Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Tier-I) - MT - 69

SSC CGL (Tier-I) MODEL TEST - 69

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING
1. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the
numbers of the given sets.

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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding /Subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not
allowed.)
(25, 150, 3)
ha
(18, 180, 5)
1) (13, 39, 3) 2) (61, 601, 5) 3) (52, 728, 7) 4) (101, 408, 2)
2.

E
Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given
series?
d
57, 69, 88, 112, 150, 186, 243, ?
1) 286 2) 300 3) 289 4) 291
3. Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the
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second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to
the third number.
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750 : 5 :: 384 : 4 :: 3072 : ?
1) 9 2) 7 3) 6 4) 8
4. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second
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word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful
English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Plant : Pot :: Fish : ?
1) Aquarium 2) Mud 3) Sand 4) Stone
5. Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question
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mark (?) in the following series.

1) 2) 3) 4)

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Tier-I) - MT - 69

6. Which two signs and two numbers should be interchanged to make the following
equation correct?
840 ÷ 38 - 7 + 10 × 12 = 462
1) 12 and 10, ÷ and + 2) 12 and 7, + and ×
3) 840 and 10, + and – 4) 12 and 38, × and –
7. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at
the right side of the figure.

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ha
1) 2) 3) 4)

E
d
8. A family got split and the children of R were left with R’s maternal grandfather’s
only granddaughter’s father. How is the person with whom the children are left
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with related to R?
1) R’s father 2) R’s son
3) R’s paternal grandfather 4) R’s maternal grandfather
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9. In a certain code language, ‘MOBILE’ is coded as BJFZLK and ‘TABLET’ is coded
as QCIZXR. How will ‘KINDLE’ be coded in the same language?
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1) BJALFI 2) CIBKGC 3) BJBKFI 4) CJBLGI

10. If 31 January 2009 was a Saturday, then what was the day of the week on 30
January 2013?
1) Wednesday 2) Friday 3) Monday 4) Tuesday
11. Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the
second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to
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the third number.
7 : 35 :: 21 : 399 :: 4 : ?
1) 8 2) 24 3) 12 4) 20
12. The second number in the given number pairs is obtained by performing certain
mathematical operation(s) on the first number. The same operation(s) are followed
in all the number pairs, EXCEPT one. Find that odd number pair.
1) (13, 150) 2) (23, 270) 3) (21, 238) 4) (17, 194)
13. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second
word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful
English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Cow : Milk :: Sheep : ?
1) Baby 2) Silk 3) Clothes 4) Wool

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Tier-I) - MT - 69

14. In a certain code language, ‘RELAX’ is written as ‘CPPZC’ and ‘STAKE’ is written
as ‘RQEGM’. How will ‘WINDS’ be written in that language?
1) GURUF 2) HURVG 3) GVSUF 4) HUSVG
15. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the
* signs and balance the given equation.
9 * 16 * 64 * 8 * 2 * 9
1) ÷, +, ×, -, = 2) ÷, -, +, ×, = 3) -, ÷, +, ×, = 4) +, ÷, ×, -, =
16. Select the figure that will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
figure series.

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ha
E
d
1) 2) 3) 4)
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17. Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the
face opposite the face showing ‘1’.
C
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C
1) 2 2) 5 3) 6 4) 3
18. Select the option that represents the letters that, when placed from left to right
in the blanks below, will complete the letter series.
NML_JN_LJJ_MLJ_NM_JJ
1) J N L M J 2) J M N J L 3) M N J L N 4) M N L J M
19. Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the
second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to
the third number.
7 : 47 :: 11 : 119 :: 3 : ?
1) 14 2) 15 3) 7 4) 11

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Tier-I) - MT - 69

20. Which option represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear
in an English dictionary?
1. Typographical 2. Typologically 3. Typifications 4. Typicalness
5. Tyrannosaurus
1) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 2) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 3) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4 4) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
21. Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure (rotation is NOT
allowed).

