D-CLAT ALL INDIA MOCK 1

CLAT UG 2025
ADMIT CARD NUMBER

(In Figures)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 minutes) Maximum Marks : 120

This Question Booklet (B) contains 120 You should write A Number, and the OMR
(One hundred and twenty) Multiple Choice Response Sheet Number, and sign in the
Questions across 36 (Thirty Six) pages space/column provided in the
including 2 (Two) blank pages for rough Attendance Sheet.
work. No additional sheet (s) of paper will
be supplied for rough work. The QB for the Undergraduate
Programme is for 120 marks. Every Right
You shall enter your Admit Card No. on Answer Secures 1 marks. Every Wrong
the first page of the QB at the start of the Answer results in the deduction of 0.25
test. mark. THere shall be no deduction for
Unanswered Questions.
You have to answe All questons in the
separate carbonized Optical Mark Reader
You may retain the QB and the
(OMR) Response Sheet supplied along with
Candidate's copy of the OMR Response
this OB. You must READ the detailed
Sheet after the test.
instruction provi ded wi th the OM R
Response sheet on the reverse side of this
packet BEFORE you start the test. The use of any unfair means shall result
in your disqualification. Possession of
No clarification can be sought on the QB Electronic Devices such as mobile
from anyone. In case of any discrepancy phones, Headphones, digital watches
such as printing error or missing pages, etc, is/a strictly prohibited in the text
in the QB, request the invigilator to premises. Impersonation or any other
replace the QB and OMR Resonse Sheet. unlawful practi ce w ill l ead to you r
Do not use the previous OMR Response disqualification and possibly, appropriate
Sheet with the fresh OB. action under the law.

DO NOTE OPEN TILL 2 P.M.

 CONTENTS OF QUESTION PAPER

Subject Q.Nos. Page No.

English Language 1-25 1-6

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge 26-55 6-14

Legal Reasoning 56-85 14-26

Logical Reasoning 86-108 26-33

Quantitative Techniques 109-120 33-35

 SECTION I : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

PASSAGE 1.

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow.
Although the terms global warming and climate change are often used interchangeably, they
apply to different phenomena. Climate change refers to changes in Earth's temperature,
humidity, air pressure, wind, clouds, and precipitation patterns over time.
Global warming is a contributing factor to climate change and refers specifically to the effect of
greenhouse gases on Earth's average surface temperature. When discussing rising
temperatures caused by greenhouse gases, global warming is an acceptable term. However,
climate change is the more accurate term when describing other long-term changes to the
planet's weather patterns.
Natural processes on Earth constantly create and destroy greenhouse gases. The
decay of plant and animal matter produces carbon dioxide, which plants then absorb during
photosynthesis. This natural cycle keeps the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere fairly
stable. Shifts in the planet's crust and changes in ocean patterns impact weather, as do
fluctuations in the sun's output of radiation. Volcanic activity also affects the climate because
eruptions discharge greenhouse gases and other pollutants into the atmosphere. Climate
change scientists at the National Aeronautics and Space
Administration (NASA) recognise that these natural factors continue to play a role in climate
change but contend that the impact of these factors alone does not explain the substantial rise
in Earth's temperature. Humans have created and released greenhouse gases that do not occur
in nature. These include hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulphur
hexafluoride (SF6). These gases have thousands of times greater effect on the planet's
temperature than carbon dioxide.
Global warming could have a major impact on habitats. Some areas well suited to
farming might become too dry or too wet to support agriculture. Long periods of drought could
turn fertile lands into deserts with little vegetation. Plants and animals might not be able to
survive the rapid changes caused by global warming and could become extinct. Over the long
term, such changes would result in a loss of biodiversity on the planet. Some ecosystems, such
as coral reefs and coastal mangrove swamps, are likely to disappear completely.
Furthermore, people would also face serious problems. Loss of farmland would cause
disruptions in the food supply, bringing about famine in many areas. Scientists have noted
that various species of disease-carrying mosquitoes have expanded their habitats to areas
where they could not have lived before the rise in atmospheric temperature.
In 2015, world leaders crafted new climate goals at the UNFCCC conference in Paris,
France. This new agreement aimed to limit the rise in global temperatures to less than 2
degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels and provide countries with the tools needed to best
combat climate change. As a result, the Paris Agreement went into effect on November 4, 2016.
Q1. Which of the following is a dangerous consequence of the rise in Earth’s
temperature for our health?
a. Negative impact on the agricultural farms
b. Extinction of wild animals
c. Expansion of habitats by disease-carrying mosquitoes
d. Increased infertility of lands

Q2. Given below are the factors contributing to the climate change of our planet.
Select the option that contains the correct answer.
I.The photosynthesis process of plants.
II.Variations in ocean patterns.
III.Volcanic eruptions.
IV.Gases released due to industrial processes
a. I and II

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 b. II and III
c. II, III, and IV
d. All of the above

Q3. Which of the following is against the idea portrayed in the passage?
a. The decomposition of living organisms controls global warming.
b. Global warming is associated only with greenhouse gases.
c. The extinction of rare species is caused due to global warming.
d. Climate change is the cause of global warming.

Q4. The effects of climate change can be reduced by?

a. Controlling human activities.
b. Controlling the temperature rise to be within 2 degrees Celsius above
pre-industrial levels.
c. Controlling the fluctuations in ocean currents.
d. Controlling the natural cycle of photosynthesis.

Passage 2
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow.
In the past few decades, technology has grown rapidly. And the use of technology has also
increased drastically. It affects the life of people and changes the way of their learning,
thinking, and communication. It plays a major role in society, and now it is very tough to
imagine life without technology. Both technology and society are co-related, co-dependent, and
co-influence each other. Technology lays an impact on society, including the potential for
society to progress or decline, in both good and bad manners.
Our society is shaped by technology, which has both beneficial and harmful consequences.
Human societies and technology have grown inextricably linked since technical systems like
mobile phones, computers, TV, etc., are produced by humans and reflect the very basis of a
population's needs and lifestyle. Although technology improves the lifestyle of human beings, it
is also a major concern for future generations.
Nowadays, people are excessively using technology which reduces their physical
activities that directly affect their health. Also, due to the excessive use of technology, there are
so many cybercrimes happening every day in which someone steals the identity or personal
information of the victim, such as a Unique ID number, PAN, Debit Card, etc., and uses it to
conduct a crime or perpetrate fraud without our knowledge.
We utilise and rely on technology in our daily lives, and our technical requirements and
demands continue to grow. Technology is used by humans to explore, connect, study, and do
work. The manner in which we use technology decides whether its effects are beneficial or
detrimental to society. Technology has a more positive impact on humans or society as
compared to negative. It makes our life easier and rewards us by providing resources or tools
that make our life much easier. Some positive changes that technology brings to our lives are
improved communication, improved education and learning processes, mechanised agriculture,
and easy-to-access information.
As we know everything present on this planet has both advantages and disadvantages.
The same goes for technology. It also has negative impacts on society, such as an
increase in unemployment, an increase in pollution, an increase in health and mental
concerns, and an increase in cybercrimes.
Our culture has been radically transformed by technology. Many people now find it
difficult to conduct a face-to-face chat. People use their phones, tablets, or computers to spend
time with their buddies. Also, individuals now evaluate others based on whether or not they
own the latest mobile phones or cars. Nowadays, listening to music on headphones is preferred
over listening to another person. People lack the ability to interact in real-life situations such
as individual connections, problem-solving, and showing adult actions. All this is influencing
our culture.

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Q5. Which of the following contains the central idea being conveyed by the author
in the given passage?
a. The use of technology has negatively impacted our society.
b. Technology has the power to mould society according to its use.
c. Cybercrime is the most harmful use of technology.
d. Social interaction among people has been enhanced due to the excessive use of
technology.

Q6. As per the author, why has our culture been completely transformed by
technology?
a. People hesitate to physically interact with their close friends and peers.
b. People have started to realise the value of music.
c. People have become technically advanced.
d. People have developed their problem-solving capabilities.

Q7. According to the author, in order to develop a technically advanced society, it

is essential to-
(a) Make people learn all the latest developed technologies.
(b) Be socially interactive and digitally expert.
(c) Realise the positive effects of technology on our society.
(d) Protect our children from being victims of cybercrimes.

Q8. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, which of the following can
be inferred?
a. Life without technology today is like a body without a soul.
b. Cybercrimes can be reduced with the limited use of technology.
c. Our society is positively affected by advancements in technology.
d. Excess use of technology can lead to the academic improvement of children.

Passage 3
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow.
We watched our father take the jar out to the patio on the day we had been waiting for since he
put the spider into it with its egg sac. It was a black widow spider which we knew never to
touch in the garden and to know by the red bow on its belly. We’d been living in the country
since our stark raving mad mother started calling the apartment from her orbit.
Our father lay down near the jar, on his side. He was always showing us stuff around the farm.
He was growing a beard, always tired and patient. There was a barn with a horse in it we were
taking care of. He said a lot about learning to take care of others as a part of growing up, and
we watched him with eyes too big for our heads. We gathered around the jar and put our noses
to it in turn, looking for the movement he said to look for in the egg sac; how you could see it
was time by shadows crossing. We were getting a little bored when the babies started to come
out, just like he said. They were smaller than anything, and the big mother spider, you couldn't
tell if she was paying attention.
The babies were spreading out over the inside of the jar, the miracle of life. They were making
their way to the air holes punched in the lid. Our father just watched and commented for our
benefit. He put a stick to an air hole, and we watched babies crawl up it. Spiders crawl their
whole lives. We watched, but some of our attention wandered.
We were new to the countryside, new life surrounding us. I remember a lot of things from that
place besides this.
After the apocalypse, a brother of mine said, "Do you remember if you were nervous with all
those poison spiders radiating from the jar? Do you remember that we didn't have any insect

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spray because we'd just moved out there, but he had a can of hairspray, and that's what he
sprayed on them, just as they were getting away? Why did we have hairspray? Was it hers?"
Q9. Why did the author’s father take the jar out to the patio of their house?
a. Because he wanted to show the black spider to the children.
b. Because he wanted to show the hatching of eggs of the mother spider.
c. Because he wanted to explain the concept of caring for others.
d. All of the above.

Q10. The author has compared the “miracle of life” to_______.

a. The crawling of the baby spiders
b. The crawling of the baby spiders onto the stick.
c. The attentiveness of the mother spider.
d. The size of the baby spiders.

Q11. Why was the author distracted from watching the spiders?
a. Because she wanted to play with her siblings.
b. Because she was not interested in seeing the movement of the baby spiders.
c. Because she was interested in enjoying the natural environment surrounding her
house.
d. Because she was called by her mother.

