Fill in the Blanks

Q1. Rotation speed of Aerodrome beacon is ___________.

A1. Rotation speed of Aerodrome beacon is 30 flashes per min.

Q2. Threshold of RWY-14 is displaced by _____.

A2. Threshold of RWY-14 is displaced by 455 m

Q3. Declared Distances for departure Runway 32 from taxiway A intersection TORA/TODA is

________and from Taxiway B1/C1

intersection TORA/TODA is ______.

A3. Declared Distances for departure Runway 32 from taxiway A intersection TORA/TODA is 2980

M and from Taxiway B1/C1 intersection

TORA/TODA is 2316 M.

Q4. ________ of guard lights are provided at both sides of taxiway on _________ taxiways.

A4. Two Pairs of guard lights are provided at both sides of taxiway on A, B1 & C1 taxiways.

Q5. The distance from runway 32 threshold to taxiway A is ____.

A5. The distance from runway 32 threshold to taxiway A is 220 M.

Q6. Aircraft stand taxi lane L from B2 to A restricted for up to _____ Aircraft.

A6. Aircraft stand taxi lane L from B2 to A restricted for up to Code-C Aircraft.

Q7. The length of Approach Lighting System at Nagpur for RWY 32 is _____ and it has ___ cross

bars.

A7. The length of Approach Lighting System at Nagpur for RWY 32 is 900M and it has 5 cross bars.

Q8. Taxiway edge lights available on taxiway ______ is lighted and taxiway _____ is not lighted.

A8. Taxiway edge lights available on taxiway A, B1, B2, C1 is lighted and taxiway C2 is not lighted.

Q9. _________ or __________ have been identified for Engine run-up (Partial or high power).

A9. East end of B1 or Runway threshold have been identified for Engine run-up (Partial or high

power).
Q10. Aircraft up Code ___ category are permitted to make ____ Degree turn at the middle of the

runway without locking the wheels.

A10. Aircraft up Code C category are permitted to make 180 Degree turn at the middle of the

runway without locking the wheels.

Q11. In case of un-serviceability of crash siren / bell / aerodrome beacon, Tower will inform

______for repair of the same.

A11. In case of un-serviceability of crash siren / bell / aerodrome beacon, Tower will inform AOCC

for repair of the same.

Q12. Aerodrome beacon is located on top of the Air Traffic Control Tower Building, flashing

_____________ and ___________.

A12. Aerodrome beacon is located on top of the Air Traffic Control Tower Building, flashing Green

and White.

Q13. Landing T is available for RWY __________ & ____________.

A13. Landing T is available for RWY 14 & 32.

Q14. All aeronautical ground lights shall be operated during time from sunrise to sunset when

visibility is less than _____.

A14. All aeronautical ground lights shall be operated during time from sunrise to sunset when

visibility is less than 5 KM.

Q15. LIH and MEHT stand for ________

A15. Light intensity high and Mean eye height at threshold.

Q16. ATIS and NNP DVOR frequency are_____ and _____

A16. ATIS and NNP DVOR frequency are 128.325 Mhz and 112.7 MHz.

Q17. Secondary isolation bay is located on_____________________

A17. Secondary isolation bay is located on twy C1 270m ahead of twy F intersection facing west.

Q1. The airspace under the jurisdiction of aerodrome control tower is categorized as Class __
airspace.

A1. The airspace under the jurisdiction of aerodrome control tower is categorized as Class D

airspace.

Q2. J2 is ____ route.

A2. J2 is CDR-2 route.

Q3. UPPER/LOWER Limit of Sector D of Nagpur TMA is ________.

A3. UPPER/LOWER Limit of Sector D of Nagpur TMA is FL255/FL95.

Q4. On aerodromes , where no aerodrome traffic zone is established or no airspace has been

reserved for local flying , a circular area of radius____ ,

centred at ______ and vertical limits upto _____ AGL shall be treated as vicinity of aerodrome for

VFR flight.

A4. On aerodromes , where no aerodrome traffic zone is established or no airspace has been

reserved for local flying , a circular area of radius 5 nm,

centred at ARP and vertical limits upto 3000 ft AGL shall be treated as vicinity of aerodrome for

VFR flight.

Q1. ___________ is the Nodal Office for the DGCA authority for issuing YA.

A1. Delhi ARO is the Nodal Office for the DGCA authority for issuing YA.

Q2. ADC number is allotted by _______ and issued by _______.

