2
1 Which combination of lenses for a light microscope will give the greatest magnification?
eyepiece lens objective lens
A 5 100
B 10 40
C 15 40
D 15 100
2 The diagram shows an electron micrograph of virus particles in a human nucleus.
virus particle
×24 000
What is the diameter of the labelled virus particle?
A 1.5 100 m
B 1.5 10–2 m
C 1.5 100 nm
D 1.5 102 nm
3 What is correct about the synthesis and release of the glycoprotein mucin in goblet cells?
1 The protein is produced on ribosomes and a carbohydrate chain is added in the
Golgi body.
2 The glycoproteins are packed into vesicles in the Golgi body forming lysosomes.
3 Secretory vesicles containing the glycoprotein move from the Golgi body and fuse
with the cell surface membrane.
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only
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4 What are functions of microtubules?
1 allowing movement of cilia in a bronchus
2 attachment to centromeres during metaphase
3 moving secretory vesicles around a cell
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
5 Which organelles contain nucleic acids?
Golgi body
B
A C mitochondrion
chloroplast
6 Some features of cells are listed.
1 cell wall
2 cell surface membrane
3 ribosomes
Which features can be found in plant cells and in prokaryotic cells?
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
7 Which bonds are present in all viruses?
1 phosphodiester
2 peptide
3 covalent uncommon, most bonds are non covalent
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
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8 A student carried out the Benedict’s test on four different concentrations of glucose solution and
then recorded the time taken for the first appearance of a colour change (the end-point).
The student found it difficult to identify the first appearance of a colour change and consistently
timed each solution for two seconds after the colour change first appeared. This introduced a
source of error into the experiment.
Which statements about this error are correct?
1 The effect of the error will be reduced if the student performs three repeats at each
concentration of glucose.
2 The error will prevent the student from identifying which solution has the highest
concentration of glucose.
3 The error is systematic as the student consistently timed each solution for two
seconds after the end-point.
A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only
9 Which statements about amylopectin and glycogen are correct?
1 Amylopectin and glycogen contain 1-4 glycosidic bonds.
2 Amylopectin contains -glucose.
3 Glycogen contains more 1-6 branches than amylopectin.
A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 2 and 3
10 How many statements about fatty acids are correct?
Fatty acids are either saturated or unsaturated.
Fatty acids always have at least two double bonds. saturated FA hv none
Long chains of fatty acids are very good energy stores.
Fatty acids are insoluble in water and do not affect the water potential of the cell.
A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4
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11 The diagram represents an amino acid.
H R O
N C C
H H OH
R represents a variable side chain.
What is not a possible side chain?
A CH3
B CH2CH2SCH3
C CH2CONH2
D HOCH2CH(OH)CH2OH
12 The graph shows the effect of an enzyme on a reaction.
transition state
X
energy of
system Y
substrate
product
time
Which row identifies X, Y and Z?
X Y Z
A catalysed reaction uncatalysed reaction energy lost by product
B catalysed reaction uncatalysed reaction overall energy lost during reaction
C uncatalysed reaction catalysed reaction energy gained by product
D uncatalysed reaction catalysed reaction overall energy released during reaction
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13 The graph shows the results of two experiments on the effect of increasing substrate
concentration on the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction.
One experiment was at a high concentration of enzyme and the second was at a low
concentration of enzyme.
All other variables were standardised.
high enzyme
concentration
initial rate low enzyme
X concentration
of reaction
substrate concentration
What would limit the initial rate of reaction at point X?
A enzyme concentration
B pH
C substrate concentration
D temperature
14 Which statements about the Michaelis–Menten constant (Km) of an enzyme are correct?
1 At the Km value, half the active sites of the enzyme should be occupied by the
substrate.
2 Km represents the substrate concentration at which the enzyme is working at half its
maximum rate.
3 The lower the Km value, the lower the affinity of the enzyme to its substrate.
4 When an enzyme has a high Km value, the enzyme-catalysed reaction will proceed
very slowly to its maximum rate.
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only
15 Which component of cell surface membranes helps to reduce fluidity of the phospholipids at high
temperatures?
A phosphate groups
B unsaturated fatty acids
C cholesterol
D proteins
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16 Plant cells were left for 50 minutes in three different sugar solutions, 10%, 5% and 1%. The water
potential in the cytoplasm of the three cells was the same at the start of the experiment.
The diagrams show the appearance of the cells after 50 minutes, using a light microscope.
cell P cell Q cell R
Which conclusion is correct?
A Cell P has the same concentration of sugar inside and outside the cell.