Q12. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

a. Caring for others is an essential part of growth.
b. Both parents are equally responsible for the proper growth of the children.
c. A hairspray is more powerful than an insect spray.
d. A life spent in the countryside is always memorable

Passage-4
Directions (13-19): Given below are few questions based on the passage, you have to answer
these questions as per the options given after carefully reading the passage.

Days ahead of a planned trip to Beijing by US Secretary of State Antony Blinken, a Chinese spy
balloon has been reported flying over the United States. While the US Air Force readied fighter
jets to shoot it out of the sky, President Joe Biden was advised against doing it for fear of
debris. The United States took "custody" of the balloon when it entered U.S. airspace and had
observed it with piloted U.S. military aircraft, one of the officials told reporters on condition of
anonymity. The high-altitude balloons are the same as weather balloons deployed across the
world to monitor changes in the local weather of the region. However, when it comes to spy
balloons, their purpose is changed. These balloons operate 24,000-37,000 meters above the
ground. The altitude that these balloons fly at is well above where commercial air traffic flies.
Airliners almost never fly higher than 40,000 feet. The highest-performing fighter aircraft
typically do not operate above 65,000 feet, although spy planes such as the U-2 have a service
ceiling of 80,000 feet or more. According to a 2009 report by the US Air Force's Air Command
and Staff College, the advantages of balloons over satellites include the ability to scan wide
swathes of territory from closer in, and to be able to spend more time over a target area. Unlike
satellites, which require space launchers that cost hundreds of millions of dollars, balloons can
be launched cheaply. Spy balloons are not new and have been in use since World War II. Just
after the end of the war, the US military started exploring the use of high altitude spy balloons,
which led to a large-scale series of missions called Project Genetrix. The project flew
photographic balloons over Soviet bloc territory in the 1950s, according to government
documents.

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During World War 2, the Japanese military tried to loft incendiary bombs into U.S. territory
using balloons designed to float in jet stream air currents. While it did not damage military
targets, it did cause civilian causalities.

Q.13. Which of the following is correct as per the information given in the passage?
A. During World War 1, the Japanese military tried to loft incendiary bombs into U.S.
territory using balloons designed to float in jet stream air currents.
B. The highest-performing fighter aircraft typically do not operate above 65,000 feet,
although spy planes such as the U-6 have a service ceiling of 80,000 feet or more.
C. The high-altitude balloons are the same as weather balloons deployed across the world
to monitor changes in the local weather of the region.
D. Both A&B

Q.14. Which of the following are advantages of balloons over satellites according to a
2009 report by US air force?
A. ability to scan wide swathes of territory from closer in
B. ability to spend more time over a target area
C. ability to spend less time over a target
D. Both A&B

Q.15. Which of the following is correct according to the information given in the
passage?
A. During World War 2, the Japanese military tried to loft incendiary bombs into U.S.
territory using balloons designed to float in jet stream air currents.
B. The project flew photographic balloons over Soviet bloc territory in the 1950s, according
to government documents.
C. While the US Air Force readied fighter jets to shoot it out of the sky, President Joe Biden
was advised against doing it for fear of debris.
D. All of the above are correct

Q.16. Which of the following agency released a report giving information about
advantages of balloons over satellites?
A. US air force’s Air force’s Air command and Staff college
B. Genetrix
C. Department of US army
D. Both A&B
Q.17. Which of the following is the synonym of “SWATHES”?
A. unbind
B. unlash
C. untie
D. None of the above

Q.18. Which of the following is the antonym of “ANONYMITY”?

A. innominateness
B. namelessness
C. incognito
D. identified

Q.19. These balloon operate 24,000-37,000 meters above the ground. Find the correct
replacement of the highlighted phrase.
A. These balloons operates
B. These balloons operate
C. Those balloons operates
D. None of the above

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Directions (20– 23):- In each of the questions given below, a sentence is divided into four parts
such that parts are jumbled and they do not make a meaningful sentence. Rearrange the
following parts to form a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence and choose the
correct rearrangement from the options given below each question.

Q.20. The verdict on (A)/ of fast-tracking projects (B)/ reveals the perils (C)/of the
Chennai-Bangalore corridor (D)/
A. DABC
B. ADCB
C. BCDA
D. No rearrangement is required.

Q.21. The revised guidelines lack (A)/ clarity on benefit sharing and (B)/ do not inspire
confidence with (C)/ respect to dispute resolution (D)/
A. ACDB
B. BCDA
C. CDAB
D. BDCA

Q.22. That they are leaving equities (A)/ and scooping up bonds (B)/ with the trade war
(C)/, investors have become so nervous (D)/
A. ABCD
B. BDCA
C. BACD
D. CDAB

Q.23. Injured or killed by mechanised boats, (A)/ the sea turtles are accidentally
captured, (B)/ trawl nets and gill nets operated (C)/ and used by commercial
fishermen. (D)/
A. ACBD
B. BACD
C. CDAB
D. DCBA

Directions (24-25): In the questions below, a sentence is given, followed by five options.
Choose the option that is correct with respect to grammar, meaning and usage.

Q.24. The museum of art comprises of an picture gallery, a collection of casts of

Thorvaldsen's works and a cabinet of engravings.
A. art comprises of a
B. art comprises a
C. art comprising of a
D. art comprises an

Q.25. The number of students applying to college having risen steadily in the last three
years.
A. for colleges have risen
B. to college have risen
C. to colleges has risen
D. to college has rise

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 SECTION II: Current Affairs including General Knowledge

Topic: 1
The model code of conduct that came into force on March 16 with the announcement of the
Lok Sabha election has been lifted. In a communication to the Union Cabinet Secretary and
state chief secretaries, the Election Commission said as results of Lok Sabha elections and
assembly polls in Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh, along with some
assembly bypolls have been declared, "model code of conduct has ceased to be in operation
with immediate effect". The model code of conduct is a set of conventions agreed upon by all
stakeholders and imposed during elections. Its objective is to keep the campaigning, polling
and counting process orderly, clean and peaceful and check any abuse of state machinery and
finances by the party in power. While it does not enjoy any statutory backing, the Supreme
Court has upheld its sanctity on several occasions. The Election Commission is fully
authorised to investigate any violation of the code and pronounce punishment. The poll code
finds its origin during the 1960 assembly elections in Kerala when the administration tried to
evolve a code of conduct for the political parties. The code has evolved over the last 60 years to
assume its present form. According to the Election Commission of India, the model code of
conduct states that the parties in power at the Centre and in the states should ensure that
they do not use their official position for campaigning. Ministers and other government
authorities cannot announce financial grants in any form. No project or scheme that may have
the effect of influencing the voter in favour of the party in power can be announced, and
ministers cannot use official machinery for campaign purposes when the poll code is in effect.
Q.26 Which statute does not have corresponding provision for enforcing certain aspects
of Model Code of conduct?
a) Indian Penal code 1860 b) Cr.P.C 1973
c) Representation of People Act 1951 d) IT Act 2000

Q.27 What was the year when the election commission of India was established.
a) 1947 b) 1950
b) 1960 d) 1974

Q.28 Which Article of the Indian Constitution grants the election commission of India
the authority to supervise and conduct free and fair election?
a) Article 326 b) Article 312
c) Article 324 d) Article 360

Q.29 Which of the following is not under the jurisdiction of ECI?

a) Parliamentary Elections
b) Presidential Election
c) Panchayat Elections
d) State Legislative Elections.

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Q.30 Which recent judicial ruling affected the appointment process of ECI
commissioners?
a) Shah Bano Case
b) Anoop Baranwal vs Union of India
c) Kesavananda Bharti case
d) Golaknath case.

Topic: 2

In a big respite to couples who want to become parents, the Centre has amended the Surrogacy
(Regulation) Rules, 2022, allowing the use of a donor gamete, if one of the partners is certified
of having a medical condition that prevents the use of his or her gametes. However, the
Surrogacy (Regulation) Amendment Rules, 2024, notified by the government, state that a
District Magistrate Board has to certify that either husband or wife suffers from such a medical
condition. The earlier rules required the couple undergoing surrogacy to compulsorily have
both gametes of their own. The Union health ministry amended the rules after the Supreme
Court asked in January why the Centre was not taking a decision on the matter when the
court was flooded with petitions from women who wished to be mothers. Multiple appeals were
filed in the court after the amendment in Rule 7 on surrogacy was enacted. Rule 7, which deals
with 'Consent of the Surrogate Mother and Agreement for Surrogacy', laid that both the egg
and the sperm should come from the intending couple. The Supreme Court in a case, while
granting relief to a woman petitioner, had found fault with Rule 7. It allowed a woman with
Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser (MRKH) Syndrome, a rare congenital disorder that affects the
production of eggs and can cause infertility, to use donor eggs for surrogacy. Subsequently, the
court permitted several other women petitioners based on their medical reports to get donor
eggs and go ahead with surrogacy despite the impugned rule prohibiting it.
The modified Para 1(d) of the same rule now states: "Couple undergoing surrogacy must have
both gametes from the intending couple. However, in a case when the District Medical Board
certifies that either husband or wife constituting the intending couple suffers from a medical
condition necessitating the use of a donor gamete, then surrogacy using a donor gamete is
allowed subject to the condition that the child to be born through surrogacy must have at least
one gamete from the intending couple."
Q.31 Which congenital disorder was cited in legal challenges to the Surrogacy
(Regulation) Rules, due to causing infertility and affecting the right to
parenthood?
a) Down Syndrome b) Turner syndrome
c) MRKH Syndrome d) Klinefelter Syndrome

Q.32 What did the Indian government reverse with its amendment to the Surrogacy
(Regulation) Rules, 2022?
a) Surrogacy for singles.