A2. ADC number is allotted by MLU and issued by FIC.

Q3. Aircraft Operator is required to submit flight plan to ARO at least _____ prior to EOBT.

A3. Aircraft Operator is required to submit flight plan to ARO at least 3 Hrs prior to EOBT.

Q4. VFR flights shall not be operated during the period from _____ after sunset to ____ before

sunrise.

A4. VFR flights shall not be operated during the period from 20min after sunset to 20min before

sunrise.

Q5. No aircraft or vehicle shall be permitted near _____ from the VVIP aircraft on the ground.

A5. No aircraft or vehicle shall be permitted near 500 M from the VVIP aircraft on the ground.
Q6. In GP inoperative procedure an aircraft equipped with DME may leave 3100 ft. at _______.

A6. In GP inoperative procedure an aircraft equipped with DME may leave 3100 ft. at 6.6 D INGR.

Q7. ADC number for Domestic Non-scheduled flights is valid for ______ to ______ from EOBT.

A7. ADC number for Domestic Non-scheduled flights is valid for -15 Mins to 03 Hrs from EOBT.

Q8. If a flight plan is filed more than _______ in advance of the estimated off-block time of the flight,

the date of flight (DOF) shall be

inserted in ______ of the flight plan in the format DOF/YYMMDD).

A8. If a flight plan is filed more than 24 hours in advance of the estimated off-block time of the flight,

the date of flight (DOF) shall be

inserted in Item 18 of the flight plan in the format DOF/YYMMDD).

Q9. Wake turbulence separation between arriving A320 and ATR-72 will be ______.

A9. Wake turbulence separation between arriving A320 and ATR-72 will be 2 minutes.

Q10. A Flight Plan can be filled ___ days in advance.

A10. A Flight Plan can be filled 5 days in advance.

Q11. Flight Information Service within control areas and control zones will be provided by

_________.

A11. Flight Information Service within control areas and control zones will be provided by concerned

ATS unit.

Q12. An expected approach time shall be determined for an arriving aircraft that will be subjected to

a delay of ________ or more.

A12. An expected approach time shall be determined for an arriving aircraft that will be subjected to

a delay of 10 minutes or more.

Q13. Speed control shall not be applied to aircraft entering or established in a __________.

A13. Speed control shall not be applied to aircraft entering or established in a holding pattern.

Q14. MATS Part 1 section 16.7 specifically prevents the use of reciprocal runway in ___________.

A14. MATS Part 1 section 16.7 specifically prevents the use of reciprocal runway in Non-Radar

Environment.
Q15. Cruise climb is _________ in Indian FIRs.

A15. Cruise climb is not permitted in Indian FIRs.

Q16. ITEM 10 in FPL denotes ____________.

A16. ITEM 10 in FPL denotes Equipment and Capabilities.

Q17. G in Item 8 in Flight Plan stands for _______

A17. G in Item 8 in Flight Plan stands for General aviation aircraft.

Q1. NNP VOR frequency ________.

A1. NNP VOR frequency 112.7 MHz.

Q2. INGR frequency __________.

A2. INGR frequency 110.3 MHz.

Q3. NG frequency _________.

A3. NG frequency 217 KHz.

Q4. Identification and frequency of Localizer and Glide Path are _____ and _____.

A4. Identification and frequency of Localizer and Glide Path are INGR and 110.3 MHz.

Q5.stand by frequency for aerodrome control tower is_____

A5. stand by frequency for aerodrome control tower is 121.9

Q1. VHF frequency of Seoni flight training academy is _______.

A1. VHF frequency of Seoni flight training academy is 129.25 MHz

Q2. Nagpur Tower Standby frequency is ____________.

A2. Nagpur Tower Standby frequency is 121.9 MHz

Q3. Gondia Tower frequency is ________.

A3. Gondia Tower frequency is 118.35 MHz(controlled ) and 122.175 (uncontrolled)

A4. FDD is Flight Data Display.

Q5. SDD is ____________.

A5. SDD is Situational Data Display.

Q6. VCCS is ______________.

A6. VCCS is Voice Communication and Control system

Q7. Emergency frequency is ____.

A7. Emergency frequency is 121.5 Mhz.

Q1. Helicopter arriving from Chandrapur will normally follow ____ route.

A1. Helicopter arriving from Chandrapur will normally follow K 83 route.

