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CW - 2 (Inspire Test Series)

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
49 views21 pages

CW - 2 (Inspire Test Series)

Uploaded by

vedantswami48
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Shiv Chhatrapati Shikshan Sanstha, Latur.

CET (PPE) – CELL


Sections : Physics Chemistry Botany Zoology
Questions : 50 50 50 50
Marks : 180 180 180 180
Roll No. TEST SERIES
CW-02
Date : 27 Jan, 2024

2 33 INSPIRE-2023-24 Time : 3.20 Hours

Physics : Electrostatics (Electric Field, Potential & Capacitor)


4. Charge q is uniformly distributed on the rod.
Section - ‘A’ Find the electric field at P
1. Find the force on charge q kept at D.

3kq 5kq
1) r(r  l) 2) r(r  l)

2 kq kq
3) r(r  l) 4) r(r  l)
1)


1  kQq
 2  2
2 a
2)  2 1  kQq
a2
5. A charge (q, m) is given velocity v0 along a
 1  2 kQq uniform electric field E. Find the velocity at
3)  2 1  kQq
a
4)  2  
2
 2  a2 2 mv 0
time t = qE .
2. Charge q is fixed but the block is free to move.
Find d for which block is just about to move 1) 2v 0 2) v0
3) 3v 0 4) –v 0
6. Find the electric field intensity at points P2

qQ 2qQ
1) ( 3 0 mg ) 2) ( 3 0 mg )

qQ qQ
3) ( 4  0 mg ) 4) ( 2  0 mg )
 3
3. Q and 16Q are fixed. Find x and q for which 1) 4  0 r () 2) 2  r ()
system will remain in equilibrium 0

2
3) () 4) zero
4  0 r
7. 27 smaller drops combine to form a bigger
drop if the potential on a smaller drop is V
d 16Q d 16Q then the potential on a bigger drop will be
1) , 2) ,–
3 25 5 25 1) 9V 2) 3 V
d 16Q d 16Q 3) 27 V 4) 1/3 V
3) , 4) ,–
5 25 3 25

SCSS Page 1
Inspire Test Series -2024 CW-02
8. Find the force on charge q by the ring 12. A ring and a sphere of the same radius intersect
with centres on their peripheries. Charge Q is
uniformly distributed in the ring. Find flux
through the sphere

Sphere
3Qq 5Qq
1) 16 0 R 2 2)
64 0 R 2 Ring

2 Qq 3Qq
3) 4) q q
16  0 R 2 32 0 R 2 1) =  2)  = 2
0 0
9. Find the electric field intensity at centre C.
q q
3)  = 3 4)  = 6
0 0

13. Which one of the following patterns of the


electric line of force can’t be possible?

  
1)    sin   1) 2)
 2  0 R   2
   
2)    sin 
 4  0 R   2
3) 4)
 3   
3)    sin 
 2  0 R   2
14. Charges +q and –q are placed at points A and
 3    B, respectively which are a distance 2L apart,
4)    sin  C is the midpoint between A and B. The work
 5 0 R   2
done by electric field in moving a charge +Q
10. Radius of the cylinder is R. Find the flux along the semicircle CRD is
through the cylinder

qQ qQ
1) 4 0 L 2) 2 L
0

1) R 2 E 2) –2R 2 E qQ qQ
3) 3R 2 E 4) 0 3) 6 0 L 4) – 6  L
0
11. What is the flux through a cube of side ‘a’ if a
15. The variation of electrostatic potential with
point charge q is at one of its corners?
radial distance r from the centre of a positively
charged metallic thin shell of radius R is given
by the graph

1) 2)
2q q
1) 0 2) 8
0

q q
3) 0 4) 2 6a2 3) 4)
0

SCSS Page 2
Inspire Test Series -2024 CW-02
16. A long cylindrical shell carries a positive surface 19. Under the influence of charge, a point charge
charge in the upper half and a negative surface q is carried along different paths from point A
charge  in the lower half. The electric field to point B, then the work done will be
lines around the cylinder will look like the
from given in
(Figures are schematic and not drawn to scale)

1)
1) Maximum for path four
2) Maximum for path one
3) Equal for all paths
4) Minimum for path three
20. A particle of charge Q and mass m travels
through a potential difference V from rest. The
final de-Broglie wavelength of the particle
2)
hQ h
1) 2)
mV 2Q mV
h 2QV
3) 2QmV 4) h
m
21. The variation of potential with distance r from
3) a fixed point is shown in figure. The electric
field at r = 5 cm, is

4)

17. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° 1) (2.5) V/cm 2) (–2.5) V/cm
to a non-uniform electric rield. The dipole will 3) (–3.5) V/cm 4) (2/5) V/cm
experience 22. A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm is
1) a translational force only in a direction charged with 10 C. Another uncharged
perpendicular to the field sphere of radius 20 cm is allowed to touch it
2) a torque as well as a translational force for some time after the two spheres are
3) a torque only separated, then the surface density of the
4) a translational force only in the direction charge on the sphere will be in the ratio of
of the field 1) 2:1 2) 1 : 1
3) 3:1 4) 4 : 1
18. In a region of space the electric field E  E 0 x . î ,
23. Some equipotential surfaces are shown in the
Consider the imaginary cubical volume of the figure. Calculate the electric rield with
edge ‘a’ with its edges parallel to the axes of direction
coordiantes. The charge inside this volume will
be
1) zero 2)  0 E 0 a 3
1 1
3)  0 E0 a
3 4)  E a3
6 0 0
1) 50 V/m 2) 150 V/m
3) 200 V/m 4) 100 V/m
SCSS Page 3
Inspire Test Series -2024 CW-02
24. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric 29. A parallel plate capacitor C is charge to a
field E on its space between the plates. If the potential difference V, now battery is removed.
distance between the plates of and the area of Find work required to triple the distance
each plate is A, the energy stored in the between the plates is
capacitor is (0 = permittivity of free space) 1 1
1) 1/2  0E 2 2) 0EAd 1) CV 2 2) CV 2
2 4
3) 1/2 0E Ad
2 4) E2Ad/ 0
2
1 V
25. What is the dipole moment of the system 3) C  4) CV 2
2 C
shown in the figure ?
30. In the below figure three capacitors C1, C2 and
C3 are joined to a battery. The correct condition
will be : (Symbols have usual meanings)

