GOVERNMENT AVIATION TRAINING INSTITUTE

AIR NAVIGATION TEST PAPER 1

Batch: Garuda 2 Marks: 100 Time: 03:00 hours

Note: attach solution sheets for instructors reference

1. The parallel of latitude, except the equator are:

a. Small circles and Rhumb lines
b. Small circles and Great circles
c. Are neither rhumb lines nor great circles
d. Both great circles and rhumb lines
2. What is the approximate latitude of Antarctic circle?
a. 23S
b. 66N
c. 66S
d. 23N
3. Climb time = 40 mins with fuel flow = 3000 lbs/hr, cruise 130 mins with fuel flow = 2000
lbs/hr, descent 30 mins fuel flow= 1000 lbs/hr. trip fuel=
a. 7500 lbs
b. 4833 lbs
c. 4583 lbs
d. 6833 lbs
4. Advantage of VHF over MF and HF is that:
a. Static effect is reduced
b. Static effect is more
c. No difference

5. In order to Tune, Identify and Monitor N0NA1A NDB emissions the BFO should be used
as follows:
Tune Identify Monitor
a. On On Off
b. On On On
c. On Off Off
d. Off Off Off

6. In an air driven directional gyro the air jets are attached to?
a. The inner gimbal
b. The outer gimbal
c. The instrument casing
d. The rotor axis
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7. When entering a steep turn an IVSI is likely to show:

a. No change in altitude
b. A slight climb
c. A slight descent
d. A slight descent at high speed only

8. At 100nm from a VOR an aircraft commences a descent from FL330 in order to arrive
overhead the VOR at FL 100. What rate of descent is required if the mean groundspeed in the
descent is to be 240 knots?
a. 1300 fpm b) 920 fpm c) 1130 fpm d) 820 fpm

9. What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 7% glideslope, at a groundspeed of
250 knots?
a. 1575 fpm
b. 1637 fpm
c. 1773 fpm
d. 1377 fpm

10. At what approximate latitude is the length of one minute of arc along a meridian equal to
1nm (1852)?
a. 45 b) 0 c) 90 d) 30

11. Position A is 55 N 030 W and B is 54 N 020 W. what is the rhumb line bearing from A to
B, if the great circle track from A to B, measured at A is 100 degrees true?
a. 110
b. 284
c. 104
d. 090

12. The departure between position 60 N 160 E and 60 N ‘x’ is 900 nm. What is the longitude
of ‘x’?
a. 170W
b. 140W
c. 145E
d. 175E

13. The nominal scale of a lambert conformal conical chart is the

a. Mean scale between pole and equator
b. Mean scale between parallel of secant cone
c. Scale at standard parallels
d. Scale at the equator

14. A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents 150 nm. The chart scale;
a. 1: 3000000
b. 1:5000000
c. 1: 6000000
d. 1:1000000
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15. What is the value of the convergence factor on a polar stereographic chart?
a. 1.0
b. 0.866
c. 0.5
d. 0.0

16. What does 5 hour 50 minutes and 20 seconds change of longitude represent?
a. 81 degree 25 minute
b. 35 degree 15 minute
c. 80 degree 05 minute
d. 87 degree 35 minute

17. In which months is the difference between apparent noon and mean noon the greatest?
a. March and September
b. June and December
c. November and February
d. January and July

18. Position error:

a. may be reduced by the fitting of static vents
b. will usually decrease with an increase in altitude
c. will depend solely on the attitude of the aircraft
d. will usually decrease as the aircraft approaches the speed of sound

19. When the induced signal from the loop and the sense antenna are combined in a ADF receiver,
the resultant polar diagram :
a. Limacon
b. Cardiod
c. Figure of 8
d. Circular

19. Maximum allowable takeoff mass 64 400 kg maximum landing mass 56 200 kg, maximum
zero fuel mass 53 000 kg dry operating mass 35 500 kg estimated load 14 500 kg, estimated trip
fuel 4 900 kg minimum take off fuel 7 400 kg find the maximum allowable take off fuel:
a. 11400 b) 11100 c) 14400 d) 8600

