1.

The suffix –ectomy means

a. Cutting into
b. Surgical removal
c. A permanent opening
d. Surgical repair

2. The acronym MMRV stands for

a. Measles, Mumps, and Rubella vaccine
b. Measles, Mumps, and Rosella vaccine
c. Measles, Mumps, Rubella, and Varicella
d. Measles, Mumps, Rosella, and Varicella

3. MRI stands for

a. Micro-wave Recording Instrument
b. Medical Recording Instrument
c. Magnetic Resolution Image
d. Magnetic Resonance Imaging

4. The term “Salpingo-Oophorectomy” refers to

a. The removal of the fallopian tubes and ovaries
b. The surgical sampling or removal of a fertilized egg
c. Cutting into the fallopian tubes and ovaries for surgical purposes
d. Cutting into a fertilized egg for surgical purposes

5. PERRLA stands for what?

a. Pupils Equivalent, Rapid in Response to Light and Accommodation
b. Pupil Equal , Rapid in Response to Light and Accommodation
c. Pupil Equivalent, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation
d. Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation

6. Cryopreservation is a means of preserving something through

a. Saturation
b. Heat
c. Freezing
d. Chemicals

7. Which of the following describes the removal of fluid from a body cavity
a. Arthrocentesis
b. Amniocentesis
c. Pericardiocentesis
d. Paracentesis

8. If a surgeon cuts into a patient’s stomach he has performed a

a. Gastrectomy
b. Gastrotomy
c. Gastrostomy
d. Gastrorrhaphy

9. The terms Nephro and Renal both refer to the same organ
a. True
b. False
10. In the medical term myopathy the term pathy means disease. What is diseased?
a. Mind
b. Muscle
c. Eye
d. Nervous System

11. The Radius is the

a. Outer bone located in the forearm
b. Outer bone located in the lower leg
c. Inner bone located in the forearm
d. Inner bone located in the lower leg

12. The spleen belongs to what organ system?

a. Endocrine
b. Hemic and Lymphatic
c. Digestive
d. Nervous

13. The portion of the femur bone that helps makes up the knee cap is considered what?
a. The posterior portion
b. The proximal portion
c. The distal portion
d. The dorsal portion

14. How many regions are in the abdominopelvic cavity?

a. Four
b. Six
c. Eight
d. Nine

15. The Midsagittal plane refers to what portion of the body?

a. Top
b.Middle
c. Bottom
d. Back

16. Which of the following is not part of the small intestine?

a. Duodenum
b. Ileum
c. Jejunum
d. Cecum

17. The round window is located in the

a. Pericardium
b. Anterior aqueous chamber of the eye
c. Inner ear
d. Middle ear
18. The point of an organ or body part nearest the point of attachments is
a. Distal
b. Proximal
c. Lateral
d. Medial

19. One of the six major scapulohumeral muscles

a. Temporalis
b. Trapezius
c. Teres
d. Trigone

20. The cardia fundus is

a. Part of the heart wall that causes contractions
b. Where to esophagus joins the stomach
c. A fungal infection that attacks the heart
d. Part of the female reproductive system

21. CPT codes 22840-22848 are modifier 62 exempt?

a. True
b. False

22. An ABN must be signed when?

a. Once the insurance company has denied payment
b. Before the service or procedure is provided to the patient
3 c. After services are rendered, but before the claim is filed
d. Once the denied claim has been appealed at the highest leve
l
23. Wound exploration codes include the following service (s) :
a. Exploration and repair
b. Exploration, including enlargement, removal of foreign body(ies), repair
c. Exploration, including enlargement, repair, and necessary grafting
d. Exploration, including enlargement, debridement, removal of foreign body(ies), minor
vessel ligation, and repair

24. The full description of CPT code 24925 is:

a. Secondary closure or scar revision
b. Amputation, secondary closure or scar revision
c. Amputation, arm through humerus; secondary closure or scar revision
d. Amputation, arm through humerus; with primary closure, secondary closure or scar
revision

25. Medical necessity means what?

a. Without treatment the patient will suffer permanent disability or death
b. The service requires medical treatment
c. The condition of the patient justifies the service provided
d. The care provided met quality standards