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 b) Commercial Surrogacy
c) Use of Donor gametes ban
d) Surrogate residency requirement

Q.33 What term refers to a surrogacy arrangement where the surrogate does not receive
financial compensation beyond reimbursement for medical expenses and other
related costs?
a) Commercial Surrogacy b) Altruistic Surrogacy
c) Independent Surrogacy d) Traditional Surrogacy

Q.34 Which act requires the consent of both the surrogate mother and the relevant
authorities for the abortion of the fetus in a surrogacy arrangement?
a) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act b) Adoption Act
c) Surrogacy Act d) Child Welfare Act

Q.35 What is the required age range for a surrogate mother according to the criteria for
surrogacy arrangement?
a) 20-30 years b) 25-35 years
c) 30-40 years d) 18-25 years

Topic: 3

The Supreme Court on Wednesday reprimanded the Punjab government for ignoring a 21-year-
old direction to construct its side of a canal linking the Sutlej and Yamuna rivers, and warned
the ruling Aam Aadmi Party to comply with its orders on pain of further action. A bench led by
Justice SK Kaul told the Punjab government it "has to accept maryada (decorum) of the
Supreme Court". The court told Chief Minister Bhagwant Mann's administration "... don't
compel us to issue tough orders", and directed the centre to oversee talks between Punjab and
the Haryana governments on this topic; the latter has completed construction of its half of the
canal. A bench that also included Justice CT Ravikumar and Justice Sudhanshu Dhulia also
told the centre to take over and complete pre-construction land surveys and re-listed the
matter for January. "We are concerned with (non-)execution of a decree for construction of a
canal (in the) Punjab portion. We would like the Union of India to survey the portion of land
allocated... An estimate has to be made for extent of construction (needed)..." the court said.
According to legal news website Live Law, at today's hearing, counsel for the Punjab
government blamed the delay on pressure from the opposition and problems acquiring land
from farmers. "There may be political implications (but) something has to be done. Canal will
have to be constructed in Punjab... do not compel us to issue tough orders," an irate top court
replied. Earlier, the Haryana side had said, "The only thing that remains is construction.
Punjab, of course, has to co-operate. That is what federalism is about... we have to move
forward." "You (the two states) solve matter together... do not force us to issue strict orders,"
the court said, "We cannot get into it... you will have to find a solution." The court then turned
to the centre's representative and asked, "Yes, Union of India, what are you doing?" Today's

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hearing comes a week after Mr. Mann met Union Home Minister Amit Shah in Amritsar and
strongly opposed construction of the canal from his side. He called the canal as a "highly
emotive issue" for Punjab and said building it may lead to law-and-order issues.
Q36. Which of the following principle does Punjab invoke to deny sharing water with
Haryana?
(a) Riparian
(b) Equitable
(c) Harmonious
(d) Sustainable

Q.37. Which out of the following treaty between India and Pakistan allowed India to use
the waters of Ravi, Beas and Sutlej?
(a) Beas Water Treaty (b) Indus Water Treaty
(c) Sutlej Water Treaty (d) Karachi Treaty

Q.38. In which of the following year did the Punjab Assembly pass the legislation that
led to the termination of water-sharing agreements, particularly impacted the
construction of the Sutlej-Yamuna Link canal?
(a) 1998 (b) 2001
(c) 2004 (d) 2010

Q.39. What is the maximum time limit set for an Inter-State River Water Disputes
Tribunal to submit its report after the reference is made?
(a) 1 year (b) 3 years
(c) 5 years (d) 10 years
Q.40. What constitutional provision authorizes Parliament to address conflicts related
to inter-State river waters, leading to the enactment of the Inter-State River
Water Disputes Act, 1956?
(a) Article 306(b) (b) Article 262(1)
(c) Article 201 (d) Article 184(1)

Topic: 4
Prime Minister Narendra Modi congratulated Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor Shaktikanta
Das for being rated "A+" globally for the second year in a row. PM Modi said in a post on X
(formerly Twitter), “Congratulations to RBI Governor Shri @DasShaktikanta for this feat, and
that too for the second time. This is a recognition of his leadership at the RBI and his work
towards ensuring economic growth and stability.” The rating was awarded by Global Finance's
Central Banker Report Cards 2024 which has been publishing the Central Banker Report
Cards since 1994. The list ranks central bank governors of almost 100 important nations,
regions, and districts which includes European Union, Eastern Caribbean Central Bank, Bank

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of Central African States and the Central Bank of West African States. The scale of "A+" to "F"
scale is used to grade performance in areas like managing interest rates, controlling inflation,
economic growth objectives as well as maintaining currency stability. The grades, provided by
Global Finance magazine, are based on a scale from A to F, assessing success in inflation
control, economic growth goals, currency stability, and interest rate management. An 'A'
signifies excellent performance, while an 'F' denotes outright failure. Christian Kettel Thomsen
of Denmark, Shaktikanta Das of India, and Thomas Jordan of Switzerland have all been rated
in the A+ category for central bankers. A 1980-batch IAS officer from the Tamil Nadu cadre,
Bhubaneswar-born Das played a key role in shaping Tamil Nadu’s successful SEZs and
industrial policy. He resisted political pressure to allocate government land to private IT
companies without a bidding process. Although often viewed as a cautious civil servant, Das
was not afraid to make tough decisions, such as dismantling the Foreign Investment Promotion
Board to expedite clearances.
Q.41 When was the Reserve Bank of India established?
(a) April 1, 1930 (b) April 1, 1932
(c) April 1, 1933 (d) April 1, 1935

Q.42 How many full-time Deputy Governors can the Reserve Bank of India have, in
addition to the Governor, according to its central board of directors?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five

Q.43 In which report did RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das receive an ‘A+’ rating for the
second consecutive time?
(a) World Economic Forum's Global Competitiveness Report
(b) IMF's World Economic Outlook
(c) Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards
(d) OECD Economic Surveys

Q.44 Which of the following central bankers received an "A+" rating in the Global
Finance Central Banker Report Cards alongside Shaktikanta Das?
(a) Christian Kettel Thomsen (b) Adrian Orr
(c) Christine Lagarde (d) Michele Bullock

Q.45 What is the range of grades given to central bank governors in Global Finance's
Central Banker Report Cards?
(a) "A" to "D" (b) "A+" to "F"
(c) "B-" to "E" (d) "A+" to "E"

Topic: 5
Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited Kyiv on Friday, marking the first time an Indian
leader has gone to Ukraine since its 1991 independence. Ukrainian officials said the visit
demonstrated diplomatic backing for the war-torn nation, as it looks to build support among
non-Western nations ahead of any potential negotiations on a settlement to the conflict.
Although India has long-standing close ties with Russia, it has sought to portray a neutral

11
stance on the conflict. As part of Modi’s bid to boost India’s international clout, he wants to
demonstrate that Delhi can play a constructive, “friendly” role in resolving the war. In its
diplomatic quest for “strategic autonomy,” India aims to build the widest possible web of
constructive partnerships without binding itself by formal alliances. This balancing act enables
New Delhi to reap the benefits of close ties to both Moscow and Washington, among others.
However, it also compels India to show some degree of good faith to all sides, or at least to
avoid humiliating diplomatic missteps. One such misstep happened in July, when Modi
literally embraced Vladimir Putin in Moscow immediately after Russian forces had attacked a
Ukrainian children’s hospital and just as NATO leaders attended a summit in Washington,
D.C. From a Western perspective, the optics were terrible, especially because the Biden
administration has been forced to accept India’s rationale for continuing to buy Russian arms
and ever more Russian oil — now over 44% of India’s total oil imports — over the past two
years. Anguished groans from some of India’s staunchest champions in the Biden
administration sent a loud and unmistakable message to New Delhi about the urgent need to
recalibrate its diplomacy between Moscow and Kyiv. But Modi’s trip was not merely a defensive
move. It also reflected his geopolitical aspiration to position India as a leading global power
with influence well beyond its South Asian neighborhood. Not only does Modi’s India aim to be
a “voice of the Global South,” but it wants a seat at the global high table, including permanent
membership in the United Nations Security Council. By showing that India is uniquely capable
of playing trusted go-between and paving the way for a more substantive peace process
between Moscow and Kyiv, Modi also makes the case that India cannot be sidelined from other
matters of global consequence. Finally, India’s foray into European diplomacy represents a
competitive rejoinder to China’s earlier attempt at advancing a political solution to the war in
Ukraine. Although it is far too early to suggest that India is willing or able to mediate a Russia-
Ukraine dialogue, Modi’s calls to Putin and President Joe Biden immediately after his Ukraine
trip were a constructive signal that the door is open for more, including in September at the
United Nations Summit of the Future in New York and in October at the BRICS summit in
Kazan, Russia. That said, while India has many incentives to favor peace in Europe, it lacks
decisive leverage over either warring party. Modi cannot bring either Putin or Ukrainian
President Volodymyr Zelenskyy to peace if the terms and timelines do not suit their purposes.
Finally, Modi’s globetrotting diplomacy plays to his domestic political advantage in the difficult
aftermath of the Indian national elections that weakened his party’s hold over parliament and a
tumultuous turn in neighboring Bangladesh that sent India’s favored leader, Sheikh Hasina,
into exile. By presenting himself as a successful international statesman, Modi distracts his
public from these setbacks and reprises a role he played to great effect last fall when he hosted
the G20 in India. In his appeals to the Indian public, Modi casts his India as a “Vishwaguru” or

12
world leader/teacher, and a “Vishwabandhu,” or friend to the world, both images supported by
his travels to Ukraine.
Q.46 When did Ukraine declare its independence?
(a) 12 June 1990 (b) 24 August 1991
(c) 15 July 1992 (d) 1 January 1993

Q.47 What are the Bhishm Cubes, gifted by India to Ukraine, designed for?
(a) Portable shelter for displaced people
(b) Mobile hospitals for emergency medical care
(c) Water purification in disaster zones
(d) Portable communication centers

Q.48 In June 2009, India signed a USD 400 million agreement with which Ukrainian
company to upgrade its fleet of AN-32 aircraft?
(a) Antonov (b) SpetsTechnoExport (STE)
(c) Motor Sich (d) Ukroboronprom

Q.49 Where are the two Admiral Grigorovich-class frigates, for which Ukraine is
supplying critical components, being constructed?
(a) Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL)
(b) Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL)
(c) Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL)
(d) Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL)

Q.50 After which 2019 strike did the Indian Air Force (IAF) make an emergency
procurement of R-27 air-to-air missiles from Ukraine for its SU-30MKI fighters?
(a) Uri strike
(b) Kargil strike
(c) Balakot air strike
(d) Pathankot strike

Topic:6
To mark the launch of work on the pipeline’s Serhetabat-Herat section, Chairman of the Halk
Maslahaty (People’s Council) of Turkmenistan, Gurbanguly Berdimuhamedov, and Mullah
Mohammad Hassan Akhund, the Prime Minister of the Taliban-led Afghan government,
attended a ceremony at a checkpoint on the Turkmen-Afghan border on 11 September 2024.
The staged installation of the TAPI pipeline, already completed in Turkmenistan, will eventually
transfer 33 billion m3 of Turkmen natural gas annually to Afghanistan, Pakistan, and India. At
an estimated cost of US$10 billion, the TAPI pipeline will span 1814 km. With 816 km running
through Afghanistan, the project will meet the country’s gas needs, generating around US$450
million in annual transit fees, before continuing on to Quetta and Multan in Pakistan and
Fazilka in India. Gas-rich Turkmenistan currently exports natural gas to China and Russia but
once completed, the TAPI project will enable the country to diversify its export routes and help
realize far-reaching plans to transport its gas across the Caspian Sea to Azerbaijan, Turkey,
and Europe. Mullah Mohammad Hassan Akhund stated that the commencement of work on
the TAPI project on Afghan soil would strengthen relations between Afghanistan and

