College of Engineering and Technology

Department of Water Resources and Irrigation Engineering

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the primary force driving sediment transport in rivers?
A. Gravity
B. Wind
C. Ice
D. Vegetation
2. Which of the following parameters is NOT typically used to describe sediment size?
A. Diameter
B. Settling velocity
C. Density
D. Color
3. In the context of sediment transport, what does the term "bedload" refer to?
A. Sediment carried in suspension
B. Sediment that rolls or slides along the riverbed
C. Sediment deposited on floodplains
D. Sediment transported by wind
4. What is the main mechanism of sediment transport during high flow conditions?
A. Saltation
B. Suspension
C. Traction
D. All of the above
5. Which equation is commonly used to predict sediment transport capacity in rivers?
A. Manning's Equation
B. Einstein-Brown Equation
C. Darcy-Weisbach Equation
D. Bernoulli's Equation
6. What is the primary factor influencing the erosion of riverbanks?
 A. Vegetation cover
B. Water velocity
C. Sediment size
D. Temperature
7. In river engineering, what is a "check dam" primarily used for?
A. To increase water depth
B. To control sediment movement
C. To divert water flow
D. To enhance fish habitats
8. Which type of sediment transport is most significant in fine-grained sediments?
A. Bedload
B. Suspended load
C. Saltation
D. None of the above
9. What is the term for the process by which sediment settles out of the water column?
A. Erosion
B. Deposition
C. Transportation
D. Entrapment
10. Which method is commonly used to measure sediment concentration in rivers?
A. Flow velocity measurement
B. Water temperature measurement
C. Turbidity measurement
D. pH measurement

