Module 1 SERVICE MANAGEMENT AS A PRACTICE

1. Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?

A. The Service Provider

B. The Service Level Manager
C. The Customer
D. Resources

2. Governance is concerned with:

A. Measuring and improving efficiency and effectiveness of processes

B. Ensuring that defined strategy is actually followed
C. Reducing the total cost of providing services
D. Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met

3. Which of the following is a valid role in the RACI Authority Matrix?

A. Configuration
B. Consulted
C. Complex
D. Controlled

4. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured
is Service Operation.
2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services.

A. 1 only.
B. 2 only.
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above

5. Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?

A. The Service Level Manager

B. The Business Relationship Manager
C. The Service owner
D. The Service Continuity Manager
6. Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service Management?

A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the

form of services
B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that from a unified
whole, operating together for a common purpose.
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities.
D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

7. What does a service always deliver to customer?

A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources

8. Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an

organizational structure?

A. RACI Model
B. Service Model
C. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
D. Plan Do Check Act (PDCA) Model

9. Which of the following is the BEST definition of a Risk?

A. Something that will not happen

B. Something that will happen
C. Something that has happened
D. Something that might happen

10. Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?

A. The value of a service

B. Governance
C. Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)
D. Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
11. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. Its defines activities that are executed by a single function

A. 1 only
B. Neither of them
C. 2 only
D. Both of the above

12. What is a RACI model used for?

A. Performance analysis
B. Recording Configuration Items
C. Monitoring Services
D. Defining roles and responsibilities

13. “Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing

value to customers in the form of services”. These specialized organizational
capabilities include which of the following?

A. Applications and Infrastructure

B. Functions and Processes
C. Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
D. Markets and Customers
Module 2 THE ITIL SERVICE LIFECYCLE - SERVICE STRATEGY

1. Which of the following are valid parts of the service portfolio?

1. Service Pipeline
2. Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS)
3. Service Catalogue

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above

2. Which of the following questions does guidance in Service Strategy help answer?

1. What services should we offer and to whom?

2. How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives?
3. How do we truly create value for our customers?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. All of the above

3. Which of the following are valid examples of business value measures?

1. Customer retention
2. Time to market
3. Service Architecture
4. Market share.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. All of the above
D. 1, 2 and 4 only

4. The main purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?

A. Service Level Requirements

B. Functionality
C. Business Values
 D. IT Assets

5. Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?

A. Value on Investment (VOI) ,Return on Investment (ROI)

B. Customer and user satisfaction
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty

6. What is Service Pipeline?

A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage
B. All services expect those that have been retired
C. All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. All complex multi user services

7. Which stage of Service life cycle is most concerned with defining policies and objectives?

A. Service Design
B. Service Transition
C. Continual Service Improvement
D. Service Operation

8. The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of
the service Life cycle?
A. Continuous Service Improvement
B. Service Strategy
C. Service Design
D. Service Transition.

9. Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over time is part which
process?

A. Service Portfolio Management

B. Service Level Management
C. Components Capacity Management
D. Demand Management

10. Warranty of Service means?

A. The service is fit for purpose

B. There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service
C. All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
D. Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security
11. Which of the following is a MAJOR activity of Demand Management?

A. Increasing customer value

B. Understanding patterns of business activity
C. Increasing the value of IT
D. Aligning the business with IT cost

12. Which of the following is a process owner responsible for?

A. Purchasing tools to support the process

B. Ensuring that targets specified in a Service Level Agreement (SLA) are met
C. Carrying out all activities defined in the process
D. Ensuring that the process is performed as documented

Module 3 THE ITIL SERVICE LIFECYCLE - SERVICE DESIGN

1. Which of the following delivery strategies is described as,” Formal arrangements

between two or more Organizations to work together to design, develop transition,
maintain, operate and /or support IT services

A. Outsourcing
B. Application Service Provision
C. Multi-Sourcing
D. Knowledge Process Outsourcing

2. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of Service Design Manager?

A. Design and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages

B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improve services, technology
architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and
future IT requirements of the organization.
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design
process and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting
processes.

3. Which of the following are activities to be carried out by Supplier Management?

1. Management and review of Organizational Level Agreements (OLAs)

2. Evaluation and selection of suppliers
3. Ongoing management of suppliers

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above

4. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of Service Catalogue Manager?

A. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate

B. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the
Service Portfolio
D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in Service Catalogue
5. The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:

A. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support the current IT services
B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of
services.
C. To create and populate a Service Catalogue
D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services

6. A Service Level Agreement is?

A. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party

B. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organization.
C. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization.
D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer.

7. Availability Management is responsible for availability of the:

A. Services and Components

B. Services and Business Processes.
C. Components and Business Processes.
D. Services, Components and Business Processes

8. One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of service solutions.
Which of the following does this include?

A. Only capabilities needed and agreed

B. Only resources and capabilities agreed
C. Only requirements needed and agreed
D. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed

9. Which of the following is a good metric for measuring the effectiveness of Service
Level Management?

A. Customer satisfaction score

B. Average number of daily Incidents managed by each service agent
C. Number of services in the Service Portfolio.
D. Number of services deployed within agreed times.

10. How is the service catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?

A. Showing the business impact of a change

B. Displaying the relationship between configuration items
C. Providing central source of information on the IT services delivered
D. To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure

11. Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and
objectives?

A. Service Design
B. Service Transition
C. Continual Service Improvement
D. Service Operation

12. Which statement about Service level Agreement (SLAs) is CORRECT?

A. They must contain legal wording because of their importance.

B. There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customer
C. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity
D. Change to the SLA can only be requested by the customer

13. In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service
achievements against targets?

A. Operation level agreement (OLA)

B. Capacity Plan
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)

14. Reliability is a measure of :

A. The availability of a service or component

B. The level of risk that could impact a service or process
C. How long a service or component can perform its function without failing
D. A measure of how quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working.

15. One organization provides and manages an entire business process or function for
another organization

A. Business Process Management

B. Business Function Management
C. Business Process Outsourcing
D. Knowledge Process outsourcing
Module 4 THE ITIL SERVICE LIFECYCLE - SERVICE TRANSITION

1. Which of the following are the benefits that implementing service transition could
provide to the business?
1. Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements.
2. Reduce cost to design new services
3. Improved success in implementing changes

A. 1and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above

2. Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues
during Release and Deployment?

A. Early Life Support

B. Service Test Manager
C. Evaluation
D. Releasing Packaging and Build Manager

3. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base
(KEDB).
B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS.
C. The KEDB and CMS form part of the larger SKMS.
D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Case (CMDB).

4. How does Problem Management work with Change Management?

A. By installing changes to fix problems.

B. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions.
C. By working with users to change their IT configurations.
D. By negotiating Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution.

5. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?

A. Overall business risk is optimized
B. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
C. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the
Configuration Management System (CMS)
D. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for

6. A single Release unit , or a structured set of Release units can be defined with:

A. The RACI Model

B. A Release Package
C. A Request Model
D. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle

7. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?

A. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported.

B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management.
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a Release.

8. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and
Deployment Management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service
Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders’ requirements and deliver the
intended objectives.
B. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of
related assets and service components those are compatible with each other.
C. To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed tested,
verified and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate.
D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service

9. The group that reviews the changes that must be installed faster than the normal
process is called?
A. CAB emergency committee.
B. Emergency CAB
C. Urgent Change Board.
D. Urgent Change Authority

10. Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

A. Knowledge
B. Information
C. Wisdom
D. Data
 11. Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management
process?
A. A change to a contract with a supplier
B. A firmware upgrade to a server that in only used for IT Service Continuity Purposes
C. An urgent need to replace CPU to restore a service during an incident
D. A change in business strategy

12. A configuration model can be used to help?

1. Assess the impact and cause of incidents and problems
2. Assess the impact of proposed changes
3. Plan and design new or changed services
4. Plan technology refresh and software upgrades
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only

13. Which of the following statements BEST Describes Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A. A Secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B. A Secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items
(CIs) are stored and protected
C. A database that contains definition of all the media CIs
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and backups are
stored and protected

14. What is the name of the area where the definitive authorized versions of all media
configuration items (CIs) are stored and protected?
A. Definitive media library
B. Definitive software store
C. Service knowledge management system
D. Software secure Library

15. Who is responsible for defining key performance indicators (KPIs) for change
Management?
A. The change management process Owner
B. The change advisory Board (CAB)
C. The Service Owner
D. The Continual Service Improvement manager.