26. The following statement does not apply to what code type: These codes are never stand
alone codes and never primary codes.
a. E codes
b. Add on codes
c. Late effect codes
d. V codes

27. Which of the following codes allows the use of modifier 51?
a. 20975
b. 93600
c. 31500
d. 45392

28. Category III codes are temporary codes for emerging technology, services, and
procedures. If a category III code exists it should be used instead of an “unlisted procedure”
code in category I (example of an unlisted category I
code: 60699).
a. True
b. False

29. Which of the following statements is not true regarding Medicare Part A
a. It helps cover home health care charges
b. It helps cover skilled nursing facility charges
c. It helps cover hospice charges
d. It helps cover outpatient charges

30. Which of the following is not one of the three components of HIPAA that is enforced by
the office for civil rights?
a. Protecting the privacy of individually identifiable health information
b. Setting national standards for the security of electronic protected health information
c. Protecting identifiable information being used to analyze patient safety events and
improve patient safety
d. Setting national standards regarding the transmission and use of protected health
information

Question 47
What is PHI?
A. Physician-health care interchange
B. Private health insurance
C. Personal health information
D. Provider identified incident-to

Question 48
Which of the following is a BENEFIT of electronic claims submission?
A. Privacy of claims
B. Security of claims
C. Timely submission of claims
D. None of the above

Question 49
Which of the following is true regarding ICD-9-CM codes with the words “in diseases
classified elsewhere” in their descriptions?
A. They can never be the first listed code.
B. They should always be the first listed code.
C. They are unspecified codes and should be used only when more specific diagnoses cannot
be found. D. None of the above.
Question 50
Which of the following statements is true regarding sequencing of E codes?
A. E codes for place of occurrence take priority over all other E codes.
B. E codes for medical history take priority over all other E codes.
C. E codes identifying screening exam as the reason for encounter take priority over all other
E codes.
D. E codes for transport accidents take priority over all other E codes except cataclysmic
events and child and adult abuse and terrorism

Question 51
In what subsection in the Medicine section of the CPT manual would you t’md
comprehensive computer-based motion analysis by video taping and 3-D kinetics?
A. Functional Brain Mapping
B. Neurostimulators,Analysis Programming
C. Evoked Potentials and Reflex Testing
D. Motion Analysis

Question 52
What is the term used for inflammation of the bone and bone marrow?
A. Chondromatosis
B. Osteochondriti
C. Costochondritis
D. Osteomyelitis

Question 53
The root word trich/o means:
A. Hair
B. Sebum
C. Eyelid
D. Trachea

Question 53
What is the term used for inflammation of the bone and bone marrow?
A. Chondromatosis
B.Osteochondritis
C.Costochondritis
D.Osteomyelitis

Question 54
The root word trich/o means:
A. Hair
B. Sebum
C. Eyelid
D. Trachea

Question 55
Complete this series: Frontal lobe, Parietal lobe, Temporal lobe,
_.
A. Medulla lobe
B. Occipital lobe
C. Middle lobe
D. Inferior lobe

Question 94
Which statement is true about V codes:
A. V codes are never reported as a primary code
B. V codes are only reported with injury codes
C. V codes may be used either as primary code or secondary code
D. V codes do not have to correspond with procedure codes

Question 97
Which of the following is an example of electronic data?
A. A digital X-ray
B. An explanation of benefits
C. An advance beneficiary notice
D. A written prescription

Question 98
Which of the following health plans does not fall under HIPAA?
A. Medicaid
B. Medicare
C. Workers’ compensation

Question 99
Guidelines from which of the following code sets are included as part of the code set
requirements under HIPAA?
A. CPT®
B. ICD-9-CM
C. HCPCS Level II
D. ADA Dental Codes

Question 137
Glomerulonephritis is an inflammation affecting which system?
A. Digestive
B. Nervous
C. Urinary
D. Cardiovascular

Question 138
When a patient has fractured the proximal end of his humerus, where is the fracture
located?
A. Upper end of the arm
B. Lower end of the leg
C. Upper end of the leg
D. Lower end of the arm