11. Which of the following is a primary purpose of dam construction?

A. Recreation
B. Flood control
C. Transportation
D. Urban development
12. What type of dam is most suitable for narrow, rocky gorges?
A. Gravity dam
B. Arch dam
 C. Buttress dam
D. Embankment dam
13. Which component of a dam allows controlled release of water downstream?
A. Spillway
B. Abutment
C. Crest
D. Toe
14. In dam engineering, what does the term "freeboard" refer to?
A. The width of the dam at its base
B. The height of the dam above the riverbed
C. The vertical distance between the maximum water surface and the top of the dam
D. The thickness of the dam wall
15. Which of the following is a common method for improving the foundation of a dam?
A. Grouting
B. Excavation
C. Piling
D. Compaction
16. What is the main advantage of a roller-compacted concrete (RCC) dam?
A. Flexibility
B. Low cost and rapid construction
C. High permeability
D. Aesthetic appeal
17. Which type of dam is primarily constructed using natural materials like earth and rock?
A. Gravity dam
B. Arch dam
C. Embankment dam
D. Buttress dam
18. What is the purpose of a cutoff wall in dam construction?
A. To support the dam structure
B. To prevent seepage under the dam
C. To allow fish migration
D. To provide access for maintenance
19. In dam safety analysis, what does the term "overtopping" refer to?
 A. Water seeping through the dam body
B. Water flowing over the top of the dam
C. Structural failure at the dam base
D. Cracking of the dam crest
20. Which instrument is commonly used to monitor seepage in dams?
A. Piezometer
B. Seismograph
C. Thermometer
D. Anemometer
21. What is the primary function of a spillway in a dam?
A. To store excess water
B. To generate electricity
C. To release excess water safely
D. To support the dam structure
22. Which factor is most critical in selecting a dam site?
A. Proximity to urban areas
B. Aesthetic value
C. Geological stability
D. Tourism potential
23. What is the main cause of siltation in reservoirs?
A. Wind erosion
B. Deforestation upstream
C. Dam height
D. Spillway design
24. Which dam type is best suited for wide valleys with strong foundations?
A. Arch dam
B. Gravity dam
C. Buttress dam
D. Embankment dam
25. What is the purpose of a toe drain in an embankment dam?
A. To provide structural support
B. To collect and remove seepage water
C. To anchor the dam to the foundation
 D. To facilitate construction access
26. Which of the following is a disadvantage of earthfill dams?
A. High construction cost
B. Susceptibility to erosion
C. Complex design requirements
D. Limited height
27. What is the main function of a dam's abutments?
A. To support the dam structure at its sides
B. To allow water passage
C. To generate electricity
D. To store sediment
28. In dam design, what does the term "hydrostatic pressure" refer to?
A. Pressure due to water flow
B. Pressure exerted by water at rest
C. Atmospheric pressure
D. Pressure from sediment accumulation
29. Which of the following is a common failure mode for dams?
A. Thermal expansion
B. Overtopping
C. Wind erosion
D. Lightning strikes
30. What is the primary consideration in the seismic design of dams?
A. Wind loads
B. Thermal effects
C. Earthquake-induced forces
D. Rainfall intensity
31. Canals used for transport of goods are known as.
A. Navigation canals
B. Power canals
C. A feeder canal
D. Irrigation canal
32. The main canal takes its supplies directly from:
A. Distributary
 B. Minor canal
C. Field channel
D. Headwork.
33. Which of the following components is not typically part of a diversion headwork?
A. Weir
B. Canal head regulator
C. Silt excluder
D. Aqueduct.
34. A fish ladder in a headwork’s structure is designed to:
A. Guide water around the weir
B. Allow fish to bypass the obstruction caused by the weir.
C. Filter silt before it enters the canal
D. Divert water to hydropower plants.
35. In a super passage, which of the following is true?
A. Canal passes over the drain.
B. Canal and drain mix water.
C. Drain passes freely over the canal
D. Canal flows under pressure
36. A canal drop are provide to __________?
A. Dissipate the excess energy.
B. Increase the driving head of flow of water.
C. Dissipate the excess of land slope
D. Dissipate inadequate land slope
37. Which of the following is not a cross-drainage work?
A. Aqueduct.
B. Escape.
C. Super passage.
D. Syphon aqueduct
38. Which of the following is not a type of canal?
A. Irrigation canal
B. Navigation canal
C. Drainage canal
D. Volcanic canal.
39. Which of the following is a structure used for crossing in canal systems?
A. Aqueduct.
B. Barrage.
C. Weir.
D. Dam
40. In which structure does a drainage channel pass over a canal?
A. Aqueduct
B. Super passage.
C. Syphon aqueduct
D. Level crossing
41. Duty of irrigation water is least at
A. At the field
B. At the head of the main canal.
C. At the head of branch
D. All
42. Which of the following structures is specifically used to carry a canal over a natural drain or
river?
A. Weir
B. Syphon
C. Aqueduct.
D. Head regulator.
43. Which structure is used when both canal and drainage are at the same level and cross each other?
A. Level crossing.
B. Aqueduct.
C. Syphon.
D. Escape
44. What are the Functions of a diversion head works?
A. It raises the water level
B. It regulate the supply of water into the canal
C. It controls the entry of silt into canals
D. It helps in controlling the vagaries of the river
E. All.
45. When drainage water is passed under a canal under pressure, the structure used is called:
 A. Super Passage.
B. Syphon.
C. Aqueduct.
D. Escape
46. What are the main types of canals?
A. Irrigation, navigation, and drainage canals.
B. Rivers, lakes, and waterfalls
C. Urban, rural, and industrial canals
D. Natural, artificial, and hybrid canals
47. Which one of the following is a flow measuring device formed by a constriction in an open
channel?
A. Flume.
B. Spillway
C. Sluice gate
D. Weir
E. Volumetric assessment
48. The assessment of irrigation water charges can be done in one of the following ways.
A. Based on soil type.
B. Based on crop and area irrigated.
C. Based on rainfall received.
D. Based on number of farmers in the command area
49. What type of distribution structure is used to increase the pressure in a canal?
A. Cross regulator
B. Head regulator
C. Outlet
D. Falls.
50. If the optimum depth of watering is 15.12cm then the outlet factor for the crop is for four week,
what is duty?
A. 1,600ha/cumec.
B. 1,700ha/cumec
C. 241ha/cumec
D. 230ha/cumec.
51. Crop water requirement is the water required by the plant for what?
 A. Survival
B. Growth
C. Development
D. All.
52. The water utilizable by plant is available in soil mainly in the form
A. Capillary water.
B. Hydro-scoping water
C. Chemical water
D. Gravity water.
53. A syphon is used when:
A. The canal and the drainage are at the same level.
B. The canal passes over a river or drain.
C. The drainage passes under the canal under pressure.
D. The canal needs to be regulated
54. Which one of the following is canal which could be lined with non-erodible material?
A. Alluvial canals.
B. Non alluvial.
C. Inundation /flood canal
D. Permanente/ perennial canal
55. Silt excluders are installed in a diversion head-works to:
A. Prevent river water from entering the canal
B. Remove silt from the canal system.
C. Prevent entry of sediment-laden water into the canal
D. Measure water velocity
56. The divide wall in a head-works structure serves the purpose of:
A. Supporting the canal embankment.
B. Dividing flood and normal flow
C. Controlling silt distribution and directing flow to the canal.
D. Regulating flow into multiple canals
57. Which of the following is the primary function of the weir in a headwork structure?
A. To regulate sediment flow into the canal.
B. To store water for irrigation.
C. To raise the water level for diversion into canals
 D. To discharge surplus water
58. What is the role of the under-sluice in a diversion headwork?
A. To raise water level.
B. To flush out silt from the canal head regulator
C. To control flood discharge.
D. To measure water flow
59. Match the following drainage crossing methods with their characteristics:
1. Aqueduct
2. Super Passage
3. Siphon
a. Canal passes over the drainage
b. Drainage passes over the canal
c. One stream passes under pressure

