Quality Control & Quality Assurance

1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Quality Assurance?

a) Proactive process to prevent defects.
b) Focuses on inspecting the final product.
c) Involves establishing and maintaining standards.
d) Aims to improve development and test processes.
Answer: b) Focuses on inspecting the final product.

2)Quality Assurance is a sum of ________.

(a)Quality Design
(b)Quality conformance and performance
(c)Quality Service
(d)All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

3)Which term refers to a systematic evaluation of a product or service to determine its

acceptability?
a) Quality Control.
b) Quality Assurance.
c) Quality Inspection.
d) Quality Engineering.
Answer: c) Quality Inspection.

4)Which of the following best describes Quality Control?

a) A proactive process to prevent defects.
b) A systematic approach to ensuring processes meet standards.
c) The application of statistical tools to improve processes.
d) Activities to fulfill quality requirements.
Answer: d) Activities to fulfill quality requirements.

5)Which of the following is NOT a core component of Quality Management?

a) Quality planning.
b) Process improvement.
c) Statistical process control.
d) Product inspection only.
Answer: d) Product inspection only.

6)Which term refers to the overall systematic approach to managing quality within an
organization?
a) Quality Control.
b) Quality Assurance.
c) Quality Inspection.
d) Quality Management.
Answer: d) Quality Management.

7)Who is known as the father of TQM (Total Quality Management)?

a) Edward Deming
b) Joseph Juran
c) Philip Crosby
d) Kaoru Ishikawa

8)Which of the following does not belong to Juran’s Quality Trilogy?

a) Quality Improvement
b) Quality Assurance
c) Quality Planning
d) Quality Control

9)Which of the following is not a contribution made by Deming?

a) Deming Cycle
b) Deming’s 14 points
c) Taguchi Loss Function
d) System of Profound Knowledge

10)“Quality control Handbook”

a) Juran
b) Philiph
c) B. Deming
d)B.Pareto

11)“BY pinpointing root problems this diagram provides quality improvement from
the bottom up:
a)Control Chart
b). Cause and effect Diagram
c). Peters
d). Taguchi

12)Concept of SMED introduced by:

a) Shewheart
b). Shingo
c).Philiph
d).Ishikawaw

13)What is the PDCA cycle?

(a) A process for eliminating waste
(b) A cycle for continuous improvement
(c) A method for cost reduction
(d) A technique for problem-solving
Answer: (b) A cycle for continuous improvement.

14)In the PDCA cycle, what does the "Act" phase involve?
(a) Implementing the change
(b) Documenting the process
(c) Standardizing the process
(d) Reviewing the results
Answer: (a) Implementing the change.

15)What are the three main categories of the cost of quality?

(a) Prevention, Appraisal, and Failure
(b) Internal, External, and Appraisal
(c) Prevention, Internal, and External
(d) Internal, External, and Inspection
Answer: (a) Prevention, Appraisal, and Failure.

16)What is an example of a prevention cost?

(a) Rework
(b) Quality control
(c) Training
(d) Scrap
Answer: (c) Training.

17)What is an example of an internal failure cost?

(a) Warranty claims
(b) Scrap
(c) Market research
(d) Lost sales
Answer: (b) Scrap.

18)Reasons for Poor Quality

Which of the following is a major reason for poor quality?
(a) Poor training
(b) Customer feedback
(c) Effective communication
(d) Standardized processes
Answer: (a) Poor training.

20)What is a common cause of poor quality in manufacturing?

(a) Inadequate quality control
(b) Effective communication
(c) Customer satisfaction
(d) Employee engagement
Answer: (a) Inadequate quality control.

21)How can poor quality impact a business?

(a) Increased efficiency
(b) Higher profitability
(c) Reduced customer satisfaction
(d) Stronger brand reputation
Answer: (c) Reduced customer satisfaction.