20. The following data applies to an airplane which is about to takeoff: certified maximum
takeoff mass 141500 kg. performance limited takeoff mass 137300 kg, dry operating mass 58400
kg crew and crew hand baggage mass 640 kg crew baggage in hold 110 kg fuel on board 60700
kg. from this data calculate the mass of the useful load:
a. 78150kg b) 18200 kg c) 78900kg d) 17450 kg

21. Field length is balanced between

a. Calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1 VR VMCG
b. All engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take off are equal.
c. One engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35
feet are equal
d. Take off distance equals acceleration stop distance
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22. V2 has to be equal to or higher than:

a. 1.15 VMCG
b. 1.1 VMCA
c. 1.1 VSO
d. 1.15 VR

23. The takeoff safety speed V2 min for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes with more than
three engines may not be less;
a. 1.3 VS
b. 1.2 VS
c. 1.2 VS1
d. 1.15VS

24. 265 US GAL at Specific Gravity of 0.8 equals:

a. 803 kg
b. 862 kg
c. 895 kg
d. 940kg

25. In the ATS flight plan item 10, “standard equipment” is considered
a. VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and transponder
b. VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and ILS
c. VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder
26. The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a DME to travel to the
ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 3000 microseconds. The slant range
from the ground transponder was?
a. 186 nm b) 243 nm c) 296 nm d) 330 nm
27. In which situation will speed indicator on an airborne DME most closely represent the
groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?
a. When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100nm or more
b. When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it
c. When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit
d. When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 nm

28. The ADF of an aircraft on a heading of 189 T will experience the greatest effect due to
quadrantal error if the NDB bears:
a. 234 [T] b) 279 [T] c) 225 [T] d) 145 [T]

29. What corrective action is given by TCAS?

a. Turn left or right
b. Climb or descend
c. Contact ATC
d. Turn then climb or descend
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30. Two NDBs, one 20 NM from the coast and the other 50 NM further inland. Assuming
coastal error is the same for each, from which NDB will an aircraft flying over the sea receive
the greatest error?
a. The NDB at 20 NM
b. The NDB at 50 NM
c. Same when the relative bearing is 090/270
d. Same when the relative bearing is 180/360
31. You are homing to overhead a VORTAC and will descend from 7500 ft on QNH to be 1000
AMSL by 6 NM DME. Your ground speed is 156 knots and the ROD will be 1000 feet/min. At
what range from the VORTAC do you commence the descent?
a. 22.9 NM b. 15.8 NM c. 16.9 NM d. 30.2 NM