1) 2qa 2) qa
3) 3 qa 4) 5 qa
26. Assertion : No work is done in taking a small
positive charge from one point to other inside
a positively charged metallic sphere while
outside the sphere work is done in taking the 1) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and V1 = V2 = V3 = V
charge towards the sphere. Neglect induction 2) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2 + V3
due to small charge 3) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2
Reason : Inside the sphere, the electric 4) Q2 = Q3 and V2 = V3
potential is the same at each point, but outside 31. The effective capacitance between the points
it is different for different points P and Q of the arrangement shown in the
1) Both A & R are true and R is the correct below figure is
explanation of A
2) Both A & R are true and R is not a correct
explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
27. A solid conducting sphere of radius R 1 is
surrounded by another concentric hollow
conducting sphere of radius R 2 . The
capacitance of this assembly is proportional to
R 2  R1 R 2  R1 1) (1/2)F 2) 1 F
1) R 1R 2 2) R 1R 2 3) 2 F 4) 1.33 F
32. Find the equivalent capacitance between A and
R 1R 2 R 1R 2 B (Sequence is upto infinity as shown in fig.)
3) R1  R 2 4) R  R
2 1

28. Find common potential when spheres of radii


R and 2R are connected by conducting wire

q q
1) 12 0 R 2) 8  R
0 1) 1/2 C 2) 4 C
3) 1/4 C 4) 2 C
2q q
3)  0 R 4) 6  R
0
SCSS Page 4
Inspire Test Series -2024 CW-02
33. Two materials of dielectric constants k1 and k2 Section - ‘B’
are introduced to fill the space between the two
parallel plates of a capacitor as shown in the 36. A parallel plate air capacitor has initial capacity
below figure. The capacity of the capacitor is ‘C’ distance of separation between plates is ‘d’
and the potential difference ‘V’ is applied
between the plates. The force of attraction
between the plates of the parallel plate air
capacitor at an instant when separation
between the plate become half of the initial
C2V2 2C 2 V 2
1) 2)
2d 2 d
CV 2 CV
3) 4)
2d 2d
37. Find the equivalent capacitance between A and
A 0 ( k 1  k 2 ) 2A 0  k 1k 2  B
1) 2)  
2d d k k 
 1 2 

A 0  k1k 2  A 0  k1  k 2 
3)    
d  k  k  4) 2d  k k 
 1 2   1 2 
34. A capacitor of 2 F is charged as shown in the
diagram. When the switch S is turned to
position 2, if V = 10 V then heat dissipation
will be

2 15
1) C 2) C
15 4
4 15
3) C 4) C
15 8
38. Area of each plate is A and distance between
nearest plates is d. Find the equivalent
capacitance between A and B
1) 20 J 2) 40 J
3) 60 J 4) 80 J
35. Assertion : The force with which one plate of
a parallel plate capacitor is attracted towards
the other plate is equal to the square of surface 0A 4 0A
1) 2)
density per  per unit area d 3 d
Reason : The electric field due to one charged 2 0A 3 0A
plate of the capacitor at the location of the other 3) 4)
3 d 4 d
is equal to surface density per 
39. A capacitor of 4 F is connected as shown in
1) Both A & R are true and R is the correct
the circuit. The internal resistance of the battery
explanation of A
2) Both A & R are true and R is not a correct is 0.5. Energy stored in the capacitor will be
explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true

1) 4J 2) 8 J
3) 12 J 4) 16 J

SCSS Page 5
Inspire Test Series -2024 CW-02

40. Consider a conducting sphere of radius R and 43. A charged ball b hangs from a silk thread S,
cylinder of length L. If both have same charge which makes an angle  with a large charged
density  and Es and Ec are electric intensity at conducting sheet P, as shown in the figure. The
surface charge density  of the sheet is
a point at a distance r (r < R) from axis of sphere
proportional to
and cylinder respectively, then Es equal to
EcR Ecr
1) 2)
r R P

2E c r Ecr
3) 4)
R 2R

41. Determine the electric field at point P


1) sin  2) tan 
3) cos  4) cot 
44. The electric potential V is given as a function
of x (metre) by V = (5x2 – 10x – 9) volt. The
value of the electric field at x = 2m is
1) 20 V/m 2) 6 V/m
3) 11 V/m 4) 10 V/m
45. Two point masses of mass m and equal and
opposite charge of magnitude q are attached
on the corners of a non-conducting uniform
1)  3 5  kQ
d 2 2)   kQ
3 1
d 2
rod of mass m and the system is released from
rest in uniform electric field E as shown in the
figure from  = 53°. Find the work required to
3)  3  kQ
d 2 4)   kQ
2 1
d 2 rotate the dipole by 180°

42. An early model for an atom considered it to


have a positively charged point nucleus of
charge Ze, surrounded by a uniform density
of negative charge up to a radius R. The atom
as a whole is neutral. The electric field at a
distance r from the nucleus is (r < R)
1) 8 qlE 2) 5 qlE
5qlE 8qlE
3) 4)
8 5
46. A circle of radius R is drawn in a uniform
electric field E as shown in the figure VA, VB,
VC and VD are respectively the potential of
points A, B, C and D at the periphery of the
circle then
Ze  1 r 
1)  2
 3
4  0  r R 

Ze  1 r
2)  3
 2 
4  0  r R 

Ze  1 1
3)  3
 2 
4  0  r r 
1) VA > VC , VB = VD
Ze  1 1
4)  3
 2 2) VA < VC , VB = VD
4  0  R r  3) VA = VC , VB < VD
4) VA = VC , VB > VD