22)Which of the following is NOT a key principle of TQM?

a) Customer focus
b) Employee involvement
c) Continuous improvement
d) Short-term profit maximization
Answer: d) Short-term profit maximization

23)Which of the following is a key benefit of TQM?

a) Reduced employee turnover
b) Increased customer satisfaction and loyalty
c) Simplified organizational structure
d) Increased reliance on external consultants
Answer: b) Increased customer satisfaction and loyalty

24)TQM tools include all except:

a) Control charts
b) Fishbone diagram
c) Brainstorming
d) SWOT analysis ✅

25)A well-defined vision statement should:

a) Be vague and open to interpretation
b) Be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART)
c) Be focused on internal processes rather than external goals
d) Be primarily communicated to senior management only
Answer: b) Be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART)

26)The primary goal of a quality policy is to:

a) Define the structure of the quality management system
b) Ensure that all employees understand the organization's commitment to quality
c) Develop a comprehensive set of quality procedures
d) Establish a formal reporting structure for quality issues
Answer: b) Ensure that all employees understand the organization's commitment to
quality

27)‘Performance’ and ‘aesthetics’ in the House of Quality fall under the category of
________
a) Technical descriptors
b) Customer requirements
c) Relationship matrix
d) Poka Yoke

28)Performance indicators are used to:

a. Evaluate employee salary
b. Monitor and improve processes ✅
c. Conduct tax audits
d. Promote branding

29)A KPI stands for:

a. Key Performance Indicator ✅
b. Known Policy Implementation
c. Key Project Issue
d. Knowledge-based Plan Initiative

30)Which is a characteristic of effective KPIs?

a. Ambiguous
b. Time-bound ✅
c. Hidden
d. Complex
31)In which form of benchmarking is direct comparison with competitor done of a
product, service, process or method?
a) Internal benchmarking
b) Competitive benchmarking
c) Functional benchmarking
d) Generic benchmarking
Answer:b

32)Benchmarking can also be used by an organization to determine

a) whether an organization is able to comply with standards

b) whether an organization is able to meet customer expectations

c) areas for future improvement to remain competitive in the market

d)all of the above

33) ___ benchmarking is the process of evaluating processes or business functions

against the best companies, regardless of their industry.

a) Competitive

b) Generic

c) strategic

d)Functional

34)Which of the following is not a type of benchmarking?

a) internal benchmarking

b) external benchmarking

c) national benchmarking

d)international benchmarking

35)QFD stands for:

a) Quality Factory Design
b) Quality Function Deployment ✅
c) Quick Functional Development
d) Quality Flow Diagram

36)ISO 9000 refers to:

a) Environmental management
b) Product labeling
c) Quality management standards ✅
d) IT systems

37)Which ISO standard focuses on customer satisfaction and continuous

improvement?
a) ISO 9000 ✅
b) ISO 27001
c) ISO 14000
d) ISO 45001

38)Which of the following relates both to ISO 9001 and ISO 14001?
a)Financial audit
b) Process approach ✅
c) Market segmentation
d) Product testing

39)The primary objective of ISO 14001 is to:

Improve branding
B. Minimize environmental impact ✅
C. Increase production
D. Maximize profit

40)Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?

(a) Range
(b) Mean
(c) Standard Deviation
(d) Variance
Answer: (b)

41)Which of the following is a measure of variability?

(a) Median
(b) Mode
(c) Standard Deviation
(d) Mean
Answer: ©

42)A sample is a:
(a) The entire population
(b) A subset of the population
(c) A measure of central tendency
(d) A measure of variability
Answer: (b)

43)Which of the following is a characteristic of a mean?

The sum of deviations from the mean is zero
It minimises the sum of squared deviations
It is affected by extreme scores
All of the above
Answer: d

44)Which one of the following statements best describes the range measure?
It gives us the highest and lowest scores in a data set.
It gives us the lowest and highest scores in a data set.
It is always greater than or equal to the mean of a data set.
None of the above
Answer: (B)

45)Which one of the following statements best describes the standard deviation
measure?
It gives us the spread of a data set.
It tells how much a data set is spread from its mean.
It is always greater than or equal to the mean of a data set.
None of the above
Answer: ©

46)What is the standard deviation measure?