Q2. The highest obstacle within 10 Nm from VANP ARP is at _____ and bearing 0180 of elevation

____.

A2. The highest obstacle within 10 Nm from VANP ARP is at 9.13NM and bearing 0180 of elevation

1925.9 ft.

Q1. Wake turbulence separation between an A320 and a MI17 will be ____.

A1. Wake turbulence separation between an A320 and a MI17 will be 3 MIN.

Q1. All aeronautical ground lights shall be operated during time from sunrise to sunset when

visibility is less than __________.

A1. All aeronautical ground lights shall be operated during time from sunrise to sunset when visibility

is less than 5000 Meter.

Q2. When the visibility becomes ________, tower duty officer shall immediately advise Airport

Meteorological Office personnel to proceed

to airside for taking the manual RVR reading.

A2. When the visibility becomes 1500 M, tower duty officer shall immediately advise Airport

Meteorological Office personnel to proceed

to airside for taking the manual RVR reading.

a take-off on runway where the RVR is less than

_____.

A3. Low visibility take-off operations (LVTO): A term used in relation to flight operations referring to a

take-off on runway where the RVR is less than

400 m.

Q4.

Q1. Category for Fire-fighting service in Nagpur can be upgraded to VIII with __ hrs of prior notice.

A1. Category for Fire-fighting service in Nagpur can be upgraded to VIII with 12 hrs of prior notice.

Q2. Cooling pit is located at _________________.

A2. Cooling pit is located at East End of TWY B1.

Q3. _____________ is a veer off or overrun off the runway surface.

A3. Runway Excursion is a veer off or overrun off the runway surface.

Q4. Location of alternate ATC site for Control Tower is ____________.

A4. Location of alternate ATC site for Control Tower is Fire Watch Tower.

Q5. Primary Isolation Bay located at __________.

A5. Primary Isolation Bay located at East end of Taxiway B1.

Q6. AAI is responsible for establishment and provision of search and rescue services in coordination

with Ministry of Defence and other

agencies to ensure that assistance is rendered to persons in distress.

A6. AAI is responsible for establishment and provision of search and rescue services in coordination

with Ministry of Defence and other

agencies to ensure that assistance is rendered to persons in distress.

Q7. JCAC is an acronym for ______________.

A7. JCAC is an acronym for Joint Control and Analysis Centre.

Q8 All runway incursion incidents will be investigated by _____.

Q1. __________ is the Nodal Office for the DGCA authority.

A1. Delhi ARO is the Nodal Office for the DGCA authority.

Q2. In case of a runway having designators 29 and 11, Runway Condition Report (RCR) will start

from ___ side.

A2. In case of a runway having designators 29 and 11, Runway Condition Report (RCR) will start

from 11 side.

Q3. As per the AVSEC circular 06 of 2021 Nagpur Airport is categorized as ____________.

A3. As per the AVSEC circular 06 of 2021 Nagpur Airport is categorized as sensitive airport.

Q4. AUP/UUP are issued by _____.

A4. AUP/UUP are issued by AMC.

Q5. No aircraft or vehicle shall be permitted near ___ from the VVIP aircraft on the ground.

A5. No aircraft or vehicle shall be permitted near 500 m from the VVIP aircraft on the ground.

Q6. QNH is 1015 Hpa, Transition level will be at _____.

A6. QNH is 1015 Hpa, Transition level will be at FL060.

Q7. ATC watch hours of airports are notified through ______, with the approval of GM(ATM), region.

A7. ATC watch hours of airports are notified through NOTAM, with the approval of GM(ATM),

region.

Q8. VIP standby shall be declared by tower supervisor/ duty officer tower ____ mins before

ETA/ETD of VIP flight.

A8. VIP standby shall be declared by tower supervisor/ duty officer tower 30 mins before ETA/ETD

of VIP flight.

Q9. In case of departing flight ,VIP standby may be withdrawn in consultation with WSO after

_______.

A9. In case of departing flight ,VIP standby may be withdrawn in consultation with WSO after the
aircraft is established on desired route and 50 nm

away.

Q10. In case of arriving flight ,VIP standby may be withdrawn in consultation with WSO after_____.

A10. In case of arriving flight ,VIP standby may be withdrawn in consultation with WSO after the VIP

flight is parked on designated parking stand .

Q11. During taxi of VVIP aircraft , no other aircraft or vehicle will come closer less than ____from

VVIP aircraft .

A11. During taxi of VVIP aircraft , no other aircraft or vehicle will come closer less than 500 m from

VVIP aircraft .