Options
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
D. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
60. What is a level crossing in canal engineering?
A. Drainage channel flows over a canal.
B. A canal flows under a drain.
C. A canal and drainage channel cross each other at the same level.
D. Abridge over a canal.
61. Direct runoff is made up of
A. Surface runoff, prompt interflow and channel precipitation
B. Surface runoff, infiltration and evaporation
C. Overland flow and infiltration
D. Rainfall and evaporation
62. A hydrograph is a plot of
A. Rainfall intensity against time
B. Stream discharge against time
C. Cumulative rainfall against time
 D. Cumulative runoff against time
63. The term base flow denotes
A. Delayed groundwater flow reaching a stream
B. Delayed groundwater and snowmelt reaching a stream
C. Delayed groundwater and interflow
D. The annual minimum flow in a stream
64. An intermittent stream
A. Has water table above the stream bed throughout the year
B. Has only flash flows in response to storms
C. Has a flows in the stream during wet season due to contribution of groundwater
D. Does not have any contribution of groundwater at any time
65. The flow-duration curve is a plot of
A. Accumulated flow against time
B. Discharge against time in chronological order
C. The base flow against the percentage of times the flow is expected
D. The stream discharge against the percentage of times the flow is equaled or exceeded
66. A unit-hydrograph has a one unit of
A. A, peak discharge
B. B, rainfall duration
C. Direct runoff
D. The time base of direct runoff
67. The basic assumptions of the unit-hydrograph theory are
A. Nonlinear response and time invariance
B. Time invariance and linear response
C. Linear response and linear time variance
D. Nonlinear time variance and linear response
68. An instantaneous unit-hydrograph is a hydrograph of
A. Unit duration and infinitely small rainfall excess
B. Infinitely small duration and of unit rainfall excess
C. Infinitely small duration and of unit rainfall excess of an infinitely small area
D. Unit rainfall excess on infinitely small area
69. The hydrologic flood routing methods use
A. Equation of continuity only
 B. Both momentum and continuity equations
C. Energy equation only
D. Equation of motion only
70. The hydraulic methods of flood routing use
A. Equation of continuity only
B. Both momentum and continuity equations
C. Energy equation only
D. Equation of motion only
71. The Muskingum method of flood routing is a
A. Form of reservoir routing method
B. Hydraulic routing method
C. Complete numerical solution of St Venant equations
D. Hydrologic channel routing method
72. A linear reservoir is one in which the
A. Volume varies linearly with elevation
B. Storage varies linearly with the outflow rate
C. Storage varies linearly with time
D. Storage varies linearly with the inflow rate
73. A watershed of area 90ha has a runoff coefficient of 0.4. A storm of duration larger than the time
of concentration of the watershed and of intensity of 4.5 cm/h create a peak discharge of
A. 11.3 m3/s
B. 0.45 m3/s
C. 450 m3/s
D. 4.5m3/s
74. For an annual flood series arranged in decreasing order of magnitude, the return period for a
magnitude listed at position m in a total of N entries, by Weibull formula is
A. m/N
B. m/(N+1)
C. (N+1)/m
D. N/(m+1)
75. The probability that a hundred year flood may not occur at all during the 50 year life of a project
is
A. 0.395
 B. 0.001
C. 0.605
D. 0.133
76. What is the other name for Flood Irrigation?
A. Flow Irrigation
B. Lift Irrigation
C. Surface Irrigation
D. Uncontrolled irrigation
77. In which of the following types of irrigation water is supplied to the crops throughout their crop
period?
A. Perennial Irrigation
B. Flood Irrigation
C. Direct Irrigation
D. Storage Irrigation
78. What is the other name of perennial irrigation system?
A. Direct Irrigation
B. Storage Irrigation
C. Controlled Irrigation
D. Flood Irrigation
79. Diversion scheme, comes under which type of irrigation system?
A. Direct Irrigation
B. Storage Irrigation
C. Flow Irrigation
D. Inundation Irrigation
80. In what type of irrigation system land property gets submerged?
A. Combined System
B. Storage Irrigation
C. Perennial Irrigation
D. Flow Irrigation
81. Irrigation from wells is what type of irrigation system?
A. Lift Irrigation
B. Tank Irrigation
C. Direct Irrigation
 D. Flow Irrigation
82. What type of irrigation system needs mechanical means to supply water for irrigation?
A. Combined System
B. Storage Irrigation
C. Lift Irrigation
D. Perennial Irrigation
83. In which of the following types of irrigation systems hydroelectric power can be generated?
A. Storage Irrigation
B. Perennial Irrigation
C. Flood Irrigation
D. Lift Irrigation
84. What is the process of a plant called, through which it leaves water?
A. Photosynthesis
B. Transpiration
C. Evapotranspiration
D. Chlorosis
85. On which factor does the transpiration loss also depends on?
A. Available Moisture
B. Type of Soil
C. Type of Irrigation
D. Method of Irrigation
86. On what factor does transpiration ratio depends on?
A. Water
B. Soil
C. Air
D. Moisture
87. On what factors Potential Evapotranspiration critically depends?
A. Climatological Factors
B. Types of Crop
C. Types of Soil
88. On what factors Actual Evapotranspiration depends?
A. Climatological Factors
B. Types of Crop
 C. Types of Soils
D. Characteristics of Soil and Vegetation
89. Which type of method is adopted for research studies on crops?
A. Phytometer Method
B. Lysimeter Method
C. Furrow Irrigation Method
D. Drip Irrigation Method
90. Uniformity coefficient is also known as ____________
A. Water conveyance efficiency
B. Consumptive use efficiency
C. Water distribution efficiency
D. Water storage efficiency
91. What is the primary goal of water resource planning and management?
A. Maximizing water use for industries
B. Ensuring sustainable and equitable water distribution
C. Increasing groundwater extraction
D. Reducing rainfall infiltration