Question 139
What is another term for when a physician performs a reduction on a displaced fracture?
A. Casting
B. Manipulation
C. Skeletal traction
D. External fixation

Question 140
What does oligiospermia mean?
A. Presence of blood in the semen
B. Deficiency of sperm in semen
C. Having sperm in urine
D. Formation of spermatozoa

Question 141
Thoracentesis is removing fluid or air from the:
A. Lung
B. Chest cavity
C. Thoracic vertebrae
D. Heart

Question 142
An angiogram is a study to look inside:
A. Female Reproductive System
B. Urinary System
C. Blood Vessels
D. Breasts

Question 143
When a person has labyrinthitis what has the inflammation?
A. Inner ear
B. Brain
C. Conjunctiva
D. Spine

Question 100
Which of the following is an example of a case in which a diabetes-related problem exists
and the code for diabetes is never sequenced first?
A. If the patient has an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction
B. If the patient is being treated for secondary diabetes
C. If the patient is being treated for Type II diabetes
D. If the patient has hyperglycemia that is not responding to medication

Question 149
Which place of service code should be reported on the physician’s claim for a surgical
procedure
performed in an ASC?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 24
D. 11
 Question 148
Local coverage decisions are published to give providers information on which of the
following?
A. Information on modifier use with procedure codes
B. A list of CPT® and HCPCS Level II codes representing covered procedures
C. Fee schedule information listed by CPT® code
D. Medical necessity exclusionsto coverage

ANSWERS-FILE NAME QUESTIONS ON ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

1. What term could describe an inflammation of the plantar, causing foot or heel pain
when walking or running?

a. Plantar fascitis
b. Tenodesis
c. Tenolysis
d. Tendon fascitis

2. Blephroplasty describes what type of a procedure?

a. Surgical reduction of the upper/lower eyelids to remove excess fat, skin, and
muscle
b. Treatment for spider veins with injections of sclerosing solution
c. Replacement of damaged skin with healthy tissue taken from a donor
d. Destruction of tissue by burning or freezing

3. Which autoimmune disorder will eventually destroy the thyroid gland?

a. Hayem-Farber disease
b. Alzheimer’s thyroiditis
c. Lou Gehrig’s disease
d. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

4. Which of the following statements best describes a rheumatologist?

a. A specialist who provides medical care and drug treatments focused on mental
and cognitive disorders.
b. A specialist who provides treatment to women during pregnancy, childbirth, and
their aftercare
c. A specialist who provides the diagnosis and treatment of disease characterized
by inflammation of the connective tissues.
d. A specialist who provides the diagnosis and surgical treatment of bone disorders

5. A patient suffered a burn that involved the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous
layers with some muscle involvement. What degree of burn would describe this
injury?

a. First-degree, superficial with blisters

b. Second-degree, partial thickness with muscle
c. Third-degree, full thickness
d. None of the above
6.In which part of the body would you find the choroid?

A.Brain

B.Eyeball

C.Muscles of the hand

D.Spinal column

7.Which combining form refers to the small intestine?

A.enter/o

B.gastr/o

C.celi/o

D.col/o

8.An ERG is what type of a procedure?

A.Electroretinography

B.Electrorenalography

C.Electroretinograph

D.Electrorhidogram

9.Which term refers to the anus, rectum, and the cecum?

A.rectal

B.anorectal

C.esophageal

D.iliu.Cm

10.Which term does not refer to a level of consciousness?

A.Syncope

B.Stupor

C.Coma

D.Sciatica

11.What type of condition describes a patient diagnosed with oligospermia?

A.Knots is the varicose veins

B.An inflammation of the prostate gland

C.An abnormally low number of sperm in the semen

D.Failure to ovulate

12.What does the term cystopexy mean?

A.Inflammation of the spinal cord and brain

B.Surgical fixation of the urinary bladder

C.Surgical suture of the knee joints

D.Crushing procedure to remove cysts

13.What is an episiotomy and why would a patient need to have this procedure?

