Cambridge International Examinations

Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2016
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*4340529958*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB16 03_9700_12/3RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over
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1 A student has drawn a cell structure as seen using a light microscope.

The magnification of the drawing is ×600.

The length of the structure on the drawing is 6 mm.

What is the actual length of the cell structure?

A 1 × 10–1 µm B 1 × 100 µm C 1 × 101 µm D 1 × 102 µm

2 The electron micrograph shows part of a eukaryotic cell.

Which of the labelled organelles is a site of protein synthesis?

3 Inside a cell, a damaged mitochondrion can be surrounded and enclosed by a membrane to form
a vesicle.

What happens after the fusion of a lysosome with the vesicle?

A ATP production by the mitochondrion increases.

B Enzymes from the lysosome repair the mitochondrion.
C Hydrolytic enzymes catalyse the breakdown of the mitochondrion.
D The mitochondrion is released from the cell by exocytosis.

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4 Which units are the most appropriate to record the diameter of a lymphocyte and a red blood
cell?

lymphocyte red blood cell

A mm mm
B mm µm
C µm mm
D µm µm

5 Which structures will be present in a cell that causes cholera?

1 circular DNA
2 naked DNA
3 70S ribosomes

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

6 What may take place during a hydrolysis reaction?

1 a molecule of water is produced

2 a glycosidic bond is broken
3 a sucrose molecule is split into fructose and glucose

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

7 The table shows some information about four carbohydrate polymers.

α-1,4 α-1,6
shape of
polymer glycosidic glycosidic
molecule
bonds bonds

1
 helical key
2 
branched
= present
3

helical = absent
4

branched

Which two polymers form starch?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

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8 Which molecule in the key is sucrose?

is a reducing sugar

yes no

contains pentose sugar contains hexose sugar

yes no yes no

A B C D

9 Which statements about triglycerides and phospholipids are correct?

1 Triglycerides and phospholipids both have a hydrophobic region.

2 Triglycerides are non-polar molecules and phospholipids are polar.
3 Fatty acids in a triglyceride may be saturated or unsaturated but in a phospholipid
they are always saturated.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

10 When proteins are mixed with some organic solvents, hydrophobic interactions and hydrogen
bonding are changed in the protein molecules.

Which levels of protein structure would be affected?

level of protein structure

secondary tertiary quaternary

A

 key
B


= affected
C 

= not affected
D

11 The rate of enzyme-catalysed reactions in human cells is regulated.

What may be involved in such regulation?

1 a change in enzyme concentration

2 a change in substrate concentration
3 inhibition by the final product of the reaction

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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12 The graphs show the effects of temperature and pH on enzyme activity.

Q
R

P
rate of rate of
reaction reaction

temperature pH

Which statement is a correct explanation of the enzyme activity?

A At P, hydrogen bonds are formed between enzyme and substrate.

B At Q, the kinetic energy of enzyme and substrate is highest.
C At R, disulfide bonds in the enzyme begin to break.
D At S, the enzyme is completely denatured.

13 Which statement correctly describes the action of competitive enzyme inhibitors?

A They bind permanently to the active site.

B They change the shape of the active site.
C They limit the formation of enzyme-substrate complexes.
D They lower the activation energy of the reaction.

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14 Which row correctly links molecules in the cell surface membrane with their roles?

stabilises
membrane
barrier to polar receptor
molecules

1 2 3
4

1 2 3 4

A glycolipid cholesterol glycoprotein phospholipid

B glycolipid glycoprotein phospholipid cholesterol
C glycoprotein phospholipid cholesterol glycolipid
D phospholipid cholesterol glycolipid glycoprotein

15 Antimycin is a chemical that inhibits the function of mitochondria.

Which methods of transport across the cell surface membrane would be inhibited by antimycin?

1 active transport
2 facilitated diffusion
3 endocytosis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

16 Which statements about the cell cycle are correct?

1 The cell cycle consists of both interphase and mitosis.

2 DNA replication takes place in interphase.
3 A cell can remain in interphase for several months.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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17 The diagram shows cells in different stages of the cell cycle.

Which is the last stage before cytokinesis?

A B C D

18 How many of the listed structures typically contain genetic material that has telomeres?

• bacterial cell

• chloroplast

• mitochondrion

• nucleus

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

19 What does the enzyme DNA polymerase synthesise in a cell?

A a polypeptide using DNA as a template

B a strand of DNA using a polypeptide as a template
C a strand of DNA using DNA as a template
D a strand of mRNA using DNA as a template

20 21.2% of the bases in a molecule of DNA are cytosine.

What percentage would be adenine?

A 21.2% B 28.8% C 42.4% D 57.6%

21 One gene provides the code for the production of which type of molecule?

A amino acid
B DNA
C nucleotide
D polypeptide

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22 The table shows the mode of action of two antibacterial drugs that can affect the synthesis of
proteins.

antibacterial
rifampicin streptomycin
drug
mode of binds to RNA causes errors in
action polymerase translation

If bacteria are treated with both drugs, what will be the immediate effects?

1 Transcription will stop, but faulty proteins may continue to be synthesised.

2 If translation has started, proteins may be faulty.
3 Translation will be inhibited.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

23 The diagrams show transverse sections of parts of a plant.

leaf stem root

3
1
4 5

In the transverse sections, which tissues transport sucrose?

1 2 3 4 5 6

A

 
key
B
 


= yes
C 


 = no
D 




24 Which statement describes movement through a plant in the apoplast pathway?

A Water moves through the cell walls.

B Water moves through the cytoplasm.
C Water moves through the plasmodesmata.
D Water moves through the vacuoles.

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25 Which changes to the water potential and the volume of liquid in the phloem occur when sucrose
is moved from the phloem sieve tube to an actively dividing root tip?

water potential in volume of liquid

phloem sieve tube in phloem
becomes sieve tubes

A less negative decreases

B less negative increases
C more negative decreases
D more negative increases

26 The diagram shows the results of an experiment using leaves with the same surface area from
two different species of plant. Each leaf was left on a balance in daylight in a closed room and its
mass recorded at 1 hour intervals.

mass
of leaf leaf 1

leaf 2

0 1 2 3 4 5 6
time / hours

Which features of leaf 2 could explain these results?

1 more stomata per unit area of leaf

2 fewer trichomes (hairs) on the leaf
3 sunken stomata
4 thinner cuticle

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1 and 4 only D 2 and 3 only

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27 Which evidence supports the cohesion-tension theory for the movement of water in flowering
plants?

1 When the rate of transpiration of a tree is at its maximum, the diameter of the trunk
is at its minimum.
2 When a plant shoot is removed close to the base of the stem, sap leaks out from the
cut.
3 Evaporation of water from a porous pot can exert a force that draws water up a
glass tube attached underneath the pot.
4 Droplets of water form at the edge of leaves of plants growing in conditions of soil
with high water content and air with high humidity.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

28 Cardiac muscle is made up of many fibres that form the walls of the chambers of the heart.

When the heart contracts, these fibres shorten in length so the muscle creates a force that exerts
a pressure on the blood, causing it to move.

Which statement explains the difference in thickness of the walls of ventricles of the heart?

A There is more muscle in the wall of the right ventricle than that of the left ventricle because
more pressure is needed to push blood into the aorta than into the pulmonary artery.
B The number of muscle fibres in the left ventricle is greater than the number in the right
ventricle so their contraction has more force, exerting more pressure on blood.
C The space available to fill with blood inside the left ventricle is smaller than that of the right
ventricle so more pressure is needed to force blood out.
D The wall of the right ventricle is thicker than that of the left ventricle because it has to resist
more pressure when the muscle of the right ventricle contracts.

29 Which reactions take place at a higher rate in a capillary in an alveolus than in a capillary in
active muscle?

1 carbon dioxide + water → carbonic acid

2 carbon dioxide + haemoglobin → carboxyhaemoglobin

3 haemoglobin + hydrogen ions → haemoglobinic acid

4 hydrogencarbonate ions + hydrogen ions → carbon dioxide + water

A 1 and 2 B 3 and 4 C 1 only D 4 only

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30 The diagram shows the effect of three different concentrations of carbon dioxide on the oxygen
dissociation curve for human haemoglobin.

100

X X = partial pressure of
Y carbon dioxide: 3.0 kPa
percentage
saturation of Z Y = partial pressure of
haemoglobin carbon dioxide: 5.0 kPa
with oxygen Z = partial pressure of
carbon dioxide: 7.0 kPa

0
0 12
partial pressure of oxygen / kPa

What effect does increasing carbon dioxide concentration have on haemoglobin?

A It makes it less efficient at taking up oxygen and less efficient at releasing it.
B It makes it less efficient at taking up oxygen and more efficient at releasing it.
C It makes it more efficient at taking up oxygen and less efficient at releasing it.
D It makes it more efficient at taking up oxygen and more efficient at releasing it.

31 The graph shows the changes that take place in the volume of the left ventricle during one
cardiac cycle.

Which point on the graph represents the start of atrial systole?

D
A
70 C

ventricular
volume / cm3 B

0
time

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32 The following tissues carry an electrical impulse during the cardiac cycle.

1 atrioventricular node
2 muscle wall of atria
3 Purkyne tissue
4 sinoatrial node

In what order does the electrical impulse travel during the cardiac cycle?

A 1→2→3→4

B 1→4→2→3

C 4→2→1→3

D 4→2→3→1

33 Some of the effects of smoking are listed.

1 It causes coughing.
2 It increases blood pressure.
3 It decreases the transport of oxygen.
4 It increases the risk of cancer.
5 It prevents cilia from moving.

Which components of tobacco smoke cause these effects?

carbon
tar nicotine
monoxide

A 1, 3 and 4 2 4 and 5
B 1, 4 and 5 3 2
C 1 and 5 3 and 5 4
D 3 and 4 1, 2 and 5 2 and 4

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34 The photomicrograph shows a section through part of a bronchus wall.

What is the function of the tissue labelled X?

A contracts to constrict the airway
B helps to widen the airway when at high altitudes
C produces mucus to trap dust particles and bacteria
D supports the airway to prevent collapse

35 Which of the following increase the risk of contracting TB?

1 drinking unpasteurised milk

2 eating shellfish which have fed on raw sewage
3 living in overcrowded conditions

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

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36 One control method to reduce the spread of malaria is to use an insecticide. It can be used to
treat mosquito nets.

Another control method is to completely cover areas of water with insoluble polystyrene balls that
float on the surface.

Using this information, what are the reasons for these control methods?

nets treated with insecticide polystyrene balls

A kills all male mosquitoes prevents adult mosquitoes

from laying eggs
B kills all mosquitoes releases toxins that
kill mosquito larvae
C kills some mosquitoes restricts the breathing of
the mosquito larvae
D prevents mosquitoes reduces nutrient supply
from breeding for mosquito larvae

37 What is not an example of antibiotic action?

A damage to cell surface membranes

B prevention of protein synthesis
C prevention of synthesis of new cell walls
D stimulation of antibody production

38 Which row correctly identifies the roles of B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes?

provide humoral
secrete antibodies secrete cytokines
response

A B-lymphocytes T-lymphocytes B-lymphocytes

B B-lymphocytes T-lymphocytes T-lymphocytes
C T-lymphocytes B-lymphocytes B-lymphocytes
D T-lymphocytes B-lymphocytes T-lymphocytes

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39 A person’s blood group is determined by antigens present on the red blood cells. The table
shows the antigens and antibodies in the blood of people with different blood groups.

blood antigens on red antibodies

group blood cells in plasma

A A anti-B
B B anti-A
AB A and B neither
O neither anti-A and anti-B

During a blood transfusion, it is essential that the recipient’s blood does not contain antibodies to
the donor’s blood.

Which blood groups can be given to a person with blood group B?

A A and B B AB and B C AB and O D B and O

40 An enzyme hydrolyses the two heavy polypeptide chains of an antibody molecule. The hydrolysis
occurs at the hinge region and breaks the antibody into three fragments.

How many of these fragments are able to bind to antigens?

A 0 B 1 C 2 D 3

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 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2016
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2740917736*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB16 06_9700_11/3RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over
 2

1 Which of the cell organelles will be clearly visible under the high power (×400) of the light
microscope?

endoplasmic
lysosomes mitochondria chloroplasts
reticulum

A     key
B     = clearly visible
C     = not clearly visible
D    

2 The drawing from an electron micrograph shows a ciliated epithelial cell, magnified ×1500, which
is found in the trachea.

Line X-Y shows the widest dimension of the cell.

X Y

What is the number of these cells that could be found along a 1 cm length of the trachea?

A 5 B 50 C 500 D 5000

3 What are correct locations of ribosomes in the typical eukaryotic cell?

1 free in the cytoplasm

2 attached to the outside of the endoplasmic reticulum
3 attached to the inside of the endoplasmic reticulum

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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4 Visking tubing is an artificial partially permeable membrane used to demonstrate diffusion.

Glucose molecules can pass through the pores in the membrane which are approximately 2.4 nm
in diameter.

Which of the following could pass through the pores?

1 bacteria
2 haemoglobin
3 ribosomes
4 glycogen

A 1 and 3 B 2 and 4 C 2 only D none of the above

5 What are found in both chloroplasts and typical prokaryotic cells?

A 70S ribosomes and circular DNA

B 70S ribosomes only
C 80S ribosomes and circular DNA
D circular DNA only

6 Two solutions, 1 and 2, one containing starch and sucrose, and the other containing glucose and
protein, were tested with a variety of reagents to confirm their identity.

The table shows the conclusions from the results recorded for the various tests.

Which row identifies the two solutions?

boil with
boil with
add iodine Benedict’s add biuret
Benedict’s
solution solution after solution
solution
acid hydrolysis

1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 key

A + – + – – + – + + = biological
molecule present
B – + + – + – – +
– = biological
C + – – + + – – + molecule absent
D – + + – + + + –

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7 X and Y are two monomers found in biological polymers.

CH2OH CH2OH

O O
H OH H H
H H
OH H OH H
HO H HO OH

H OH H OH

X Y

Which monomer is found in each of cellulose, glycogen, amylopectin and amylose?

cellulose glycogen amylopectin amylose

A X Y X Y
B X Y Y Y
C Y X X X
D Y X Y X

8 Chitin is a polysaccharide consisting of long straight chains of the monosaccharide

acetylglucosamine, linked by 1,4 glycosidic bonds.

Acetylglucosamine is similar in structure to glucose, but contains nitrogen, allowing hydrogen

bonds to form between adjacent chains of chitin when they lie parallel to each other.

Which polysaccharide is most similar in structure to chitin?

A amylopectin
B amylose
C cellulose
D glycogen

9 Which statement about triglycerides is correct?

A They are made up of three fatty acids combined with glycogen.

B They are more saturated with hydrogen compared with phospholipids.
C They form a bilayer in the cell surface membranes of cells.
D They have a lower ratio of oxygen to carbon compared with carbohydrates.

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10 The diagrams show the structures of two amino acids, one of which has two amine (–NH2) groups
and the other has two carboxylic (–COOH) groups.

1 3
H 2N CH COOH H 2N CH COOH

CH2 CH2

CH2 CH2

CH2 COOH 4

NH

C 2
HN NH2

A peptide bond is formed between the two amino acids.

Which groups form the peptide bond?