92. Climate change is expected to impact water resources by:
A. Decreasing variability in rainfall
B. Increasing glacier volumes
C. Altering precipitation patterns and intensifying droughts/floods
D. Reducing evaporation rates
93. Which model is commonly used for river basin planning?
A. WEAP
B. SWAT
C. MODFLOW
D. All of the above
94. A town with a population of 500,000 faces a severe drought. The annual water demand is 10
million m3, but due to low rainfall, only 6 million m3 is available. The government must
implement emergency measures. Which strategy is the most appropriate for short-term drought
mitigation?
A. Constructing a new dam
B. Implementing water rationing and public awareness campaigns
 C. Expanding irrigation for agriculture
D. Increasing groundwater extraction indefinitely
95. If the town’s reservoir has a capacity of 200 million and is currently 30% full. How much water is
available?
A. 66 million m3
B. 140 million m3
C. 60 million m3
D. 100 million m3
96. Assume two countries share a river. Country X which is on upstream plans to build a large dam,
reducing flow to country Y which is on downstream where the farmers rely on the river for
irrigation. Which principle of the international water law is the most relevant for resolving the
dispute?
A. Absolute territorial sovereignty
B. Prior appropriation
C. Equitable and reasonable utilization
D. Unlimited groundwater right
97. Refers to the question No. 96 above, which tool could help to negotiate for a fair solution?
A. WEAP model to simulate water allocation scenarios
B. Increasing tariffs on water use
C. Banning all dams construction
D. Ignoring downstream needs
98. A basin has an annual rainfall of 1200mm, evapotranspiration of 800mm, and a runoff 300mm.
what is the groundwater recharge?
A. 2300mm
B. 100mm
C. 700mm
D. 500mm
99. The Benefit-Cost Ration (BCR) of a dam project is 1.5 times. What does this imply?
A. Costs exceed benefits
B. Benefits are 1.5 times the costs
C. The project is environmentally unsustainable
D. Benefits are equal to costs
100. A reservoir has an inflow of 500 million m3/year, evaporation losses of 50 million m3/year, and
water demand of 400 million m3/year. Assuming no seepage losses. What is the change in storage
after 2 years?
A. +100 million m3
B. +50 million m3/year
C. -100 million m3
D. -50 million m3/year
101. A farmer illegally diverts river water during a drought and causing a downstream ecosystems to
collapse. Which ethical principle is violated?
A. Utilitarianism
B. Prior appropriation
C. Intergenerational equity
D. Riparian rights
102. Stakeholder participation in water planning is critical to:
A. Speed up decision-making unilaterally
B. Ensure equity and reduce conflicts
C. Centralize power with the government
D. Limit public awareness
103. A Community members oppose a dam project due to displacement. The best approach is:
A. Ignore protest and proceed
B. Reduce dam height without studies
C. Offer compensation and alternative livelihoods
D. Delay indefinitely
104. A project has a total benefit of ETB 10 million and a total cost of ETB 7 million. Its Benefit-Cost
Ratio (BCR) is:
A. 0.7
B. 17
C. 1.43
D. 70
105. What is the principle of “Prior appropriation” in water rights?
A. Equal distribution among all users
B. First in time, first in right
C. Government-controlled allocation
 D. Market based trading system
106. Why pipes are usually designed as a circular cross section?
A. Circular cross section are feasibly economical
B. Circular cross section pipes can accommodate the transportation of adequate water
quantity to users
C. Circular cross section can withstand the pressure different between inside and outside of
the pipe.
D. The design of circular cross section pipe has been very simple to engineers.
107. Differentiate the correct statement about pumping requirement for water and oil.
A. Pumping requirement smaller for oil than water.
B. Pumping requirement higher for oil than water
C. Pumping requirement equally for both oil and water
D. Pumping requirement smaller for water than oil
108. What is the reason behind independence of friction factor along large Reynolds number?
A. At very large Reynolds numbers, the flow is fully rough and Turbulent
B. The thickness of viscous sub layer decreases with increasing Reynolds number, and it
becomes so thin that the surface roughness protrudes into the flow.
C. The viscous effects in this case are produced in the main flow primarily by the protruding
roughness elements, and the contribution of the viscous sub layer is negligible.
D. All of the above
109. Water fountain is to be installed at a remote location by attaching a cast iron pipe directly to a
water main. For a specified flow rate, the minimum diameter of the piping system is to be
determined. What are the possible assumptions
A. The flow is steady and incompressible.
B. The entrance effects are not negligible,
C. The flow is fully developed and the friction factor is varied for the entire pipe.
D. The pressure at the water main is dynamic.
110. Hot water in a water tank is circulated through a loop made of cast iron pipes at a specified
average velocity; the required power input for the recirculating pump is to be determined. Which
of following is possible assumptions;
A. The flow is steady and incompressible.
B. The flow is fully developed and The flow is laminar
C. Minor losses other than those for elbows and valves are not negligible.
 D. Flow is uniform and compressible
111. For flow in non-circular tube, which of the following is applicable;
A. Hydraulics diameter
B. Reynolds number
C. Friction factor
D. Flow diameter
112. The region from the tube inlet to the point at which the boundary layer merges at the centerline is
known as
A. Viscous Sub layer region
B. Hydrodynamic entrance region
C. Laminar region
D. Turbulent region
113. What is the most essential property of volume flow rate in laminar region;
A. Rounded pipe is predominant
B. Measuring flow velocity at vicinity of pipe
C. Partially developed flow region
D. Non- circular pipe is required