SCSS Page 6
Inspire Test Series -2024 CW-02
47. Two concentric spherical shells of radius 49. A network of four capacitors of capacity equal
R1 = R and R 2 = 3R are having uniformly to C1 = C, C2 = 2C, C3 = 3C and C4=4C are
distributed charges Q 1 = 3Q and conducted in a battery as shown in the figure.
Q2 = Q respectively. Find out the potential at a The ratio of the charges on C2 and C4 is
distance 2R from the centre

5kQ 5kQ
1) 2) 22 3
3R 6R
1) 2)
11kQ 11kQ 3 22
3) 4)
6R 3R 7 4
48. A particle A has charge +q and a particle B has 3) 4)
4 7
+4q with each of them having the same mass 50. A slab of material of dielectric constant K has
m. When allowed to fall from rest through the the same area as the plates of a parallel plate
same electric potential difference, the ratio of
3
vA capacitor but has a thickness   d, where d
4
their speed v will become
B is the separation of the plates. The ratio of the
1) 2:1 2) 1 : 2 capacitance C (in the presence of the dielectric)
3) 1:4 4) 4 : 1 to the capacitance C0 (in the absence of the
dielectric) is
3K 3
1) K4 2) K
4
4K 4
3) 4) K
K3 3

Syllabus For - (CW-03) Exam (Jan. 30th , 2024)


Physics MEEC + Magnetism
Chemistry Halogen Derivatives + d & f-Block Elements
Biology–I Morphology And Anatomy
Biology–II Breathing & Exchange of Gas

SCSS Page 7
Inspire Test Series -2024 CW-02

Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry + Periodic Table


61. A compound possesses 8 % sulphur by mass.
Section - ‘A’ The least molecular mass is
51. How many moles of Helium gas occupy 22.4 1) 200 2) 400
L at 00C at 1 atm. pressure ? 3) 155 4) 355
1) 0.11 2) 0.90 62. One mole of fluorine is reacted with two moles
3) 1.0 4) 1.11. of hot and concentrated KOH. The product
52. Which of the following has the smallest formed are KF, H 2O and O2. The molar ratio
number of molecules ? of KF, H2O and O2 is respectively
1) 0.1 mol of CO2 gas 1) 1:1:2 2) 2 : 1 : 0.5
2) 11.2 L of CO2 gas at N.T.P 3) 1:2:1 4) 2 : 1 : 2
3) 22 g of CO2 gas 63. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled
4) 22.4 x 103 mL of CO2 gas. in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water
53. The total number of protons in 10 g of calcium produced in this reaction will be
carbonate is (N0 = 6.023 × 1023) 1) 1 mol 2) 2 mol
1) 1.5057 × 1024 2) 2.0478 × 1024 3) 3 mol 4) 4 mol
3) 3.0115 × 1024 4) 4.0956 × 1024 64. A mixture of NO2 and N 2O4 has a vapour
54. The maximum amount of BaSO4 precipitated density of 38.3 at 300 K. What is the number
on mixing BaCl 2 (0.5 M) with H2SO4 (1 M) of moles of NO2 in 100 g of the mixture ?
will correspond to 1) 0.043 2) 4.4
1) 0.5 M 2) 1.0 M 3) 0.437 4) 3.86
3) 1.5 M 4) 2.0 M 65. 4.4 g of CO2 contains how many litres of CO2
55. The volume in litres of CO2 liberated at STP at S.T.P.
when 10 grams of 90 % pure limestone is 1) 2.4 L 2) 2.24 L
heated completely is 3) 44 L 4) 22.4 L
1) 22.4 2) 2.24 66. The decomposition of a certain mass of CaCO3
3) 20.6 4) 2.016 gave 11.2 dm3 of a CO2 at S.T.P. The mass of
56. Assuming full decomposition, the volume of KOH required to completely neutralize the
CO 2 released at STP on heating 9.85 g of gas is
BaCO3 (At. mass Ba = 137) will be 1) 56 g 2) 28 g
1) 0.84 L 2) 0.24 L 3) 42 g 4) 20 g
3) 4.06 L 4) 1.12 L 67. 0.3 g of an acid is neutralized by 40 cm3 of
57. 1.5 mol of O2 combine with Mg to form oxide 0.125 N NaOH. Equivalent mass of the acid is
MgO. The mass of Mg (at. mass 24) that has 1) 60 2) 45
combined is 3) 30 4) 63
1) 72 g 2) 36 g 68. One mole of magnesium nitride on reaction
3) 48 g 4) 24 g. with an excess of water gives
58. The reaction of calcium with water is 1) two moles of ammonia
represented by the equation 2) one mole of nitric acid
3) one mole of ammonia
Ca  2H 2O  Ca  OH 2  H 2 4) two moles of nitric acid
What volume of H2, at STP would be liberated 69. 5.6 litre of oxygen at NTP is equivalent to
when 8 g of calcium completely reacts with 1) 1 mole 2) 1 mole
2
water
1) 4480 cm 3 2) 2240 cm 3 3) 1
4 mole 4) 1 8 mole
3) 1120 cm 3 4) 0.4 cm3 70. The atomic mass of an element is 27. If valency
59. Among the following pairs, the one which is 3, the vapour density of the volatile chloride
illustrates the law of multiple proportions is will be
1) NH3, HCl 2) H 2S, SO2 1) 66.75 2) 6.675
3) CuO, Cu2O 4) CS2, FeSO4 3) 667.5 4) 81
60. 0.126 g of acid required 20 mL of 0.1 N NaOH 71. An oxide of sulphur contains 50% of sulphur
for complete neutralisation. The equivalent in it. Its emperical formula is
mass of an acid is 1) SO 2 2) SO 3
1) 45 2) 53 3) SO 4) S 2 O
3) 40 4) 63