A 1 and 3 B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 4 and 1

11 Proteins which transport sugars out of cells have been identified. These proteins are called
SWEETs. Each SWEET has seven coiled, cylindrical regions which together make up a pore
through the cell surface membrane bilayer, as shown in the diagram.

2 3
1

7 4
6 5

What describes each of the seven coiled regions (1-7) of a SWEET shown in the diagram?

A primary structure held in its shape by bonds such as hydrogen bonds

B primary structure held in its shape by peptide bonds
C secondary structure held in its shape by bonds such as hydrogen bonds
D secondary structure held in its shape by peptide bonds

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12 Influenza virus has an enzyme called neuraminidase which breaks down glycoproteins in the
membrane of the cell that the virus will infect. The glycoprotein binds to the active site of
neuraminidase by induced fit.

Which statements about the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme action are correct?

1 The active site must have a complementary shape to the substrate for them to bind
together.
2 This enzyme is less likely to be affected by non-competitive inhibitors than an
enzyme working by the lock and key mechanism.
3 The substrate is converted to product by specific R-groups in the active site just like
the lock and key mechanism.

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

13 Which row about competitive inhibitors of enzymes is correct?

lower the
bind to a site other
activation energy
than the active
needed for a
site
reaction to occur

A   key
B   = true
C   = false
D  

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14 The graph shows the effect of increasing the concentration of substrate on the rate of an
enzyme-catalysed reaction.

2
key
without an inhibitor
rate of 3 with fixed concentration
reaction 1 of competitive inhibitor
with fixed concentration
4 of non-competitive inhibitor

concentration of substrate

What is limiting the rate of the enzyme-catalysed reaction at 1, 2, 3 and 4 on the graph?

1 2 3 4

A enzyme substrate competitive non-competitive

concentration concentration inhibitor inhibitor
B enzyme substrate non-competitive competitive
concentration concentration inhibitor inhibitor
C substrate enzyme competitive non-competitive
concentration concentration inhibitor inhibitor
D substrate enzyme non-competitive competitive
concentration concentration inhibitor inhibitor

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15 The diagram represents a cell surface membrane of a metabolically active cell and the direction
of movement of some molecules through the membrane.

1 2 3 4

Which row shows a process by which the molecules may be moving through the membrane at
each of the points 1, 2, 3 and 4?

1 2 3 4

A carbon dioxide water by osmosis glucose by sodium ions by

by diffusion diffusion active transport
B fatty acids oxygen by carbon dioxide water by osmosis
by diffusion diffusion by diffusion
C sodium ions by carbon dioxide water by osmosis glucose by
active transport by diffusion facilitated diffusion
D water by osmosis oxygen by fatty acids glucose by
diffusion by diffusion active transport

16 Batrachotoxin is a poison found in frogs in the Columbian jungle. The poison is used by Native
Indians to produce poison darts.

The poison works by increasing the permeability of some cell surface membranes to sodium ions,
which move out of the cells.

Which statements are correct for cells affected by batrachotoxin?

1 The intracellular fluid has a less negative water potential than the extracellular fluid.
2 The extracellular fluid has a less negative water potential than the intracellular fluid.
3 Water leaves the cells by osmosis, causing the cells to shrink.
4 Water enters the cells by osmosis, causing the cells to swell.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

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17 Which processes occur during prophase of the mitotic cell cycle in an animal cell?

centrioles chromosomes spindle fibres

replicate condense form

A    key
B    = true
C    = false
D   

18 The protein p53 is produced in a cell in response to DNA damage. This protein stops the cell
cycle for a short time just before the DNA is replicated, so that the DNA can be repaired.

At which phase of the cell cycle will this stop occur?

A M B G1 C S D G2

19 Which feature of stem cells enables them to replace cells in tissues such as the skin?

A They are undifferentiated cells that are present at birth.

B They differentiate to form skin cells.
C They divide by mitosis to supply some cells that can differentiate.
D They have the full number of chromosomes.

20 DNA contains the ……X…… base ……Y…… which is joined to adenine with ……Z……
hydrogen bonds.

Which row correctly completes the statement about DNA?

X Y Z

A purine thymine three

B purine uracil three
C pyrimidine thymine two
D pyrimidine uracil two

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21 The diagram shows the nucleotide sequence of a small section of a gene which is transcribed.

CGCCGCACGCGC

The table shows the amino acids coded for by 10 mRNA codons.

mRNA codon amino acid

AAG Lys
ACG Thr
CGG CGC CGU Arg
CCG Pro
GCC GCG Ala
GGC Gly
UGC Cys

What is the order of the four amino acids in the polypeptide translated from this small section of a
gene?

A Ala-Ala-Cys-Ala
B Ala-Arg-Gly-Ala
C Arg-Ala-Pro-Arg
D Arg-Arg-Thr-Arg

22 The statements describe the features of some nucleic acids.

1 carry an amino acid to a ribosome

2 carry a genetic code sequence out of the nucleus
3 carry a genetic code sequence to a ribosome
4 hold amino acids in position for translation

Which functions are carried out by tRNA?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

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23 A student was asked to draw a plan diagram of the plant tissue shown in the photomicrograph
and to annotate two observable features.

What are correct annotations?

A epidermis darkly stained layer of cells, xylem hollow vessels

B epidermis formed of a single layer of cells, xylem strengthened by lignin
C phloem small cells, xylem empty cells to transport water
D vascular bundles arranged in a regular pattern, xylem large dead cells

24 Water that is present inside a root hair cell may leave the cell and pass to the vascular tissue.

Through which route must the water travel?

A apoplast
B plasmodesmata
C symplast
D vacuoles

25 What is a correct definition of the term transpiration?

A diffusion of water from intercellular air spaces to the atmosphere where it evaporates
B evaporation of water from the leaf surface of a plant via the stomata
C loss of water vapour from the aerial parts of a plant to the atmosphere
D movement of water from the xylem to the atmosphere through the cell walls only

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26 Which changes to the water potential and the volume of liquid in the phloem sieve tube element
occur when sucrose is moved from a photosynthesising leaf into the phloem sieve tube element?

water potential volume of liquid

in phloem sieve in phloem sieve
tube element tube element

A higher decreases
B higher increases
C lower decreases
D lower increases

27 Which statement supports the theory of active loading of sucrose into companion cells?

A The pH decreases in the cell wall of the companion cells compared to the cytoplasm.
B The pH decreases in the cytoplasm of the companion cells compared to the cell wall.
C The pH decreases in the plasmodesmata between companion cells and sieve tube elements.
D The pH decreases in the sieve tube elements compared to the companion cells.

28 The diagram is an external view of the mammalian heart and the associated blood vessels.

P
Q

Which statement about the blood vessels associated with a normal, healthy heart is correct?

A P and Q carry blood with more oxyhaemoglobin than haemoglobin.

B P and R carry blood that is saturated with oxygen.
C S and P carry blood with a low oxygen concentration.
D S and R carry blood with more haemoglobin than oxyhaemoglobin.

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29 The graph shows changes in blood pressure during one cardiac cycle.

16
14
12
10
key
blood 8 aorta
pressure
ventricle
/ kPa 6
atrium
4
2
0
–2
0 X 0.75
time / s

What is happening at time X?

aortic semilunar
atrium
valve

A closing emptying
B closing filling
C opening emptying
D opening filling

30 Which does not occur when a red blood cell arrives at the alveolus?

A Carbaminohaemoglobin releases carbon dioxide from the α-globin and β-globin polypeptide
chains.
B Carbonic acid in the red blood cell forms carbon dioxide and water.
C Hydrogencarbonate ions diffuse from the plasma into the red blood cell.
D Hydrogen ions are released from haemoglobinic acid and diffuse out of the red blood cell.

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31 The graph shows the oxygen dissociation curves for haemoglobin of animals that live at high
altitude and animals that live at low altitude.

100
high
altitude
percentage
saturation
of haemoglobin low
with oxygen altitude

0
partial pressure of oxygen / kPa

What explains the oxygen dissociation curve at high altitude?

A Haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen.

B Haemoglobin releases oxygen more readily.
C The change in partial pressure of carbon dioxide causes a Bohr effect.
D The decrease in percentage of carbon dioxide causes the curve to shift to the left.

32 Which statement concerning events that occur in the heart is correct?

A As the wave of excitation passes through the atrioventricular node there is a time delay
before it passes down the conducting fibres in the septum to the ventricles; this allows the
atria to fill before ventricular systole.
B Contraction of the ventricle muscles following atrial systole causes the ventricular blood
pressure to rise above the blood pressure in the atria, closing the atrioventricular valve and
preventing backflow.
C The band of non-conducting fibres between the atria and ventricles prevents the wave of
excitation from the atria reaching the ventricles directly; the wave of excitation passes to the
Purkyne fibres and then to the atrioventricular node.
D The primary pacemaker, the sinoatrial node in the left atrium, sends out a wave of excitation
that spreads across the walls of the atria, resulting in the movement of blood from the atria
into the ventricles.

33 What would be seen in an electron micrograph of a bronchus wall?

1 cartilage cells
2 ciliated cells
3 exocytotic vesicles

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/M/J/16

 15

34 Which parts of the human gas exchange system may typically contain macrophages?

trachea bronchus bronchiole alveolus

A    
B     = may contain macrophages
C     = may not contain macrophages
D    

35 An oxygen molecule diffuses from the air in an alveolus through cells to haemoglobin in a red
blood cell.

What is the minimum number of cell surface membranes through which this molecule must pass?

A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5

36 Which short-term effects of smoking are caused by carbon monoxide?

1 formation of carboxyhaemoglobin
2 increased risk of blood clotting
3 narrowing the lumen of arteries

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 1 only

37 A person whose immune system is suppressed may become more susceptible to certain
diseases.

Which disease will this person not become more susceptible to?

A cholera
B measles
C sickle cell anaemia
D TB

38 Which disease is treated with drugs that have a similar molecular structure to DNA nucleotides?

A cholera
B HIV / AIDS
C malaria
D TB

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/M/J/16 [Turn over

 16

39 Rabies is a viral disease which can be spread to humans by a bite from an infected animal.

One method of treatment is to inject the patient with antibodies specific to the rabies virus.

Which statements about this treatment are correct?

1 The patient will have natural passive immunity to rabies.

2 The injected antibodies will be broken down by the patient.
3 The patient’s memory cells will be able to produce this antibody more rapidly in the
future.
4 The immunity provided will only be of short duration.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

40 What are the functions of T-lymphocytes during an immune response?

1 destroy infected body cells

2 differentiate into memory cells
3 secrete antibodies

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 1 only D 3 only

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/M/J/16

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2016
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*6364578212*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB16 06_9700_12/3RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over
 2

1 A student was presented with a photomicrograph of a cell organelle. The magnification of the
photomicrograph is known.

Which calculation of the actual length of the organelle in µm is correct?

A actual size in cm × 100 divided by the magnification

B actual size in mm × 100 divided by the magnification

C image size in cm × 1000 divided by the magnification

D image size in mm × 1000 divided by the magnification

2 Which statements about both mitochondria and chloroplasts are correct?

1 They contain 80S ribosomes.

2 They contain circular DNA molecules.
3 They produce ATP.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

3 Which range of sizes would include most eukaryotic cells?

A 1 × 102 nm to 1 µm

B 1 µm to 1 × 101 µm

C 1 × 101 µm to 1 × 102 µm

D 1 × 102 µm to 1 × 103 µm

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/M/J/16

 3

4 A scientist carried out an experiment to separate the organelles in an animal cell by mass.

The scientist mixed the cells with a buffer solution which had the same water potential as the
cells. He then broke the cells open with a blender to release the organelles.

The extracted mixture was filtered and then spun in a centrifuge at a speed that separates the
heaviest organelle. This organelle sank to the bottom, forming a solid pellet, 1.

liquid above
pellet

solid pellet

The liquid above pellet 1 was poured into a clean centrifuge tube and spun in the centrifuge at a
higher speed to separate the next heaviest organelle. This organelle sank to the bottom, forming
a solid pellet, 2.

He repeated this procedure twice more to obtain pellet 3 and pellet 4, each containing a single
organelle.

What is the function of the organelle extracted in pellet 4?

A digestion of old organelles

B production of ATP
C production of mRNA
D synthesis of protein

5 Which row shows the monomer and type of bond that form the polymer?

monomer type of bond polymer

A α-glucose 1,4 only starch

B α-glucose 1,4 and 1,6 amylopectin
C β-glucose 1,4 only glycogen
D β-glucose 1,4 and 1,6 cellulose

6 Which biological molecules always contain the element nitrogen?

A amino acids, cellulose, mRNA

B amino acids, DNA, lipids
C enzymes, mRNA, tRNA
D membrane proteins, starch, tRNA

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 4

7 Which statement about the quaternary structure of proteins is correct?

A consists of four subunits

B depends on the presence of metal ions
C depends on the primary structure of the subunits

D is made of α and β subunits

8 Which set of statements correctly describes haemoglobin?

A in each chain,
at 50 % saturation,
four polypeptide iron ions can hydrophobic R
two oxygen
chains, each associate with groups of amino
molecules are
containing a haem oxygen forming acids point towards
transported by the
group oxyhaemoglobin the centre of the
molecule
molecule

B each chain contains

consists of two
polypeptide chains a haem group of each chain can
identical alpha
interact to produce a amino acids transport an oxygen
chains and two
globular chain surrounding an iron molecule
identical beta chains
ion

C polypeptide chains quaternary structure

an iron ion is each molecule can
interact to produce has two alpha
present within each transport a total of
an almost spherical chains and two beta
haem group four oxygen atoms
molecule chains

D polypeptide chains in each chain,

iron ions in the
produce a loose hydrophobic R each molecule can
molecule can bind
helical shape, which groups of amino transport a total of
reversibly with
folds to form a acids surround the eight oxygen atoms
oxygen
spherical molecule iron ion

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/M/J/16

 5

9 The diagrams show different types of bond found in biological molecules.

1 2 3

NH O C CH2 S S CH2 C N

4 5

NH3+ O– O C
C C
CH2 C C CH2
C O C
O O

Which bonds are found in proteins with a tertiary structure?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 2, 3, 4 and 5 C 1 and 5 D 2 and 4 only

10 In two investigations, the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction was measured in the presence of
either a competitive inhibitor or a non-competitive inhibitor.

What could be the effect of increasing the substrate concentration on each rate of reaction?

rate of reaction
with competitive with non-competitive
inhibitor inhibitor

A decreases no change
B increases decreases
C increases no change
D no change decreases

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/M/J/16 [Turn over

 6

11 Two enzymes, X and Y, were used in an experiment.

Enzyme X was from bacteria that live in rivers and lakes at temperatures from 5 °C to 20 °C.

Enzyme Y was from bacteria that live in hot water springs at temperatures from 40 °C to 85 °C.

The experiment measured the concentration of product produced by each enzyme at

temperatures between 0 °C and 100 °C after 5 minutes.

Which graph shows the results?