114. Which one of the following statement is not true about the head loss when the pipe diameter is
halved?
A. Decrease of head loss by halve
B. Increase of head loss by factors of 16
C. Flow rate and pipe remains constant
D. Reduction in pumping demands.
115. What is the main cause of friction factor in case of turbulent flow?
A. Present of large diameter
B. High flow rate
C. High viscous force
D. Present of turbulent eddies
116. What is defined as the ratio of the wetted area to its wetted perimeter?
A. Hydraulics depth
B. Hydraulics Radius
C. Depth of flow
 D. Slope of the flow
117. If the width of the rectangular notch is doubled, then the discharge will------
A. Become half
B. Increase by three time
C. Doubled
D. Remain constant
118. Identify the flow control device shown in below figure

A. Parshall flume
B. Notch
C. Sutro weir
D. None of the above

119. Which of the following is true about most economical trapezoidal channel section presented in
below figure?

A. Maximum perimeter.
B. Minimum water quantity can pass through
C. Side angle is always 30o
D. Hydraulic radius equals to half of flow depth
120. what is the differentiation of the two hydraulic grade line presented below;

A. Velocity heads
B. Peziometric heads
C. Pressure heads
D. Potential heads
121. An open channel flow where resistance and gravitational force are balanced to govern the flow
patterns is -----
A. Gradual varied flow
B. Rapid varied flow
C. Uniform flow
D. Non-uniform
122. The simplest resistance and the most widely used equation for computation of means velocity of
flow is -----------
A. Chezy equation
B. Darcy –wiesbach equation
C. Manning equation
D. Bernoulli equation
123. The figure below described the hydraulics jump occurrence, and then which of the following
statement is correct about critical flow;

A. Wave propagation remains constant

B. Neither upstream nor downstream can influence the flow system
C. Specific energy and specific force are at minimum level for the given discharge
D. All of the above
124. The figure below represented the pipeline network systematic operation for a certain water
supply network. The system had shown water hammer prevalence and what could be the cause of
this condition?

A. High discharge flowing through pipe

B. High velocity
C. Pump shutoff
D. High tidal wave

125. Following equation is known as…

𝜌
𝑝+ 𝑣 2 + 𝜌𝑔ℎ = Constant
2

A. Manning equations
 B. Continuity Equation
C. Darch-wiesbach equation
D. Bernoulli equation
126. The fundamental difference between pipe flow and open channel flow is -----
A. The pipe flow used drag force while open channel use pressure
B. Hydrostatic is most common in open channel than pipe flow
C. Hydraulic pressure in closed conduit while gravitational force is applicable in open channel
D. Bernoulli principle is obeyed in open channel
127. The figure below presented the pipe line network of a given city