SCSS Page 8
Inspire Test Series -2024 CW-02
72. Which one of the following solution has highest 81. For the process
normality
X(g)  e  X  (g), H  x and
1) 1 M HCl
2) 0.5 M H2SO4 X  (g)  X(g)  e , H   y
3) 0.4 M H3PO4
Select correct alternate
4) 0.55 M H2SO4
73. To 100 mL of a 0.5 M solution, 400 mL of water 1) ionisation energy of X–(g) is y
is added, the final molarity would be 2) electron affinity of X(g) is x
1) 0.125 2) 0.1 3) electron affinity of X(g) is y
3) 0.25 4) 0.15 4) all are correct statements
74. If A, B and C are the three element of 82. Electron gain enthalpy is positive when
Dobereiner’s Triad and atomic weight of A and 1) O– is formed form O
B are 7 and 15 respectively then the atomic 2) O2– is formed from O–
weight of C is 3) O+ is formed form O
1) 1 2) 11 4) electron affinity is always a negative value
3) 23 4) 25 83. Calculate the % ionic character for molecule
75. The electronic configuration of an element is
AB when E.N. different is 2.0 :
1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 ,3s 2 3p 5 . The atomic number of
1) 46% 2) 36%
element present just below the above element
in periodic table is 3) 30% 4) 50%
1) 34 2) 35 84. The pair of elements which on combination is
3) 36 4) 30 most likely to form an ionic compound is
76. Which list gives nonmetals that are found in 1) Na and Ca 2) K and O2
their elemental forms in nature? 3) O2 and Cl2 4) Al and I2
1) neon, phosphorus, fluorine 85. The correct order of acidic strength is
2) helium, hydrogen, iodine 1) Cl2O7 > SO3 > P4O10
3) nitrogen, oxygen, sulphur 2) CO2 > N2O5 > SO3
4) oxygen, chlorine, phosphorus 3) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3
77. The values of IE(I), IE(II), IE(III) and IE(IV) of 4) K2O > CaO > MgO
an atom are respectively 7.5 eV, 25.6 eV,
48.6 eV and 170.6 eV. The electronic Section - ‘B’
configuration of the atom will be
86. In Haber process, 30 L of dihydrogen and 30 L
1) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s1
of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which
2) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p1
yielded only 50 % of the expected product.
3) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p3
What will be the compostition of gaseous
4) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2
mixture under the above said conditions in the
78. The first ionization enthalpy (H) values of the
end ?
third period elements, Na, Mg and Si are
1) 20 L of ammonia, 20 L of nitrogen, 15 L
respectively 496, 737 and 786 kJ mol–1. Predict
of hydrogen
the first ionisation enthalpy (H) value of Al :
2) 20 L of ammonia, 20 L of nitrogen, 20 L
1) 350 2) 860
of hydrogen
3) 575 4) 1125
3) 10 L of ammonia, 25 L of nitrogen, 15 L
79. Which groups of atoms have nearly same
of hydrogen
atomic radius?
4) 20 L of ammonia, 10 L of nitrogen, 30 L
1) Na, K, Rb, Cs
of hydrogen
2) Li, Be, B, C
87. An organic compound contains carbon,
3) Fe, Co, Ni
hydrogen and oxygen. Its chemical analysis
4) F, Cl, Br, I
gave C, 38.71 % and H, 9.67 %. The empirical
80. The third ionisation energy will be maximum
formula of compound would be
for
1) CH 3O
1) Nitrogen
2) CH 2O
2) Boron
3) CHO2
3) Phosphorus
4) CHO
4) Aluminium

SCSS Page 9
Inspire Test Series -2024 CW-02
88. In a reaction 97. Aqueous solutions of two compounds M1–O–
 H and M2–O–H are prepared in two different
2Al(s) + 6HCl (aq)  2Al3+ (aq)  6Cl (aq)  3H 2 (g)
beakers. If, the electronegativity of M1 = 3.4,
1) 11.2 L H 2 (g) at S.T.P is produced for M2 = 1.2, O = 3.5 and H = 2.1, then the nature
every mole of HCl (aq) consumed of two solutions will be respectively
2) 6 L HCl is consumed for every 3 L H2 (g) 1) acidic, basic 2) acidic, acidic
produced 3) basic, acidic 4) basic, basic
3) 33.6 L H2 (g) is produced regardless of 98. Select correct graph, which is plotted between
temperature and pressure for every mole ionisation energy of 2nd period elements and
of Al that reacts their atomic number
4) 67.2 L H 2 (g) at S.T.P is produced for
every mole of Al that reacts.
89. A solution contains 1.2046 x 1024 hydrochloric
acid molecules in one dm3 of the solution. The
strength of the solution is
1) 6N 2) 2 N
1)
3) 4N 4) 8 N
90. 1.520 g of hydroxide of a metal on ignition gave
0.995 g of its oxide. The equivalent weight of
the metal is
1) 1.52 2) 0.995
3) 190 4) 9
91. 10 litres of O2 gas is reacted with 30 litres of
CO at S.T.P. The volumes of each gas present
at the end of the reaction are 2)
1) CO = 10 litres, CO2 = 20 litres
2) O2 = 10 litres, CO = 30 litres
3) CO = 20 litres, CO2 = 10 litres
4) O2 = 10 litres, CO2 = 20 litres
92. The percentage of element M is 53 in its oxide of
molecular formula M2O3. Its atomic mass is
about
1) 45 2) 22
3) 18 4) 36 3)
93. How many moles of magnesium phosphate,
Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen
atoms?
1) 1.25 × 10–2 2) 2.5 × 10–2
3) 0.02 4) 3.125 × 10–2
94. If X(g)  X(g)2  3e  H1  900kJ
X(g)  X(g)2  2e  H2  650kJ Then find
Heg of X 4)
1) – 250 kJ 2) – 1550 kJ
3) 250 kJ 4) + 1550 kJ
95. Which has the largest bond dissociation
energy? 99. Which element forms a compound with the
1) H–F 2) H–Cl formula H3XO4?
3) H–Br 4) H–I 1) As 2) Cl
96. In which of the following compound 3) N 4) S
manganese shows maximum radius? 100. Which of these compounds is amphoteric?
1) MnO 2 P) Al(OH)3 Q) Ba(OH)2
2) KMnO 4 R) Zn(OH)2
3) MnO 1) P only 2) Q only
4) K3[Mn(CN)6] 3) P and R only 4) Q and R only