A B

X Y X Y

concentration concentration
of product of product

0 100 0 100
temperature / °C temperature / °C

C D

X Y
concentration Y concentration
of product of product X

0 100 0 100
temperature / °C temperature / °C

12 What is a function of the cholesterol in a cell surface membrane?

A acting as a membrane-bound receptor

B controlling active transport
C helping cells join together
D regulating the flexibility of the membrane

13 Which roles of the cell surface membrane are a result of the properties of the phospholipids?

1 to allow cytokinesis to occur in mitotic cell division

2 to allow entry and exit of oxygen and carbon dioxide

3 to allow the phagocytosis of a bacterium into a cell

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/M/J/16

 7

14 Which statements about active transport are always correct?

1 It does not require a membrane.

2 It occurs against the concentration gradient.
3 It moves oxygen molecules.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 only

15 There is a high concentration of molecule X outside the cell which enters the cell by facilitated
diffusion. The results of measuring the concentration of X inside the cell at 30 s intervals are
shown by the graph.

concentration
of X inside cell

0 30 60 90 120 150 180

time / s

Why does the concentration of X inside the cell remain constant after 150 s?

1 There is no more of X outside the cell.

2 The number of carrier proteins is limiting.
3 There is no net movement of X.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/M/J/16 [Turn over

 8

16 The photomicrographs show cells in various stages of the cell cycle.

1 2 3 4

Which cells contain twice as many DNA molecules as a cell from the same organism after
cytokinesis?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 only

17 A group of chemicals used to treat cancer prevents the formation of the spindle during mitosis.

Which phase of mitosis is the first to be affected?

A anaphase
B metaphase
C prophase
D telophase

18 Mitosis is an important process for organisms.

Which features of mitosis are important for single-celled organisms?

1 asexual reproduction
2 growth
3 production of genetically identical cells

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 only

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19 Which statements about complementary base pairing are correct?

1 Cytosine forms three hydrogen bonds with guanine.

2 Purines and pyrimidines are different sizes.
3 It allows transcription to occur.
4 The base pairs are of different lengths.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

20 Bacteria were grown in a medium containing 15N. After several generations, all of the DNA
contained 15N. Some of these bacteria were transferred to a medium containing the common
isotope of nitrogen, 14N. The bacteria were allowed to divide once. The DNA of some of these
bacteria was extracted and analysed. This DNA was all hybrid DNA containing equal amounts of
14
N and 15N.

The remaining bacteria were left in the medium with 14N and allowed to divide one more time.
The DNA of some of these bacteria was extracted and analysed.

What is the composition of this DNA?

A 25% hybrid DNA

B 50% hybrid DNA
C 75% hybrid DNA
D 100% hybrid DNA

21 Which statements about tRNA are correct?

1 It contains base pairing.

2 It contains hydrogen bonds.
3 It contains uracil.
4 It is single stranded.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1, 3 and 4 only C 1 and 2 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/M/J/16 [Turn over

 10

22 The diagram shows the nucleotide sequence of a small section of a gene which is transcribed.

TTCTTCCCGTTC

The table shows the amino acids coded for by 10 mRNA codons.

mRNA codon amino acid

AAG Lys
ACG Thr
CGG CGC CGU Arg
CCG Pro
GCC GCG Ala
GGC Gly
UGC Cys

What is the order of the four amino acids in the polypeptide translated from this small section of a
gene?

A Cys-Cys-Gly-Cys
B Lys-Lys-Gly-Lys
C Lys-Lys-Pro-Lys
D Thr-Thr-Pro-Thr

23 The graph shows the diameter of a tree trunk at different times.

X Z

diameter of
tree trunk Y
/ arbitrary units

24:00 12:00 24:00

time of day

Which statement is correct?

A X shows the expansion of the trunk as water fills the xylem during transpiration.
B Y shows a reduction in diameter of trunk as water is lost from the xylem due to transpiration.
C Y shows a reduction in diameter of trunk due to water held in tension in the xylem.
D Z shows the expansion of the trunk as the phloem tissue acts as a sink at night.

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/M/J/16

 11

24 Some plant species can take up toxic heavy metal ions that are dissolved in water in the soil.
These ions accumulate in the aerial parts of the plant, which can be harvested and disposed of
safely.

An investigation was carried out into the ability of a plant species to remove a heavy metal ion
from soil. This produced the following observations:

• some heavy metal ions accumulated in the cells of the root cortex

• within these cells, most of these ions were in the vacuole

• in the roots and leaves, the ions were transported dissolved in water.

Which suggestions about the transport and accumulation of heavy metals are valid?

1 After initial entry into the root, some of the ions can pass through the tonoplast.
2 In the roots and leaves, the ions pass through a symplastic or apoplastic pathway
but at the endodermis they must take a symplastic pathway.
3 In xylem vessels, the ions pass through an apoplastic pathway only.

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 1 only D 3 only

25 The diagram shows the results of an experiment on transpiration using two different leaves. Each
leaf was left on a balance in daylight in a closed room and its mass recorded at 1 hour intervals.

mass
of leaf leaf 1

leaf 2

0 1 2 3 4 5 6
time / hours

Which conclusions could be correct?

1 The loss of mass is mainly due to evaporation of water.

2 Most stomata close in both leaves after 1 hour.
3 Leaf 1 has a larger surface area than leaf 2.
4 Leaf 1 has a thicker cuticle than leaf 2.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 3 and 4 only

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/M/J/16 [Turn over

 12

26 Which statement about the transport of sucrose is correct?

A ATP synthesised by mitochondria of companion cells provides the energy to move sucrose
from phloem sieve tube elements in leaves to sinks.
B Sucrose moves through plasmodesmata by passive diffusion from mesophyll cells through
companion cells to phloem sieve tube elements.
C The water potential in phloem sieve tube elements becomes more negative following the
entry of sucrose.
D Water enters companion cells and hydrostatic pressure builds up to push sucrose into
phloem sieve tube elements by mass flow.

27 Which of the tissue types below are present in the walls of all blood vessels?

1 collagen
2 elastic
3 endothelial
4 smooth muscle

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 3 only

28 Which components of blood are present in tissue fluid?

phagocytes proteins sodium ions

A    key
B    = present
C    = absent
D   

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/M/J/16

 13

29 The graph shows changes in percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen in the blood of a
human and of another animal. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide remains constant at 1.0 kPa
and the temperature is constant at 25 °C.

human
100

animal

percentage
saturation of
haemoglobin
with oxygen

partial pressure of oxygen / kPa

Which conclusion is supported by the graph?

A At 25 °C the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen increases more in humans than in the animal.
B Haemoglobin in the animal carries less oxygen than haemoglobin in the human.
C Oxygen is more easily released from haemoglobin in animal muscle than in human muscle.
D The Bohr effect in the haemoglobin of the animal is greater than in human haemoglobin.

30 Which statements about the formation of haemoglobinic acid are correct?

1 It can only occur with the dissociation of oxygen from haemoglobin.

2 It acts to prevent excess hydrogen ions causing acidity in blood.
3 It depends on the release of hydrogen ions by the action of carbonic anhydrase.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 only

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/M/J/16 [Turn over

 14

31 The photograph shows a type of blood cell.

Which statements about these cells are correct?

1 Oxygen diffuses through the phospholipid bilayer.

2 Sodium ions diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer.
3 Water passes in and out of these cells by osmosis.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

32 A student was asked to describe the differences between four microscope slides of sections
taken from different parts of the gas exchange system.

slide 1 not present: cartilage, glands

present: few goblet cells, ciliated epithelial cells, smooth muscle
slide 2 present: incomplete cartilage rings, glands, goblet cells, ciliated epithelial cells, smooth
muscle
slide 3 not present: cartilage, glands, goblet cells, smooth muscle
present: squamous epithelial cells
slide 4 present: plates of cartilage, glands, goblet cells, ciliated epithelial cells, smooth muscle

Which is the correct identification of the parts of the gas exchange system?

slide 1 slide 2 slide 3 slide 4

A alveolus bronchiole bronchus trachea

B bronchiole bronchus alveolus trachea
C bronchiole trachea alveolus bronchus
D bronchus trachea bronchiole alveolus

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/M/J/16

 15

33 Which components of the human gas exchange system help to reduce the effects of carcinogens
in tar?

A cilia and goblet cells only

B cilia and mucous glands only
C mucous glands and goblet cells only
D mucous glands, goblet cells and cilia

34 What is correct about the affinity between haemoglobin and the gases carbon dioxide, carbon
monoxide and oxygen?

highest affinity lowest affinity

A carbon monoxide carbon dioxide oxygen

B carbon monoxide oxygen carbon dioxide
C oxygen carbon dioxide carbon monoxide
D oxygen carbon monoxide carbon dioxide

35 The table shows the names of five pathogens.

Which row matches the pathogens with the diseases they cause?

Morbillivirus Mycobacterium Plasmodium Variola Vibrio

A cholera measles TB malaria smallpox

B malaria smallpox cholera measles TB
C measles TB malaria smallpox cholera
D TB malaria smallpox cholera measles

36 Which disease exhibits all the following features?

• It can be transmitted by animals to other animals, including humans.

• One mode of transmission is by transfusion with contaminated blood.

• The causative organism can show multiple drug resistance.

• The majority of humans who die from the disease are children.

A cholera
B HIV / AIDS
C malaria
D tuberculosis

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/M/J/16 [Turn over

 16

37 The proportion of the local population who have malaria in area R is higher than the proportion in
area S.

Which factor causes this difference?

A Area R has a more humid climate than area S.

B Area R is nearer the equator than area S.
C There is a higher population in area R than area S.
D There is less sewage treatment in area R than area S.

38 Which statement describes how passive natural immunity is obtained?

A A vaccination containing dead microorganisms is given.

B An immunisation containing specific antigens is given.
C Antibodies are passed from mother to developing baby.
D Antibodies from another individual are injected.

39 What describes a non-specific immune response?

A activation of killer T-lymphocytes by infected cells

B cloning of B-lymphocytes to form plasma cells
C ingestion of a bacterial cell by a neutrophil
D presentation of antigens on the cell surface of macrophages

40 What explains why monoclonal antibodies can be used to target cancer cells?

A Cancer cells have different antigens from normal body cells.

B Specific cancer drugs can be attached to the monoclonal antibody.
C They are one type of a specific antibody that binds to an antigen.
D They are secreted by hybridomas of cancer cells and B-lymphocytes.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/M/J/16

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2016
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7827360565*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 14 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB16 06_9700_13/3RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over
 2

1 An eyepiece graticule can be calibrated using a stage micrometer.

What is the correct reason why an eyepiece graticule is calibrated?

A An eyepiece graticule can be used to make measurements.

B An eyepiece graticule is magnified by the objective lens.
C An eyepiece graticule magnifies the specimen.
D An eyepiece graticule makes comparisons.

2 For which cell component would nanometres be the most appropriate unit of measurement?

A a cell surface membrane

B a chloroplast
C a mitochondrion
D a nucleolus

3 Which organelles are required for the formation of lysosomes containing hydrolytic enzymes?

mitochondria

A D C

rough Golgi
endoplasmic apparatus
reticulum

4 What are found in both chloroplasts and mitochondria?

A 70S ribosomes only

B 70S ribosomes and circular DNA
C 80S ribosomes and circular DNA
D circular DNA only

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/M/J/16

 3

5 Which types of RNA are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

mRNA rRNA tRNA

A


key
B


= present
C 

= absent
D 


6 A sample of milk was tested with Benedict’s solution and a yellow colour was observed.

Which conclusion is correct?

A No non-reducing sugars are present.

B Reducing sugars are present.
C There is a high concentration of glucose.
D There is a high concentration of sucrose.

7 The diagrams show four monosaccharides with the formula C6H12O6.

Which diagram shows β-glucose?

A B C D

CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH

H O H H O OH H O H H O OH
H H H H
OH H OH H H H OH HO
HO OH HO H HO OH HO H
H OH H OH OH OH H H

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/M/J/16 [Turn over

 4

8 The diagram shows the relationship between different polysaccharides and the glycosidic bonds
formed between the monomers.

1 2 3 4 5

Which row is correct?

1 2 3 4 5

A amylopectin α-1,-6 glycogen α-1,-4 amylopectin

B amylose α-1,-4 cellulose β-1,-4 glycogen
C cellulose α-1,-4 amylose α-1,-4 glycogen
D glycogen β-1,-6 amylopectin α-1,-4 amylose

9 When a small quantity of phospholipid is added to a test-tube of water and then shaken
vigorously, an emulsion is formed by small droplets called liposomes.

Which diagram shows the arrangement of phospholipid molecules in a cross-section of a

liposome?

A B C D

10 Which of the bonds will be last to break as the temperature of an enzyme is increased?

A hydrogen
B hydrophobic interactions
C ionic
D peptide

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/M/J/16

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11 Which statement is only true for the induced fit theory of enzyme action?

A A few amino acids give the active site a specific shape.

B An enzyme has a substrate with a specific shape.
C The enzyme changes shape in the presence of the substrate.
D The substrate molecules are complementary to the active site.

12 The effect of substrate concentration on an enzyme-catalysed reaction was measured in three

different conditions:

● with no inhibitor
● with inhibitor X
● with inhibitor Y.

The graph shows the results.

enzyme with
no inhibitor

inhibitor X
rate of
reaction
inhibitor Y

0
0 substrate concentration

Which statement is correct?

A X is a competitive inhibitor which binds away from the active site of the enzyme.
B X is a non-competitive inhibitor which has a similar shape to the substrate.
C Y is a competitive inhibitor which has a similar shape to the substrate.
D Y is a non-competitive inhibitor which binds away from the active site of the enzyme.

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/M/J/16 [Turn over

 6

13 The list includes some of the molecules found in a cell surface membrane.

1 glycolipid
2 surface protein
3 glycoprotein
4 trans-membrane protein

Which molecules are involved in cell signalling?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 4 D 4 only

14 Which statements about fatty acids are correct?

1 form part of cell membranes

2 form storage droplets
3 are synthesised by the Golgi body

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

15 Which substances can pass directly through cell surface membranes without using a carrier
protein or channel protein?

1 Ca2+ and Na+

2 O2
3 C6H12O6

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 only

16 Which statements about endocytosis are correct?

1 It is a process requiring energy in the form of ATP.

2 Phagocytosis is a form of endocytosis.
3 Substances brought into a cell by endocytosis are enclosed in a small vacuole.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

17 Which process occurs during prophase of the mitotic cell cycle in an animal cell?

A division of centromeres
B formation of chromosomes
C replication of DNA
D separation of centrioles

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/M/J/16

 7

18 Which processes occur in bone marrow cells that are in a mitotic cell cycle?

1 phosphate groups bind to ADP molecules to form ATP

2 bonds form between nucleotides in a DNA strand
3 tRNA anticodons hydrogen bond with codons on mRNA

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

19 Which diagram shows a correct ring structure and named nucleic acid base?

A B C D

adenine cytosine thymine uracil

20 Which statements are correct?

1 Adenine and cytosine are both purines.

2 The DNA nucleotide containing adenine is different from the RNA nucleotide
containing adenine.
3 Purines only form base pairs with pyrimidines.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

21 A short piece of DNA 18 base pairs long was analysed to find the number of nucleotide bases in
each of the polynucleotide strands. Some of the results are shown below.

number of nucleotide bases

adenine cytosine guanine thymine

strand 1 4 7
strand 2 5

How many nucleotides containing thymine were present in strand 2?