13
Turkmenistan, whilst speaking from Ashgabat via videoconferencing, Turkmenistan President
Serdar Berdimuhamedov, announced, “The commencement of the TAPI project [on the Afghan
territory] and other projects is beneficial not only for Afghanistan but also for the countries in
the region.”
Q.51 From which gas field in Turkmenistan does the TAPI pipeline transport natural
gas?
(a) Galkynysh gas field (b) Tengiz gas field
(c) Shah Deniz gas field (d) Kashagan gas field

Q.52 How long is the Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-PakistanIndia (TAPI) pipeline expected

to be?
(a) 1,500 kilometres (b) 1,600 kilometres
(c) 1,814 kilometres (d) 2,000 kilometres

Q.53 In which year did India join the TurkmenistanAfghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI)

pipeline initiative, marking a major milestone in the project's development?
(a) 2003 (b) 2005
(c) 2008 (d) 2010

Q.54 Which organization is funding the Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan-India

(TAPI) pipeline project and acting as its transaction adviser?
(a) World Bank
(b) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(d) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

Q.55 How is the annual natural gas transported by the TAPI pipeline distributed among
the buyer countries?
(a) Afghanistan 10%, Pakistan 45%, India 45%
(b) Afghanistan 5%, Pakistan 47.5%, India 47.5%
(c) Afghanistan 15%, Pakistan 42.5%, India 42.5
(d) Afghanistan 20%, Pakistan 40%, India 40%

SECTION III: LEGAL REASONING

Passage 1:

A Sessions Court in Odisha's Angul district sentenced two men to the extreme penalty of death
for committing murder of three members of a family by slitting their throats. Terming the case
to be 'rarest of rare', the Additional Sessions Judge of Athmallik Mr. Laxminarayan Ray
Choudhury held –
“Such type of colorful murder usually nowhere seen without enmity. Rather in a friendly manner
the accused persons committed murder in a colourable way to get the huge cash received on loan
by deceased Biranchi.”
Factual Background
The informant, who is the brother of the deceased Biranchi Nayak, lodged an FIR informing
about discovery of the dead body of the deceased Tarani Nayak (wife of the deceased Biranchi
Nayak) near their house. He also informed that the deceased Biranchi and the deceased
Ekalabya Nayak (son of the deceased Biranchi & Tarani) were untraceable.

14
Basing on the FIR, the police registered a case against unknown persons and commenced
investigation. Upon completion of the investigation, it filed charge-sheet against both the
accused persons under Sections 302/449/363/364/394/201/34 of the IPC read with Sections
25 & 27, the Arms Act.
Upon informed about the charges, both the accused persons took the plea of false implication
and pleaded innocence. Accordingly, the trial was initiated and questions of law were framed.
The prosecution examined as many as 41 witnesses, except proving documents as exhibits and
producing material objects.
Court's Observations
The Court considered the post-mortem as well as query reports obtained from the doctors, who
conducted autopsy on the dead bodies of the deceased persons. All the three doctors opined
that the deaths of the deceased persons were ante-mortem in nature and were caused due to
deep sharp cut injury to the throats of the deceased. They also opined that the said injuries
could have been caused by the seized weapon (katari).
Case Title: State v. Prakash Behera & Anr.
Q.56: What was the primary reason for the death sentence given to the two accused in
the case?
A. The brutality of the crime, involving the slitting of throats of three family members.
B. The fact that the accused were known to the victims and had committed the crime
in seemingly friendly manner.
C. The large amount of money involved in the crime.
D. The accused's previous criminal record.

Q.56: Which of the following was NOT a charge against the accused?
A. Murder (Section 302 of the IPC)
B. Theft (Section 379 of the IPC)
C. House trespass (Section 449 of the IPC)
D. Kidnapping (Section 364 of the IPC)

Q.58: What was the primary evidence used by the prosecution to prove the accused's
guilt?
A. Witness testimonies
B. DNA evidence
C. CCTV footage
D. Forensic evidence from the crime scene

Q. 59. According to the court, what was the motive behind the crime?
A. Personal enmity between the accused and the victims
B. A desire to obtain the money that the deceased had recently borrowed
C. A random act of violence
D. A crime of passion

Q. 60: What was the final outcome of the case?

A. Both accused were found guilty and sentenced to death.
B. Both accused were found guilty but sentenced to life imprisonment.
C. Both accused were acquitted.
D. One accused was found guilty and sentenced to death, while the other was
acquitted.

15
 PASSAGE 2

The Supreme Court observed that a mere delay in forwarding the FIR to the jurisdictional
magistrate would not be fatal to the prosecution's case unless it is shown by the accused that
the delay had caused prejudice to his case.
“This Court, in State of Rajasthan v. Daud Khan (2016), has examined the case law on the
subject and held that when there is a delay in forwarding the FIR to the jurisdictional magistrate
and the accused raises a specific contention regarding the same, they must demonstrate how this
delay has prejudiced their case. Mere delay by itself is not sufficient to discard and disbelieve
the case of the prosecution.”, the court said.
The bench comprising Justices Sanjiv Khanna, Sanjay Kumar, and R. Mahadevan held so
while reversing the Patna High Court's decision which had acquitted the accused persons in
connection with former Bihar Minister Brij Bihari Prasad's Murder case.
One of the grounds taken by the High Court to acquit the accused was that the FIR was ante-
timed i.e., one delay occurred in forwarding the FIR to the jurisdiction magistrate was taken
against the prosecution and the accused were acquitted.
Brij Bihari's wife Rama Devi preferred an appeal against the High Court's decision before the
Supreme Court.
Finding that the High Court committed an error while acquitting the accused, the court
observed as follows:
“The occurrence having taken place at night on 13.06.1998, normally the FIR should have been
sent to the jurisdictional magistrate on 14.06.1998. However, 14.06.1998 being a Sunday was a
holiday. The FIR was forwarded to the jurisdictional magistrate on 15.06.1998. There is,
therefore, an explanation for the delay in forwarding a copy of the FIR to the jurisdictional
magistrate in terms of Section 157 of the CrPC. It is trite law that a delay in forwarding the FIR to
the jurisdictional magistrate is not fatal to the prosecution case.”
“If the investigation starts in right earnest and there is sufficient material on record to show that
the accused were named and pinpointed, the prosecution case can be accepted when evidence
implicates the accused. The requirement to dispatch and serve a copy of the FIR to the
jurisdictional magistrate is an external check against ante dating or ante timing of the FIR to
ensure that there is no manipulation or interpolation in the FIR. If the court finds the witnesses to
be truthful and credible, the lack of a cogent explanation for the delay may not be regarded as
detrimental.”, the judgment authored by Justice Khanna added.
Case Title: RAMA DEVI VERSUS THE STATE OF BIHAR AND OTHERS
Citation : 2024 LiveLaw (SC) 776
Q.61: What was the primary reason for the Supreme Court's reversal of the Patna High
Court's decision?
A. The High Court had erred in its interpretation of the law regarding delayed
forwarding of the FIR.
B. The evidence presented by the prosecution was insufficient to prove the accused's
guilt.
C. The delay in forwarding the FIR had caused significant prejudice to the accused's
case.
D. The Supreme Court disagreed with the High Court's assessment of the witness
credibility.

16
Q.62: According to the Supreme Court, when does a delay in forwarding the FIR become
fatal to the prosecution's case?
A. Always, regardless of the circumstances.
B. Only if the accused can prove that the delay caused them significant prejudice.
C. Only if the delay was intentional and designed to harm the accused.
D. Never, under any circumstances.

Q.63: What was the main reason given by the High Court for acquitting the accused?
A. The lack of evidence linking the accused to the crime.
B. The delay in forwarding the FIR to the jurisdictional magistrate.
C. The accused's alibi.
D. The prosecution's failure to prove the motive for the crime.

Q.64: What did the Supreme Court say about the delay in forwarding the FIR in this
case?
A. The delay was unjustified and should have resulted in the acquittal of the accused.
B. The delay was explained by Section 157 of the CrPC and was not fatal to the
prosecution's case.
C. The delay was intentional and had prejudiced the accused's case.
D. The delay was irrelevant to the outcome of the case.

Q.65: According to the Supreme Court, what is the purpose of requiring the FIR to be
forwarded to the jurisdictional magistrate?
A. To ensure that the accused are aware of the charges against them.
B. To prevent the police from fabricating evidence.
C. To ensure that the case is investigated promptly.
D. To prevent the FIR from being tampered with.

PASSAGE 3]

Recently, the Ministry of Finance proposed the Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 in the
Parliament. The bill seeks to amend the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949, the State Bank of India Act, 1955, and the Banking Companies
(Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Acts of 1970 and 1980 to enhance the regulatory
framework for the banking structure in India.
Salient Amendments And Its Implications
The bill amends the explanatory procedural provisions under section 42 of the RBI Act, 1934.
Section 42 deals with the concept of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), which the average daily balance
kept with the RBI by the scheduled banks. The section defines average daily balance as “the
average of the balances held at the close of business of each day of a fortnight”. Similarly,
fortnight is defined as “the period from Saturday to the second following Friday, both days
inclusive”. The bill amends this definition of fortnight to “the period from the first day to the
fifteenth day of each calendar month or sixteenth day to the last day of each calendar month,
both days inclusive”. Therefore, earlier the banks were to calculate the average daily balance
fortnightly i.e., the 14 day period starting from Saturday to the second Friday after that.
However, the bill fixed the fortnight as a 15 day period of the month including the 1st of every
month to the 15th or the 16th to the end. It seeks to create uniformity in order to create a