32. An aircraft is at 10°N and is flying North at 444 km/hour. After 3 hours the latitude is:
a. 10°S b) 02°S c) 22°N d) 00°N/S
33. Inflight checks revealed that the fuel consumption is 4% greater than expected at a
preflight planning. If everything else is expected the distance to PNR will be:
a. 4% more b. 4% less c. unchanged d. 2% less
34. In case of an engine failure : given data suggest
GS ON = 300 knots GS OUT = 350 knots GS home = 250 knots
Distance between A to B = 1200 NM. What is the distance and time to the PET from A?
a. 545 nm 1 hour 34 min c. 500 nm 1 hour 40 min
b. 654 nm 1 hour 52 min d. 545 nm 1 hour 49 min
35. On a flight from X to Y, track- 250, TAS 195, distance 975 nm, W/V 330/35. FOB= 900,
reserve 100 Gallons, F/C = 150 GPH find:
a. time and distance to PNR b. time and distance to CP c. SAR
36. What is the maximum possible value of Dip Angle at either Pole?
a. 66° b. 180° c. 90° d. 45°
37. A two-axis gyro measuring vertical changes will have:
a one degree of freedom, vertical axis
b two degrees of freedom, vertical axis
c one degree of freedom, horizontal axis
d two degrees of freedom, horizontal axis
38. A vibrator may be fitted to an altimeter to overcome:
a. friction b. hystersis c. lag d. pressure error
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39. Below what height will GPWS will warn the pilot when he descends below 500ft with gear
still up?
a. 2500ft b. 1800ft c. 790ft d. 500ft
40. A sector distance is 450nm long. The TAS is 460 knots. The wind component is 50 knots
tailwinds. What is still air distance?
a. 499 NAM b. 414 NAM c. 511 NAM d. 406 NAM
41. The navigation plan reads; trip fuel 136kg, flight time 1hr 35 min, taxi fuel 3 kg, block fuel
181 kg. the endurance on ICAO flight plan should read:
a. 2h 05 min b. 3h 34min c. 2h 49 min d. 3h 38 min
42. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR beacon. The pilot has set 329 on the OBS of
the deviation indicator. If the aircraft is situated on the 152 radial then the deviation indicator on
a five dot scale will show:
a. one and a half dots fly right
b. one and a half dots fly left
c. three dots fly right
d. three dots fly left
43. The accuracy required of a basic area navigation (B-RNAV) system is:
a. +/-5 NM on 90% of occasions
b. all the time
c. +/-5 NM on 95% of occasions
d. +/-5 NM on 75% of occasions
44. Descending from FL390 at maximum ground speed, what will the pilot be limited by?
a. VMO initially then MMO at a specified altitude
b. MMO initially then VMO at a specified altitude
c. VNE initially then MMO at a specified altitude
d. VNO initially then VNE at a specified altitude
45. When turning through 90° at constant attitude and bank, a classic artificial horizon indicates:
a. nose up and correct angle of bank
b. attitude and bank angle are correct
c. nose up and bank angle too low
d. nose up and bank angle too high
46. An a/c is travelling at 100 kt forward speed on a 3° glide slope. What is its rate of descent?
a. 500 ft/min
b. 300 ft/min
c. 250 ft/min
d. 600 ft/min
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47. What is the speed of sound at 25000 ft and -28 degrees C?

a 624 kt b 618 kt c 601 kt d 610 kt
48. VLO is defined as:
a. the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear retracted
b. the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted or extended
c. the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended
d. the minimum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended
49. How does night effect affect ADF?
a. Causes false bearings as the goniometer locks onto the sky wave
b. Sky wave interference which affects the null and is worst at dawn and dusk
c. Interference from other NDBs which is worst at dusk and when due east of the station
d. Phase shift in the received signal giving random bearing errors
50. In NAVSTAR/GPS the space segment:
a. provides the positional information to the receiver
b. the receiver interrogates the satellite and the satellite provides positional information
c. sends information for receiver to determine latitude, longitude and time
d. relays positional data from the control segment
51. Quadrantal error in the ADF is caused by:
a. the metallic structure of the aircraft
b. generative voltages caused by the rotation of the engines
c. the electrical wiring running through the aircraft
d. multipath reception
52. The maximum range an ATC facility at 1369 ft AMSL can provide a service to an aircraft at
FL350 is:
a. 276 NM b. 200 NM c. 224 NM d. 238 NM

53. The ADF error which will cause the needle to ‘hunt’ (i.e. oscillate around the correct
bearing) is:
a. night effect
b. Cb static
c. station interference
d. coastal refraction
54. The phase difference measured at the aircraft from a VOR is 235°. The bearing of the
beacon from the aircraft is:
a. 055° b. 235° c. 145° d. 325°
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55. The azimuth coverage of a 3° glide path is:

a. +/-35° to 17 NM
b. +/-10° to 25 NM
c. +/-8° to 10 NM
d. Both a & b
56. track A to B = 125/ TAS 200 knots, W/V 070/35, FOB= 1200 gallons including 200 gals
reserve; DPNR 879 NM
Find:
[i] FC
[ii] SAR
[iii] if CP is 35 min before PNR distance A to B find excess FOB?
57. On a direct Mercator chart, a great circle will be represented by a?
a. straight lines
b. curves convex to equator
c. curves concave to the equator
d. curves concave to the nearest poles
58. Convert 80 metres/sec into knots.
a. 155 knots b. 55 knots c. 160 knots d. 16 knots