What is the type of pipeline network of the above water supply distribution system-----?
A. Ring
B. Radial system
C. Gridiron
D. Dead-end
128. A condition where the flow parameters at a given point in the fluid do not change over time,
even though the flow parameters may vary at different points in the flow field referred to -----
A. Uniform flow
B. Non-uniform flow
C. Steady flow
D. Non-steady
129. When subcritical flow encounters a bump, the water level upstream will rise. This phenomenon
is known as ------
A. Afflux
B. Choking
C. Hydraulic jump
D. Falling in depth
130. Pressure applied anywhere to a body of fluid causes a force to be transmitted equally in all
directions, with the force acting at right angles to any surface in contact with the fluid. This is
known as
A. Pascal's law
B. Newton’s law
C. Continuity principle
D. Bernoulli principle
131. What is the primary purpose of a water treatment plant?
A. To collect rainwater
B. To treat wastewater
C. To purify drinking water
D. To distribute water
132. Which of the following is a common method for disinfecting drinking water?
A. Filtration
B. Chlorination
C. Sedimentation
D. Aeration
133. What is the main function of a sewer system?
A. To supply drinking water
B. To transport wastewater
C. To provide irrigation
D. To manage stormwater
134. Which type of water source is typically the most reliable for municipal water supply?
A. Rainwater harvesting
B. Surface water
C. Groundwater
D. Desalination
135. What is the standard measure of water flow rate in a distribution system?
A. Liters per second
B. Cubic meters per hour
C. Gallons per minute
D. All of the above
136. Which of the following contaminants is most commonly removed during the primary treatment
of wastewater?
A. Nutrients
B. Pathogens
C. Suspended solids
D. Heavy metals
137. What does the term "BOD" stand for in wastewater treatment?
A. Biological Overload Demand
B. Biochemical Oxygen Demand
C. Biological Oxygen Demand
D. Biochemical Overload Demand
138. In terms of water quality, what is the acceptable level of coliform bacteria in potable water?
A. 1 CFU/100 mL
B. 10 CFU/100 mL
C. 0 CFU/100 mL
D. 100 CFU/100 mL
139. Which component of a water supply system is used to store treated water before distribution?
A. Pumping station
B. Reservoir
C. Treatment plant
D. Filtration unit
140. What is the primary goal of sustainable sanitation systems?
A. To reduce costs
B. To improve aesthetics
C. To protect public health and the environment
D. To increase water supply
141. Which of the following is a common method of primary treatment in wastewater management?
A. Biological filtration
 B. Chemical coagulation
C. Sedimentation
D. Aeration
142. What is the main function of a septic tank?
A. To disinfect wastewater
B. To separate solids from liquids
C. To filter water
D. To store drinking water
143. Which pollutant is commonly associated with agricultural runoff?
A. Heavy metals
B. Pathogens
C. Nutrients (nitrogen and phosphorus)
D. Plastics
144. What is the purpose of a bioswale
A. To treat drinking water
B. To manage stormwater runoff
C. To recycle wastewater
D. To generate electricity
145. What is the purpose of envelope or filter material in subsurface drainage systems?
A. To accelerate water flow into the pipe
B. To protect the pipe from UV rays
C. To prevent soil particles from entering the drain
D. To act as a chemical fertilizer
146. Which drainage design method is based on steady-state conditions and is widely used for
horizontal drains?
A. Hooghoudt’s equation
B. Glover-Dumm equation
C. Darcy-Weisbach formula
D. Hazen-Williams equation
147. In a drainage layout, the collector drain serves to:
A. Directly remove water from root zones
B. Convey water from field laterals to the main drain
C. Supply irrigation water to fields
 D. Act as a filter medium
148. The spacing between drains in a subsurface system depends on:
A. Only on crop type
B. Depth of drain and soil permeability
C. Annual rainfall
D. Soil salinity level only
149. The critical depth of water in a surface drain is the depth at which:
A. Flow is fastest
B. Energy gradient is zero
C. Specific energy is minimum
D. Water temperature is optimal
150. If the soil permeability is 1 m/day and the effective radius of a drain is 20 m, what is the
drainage rate according to Darcy’s Law assuming a gradient of 0.01?
A. 1.26 m³/day
B. 12.6 m³/day
C. 125.6 m³/day
D. 200 m³/day
151. The main function of a subsurface drainage system is to:
A. Protect against surface water erosion
B. Reduce soil salinity
C. Improve soil aeration by lowering the water table
D. Supply irrigation water
152. Which law governs the flow of water in saturated soils during subsurface drainage design?
A. Darcy’s Law
B. Bernoulli’s Equation
C. Fick’s Law
D. Hooke’s Law
153. The unit commonly used for drainage coefficient in drainage engineering is:
A. m³/s
B. mm/day
C. L/min
D. m/s²
154. In mole drainage, the mole drains are:
 A. Temporary surface ditches
B. Unglazed earthen channels created by pulling a torpedo-shaped implement through the soil
C. Concrete lined open drains
D. Perforated pipes placed deep underground
155. In a flat terrain with slow natural drainage, the most effective drainage method is:
A. Deep vertical drainage wells
B. Random system of tile drains
C. Parallel lateral tile drainage system
D. Contour ditches
156. Which of the following materials is most commonly used as a filter around perforated drainage
pipes?
A. Coarse sand or gravel
B. Clay
C. Bentonite
D. Topsoil
157. Which of the following is not a primary benefit of agricultural drainage?
A. Improved trafficability for machinery
B. Better root zone aeration
C. Increased waterlogging
D. Enhanced crop yield
158. The drainage coefficient is defined as:
A. The amount of water a soil can retain after one hour
B. The infiltration capacity of the soil
C. The amount of water to be removed from a given area in a unit time
D. The slope of the water table
159. If the spacing between tile drains is 30 meters and the drainage coefficient is 5 mm/day, what is
the required flow rate per meter length of drain (in m³/day)?
A. 0.15 m³/day
B. 0.005 m³/day
C. 1.5 m³/day
D. 0.05 m³/day
160. Vertical drainage is more effective than horizontal drainage when:
A. Soil has high permeability
 B. Groundwater is saline and shallow
C. Soil is clayey and poorly permeable
D. Surface runoff is high
161. A rectangular surface drain is 2 m wide and carries water at a depth of 0.5 m. If the velocity is
1.2 m/s, what is the discharge?
A. 0.6 m³/s
B. 1.0 m³/s
C. 1.2 m³/s
D. 2.0 m³/s
162. A major environmental concern of poorly managed drainage systems is:
A. Increased soil fertility
B. Salinization of groundwater
C. Reduced biodiversity
D. Increased infiltration
163. A subsurface drain is designed to remove 6 mm/day of water from a 1-hectare field. What is the
total volume of water to be drained per day?
A. 6 m³
B. 60 m³
C. 600 m³
D. 6000 m³
164. A perforated drain pipe has a diameter of 0.2 m. If it flows full at a velocity of 1 m/s, what is the
flow rate?
A. 0.0314 m³/s
B. 0.0628 m³/s
C. 0.1256 m³/s
D. 0.25 m³/s
165. The search of groundwater got increased, due to_____________________
A. When Groundwater source of water gets replenished after the heavy rainfall.
B. Availability of sources
C. Declining water tables
D. When Groundwater is not uniformly distributed everywhere
166. From the figure below, how do you called the out flow from groundwater to surface water?
A. Capillary rise
 B. Seepage.
C. Infiltration.
D. Percolation,
E. Groundwater flow

