 (A) 5p
(A) P = E
3 (B) p

(C) 2p
(B) P = 3E
(D) More than one of the above
2 (E) None of the above
(C) E = P
3
89. An electric iron draws 10 A, an
(D) More than one of the above electric toaster draws 5 A and
an electric refrigerator draws 3 A
from 220 V service line. If all
(E) None of the above
the three appliances, connected
in parallel, operate at the same
87. A metallic sphere A of radius a is time, the rating of the fuse for
charged to a potential V . If this their operation should be
sphere is enclosed by a spherical
(A) 15 A
conducting shell B of radius
b (b > a) and interconnected (B) 20 A
through a wire, the potential on (C) 10 A
sphere A would be
(D) More than one of the above
b
(A) V (E) None of the above
a

90. When a wave is reflected from

a
(B) a denser medium, how does the
bV
phase change?

a (A) 3p
(C) V
b
(B) Zero

(C) p
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–12 PHY (HS)/24-A 34

 91. An electron moving East is 94. A plane progressive wave is
acted on by a magnetic field in given by y = 25 cos(2pt - px ).
North direction. The force on Then the amplitude and
the electron is frequency are respectively given
(A) vertically upward as

(B) vertically downward (A) 25, 100

(C) towards North (B) 25, 1
(D) More than one of the above
(C) 25, 2
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
92. A particle is undergoing an
(E) None of the above
SHM with a 10 cm amplitude.
What should be the minimum
acceleration at an extreme point 95. A ferromagnetic material is
for the maximum speed at the placed in external magnetic
centre to be 5 m/s? field. The magnetic domains

(A) 20 m/s 2 (A) increase in size

(B) 5 m/s 2 (B) decrease in size

(C) 250 m/s 2 (C) remain same in case of size

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

93. A capacitor is connected to

a 12 V battery through a 10 ohm 96. A 4 kg block is attached to
resistance. It is found that the a spring of spring constant
potential difference rises to 4 V 400 N/m. Calculate the time
in 1 ms. The capacitance value period of oscillations.
would be (A) 0 × 2 p
(A) 0 × 25 mF
(B) 2 p
(B) 2 × 5 mF
(C) p
(C) 0 × 025 mF
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–12 PHY (HS)/24-A 36

 r r
97. If E and B represent electric 100. What is the order of magnitude
and magnetic field vectors in of the resistance of a dry human
an e.m. wave, then the direction body?
of propagation of the wave
(A) 10 W
would be
r r
(A) E × B
r r (B) 10 4 W
(B) E ´ B
r r
(C) B ´ E (C) 10 MW
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above

98. How is the electric field at the (E) None of the above
surface of a charged conductor
related to the surface charge
101. Lenz law is the consequence of
density?
the conservation of
(A) Proportional to each other
(A) energy
(B) Indirectly proportional
(C) Exponential (B) charge
(D) More than one of the above
(C) momentum
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
99. An inductor, a resistor and
a capacitor are connected in (E) None of the above
series with a.c. source. With
increase of source frequency
slightly from a very low value, 102. Mobility is denoted by
the reactance
(A) h
(A) of inductor increases
(B) a
(B) of inductor and capacitor
increases
(C) m
(C) of capacitor increases
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–12 PHY (HS)/24-A 38

103. If E and B are electric and 106. The nature of magnetic field
magnetic fields, then which of lines passing through the
the following is dimensionless centre of a current-carrying
quantity? circular loop is
E
(A) m 0e 0 (A) circular
B
E (B) elliptical
(B) m 0e 0
B
(C) straight line
m0 E
(C)
e0 B (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

104. Which of the following is non- 107. The conduction current is same
ohmic resistance? as displacement current when
(A) Lamp filament the source is
(B) Diode
(A) a.c. only
(C) Copper wire
(D) More than one of the above (B) d.c. only

(E) None of the above (C) either a.c. or d.c.

105. When the diameter of the (D) More than one of the above
aperture of the objective of
an astronomical telescope (E) None of the above
increases, its
(A) magnifying power increases 108. The light energy emitted by a
but resolving power star is due to
decreases
(B) magnifying power remains (A) joining of nuclei
unchanged but resolving
(B) burning of nuclei
power increases
(C) magnifying power and (C) breaking of nuclei
resolving power decrease
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

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109. In a diffraction pattern, the 112. When is the current in a circuit
fringe width is wattless?

(A) directly proportional to slit (A) When the inductance of

width the circuit is zero

(B) not dependent on slit width (B) When the resistance of

the circuit is zero
(C) inversely proportional to slit
width (C) When the current is
alternating
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
110. What happens to the quality
factor of an L-C-R circuit if the
113. Photoelectric emission can be
resistance is increased?
explained by the
(A) Increases
(A) wave nature of light
(B) Decreases
(B) particle nature of light
(C) Remains the same
(C) quantum nature of light
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

111. The de Broglie wavelength

associated with neutrons in 114. Which microwave component
thermal equilibrium with matter uses the principle of Faraday
at 300 K is Rotation?

(A) 17·9 Å (A) Isolator

(B) 1·79 Å (B) Circulator

(C) 179 Å (C) Duplexer

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

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115. A proton and an electron are 118. The emission of electrons from
accelerated by same potential the surface of metal, when
difference. In this case, the radiation of appropriate
de Broglie wavelength of the frequency is allowed to incident
electron, l e and of the proton, on it, is called
l p are such that
(A) nuclear fission
(A) l e = l p
(B) Compton effect
(B) l e > l p
(C) l e < l p (C) photoelectric effect

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above
116. Large number of thin strips of
black paint are made on the 119. During a nuclear fission
surface of a convex lens of reaction
focal length 20 cm to catch (A) a light nucleus bombarded
the image of a white horse. by thermal neutrons breaks
The image will be up
(A) a horse of less brightness
(B) a heavy nucleus bombarded
(B) a zebra of black strips by thermal neutrons breaks
(C) a horse of black strips up
(D) More than one of the above
(C) a heavy nucleus breaks into
(E) None of the above two fragments by itself
117. The total energy of electron (D) More than one of the above
in the nth orbit of hydrogen
(E) None of the above
atom is
e2 120. In nuclear reactions, there is
(A)
4p e 0rn a conservation of
e2 (A) energy only
(B) -
8p e 0rn
(B) mass only
e2
(C) (C) momentum only
8p e 0rn
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

18/HV/M–2023–12 PHY (HS)/24-A 44