59. Given: Track = 352 (T), Var = 11W Deviation = - 5 Drift = 8°R What is Heading (C)?
a. 078°(C) b. 346°(C) c. 000°(C) d. 025°(C)

60. Which of the following gyro instruments has one degree of freedom?
a. Artificial horizon
b. Turn indicator
c. Directional gyro
d. Slaved gyro compass
61. Why is a servo altimeter better than a sensitive altimeter?
a. It has an electromagnetic pick-off
b. It is more accurate at low level
c. It has ambient pressure in the capsule
d. It is fitted with a knocking device
62. What principle does the radio altimeter work on?
a. Pulse modulation
b. Amplitude modulation
c. Pulse modulation and carrier wave
d. Frequency modulation continuous wave
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63. If CAS is kept constant, what happens to the Mach no.?

a. as the altitude increases the Mach No. will increase
b. as the altitude increases the Mach No. will decrease
c. as the temperature increases the Mach No. will increase
d. as the temperature decreases the Mach No. will decrease
64. What aircraft system uses a frequency of 4400 MHz?
a. SSR
b. Radio altimeter
c. Weather radar
d. ATC radar
65. What is the normal operating range of a low altitude radio altimeter?
a. 0 to 2500 ft
b. 50ft to 2500 ft
c. 0 to 10000 ft
d. 0 to 7500 ft
66. The time interval between the transmission of a pulse and receipt of the echo from a target
is 925.5 microseconds. The range of the target is:
a. 37.5 NM
b. 75 NM
c. 150 NM
d. 300 NM
67. The AWR operating frequency is:
a. 9375 MHz
b. 9375 GHz
c. 937.5 MHz
d. 93.75 GHz
68. On a colour AWR display, the heaviest precipitation will be displayed in:
a. amber
b. red
c. yellow
d. blue
69. The DME in an aircraft at FL630 measures a slant range of 16 NM from a ground station at
1225 ft AMSL. The plan range is:
a. 12.5 NM b. 19 NM c. 16 NM d. 10.5 NM
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70. What is the duration of civil twilight?

a. From the moment when the centre of the Sun is on the sensible horizon until the centre
reaches a depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
b. From the moment when the tip of the Sun disappears below the sensible horizon until the
centre reaches a depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
c. From the moment when the centre of the Sun is on the visual horizon until the centre
reaches a depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
d. From the moment when the tip of the Sun disappears below the visual horizon until the
centre reaches a depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
71. Given: TAS=375 Trk=335°(T) W/V=340°(T)/50 What is heading and Ground speed?
a. 335°(T) 322
b. 335°(T) 318
c. 336°(T) 326
d. 333°(T) 326
72. On which chart projection is it not possible to show the North Pole?
a. Direct Mercator
b. Lambert’s
c. Transverse Mercator
d. Polar Stereographic
73. You are at FL150 and the SAT is -5°(C). You are over an airport with an elevation of 720 feet.
The QNH is 1003. Assume 27 feet = 1 hPa. What is your true height?
a. 14300 feet b. 15300 feet c. 14700 feet d. 15600 feet
74. What rate of descent is required to maintain a 3.5° glide slope at a ground speed of 150 knots?
a. 850 fpm
b. 800 fpm
c. 600 fpm
d. 875 fpm
75. Isogonals are lines of equal:
a. compass deviation
b. magnetic variation
c. wind velocity
d. pressure
76. Given: IAS 120 kt FL80 OAT +20°(C) What is the TAS?
a. 141 kt
b. 102 kt
c. 120 kt
d. 132 kt
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77. TAS = 485 kt, OAT = ISA +10°C, FL410. Calculate the Mach Number.
a. 0.87 b. 0.825 c. 0.90 d. 0.85
78. Fuel flow per hr is 22 US.gal, total fuel on board is 83 imp.gal. What is the endurance?
a. 2 hr 15 min
b. 4 hr 32 min
c. 3 hr 12 min
d. 3 hr 53 min
79. The principle error in GNSS is:
a. ionospheric propagation
b. GDOP
c. receiver clock error
d. SV ephemeris error
80. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation is inclined at ................ to the equator with an orbital period
of ...............
a. 55° 11 h 15 min
b. 65° 11 h 15 min
c. 65° 12 h
d. 55° 12 h
81. An aircraft is on a track 300 from A to B. Total Distance 135 nms. After 90 nms from A, the
aircraft ADF tuned to NDB of a place A reads 190. The aircraft distance off track and heading
correction to place B are:
a. 15 nms and 30S
b. 30 nms and 30 S
c. 15 nm and 30 P
82. The relative bearing of the station changes from 270 to 260 in 2.5 min. the time to the station
is:
a. 6 min
b. 12 min
c. 9 min
d. 15 min
83. In a DVOR the reference signal is__________, the bearing signal is _______ and the direction
of rotation of the bearing signal is_______.
a. AM, FM, anti clockwise
b. AM, FM, clockwise
c. FM, AM, anti clockwise
d. FM, AM, clockwise
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84. Which frequency bands are transmitted by ILS equipment?