17
consistent and easier regulatory framework for the banks through determining CRR from
shifting weekdays to a fixed period in a month.
The bill also amends section 38A of the SBI Act, 1955. The section requires the State Bank of
India to transfer the unpaid or unclaimed dividend to the “unpaid dividend account”, if within
30 days it remains unpaid or unclaimed. Further, if it remains unclaimed after seven years of
the transfer, the same shall be transferred to the Investor Education and Protection Fund
established under the Companies Act, 1956.[3] The amendment changes the nomenclature from
“dividend” to “money”. Additionally, it also increases the scope of transfer to the Investor
Education and Protection Fund from mere “money” to the “shares” as well as “any interest or
redemption amount upon any bond”.
Further, the bill makes some substantive amendments in the Banking Regulation Act, 1934
(herein after referred as “the Act”). It increases the amount provided for the “substantial
interest” in the Act from five lakh rupees to the two crore rupees. This amendment directly
affects the limitations on the power to grant loan by the commercial banks under section 20 of
the Act. The section prohibits the banks to grant loans to any company in which the directory
of the bank holds any substantial interest.Therefore, the amendment relaxes the restrictions
on loan granting power of the banks. It modernizes the amount as per the prevailing economic
conditions considering the last amendments made to it was in 1984. However, it raises
concerns on the issue of impartiality as the raised amount holds the tendency to hamper with
the issue of conflict of interest.
The bill also increases the limit on the number of nominees from one to four by the depositors.
The Act grants these nominees access to the deposit, items, or locker in the event that the
person who nominated him passes away. The nominees can be appointed either successively or
simultaneously while for other purposes they can be appointed successively. It increases the
flexibility for the depositors as the depositors are empowers to choose the proportion for the
distribution of funds, among multiple nominees, in the event of their death.
Further, the bill seeks to interfere with the working and appointments of directors of the coo-
operative banks as well.
Under section 10A of the Act, a director of the banking company cannot hold the office for more
than eight years. The bill increases the period from eight to ten years for the co-operative
banks. Thus, it ultimately included the co-operative banks within the purview of this section.
Along with this, the bill amends section 16 of the Act, which deals with the “Prohibition of
Common directors”. Hitherto, the provision prohibited any person to be the director of the two-
banking company at the same time, to reduce the conflict of interest and increase the
commitment and transparency. The 1969 amendment made an exception for the same as
provided in sub-section (3), which reads as follows “Nothing in sub-section (1) shall apply to, or
in relation to, any director appointed by the Reserve Bank”. The current bill further increased
the scope of the exception clause through adding the following sentence “or the director of a
central co-operative bank elected to the Board of the state co-operative bank in which he is a
member”. The amendment would have several implications, it not only enhanced the issue of
conflict of interest but also interfered with the independence of the state co-operative banks

The Constitutional Controversy

Article 245 of the Constitution of India states that the Parliament is entitled to make laws for
the whole of the territory of India while the states can make laws within their territory. It is
read with Article 246, which demarcates the legislative and executive power between the Union
and the states. It provides that the Union can make laws for the subject matter provided under
List I (Union list) of the 7th schedule while the subject matter of the states is provided under
List II (State list). Similarly, List III i.e., the concurrent list contains the subject matter on

18
which both the Union and the states can make laws.[7] These provisions act as the backbone of
the Indian federal structure by clearly bifurcating the domain of the Union and the states.
The issue of interference with the co-operative banks (emphasis on state co-operative banks) is
highlighted due to the problematic constitutionality of the same. It brings into question the
power of the Central government to deal with the co-operatives. Entry 43 of the Union list
empowers it to regulate the banks in India, however it explicitly excludes “co-operative
societies” from its purview. Similarly, the power to deal with “co-operative societies” is provided
under Entry 32 of List II, thus making it a state subject.[8] Needless to say, “co-operative
societies” include “co-operative banks” as indicated under section 56 of the Act and affirmed in
the case of PCIT v. Totagars Co-op. Sale Society.[9] The Centre, by the virtue of Article 248 of
the Constitution, is strictly prohibited from entering into the domain of the state list.[10]
Although, when the issue of the bill being ultravires of the federal principle was raised in the
Parliament, the finance minister Nirmala Sitaraman rebutted “There is no attempt to
undermine the cooperatives, particularly cooperatives dealing with everything other than
banks. Banks, cooperatives with a licence for banking will have to have a rule and therefore we
have shown this”. Nevertheless, the controversial provisions in the bill could be challenged, on
this ground, if it gets the clearance from the Parliament for enactment.
The Amendments brought in by the bill deals with some serious procedural and substantive
provisions. The statement of object and reasons of the bill states the purpose behind bringing it
as “As the banking sector has evolved over the years and with a view to improve bank
governance and investor's protection, it has become necessary to make certain amendments in
the concerned Acts”. The bill encompasses the interest of all the stakeholders including the
depositors, investors and the banking company itself. However, some provisions could have
adverse consequences, which could hamper the transparency in the future and holds the
tendency to engender the issue of conflict of interest. Further, the bill may find itself on
clutches of the Supreme Court on the federal issue of substantial interfering by the Union with
the co-operative banks, which is the subject matter of the States.
66. Which of the following Acts is NOT being amended by the Banking Laws
(Amendment) Bill, 2024?
a) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
b) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
c) Indian Contract Act, 1872
d) State Bank of India Act, 1955

67. What is the primary purpose of amending the definition of "fortnight" in the RBI
Act, 1934?
a) To increase the CRR requirement for banks.
b) To make the calculation of CRR more complex.
c) To create a more consistent and easier regulatory framework for banks.
d) To reduce the burden on banks in terms of maintaining CRR.

68. Which of the following is NOT a substantive amendment made to the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949?
a) Increase in the limit on the number of nominees for depositors.
b) Increase in the amount provided for "substantial interest."
c) Relaxation of restrictions on loan granting power of banks.
d) Reduction in the tenure of directors of banking companies.

19
69. What is the constitutional controversy surrounding the bill's interference with co-
operative banks?
a) The Centre's lack of power to regulate co-operative societies.
b) The states' exclusive power to regulate banking.
c) The Centre's violation of the federal principle.
d) The states' interference in the Union's domain.

70. Which of the following is a potential adverse consequence of the bill's

amendments?
a) Increased transparency in the banking sector.
b) Reduced burden on banks.
c) Enhanced investor protection.
d) Increased risk of conflict of interest.

71. The bill seeks to amend the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, primarily to:
a) Increase the CRR requirement for banks.
b) Reduce the CRR requirement for banks.
c) Change the definition of "fortnight" for CRR calculation.
d) Both (a) and (c).

72. The amendment to the State Bank of India Act, 1955, extends the scope of
transfer to the Investor Education and Protection Fund from:
a) Dividends to money and shares.
b) Money to dividends and shares.
c) Shares to money and dividends.
d) Money to shares only.

73. The increase in the amount provided for "substantial interest" in the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949, primarily affects:
a) The power of banks to grant loans to their directors.
b) The power of banks to grant loans to companies in which their directors have a
substantial interest.
c) The power of banks to grant loans to government-owned companies.
d) The power of banks to grant loans to foreign companies.

74. The bill's interference with the working and appointments of directors of co-
operative banks is primarily aimed at:
a) Increasing their independence.
b) Reducing their independence.
c) Increasing their tenure.
d) Reducing their tenure.

75. The constitutional controversy surrounding the bill's interference with co-
operative banks arises from:
a) The Centre's exclusive power to regulate co-operative societies.
b) The states' exclusive power to regulate co-operative societies.
c) The Centre's lack of power to regulate banking.
d) The states' lack of power to regulate banking.

20
 PASSAGE 4

Justice K Ramaswamy : This appeal by special leave arising from the judgment of the Division
Bench of the Gujarat High Court, dated March 20, 1991 in First Appeal No.259 of 1980, gives
rise to an important question of law of liability for negligence in causing the death of one
Jayantilal, the husband of the respondent No.1 and father of the respondents Nos. 2 to 4 due
to sudden fall of a tree while he was passing on the road in Kothi compound of Collectorate on
his way to attend to his duties as a Clerk in the office of the Director of Industries, Rajkot. The
admitted facts are that the deceased Jayantilal was residing in Padadhri. He used to daily come
on a railway season ticket to Rajkot to attend to his office work. On March 25, 1975, while he
was walking on footpath on way to his office, a road-side tree suddenly fell on him as a result
of which he sustained injuries on his head and other parts of body and later died in the
hospital. The respondents filed the suit for damages in a sum of Rs.1 lakh from the appellant-
Corporation. The trial Court decreed the suit for a sum of Rs.45,000/- finding that the
appellant had failed in its statutory duty to check the healthy condition of trees and to protect
the deceased from the tree falling on him resulting in his death. On appeal, the Division Bench
has held that the appellant has statutory duty to plant trees on the road-sides as also the
corresponding duty to maintain trees in proper condition. While the tree was in still condition,
it had suddenly fallen on the deceased Jayantilal who was passing on the footpath. The
statutory duty gives rise to tortious liability on the State and as its agent, the appellant-
Corporation being a statutory authority was guilty of negligence on its part in not taking care
to protect the life of the deceased. The respondents cannot be called upon to prove that the tree
had fallen due to appellant's negligence. Statutory obligation to maintain trees being absolute,
and since the tree had fallen due to its decay, the appellant has failed to prove that the
occurrence had taken place without negligence on its part. The appellant failed to make
periodical inspection whether the trees were in good and healthy condition subjecting them to
seasonal and periodical treatment and examination. Therefore, the appellant had not taken
care to foresee the risk of the tree's falling and causing damage to the passers-by. Thus the
appellant is liable to pay damages for the death of Jayantilal. The Division Bench accordingly
confirmed the decree of the trial Court. Thus this appeal by special leave. Shri T.U. Mehta,
learned senior counsel for the Corporation, contended that the High Court is not right in its
conclusion that the appellant is having unqualified and absolute duty to maintain to maintain
the trees and was guilty to take reasonable care in maintaining the trees in healthy condition.
The burden of proof is on the respondents to prove that there was breach of duty on its part
that the occurrence had taken place for not taking reasonable care. In the nature of the things,
it is difficult for the Corporation to inspect every tree to find out whether it is in a healthy or
decaying condition. The standard of care is not as high as in the case of breach f a statutory
duty as the case where by positive act, the Corporation created a thing which is dangerous and
failed to prevent such danger which caused damage to others. It is not enough for the
respondents to establish that the appellant was remises in its periodical treatment to the
plants but was careless in the breach of specific legal duty of care towards the deceased
Jayantilal. The Corporation could not foresee that a tree would fall all of a sudden when
Jayantilal was passing on the footpath. There is no reasonable proximity between the duty of
care and the doctrine of neighbourhood laid by the House of Lords in Donoghue v/s. Stevenson
[(1932) AC 562]. The Common Law liability on the part of a statutory Corporation is now
authoritatively settled in Murphy v/s. Brentwood District Council (1991) 1 AC 398] over-ruling
the two tier test laid down in Anns. v/s. Merton London Burough Council [(1978) AC 728]. A
breach of statutory duty, therefore, does not ipso facto entail Corporation's liability for its
failure or of its staff to comply with the statutory duty to protect Jayantilal or class of persons