Module 5 THE ITIL SERVICE LIFECYCLE - SERVICE OPERATION

1. Which of the following is not a valid objective of Problem Management?

A. To prevent problems and their resultant incidents
B. To manage Problems throughout their lifecycle
C. To restore service to a user
D. To eliminate recurring incidents

2. Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which

process?

A. Incident Management
B. Access Management
C. Change Management
D. Request Fulfillment

3. Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment
process?

A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g.
licenses and software media).
B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a
pre-defined approval and qualification process exists.
C. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and
the procedure for obtaining them.
D. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design
standards.

4. What is the BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation?

A. To decide how IT will manage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers.

5. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, and low cost changes?

A. Demand Management
B. Incident Management
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Request Fulfillment

6. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? An Event could be caused by:

 1. An exception to normal operation, such as a device exceeding a threshold or an
unauthorized Configuration Item (CI) being detected on the network
2. Normal operation, such as a user logging into an application or an email reaching
its intended recipient
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above

7. Which of the following BEST describes when a known Error should be raised?
A. A Known Error should not be raised until a temporary resolution or workaround has
been found
B. A Known Error should be raised at any time that it would be useful to do so
C. As soon as it becomes obvious that a quick resolution of the Problem will not be found.
D. Immediately following the Problem resolution, so a permanent historical record of all
actions is retained in case of a recurrence.

8. When can a known error record be raised?

1. At any time It is would be useful to do so

2. After the permanent solution has been implemented
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above

9. What should be done while closing the incident?

1. Check the incident categorization and correct if it necessary

2. Decide whether a problem needs to be logged.

A. 1 only.
B. Both
C. 2 only.
D. None of above.

10. Major Incidents Require:

A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer Timescales
D. Less Documentation
11. Identify the input to the problem Management process.

A. Request for change

B. Problem resolution
C. Incident Records
D. New Known Error

12. What is the objective of Access Management?

A. To provide security staff for data center and other buildings

B. To manage access to computer rooms and other secure location.
C. To manage access to the service Desk
D. To manage the right to use a service or group of services

13. Which of the following BEST describes a Service request?

A. A request from a User for information, advice or for a standard change

B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interface.
D. Any request for change (RFC) that is low risk and can be approved by the change
manager without a change advisory board (CAB) Meeting

14. What is the best description of a Major Incident?

A. An incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround
can be found
B. An incident which requires a large number of people to resolve
C. An incident logged by a senior manager
D. An incident which has a high priority or high impact on the business

15. Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being
performed according to the agreed and documented process?

A. The request fulfillment process manager.

B. The request fulfillment process owner.
C. The service manager
D. The service desk manager

16. What is the definition of alert?

A. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed
procedures
B. A type of incident
C. An error message to the user of an application
D. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed

17. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?

A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request
them
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the
Service Desk
C. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that has been requested

18. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?

A. A Change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines
B. A Change that correctly follows the required Change process.
C. A pre-authorized Change that has an accepted and established procedure
D. A Change that is made as the result of an audit

19. Which of the following might be used to define how a future Problem or Incident
could be managed?
1. Incident Model
2. Known Error Record

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Module 6 THE ITIL SERVICE LIFECYCLE – CONTINUAL SERVICE IMPROVEMENT (CSI)

1. What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support
Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?

A. Return on Investment (RoI) Value on Investment (VoI) quality

B. Strategic tactical and operational
C. Critical Success Factors (CFS’s), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) activities
D. Technology, process and service

2. Order the following Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Implementation steps into
the correct sequence in alignment with the Plan Do Check Act (PDCA) model?

1. Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives

2. Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being
achieved
3. Identify the scope objectives and requirement for CSI
4. Decisions on implementation of further enhancement

A. 3-1-2-4
B. 3-4-2-1
C. 1-3-2-4
D. 2-3-4-1

3. Which of the following do Service Metrics Measure?

A. Processes and Functions

B. Maturity and cost
C. The end to end service
D. Infrastructure availability

4. Which stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is Best
described as “understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a
deeper development of the principles defined in the vision?

A. Where are we now?

B. Where do we want to be?
C. How do we get there?
D. Did we get there?
5. Which of the following activities in NOT a part of the Deming Cycle?