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Botany : Plant Kingdom
Section - ‘A’
101. How many statements are wrong?
a) Algae reproduce by vegetative, asexual and sexual methods.
b) Volvox and fucus shows isogamy.
c) Ulothrix unicellular algae.
d) Chlamydomonas is a motile algae.
Options:
1) one 2) Two
3) Three 4) Four
102. Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in:
1) Chlamydomonas 2) Volvox
3) Fucus 4) Spirogyra
103. Select INCORRECT statement w.r.t. algae.
1) They are simple, thalloid and largely aquatic.
2) Occur in a variety of habitats including on moist wood.
3) Reproduce asexually only.
4) Lack vascular tissues system.
104. The sexual reproduction in which male and female gametes are morphologically as well as
physiologically different and also both gametes are motile is called as:
1) Isogamy 2) Anisogamy
3) Oogamy 4) More than one option is correct
105. Phylogenetic system of classification is based on
1) Floral characters 2) Evolutionary relationships
3) Morphological features 4) Chemical constituents
106. Pyriform gametes with two laterally inserted flagella are found in which of the following class of
algae?
1) Rhodophyceae 2) Chlorophyceae
3) Myxophyceae 4) Pheophyceae
107. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by
1) Green sulphur bacteria 2) Nostoc
3) Cycas 4) Chara
108. How many plants in the list given below are the members of vascular embryophytes?
Spirogyra, Volvox, Fucus, Equisetum,Polysiphonia, Salvinia, Polytrichum, Sphagnum,
Marchantia, Funaria, Selaginella.
1) Six 2) Three
3) Two 4) Seven
109. Mark the CORRECT statement for the organism given below in figure.

1) The given plant is Selaginella 2) It is member of sphenopsida


3) It consist of foot, seta and capsule 4) The given plant is Funaria
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110. If there are 20 male gemmae are present in Marchantia, then how many new female thallus of
Marchantia will be produced?
1) 40 2) 20
3) 10 4) 0
111. A bryophyte differs from ptereotophytes in:
1) Presence of archegonia 2) Presence of flagellated antherozoids
3) Presence of independent gametophyte 4) Lack of vascular tissues
112. Heterospory is never found in:
1) Liverworts and mosses 2) Selaginella and Salvina
3) Dicots and monocots 4) Cycades and conifers
113. Statement A: Unlike bryophyte and pteridophyte in gymnosperm male and female gametophytes
do not have an independent free living existence.
Statement B: In gymnosperm water is essential for fertilization.
1) Only (A) is correct 2) Only (B) is correct
3) Both (A) and (B) incorrect 4) Both (A) and (B) correct
114. Mark the INCORRECT statement w.r.t. conifers.
1) Presence of needle like leaf.
2) Presence of thick cuticle and sunken stomata.
3) Presence of unbranched stem.
4) Roots show symbiotic association with fungi.
115. In gymnosperm, reduced male gametophyte is called pollen grain, these pollen grains are produced in:
1) Anther and filament 2) Pollen chamber
3) Antheridium 4) Male cone
116. If there are 10 chromosomes in root of Cedrus then what would be the chromosome number in the
following respectively?
Megaspore, Pollen grain, Nucellus, Egg, foliage leaves.
1) 10, 10, 20, 10, 10 2) 5, 5, 10, 5, 10
3) 10, 10, 5, 10, 10 4) 5, 5, 10, 5, 5
117. The pyrenoids are made up of:
1) Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath
2) Core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein sheath
3) Core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath
4) Core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein
118. Brown algae is characterised by the presence of:
1) Fucoxanthin 2) Haematochrome
3) Phycocyanin 4) Phycoerythrin
119. Which one of the following pairs of plants are NOT seed producers ?
1) Eucalyptus and Wolffia 2) Funaria and Eucalyptus
3) Eucalyptus and Chlamydomonas 4) Fern and Funaria
120. Find out most CORRECT statement for the prothallus :
1) Mostly non photosynthetic thalloid gametophytes
2) The spores germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, small but multicellular structure.
3) The sporophytes bear sporangia that are subtended by leaf-like appendages called sporophylls.
4) Prothallus require cool, damp, shady places to grow. Because of this nonspecific restricted
requirement and the need for water for fertilisation, the spread of living pteridophytes is
unlimited and restricted to narrow geographical regions.
121. Protonema is:
1) Haploid and is found in mosses 2) Diploid and is found in liverworts
3) Diploid and is found in pteridophytes 4) Haploid and is found in pteridophytes
122. In Polytrichum, 20 chromosomes are present in rhizoids, then the number of chromosome in capsule,
seta and foot will be:
1) 20, 40, 40 respectively 2) 20, 20, 20 respectively
3) 40, 40, 40 respectively 4) 10, 10, 10 respectively
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123. State true (T) or false (F) for the given statements and choose the most appropriate option :
P) Wolffia is one of the tallest plant species
Q) The angiosperms are not exceptionally large group of plants occurring in wide range of habitats.
R) Angiosperms provide us with food, fodder, fuel, medicines and several other commercially
important products.
Options:
P Q R P Q R
1) T T T 2) T T F
3) F F T 4) F F F
124. Which of the following is INCORRECT?
1) Gymnosperms form lax or cones.
2) Gymnosperms produce seeds and pollen grains.
3) Gymnosperms pollen grain is released from the microsporangium. They are carried in air
currents and come in contact with the opening of the ovules borne on megasporophylls.
4) In gymnosperms One of the megaspores enclosed within the megasporangium develops into
a unicellular female gametophyte that bears one or two archegonia or female sex organs.
125. Read the following statements w.r.t. gymnosperms:
i) The cones bearing megasporophylls with megasporangia are called megasporangiate or female
strobili.
ii) The male or female cones or strobili may be borne on the same tree e. g., Pinus .
iii) In Cycas, male cones and megasporophylls are borne on different trees.
iv) One of the cells of nucellus differentiates into megaspore mother cell.
v) The nucellus is protected by envelopes and the composite structure is called an ovule.
How many of the above statements are CORRECT?
1) Three 2) Four
3) Five 4) Two
126. Which of the following is CORRECT for pteridophytes showing the events which is precursor to the
seed habit?
1) These are homosporous.
2) The female gametophytes in these plants are not retained on the parent sporophytes for variable
periods.
3) The development of the zygotes into young embryos take place within the female
gametophytes.
4) In majority of the pteridophytes all the spores are of similar kinds; such plants are called
homosporous.
127. Evolutionarily, the first terrestrial plants to posses vascular tissues xylem and phloem, is:
1) Bryophytes 2) Pteridophytes
3) Gymnosperms 4) Angiosperms
128. Which of the following is not INCORRECT for red algae ?
1) Are mostly acellular.
2) Sexual reproduction is oogamous complexed with post-fertilization changes.
3) Motile structures are common.
4) Cell wall lack polysulphate esters.
129. Match List - I with List - II :
List - I List - II
a) Chara i) Moss
b) Cedrus ii) Pteridophyte
c) Dryopteris iii) Alga
d) Sphagnum iv) Gymnosperm
Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below :
1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) 2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv) 4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
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130. Natural system of classification:
1) Is based on natural affinities among the organisms
2) Considers only external features of organisms
3) Is also called artificial system of classification
4) Was given by Theophrastus
131. Which of the following algae is red algae ?
1) Volvox 2) Chara
3) Fucus 4) Gracilaria
132. Plants of this group are diploid and well adapted to extreme conditions. The seeds that develop post-
fertilisation, are not covered, i.e., are naked. This plant include medium-sized trees or tall trees and
shrubs. They grow bearing sporophylls in compact structures called cones. The group in reference is:
1) Monocots 2) Dicots
3) Pteridophytes 4) Gymnosperms
133. Assertion (A): In gymnosperm microspores develop into a male gametophytic generation which
is highly reduced and is confined to only a limited number of cells.
Reason (R): In bryophytes haploid plant body produces gametes through mitosis.
1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
3) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
134. Statement I: In green algae asexual reproduction is by flagellated zoospores produced in
zoosporangia.
Statement II: In green algae, the sexual reproduction shows considerable variation in the type and
formation of sex cells and it may be isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous.
1) Statement I is correct Statement II is false.
2) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is true.
3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
135. People recovering from long illness are often advised to include the alga Chlorella in their diet because it
1) Makes the food easy to digest 2) Is richest source of proteins
3) Has toxic properties 4) Is richest source of lipid
Section - ‘B’
136. Floridean starch has structure similar to:
1) Laminarin and cellulose 2) Starch and cellulose
3) Amylopectin and glycogen 4) Mannitol and align
137. Match List-I with List-II and select the CORRECT option.
List-I List-II
A) Psilopsida i) Psilotum
B) Lycopsida ii) Equisetum
C) Sphenopsida iii) Selaginella
D) Pteropsida iv) Dryopteris
1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) 2) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv) 4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
138. Some examples of plants are given here. How many of them have predominantly sporophytic plant bodies?
Euglena, Ulothrix, Cycas, Spirogyra, Eucalyptus, Polytrichum, Lycopodium, Pinus, Volvox,
Funaria.
1) Four 2) Six
3) Eight 4) Three
139. Which statement is CORRECT for pteridophyte?
1) Gametophyte is autotrophic, while sporophyte is parasitic.
2) Sporophyte is semi parasite and gametophyte is autotrophic.
3) Both gametophyte and sporophyte are usually autotrophic.
4) Only sporophyte is autotrophic, while gametophyte is a parasite.