A 2 B 4 C 5 D 7

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/M/J/16 [Turn over

 8

22 The diagram shows the nucleotide sequence of a small section of a gene which is transcribed.

CGGGCCCCGCGG

The table shows the amino acids coded for by 10 mRNA codons.

mRNA codon amino acid

AAG Lys
ACG Thr
CGG CGC CGU Arg
CCG Pro
GCC GCG Ala
GGC Gly
UGC Cys

What is the order of the four amino acids in the polypeptide translated from this small section of a
gene?

A Ala-Ala-Cys-Ala
B Ala-Arg-Gly-Ala
C Arg-Ala-Pro-Arg
D Arg-Arg-Thr-Arg

23 During transpiration, what is the site of evaporation of water in the leaves?

A air spaces
B guard cell walls
C mesophyll cell walls
D stomata

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/M/J/16

 9

24 Water passes across leaf tissues by different routes as a result of:

● differences in water potential

● the pull transmitted by cohesive forces between water molecules.

The diagram shows three routes by which water can travel.

epidermal
cuticle cell

palisade cell

xylem vessel

cells of the key

spongy route 1 = apoplastic
mesophyll route 2 = vacuolar
route 3 = symplastic

cuticle atmosphere epidermal

cell

Which row correctly identifies why water passes across leaf tissues by the different routes?

differences in pull transmitted by

water potential cohesive forces

A route 1 routes 2 and 3

B routes 1 and 3 route 2
C route 2 routes 1 and 3
D routes 2 and 3 route 1

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/M/J/16 [Turn over

 10

25 Which factors contribute to the increase in transpiration rate when the temperature rises?

1 concentration of water molecules increases in air spaces due to evaporation

2 increased rate of diffusion as water molecules have more kinetic energy
3 increased hydrogen bonding between water molecules in air spaces

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

26 ATP is used in companion cells to provide the energy for loading a sieve tube element with
sucrose.

How does the co-transporter mechanism use this energy?

A to pump protons into the sieve tube element

B to pump protons out of the companion cell
C to pump sucrose into the sieve tube element
D to pump sucrose out of the companion cell

27 Which changes to the water potential and the volume of liquid in the phloem sieve tube element
occur when sucrose is moved from the phloem sieve tube element to an actively dividing shoot
tip?

water potential volume of

in phloem liquid in phloem
sieve tube sieve tube
element element
A higher decreases
B higher increases
C lower decreases
D lower increases

28 Which events occur during ventricular systole?

1 atrioventricular valves close

2 muscle in ventricle walls relaxes
3 semilunar valves open

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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 11

29 Which components of blood are present in lymph?

white blood sodium

proteins
cells ions

A


key
B


= present
C 

= absent
D 


30 Which row gives the correct labels for the diagram shown?

body
tissue blood capillary

CO2

CO2 + haemoglobin
CO2
CO2 + H2O
1
2
H2CO3

HCO3– + H+

1 2 3

A carbaminohaemoglobin carbonic anhydrase hydrogencarbonate

B carbonic anhydrase carbaminohaemoglobin carbon dioxide
C carbonic anhydrase carbaminohaemoglobin hydrogencarbonate
D hydrogencarbonate carbon dioxide carbonic anhydrase

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/M/J/16 [Turn over

 12

31 An increase in carbon dioxide in human blood shifts the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve to the
right.

What is the explanation for this effect?

A An increase in carbon dioxide concentration increases the breathing rate.

B Carbon dioxide is more soluble than oxygen and displaces it.
C Diffusion of carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood is more rapid.
D Increasing the H+ concentration decreases haemoglobin affinity for oxygen.

32 A person has two blood tests one month apart. The number of each type of cell in a fixed sample
size is counted.

type of cell first test after one month

red blood cells normal higher

lymphocytes normal higher

What could this suggest about the person based on the results after one month?

body temperature moved to higher ATP synthesis

higher altitude in cells is higher

A no no yes
B no yes no
C yes no no
D yes yes yes

33 Goblet cells are found in the trachea.

Which organelles would be found in large numbers in a goblet cell?

Golgi
mitochondria ribosomes
body

A


key
B


= present in large numbers
C

= not present in large numbers
D 

34 What is the minimum number of layers of phospholipids that a molecule of oxygen passes
through when diffusing from the alveoli, through cells, to haemoglobin in the red blood cells?

A 4 B 6 C 8 D 10

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/M/J/16

 13

35 Which symptoms may be seen in a person affected by chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD)?

1 persistent cough
2 less elastic alveoli
3 increased risk of lung infection
4 shortness of breath

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D 1 and 4 only

36 More people are exposed to the risk of contracting malaria due to an increase in the distribution
of Anopheles mosquitoes.

What could be the cause of this increase?

A drug resistance in Plasmodium

B global warming
C insecticide resistance
D no effective vaccine

37 An antibiotic inhibits the formation of cross-links between the molecules that form cell walls in
bacteria.

Which statements explain why bacteria are killed by the antibiotic?

1 The bacterial cell is destroyed by osmotic lysis.

2 Cellulose molecules cannot form hydrogen bonds.
3 The cell wall is no longer selectively permeable.

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 only

38 Which of these pathogens can be transmitted by air?

1 Plasmodium
2 Morbillivirus
3 Mycobacterium
4 Vibrio

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/M/J/16 [Turn over

 14

39 The graph shows the antibody response when a person is injected first with antigen X and later
with antigens X and Y.

Which curve shows the primary response to antigen Y?

A B

antibody
concentration
D C

time
antigen X antigen X and Y
injected injected

40 Which row describes passive immunity?

involves an memory
triggered by permanent
immune cells
an antigen protection
response produced

A



key
B

 
= true
C  

= false
D    

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/M/J/16

 15

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/M/J/16

 16

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/M/J/16

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2016
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7093770083*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB16 11_9700_11/3RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over
 2

1 The diagram shows a transverse section through a blood capillary.

wall of endothelium

lumen

7 µm

What is the magnification of the drawing?

A × 200 B × 245 C × 500 D × 5000

2 A culture of human cells had its cell surface membranes removed, releasing the cell contents.

This material became contaminated by bacteria.

The material was then centrifuged, separating out the various cell structures according to size
and mass.

Which cell structure would be separated out along with the bacteria?

A endoplasmic reticulum
B mitochondria
C nuclei
D ribosomes

3 Which parts of a cell contain ribosomes?

1 chloroplast
2 mitochondrion
3 nucleus
4 cytoplasm

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1, 2 and 3 only C 1, 2 and 4 only D 3 and 4 only

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/O/N/16

 3

4 The electron micrograph shows part of two eukaryotic cells.

Which features are also found in prokaryotes?

A W only B X only C X and Y only D W, X and Y

5 Which of the structures are found in photosynthetic prokaryotes?

1 cell surface membrane

2 cellulose wall
3 ribosomes
4 chloroplasts

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1, 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only

6 In order to estimate the quantity of glucose in a solution, equal volumes of a range of known
concentrations were mixed with equal excess volumes of Benedict’s solution and placed in a
thermostatically controlled water-bath at 90 °C for the same length of time.

The unknown solution was then treated in the same way and the colours of the known and
unknown solutions compared.

What is the independent variable in this procedure?

A concentration of glucose
B final colour of solutions
C temperature of water-bath
D volumes of glucose solutions

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/O/N/16 [Turn over

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7 What cannot occur as a result of a condensation reaction?

A breaking of a glycosidic bond

B formation of a disaccharide
C joining together two amino acids
D production of a molecule of water

8 Which pair of monosaccharides forms sucrose?

CH2OH CH2OH
H O H H O OH
H H
A
OH H OH H
OH OH OH H
H OH H OH

CH2OH CH2OH
H O H H O H
H H
B
OH H OH H
OH OH OH OH
H OH H OH

CH2OH
HOCH2 O OH
H O H
H OH
C H
CH2OH
OH H H
OH OH
OH H
H OH

CH2OH
HOCH2 O OH
H O OH
H OH
D H
CH2OH
OH H H
OH H OH H
H OH

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/O/N/16

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9 The diagram shows the relationship between different polysaccharides and the glycosidic bonds
formed between the monomers.

1 2 3 4 5

Which row is correct?

1 2 3 4 5

A amylopectin α-1,6 cellulose β-1,4 glycogen

B amylose α-1,4 glycogen β-1,4 amylopectin
C cellulose β-1,4 amylose α-1,4 glycogen
D glycogen α-1,6 amylopectin α-1,4 amylose

10 The diagrams show some of the types of bond in fatty acids.

1 2 3
O
C C
C
C C C C
OH

Which row shows the bonds found in each type of molecule?

unsaturated saturated
fatty acid fatty acid

A 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only

B 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3
D 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3

11 What could describe the tertiary structure of a protein?

1 α-helix
2 a globular structure
3 the specific order of amino acids
4 a specific three-dimensional (3D) shape

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 2 and 4 only D 3 and 4

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12 Following a heart attack, the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase leaks into the blood plasma from
damaged heart muscle.

Which steps are required to obtain an estimate of lactate dehydrogenase activity in a sample of
blood plasma?

incubate with incubate with

sterilise blood
substrate for lactate
plasma by
lactate dehydrogenase
heating
dehydrogenase inhibitor

A    key
B    = step required
C    = step not required
D   

13 Two experiments were carried out using an enzyme from humans. The first experiment, X, was
carried out at a constant temperature of 37 °C. During the second experiment, the temperature
was increased from 37 °C to 80 °C. All other factors were kept the same.

Which graph shows the results?

A B

X X

product product
concentration concentration

0 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes time / minutes

C D

product X product
concentration concentration

0 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes time / minutes

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/O/N/16

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14 Which molecules are found at the outer surface of a cell surface membrane?

cholesterol glycolipids phospholipids

A    key
B    = present
C    = absent
D   

15 Which substances can pass directly through cell surface membranes without using a carrier
protein or channel protein?

1 CO2
2 Ca2+ and Na+
3 H2O

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 only

16 Which statements about the proteins in cell surface membranes are correct?

1 They can be involved in active transport and facilitated diffusion.

2 They can be involved in antigen recognition.
3 They have hydrophilic R groups to interact with the inner portion of the membrane.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

17 Which row is correct for a human cell just before the cell enters prophase of mitosis?

number of number of molecules nuclear envelope

spindle present
chromatids of DNA in nucleus present

A 46 46 yes no
B 46 92 yes yes
C 92 46 no yes
D 92 92 no yes

18 Which event is part of the mitotic cell cycle?

A anaphase
B cytokinesis
C DNA replication
D interphase

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/O/N/16 [Turn over

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19 The diagram shows part of a DNA molecule.

1 2

4 3

Which labels represent purines?

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 4 C 3 and 1 D 4 and 3

20 A double stranded DNA molecule was analysed and 29% of its nucleotide bases were found to
be adenine.

What percentage of its nucleotide bases will be cytosine?

A 21% B 29% C 42% D 58%

21 When a gene mutation occurs, which of the following may be altered, resulting in the production
of a non-functional protein?

1 amino acid sequence

2 DNA nucleotide sequence
3 mRNA nucleotide sequence

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/O/N/16

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22 The diagram shows the nucleotide sequence of a small section of a gene which is transcribed.

GCAGCATGCGCG

The table shows the amino acids coded for by 10 mRNA codons.

mRNA codon amino acid

AAG Lys
ACG Thr
CGG CGC CGU Arg
CCG Pro
GCC GCG Ala
GGC Gly
UGC Cys

What is the order of the four amino acids in the polypeptide translated from this small section of a
gene?

A Ala-Ala-Cys-Ala
B Ala-Arg-Gly-Ala
C Arg-Ala-Pro-Arg
D Arg-Arg-Thr-Arg

23 Which changes to the water potential and the volume of liquid in the phloem occur when
carbohydrate is taken out of a sink into a phloem sieve tube element?

water potential volume of liquid

in phloem sieve in phloem sieve
tube element tube element

A higher decreases
B higher increases
C lower decreases
D lower increases

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/O/N/16 [Turn over

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24 A dendrograph records changes in the diameter of a tree. The diagram shows a dendrograph
fixed to a tree.

Some results are shown on the chart recording.

dendrograph fixed to a tree chart recording

tree

chart

diameter

12 00 24 00 12 00 24 00 12 00
time of day

What explains the diameter changes recorded during the day and night?

A Adhesion forces decrease during the night.

B Cohesive tension forces increase during the day.
C Mass flow of sucrose increases during the night.
D Root pressure decreases during the day.

25 Which description is correct for xylem vessel elements?

A cells joined to form a tube, pits at intervals, sieve plates between cells, surrounded by the
endodermis in roots
B contains cells joined end to end, containing cytoplasm, cell walls with lignin, located to the
outside of phloem in vascular bundles
C contains elongated cells with end walls broken down, located in vascular bundles in the stem
and centrally in the roots
D dead elongated cells, lignified cell walls with pits at intervals, associated with companion
cells in the roots only

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/O/N/16

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26 Different substances, such as sucrose and amino acids, can move in different directions in the
phloem sieve tube elements.

Which statement explains this?

A Active transport occurs in some phloem sieve tube elements and mass flow occurs in other
sieve tube elements.
B Both active transport and mass flow occur in each individual phloem sieve tube element.
C Mass flow occurs in both directions at the same time in each individual phloem sieve tube
element.
D Mass flow occurs in different directions in different phloem sieve tube elements at the same
time.

27 Which describes possible mechanisms by which sucrose is transferred from a mesophyll cell into
a companion cell?

1 co-transport with the active transport of hydrogen ions

2 co-transport by passive diffusion of hydrogen ions
3 facilitated diffusion through plasmodesmata

A 1 and 3 B 2 and 3 C 1 only D 2 only

28 Which statement about haemoglobin is correct?

A Carbon dioxide increases its affinity for oxygen.

B Its affinity for oxygen changes with altitude.
C It can combine reversibly with carbon monoxide.
D It can combine with carbon dioxide.

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29 The diagram shows a section through the heart.

Which label is correct?

A pulmonary artery
B left ventricle
C right atrium
D aorta

30 What is the reason for the increase in red blood cells in humans at high altitudes?

A to compensate for the low percentage saturation of haemoglobin

B to enable haemoglobin to unload more oxygen in the tissues by the Bohr effect
C to ensure that haemoglobin is almost 90% saturated when it reaches the tissues
D to increase the number of mitochondria in the blood for ATP production

31 Which statement explains why the oxygen dissociation curve for haemoglobin is S-shaped?

A At high oxygen concentrations, oxygen dissociates from the haemoglobin molecule.

B Haemoglobin becomes saturated at low partial pressures of oxygen.
C Oxygenated haemoglobin accepts hydrogen ions from carbonic acid.
D The shape of the haemoglobin molecule changes when oxygen binds to it.

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/O/N/16

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32 Which reactions take place in a capillary in an alveolus?

1 carbon dioxide + water → carbonic acid

2 carbon dioxide + haemoglobin → carbaminohaemoglobin

3 haemoglobinic acid → haemoglobin + hydrogen ions

4 hydrogencarbonate ions + hydrogen ions → carbon dioxide + water

A 1 and 2 B 3 and 4 C 3 only D 4 only

33 A student viewed three slides at both low magnification and high magnification. Each slide was a
section through a different airway of the gas exchange system.