A.Surgical suturing of the rectum caused by extensive tissue damage following a

bowel repair

B.Surgical incision of the vulva to facilitate delivery of a baby

C.Surgical puncture of the cervix to remove fluid

D.Surgical creation of an opening into the small intestine to provide relief of

excessive gastritis

14What direction describes raising the foot, pulling the toes toward the shin?

A.Protraction

B.Dorsiflection

C.Plantar flexion

D.Pronation

15.Which artery opens to allow oxygen-rich blood to pass from the left ventricle into
the aorta where the blood is delivered to the rest of the body?

A.Renal

BAortic

C.Superior vena cava

D.Inferior vena. cava

16.What syndrome is a condition caused by abnormal production of the hormone
gastrin?

A.Vogt-Koyanagi

B.Silvestroni-Bianco

C.Sudeck-Leriche

D.Zollinger-Ellison

17.How can air pass through the upper respiratory tract?

A.Via the nose, nasal cavity, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, and larynx
into the lower respiratory system.

B.Via the nose, larynx, and bronchus

C.Via nose, larynx, bronchus, and trachea

D.Via nose, larynx, bronchus, trachea, and pleura

18.What is the uvula?

A.A receptacle for urine before it is voided.

B.A female organ used to contain and nourish the embryo and fetus from the time the
fertilized egg is implanted to the time of birth of the fetus.

C.A small soft structure hanging from the free edge of the soft palate in midline
above the root of the tongue. It is composed of muscle, connective tissue, and
mucous membrane.

D.A canal, used for the discharge of urine, that extends from the bladder to the
outside of the body.

19.What bones make up the axial skeleton?

A.Skull, rib cage, and spine

B.Spine, collar bones, and arms

C.Shoulder bones, pelvic bones, arms, and legs

D.Coccyx, ulna, femur, and tibia

20.What term refers to white blood cells?

A.Erythrocytes

B.Monocytes
C.Lymphocytes

D.Leukocytes

21.Which statement(s) describe a passive natural acquired immunity process?

A.Use of immunoglobulin harvested from a donor who developed resistance against

specific antigens

B.The passage of antibodies through the placenta or breast milk

C.Immunization that uses a greatly weakened form of the antigen, thus enabling the
body to develop antibodies in response to this intentional exposure

D.Both A and C

22.What does the olecranon process refer to?

A.The elbow

B.Excision of a tumor in the large intestine

C.Plasma membranes

D.Use of a surgical endoscope in the knee

23What is the difference between entropion and ectropion?

A. Entropion is the inward turning of the eyelid and ectropion is the outward turning of the eyelid.

B. Entropion is the incomplete closure of the eyes and ectropion is the drooping of the eyelids.

C. Entropion is the outward turning of the eyelid and ectropion is the inward turning of the eyelid.

D. Entropion is the drooping of the eyelid due to nerve disorder and ectropion is the drooping of

the eyelid due to muscle disorder.

24.What type of graft is used when pigskin is applied to a burn wound?

A.Xenograft B. Allograft C. Autograft D. Pinch graft

25.Ventral, umbilical, spigelian and incisional are types of:

A Surgical approaches B. Hernias

C. Organs found in the digestive system D. Cardiac catheterizations

26.Fracturing the acetabulum involves what area?

A.Skull B. Shoulder C. Pelvis D. Leg

27.When a patient is having a tenotomy performed on the abductor hallucis muscle,

where is this muscle located?

A.Foot B. Upper Arm C. Upper Leg D. Hand

28What is the term used for inflammation of the bone and bone marrow?

A. Chondromatosis

B. Osteochondritis

C. Costochondritis

D. Osteomyelitis

29The root word trich/o means:

A. Hair

B. Sebum

C. Eyelid

D. Trachea

30.Complete this series: Frontal lobe, Parietal lobe, Temporal lobe, ____________.

A. Medulla lobe
 B. Occipital lobe

C. Middle lobe

D. Inferior lobe

31. A patient is having pyeloplasty performed to treat a uretero-pelvic junction

obstruction. What is being performed?