A. Act
B. Plan
C. Do
D. Coordinate

6. Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to
which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Service Strategy
B. Continual Service Improvement
C. Service Operation
D. Service Design

7. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?

A. Validate, Direct, Justify, And Intervene

B. Report, Manage, Improve, Extend
C. Manage, Monitor, Diagnose, Intervene
D. Plan, Predict, Report, Justify

8. Which of the following is step 1 in the 7 step Improvement Process?

A. Prepare for action

B. Define what you will measure
C. What are we now?
D. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement

9. How many steps are there in CSI Approach?

A. 7
B. 4
C. 6
D. 11

10. The difference between services metrics and technology metrics is best described as?
A. Service metrics include critical success factors and key performance indicators.
Technology metrics include availability and capacity
B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost. Technology metrics measure efficiency and
effectiveness
C. Service metrics measure the end to end service, technology metrics measure
individual components
D. Service metrics measures each of the service management processes, technology
metrics measure the infrastructure

11. Which of the following is NOT an example of self-help capabilities?

A. Requirement to always call the services desk for service requests

B. Web front end
C. Menu driven range of self-help and service requests
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software

12. An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services
has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?

A. Excessive focus on cost

B. Excessive focus on quality
C. Excessive proactive
D. Excessive reactive

13. Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data
needs to be gathered and analyzed from which area of the lifecycle in order to answer
the question “Did we get there?”

A. Service Design
B. Service Strategy
C. Service transition
D. Service Operation.

14. Which stages of the Service Lifecycle does the 7 step Improvement Process apply to?

A. Service Operation
B. Service Transition and Service Operation
C. Service Design ,Service Transition and service Operation
D. Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual
Service Improvement
15. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R’s of Change
Management?

A. A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes.
B. A seven step process for releasing Changes into production
C. A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing the success of a recent change
D. A Definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management

16. Which of the following is step 1 in the 7 step Improvement Process?

A. Prepare for action

B. Define the strategy for improvement
C. Where are we now?
D. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) Achievement
Module 7 FUNCTIONS IN SERVICE OPERATION

1. Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of data centre
and recovery sites?

A. Technical Management
B. Service Desk
C. IT operations control
D. Facilities Management

2. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management Function?

A. Swift application of skill to diagnose an IT Operations failure that occurs

B. Delivering improvements to achieve reduced costs
C. First line incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users
D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities

3. Which of the following should be supported by technology?

1. Verification of Configuration Management System (CMS) data

2. Control of user desk-tops
3. Creation and use of diagnostic scripts
4. Visibility of overall IT Service performance

A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above

4. Which Functions are included in IT Operational Management?

A. Network Management and Application Management

B. Technical Management and Application Management
C. IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
D. Facilities Management and Technical Management

5. Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralized Service Desk?

A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple
desk locations are in one place
C. The desk provides 24 hour global support
D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization.
6. Which of these is not a responsibility of application management?
A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure
B. Assisting in the design of the application
C. Providing guidelines to IT operations about how best to manage the application
D. Determining if developed application can provide the required functionality to users or
not

7. Which of the following is NOT a function?

A. Application Management
B. Service Desk
C. Incident Management
D. Technical Management

8. Which of the following are service desk organizational structures?

1. Local Service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only

9. Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?

1. Known Error Data

2. Change Schedules
3. Service Knowledge Management System
4. Diagnostic Scripts and tools
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 2, 3 and only
d. All of the above

10. Which function would provide staff to monitor events in a network operations center?

A. Technical Management
B. IT operations Management
C. Service Desk
D. Applications Management
11. Which of the following BEST describes a Service Desk?

A. A process within Service Operation providing a single point of contact

B. A dedicated number of staff handling service requests
C. A dedicated number of staff handling incidents or service requests.
E. A desk that provides 24 hour global support

12. Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service Desk?

1. Logging details of Incidents and service requests

2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis.
3. Restoring service
4. Diagnosing the root-cause of problems

A. All of the above

B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

13. Which of the following is a responsibility of application management?

A. Ensuring that monitoring tools are in place to monitor servers and network
B. Taking calls from users and answering queries with regards to applications
C. Logging incidents and service request
D. Determining if developed application can provide the required functionality to users
or not