The student observed three features in each slide.

slide three features observed by student

irregular arrangement of cartilage

1 highly folded inner layer
cilia on epithelial cells
very few goblet cells
2 cilia on epithelial cells
thick layer of smooth muscle relative to wall thickness
smooth muscle tissue
3 blood vessels
many goblet cells

Which row is the correct set of identifications for the three slides?

slide 1 slide 2 slide 3

A bronchus bronchiole trachea

B bronchus trachea bronchiole
C trachea bronchiole bronchus
D trachea bronchus bronchiole

34 Which organelle is present in large quantities in ciliated epithelial cells?

A Golgi body
B lysosomes
C mitochondria
D rough endoplasmic reticulum

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/O/N/16 [Turn over

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35 In some cases where a person has lung disease, the partial pressure of oxygen in the pulmonary
veins is less than the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.

What could explain the difference in partial pressure of oxygen?

1 A high proportion of alveoli are collapsed and do not have enough alveolar
capillaries.
2 The partial pressure of oxygen in the pulmonary arteries is lower than in the alveolar
air.
3 The rate of diffusion of oxygen from the alveolar air to the surrounding alveolar
capillaries is too slow.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

36 Why is it difficult to control the spread of malaria?

1 Global air travel for commerce and tourism has increased.

2 The mosquito vector rapidly evolves resistance to insecticides.
3 The Plasmodium pathogen shows great antigenic variability.
4 Civil unrest and poverty result in overcrowded living conditions.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

37 Which description gives the correct cause and transmission for TB, measles and HIV / AIDS?

TB measles HIV / AIDS

cause transmission cause transmission cause transmission

A bacteria airborne virus airborne virus bodily fluids

droplets droplets
B bacteria water bacteria airborne protoctist insect vector
borne droplets
C protoctist airborne bacteria insect vector virus airborne
droplets droplets
D virus bodily fluids protoctist bodily fluids bacteria bodily fluids

38 What describes a function of a T-lymphocyte?

A They are only found in blood and secrete cytokines in response to infection.
B They can leave the blood and accumulate at sites of inflammation.
C They can leave the blood and secrete cytotoxins when exposed to bacteria.
D They circulate in the blood and always present antigens in response to infection.

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/O/N/16

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39 A person’s blood group is determined by antigens present on the red blood cells.

The table shows the antigens and antibodies in the blood of people with different blood groups.

blood group antigens on red blood cells antibodies in plasma

A A antibodies to B
B B antibodies to A
AB A and B neither
O neither antibodies to A and B

During a blood transfusion, it is essential that the recipient’s blood does not contain antibodies to
the donor’s blood.

Which blood group can be given to a person with blood group AB?

A AB only
B O only
C B and A only
D A, B, AB and O

40 Which statement about immunity is correct?

A Antibody donation, but not antibody production, occurs with artificial active and artificial
passive immunity.
B Artificial active immunity lasts for a greater length of time than natural passive immunity.
C Natural active immunity provides a faster response to infection than artificial active immunity.
D Recognition and binding by specific B-lymphocytes only occurs with natural immunity.

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/O/N/16

 16

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 9700/11/O/N/16

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2016
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*1003441361*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB16 11_9700_12/3RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over
 2

1 Until recently, the typical viruses known to science were 20 – 150 nm in size.

In 2003, the Mimivirus was discovered with a size of approximately 680 nm.

In 2013, the Pandoravirus was discovered which has a size of over 1000 nm.

Which viruses can be seen using both a light microscope with a maximum resolution of 0.25 µm
and an electron microscope?

typical virus Mimivirus Pandoravirus

A


key
B 


= can be seen
C  
= cannot be seen
D   

2 This electron micrograph of a section of a leaf has a magnification of × 210.

What is the actual length along the line X–Y?

A 2.43 µm B 24.3 µm C 243.0 µm D 2430 µm

3 What is the correct order in which organelles function to make and secrete an enzyme?

A nucleolus → ribosome → Golgi body → vesicle

B nucleolus → smooth endoplasmic reticulum → lysosome → vesicle

C nucleus → rough endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi body → vesicle

D nucleus → smooth endoplasmic reticulum → lysosome → vesicle

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/O/N/16

 3

4 The diagram shows a stage micrometer scale, with divisions 0.1 mm apart, viewed through an
eyepiece containing a graticule.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 10

What is the area of the field of view of the microscope at this magnification? (π = 3.14)

A π × 12.5 × 12.5 = 4.9 × 102 µm2

B π × 50 × 50 = 7.9 × 103 µm2

C π × 125 × 125 = 4.9 × 104 µm2

D π × 250 × 250 = 2.0 × 105 µm2

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/O/N/16 [Turn over

 4

5 A scientist carried out an experiment to separate the organelles in an animal cell by mass.

The scientist mixed the cells with a buffer solution which had the same water potential as the
cells. He then broke the cells open with a blender to release the organelles.

The extracted mixture was filtered and then spun in a centrifuge at a high speed to separate the
heaviest organelle. This sank to the bottom, forming a solid pellet, 1.

liquid above
pellet

solid pellet

The liquid above pellet 1 was poured into a clean centrifuge tube and spun in the centrifuge at a
higher speed to separate the next heaviest organelle. This organelle sank to the bottom, forming
a solid pellet, 2.

He repeated this procedure twice more to obtain pellet 3 and pellet 4, each containing a single
organelle.

What is the function of the organelle extracted in pellet 2?

A digestion of old organelles

B production of ATP
C production of mRNA
D synthesis of protein

6 Which is a correct comparison between a typical prokaryotic cell and a typical eukaryotic cell?

prokaryote eukaryote

A circular DNA only linear DNA only

B naked DNA DNA associated with protein
C rough endoplasmic smooth endoplasmic reticulum and
reticulum present rough endoplasmic reticulum present

D ribosomes approximately ribosomes approximately

22 nm diameter 18 nm in diameter

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/O/N/16

 5

7 The diagrams show four monosaccharides with the formula C6H12O6.

1 2 3 4

CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH

H O H H O OH H O H H O H
H H H H
OH H OH H H H OH HO
HO OH HO H HO OH HO OH
H OH H OH OH OH H H

Which diagrams do not show glucose molecules?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

8 Complete digestion of polysaccharides requires all the glycosidic bonds between the monomers
to be broken.

Amylase breaks only α-1,4 glycosidic bonds.

How completely can amylase digest molecules of amylose, amylopectin or glycogen?

carbohydrate
amylose amylopectin glycogen

A + +++ ++ key
B + ++ +++ + some digestion

C ++ + +++ ++ more digestion

D +++ ++ + +++ most digestion

9 Which statements about a triglyceride molecule are correct?

1 It always contains unsaturated hydrocarbon tails.

2 It is formed using ester bonds.
3 It does not form hydrogen bonds.
4 It contains a hydrophilic glycerol head.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 2, 3 and 4 C 1 and 4 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/O/N/16 [Turn over

 6

10 The table shows some features of collagen and haemoglobin.

Which row is collagen?

number of solubility in
type of protein
polypeptides water

A fibrous three insoluble

B fibrous four soluble
C globular three insoluble
D globular four soluble

11 The ring structure of sugars can also be represented as a linear structure, as shown in the
diagram.

C O

H C OH

HO C H

H C OH

H C OH

CH2OH

Which of the sugar molecules could be represented by this formula?

1 β-glucose
2 ribose
3 sucrose

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 only

12 What is the minimum number of carbon atoms in an amino acid?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/O/N/16

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13 HIV-1 protease is an enzyme produced by the HIV virus.

Two identical chains of 99 amino acids form the enzyme. In each chain, amino acids 25, 26 and
27 in the sequence form part of the active site.

Which orders of protein structure control the shape of the active site?

A primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary

B primary, secondary and tertiary only
C primary and quaternary only
D quaternary only

14 The graph shows the results of an investigation into the effect of amylase on starch at three
different temperatures.

50 °C
60 °C
concentration of
reducing sugar 70 °C
/ arbitrary units

0 30 60
time / minutes

Which statements are correct conclusions using these results?

1 The optimum temperature is 50 °C.

2 The initial rate of reaction is highest at 70 °C.

3 The higher the temperature the more quickly the enzyme denatures.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

15 Substances called furanocoumarins are found in some fruits, where they act as inhibitors of the
enzyme CYP3A4. This enzyme is needed to break down toxins in the human digestive system,
so dangerous levels of these toxins may develop if these fruits are eaten.

What does this information suggest about molecules of the enzyme CYP3A4?

A They lower the activation energy of the toxin breakdown process.

B They show specificity for a particular substrate found in fruits.
C They will change permanently when acted upon by furanocoumarin molecules.
D They will resume normal activity when levels of furanocoumarins decrease.

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16 Which observations support a link between active transport and ATP production?

1 Active transport occurs only in living cells.

2 The rate of active transport decreases in low oxygen concentrations.
3 Companion cells have large numbers of mitochondria.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

17 A method called freeze-fracture can be used to study the structure of cell membranes. The
membrane is frozen and then split down the middle, separating the two layers of phospholipids
from each other. Any proteins contained within one layer remain in that layer. Proteins which
span the membrane can be found in either layer after freeze-fracture, depending on the
properties of the protein.

Which statement about the results of freeze-fracture studies are correct?

1 It provides evidence for the bilayer nature of membranes.

2 It provides evidence for the arrangement of proteins.
3 It shows that the proteins in the membrane do not contribute to its strength.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 only

18 The stalk of a dandelion flower is a hollow tube. Pieces of the stalk are cut as shown and placed
in sucrose solutions of different water potentials.

thick walled
outer cells
hollow centre
of stalk

cuts thin walled

inner cells

Which diagram shows the piece that is placed in the sucrose solution with the highest water
potential?

A B

C D

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19 Three of the molecules found in prokaryotes are listed below.

1 phospholipid
2 protein
3 peptidoglycan

Which of these molecules are found in prokaryotic cell surface membranes?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

20 Which row correctly shows the behaviour of the nuclear envelope, the centrioles and the spindle
during a stage of mitosis?

stage of behaviour of organelle

mitosis nuclear envelope centrioles spindle
A prophase disappears replicate spindle microtubules
begin to form
B metaphase not present begin to move to spindle microtubules
poles of cell fully formed
C anaphase begins to reform at opposite some spindle
poles of the cell microtubules shorten
D telophase reforms one beside spindle microtubules
each nucleus break down

21 Which group of cells can all divide by mitosis?

A bacterial cells, cancer cells, stem cells

B bacterial cells, lymphocytes, stem cells
C cancer cells, lymphocytes, red blood cells
D cancer cells, lymphocytes, stem cells

22 Which row represents the correct features of the nitrogenous base cytosine?

joins its
has a
complementary
single ring is a purine
base by three
structure
hydrogen bonds

A

 key
B


= true
C 
 = false
D  

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23 Bacteria were grown in a medium containing 15N. After several generations, all of the DNA
contained 15N. Some of these bacteria were transferred to a medium containing the common
isotope of nitrogen, 14N. The bacteria were allowed to divide once. The DNA of some of these
bacteria was extracted and analysed. This DNA was all hybrid DNA containing equal amounts of
14
N and 15N.

In another experiment, some bacteria from the medium with 15N were transferred into a medium
of 14N. The bacteria were allowed to divide three times. The DNA of some of these bacteria was
extracted and analysed.

What is the composition of this DNA?

A B
100 100

75 75
percentage percentage
50 50
of DNA of DNA
25 25

0 0
14 14
N N / 15N 14
N 14
N / 15N

C D
100 100

75 75
percentage percentage
50 50
of DNA of DNA
25 25

0 0
14 14
N N / 15N 14
N 14
N / 15N

24 Which processes are involved in the mass movement of water through xylem vessels?

1 hydrogen bonding between water molecules

2 cohesion between water molecules
3 adhesion between water molecules and lignin

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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25 The diagrams show transverse sections of parts of a plant.

leaf stem
3
1
4

In the transverse sections, which tissues transport most mineral ions?

1 2 3 4

A

 key
B
 

= yes
C 

 = no
D 


26 Which changes to the water potential and the volume of liquid in the phloem occur when amino
acids are transferred from leaves to be transported to a sink in the phloem sieve tube element?

water potential volume of liquid

in phloem sieve in phloem sieve
tube element tube element

A higher decreases
B higher increases
C lower decreases
D lower increases

27 External factors change the rate of transpiration, which also affects the water potential gradient of
cells in the leaf.

Which combination of statements is correct?

external factor changing the water potential gradient

rate of transpiration in the leaf

A decreasing temperature increases

B decreasing wind speed increases
C increasing relative humidity decreases
D increasing sunlight decreases

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28 The diagram shows a model to demonstrate mass flow.

water
concentrated dilute sucrose solution
sucrose solution Y X Z

partially permeable partially permeable

membrane membrane

In a plant, what are the structures W, X, Y and Z and what is the direction of flow of solution along
W?

phloem xylem roots leaves direction of flow along W

A W X Y Z from Z to Y
B W X Z Y from Y to Z
C X W Y Z from Y to Z
D X W Z Y from Z to Y

29 Which blood vessels carry blood into the atria of the heart?

A coronary artery and pulmonary artery

B pulmonary artery and vena cava
C pulmonary vein and vena cava
D vena cava and coronary artery

30 Which statement describes the effect of increased carbon dioxide concentration on the oxygen
dissociation curve of human haemoglobin and its significance?

A The curve shifts to the left allowing haemoglobin to bind more oxygen in active tissues.
B The curve shifts to the left allowing haemoglobin to offload more oxygen in active tissues.
C The curve shifts to the right allowing haemoglobin to bind more oxygen in active tissues.
D The curve shifts to the right allowing haemoglobin to offload more oxygen in active tissues.

31 What combines with haemoglobin to form carbaminohaemoglobin?

A carbon dioxide
B carbon monoxide
C carbonic acid
D hydrogencarbonate ions

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32 The graph shows the pressure in three parts of the heart during one cycle.

pressure key
/ kPa left ventricle
aorta
left atrium

0
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8
time / s

At 0.2 seconds, which part of the heart is responding to the excitatory stimulus?

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33 The diagram shows part of the organisation of the circulation of a mammal.

1 2 3 4

vena cava
aorta

Where are both the blood pressure and speed of flow lowest?

lowest blood lowest speed

pressure of flow

A 1 4
B 2 3
C 3 2
D 4 1

34 A student made some labelled drawings of lung tissue using the high-power lens of a light
microscope, but did not label two airways, P and Q.

The drawing of the lining layer of P showed both ciliated cells and goblet cells, whilst the drawing
of the lining layer of Q showed ciliated cells but very few goblet cells.

What are airways P and Q?

airway
P Q

A bronchiole trachea
B bronchiole bronchus
C bronchus bronchiole
D trachea bronchus

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35 What maintains the steep concentration gradients needed for successful gas exchange in the
lungs?

1 Air flow in the alveoli is in the opposite direction to blood flow in the capillaries.
2 Blood arrives in the lungs with a lower oxygen concentration and a higher carbon
dioxide concentration than the air in the alveoli.
3 Blood is constantly flowing through and out of the lungs, bringing a fresh supply of
red blood cells.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

36 The photomicrograph shows part of the lung as seen using a light microscope.

2
3

Which row is correct for the features labelled 1, 2 and 3?

1 2 3

A alveolus bronchiole capillary

B alveolus capillary bronchiole
C bronchiole alveolus small artery
D small artery alveolus bronchiole

37 Which disease is not likely to be passed directly from parents to child?

A cholera
B malaria
C sickle cell anaemia
D tuberculosis

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38 Why is it difficult to control the spread of measles?