A. Surgical repair of the bladder

B. Removal of the kidney

C. Cutting into the ureter

D. Surgical reconstruction of the renal pelvis

32. Which of the following is an example of electronic data?

A. A digital X-ray

B. An explanation of benefits

C. An advance beneficiary notice

D. A written prescription

33. Which of the following health plans does not fall under HIPAA?

A. Medicaid
B. Medicare

C. Workers’ compensation

D. Private plans

34. Guidelines from which of the following code sets are included as part of the code set requirements under

HIPAA?

A. CPT®

B. ICD-9-CM

C. HCPCS Level II

D. ADA Dental Codes

35. Which of the following is an example of a case in which a diabetes-related problem exists and the code

for diabetes is never sequenced first?

A. If the patient has an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction

B. If the patient is being treated for secondary diabetes

C. If the patient is being treated for Type II diabetes

D. If the patient has hyperglycemia that is not responding to medication

36. Glomerulonephritis is an inflammation affecting which system?

A. Digestive

B. Nervous

C. Urinary

D. Cardiovascular

37. When a patient has fractured the proximal end of his humerus, where is the fracture located?

A. Upper end of the arm

B. Lower end of the leg

C. Upper end of the leg

D. Lower end of the arm

38. What is another term for when a physician performs a reduction on a displaced fracture?

A. Casting

B. Manipulation

C. Skeletal traction

D. External fixation

39. What does oligiospermia mean?

A. Presence of blood in the semen

B. Deficiency of sperm in semen

C. Having sperm in urine

D. Formation of spermatozoa

40. Thoracentesis is removing fluid or air from the:

A. Lung

B. Chest cavity

C. Thoracic vertebrae

D. Heart

41. An angiogram is a study to look inside:

A. Female Reproductive System

B. Urinary System

C. Blood Vessels

D. Breasts

42. When a person has labyrinthitis what has the inflammation?

A. Inner ear

B. Brain

C. Conjunctiva

D. Spine

43. Which place of service code should be reported on the physician’s claim for a surgical

procedure performed in an ASC?

A. 21

B. 22

C. 24

44. What is orchitis?

A. Inner ear imbalance B. Lacrimal infection

C. Inflammation of testis D. Inflammation of an

ilioinguinal hernia

45. The wound was debrided. What was done to the wound?

A. It was closed with layered sutures and dressed

B. It was medicated and left open to heal

C. It was cleansed of foreign materials or dead tissue

D. It was examined radiographically for defects

46. Which of the following patients might be documented as having meconium staining?

A. Woman with renal failure B. Teenage boy with sickle cell

anemia

C. Newborn with pneumonia D. Man with alcoholic cirrhosis

of liver

47. Which of the following anatomical sites have septums?

A. Nose, heart B. Kidney, lung

C. Sternum, coccyx D. Orbit, ovary

48. Lordosis is a disorder of which anatomical site?

A. Spine B. Integument

C. Male genitalia D. Nasal sinus

49. Which of the following place of service codes is reported for fracture care performed by an

orthopedic physician in the emergency department?

A. 11 B. 20

C. 22 D. 23

50. Which of the following is an example of fraud?

A. Reporting the code for ultrasound guidance when used to perform a liver biopsy.

B. Reporting a biopsy and excision performed on the same skin lesion during the same

encounter.

C. Failing to append modifier 26 on an X-ray that is performed in the physician’s office.

D. Failure to append modifier 57 on the EM service performed the day prior to a minor

procedure.

51.. What occurs in angiography?

A. The veins or arteries are viewed by X-ray B. The patient is checked for angina

C. The heart is viewed using ultrasonography D. The electrical current of the heart is

mapped

52. Meatus describes:

A. Septum B. Muscle

C. Passageway D. Nutrient

53. Which of the following is not like the other three?

A. Radius B. Femur

C. Tibia D. Calcaneus

54. What is the function of the esophagus?

A. To carry air from the pharynx into the lungs

B. To carry nutrients from the pharynx into the larynx

C. To carry air from the nose into the larynx

D. To carry nutrients from the pharynx into the stomach

55. for a patient who has had a primary malignancy of the thyroid cartilage that was

completely excised a year ago, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. When no further treatment is provided and there is no evidence of any existing

primary malignancy, code V10.87.