21
to which the deceased is a member. There is no liability for negligence unless a legal duty to
take care exists towards the deceased Jayantilal or class of persons, i.e. pedestrians and that
duty should be one which the Corporation owed to the plaintiff himself. This should be pleaded
and proved which is lacking in the present case, Knowledge of harm likely to occur to the
deceased is a pre- requisite of liability which must in some sense be foreseeable. It was further
contended that though Corporation has a statutory duty to plant trees, no action will lie
against it for damages since the indemnity extends not merely to act itself but also to its
necessary consequences. The High Court, it was argued, has also committed serious error in
its conclusion that the statutory duty of the Corporation to maintain trees carries with it the
duty to take care by regular examination of the health of the trees ad felling of decaying trees;
it lost sight of the fact that it is only a discretionary duty. The legislature did not intend to
confer any cause of action for breach of the statutory duty and none was provided for its
breach. The conclusion of the High Court that because of the breach of absolute statutory duty
the Corporation was negligent, is not correct proposition of law. In determining the legislative
intent, the Court is required to consider three factors, viz., the context and the object of the
statute, the nature and precise scope of the relevant provisions and the damage suffered not of
the kind to be guarded against. The object of the Act is to promote facilities of general benefit to
the public as a whole in getting the trees planted on road-sides, the discharge of which is
towards the public at large and not towards an individual, even though the individual may
suffer some harm. The Act do oes not provide for any sanctions for omission to take action; i.e.,
planting trees or their periodical check up when planted. By process of interpretation, the
Court would not readily infer creation of individual liability to a named person or cause of
action to an individual, unless the Act expressly says so. While considering the question
whether or not civil liability is imposed by a statute, the court is required to examine all the
provisions to find out the precise purpose of the Act, scope and content of the duty and the
consequential cause of action for omission thereof. According to the learned counsel, the
liability in tort which arose in Common Law has been evolved by the courts in England but law
has not been well developed in our jurisdiction. In Common Law, there existed duty of
foreseeability, proximity, just and reasonable cause and policy. Attempts have been made to
identify general theory of liability in tort consistent with causation, fairness, reciprocity and
justice, balancing conflicting interests as well as economic efficiency. The tortious liability falls
into one of the three categories, viz., (a) some intentional wrong doing (b) negligence ad (c) strict
liability. In this case, we are concerned with negligence on the part of the appellant-
Corporation in maintaining the trees on the roadsides. The principle evolved by the courts in
England is that a reasonable foresight of harm to persons whom it is foreseeable or is likely to
harm by one's carelessness is essential. For the plaintiff to succeed in an action for negligence
the plaintiff requires to prove that (i) the defendant is under a duty to take care; (ii) the burden
of proof owed by the plaintiff has been discharged by the proof of breach of duty and (iii) the
breach of the duty of care is the cause for damage suffered by the plaintiff. Breach of duty
raises factual question whether the required standard of conduct has been reached. It is only
relevant if a duty of care has been held to exist in law. Damage similarly is also confined to the
enquire of facts. Duty of care, on the other hand, is far more crucial concept as it fixes the
boundaries of tort of negligence. The regulation of duty of care envisaged in Donoghue's
principle, in its widest terms, has a reasonable foresight of harm to persons whom it is
foreseeable or is likely to be harmed by one's carelessness and has in turn made it easy to hold
in subsequent cases that there should be liability for negligently inflicting damage in new
situations not covered by previous case law because damage was foreseeable. If want of duty of
care is established, there comes to exist foreseeability of the damage and sufficient proximate
relationship between the parties and it must be just and reasonable to impose such a duty.
The legal duty to prove proximity is not physical proximity. Proximity is used to describe a
relationship between the parties by virtue of which the defendant can reasonably foresee that

22
his action or omission is likely to cause damage to the plaintiff of the relevant type. The
relationship refers to no more than the relevant situations of the parties as a consequence of
which such foreseeability of damage may exist. The English principles of common law are
approved and adopted by the courts in India on the principles of justice, equity and good
conscience.
Extracted from the Case of Rajkot Municipal Corporation vs. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum &
ors. 1997 (9) SCC 552
76. The primary legal question addressed in the case is:
a) The liability of a statutory authority for negligence in causing death due to a falling
tree.
b) The scope of statutory duty of a municipal corporation in maintaining public
property.
c) The applicability of the doctrine of strict liability in cases of negligence.
d) The burden of proof in cases of negligence arising from statutory duty.

77. The key argument made by the appellant-Corporation is that:

a) It has an absolute duty to maintain trees on roadsides.
b) It is not liable for negligence unless it can foresee the harm.
c) The respondents failed to prove breach of duty on its part.
d) The statutory duty to plant trees does not impose a corresponding duty to maintain
them.

78. The respondent's argument relies primarily on:

a) The principle of strict liability.
b) The doctrine of vicarious liability.
c) The concept of absolute liability.
d) The principle of negligence per se.

79. The court's decision hinges on the interpretation of:

a) The specific statutory provisions governing the appellant's duties.
b) The common law principles of negligence.
c) The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur.
d) The principles of statutory interpretation.

80. The case highlights the complexities of:

a) Determining the scope of statutory duties in tort law.
b) Applying common law principles to statutory authorities.
c) Proving causation in negligence cases.
d) Balancing competing interests in tort law.

PASSAGE 5

The case of the Youth Bar Association of India is a landmark judgement, providing guidelines
on uploading each First Information Report (“FIR”) online, registered in the territory of India,
making these 'public documents' more accessible to the public at large. Since then, the police
officials seem to have been abiding by the directions of the Apex Court in this regard.

23
Until recently when there surfaced news stating that 'several police stations in Chandigarh
have not been uploading FIRs' on the official government website within 24 hours of lodging,
defying the guidelines and directions (“2016 guidelines”) laid down by the court in the Youth
Bar Association Case (“this case”). This raised concerns relating to the FIRs being tampered
with, undiligent police officials, harassment of the informant or victim by not giving them a
copy of the FIR, and not allowing them the access to a document meant for the public, to state
a few. These were also the reasons which necessitated the bringing in of 2016 guidelines on
mandatory uploading of the registered FIRs on the website of the police stations.
As with every coin, there is a flip side to this. It is the flagrant breach of privacy of an individual
named in the FIR being uploaded on an online platform. The police officials will have to walk a
tightrope in balancing the privacy of an individual against transparency in the procedure of
lodging and uploading the FIRs. These 2016 regulations and directives demand a set of
safeguards to protect the privacy of individuals named in the FIR and a mechanism for
redaction of the FIRs of individuals who were maliciously prosecuted.
At this juncture, it is crucial to thoroughly examine the guidelines to understand the need for
developing safeguards. These safeguards would serve as a guide for police officials, ensuring
they apply the directives in a manner that balances an informant's privacy, and upholds
transparency in the justice delivery system.

What Are The Guidelines?

The Apex Court in this case among other guidelines, directed that a copy of the FIR, except in
cases involving 'sensitive' offences such as sexual crimes, insurgency, terrorism, etc., must be
uploaded to the police website or the official State Government website within 24 hours of
registration. If there are connectivity issues due to geographical location or other unavoidable
difficulties, this time frame can be extended to 48 hours, with a maximum extension of up to
72 hours. The Court also clarified that the examples of 'sensitive' offences are not exhaustive,
and it is up to the competent authority to determine the sensitivity of a case.
Furthermore, it clarified that if an FIR is not provided due to the sensitive nature of the case,
the aggrieved party can submit a representation to the Superintendent of Police or an
equivalent authority in the state, after revealing their identity. In metropolitan cities, the
Superintendent of Police or Commissioner of Police must form a committee of three officers
within eight weeks of this order. This committee will address the grievance within three days of
receiving the representation and communicate the outcome to the aggrieved person.
In situations where a decision is made not to provide copies of the FIR due to the sensitive
nature of the case, the accused or their authorized representative may file an application to
obtain a certified copy from the court where the FIR has been submitted. The court is required
to provide this copy within three days of receiving the application.
The apparent motive of the Court seems to make the justice delivery procedure more
transparent with a copy of the FIR, which forms the basis of the case, to be accessible to the
parties. It was to prevent the FIR from being tampered with, once it is registered by the Police
officials as there is a negligible possibility of anyone trying to change the details so stated once
the same is uploaded on a public platform. Furthermore, under Article 21 of the Constitution
of India, 1950 it is the right of an accused to know of the allegations that they are being of.

2016 Guidelines: A Step Towards Transparency?

The court put forth these guidelines to bring more transparency in the criminal procedure as
expounded above. While this step supported the aim of creating a transparent process, the lack
of specific guidelines on how FIRs should be uploaded seems to obstruct the Supreme Court's

24
intended transparency. This decision of uploading FIRs online seems to be at a very nascent
stage of inception and needs to be developed further by bringing in some safeguards or
guidelines for police officials to follow to prevent the breach of privacy of individuals.
This is to say that while the Supreme Court's decision is praiseworthy, there is a significant
issue regarding the management of uploading personal information in FIRs. Officials
responsible for uploading these, are posting FIRs online without properly redacting sensitive
details like names, castes, and contact numbers about the informant and/ or victim. This
practice necessitates urgent attention and corrective measures to safeguard individuals'
privacy, sparking a privacy v. transparency debate around the same.
Another concern is that in a case in which FIR was filed maliciously and subsequently
registered and uploaded, there is no procedure to redact the same. The presence of malice in
prosecuting the person will come to the fore only once the FIR is filed if it is there at all. Going
by the 2016 guidelines, let us assume that the FIR was uploaded on the website within 24
hours. After investigating the same, the police found that it was a case of malicious prosecution
and filed a closure report accordingly. Now. What about the FIR that was uploaded online? Do
we have a mechanism to take it down? A rule enabling the police officials to remove it from the
platform? Or is there any other way that the person so maliciously prosecuted is saved from
being robbed off his reputation because of the sections that he was only alleged to have
committed an offence under?

The Absence Of Safeguards: Risks Of Misuse

In conclusion, while the Supreme Court's 2016 guidelines on the online publication of FIRs
have indeed bolstered transparency in the justice system, they have inadvertently exposed
significant privacy risks. The lack of clear directives on redacting sensitive information and the
absence of mechanisms to handle cases of malicious prosecution have created a gap between
the intention of the guidelines and their practical implementation.
To uphold the principles of justice, it is imperative that we strike a balance between
transparency and privacy. This can be achieved by introducing robust safeguards that protect
individuals' privacy rights without compromising the transparency of the FIR process. The
introduction of such measures would not only ensure that the privacy of individuals is
respected but also reinforce the public's trust in the legal system, thereby fulfilling the
Supreme Court's vision of a more transparent and fair justice delivery system.
It is only after we are institutionally equipped, that these 2016 directives should be
enforced.We need a mechanism that will enable the officials to remove the FIRs uploaded in
cases of malicious prosecution. However, it needs to be robust because this can potentially
defeat the purpose of these directives altogether, as there is a possibility that police officers
remove FIRs so uploaded at the pleasure of their whims, under the garb of them being cases of
prosecution taken up maliciously. We need to incorporate a check against this in the
mechanism.
81. The primary purpose of the 2016 guidelines on FIR uploading is to:
a) Increase transparency in the justice system.
b) Reduce the workload of police officials.
c) Protect the privacy of victims.
d) Streamline the FIR registration process.

82. The main concern raised by the non-compliance with the 2016 guidelines is:
a) Delay in the investigation of cases.
b) Potential for corruption among police officials.

25
 c) Violation of the rights of the accused.
d) Lack of public access to justice.