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140. What will be the correct ploidy sequence in the mentioned below?
A) Protonemal cell of a moss B) Gymnospermic endosperm
C) Leaf cell of a moss D) Prothallus cell of a fern
E) Gemma cell in Marchantia
1) n, 3n, n, 2n, 2n 2) n, n, n, n, n
3) n, 2n, n, 2n, 2n 4) n, 2n, n, n, 2n
141. In which one of the following, male and female gametophytes do NOT have free living independent existence?
1) Polytrichum 2) Pinus
3) Pteris 4) Funaria
142. Which of the following set of examples exemplify ‘non seeded plant’?
1) Pinus, Pisum, Riccia. 2) Salvinia, Sphagnum, Eucalyptus.
3) Funaria, Dryopteris, Ulothrix. 4) Cycas, Pisum, Euglena.
143. Find the INCORRECT match:
1) Heterocysts - Nitrogen fixation 2) Lichen - air pollution indicater
3) Selaginella - Homosporus 4) Marchantia - Antheridiophore
144. Which of the following statement is false regarding bryophytes?
1) They are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.
2) The main plant body is diploid.
3) They usually occur in damp, humid and shaded localities.
4) Bryophyte also having important role in a succession.
145. Peat is made from:
1) Sphagnum 2) Funaria
3) Aspergillus 4) Marchantia
146. Statement I: In brown algae, the plant body is usually attached to the substratum by a holdfast and
has a stalk, the stipe and photosynthetic organ the frond.
Statement II: Vegetative reproduction in phaeophyceae takes place by fragmentation.
1) Statement I is correct Statement II is false.
2) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is true.
3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
147. You are given an unknown plant to study in the laboratory. You find that it has chlorophyll, no
xylem. Its multicellular sex organs are enclosed in a layer of jacket cells. Its gametophyte stage is free
living. The plant probability belongs to
1) Chlorophyceae 2) Bryophyte
3) Pteridophyte 4) Gymnosperm
148. Select the INCORRECT statement from the following:
1) Numerical taxonomy which is now easily carried out using computers is based on all observable
characteristics.
2) Cytotaxonomy that is based on cytological information like chromosome number, structure,
behaviour.
3) In brown algae sexual reproduction may be isogamous, Anisogamous or oogamous.
4) In bryophyta zygote undergo reduction division immediately.
149. Read the following term carefully:
Mannitol, Polysiphonia, Dictyota, Fucus, Pear-shaped Zoospore, Carrageen, Volvox, Chlorophyll
‘d’, Fucoxanthin, ribbon-shaped chloroplast, holdfast, Algin, Pyrenoids.
Number of terms related to Brown algae are-
1) 10 2) 7
3) 9 4) 8
150. Read the given statements and select the CORRECT option.
Statement 1 : Bryophytes are amphibians of plant kingdom.
Statement 2 : They live in soil but depend on water for sexual reproduction.
1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
2) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