1 Global air travel for commerce and tourism has increased.

2 The virus that causes measles rapidly evolves resistance to antibiotics.
3 The virus that causes measles shows great antigenic variability.
4 Civil unrest and poverty result in overcrowded living conditions.

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1, 2 and 3 C 1 and 4 only D 4 only

39 The following are all responses made by cells of the immune system to a pathogen.

1 mitosis
2 bind to infected cell
3 produce memory cells
4 secrete antibodies

Which of the responses is correct for β-lymphocytes?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1, 2 and 4 only C 1 and 3 only D 2, 3 and 4 only

40 What occurs when active immunity is artificially induced?

A Non-self antibodies attack self antigens.

B Non-self antigens attack self antibodies.
C Self antibodies attack non-self antigens.
D Self antigens attack non-self antibodies.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 9700/12/O/N/16

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2016
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*3184501009*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB16 11_9700_13/3RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over
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1 Which structure is only found in typical eukaryotic animal cells?

A cell surface membrane

B centriole
C Golgi body
D ribosome

2 Which letter on the logarithmic scale corresponds to the size of a typical prokaryote?

1 mm

100 µm

10 µm A

1 µm B

100 nm
C
10 nm
D
1 nm

3 Which calculation is used to find the actual length of an organelle from an image?

A image size ÷ magnification

B image size × magnification
C image size × resolution
D magnification ÷ image size

4 Which statement is correct?

A Prokaryotes and chloroplasts have circular DNA where genes carrying the code for cell walls
are located.
B Prokaryotes and chloroplasts have 70S ribosomes that are the sites for translation and
polypeptide synthesis.
C Prokaryotes and mitochondria have an outer membrane and a separate inner, folded
membrane where ATP synthesis occurs.
D Prokaryotes and mitochondria have double-stranded linear DNA where genes carrying coded
information are located.

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5 The diagram shows a typical animal cell.

1
2

Which features are also found in both plant cells and prokaryotic cells?

1 2 3 4 5 6

A





key
B

  

= present
C
 
  = absent
D 





6 A student carried out the Benedict’s test on four different concentrations of glucose solution and
then recorded the time taken for the first appearance of a colour change (the end-point).

The student found it difficult to identify the first appearance of a colour change and consistently
timed each solution for two seconds after it had appeared. This introduced a source of error into
the experiment.

Which statements about this error are correct?

1 The effect of the error will be reduced if the student performs three repeats at each
concentration of glucose.
2 The error will prevent the student from identifying which solution has the highest
concentration of glucose.
3 The error is systematic as the student consistently timed each solution for two
seconds after the end-point.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

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7 Which row is correct for each of the molecules?

collagen haemoglobin sucrose

A has a structural contains the formed by

function, found in elements carbon, releasing a
blood vessel hydrogen, iron, molecule of water
walls nitrogen and in a hydrolysis
sulfur reaction

B molecules consist each non-protein composed of two

of three haem group monosaccharides
polypeptide contains a central linked by a
chains, linked by iron ion glycosidic bond
ionic bonds

C molecules lie has two identical formed by

parallel to each α chains and two condensation of
other, with cross- identical β chains two identical
links and monosaccharides
staggered ends

D polypeptide has all four levels digestion yields

chains interact to of protein glucose and
produce a fibrous structure and at fructose in equal
protein least four types of proportions
bond

8 The diagram shows how the β-glucose units of cellulose are linked to each other.

CH2OH H OH CH2OH H OH
O O
H H H H
H O OH H H O OH H
OH H H O OH H H O
H H H H
O O
H OH CH2OH H OH CH2OH

What is the significance of the fact that the OH groups on carbon 2 in adjacent glucose molecules
are on opposite sides of the molecule?

A They can cross-link with other cellulose molecules by both hydrogen and glycosidic bonds.
B They can form glycosidic bonds with adjacent OH groups of other cellulose molecules.
C They can form hydrogen bonds between the CH2OH and OH on adjacent glucose molecules
of the cellulose molecule.
D They can form hydrogen bonds with adjacent OH and CH2OH groups of other cellulose
molecules.

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9 Threonylvaline is a dipeptide formed from the two amino acids, threonine and valine. A peptide
bond forms between the carboxyl group of threonine and the amine group of valine.

The side-chains (R groups) of the two amino acids are shown.

HO CH3 H 3C CH3
CH CH

threonine valine

Which molecular structure is threonylvaline?

A B

HO CH3 H3C CH3 HO CH3 H 3C CH3

H CH O CH H CH H CH
O O

N C C N C C N C C O N C C

H H H H OH H H H H H OH

C D

H 3C CH3 HO CH3 HO CH3 H3C CH3

H CH O CH H CH CH
O O

N C C N C C N C C N C C

H H H H OH H O H H H OH

10 Which feature explains why haemoglobin is soluble?

A All four polypeptide chains are linked together to form a spherical molecule.
B Each polypeptide chain folds due to interactions between hydrophobic R groups.
C The hydrophilic R groups are arranged around the outside of the molecule.
D The iron-containing haem group of each polypeptide chain is water soluble.

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11 An investigation into the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction was carried out. During the
investigation the concentration of the substrate was kept higher than the concentration of the
enzyme.

During this investigation, which change in the variables would always lead to an increase in the
rate of the reaction?

1 increase in enzyme concentration

2 increase in pH
3 increase in temperature

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 1 only

12 The enzymes glucokinase in the liver and hexokinase in the brain both catalyse the
phosphorylation of glucose:

glucose + ATP → glucose phosphate + ADP

The activity of each enzyme was measured at different concentrations of glucose. The graph
shows the results.

hexokinase

activity
glucokinase

concentration of glucose

What describes the different activities of the two enzymes?

A Both enzymes hold glucose and ATP molecules together at the active site.
B Glucokinase becomes saturated with glucose at a lower concentration of glucose than
hexokinase.
C Glucokinase phosphorylates more molecules of glucose per minute.
D The affinity of hexokinase for glucose is greater than that of glucokinase.

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13 The value Km is the substrate concentration at which the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction is
V
half its maximum rate, max .
2

Vmax

initial rate
Vmax
of reaction
2

Km
substrate concentration

The Km was measured in the presence of a competitive inhibitor and in the presence of a
non-competitive inhibitor.

What could be the value of Km with inhibitor compared to the value of Km with no inhibitor?

value of Km in presence of
competitive inhibitor non-competitive inhibitor

A less less
B less more
C more less
D the same more

14 Which molecules, found in cell surface membranes, help the immune system to identify cells?

1 cholesterol
2 glycolipids
3 glycoproteins
4 proteins

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

15 The following are all processes by which substances can enter a cell.

1 endocytosis
2 facilitated diffusion
3 osmosis

Which processes are passive?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

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16 Equal volumes of five concentrations of sodium chloride solution were placed into five containers.
An identical piece of plant tissue was placed into each container and left for 48 hours.

The plant tissues were removed and the volumes of the sodium chloride solution were accurately
measured. The results are shown below.

1.5

1.0

0.5
change in
volume of 0
solution / cm3 0.20 0.40 0.60 0.80 1.00
–0.5

–1.0

–1.5
concentration of sodium chloride / mol dm–3

Which statements explain the results from 0.80 to 1.00 mol dm–3 sodium chloride?

1 There was no net movement of water into or out of the plant tissues.
2 The plant root tissues had a water potential of zero.
3 The plant tissues were fully plasmolysed.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

17 Chromosome telomeres are essential for DNA replication and are not completely replaced during
mitosis.

Substance X completely replaces telomeres during mitosis.

What will be the effect of growing cells with and without substance X?

with substance X without substance X

A cells divide continually cell division eventually slows

and stops
B cells divide more rapidly cells divide continually
C cell division eventually slows cell division stops immediately
and stops
D cell division stops immediately cells divide continually

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18 Gene mutations in either the BRCA1 or the BRCA2 genes are responsible for the majority of
hereditary breast cancer in humans.

The proteins produced by the two genes migrate to the nucleus where they interact with other
proteins, such as those produced by the tumour suppressor gene, p53, and the DNA repair gene,
RAD51.

Which combination of gene activity is most likely to result in breast cancer?

gene
BRCA1 or
p53 RAD51
BRCA2

A


key
B


= gene produces normal protein
C

 = gene produces abnormal protein
D    or no protein

19 The information describes some events of mitosis.

1 chromosomes undergo condensation and spiralisation

2 centromeres are pulled by shortening of spindle fibres
3 sister chromatids are orientated across the centre of the cell
4 centrioles separate from each other
5 spindle fibres disperse

Which row correctly identifies the stages of mitosis in which these events occur?

1 2 3 4 5

A metaphase telophase prophase metaphase anaphase

B prophase anaphase metaphase prophase telophase
C prophase metaphase anaphase telophase telophase
D telophase metaphase prophase anaphase prophase

20 Which diagram shows a correct ring structure and named nucleic acid base?

A B C D

adenine cytosine thymine uracil

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21 The diagram shows the nucleotide sequence of a small section of a gene which is transcribed.

GCGCGCGGCCGC

The table shows the amino acids coded for by 10 mRNA codons.

mRNA codon amino acid

AAG Lys
ACG Thr
CGG CGC CGU Arg
CCG Pro
GCC GCG Ala
GGC Gly
UGC Cys

What is the order of the four amino acids in the polypeptide translated from this small section of a
gene?

A Ala-Ala-Cys-Ala
B Ala-Arg-Gly-Ala
C Arg-Ala-Pro-Ala
D Arg-Arg-Thr-Arg

22 The following events occur during transcription.

1 Bonds break between complementary bases.

2 Bonds form between complementary bases.
3 Sugar-phosphate bonds form.
4 Free nucleotides pair with complementary nucleotides.

Before the mRNA molecule leaves the nucleus, which events will have occurred twice?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1, 3 and 4 only C 2, 3 and 4 only D 1 and 2 only

23 Which statements about water movement in plants are correct?

1 Water cannot pass through cellulose.

2 Water cannot pass through lignin.
3 Water cannot pass through the Casparian strip.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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24 The diagrams show transverse sections of parts of a plant.

leaf stem root

3
1
4 5

In the transverse sections, which tissues transport water and which tissues transport sucrose?

A 1 water 4 3 sucrose 6

B 2 water 3 4 sucrose 5

C 3 water 5 2 sucrose 6

D 4 water 6 2 sucrose 5

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25 Which diagram represents the effect of atmospheric humidity on the rate of transpiration?

A B

rate of rate of
transpiration transpiration

humidity humidity

C D

rate of rate of
transpiration transpiration

humidity humidity

26 Which parts of a plant have plasmodesmata?

1 companion cells
2 phloem sieve tube elements
3 root hair cell

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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27 The following are all structural components of blood vessels.

1 collagen fibres
2 elastic fibres
3 endothelial cells
4 smooth muscle cells

Which row shows the components in an artery and a vein?

artery vein

A 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4
B 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4
C 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2, 3 and 4
D 1, 2, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 4

28 Scientists have shown that the oxygen dissociation curves for haemoglobin of smaller mammals
are to the right of those of larger mammals.

What does this suggest about the haemoglobin of smaller mammals?

A It carries more oxygen when the partial pressure of oxygen is higher.

B It releases oxygen less easily at lower partial pressures of oxygen.
C It saturates with oxygen more easily.
D It unloads oxygen more easily.

29 Which row could be correct for the average blood pressure in different parts of the human
circulatory system?

blood pressure
right artery in vein in capillary
atrium arm arm in arm key

A + ++++ ++ +++ ++++ highest average blood pressure

B ++ ++++ +++ + +++
C +++ ++ ++++ + ++
D ++++ +++ + ++ + lowest average blood pressure

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30 Which statements are correct?

1 The activity of carbonic anhydrase increases the hydrogen ion concentration in

blood passing through active tissue.
2 Carbon dioxide can react with haemoglobin in red blood cells to form
carboxyhaemoglobin.
3 When haemoglobin binds with the hydrogen ion its affinity for oxygen decreases.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

31 The diagram shows pressure changes during the cardiac cycle.

Which arrow indicates atrial systole?

20
D A

pressure
10
/ kPa

B
C

0
–1
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4
time / s

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32 The image shown is a photomicrograph of a transverse section of part of the gas exchange
system.

What describes the image?

A a thin inner layer of ciliated epithelial cells on top of a layer containing cartilage and
supported by elastic fibres
B a very thin epithelial lining with walls containing elastic fibres, surrounded by many blood
vessels
C an inner layer of ciliated epithelial and goblet cells on top of elastic fibres and supported by
an outer layer consisting of blocks of cartilage
D an inner layer of ciliated epithelial and goblet cells on top of loose tissue with mucous glands
supported by an outer layer of cartilage

33 The table lists some of the effects of smoking.

Which row shows the effect of nicotine and carbon monoxide?

nicotine carbon monoxide

A decreases heart rate decreases blood pressure

B increases blood flow to the feet increases blood pressure
C increases blood pressure combines with haemoglobin
D increases blood pressure increases heart rate

34 Which statement about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is correct?

A The disease can often be reversed by treatment.

B The disease occurs in people of all ages.
C The patient coughs a lot, bringing up mucus.
D The patient’s symptoms change over time.

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35 Which row is correct?

disease pathogen method of infection

A cholera bacterium food borne

B malaria prokaryote insect bite
C measles bacterium water borne
D tuberculosis (TB) virus airborne

36 What do pathogens of HIV / AIDS, malaria and TB have in common?

they have a cell they have they have

surface membrane genes ribosomes

A


key
B
 
present in each causative agent
C 

 not present in each causative agent
D 


37 Which factor might have contributed to the spread of HIV / AIDS?

A few clinics and hospitals

B insufficient education
C malnutrition
D poor sanitation

38 Which event will occur following antigen-antibody binding?

A agglutination of bacteria to reduce their spread

B decreased susceptibility to phagocytosis
C more helper T cells are activated by the release of cytokines
D more plasma cells are cloned to produce more antigens

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39 Which statements about macrophages are correct?

1 More are found in tissues such as the lungs, than in the blood.
2 They have a role in antigen presentation.
3 They can engulf pathogens, dust particles and damaged body cells.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

40 The graph shows the antibody concentration in blood following vaccination and a booster
vaccination 28 days later.

booster
vaccination secondary
response
vaccination
antibody
concentration primary
response

0 7 14 21 28 35 42 49 56 63
time / days

Which statements about the changes in antibody concentration are correct?

1 Antibody concentration falls after the primary response because antibodies are
broken down and are no longer being produced.
2 The secondary response is more rapid due to memory B cells produced from
activated B cells in the primary response.
3 The secondary response lasts longer than the primary response because memory B
cells live longer than plasma B cells.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2016 9700/13/O/N/16

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2017
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*3372033796*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB17 03_9700_12/4RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over
 2

1 The diagram shows the ultrastructure of a typical animal cell.

Which structure synthesises and transports lipids?

2 A light microscope is used to observe two structures that are 200 nm apart.

How far apart are the structures when the magnification is changed from ×40 to ×400?

A 2 µm B 20 µm C 200 nm D 2000 nm

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/F/M/17

 3

3 The diagram shows a stage micrometer scale viewed through an eyepiece containing a graticule.
The small divisions of the stage micrometer scale are 0.1 mm.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

The stage micrometer scale is replaced by a slide of a plant cell.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

What is the length of the nucleus in the plant cell?