B. When further treatment is provided and there is evidence of an existing metastasis,

code first V10.87 and then 161.3.

C. Any mention of extension, invasion, or metastasis to another site is coded as a 239.1.

D. When further treatment is provided and there is evidence of an existing metastasis,

code first 197.3

56. In order to use the critical care codes, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Critical care services can be provided in an internist’s office

B. Critical care services provided for more than 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes

should be billed with 99291 and modifier 52.

C. Time spent reviewing laboratory test results or discussing the critically ill patient’s

care with other medical staff in the unit or at the nursing station on the floor cannot be

included in the determination of critical care time.

D. Critical care services can only be billed if the patient is in a licensed emergency room

or intensive care type unit (i.e., cardiac, surgical, respiratory).

57. Which of the following statements regarding advanced beneficiary notices (ABN) is

TRUE?

A. ABN must specify only the CPT® code that Medicare is expected to deny.

B. Generic ABN which states that a Medicare denial of payment is possible or the

internist is unaware whether Medicare will deny payment or not is acceptable.

C. An ABN must be completed before delivery of items or services are provided.

D. An ABN must be obtained from a patient even in a medical emergency when the

services to be provided are not covered.

58. Which of the following services are covered by Medicare Part B?

A. Inpatient chemotherapy
B. Minor surgery performed in a physician’s office

C. Routine dental care

D. Assisted living facility

59. What is the approach in PTCA?

A. The pancreatic and common bile ducts are accessed via the stomach and

duodenum.

B. A catheter is threaded through an extremity vein and into the heart.

C. A bronchoscope is threaded down the throat and into the alveoli of the lung.

D. Through a wide, open incision, the ankle fracture is reduced and internal fixation

placed.

60. A patient with a contralateral fracture has what?

A. A second fracture on the same side B. Multiple and complete bone

fractures

C. A fracture of only the surface of the bone D. A fracture on the opposite side

61. What is ascites?

A. Fluid in the abdomen B. Enlarged liver and

spleen

C. Abdominal malignancy D. Abdominal tenderness

62. Which of the following is a disorder of the facial nerve?

A. Exotropia B. Tarsal tunnel syndrome

C. Brachial plexis lesions D. Bell’s palsy

63. Which of the following describes functions of the lymphatic system?

A. Remove excess fluid from tissue and transports and protect the body against

disease

B. Maintain blood pressure and circulate hormones throughout the body

C. Return carbon dioxide to the lungs and protect the body against disease

D. Circulate hormones throughout body and return carbon dioxide to the lungs

64. Islets of Langerhans are found in which organ?

A. Kidney B. Parathyroid gland

C. Pancreas D. Liver

65. Which of the following conditions would most likely be attributed to hyperlipidemia?
A. Atherosclerosis B. Multiple myeloma

C. Kwashiorkor D. Pernicious anemia

66. Which of the following statements regarding the ICD-9-CM coding conventions is

TRUE?

A. If the same condition is described as both acute and chronic and separate

subentries exist in the Alphabetic Index at the same indentation level, code only the

acute condition.

B. Only assign a combination code when the Alphabetic Index explanation directs the

coder to use it.

C. An ICD-9-CM code is still valid even if it has not been coded to the full number of

digits required for that code.

D. Signs and symptoms that are integral to the disease process should not be assigned

as additional codes, unless otherwise instructed.

67. Which modifier should be append to a CPT®, for which the provider had a patient

sign an ABN form because there is a possibility the service may be denied because the

patient’s diagnosis might not meet medical necessity for the covered service?

A. GJ B. GA

C. GB D. GY
68. What is the patient’s right when it involves making changes in the personal medical

record?

A. Patient must work through an attorney to revise any portion of the personal

medical information.

B. They should be able to obtain copies of the medical record and request corrections

of errors and mistakes.

C. It is a violation of federal health care law to revise a patient medical record.

D. Revision of the patient medical record depends solely on the facility’s compliance

program policy.