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Zoology : The Cell - Unit of Life, Frog And Cockroach
Section - ‘A’
151. Urinary bladder in frog is
1) Thin walled dorsal to rectum 2) Thin walled dorsal to body wall
3) Thin walled ventral to rectum 4) Thick walled ventral to rectum
152. Cell theory as proposed by schleiden and schwann explains
1) All living organisms are composed of cells and products of cell
2) All cell arise from pre-existing cells
3) All living cells have plasmids
4) Both 1 and 3
153. One centriole contains ____ triplets
1) One 2) Two
3) Three 4) Nine
154. Match following - Reference frog
a) Vas efferentia i) 2500 – 3000
b) Cranial nerves ii) 10 – 12
c) Ova released iii) 20
1) a – iii, b – ii ,c – i 2) a – i, b – iii ,c – ii
3) a – ii, b – iii ,c – i 4) a – i, b – ii ,c – iii
155. Prokaryotic cell differes from eukaryotic cell in lacking
I) Ribosomes II) Membrane bound cell organells
III) Cytoplasm IV) Histone proteins
1) I, II, III and IV 2) I and II only
3 ) I, II and III 4) II and IV only
156. Well organized sense organs in frog
1) Skin and eye 2) Eye and hearing
3) Taste buds and eye 4) Skin and nose
157. Haemolymph of cockroach contains
1) Haematocytes and plasma
2) Only respiratory pigment
3) Red blood corpuscles, white blood corpuscles and plasma
4) Red blood corpuscles and plasma
158. Identify the set of unpaired structures in mouth parts of cockroach
1) Labrum, mandibles 2) Labium, maxillae
3) Mandibles, maxillae 4) Labrum, labium
159. Regarding prokaryotic cells
I) Absence of nucleus
II) Absence of membrane -bound protoplasm.
III) Compartmentalized nuclear meterial and cytoplasm
IV) Absence of nucleolus
1) I only correct 2) I and II correct
3) II and III only incorrect 4) IV only correct
160. Gonads in frog are
1) Reproductive 2) Produce gametes
3) Secrete hormones 4) All the above
161. In cockroach, mouthpart that acts like tongue is
1) Hypopharynx 2) Labrum
3) Labium 4) Maxilla

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162. Read following statements
i) Urinogenital duct found in male frog
ii) Excretory product of frog is uric acid
iii) Sexual dimorphism if frog is absent
iv) The most important respiratory organ of frog is skin
v) Bidders canal is present in excretory part of female frog
Find wrong statements
1) Four 2) Three
3) Two 4) One
163. “Extensive compartmentalization of cytoplasm’’ present in
1) Flame cells of flatworms 2) Body cells of Ctenophora
3) Bacteria 4) Both 1 and 2
164. Neck in cockroach is formed by ------ and in frog (formed by) ------
1) Prothorax and cervical vertebrae 2) Mesothorax and no vertebrae
3) Prothorax and absent 4) Metathorax and present
165. Choose the correct match
1) Cell organelles–All have membranes 2) Frog – Direct developent
3) Cockroach – Pseudoceolomate 4) Nucleoid – Prokaryotes
166. Nuclear membrane is continuous with
1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum 2) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
3) Cell membrane 4) Golgi bodies
167. Mesorchium and Mesovarium are
1) Body wall 2) Visceral layers
3) Peritonium 4) Pleural layers
168. A cell organelle that is exceptionally rich in hydrolytic enzymes is
1) Ribosome 2) Endoplasmic reticulum
3) Lysosome 4) Mitochondria
169. Match the following and choose the correct combination w.r.t frog
List - I List - II
A) Olfactory lobes i) Perception of heat
B) Cerebellum ii) Ten pairs
C) Cranial nerves iii) Sense of smell
D) Cerebral hemispheres iv) Maintains equilibrium
v) Control of voluntary actions
A B C D A B C D
1) i ii iii iv 2) iii i ii v
3) iii iv ii v 4) iv v iii ii
170. According to fluid mosaic model, plasma membrane consists of
1) Cellulose, hemicellulose
2) Phospholipid, intrinsic protein, extrinsic protein
3) Phospholipid, intrinsic protein, chitin
4) Phospholipid, hemicellulose
171. “Cells which have variety of complex locomotory and cytoskeletal structures” Pick cell which follows
the above statement
a) Macrophages b) Renette cells
c) Cell has only 70s ribosomes d) Cells which has centrioles
e) Cells which has plasmid f) Cnidocytes
1) All except b and c 2) All except e and c
3) All except b, d and f 4) All except c and d
172. Triangular sinus venosus joins
1) Right atrium dorsal side 2) Right ventricle dorsal side
3) Left atrium ventral side 4) Left ventricle ventral side
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173. Vacuole in a plant cell
1) Is membrane bound and contains storage proteins
2) Is membrane bound and contains water and excretory substances
3) Air cavity
4) Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
174. Mesorchium fixes
1) Ovaries to kidney 2) Testes to kidney
3) Testes to bladder 4) Ovary to body wall
175. “Amembranous” structures of the animal cell are
A) Ribosome B) Nucleolus
C) Centrosome D) Golgi apparatus
1) A and D only 2) ABC
3) A and B only 4) A and C only
176. Development in cockroach is
1) Holometabolous 2) Paurometabolous
3) Ametabolous 4) No metabolism
177. Read the following and select the wrong combination.
Part Region Function
a) Crop Fore gut Storage of food
b) Proventriculus Mid gut Grinding
c) Mesenteron Mid gut Digestion
d) Rectum Hind gut Broader than midgut
1) a and d 2) b
3) c and d 4) a, b and c
178. Assertion : Golgi apparatus remains in close association with endoplasmic reticulum
Reason : Vesicles from ER fuse with the cis face of the golgi and move towards the trans face
1) Both A and R are true but R is the correct ex;planation to A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation to A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false
179. The functional units of compound eye of an insect are called
1) Fenestrae 2) Ocelli
3) Radula 4) Ommatidia
180. In frog common bile duct open in
1) Stomach 2) Duodenum
3) Cloaca 4) Rectum
181. Polyribosomes are the aggregation of
1) Ribosomes and rRNA
2) Only rRNA
3) Peroxisomes
4) Several ribosomes held together by a string of mRNA
182. Double membranous envelope is found around
I) Nucleus II) Plastids
III) Mitochondria IV) Lysosome
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) III and IV 4) I, II and III
183. Path of air in frog
1) Nostrils  Buccal cavity  Trachea  Lungs
2) Nostrils  Trachea  Lungs
3) Buccal cavity  Nostrils  Lungs
4) Nostrils  Buccal cavity  Lungs