A 0.8 mm B 8 µm C 25 µm D 200 µm

4 Some features of cells are listed.

1 cytoplasm
2 cell surface membrane
3 ribosomes

Which features are found in both animal and prokaryotic cells?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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 4

5 Which size of ribosomes is found in chloroplasts?

A 60S B 70S C 80S D 90S

6 In which of these organelles is ATP synthesised?

Golgi body

B
A C mitochondrion
D
chloroplast

7 A sample of milk is tested with Benedict’s solution. After boiling, a yellow colour is observed.

Which conclusion is correct?

A A high concentration of glucose is present.

B A low concentration of sucrose is present.
C No reducing sugars are present.
D Reducing sugars are present.

8 The table shows some information about carbohydrate polymers.

Which row describes amylose?

α-1,4 α-1,6
shape of
glycosidic glycosidic
molecule
bonds bonds

A

branched key
B
 helical
= present
C 
branched = absent
D   helical

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9 Which row about α-glucose and β-glucose molecules is correct?

carbon atom on which cellulose contains both

the OH position is different molecules

A 1 no
B 1 yes
C 4 no
D 4 yes

10 Some of the molecules found in animal tissues are grouped into three lists.

1 glucose, cholesterol, triglycerides, water

2 glycogen, antibodies, adenine, phospholipids
3 haemoglobin, carbon dioxide, mRNA, monosaccharides

Which lists include one or more molecules that always contain nitrogen atoms?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

11 Haemoglobin consists of two α chains and two β chains. Approximately 5% of all humans have
one amino acid in the β chain that has been changed, affecting the structure and stability of
haemoglobin.

Which of the levels of protein structure could be changed in the haemoglobin of these humans?

A primary only
B primary and quaternary only
C primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary
D secondary, tertiary and quaternary only

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12 Which row gives the correct description of both a collagen molecule and a collagen fibre?

collagen molecule collagen fibre

A α and β polypeptide chains molecules of collagen

forming a double helix, held arranged randomly to each other,
together by disulfide bonds linked by hydrogen bonds

B a polypeptide chain, with repeating three molecules of collagen,

amino acids, forming an α-helix forming a triple helix, held
together by hydrogen bonds

C a polypeptide chain, with three α helical collagen

three repeating amino acids, molecules, forming a triple helix,
forming a helix held together by ionic bonds

D three helical polypeptide chains, molecules of collagen lying

forming a triple helix, held parallel and cross-linked to each
together by hydrogen bonds other

13 The diagrams show the structures of two amino acids, each of which has two amine (–NH2)
groups.

1 2 4 5
H 2N CH COOH H 2N CH COOH

CH2 CH2

C 3 CH2
O NH2
C 6
O NH2

A peptide bond is formed between the two amino acids.

Which groups could form the peptide bond?

A 1 and 4 B 1 and 5 C 2 and 6 D 3 and 5

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14 An enzyme was added to a small excess of its substrate. All variables were kept constant.

A student was asked to sketch a graph to show how the concentration of the enzyme-substrate
complex changes over time.

Which graph shows this correctly?

A B

concentration concentration

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

concentration concentration

0 0
0 time 0 time

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15 The table contains results recorded by a student from an investigation into the effect of
temperature on an enzyme-catalysed reaction. All other variables were standardised.

rate of reaction
temperature / °C
/ arbitrary units

10 3
20 7
30 16
40 33
50 32
60 14

What is the correct conclusion?

A 40 °C was the optimum temperature.

B The data for 50 °C was anomalous.

C The optimum temperature was between 30 °C and 50 °C.

D The optimum temperature was between 40 °C and 50 °C.

16 What is the correct range of measurements for the width of the cell surface membrane?

A 0.5–1.0 nm B 5–10 nm C 50–100 nm D 0.5–1 µm

17 The cells in the roots of beetroot plants contain a red pigment.

When pieces of root tissue are soaked in cold water, some of the red pigment leaks out of the
cells into the water.

An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of temperature on the loss of red pigment
from the root cells. It was found that the higher the temperature of the water, the higher the rate
of loss of red pigment from the root cells.

Which of these statements could explain this trend?

1 Enzymes in the cells denature as the temperature increases, so the pigment can no
longer be used for reactions inside the cells and diffuses out.
2 As the temperature increases, the tertiary structure of protein molecules in the cell
surface membrane changes, increasing the permeability of the membrane.
3 Phospholipid molecules gain kinetic energy as temperature rises, increasing the
fluidity of the phospholipid bilayer and allowing pigment molecules to diffuse out
more easily.

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

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18 The cell surface membrane structure is described as a ‘fluid mosaic’.

Which statement describes the ‘mosaic’ part of the cell surface membrane?

A the different patterns that are obtained by the moving phospholipid molecules
B the random distribution of cholesterol molecules within the phospholipid bilayer
C the regular pattern produced by the phospholipid heads and membrane proteins
D the scattering of the different proteins within the phospholipid bilayer

19 The diagram shows two pathways, X and Y, through which molecules can diffuse across a cell
surface membrane.

X Y

Which row correctly shows possible pathways for lipids, water and glucose?

lipids water glucose

A X only X and Y Y only

B X only Y only Y only
C X and Y X only X and Y
D X and Y X and Y X only

20 Some stem cells divide and give rise to phagocytes.

Where in the human body do these stem cells divide?

1 blood
2 bone marrow
3 lymph nodes

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 only D 3 only

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21 What is the correct sequence of stages in the mitotic cell cycle?

A G1 → G2 → mitosis → S → cytokinesis

B G1 → G2 → S → mitosis → cytokinesis

C G1 → S → G2 → mitosis → cytokinesis

D S → G1 → mitosis → G2 → cytokinesis

22 The enzyme telomerase repairs telomeres. It stops the telomeres from getting shorter each time
a chromosome is replicated.

Telomerase is not normally active in human body cells, but in some diseases telomerase can be
activated.

In which disease is the enzyme telomerase activated?

A cancer
B HIV/AIDS
C malaria
D myasthenia gravis

23 The statements describe events during the mitotic cell cycle.

1 Chromosomes migrate to opposite poles of the spindle.

2 Chromosomes arrange themselves at the equator of the spindle.
3 Chromosomes condense and the nuclear membrane disappears.
4 Centromeres divide.

What is the correct order of three of these events in the mitotic cell cycle?

A 2→3→4 B 3→2→4 C 3→4→2 D 4→2→1

24 Which statement about nitrogenous bases is correct?

A Adenine is a pyrimidine with a double ring structure.

B Cytosine is a purine with a double ring structure.
C Guanine is a purine with a single ring structure.
D Uracil is a pyrimidine with a single ring structure.

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/F/M/17

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25 Rifampicin is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis.

It works by inhibiting RNA polymerase in bacteria.

Which of these processes will be directly inhibited by this antibiotic?

1 ATP synthesis
2 transcription
3 translation

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

26 Meselson and Stahl investigated DNA in bacteria. They grew bacteria in a medium with only
heavy nitrogen, 15N, until all of the bacterial DNA contained only heavy nitrogen.

These bacteria were then moved from the heavy nitrogen medium and cultured in a medium with
only light nitrogen, 14N.

Some bacteria were collected from each of the next three generations and their DNA was
analysed.

Hybrid DNA contains both heavy and light nitrogen.

Which row shows the correct DNA of the first and third generations?

DNA of first generation DNA of third generation

A all hybrid half hybrid, half light

B all hybrid one quarter hybrid,

three quarters light
C half hybrid, half heavy half hybrid, one quarter
heavy, one quarter light
D half hybrid, half light one quarter hybrid,
three quarters light

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27 The diagram shows the stages in the production of part of a polypeptide.

DNA nucleotide sequence

template strand TACGACAATCGC

mRNA sequence AUG CUGUUAG C G

amino acid sequence met leu leu ala

Which feature of the triplet code is illustrated by the information given?

A An amino acid can be coded for by more than one triplet.

B The triplet code is non-overlapping and is only read in one direction.
C The triplet code is universal for the DNA of all organisms.
D There are some triplets that code for ‘start’ and ‘stop’.

28 Which combination of features is characteristic of a phloem sieve tube element as it unloads into
a sink?

lignification of
water potential
the cell wall

A higher than sink absent

B higher than sink present
C lower than sink absent
D lower than sink present

29 Which statements correctly describe transport pathways in dicotyledonous plants?

1 In the symplast pathway, water may move through intercellular spaces.

2 The symplast pathway may be blocked by the tonoplast.
3 In the apoplast pathway, water does not move through plasmodesmata.
4 The apoplast pathway may be blocked by the Casparian strip.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/F/M/17

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30 The diagrams show transverse sections of parts of a plant.

leaf stem

4
2

Which labelled structures transport mineral ions?

1 2 3 4

A

 key
B
 

= yes
C 

 = no
D 


31 Which feature of transport in plants is correct for both xylem and phloem?

A It is passive.
B It occurs by mass flow.
C It occurs from source to sink.
D It occurs only in one direction.

32 What is the main function of a companion cell in phloem tissue?

A providing cytoplasmic contact with the sieve tube element for loading
B providing structural support for the sieve tube element
C providing the nucleus for cell division in the phloem
D providing the source of assimilates for storage

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33 The contraction of the heart is coordinated through electrical impulses passing through the
cardiac muscle.

What is the correct order of part of the sequence of these impulses?

A right and left atria → atrioventricular node → Purkyne tissue → ventricular walls

B right and left atria → Purkyne tissue → ventricular walls → atrioventricular node

C right and left atria → sinoatrial node → atrioventricular node → ventricular walls

D sinoatrial node → right and left atria → Purkyne tissue → atrioventricular node

34 As blood flows from an artery to a vein, the thickness of the walls of the vessels changes.

Which bar chart shows these changes correctly?

A B

thickness thickness
of wall of wall

art a c v vn art a c v vn

C D

thickness thickness
of wall of wall

art a c v vn art a c v vn

key
art = artery
a = arteriole (small artery)
c = capillary
v = venule (small vein)
vn = vein

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/F/M/17

 15

35 The graph shows the oxygen dissociation curves of haemoglobin from two species of mammal,
S and T.
S

percentage
saturation of
haemoglobin
with oxygen T

0
0
partial pressure
of oxygen / kPa

Which statements could explain the difference in the oxygen dissociation curves of species S and
species T?

1 Species T has a lower haemoglobin concentration in its red blood cells than
species S.

2 The haemoglobin in species T has a lower affinity for oxygen than the haemoglobin
in species S.

3 Species T lives at higher altitudes than species S.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 only D 3 only

36 Which tissues may be found in bronchioles?

A cartilage, ciliated epithelium, glandular tissue

B ciliated epithelium, elastic fibres, smooth muscle
C elastic fibres, cartilage, smooth muscle
D smooth muscle, glandular tissue, cartilage

37 Which of these statements could describe the effect of carbon monoxide in cigarette smoke?

1 It binds irreversibly to haemoglobin.

2 It causes mucus to accumulate in the bronchioles.
3 It results in more carbon dioxide being transported in the blood.
4 It temporarily increases the heart rate.

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

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 16

38 The global mortality figures for some diseases in 2002 are shown in the table.

cause of millions of percentage of

death deaths all deaths

HIV/AIDS 2.8 4.4

TB 1.6 2.7
malaria 1.3 2.2
measles 0.6 1.1

How many millions of people died from viral diseases listed in the table in 2002?

A 2.2 B 3.4 C 3.8 D 4.4

39 Which of the statements could describe both B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes?

1 They contain specific protein receptors in their cell surface membranes.

2 They differentiate into plasma cells.
3 They divide by mitosis.

A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/F/M/17

 17

40 Two people, G and H, were each given an injection to protect them against a particular pathogen.

One person was injected with antibodies. The other person was injected with a vaccine.

The graph shows the concentrations of the antibody against this pathogen in the blood of the two
people, G and H, over a period of 20 days following the injection.

25

H
20 G

antibody 15
concentration
/ arbitrary units 10

0
0 5 10 15 20
time / days
time of injection

Which row correctly describes the type of immunity shown by G and H?

G H

A artificial active immunity artificial passive immunity

B artificial passive immunity artificial active immunity
C natural active immunity natural passive immunity
D natural passive immunity artificial active immunity

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/F/M/17

 18

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/F/M/17

 19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/F/M/17

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/F/M/17

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2017
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*6591632733*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB17 06_9700_11/3RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over
 2

1 Which definition of the magnification of a drawing of a leaf is correct?

A the actual size of an object multiplied by the magnification of the microscope

B the difference in size between an actual object and a drawing of the object
C the increase in size of an object when observed using a microscope
D the size of the drawing of a specimen in comparison to the actual size

2 The electron micrograph shows part of two cells.

Which labelled features identify these cells as eukaryotic?

A W, X and Y B W and X only C W only D X only

3 Plant cells are fixed, stained and viewed using a student microscope. The light source was
natural light.

What would be clearly visible at ×400 magnification?

A cristae of mitochondria
B grana of chloroplasts
C nucleoli
D ribosomes

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/M/J/17

 3

4 Which lengths are equivalent to 1 µm?

1 1000 mm
2 0.001 nm
3 0.001 mm
4 1 000 000 nm
5 0.01 mm
6 1000 nm

A 1 and 4 B 2 and 5 C 3 and 4 D 3 and 6

5 Some secretory cells synthesise and release glycoproteins.

What is the correct order of the sequence of events as they occur in the secretory cell?

1 exocytosis
2 product accumulates in secretory vesicle
3 mRNA binds to ribosomes
4 synthesis of glycoprotein

A 3, 4, 1, 2 B 3, 4, 2, 1 C 4, 3, 1, 2 D 4, 3, 2, 1

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 4

6 A scientist carried out an experiment to separate the organelles in an animal cell by mass.

The scientist mixed the cells with a buffer solution which had the same water potential as the
cells. He then broke the cells open with a blender to release the organelles.

The extracted mixture was filtered and then spun in a centrifuge at a speed to separate the
heaviest organelle. This sank to the bottom, forming a solid pellet, 1.

liquid above
pellet

solid pellet

The liquid above pellet 1 was poured into a clean centrifuge tube and spun in the centrifuge at a
higher speed to separate the next heaviest organelle. This organelle sank to the bottom, to form a
solid pellet, 2.

He repeated this procedure twice more to obtain pellet 3 and pellet 4, each containing a single
organelle.

What is the function of the organelle extracted in pellet 3?

A digestion of old organelles

B production of ATP
C synthesis of mRNA
D synthesis of protein

7 What is the general formula for amylopectin?

A (C5H10O5)n B (C5H10O6)n C (C6H12O6)n D (C6H10O5)n

8 Which statement describes how the molecular structure of starch is suited to its function?

A Amylose has a branched structure and amylopectin is coiled to give a compact molecule for
transport.
B In the breakdown of amylose and amylopectin, many condensation reactions release stored
energy.
C In the formation of amylose and amylopectin, many hydrolysis reactions allow the release of
stored energy.
D The amylose-amylopectin complex is insoluble and does not affect the water potential of the
cell.

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9 Cows and whales are mammals that produce milk to feed their babies. Newborn whales grow
faster than newborn cows. The milk of both cows and whales contains saturated fatty acids with
different chain lengths.