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ha
1) 2)

E 3) 4)
d
22. Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given
series?
BAWP, ?, DWCH, EUFD, FSIZ
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1) CLZY 2) CZYL 3) CYZH 4) CYZL

23. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at
AB.
C
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C

1) 2) 3) 4)

24. In a certain code language, ‘BENT’ is coded as ‘3198’ and ‘DEBT’ is coded as ‘8316’.
What is the code for ‘N’ in the given code language?
1) 3 2) 8 3) 1 4) 9
25. In a family of four persons there is only one child. B is A’s wife and D’s daughter.
If C is A’s daughter, then how is C related to D?
1) Son’s son 2) Daughter’s daughter
3) Son 4) Daughter

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Tier-I) - MT - 69

GENERAL AWARENESS
26. Which of the following statements is correct about the Chairperson of the Monetary
Policy committee of India, which was reconstituted by the Government of India in
October 2024?
1) The Chairperson of the Monetary Policy committee will be elected by directors
of all public sector banks of India.
2) The Prime Minister of India will be the de facto Chairperson of the Monetary
Policy committee for FY25.
3) The CAG of India is the Chairperson of the Monetary Policy committee.

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4) The RBI Governor is the Chairperson (ex officio) of the Monetary Policy Committee.
27. Gujarat is the largest producer of salt in India because;
1) It has extensive dry coast 2) Its coastal waters are very saline
3) It has extensive shallow seas
ha
4) Besides producing salt from saline water, it has reserves of rock salt
28. Buddhism made an important impact by allowing two sections of society into its
fold. They were –
1) Merchants and Priests
3) Warriors and Traders

E 2) Moneylenders and Slaves

4) Women and Sudras
d
29. English chemist Humphry Davy discovered and isolated the highly reactive alkali
metals especially sodium and potassium by adopting the method:
ee

1) Electrolysis 2) Reduction with Carbon

3) Roasting and Calcination 4) Smelting
C
30. The iron and steel industries at Bhilai, Durgapur, and Rourkela were set up
during the-
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1) II Five-Year Plan 2) I Five Year Plan

3) III Five-Year Plan 4) IV Five-Year Plan
31. Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of the consequences
of the 1857 revolt?
I) Lord Canning held Durbar at Allahabad in November 1857.
II) The Indian administration was taken over by Queen Victoria.
C
1) Only I 2) Neither I nor II 3) Only II 4) Both I and II
32. __________ dance form is also known as Ekaharya, where one dancer takes on
many roles in a single performance.
1) Kathak 2) Kathakali 3) Sattriya 4) Bharatnatyam
33. Which of the following fundamental rights are mentioned under different articles
in Part III of the Constitution of India:
A) Abolition of untouchable
B) Abolition of titles
C) Freedom to pay tax from any religious development
D) Protection of interests of minorities
Select the correct answer using the following code:
1) A and B 2) B, C and D 3) C and D 4) A, B, C and D

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Tier-I) - MT - 69

34. What among the following is the required profession of the applicant as on 3rd
March 2022 in order to apply for the benefits of PM KUSUM Yojana?
1) Weavers 2) Farmer
3) Primary School Teachers 4) ASHA Workers
35. What are the intended uses for the Param Rudra supercomputers, developed
under the National Supercomputing Mission and inaugurated by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi in September 2024?
1) Mitigate criminal activities of human beings 2) Weather and climate research
3) Developing a hub for E-marketing 4) Defense simulations

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36. In 1910, who applied the newly developed method of radioactive dating to minerals
in the first attempt to quantitatively estimate the age of the Earth?
1) Friedrich Mohs 2) Clair C Patterson 3) Arthur Holmes 4) Alfred Wegener
37. Which of the following awards are given to recognise players ‘Lifetime Achievement
in Sports’?
ha
1) Dronacharya Award 2) Dhyan Chand Award
3) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna 4) Arjuna Award
38.

E
Which of the following deities is associated with the festival Onam?
d
1) Lord Rama 2) Lord Krishna 3) Lord Vishnu 4) Lord Ganesha
39. Classical singer Kishori Amonkar is associated with which of the following music
Gharanas?
ee

1) Dagari Gharana 2) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

3) Mewati Gharana 4) Bishnupur Gharana
C
40. Which of the following options best describes the Ideal Gas Law?
1) The pressure (P), volume (V) and temperature (T) of a fixed quantity of gas are
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related by the equation PV/T = Constant.