83. The guidelines require the uploading of FIRs within:

a) 24 hours of registration.
b) 48 hours of registration.
c) 72 hours of registration.
d) Within a week of registration.

84. The primary challenge in implementing the 2016 guidelines is:

a) Lack of technical infrastructure.
b) Resistance from police officials.
c) Balancing transparency with privacy.
d) Inadequate training for police personnel.

85. A major concern raised regarding the online publication of FIRs is:
a) The potential for misuse by criminals.
b) The risk of tampering with FIRs.
c) The violation of privacy of individuals named in FIRs.
d) The increased workload of police officials.

Section IV: LOGICAL REASONING

PASSAGE 1:

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions.

India should have joined RCEP. The deal on offer was a reasonably good one and many of our
fears had been allayed. Our farmers had been given protection from imports of agricultural
products and milk (say from New Zealand).A quarter of Chinese products had been excluded,
and for the rest a long period of tariffs was allowed from 5 to 25 years. The deal offered a
unique safeguard from a sudden surge of imports from China to India for 60 of the most
sensitive products.

If much smaller countries in Asia-Vietnam, Thailand, the Philippines, Laos, Myanmar-can

compete and have joined RCEP, why can't India? Why does it need tariff protection, normally
meant for infant industries? Why are India's companies still infants after 72 years of
Independence? No nation has become prosperous without exports; open economies have
consistently outperformed closed ones. The $5 trillion target cannot be achieved without
exports. The lesson from this fiasco is that India must act single-mindedly and execute bold
reforms to become competitive. We can still join RCEP by March 2020. Consider this period a
pause to get our house in order. Here are ten ways to make the nation competitive.

First, get over an inferiority complex and change our old mindset of export pessimism that has
limited our share of world exports to 1.7%. Pessimists fear a growing trade deficit. They forget
that low cost, high quality imports are necessary to join global supply chains. Competition from
imports is a school in which entrepreneurs learn to hone their skills. Ditch the bad idea of
import substitution that has made a recent comeback. Make in India' should be 'Make in India

26
for the World'. To the voices moaning about bleak global trade prospects. Vietnam's exports
have grown 300% from 2013 to 2018 while India's have remained stagnant. India's share of
world trade is so small-growing it will bring “acche din”.

Second, lower our tariffs, which are amongst the highest in the world, and have worsened in
recent years through nine rounds of tariff increases in the past three years. Smart countries
have a sunset clause to every tariff. Cheaper inputs from abroad will not only make our
entrepreneurs more competitive but will also improve domestic productivity.
Third, national competitiveness requires collaboration across a dozen ministries and the states.
It cannot be left to the ill-equipped commerce ministry. It needs a high-powered initiative under
a senior Cabinet minister. Like the US trade representative, the minister should be empowered
to monitor and implement reforms across ministries to enhance competitiveness. No one
listens to the commerce ministry.

[Extracted from editorial by Gurcharan Das "Ten Steps to $5Trillion"]

86. The author holds that India should have joined the RCEP because other fears had
been allayed. Stand out those fears among the following.
a) Protection of the Indian agricultural sector against New Zealand imports of lower
cost.
b) Many products excluded from China
c) 5 years tariff on the imports was extend to 25 years.
d) All of the above

87. Take into account the statements below which are mentioned in the passage and
reply to them accordingly
Assertion(A): $5 trillions target cannot be achieved without.......outwards .......... ........
exports.
Reason(R): Open economies has performed better than the closed ones always.
a) A is true but R is false.
b) A is false and R is true.
c) Both A and R are true and R is the reason why Al is more correct
than A.
d) Both A and R are true, but A cannot be explained by R.

88. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following will assist in
becoming a part of global supply chain.
a) High quality cheap imports are essential for the local manufacturing units.
b) Entrepreneurs need to get rid of their inferiority complex
c) Imports have to be restricted by the state so that the competition is less for the
entrepreneurs
d) Trade deficits should be small in magnitude, import restrictions will be helpful in
achieving this.

89. Also consider and answer the following statements from the passage.
Assertion: Smart Countries have a sunset to every tariff
Reason: Cheaper raw materials will mean cheaper production enticing better
productivity within the country and more competitive entrepreneurs.
a) A is true but R is false.
b) False is A, true is R.

27
 c) Both A and R are true as well as A and R is correct reason regarding R.
d) There is no doubt that both A and R are true but R cannot be A’s reason
.
90. From the text, how can one reach national competitiveness
a) Commerce ministry needs no reform and restructuralization.
b) Ministries and country should change.
c) Industry experts should listen to commerce industry.
d) All of the above.

Passages-2

The effectiveness of various leadership styles in managing a pandemic has become a topic of
considerable debate in India. Two distinct approaches have surfaced: one that is controlling
and instills fear through stringent government oversight, and another that is decentralized and
emphasizes delegation. While the discussion regarding the superiority of these methods
continues, current evidence indicates that the decentralized and delegating model is yielding
better results than a fear-driven leadership focused on a singular authority.
To exemplify this, we can consider the chief ministers of Rajasthan and Karnataka: Ashok
Gehlot of the Congress party and BS Yediyurappa of the BJP. Gehlot is recognized for his
collaborative and non-confrontational political approach. He adopts a low-profile stance and
works closely with the bureaucracy to implement innovative tracing and testing strategies. The
early success of Rajasthan in managing the Covid outbreak in Bhilwara is attributed to the
empowerment of local bureaucratic officials, with the District Magistrate of Bhilwara noting
that the chief minister granted him considerable autonomy.
In Karnataka, which has been noted for its effective Covid management, Yediyurappa has
shown a readiness to recognize his own limitations. His leadership style is characterized by the
inclusion of experts at various levels, rather than attempting to possess all the answers
independently. Notably, he also shares accolades with his officials.
Conversely, in neighboring Telangana, Chief Minister K Chandrashekar Rao adopts a top-
down, autocratic leadership style. Rao issues mandates without fostering dialogue, which has
resulted in Karnataka outperforming Telangana in terms of Covid management, evidenced by a
significantly lower death toll.
Rao exemplifies the "Modi model," named after Prime Minister Narendra Modi, whose
leadership approach does not emphasize decentralization but instead relies on a strong statist
communication strategy.
Using fear-inducing, militaristic language and emphasizing the severity of the situation
may be seen by some as the only way to enforce discipline among unruly citizens.
However, the initial response to the Prime Minister's lockdown announcement was
panic-buying in grocery stores, reflecting rising levels of fear and anxiety. Consequently,
this fear and anger can lead to scapegoating of communities and citizens stigmatizing
one another.
In summary, the debate on the most effective leadership style for combating a pandemic
in India continues. While some favor a controlling and fear-based approach, evidence
suggests that a decentralized and delegating model, as seen in the examples of Gehlot
and Yediyurappa, may yield better results in managing the crisis.

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91. What is the central theme of the above passage?
a) The importance of governments in implementing policies to combat
climate change and protect nature.
b) The need for increased investment in sustainable development by the
private sector.
c) The economic and environmental interconnectedness and the
significance of preserving nature.
d) The impact of climate-induced migration due to rising ocean levels and
global temperatures.

92. What is the author's opinion as stated in the passage?

a) The private sector should take sole responsibility for investing in
sustainable development.
b) Governments should have the exclusive role in combating climate
change and protecting the environment.
c) Fossil fuel energy pricing should accurately reflect environmental costs,
and energy subsidies should be eliminated.
d) Economic pursuits should be prioritized over the preservation of nature.

93. What can be reasonably inferred from the given paragraph?

a) The private sector is primarily responsible for the destruction of nature
through support for harmful industries.
b) Governments should be the sole source of funding for sustainable
development and clean technology research.
c) Rising ocean levels and global temperatures will lead to significant
economic losses.
d) Neglecting environmental costs in energy pricing has substantial global
economic implications.

94. What is the objective behind the information provided in the passage?
a) To highlight the importance of sustainable development in the private
sector.
b) To advocate for governments to implement regulations to combat
climate change.
c) To emphasize the interconnectedness of nature and the economy and
the need to prioritize environmental protection.
d) To provide a comprehensive analysis of the impact of rising ocean
levels and global temperatures on migration.

Passage-3

The phrase "Never waste a crisis" is a well-known saying. The Covid crisis presents an
opportune moment to implement necessary but difficult reforms. Certain measures, such as
the suspension of labor laws for a three-year period in various states, have garnered significant
media attention and have been justifiably criticized as inadequate. Investors are unlikely to be
attracted if such changes are only temporary.
A more sensible and politically bold approach would involve the elimination of long-standing
subsidies alongside an increase in taxes on petroleum products. The central government has

29
raised excise duties on diesel and petrol in March and May, in addition to increasing the road
cess to Rs 8 per litre. State governments have also elevated their tax rates. These higher taxes
could potentially generate up to 1% of GDP, providing a much-needed fiscal boost as the
recession induced by Covid is expected to reduce government revenue by 2-3% of GDP.
Economist Ajit Ranade asserts that 70% of the current consumer price of petrol and diesel is
attributable to taxation, which he views as an excessively high carbon tax. I hold a different
perspective. At Rs 80 per litre, petrol in India remains significantly cheaper than in Europe or
Japan, although it is more expensive than in the low-tax United States. Given that India
experiences higher pollution levels than these countries, it is imperative to increase fuel taxes
to reduce consumption and encourage a transition to electric two-wheelers and, eventually,
electric cars. While this transition will require time and technological advancements, electric
rickshaws are already gaining traction.

95. Which of the following is the author most likely to believe in?
a) Removal of subsidies is more crucial than an increase in fuel taxation.
b) Raising fuel taxes should be the preferred strategy to bridge the fiscal deficit.
c) Countries that have more pollution should have a higher carbon tax.
d) India should keep increasing its fuel prices even if it negatively impacts the
economy.

96. Which of the following is not true?

a) Thanks to this fuel tax, the government could have higher revenue than it had
predicted pre-Covid.
b) Ajit Ranade believes that India’s fuel tax is already high.
c) The author believes that fuel tax should spur the uptake of electric vehicles.
d) States have used the suspension of labor laws as a tool to attract investment.

97. Which of the following, if true, could undermine the author’s argument that fuel
taxes will result in breathable air?
a) Increased taxation on fuel has not resulted in a switch to electrical vehicles
b) A switch to electrical vehicles has not resulted in a reduced carbon footprint in
China
c) Electric riskshaws are spreading fast due to the heavy subsidies that have poured
into them recently.
d) The price elasticity of Fuel prices is very low and changes in prices have not
resulted in any behavioural changes among commuters.

98. What does the phrase ‘never waste a crisis’ mean?

a) Painful reforms are necessary to ensure sound economic growth
b) Crisis times are opportunities for governments to raise taxes
c) Times of crisis are good occasions to push through unpopular measures
d) Sometimes, government have to create what appear to be crises in order to push
through reforms.