167. One of the following statement is not true about Aquifers

A. Unconsolidated deposits of sand and gravel form good aquifers
B. It is a water-bearing layer for which the porosity and pore size are sufficiently large
C. It only stores water but yields insufficient quantity due to its low permeability.
D. None
168. The law of the conservation of mass states _______________
A. Volume inflowing in unit time - Volume out flowing in unit time = Change in storage
B. Groundwater mass in the control volume is equal to its volume times the change in density
and porosity n.
C. The sum of the gains or losses of mass flow in the X, Y, and Z directions is equal to the loss
or gain in mass of the groundwater
D. All
169. Which one of the following is not the objective of water well?
A. Provide water of good quality

B. Provide water in a sufficient quantity

C. Provide water for a long time

 D. Provide water at a high cost

170. ___________________is the discharge per unit drawdown at the well (Q/Sw) which is used
for the measuring of the performance of the well during operation?

A. Pumping test data of drawdown

B. specific capacity

C. Well losses

D. Piezometric head

A. An unplanned recharge that occurs where water enters the ground as a result of a human
activity whose primary objective is unrelated to artificial recharge of groundwater is refers
to_____________

B. Incidental Recharge
C. Indirect recharge
D. Localized recharge
E. Artificial Recharge
171. As far as the diffuse sources of pollution are concerned, which practices may contribute highly
to the conservation of groundwater quality?
A. Control of land use Practices
B. Strict regulations on the disposal of industrial and hazardous domestic waste
C. Control of agricultural practices
D. All
172. 9: During groundwater modelling, what will you do if the area of study is small?
A. Regional groundwater flow assessment
B. Fine-grid model with high data-density should be used.
C. Combining the mass balance equation and Darcy’s Law to produces the governing
equation for groundwater flow.
D. All
173. 10: The groundwater flow lines or streamlines which are drawn perpendicular to the contour
lines on the contour maps that end up with a map showing a grid of squares or rectangles is referred
to_____________________
A. Isotypes maps
 B. Groundwater contours
C. Flow net
D. All
174. How does drip irrigation compare to above-ground sprinklers?
(A) Drip systems deliver water at a slower rate, directly to the roots.
(B) Minimizes evaporation and water loss.
(C) Sprinklers apply water more broadly, leading to more evaporation and water waste.
(D) All of the above are correct.
175. Which one of the following is not an advantage of using sprinkler irrigation?
(A) Elimination of the channels for conveyance, therefore no conveyance loss.
(B) Suitable to all types of soil except heavy clay.
(C) Minimization of evaporation and water loss.
(D) It is most suitable for oil seeds and other cereal and vegetable crops.
176. Based on the portability, sprinkler systems are classified into different types. Which one of
the following is not among the types of sprinkler system?
(A) Portable system.
(B) Semi portable system.
(C) Solid set system.
(D) Permanent system.
(E) None of the above.
177. A sprinkler system usually consists of the following components except
(A) Pump unit.
(B) Tubings.
(C) Couplers.
(D) Sprinkler head.
(E) None of the above.
178. Which one of the following is not correct about the general rules for design of sprinkler
system?

