INDIAN POLITY PRATICE QUESTIONS FOR OPSC OCS 2024-25 PRELIMS

EXAMINATION
BY SURAJ NAYAK S , RANK-152(OCS 2021)

1. Which of the following are features of the Parliamentary System in India?

1.Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature

2.Independent executive

2.Double membership

4.Separation of powers

Select the correct answer:

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 3 and 4

2. The 'Doctrine of Eclipse' applies to which of the following?

A. Pre-constitutional laws violating Fundamental Rights
B. Post-constitutional laws violating Directive Principles
C. All unconstitutional laws
D. Emergency provisions

3. Which of the following bodies is a constitutional body?

A. Finance Commission
B. Planning Commission
C. NITI Aayog
D. National Human Rights Commission

4. Which Article of the Constitution gives power to the Parliament to make laws on State List
under certain circumstances?
A. Article 249
B. Article 252
C. Article 248
D. Article 263

5. Which of the following rights is not available to foreign nationals in India?

A. Right to equality before law
B. Right to freedom of speech and expression
C. Protection in respect of conviction
D. Right to life and personal liberty

6. Which of the following is true about the ‘Basic Structure Doctrine’?

A. It is mentioned in Article 368
B. It was propounded in Golaknath Case
C. It gives unlimited power to amend the Constitution
D. It was established by the Kesavananda Bharati Case

7. Which of the following statements about the President’s Ordinance-making power is/are
correct?

It is co-extensive with Parliament’s legislative powers.

It can be issued only when both Houses are not in session.

It requires the prior consent of the Council of Ministers.

Select the correct answer:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only

8. In which case did the Supreme Court lay down the “Doctrine of Pith and Substance”?
A. Kesavananda Bharati Case
B. State of West Bengal v. Union of India
C. State of Bombay v. F.N. Balsara
D. S.R. Bommai Case

9. Which of the following authorities is responsible for delimiting constituencies in India?

A. Election Commission of India
B. Delimitation Commission
C. President of India
D. Union Cabinet

10. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Speaker of the Lok
Sabha?

The Speaker can vote in the first instance.

The Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the
House.

The Speaker continues in office even after dissolution until the new House is formed.

Select the correct answer:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. Consider the following statements regarding case laws of - whether the preamble is a part
of constitution or not ?
1.A.K.Gopalan case
2.Berubari union case
3.Kesavananda bharati case
4.LIC vs UOI case
Select the correct answer given below
A.only 1&2 are correct
B.only 1&3 are correct is correct
C.only 3&4 are correct
D.all are correct

11. Which of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution is related to the allocation of
seats in the Rajya Sabha?
A. First Schedule
B. Second Schedule
C. Fourth Schedule
D. Seventh Schedule

12. Which of the following is/are grounds for disqualification of Members of Parliament under
the Tenth Schedule?

Voluntarily giving up membership of a party

Voting against party direction

Engaging in corrupt practices during elections

Select the correct answer:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

13. The idea of ‘Single Citizenship’ in India has been adopted from:
A. USA
B. Canada
C. UK
D. Australia

14. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A?
A. To promote harmony
B. To protect monuments of national importance
C. To develop scientific temper
D. To vote in elections
15. Who among the following is not appointed by the President of India?
A. Attorney General
B. Chairman of UPSC
C. Advocate General
D. Governors of States

16. Which of the following writs is issued to prevent a lower court from exceeding its
jurisdiction?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Prohibition
D. Certiorari

17. Which of the following are features of the Indian Constitution?

Parliamentary supremacy

Judicial review

Integrated judiciary

Presidential form of government

Select the correct answer:

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

18. Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits untouchability?

A. Article 15
B. Article 16
C. Article 17
D. Article 19

19. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Preamble of India?
A. It is not a part of the Constitution
B. It is enforceable in a court of law
C. It was added by the 42nd Amendment
D. It declares India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

20. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

A. Article 32 – Right to Constitutional Remedies
B. Article 40 – Organisation of Village Panchayats
C. Article 44 – Uniform Civil Code
D. Article 50 – Separation of Judiciary and Executive in Union Territories

21. Which Amendment Act lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 61st Amendment
D. 73rd Amendment

22. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment deals with:

A. Cooperative Societies
B. Urban Local Bodies
C. Panchayati Raj
D. Service Tribunals

23. The term 'Secular' in the Indian Constitution means:

A. State is anti-religious
B. State promotes a particular religion
C. State has no religion of its own
D. Religion is above the Constitution

24. Which of the following is the highest law officer of India?

A. Solicitor General
B. Advocate General
C. Attorney General
D. Chief Justice of India

25. The concept of ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ was borrowed from the Constitution
of:
A. UK
B. USA
C. Ireland
D. Germany

With reference to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1.It declares India as a Sovereign, Socialist,

Secular, Democratic Republic.
2.It is a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts.
3.The words "Socialist" and "Secular" were added by the 44th Constitutional Amendment
Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

26. Who among the following decides disputes regarding disqualification under Tenth
Schedule?
A. President
B. Supreme Court
C. Presiding Officer of the House
D. Election Commission

Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights under the Indian
Constitution:

1.They are absolute and cannot be suspended under any circumstances.