2) The pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its volume at constant volume.
3) The volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its temperature at constant
pressure.
4) The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial
pressures of the individual gases
C
41. The Jhelum River flows through which two countries?
1) India and Nepal 2) India and Pakistan
3) Pakistan and Bangladesh 4) India and China
42. Poverty line can be defined as ____
1) The minimum level of per capital consumption and expenditure
2) The Line of demarcation between the rich and poor
3) The lowest level in ladder of economic prosperity
4) All of the above
43. The Great Royal Road described by Megasthenes connected which region?
1) From Indus to Pataliputra 2) From Pataliputra to Prayaga
3) From Prayag to Ujjain 4) From Pataliputra to Taxila

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Tier-I) - MT - 69

44. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total
expenditure and total receipts is called;
1) Fiscal deficit 2) Budget deficit 3) Revenue deficit 4) Current deficit
45. The Government of India had launched Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana
(DDUGJY) in the year _____ for the rural areas with the objectives of electrification
of all un-electrified villages, as per Census 2011.
1) 2018 2) 2014 3) 2017 4) 2011
46. Tat Vadya is also known as _______ instruments.
1) Percussion 2) Electronic 3) Wind 4) Stringed

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47. Which of the following statements is not correct?
1) Appropriation Act is not necessary to sanction funds subject to vote of credit.
2) Reuse does not involve any additional cost
3) Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on demand for funds
ha
4) Both Houses of Parliament shall not propose amendments in the Appropriation
Bill.
48.
1) Nathu La

E
Which of the following passes lies in the Sutlej valley?
2) Jelep La 3) Shipki La 4) Sherabathanga
d
49. What molecules have been found in the tails of comets?
1) Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, argon 2) Carbon, sodium, calcium, argon
ee

3) Oxygen, calcium, potassium, argon 4) Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen

50. Which of the following is a key focus area of the ‘Amrit Dharohar’ scheme launched
by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi on World Environment Day, 2023?
C
1) Development of rural infrastructure
2) Preservation of ancient Indian heritage sites
Sr

3) Promotion of organic farming

4) To promote values of local communities in conserving wetland Ecosystem
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
m2  1
51. If Cosec  + Cot  = m, find the value of .
C
m2  1
1) 1 2) 0 3) Cos  4) -Sin 
52. In a circular race of 4225 m, X and Y start from the same point and at the same
time at speeds of 54 km/h and 63 km/h. When will they meet again for the first
time on the track when they are running in the opposite direction?
1) 120 seconds 2) 130 seconds 3) 140 seconds 4) 150 seconds
53. Find the least number divisible by 2, 3, 5, 6, 9 and 18, which is a perfect square.
1) 400 2) 900 3) 3600 4) 144
54. The simple interest on Rs. 800 for 6 years at 5.5% per annum is equal to the
simple interest on Rs. 600 at 4% per annum for a certain period of time. The
period of time is:
1) 9 years 2) 10 years 3) 12 years 4) 11 years

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Tier-I) - MT - 69

55. The following table shows the marks distribution among the students in a class.

Marks No. Of
Students
Less than 10 2
Less than 20 5
Less than 30 6
Less than 40 8
Less than 50 10

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How many students scored less than 20 marks?
1) 5 2) 6 3) 2 4) 7
56. In  ABC, D is the mid-point of BC and G is the centroid. If GD = 10 cm, then the
length of AD is _________.
1) 30 cm 2) 10 cm 3) 15 cm 4) 20 cm
12
ha
57. If tan x = – , where x lies in the second quadrant, what is the value of sin x –
5
cotx?
144

E
169 209 156
d
1) 2) 3) 4)
169 156 156 209
58. P and Q together can complete a piece of work in 6 days. If P can alone complete
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the work in 18 days, then the number of days required for Q to finish the work is:
1) 8 days 2) 10 days 3) 9 days 4) 11 days
1 6 1
C
59. If ( x  )  2 2 , what is the value of ( x  )?
x x6
1) 180 2) 216 3) 234 4) 198
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60. Simplify the following expression.

(4x + 1)2 - (4x + 3)(4x - 1)
1) (4x + 1) 2) 4x 3) (4x - 3) 4) 4
61. Aarti can type 85 pages in 10 hours. Aarti and Bina together can type 500 pages
in 40 hours. How much time will Bina take to type 40 pages?
1) 15 hours 2) 10 hours 3) 14 hours 4) 12 hours
62. Two men walk from a place at speeds of 9 km/h and 12 km/h, respectively. The
C
first man takes 20 minutes more than the second one to cover the journey. Find
the distance of the journey.
1) 12 km 2) 13 km 3) 10 km 4) 15 km
63. In an election between two candidates, 10% of the voters in the voter list did not
cast their vote, whereas 10% of the votes cast were found to be invalid. The
winning candidate got 56% of the valid votes and won the election by a margin of
1,458 votes. What is the total number of voters enrolled in the voter list?
1) 15,000 2) 16,000 3) 13,000 4) 14,000
4 5 9
64. Three number are in the ratio : : The difference between the smallest and
5 6 10
the greatest numbers is 12. Find the number which is NEITHER the smallest
NOR the greatest.
1) 108 2) 104 3) 100 4) 96