It measures how much a data set is spread from its mean.
It measures how much a data set is spread from another data set.
It indicates how closely related two or more sets are in terms of their respective means,
medians, and quantiles.
All the above
Answer: (D)

47)What is the mean of the following numbers: 23, 45, 87, 40, 50?
49
34
56
None of the above
Answer: a

48)Statistical quality control of concrete is defined as:In the acceptance criteria for
concrete in accordance with IS-456:2000,The variation in strength of individual
specimen should not be more than
a ) ± 30% of the average

b ) 25% of the average

c ) 15% of the average

d)20% of the average

49)Concrete is acceptable if:

A. Average < fck
B. All cubes fail
C. Average ≥ fck + 0.825σ ✅
D. Individual cube ≥ fck + σ
50)Coefficient of variation is:
A. Mean / Median
B. σ / x̄ × 100 ✅
C. σ² / n
D. σ × n

51)Which of the following is the primary criterion for concrete acceptance as per IS
456:2000?

a) 7-day compressive strength

b) 14-day compressive strength

c) 28-day compressive strength

d) 90-day compressive strength

Answer: c) 28-day compressive strength

52)According to IS 456:2000, what is the minimum number of concrete specimens

required for testing the compressive strength of a concrete mix?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 5

Answer: c) 3

53)As per IS 456:2000, if the individual variation in the compressive strength of three
test specimens is more than what percentage of the average, then the test results are
considered invalid?

a) 10%

b) 15%

c) 20%

d) 25%

Answer: b) 15%

54)According to IS 456:2000, the minimum number of samples required for

determining the compressive strength of a batch of concrete is:

a) 3

b) 4
c) 5

d) 20

Answer: d) 20

55) What is the characteristic strength of concrete, as per IS 456:2000?

a) The strength at which 50% of the test results are expected to fall below.

b) The strength at which not more than 5% of the test results are expected to fall
below.

c) The strength at which 95% of the test results are expected to fall below.

d) The strength at which 90% of the test results are expected to fall below

56)Good quality construction _________ the wastage of materials, smooth function of

the team.

a) Increases

b) Decreases

c) Doesn’t effect

d) Gain

Answer:b

57)Quality control helps to ___________ the risks of overdesign that ___________

the overall cost.

a) Maximize, Increase

b) Minimize, Increase

c) Maximize, Decrease

d) Minimize, Decrease

View Answer:d

58)Quality control means _________.

(a) Implementing rules and regulation of safety

(b) Implementing policy for accountability

(c) Performing activities to ensure quality

(d) Generating revenue through inspection

Answer: c

59)Which of the following is NOT a common test performed on concrete cubes to

determine their compressive strength?

a) Compression test at 28 days

b) Split tensile strength test

c) Absorption test

d) Cube crushing strength test

Answer: c) Absorption test

60)According to IS 456, the average compressive strength of concrete cubes from a

batch must be within what percentage of the specified characteristic strength for
acceptance?

a) 10%

b) 15%

c) 20%

d) 25%

Answer: b) 15%

61)For aggregates used in concrete (other than wearing surfaces), what is the
maximum permissible limit of aggregate crushing value, according to IS 383?

a) 30%

b) 40%

c) 45%

d) 50%

Answer: c) 45%

62) A brick should be rejected if its compressive strength is below which value (as per
IS 1000)?

a) 1.0 MPa

b) 2.0 MPa

c) 3.5 MPa
d) 5.0 MPa

Answer: b) 2.0 MPa

63)What is the minimum compressive strength required for a good quality building
stone, as per IS specifications?

a) 50 N/mm²

b) 100 N/mm²

c) 150 N/mm²

d) 200 N/mm²

Answer: b) 100 N/mm²

64)Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good building stone?

a) High resistance to wear and abrasion

b) Low water absorption

c) High compressive strength

d) High porosity

Answer: d) High porosity

65)The percentage of water absorption by weight for a good building stone should be
less than:

a) 3%

b) 5%

c) 7%

d) 10%

Answer: b) 5%

66)According to IS 456, what is the maximum permissible variation in the individual

compressive strength of concrete cubes for acceptance?

a) 5%

b) 10%

c) 15%

d) 20%
Answer: c) 15%

67)Which of the following is a reason for rejecting concrete?

a) Concrete mix complies with specified grade

b) Concrete mix shows satisfactory workability

c) Concrete cubes show compressive strength below the specified grade

d) Concrete mix demonstrates high durability

Answer: c) Concrete cubes show compressive strength below the specified grade

68)What is the minimum compressive strength required for a brick as per IS 1000?

a) 20 N/mm²

b) 30 N/mm²

c) 40 N/mm²

d) 50 N/mm²

Answer: a) 20 N/mm²

69) What is the standard testing frequency for aggregate gradation?

a) Once per batch

b) Once per project
c) Every 28 days
d) Every 7 days

70)What is the typical testing frequency for cement compressive strength?

a) Every batch
b) Every 28 days after pouring
c) Every 24 hours after pouring
d) Every 7 days after pouring

Answer: b) Every 28 days after pouring

Cement compressive strength is typically tested after the cement has cured for 28
days.