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184. Which structure is absent in male cockroach
1) Labium 2) Phallomeres
3) Spermatheca 4) None of these
185. Urnio genital duct receive
1) Ova 2) Sperm
3) Urine only 4) Both sperms and urine
Section - ‘B’
186. Mushroom gland is present in the
1) 3rd & 4th thorasic segments 2) 5th & 6th abdominal segments
3) 4th & 5th abdominal segment 4) 6th & 7th abdominal segments
187. Male frog sexual dimorphic structure is
1) Copulatory pad 2) Camouflage
3) Vocal sacs 4) 1 and 3
188. Cell wall is present in
1) Plant cells 2) Prokaryotic cell
3) Algal cell 4) All the above
189. Chromoplasts have
1) Fat soluble chlorophyll pigment 2) Water soluble carotene
3) Fat soluble xantho phylls 4) Water soluble antohcyanin
190. Water requirement of frog is fulfilled by
1) Drinking water 2) While eating food
3) Absorb through skin 4) None
191. The central core of cilium (or) flagellum is known as
1) Axoneme 2) Microtubule
3) Doublet 4) Triplet
192. Mouthparts of cockroach are of this type
1) Piercing-sucking 2) Sponging-sucking
3) Biting-chewing 4) Siphoning-sucking
193. In cockroach, air (O2 ) reaches all the body parts through
1) Blood 2) Haemolymph
3) Tracheoles 4) Arteries
194. Alary muscles in cockroach are associated or connected with
1) Trachea 2) Heart
3) Legs 4) Alimentary canal
195. One of these is a cell organelle common in both monera and protista
1) Ribosome 2) Lysosome
3) Mitochondria 4) Chloroplast
196. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are concerned with the production of cellular energy. Is this statement
CORRECT
1) Yes, it is correct 2) No, mitochondria will but not chloroplast
3) No, neither of them 4) No, chloroplasts will but not mitochondria
197. Brain in cockroach is represented by
1) Supra pharyngeal ganglia 2) Sub pharyngeal ganglia
3) Suboesophageal ganglia 4) Supraoesophageal ganglia
198. The young one of cockroach is called
1) Caterpillar 2) Nymph
3) Fingerling 4) Maggot
199. Oviducts of female frog open in
1) Urinary bladder 2) Bidders canal
3) Cloaca 4) Vagina
200. Cockroach has
1) Mosaic vision 2) Binocular vision
3) Monocular vision 4) Diurnal vision
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Inspire Test Series -2024 CW-02
Space for Rough Work

NEET-2020
Subject Attempted Not Attempted Correct Wrong Score
Physics

Chemistry

Botany

Zoology

Total

SCSS Page 20
INSPIRE TEST SERIES-2024 KEY TO THE QUESTION BOOKLET 27/01/2024

INSPIRE-CW-02
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
1 2 14 3 27 4 40 1 51 3 64 3 77 2 90 4
2 3 15 1 28 1 41 4 52 1 65 2 78 3 91 1
3 2 16 1 29 4 42 1 53 3 66 1 79 3 92 2
4 4 17 2 30 3 43 2 54 1 67 1 80 1 93 4
5 3 18 2 31 2 44 4 55 4 68 1 81 4 94 1
6 1 19 3 32 4 45 4 56 4 69 3 82 2 95 1
7 1 20 3 33 1 46 3 57 1 70 1 83 1 96 3
8 4 21 1 34 4 47 3 58 1 71 1 84 2 97 1
9 1 22 1 35 4 48 2 59 3 72 3 85 1 98 2
10 4 23 3 36 2 49 2 60 4 73 2 86 3 99 1
11 2 24 3 37 4 50 3 61 2 74 2 87 1 100 3
12 3 25 3 38 3 62 2 75 2 88 1
13 3 26 1 39 2 63 4 76 3 89 2

INSPIRE TEST SERIES-2024 KEY TO THE QUESTION BOOKLET 27/01/2024

INSPIRE-CW-02
BIOLOGY-I BIOLOGY-II
101 2 114 3 127 2 140 2 151 3 164 3 177 2 190 3
102 4 115 4 128 2 141 2 152 1 165 4 178 1 191 1
103 3 116 2 129 2 142 3 153 4 166 1 179 4 192 3
104 2 117 1 130 1 143 3 154 3 167 3 180 2 193 3
105 2 118 1 131 4 144 2 155 4 168 3 181 4 194 2
106 4 119 4 132 4 145 1 156 2 169 3 182 4 195 1
107 1 120 2 133 4 146 3 157 1 170 2 183 4 196 2
108 2 121 1 134 3 147 2 158 4 171 2 184 3 197 4
109 2 122 3 135 2 148 4 159 3 172 1 185 4 198 2
110 4 123 3 136 3 149 2 160 4 173 2 186 4 199 3
111 4 124 4 137 3 150 1 161 1 174 2 187 4 200 1
112 1 125 3 138 1 162 2 175 2 188 4
113 1 126 3 139 3 163 4 176 2 189 3

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