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Tier-I) - MT - 69

65. The value of x2 + y2 when x = 1, y = 2 is:

1) 4 2) 2 3) 1 4) 5
66. The length of the common chord of two circles of radii 15 cm and 13 cm, whose
centres are 14 cm apart, is:
1) 15 cm 2) 24 cm 3) 14 cm 4) 12 cm
67. A pipe can fill a tank in 30 hours. Due to a leakage at the bottom, it is filled in 50
hours. How much time will the leakage take to empty the completely filled tank?
1) 60 hours 2) 75 hours 3) 85 hours 4) 70 hours
68. Which of the following options gives an expression equivalent to sin(A + B)?
1) sinAcosB – cosAsinB 2) sinAcosB + cosAsinB
3) cosAcosB + sinAsinB 4) cosAcosB – sinAsinB

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69. The length, breadth, and height of a room are 10 m, 8 m and 6 m respectively.
Find the cost of white washing the walls of the room and the ceiling at the rate of
Rs. 7.50 per m2
1) Rs. 1,850 2) Rs. 2,150 3) Rs. 2,000 4) Rs. 2,220
70. In a class of 60 students, 20 are girls. The average weight of the boys in the class
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is 40 kg, while that of all the girls is 35 kg. What is the average weight (in kg) of
the entire class (correct to two decimal places)?
1) 36.67 2) 40.67 3) 33.33 4) 38.33
71.

E
The marked price of a mobile phone is Rs. 15,000 and the shopkeeper sold it for
Rs. 13,500. What is the rate of discount offered by the shopkeeper?
d
1) 9% 2) 11% 3) 10% 4) 12%
72. A dishonest shopkeeper sells millet at Rs. 20 per kg which he has bought at Rs.
16 per kg and he is giving 800 gm instead of 1000 gm. Find his actual profit
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percentage.
1) 56.25% 2) 52.12% 3) 58.36% 4) 54.25%
73. A can do a certain piece of work in 1.5 times the number of days in which B and C
C
together can do it. If A and B together can do the said piece of work in 30 days and
C alone can do it in 120 days, then how many days will B take to do this piece of
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work alone?
1) 75 2) 60 3) 45 4) 50
74. Study the give table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the number of students studying in six different classes of six
different schools.

School Class V Class VI Class VII Class VIII Class IX Class X

C
P 152 160 145 156 147 144
Q 148 166 150 155 157 143
R 161 152 140 145 143 165
S 159 142 149 140 142 168
T 147 144 158 163 154 150
U 150 160 162 160 161 140
Total 917 924 904 919 904 910

What is the respective ratio of students studying in class IX of schools Q and R

together to those studying in class VI of schools S and T together?
1) 181 : 127 2) 127 : 181 3) 150 : 143 4) 143 : 150
75. The value of tan5°tan25°tan45°tan65°tan85° is equal to _________.
1) 1 2) 4 3) 2 4) 3

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Tier-I) - MT - 69

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
76. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the
given sentence.
The manager was surprised that nobody had reported the issue before the damage
became irreversible.
1) no one had reported the issue before it turned irreversible
2) none reported before it damaged irreversible
3) it was not reported before it was damaged irreversible
4) nobody did report before damage irreversible

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77. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the underlined word in the given
sentence.
This dress is too gaudy for a formal dinner.
1) Plain 2) Flashy 3) Bright 4) Extravagant
78.
ha
Select the most appropriate option that means the same as the underlined group
of words to fill in the blank.

1) Local

E
The festival attracts visitors from every corner of the world, making it a truly
__________ event.
2) Regional 3) Global 4) National
d
79. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given group of words.
Hit the nail on the head
ee

1) To find the right solution 2) To make a mistake

3) To act in a hasty manner 4) To start something suddenly
C
80. Select the correct spelling to fill in the blank.
They have to ________ their plans due to unforeseen circumstances.
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1) revise 2) revize 3) revizee 4) revisse

81. Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the
correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
A. distribution system and reinforces the commitment to
B. warehousing and greater operational efficiency in the public
C
C. the nation’s food security with every grain scientifically stored
D. Depot Darpan, a mirror of warehousing excellence, ensures improved
1) BDCA 2) BCAD 3) DBAC 4) CABD
82. Select the correctly spelt word to fill in the blank.
The festival was a ________ success, attracting thousands of visitors.
1) tremendous 2) tremandous 3) tremendeous 4) tremenous
83. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
When did they announce the results?
1) When the results were announced by them?
2) When were the results announced by them?
3) When was the result announced by them?
4) When are the results announced by them?