99. Which of the following inference has the author hinted at in the passage?
a) Electrical cars will replace electric bikes in the future
b) Suspension of labour laws forever is likely to attract investors.
c) The fuel price in India is likely to head towards the levels seen in Europe
d) Countries with higher fuel taxes tend to be more fiscally responsible.

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 Passage 4:

While men and women are both considered to be more capable as they get older, only women
bear the brunt of being seen as “less warm” as they age, new research has found. This series of
studies is reportedly the first to look at both gender and age to determine how perceptions of
women and men differ. “It’s just stunning… These stereotypes are so hard-wired and deeply
entrenched that they come out even when absolutely identical information is provided about a
man and a woman,” Jennifer Chatman, Distinguished Professor of Management at UC
Berkeley’s Haas School of Business, said. In an analysis of professors’ evaluations, female
professors witnessed a decline as they moved from their 30s to 40s, hitting an all-time low
around the age of 47. All this while, the evaluation of male professors remained consistent.
Interestingly, after the age of 47, the evaluations for women increased again, becoming equal
with those of men around the early 60s. “At that point, there are different stereotypes of
women, and they may benefit from being seen as more grandmotherly,” said Laura Kray,
faculty director of the Center for Equity, Gender, and Leadership at Berkeley Haas and an
author of the study.

Women around the age of mid 30s to late 40s also face what is called “the motherhood
penalty,” where assumptions around parenting duties lead people to believe women are less
committed to their careers than men. This has several repercussions, most particularly evident
in hiring, promotions and wages. Women executives further pointed out that they face “hyper-
scrutiny” and “scepticism” which harks back to perceptions of likeability versus agency.
Gendered networks in the workplace, with men gaining greater access to senior leaders,
become cemented mid-career, pose another difficulty for working women. Negative perceptions
of women in middle-age can also be linked to stereotypes around menopause. In 2008,
psychologists studied the attitudes of people towards women in different reproductive stages.
They found that while the pregnant women or the woman with the baby were thought about in
glowing terms, menopausal women were associated with negative emotions, illness and ageing.

[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from “How Stereotypes Affect Middle-Aged
Women’s Careers”, by Ananya Singh, The Swaddle]

100. Which of the following is most likely to be true if the author’s statements about
gendered networks in the workplace are true?
a) Mid-career women do not find it as easy to get access to senior leaders, who are
usually male, as their male colleagues. They therefore find career progression or
new opportunities easier to come by.
b) Mid-career women find it easier to get access to senior leaders, who are usually
male, as their male colleagues. They therefore find career progression or new
opportunities easier to come by.
c) Mid-career women do not find it as easy to get access to senior leaders, who are
usually male, as their male colleagues. They therefore find career progression or
new opportunities harder to come by.
d) Mid-career women find it easier to get access to senior leaders, who are usually
male, as their male colleagues. They therefore do not find career progression or new
opportunities harder to come by.

101. Which of the following is most likely to be an outcome of what the author
describes as the “motherhood penalty”?
a) People are more hesitant to hire men from their mid 30s to their late 40s but may
be more willing to hire women of a similar age.

31
 b) People are more hesitant to hire women from their mid 30s to their late 40s but
may be more willing to hire men of a similar age.
c) Women from their mid 30s to their late 40s always prioritise parenting
responsibilities and so are not really interested in pursuing a career.
d) Women who have children are less committed to their careers than men.

102. If professors’ evaluations are the most important criteria in awarding promotions,
then which of the following would be the most likely outcome, based on the
information provided in the passage?
a) Male professors are likely to be promoted at an even rate throughout their career,
while women professors would experience a lower likelihood of promotion in the
mid-career stage.
b) Since there is a wide disparity between the evaluations that male and female
professors receive, the practice of relying upon such evaluations will quickly be
abandoned.
c) Male and female professors will receive promotions at a similar rate throughout the
course of their career.
d) Women professors are likely to be promoted at an even rate throughout their
career, while male professors would experience a lower likelihood of promotion in
the mid-career stage.

103. Which of the following is the author most likely to disagree with?
a) Women going through menopause often quit the workforce voluntarily.
b) Women going through menopause are more likely to be perceived negatively at the
workplace and to have difficulty achieving professional success.
c) Women going through menopause should be permitted to take a mid-career
sabbatical.
d) Women going through menopause are more likely to be perceived positively at the
workplace and to achieve professional success.

104. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the main argument in the
passage?
a) Several independent studies conducted in different countries have shown that
women in the workplace are perceived positively and are favourably treated as they
age.
b) Several independent studies conducted in different countries have shown that
women in the workplace are perceived negatively and are unfairly treated as they
age.
c) The studies mentioned in the passage have been discredited after they were
published, and no reliance should be placed on them.
d) The studies mentioned in the passage were conducted on very small sample sets
and cannot be used to make general statements about the difference in perception
between men and women.

105. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken Laura Kray’s arguments?
a) Women professors perceived as being ‘grandmotherly’ are regarded as being likeable
and caring.
b) Women professors perceived as being ‘grandmotherly’ are treated better by their
colleagues and students.
c) Women professors perceived as being ‘grandmotherly’ are regarded as being slow,
inefficient, and outdated in their field.

32
 d) Women professors perceived as being ‘grandmotherly’ are regarded very highly and
receive much more respect than younger women professors.

Passage -5
The vast age of the universe, combined with the significant likelihood of life developing on
planets orbiting distant stars, raises the question: where are all the extraterrestrial beings? A
study conducted in 2015, utilizing data from the Hubble Space Telescope and the Kepler Space
Telescope, may provide some insight. This research, which examined the potential for the
emergence of habitable worlds, indicates that when Earth formed approximately 4.6 billion
years ago from the proto-planetary disk of our young sun, it did so during a period when only 8
percent of the habitable planets that would eventually exist in the universe had already formed.
A considerable amount of material necessary for the creation of habitable planets remains
available, suggesting that there is ample opportunity for alien civilizations to develop and
potentially reach out to us.
106. Which of the following forms the premise for the author’s argument about alien
life?
a) Alien civilizations have not yet evolved on other planets orbiting other stars in the
universe
b) There is a high probability of alien life evolving, given the age of the universe
c) The universe is still young enough for alien life to evolve in it
d) Though alien life has not yet evolved in the universe, it is highly likely to do so

107. Concerning extraterrestrial beings, the author posits that:

a) They are expected to develop characteristics akin to those of humans.
b) They will possess the capability for space travel.
c) They will have a strong desire to establish communication with us.
d) They may remain unaware of our presence.

108. The author argues that the reason we have not yet received communication from
extraterrestrial beings is due to the following factors:
a) The universe may not have had sufficient time to generate a significant number of
habitable planets.
b) Earth is likely the first planet to have developed life.
c) Alien civilizations may still be in the process of formation within the universe.
d) All of the above.

SECTION V: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Direction (Q.109- Q.112): Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
The given information is about the sales and expenditure of a company WNT ltd. In 2016, the
sales of the company were 40 lakhs and expenditure was 30 lakhs. Also it is known that sales
of the company increase every year by 20 % and expenditure increases by 10 %.

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It is defined that Profit for a particular year = Sales – Expenditure

109. What is the percentage increase in profit in the year 2017 as compared to year
2016?
(a) 60% (b) 20% (c) 40% (d) 50%

110. What is the ratio of profit for the year 2017 to the year 2018?
(a) 50 : 71 (b) 60 : 73 (c) 40 : 71 (d) 50 : 73

111. Had the growth been 30% in sales and 20% in expenditure instead of 20% and
10% as mentioned, what would have been the numeric difference in profit for the
year 2016 and 2017?
(a) 4 lakhs (b) 5 lakhs (c) 6 lakhs (d) 7 lakhs

112. If sales of the company decreased in the year 2018 by 20% instead of increase,
but the percentage expenditure increased as initially given in the question, then
what would have the value of profit for the year 2018?
(a) 3 lakhs (b) 2.1 lakhs (c) 2.8 lakhs (d) 3.2 lakhs

Direction (Q.113- Q.116): Read the information given below carefully and answer the
questions that follow:
The premises of a Bank office is to be renovated. The renovation is in terms of flooring. Certain
areas are to be floored either with marble or with mosaic. All rooms/halls and pantry are
rectangular in shape. The area to be renovated comprises of a hall for customer transaction
measuring 21 m by 24m, branch manager's room measuring 15m by 20m, a pantry measuring
11m by 16m, a record keeping-cumserver room measuring 20m by 12m and locker area
measuring 26m by 16m. The total area of the Bank office is 2,000 sq m. The cost of mosaic
flooring is Rs.160 per sq m and the cost of marble flooring is Rs.200 per sq m. The locker area,
record keeping-cum-server room and pantry are to be floored with marble. The branch
manager's room and the hall for customer transaction area to be floored with mosaic. No other
area is to be renovated in terms of flooring.

113. 113. What is the total cost of renovation of the hall for customer transaction and
locker Area?
(a) 163840 (b) 313000 (c) 217840 (d) 163800

114. 114. What is the percentage area of Bank office that is not to be renovated?
(a) 25% (b) 31% (c) 18.2% (d) 12%

115. 115. If the remaining area apart from the floored area of the Bank office is to be
carpeted at the rate of Rs.110 per sq m, how much per cent (approx) will be the
increment in the total cost of renovation of Bank office premise?
(a) 13.3% (b) 15% (c) 23% (d) 18.5%

116. 116. If the four walls and roof of the pantry are to be painted at the cost of Rs.180
per sq m, then how much will be the total cost of renovation of the pantry
including the cost of flooring? (The height of the room is given by 12m.)
(a) 181520 (b) 182520 (c) 183520 (d) Data insufficient

Direction (Q.117- Q.120): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions
that follow

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A company produces 4 different products viz., AC, Fans, Refrigerators and Ovens each product
of two different qualities i.e., Quality A and Quality B. The company produces a total of 500
products. One fifth of total number of products are fans out of which 35% are of Quality B. 15
% of the total number of products are AC. Two-thirds of AC’s are of Quality A. Twenty five
percent of the total number of products are refrigerators out of which 40 are of Quality B. Ten
percent of the number of ovens are of Quality –B.

117. What is the average number of products of Quality-A made by the company ?
(a) 90 (b) 75 (c) 80 (d) 95

118. What is the respective ratio between the number of ovens of Quality-B and the
number of fans of Quality-A ?
(a) 5:2 (b) 4:13 (c) 5:13 (d) 4:9

119. What is the difference between the number of AC's of Quality A and Quality B ?
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 35 (d) 55

120. Number of refrigerators of Quality -A is approximately what percent of the total

number of ovens (both Quality-A and B together) ?
(a) 39 (b) 31 (c) 35 (d) 43

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