71)How often should a concrete mix design be tested?

a) Once per day

b) Once per project
c) Every 28 days
d) Every 7 days

Answer: b) Once per project

Explanation: Concrete mix design should be tested once for each project to ensure the
desired strength and durability are achieved.

Answer: A) Once per batch

Explanation: Aggregate gradation should be tested for each batch of aggregates to

ensure the material meets the required specifications.

72)How frequently should steel tensile strength be tested?

a) Every batch
b) Every 28 days
c) Every 7 days
d) Once per project

Answer: D) Once per project

Explanation: Steel tensile strength is typically tested once for each batch of steel to
ensure the material meets the required specifications.

73)What is the typical frequency for brick absorption tests?

A) Every batch
B) Every 28 days
C) Every 7 days
D) Once per project

Answer: A) Every batch

74)What principle does the rebound hammer test rely on?

a) The concrete's moisture content influencing rebound.

b) The rebound of an elastic mass depending on the surface's hardness.

c) The rebound of an inelastic mass depending on the surface's hardness.

d) The rebound of a spring-loaded mass depending on the concrete's thickness.

Answer: b) The rebound of an elastic mass depending on the surface's hardness.

75)What is the purpose of the rebound hammer test?

a) To measure the concrete's exact compressive strength.

b) To assess the quality of concrete and its uniformity.

c) To determine the exact thickness of concrete structures.

d) To measure the water absorption of the concrete.

Answer: b) To assess the quality of concrete and its uniformity.

76)What factors can affect the rebound hammer test results?

a) Surface roughness, moisture content, and aggregate type.

b) Only the age of the concrete.

c) Only the thickness of the concrete structure.

d) Only the type of cement used.

Answer: a) Surface roughness, moisture content, and aggregate type.

77)How many readings should be taken at each testing point, as per IS:516?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

Answer: d) 6

78)What is the minimum distance required between the testing point and the edge of
the sample, as per IS:516?

a) 10 mm

b) 15 mm

c) 20 mm

d) 25 mm

Answer: c) 20 mm

79)What is the principle behind the USPV test?

a) Measuring the velocity of sound waves traveling through concrete.

b) Measuring the concrete's compressive strength directly.

c) Measuring the concrete's moisture content.

d) Measuring the concrete's thickness.

Answer: a) Measuring the velocity of sound waves traveling through concrete.

80)What does the USPV test measure?

a) Concrete's compressive strength indirectly.

b) Concrete's water absorption rate.

c) Concrete's exact thickness.

d) Concrete's chemical composition.

Answer: a) Concrete's compressive strength indirectly.

81)What factors affect the USPV readings?

a) Concrete age, moisture content, and aggregate type.

b) Only the type of cement used.

c) Only the thickness of the concrete structure.

d) Only the temperature of the concrete.

Answer: a) Concrete age, moisture content, and aggregate type.

82)What is the advantage of using the USPV test compared to core sampling?

a) It's a destructive test.

b) It's more accurate in measuring concrete strength.

c) It's non-destructive.

d) It provides more information about the concrete.

Answer: c) It's non-destructive.

83)What is the general guideline for accepting concrete based on rebound hammer
test results?

a) Any rebound number is acceptable.

b) Rebound numbers should fall within a specified range (e.g., 25-35) based on the
target strength.

c) Rebound numbers should be as high as possible.

d) Rebound numbers should be as low as possible.

Answer: b) Rebound numbers should fall within a specified range (e.g., 25-35) based
on the target strength.

84)Quality during construction is maintained by:

a) Concept sketches
b) Quality audit
c) Execution as per drawings and specifications
d) Testing of concrete cubes only
Ans: c
85)Quality during construction is maintained by:
a) Concept sketches
b) Quality audit
c) Execution as per drawings and specifications
d) Testing of concrete cubes only
Ans: c

86)Testing stage evaluates:

a) Cost variation
b) Material orders
c) Strength and durability of construction
d) Layout marking
Ans: c

87)As per IS 13311 (Part 1), the UPV value > 4.5 km/sec indicates:
a) Excellent quality concrete
b) Good quality
c) Doubtful concrete
d) Low strength concrete
Ans: a