a. glideslope on VHF, localizer on VHF
b. glideslope on VHF, localizer on UHF
c. glideslope on UHF, localizer on VHF
d. glideslope on UHF, localizer on UHF
85. what form of emission does an ILS signal use?
a. A2A
b. A3E
c. A8W
d. J3E
86. An aircraft at FL360 at 10 nms plan range the DME will read:
a. 9.50 nms
b. 11.6 nms
c. 13.6 nms
87. An AWR echo at 30 nms when the beam is level with the aircraft is lost when the centre of
the beam is tilted upwards at an angle of 2 degree. How high above the aircraft is the top of the
rain cloud if beam width is 3o?
a. 600ft
b. 1500 ft
c. 3000 ft
d. 6000 ft
88. What does a GPWS mode 3 alert indicated to a pilot?
a. the aircraft is close to the ground with the undercarriage up
b. the aircraft is sinking after T/O and go around
c. the aircraft is below its selected decision height
d. the aircraft is approaching the high ground
89. How much warning will a TCAS I give a pilot before a possible collision?
a. 10s
b. 20s
c. 30s
d. 40s
90. The GPS transmission frequency which can be used by civil a/c is?
a. 1575.42 MHz in the L- band
b. 2227. 5 MHz in the S- band
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c. 4454.5 MHz in the C- band

91. The DGPS is?
a. the time difference between the transmission of the satellites coded signal and time that it
is received at the aircraft.
b. the time difference between the satellite and the aircraft GPS until transmitting the same
code point on the signal
c. the correction applied to the raw GPS position to obtain a more precise position.
92. TAS 235 knots, HDG 076, W/V 040/40 KNOTS. Calculate the drift angle and GS?
a. 7L- 269kt b. 5L – 255 kt c. 7R – 204kt d. 5R – 385 kt
93. Transmission from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:-
a. uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces.
b. static interference
c. night effect
d. quadrantal error
94. The VOR system is limited to about 1 degree of accuracy. 1 degree at 200 nm represents a
width of;
a. 2.0nm b. 2.5nm c. 3.0nm d. 3.5 nm

95. The frequency range of VOR receiver is;

a. 108 to 111.95 MHz
b. 108 to 117.95 MHz
c. 118 to 135.95 MHz
d. 108 to 135.95 MHz
96. Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of ground radar with a pulse
repetition frequency of 450 PPS is;
a. 666 km
b. 1333 km
c. 150 km
d. 333 km
97. For a conventional DME facility ‘ beacon saturation’ will occur whenever the number of
simultaneously interrogations exceeds:
a. 100 b . 200 c. 60 d. 80
98. The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM):
a. 3000 Hz, blue
b. 400 Hz, blue
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c. 1300 Hz, blue

d. 400 Hz, amber
100. The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the;
a. Mach number of the aircraft
b. Time passed at a given altitude
c. Aircraft altitude
d. Static temperature