B Cell Q is flaccid and cell P is plasmolysed.
C Cell Q was placed in the 1% solution.
D The sugar solution outside cell R has a less negative water potential than inside cell R.
17 The graph shows the effect of increasing the side length of agar cubes on the surface area and
the volume of the cubes.
surface 1
area or
volume
0
0 side length
Which row correctly identifies line 1, line 2 and the effect of increasing side length on the
surface area : volume ratio of the cubes?
surface area :
line 1 line 2
volume ratio
A surface area volume decreases
B surface area volume increases
C volume surface area decreases
D volume surface area increases
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18 A human embryo consists of 12 cells at the start of day 1. The cells divide by mitosis for 4
complete days at a rate of 1 division every 32 hours.
What is the maximum number of cells in the embryo at the end of day 4?
A 48 cells
4 days = 96h
B 96 cells no of divisions = 96/32 = 3
12 cells become - 24,48,96 after 3rd division
C 192 cells
D 384 cells
19 Which diagrams show roles of mitosis?
3 4
A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 3 and 4 only
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20 Which events are part of the mitotic cell cycle?
1 interphase
2 anaphase
3 cytokinesis
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only
21 Which statement correctly describes a feature of a DNA molecule?
anti
A It has two parallel strands twisted into a double helix.
B It has complementary bases all held together by three hydrogen bonds.
C It has phosphodiester bonds that are formed using DNA ligase.
D It has a backbone of phosphate molecules and nucleotides.
22 Which diagram correctly shows the replication of DNA?
A B
5′ 5′
S2 S1
3′ 3′
5′ 5′
S1 S2
3′ 3′
C D
5′ 5′
S2 S1
3′ 3′
5′ 5′
S1 S2
3′ 3′
key
direction of replication
S1 leading strand
S2 lagging strand
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23 The RNA codon wheel is a tool used to find which amino acid would be translated from an mRNA
sequence.
Phe
Gly
Leu
Gl
r
u
Se
CU AG
As
CUAG CU
AG
p
AG r
Ala UC G U Ty
UC
p
G
A C Sto
CA
AG
C AG U C A G U
C A Cys
UC
Val
G U Stop
A G UCAG
U G
Trp
Arg G A C U
Leu
U
Ser A C
AG
UC
s A
A
Ly C
UC
Pr
G
U G CU
o
A sn AG
CUAG U G C
U AG
Hi
AC
r
Th
s
Gln
Met
Arg
Ile
Codon position 1 is in the centre of the wheel, codon position 2 is in the middle of the wheel and
codon position 3 is near the edge of the wheel. The three letters on the outside edge of the wheel
identify the amino acid.
The diagram shows a section of DNA coding for one amino acid. The template strand is outlined
in a box and the DNA base sequence is read in the 5′ to 3′ direction.
template A
strand
Which amino acid is coded for by this section of DNA?
A Gly B Pro C Trp D Thr
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24 Four students sketched diagrams of the apoplast pathway and the symplast pathway.
Which sketch is the most accurate diagram of the two pathways?
Casparian strip
symplast
A xylem apoplast
Casparian strip
symplast
B xylem apoplast
Casparian strip
apoplast
C xylem
symplast
Casparian strip
apoplast
D xylem
symplast
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25 The photomicrograph shows some xerophytic adaptations in leaf tissue.
2
3
Which row shows the correct functions for structures 1, 2 and 3?
reduces the water
vapour concentration reduces evaporation
traps a layer of
gradient between from the epidermis
moist air
the inside and outside of the leaf
of the leaf
A 1, 2 and 3 3 only 2 only
B 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2
C 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2
D 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 only
26 Which processes are required for the transfer of assimilates from a source cell into a phloem
sieve tube?
A active transport, facilitated diffusion and simple diffusion
B active transport and exocytosis
C active transport and simple diffusion only
D active transport only
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27 When sucrose is loaded into the phloem it has to travel from mesophyll cells to a companion cell
and then into the phloem.
Which row shows the relative concentrations of sucrose in each type of cell in order for this
process to take place?
relative concentration of sucrose / arbitrary units
mesophyll companion phloem sieve
cell cell tube element
A 5 10 15
B 5 15 10
C 15 10 5
D 15 5 10
28 Which feature of transport in plants is correct for xylem and phloem?
A It is passive.
B It occurs by mass flow.
C It occurs from source to sink.
D It occurs only in one direction.
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29 The diagram shows an anterior view of a vertical section through the human heart.
2
3
Which row shows the correct labels for the diagram?