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Tier-I) - MT - 69

84. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given word.

Pernicious
1) Harmful 2) Beneficial 3) Temporary 4) Unclear
85. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word
Ineffable
1) Difficult to express 2) Easy to understand
3) Fun to discuss 4) Clear in meaning
86. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

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Effervescent
1) Calm 2) Enthusiastic 3) Dull 4) Aggressive
87. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
People speak English all over the world.
ha
1) English was spoken all over the world.
2) English is spoken all over the world.

E
3) English has been spoken all over the world.
4) English will be spoken all over the world.
d
88. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given group of words.
Bite the hand that feeds you
ee

1) To harm someone who helps you 2) To accept help without gratitude

3) To give up on a relationship 4) To seek revenge
89. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the
C
given sentence.
The teacher appreciated the diligent students for their hard work.
Sr

1) Lazy 2) Hardworking 3) Careless 4) Indifferent

90. Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that
arranges the parts in the correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence.
(P) that more than 100 children fell ill after consuming
(Q) area of Patna in Bihar on 24th April, 2025
C
(R) India has taken suo motu cognizance of a media report
(O) mid-day meal in a government school, in the Mokama
1) OPQR 2) PROQ 3) QORP 4) RPOQ
91. The following sentence has been split into segments. Identify the segment that
contains an error. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Health, as a fundamental human right and/A/ universal value, improves well-
being, impacts a country’s/B/ survival and development, and influences the world./
C/
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) No error
92. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Transient
1) Temporary 2) Quick 3) Fleeting 4) Permanent

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Tier-I) - MT - 69

93. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Pusillanimous
1) Brave 2) Timid 3) Generous 4) Untrustworthy
94. The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the
segment with a grammatical error.
As the BRICS grouping of emerging powers convenes/ its foreign ministers in Rio
de Janeiro ahead of/ it’s highly anticipated July summit, cracks within the /
expanded coalition are becoming increasingly visible.
1) As the BRICS grouping of emerging powers convenes

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2) its foreign ministers in Rio de Janeiro ahead of
3) it’s highly anticipated July summit, cracks within the
4) expanded coalition are becoming increasingly visible
95.
ha
Select the option that can substitute/replace the bracketed word correctly and
complete the sentence.
I can’t believe she (forgotten) to bring her assignment today.
1) Remembered 2) Left

E 3) Mistaken 4) Forgot
d
Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read
the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Exercise or workout is physical ________96_______ that enhances or maintains
ee

fitness and overall health which is performed for various reasons, including weight
loss or maintenance, to aid ______97______ and improve strength, develop muscles
and the cardiovascular system, prevent injuries, hone athletic skills, improve
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health, or simply for enjoyment. Many people ______98______ to exercise outdoors
where they can congregate in groups, socialize, and improve well-being as well as
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mental health. In _____99_____ of health benefits, usually, 150 minutes of

moderate-intensity exercise per week is recommended for ______100______ the
risk of health problems.
96. 1) activity 2) active 3) activist 4) actively
97. 1) evolution 2) growth 3) ripening 4) maturity
98. 1) option 2) choice 3) choose 4) select
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99. 1) words 2) phases 3) titles 4) terms
100. 1) degrading 2) demoting 3) lowering 4) reducing

KEY
1.3 2.4 3.4 4.1 5.2 6.4 7.1 8.1 9.1 10.1 SCAN QR FOR
11.1 12.2 13.4 14.1 15.4 16.2 17.4 18.2 19.3 20.2 OUR RESULTS
21.1 22.4 23.2 24.4 25.2 26.4 27.1 28.4 29.1 30.2
31.3 32.4 33.4 34.2 35.2 36.3 37.2 38.3 39.2 40.1
41.2 42.1 43.1 44.1 45.2 46.4 47.4 48.3 49.4 50.4
51.3 52.2 53.2 54.4 55.1 56.1 57.3 58.3 59.4 60.4
61.2 62.1 63.1 64.3 65.4 66.2 67.2 68.2 69.4 70.4
71.3 72.1 73.2 74.3 75.1 76.1 77.1 78.3 79.1 80.1
81.3 82.1 83.2 84.1 85.1 86.2 87.2 88.1 89.2 90.4
91.4 92.4 93.2 94.3 95.4 96.1 97.2 98.3 99.4 100.4

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