2.Article 19 guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression.
3.The Right to Education became a Fundamental Right under Article 21A through the 86th
Constitutional Amendment Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs), consider the following
statements:
1.They are non-justiciable but fundamental to the governance of the country.
2.They aim to establish a welfare state in India.
3.The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act added the principle of equal pay for equal work
for both men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

27. Which Article deals with the power of judicial review?

A. Article 32
B. Article 13
C. Article 14
D. Article 19

28. Which of the following is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution as laid down
by the Supreme Court?
A. Federalism
B. Judicial Review
C. Separation of Powers
D. Directive Principles

29. Who has the power to admit a new state into the Union of India?
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Parliament
D. Supreme Court

30. Which of the following is not a qualification to become the Vice President of India?
A. Must be a citizen of India
B. Must have completed 35 years of age
C. Must be a member of Rajya Sabha
D. Must be eligible to be elected as a Rajya Sabha member

31.Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Duties in the Indian
Constitution:
1.They were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
2.They are enforceable by law and can lead to punishment if violated.
3.They apply only to citizens and not to foreigners.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

32.Consider the following statements regarding the President of India:

1.The President can be impeached for violation of the Constitution.
2.The President’s ordinance-making power is provided under Article 123.
3.The President can return a Money Bill for reconsideration by Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

33.Which of the following bodies is responsible for the conduct of elections to the Panchayati
Raj Institutions?
A. Election Commission of India
B. State Election Commission
C. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
D. District Collector

34.Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the President of India?

1.He can pardon a death sentence.

2.He is elected by a direct vote of citizens.
3.He must be qualified for election as a Lok Sabha member.

Select the correct answer:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
35.With reference to the anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1.It is contained in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution.
2.A nominated legislator cannot join a political party within six months of being appointed to
the House.
3.The law does not specify a time frame for the presiding officer to decide on a defection
case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

36. With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements:
1.It is a constitutional body under Article 324.
2.It resolves disputes related to the splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
3.The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed only through a process similar to that of
a Supreme Court judge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

37.Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:

1.The Attorney General is appointed by the President of India.
2.They have the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of Parliament.
3.They must resign when the government that appointed them resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

38.With reference to the writs issued by courts in India, consider the following statements:
1.Habeas Corpus can be issued against both public authorities and private individuals.
2.Mandamus can be issued against a private organization entrusted with a public duty.
3.Quo Warranto can be issued to inquire into the legality of a person holding a public office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

39.Consider the following statements regarding the Parliament of India:

1.The Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President.
2.The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved.
3.Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

40. The ‘Money Bill’ can be introduced in:

A. Either House of Parliament
B. Only in Rajya Sabha
C. Only in Lok Sabha
D. Joint Sitting of Parliament

41.The Inter-State Council was established under which Article of the Constitution?
A. Article 263
B. Article 280
C. Article 315
D. Article 356

42.The number of Anglo-Indians nominated to the Lok Sabha by the President was
abolished by which Constitutional Amendment?
A. 101st Amendment
B. 104th Amendment
C. 100th Amendment
D. 102nd Amendment

43.With reference to the Panchayati Raj system, consider the following statements:
1.The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, mandates a three-tier system of
Panchayats.
2.It provides for the reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj institutions.
3.The term of elected representatives in Panchayats is five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

44.Consider the following statements about the Finance Commission:

1.It is a constitutional body under Article 280.
2 It is appointed every five years or earlier if needed.
3 Its recommendations are binding on the Union Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

45.With reference to the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC), consider the
following statements:
1.It is a constitutional body under Article 338.
2.It can enforce the implementation of constitutional reservations in religious minority
institutions.
3.It submits an annual report to the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

46.Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Property in India:

1.It was removed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.
2.It is now a legal right under Article 300A.
3.It can be enforced only against the state and not private individuals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

47.With reference to the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023, consider the following
statements:
1.It provides for the reservation of one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha.
2.Its provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
3.It includes reservations for Scheduled Caste women within the SC quota.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

48.Which of the following Directive Principles were added by the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1976?

1.To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children.

2.To promote equal justice and provide free legal aid.
3.To take steps to secure participation of workers in the management of industries.
4.To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

49.Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Directive Principles of State
Policy?
1.They are non-justiciable in nature.
2.They are inspired by the Constitution of Ireland.
3.They impose legal obligations on the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

50.In the context of the Indian Constitution, which of the following best describes the
objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
A. To impose legal duties on citizens.
B. To ensure judicial review of government policies.
C. To provide a framework for establishing a welfare state.
D. To establish the supremacy of Parliament

51.Consider the following statements about the Vice President of India:

1.The Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2.The Vice President can act as President only for a maximum of six months.
3.The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both
Houses of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

52.With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

1.It is a statutory body constituted under Article 82.
2.Four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted till December 2023.
3.Its orders cannot be challenged in any court of law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

53.Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court of India:

1.It has original jurisdiction in disputes between the Union and States.
2.It can issue advisory opinions to the President under Article 143.
3.The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President in consultation with the Prime
Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

54.With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), consider the following
statements:
1 It is a parliamentary committee that examines the appropriation accounts of the
government.
2.Its chairman is always from the opposition party.
3.It consists of members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

55.Consider the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):
1.It is a constitutional body under Article 315.
2.Its members are appointed by the Prime Minister.
3.It conducts examinations for All India Services and Central Services.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3