1 2 3 4
A aorta atrioventricular semilunar valve pulmonary artery
valve
B pulmonary vein semilunar valve atrioventricular pulmonary vein
valve
C pulmonary artery semilunar valve atrioventricular vena cava
valve
D pulmonary vein atrioventricular semilunar valve vena cava
valve
30 What does the inner layer of veins and capillaries contain?
A collagen fibres
B elastic fibres
C endothelium
D smooth muscle
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31 The graph shows the changes in blood pressure and water potential across a blood capillary from
the arterial end of the capillary to the venous end of the capillary.
water potential
of plasma
blood water
pressure potential
blood
pressure
arterial venous
end end
distance
What could result in an accumulation of excess tissue fluid?
A an increase in concentration of large proteins in the blood plasma
B an increase in blood pressure oedema
C a decrease in the concentration of small proteins in tissue fluid
D a decrease in blood pressure
32 Which statement is correct about a red blood cell that has just entered a capillary in a respiring
muscle?
A There is a net decrease in chloride ions.
B There is a net decrease in haemoglobinic acid.
C There is a net increase in carbonic anhydrase.
D There is a net increase in carbaminohaemoglobin.
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33 The graph shows some blood pressure changes that occur in a human during one cardiac cycle.
X
pressure in aorta
W
pressure pressure in left ventricle
T U V Y
pressure in left atrium
time
When does systole start and end in the right atrium and in the right ventricle?
in right atrium in right ventricle
systole systole systole systole
starts ends starts ends
A T V V X
B T U V Y
C U V W X
D V W W Y
34 Which statements about all bronchioles are correct?
1 They have goblet cells.
2 They have epithelial cells.
3 They have muscle tissue.
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
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35 What is shown in the electron micrograph?
×850
A scanning electron micrograph of bronchial epithelium and lymphocytes
B scanning electron micrograph of lung squamous epithelium and red blood cells 3D seen
C transmission electron micrograph of bronchial epithelium and lymphocytes
D transmission electron micrograph of lung squamous epithelium and red blood cells
36 Which statement correctly describes infectious diseases?
A They are diseases caused by environmental factors that are not passed from one person to
another.
B They are diseases caused by a fault in the DNA that can be passed from a parent to their
offspring.
C They are diseases caused by a lack of a nutrient in the diet, such as a vitamin or mineral.
D They are diseases caused by a pathogen such as a bacterium, fungus, protoctist or virus.
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37 Organism X produces molecule Y, which blocks the activity of 70S ribosomes.
An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of Y on bacterial cells.
An agar plate with bacteria growing all over its surface had four wells cut into the agar. Different
substances were added to each well and the agar plate with bacteria was incubated for a week.
The diagram shows the results after a week.
intact cells of organism X sterile distilled water only
bacterial growth
concentrated solution commonly used antibiotic
made from the cytoplasm
of lots of organism X cells
no bacterial growth
Which conclusions can be made from these results?
molecule Y would
molecule Y
molecule Y also affect the
cannot be
functions as an synthesis of proteins
released from cells
antibiotic from nuclear DNA
of organism X
in a human cell 80s
A key
B = can be concluded
C = cannot be concluded
D
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38 A patient has had repeated infections from the same pathogen over a few months. The patient
has been treated with the same antibiotic on each occasion.
Which treatment could prevent an increase in the antibiotic resistance of the pathogen?
A a narrow spectrum antibiotic to treat a non-cellular pathogen
B a repeat prescription for the same antibiotic at a higher dose
C a specific antibiotic after testing for the pathogen
D a wide spectrum antibiotic to treat different strains of the pathogen
39 A patient with kidney failure can be given a kidney transplant. In a kidney transplant, a healthy
kidney is taken from another person and put into the patient’s body.
Sometimes the donated kidney cells are killed by the patient’s body. In this primary immune
response, T-lymphocytes bind to antigens on the donated kidney cells and are activated.
The statements describe the next stages of the primary immune response.
1 Activated T-lymphocyte secretes cytokines.
2 B-lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells and make antibodies.
3 T-killer cells bind to antigens on donor kidney cells.
4 T-killer cells release toxins that destroy the donor kidney cells.
5 T-lymphocytes multiply by mitosis and differentiate into T-killer cells.
Which order correctly explains how donor kidney cells are killed?
A 1523
B 1534
C 3152
D 3541
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40 The diagram shows the simplified structure of an antibody.
X U
Which statement is correct?
A U and X allow the antibody to bind to two different antigens.
B V allows the antibody to be flexible to bind to two antigens.
C W can bind to one specific antigen.
D X can bind with a specific phagocyte receptor.
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reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23