(A) Main should be laid across the slope.

(B) Lateral should be laid across the slope or nearly on the contour.
(C) For multiple lateral operation, lateral pipe sizes should not be more than two diameter
Water supply source should be nearest to the center of the area.
 (D) Layout should facilitate and minimize lateral movement during the season.
(E) Booster pump should be considered where small portion of field would require high pressure
at the pump
179. The most important physical parameters to be considered while selecting a sprinkler system
are the following except
(A) The crop or crops to be cultivated.
(B) The shape and size (acres) of the field.
(C) The topography of the field.
(D) The amount of time and labor required to operate the system.
(E) None of the above.
180. Which one of the following is wrong regarding the constraints in the application of a
sprinkler system?
(A) Uneven water distribution due to high winds
(B) Less evaporation loss when operating under high temperatures
(C) Highly impermeable soils are not suitable
(D) Initial cost is high
(E) Proper design
181. Which one of the following is not among the design principles?
(A) Estimate application rate based on planned crop(s)/cropping patterns, atmospheric water
demand, and soil intake rate.
(B) Draw a layout.
(C) Optimize sprinkler spacing (between sprinklers and laterals), nozzle size, and operating
pressure that provide the design application rate and distribution pattern.
(D) Design sub-mains, main lines, and supply lines such that required water quantities can be
conveyed to all operating lateral lines at required pressures.
(E) None of the above.
182. Which one of the following is a merit of drip irrigation system?
(A) Increased water use efficiency.
(B) Better crop yield.
(C) Uniform and better quality of the produce.
(D) All of the above.
183. What are the benefits of drip irrigation?
 (A) Drip irrigation can conserve water by reducing water usage by 50% or more compared to
other methods.
(B) Drip irrigation improved efficiency because water is applied directly to the root zone, thereby
minimizing waste.
(C) Drip irrigation increases crop production because more efficient water can lead to higher
yield.
(D) Drip irrigation reduces can help reduce diseases through spread contact with foliage.
(E) All of the above are correct.
184. Which one of the following is not among the types of drip irrigation system?
(A) Soaker hose.
(B) Emitter systems.
(C) Drip tapes.
(D) Mirco-misting systems.
(E) None of the above.
185. Which of the following types of irrigation method is also called as trickle irrigation?
(A) Furrow irrigation method.
(B) Check flooding.
(C) Sprinkler irrigation method.
(D) Drip irrigation method.
186. Which of the following type of irrigation methods uses supply ditch, borders, and ridges?
(A) Check flooding.
(B) Basin flooding.
(C) Drip irrigation method.
(D) Border flooding
187. What is the annual intensity of irrigation (AII)?
(A) Cultivable Command Area/Gross Irrigated Area.
(B) Net Irrigated Area/Cultivable Command Area.
(C) Cultivable Command Area/Net Irrigated Area.
(D) Gross Irrigated Area//Cultivable Command Area.
188. On which of the following factors does the pricing of irrigation water is done at a flat rate?
(A) For the whole field sown.
(B) Per Hectare.
(C) Amount of irrigation water used.
 (D) Types of crops sown.
189. An irrigation project is classified as a major project when the CCA involved in the project is
more than ______.
(A) 2500 hectares.
(B) 10,000 hectares.
(C) 2000 hectares.
(D) 5000 hectares.
190. Which of the following strainers is used for shallow irrigation tubewells particularly in
deltaic regions of developing countries?
(A) Pipe strainers with fine mesh jackets.
(B) Coir rope strainers.
(C) Louver type strainer.
(D) Continuous slot type of strainer.
191. Which one of the following is not among the common problems with drip irrigation?
(A) Clogged emitters
(B) Leaking lines.
(C) Inadequate pressure
(D) Incorrect emitter spacing.
(E) None of the above.
192. M Maize crop of 20 ha is to be irrigated from a submergible pump. The maximum
permissible interval between two irrigations at peak period is 12 days and the depth of each
irrigation is 60 mm. If the maximum allowable operating period of the pump is 10 h/day, what is
the pump capacity to meet the water demand of the farm?
(A) 12, 000m3/h
(B) 0.97m3/s.
(C) 0.0278m3/s.
(D) None of the above.