The table shows the percentage of saturated fatty acids of different lengths in cow and whale
milk.

chain length of percentage of saturated

saturated fatty acid fatty acids in milk
/ number of carbon atoms cow whale

4–12 22.2 0
14 10.6 13.8
16 25.5 27.9
18 40.1 29.4
> 18 1.6 28.9

Which statement about the ratio of short fatty acids (4–16 carbons) to long fatty acids (18 or more
carbons) in the milk of cows and whales is correct?

A The ratio in cow milk is higher because young cows need more energy than young whales.
B The ratio in cow milk is lower because young cows need less energy than young whales.
C The ratio in whale milk is higher because young whales need less energy than young cows.
D The ratio in whale milk is lower because young whales need more energy than young cows.

10 The structure of phospholipids and triglycerides include the following.

1 glycerol linked to fatty acids

2 hydrophobic fatty acid chains
3 saturated fatty acid chains

Which structures enable the formation of a lipid bilayer in cell surface membranes?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 only

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 6

11 The diagram shows the molecular structure of a peptide.

O NH2
C

CH2 H O CH3
H
H C N C C OH
N C C N C
H H
H O CH2 H O

OH

Which molecules would result from the complete hydrolysis of the peptide?

O NH2
C

CH2

H CH2 H H H CH3

A N C COOH N C COOH N C COOH

H H H
H CH2 H

O NH2 OH
C

H CH2 H H H CH3

B N C COOH N C COOH N C COOH

H H H
H H C OH H

CH3
O NH2
C

H CH2 H H H CH3

C N C COOH N C COOH N C COOH

H H H
H CH2 H

NH2 OH
O
C

H CH2 H H H H

D N C COOH N C COOH N C COOH

H H H
H CH2 H

OH

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/M/J/17

 7

12 The diagram shows a haemoglobin molecule.

β-globin chain
3

α-globin chain

4
2

α-globin chain

β-globin chain

Which row identifies the different parts of the molecule?

1 2 3 4

α-helix β-pleated binding site hydrophobic

A
sheet amino acids
binding site hydrophilic α-helix hydrophobic
B amino acids amino acids
haem hydrophobic α-helix hydrophilic
C
group amino acids amino acids
hydrophobic β-pleated haem binding site
D
amino acids sheet atom

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13 Bacterial cells divide by a process called binary fission.

Which macromolecules must be synthesised for binary fission?

1 cell membrane proteins and RNA

2 DNA and peptidoglycan
3 enzymes and cellulose

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

14 A student carried out experiments to investigate the effect of enzyme concentration on the rate of
hydrolysis (break down) of protein in milk.

When the enzyme and milk were mixed, the protein was hydrolysed and the mixture changed
from cloudy to clear.

The student investigated five different enzyme concentrations and recorded the time taken to
reach the end-point for each.

What is an appropriate control for this investigation?

A Carrying out a further experiment where the enzyme solution is replaced with water.

B Carrying out each experiment in a thermostatically regulated water-bath at 35 °C.

C Performing three repeat experiments for each of the five enzyme concentrations.
D Using the same volume of enzyme solution for each of the five experiments.

15 What determines the specificity of an enzyme?

1 the bonding between R groups of the polypeptide

2 the optimum pH of the enzyme
3 the peptide bonds between amino acids of the polypeptide
4 the shape of the substrate molecule

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2, 3 and 4 only

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16 The graph shows the effect of temperature on the rate at which the enzyme in a biological
washing powder digests and removes fruit juice stains.

rate of
reaction

temperature

Which statements explain the shape of the graph at temperatures higher than X?

1 Bonds are broken between the R groups of the amino acids in the polypeptide chains
of the enzyme.
2 There are more collisions between the enzyme and its substrate.
3 The tertiary structure of the enzyme is altered.
4 The shapes of the active site and the substrate are no longer complementary.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

17 What describes a carrier protein in cell surface membranes?

A a glycoprotein that is found on the outer surface of the membranes allowing cell recognition
B a glycoprotein that is involved in moving substances through the membranes by both active
and passive transport
C a protein that allows the attachment of signalling molecules which brings about changes
within the cell
D a protein that is involved in moving substances through the membranes by passive transport
through water-filled pores

18 What could happen to a typical bacterium when it is placed in surroundings which have a less
negative water potential than that inside the cell?

A The bacterium will burst because the cell wall has no structural function.
B The bacterium will die since water leaves the cell by osmosis.
C There is no change because the cell wall is impermeable to water.
D There will be a net movement of water into the bacterium.

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19 By which process do hydrogencarbonate ions leave red blood cells?

A active transport
B endocytosis
C facilitated diffusion
D phagocytosis

20 In an experiment, fluorescent dyes were used to label proteins on the outer surface of cell surface
membranes. Living human cells were labelled with one colour of fluorescent dye and mouse cells
with a different colour of fluorescent dye.

A human cell and a mouse cell are then fused to form a hybrid cell.

At first, the different fluorescent labels remain separate, but after 40 minutes they are distributed
randomly across the hybrid cell surface membrane.

What does this experiment show?

A Proteins are found only on the outer surface of cell surface membranes.
B Proteins in the outer layer of a bilayer do not penetrate into the inner layer.
C Proteins move freely in the phospholipids of a bilayer.
D The cell surface membranes of the two cells are bilayers.

21 The diagram shows the mitotic cell cycle.

During which phase is DNA replicated?

cell division
D
C

B
A

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 11

22 The electron micrograph shows a group of human chromosomes.

W
Y

Which label is correct for each of the structures labelled W, X and Y?

W X Y

A centriole centromere chromatid

B centriole centromere microtubule
C centromere telomere chromatid
D centromere telomere microtubule

23 Which statement about the behaviour of chromosomes during mitosis is correct?

A They attach to the spindle fibres to contain them within the nucleus.
B They condense to prevent further translation of genes.
C They reach the poles of the cell and become longer and thinner.
D They replicate to produce sufficient DNA to form two new nuclei.

24 What is the smallest unit of a DNA molecule that can be altered by a mutation and cause a
change to the coding of a polypeptide?

A base
B codon
C gene
D nucleotide

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25 Which statements about tRNA are correct?

1 contains base pairing

2 contains hydrogen bonds
3 is single stranded

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

26 The table shows the role of four different proteins involved in DNA replication.

single-strand
protein helicase topoisomerase DNA polymerase
binding protein

unwinds the breaks and rejoins binds to separated synthesises strand

role parental DNA the DNA strands DNA strands to of DNA
double helix stabilise them

Which shows the function of these proteins?

single-strand
helicase topoisomerase DNA polymerase
binding protein

A adds DNA prevents original enables tension makes strands

nucleotides to the 3' strands reforming caused by available as
end of a growing complementary unwinding to be templates
polynucleotide base pairs released
strand
B enables tension prevents original makes strands adds DNA
caused by strands reforming available as nucleotides to the 3'
unwinding to be complementary templates end of a growing
released base pairs polynucleotide
strand
C enables tension makes strands adds DNA prevents original
caused by available as nucleotides to the 3' strands reforming
unwinding to be templates end of a growing complementary
released polynucleotide base pairs
strand
D makes strands enables tension prevents original adds DNA
available as caused by strands reforming nucleotides to the 3'
templates unwinding to be complementary end of a growing
released base pairs polynucleotide
strand

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/M/J/17

 13

27 Which type of sugar and which type of bond are found in a DNA molecule?

type of sugar type of bond

A non-reducing glycosidic
B non-reducing hydrogen
C reducing peptide
D reducing hydrogen

28 The diagrams represent transverse sections of three plant organs.

2
4 5

6
1 3
root stem leaf

Which row is correct for phloem?

root stem leaf

A 1 3 5
B 1 4 6
C 2 3 6
D 2 4 5

29 Sucrose moves from a phloem sieve tube element into a root cell.

Which changes to the water potential and the volume of liquid in the phloem sieve tube element
are correct?

water potential volume of liquid

A becomes higher decreases

B becomes higher increases
C becomes lower decreases
D becomes lower increases

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/M/J/17 [Turn over

 14

30 Which statements about water movement in plants are correct?

1 Water can pass through cellulose cell walls.

2 Water can pass through lignified cell walls.
3 Water cannot pass through suberin in cell walls.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

31 The photomicrograph is a transverse section of a leaf.

3 2

Which features are characteristic of xerophytes?

A 1, 3, 4 and 5 B 1, 2 and 3 C 1, 2 and 5 D 2, 3, 4 and 5

32 A maize crop is successfully growing in a field in which the water potential of the soil is – 40 KPa.

What is the most likely water potential of the cell sap in the root hair cell?

A –60 KPa B – 40 KPa C –20 KPa D 0 KPa

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/M/J/17

 15

33 The contraction of the heart is coordinated through electrical impulses passing through the
cardiac muscle.

Which is the correct order of part of the sequence of these impulses?

A right and left atria → sinoatrial node → atrioventricular node → ventricular walls

B sinoatrial node → right and left atria → atrioventricular node → Purkyne tissue

C sinoatrial node → right and left atria → Purkyne tissue → atrioventricular node

D sinoatrial node → right and left atria → Purkyne tissue → ventricular walls

34 Which features enable the aorta to withstand ventricular systole?

A collagen fibres and elastin fibres

B collagen fibres and smooth muscle
C elastin fibres and endothelium
D endothelium and smooth muscle

35 Which row is correct for the pulmonary artery?

blood carried muscle in walls lumen size

A deoxygenated thick small

B deoxygenated thin large
C oxygenated thick small
D oxygenated thin large

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/M/J/17 [Turn over

 16

36 The graph shows oxygen dissociation curves of adult oxyhaemoglobin in different carbon dioxide
concentrations, 1 and 2.

100 1
2
80

percentage
60
saturation of
haemoglobin
with oxygen 40

20

0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16

partial pressure of oxygen / kPa

Which conditions could change the shape of curve 1 to the shape of curve 2?

A high carbon dioxide concentration causing a decrease in pH

B high carbon dioxide concentration causing an increase in pH
C low carbon dioxide concentration causing a decrease in pH
D low carbon dioxide concentration causing an increase in pH

37 Which characteristic of the human gaseous exchange surface and the lungs, maintains the
necessary concentration gradients for carbon dioxide and oxygen?

A good ventilation of the lungs

B large surface area of the alveoli
C low resistance to air flow
D the walls of the alveoli are thin

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/M/J/17

 17

38 Which identifies the tissues present in the trachea?

cartilage A cilia

B
D C

goblet cells

39 The global mortality figures for some diseases in 2002 are shown in the table.

cause of millions of percentage

death deaths of all deaths

HIV / AIDS 2.8 4.4

TB 1.6 2.7
malaria 1.3 2.2
measles 0.6 1.1

How many millions of people died in 2002 from the bacterial diseases listed in the table?

A 0.6 B 1.6 C 2.2 D 2.7

40 B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes are often unable to respond to the antigens on pathogens that
are intracellular parasites.

What is the reason for this?

A The antigens are constantly mutating.

B The antigens can destroy the lymphocytes.
C The lymphocytes do not encounter the antigens.
D The lymphocytes do not recognise the antigens.

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 18

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© UCLES 2017 9700/11/M/J/17

 19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/M/J/17

 20

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/M/J/17

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2017
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8006226808*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

MODIFIED LANGUAGE

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB17 06_9700_12_ML/FP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over
 2

1 Which organelles are enclosed in a single phospholipid bilayer and contain hydrolytic enzymes?

A endocytotic vesicles
B Golgi body
C lysosomes
D mitochondria

2 The DNA of prokaryotes is naked and circular.

Which statement describes how the DNA of eukaryotes differs from that of prokaryotes?

A It has a nuclear envelope around it and is a double helix.

B It has a nuclear envelope around it and is circular.
C It has proteins attached to it and is a double helix.
D It has proteins attached to it and is linear.

3 The recently discovered Pandoravirus measures 1000 nm in diameter.

The Mimivirus has a diameter of 400 nm.

What can be detected using a light microscope with a maximum resolution of 0.25 µm?

A both the Mimivirus and the Pandoravirus

B neither the Mimivirus nor the Pandoravirus
C the Mimivirus, but not the Pandoravirus
D the Pandoravirus, but not the Mimivirus

4 What are found in chloroplasts and mitochondria?

1 DNA
2 70S ribosomes
3 mRNA

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17

 3

5 Boiling the bones and teeth from dead animals can be used to produce a type of glue.

The glue is formed from the collagen fibres present in bones and teeth.

Which statement describes the changes to collagen that occur when the glue is produced?

A The fibres of collagen become more coiled.

B The fibres of collagen become more flexible.
C The helices of collagen molecules unwind.
D The molecules of collagen dissolve in water.

6 What describes the primary structure of a protein?

A α-helix
B a dipeptide
C a globular structure
D the specific order of amino acids

7 The diagrams show four monosaccharides with the formula C6H12O6.

Which diagram shows α-glucose?

A B C D

CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH

H O OH H O H H O H H O H
H H H H
OH H OH H H H OH HO
HO H HO OH HO OH HO OH
H OH H OH OH OH H H

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17 [Turn over

 4

8 Complete digestion of polysaccharides requires all the glycosidic bonds between the monomers
to be broken.

Amylase only breaks α-1,4 glycosidic bonds.

Which row shows how completely amylase can digest molecules of cellulose, amylopectin or
amylose?

polysaccharide
cellulose amylopectin amylose

A – ++ + key
B – + ++ – no digestion

C + ++ – + some digestion

D ++ – + ++ most digestion

9 The diagram shows the results of tests on four solutions containing biological molecules.

Which shows the solution that contains only starch and protein?

biuret test, iodine test,

purple blue black
D A

C
B

Benedict’s test,
orange

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17

 5

10 The enzyme invertase catalyses the breakdown of sucrose to glucose and fructose.

Three different enzyme inhibitors of invertase X, Y and Z were investigated. The percentage
inhibition of invertase was measured at different concentrations of inhibitor.

The graph shows the result of the investigation.

inhibitor X

inhibitor Y
percentage
inhibition

inhibitor Z

0 2 4 6 8
inhibitor concentration
/ arbitrary units

Which are valid conclusions from these results?

1 The higher the concentration of inhibitor X, the less sucrose is broken down.
2 The production of glucose and fructose using inhibitor Y is higher than when
inhibitor Z is used.
3 The production of glucose and fructose at an inhibitor concentration of 2 arbitrary
units is lower than at an inhibitor concentration of 4 arbitrary units, for all inhibitors.

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 only

11 The following statements are about enzymes.

1 Folding of an enzyme molecule causes the formation of the active site.

2 The shape of the active site changes to enable the substrate to bind.
3 Temporary bonds hold the substrate in the active site.
4 More enzyme-substrate complexes are formed at the optimum temperature.

Which statements are correct for the induced fit hypothesis?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 4 only

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 6

12 How is the Michaelis-Menten constant (Km) used?

A to assess the efficiency of an enzyme in catalysing a reaction

B to compare the affinity of enzymes for their substrate
C to find the maximum velocity of an enzyme (Vmax)
D to find the rate at which substrate is loaded by an enzyme

13 Proteins in the cell surface membranes of human cells and mouse cells were labelled with
fluorescent dyes. The human cells were labelled with a red dye and the mouse cells were
labelled with a green dye.

A human cell and a mouse cell were then fused to form a hybrid cell.

At first the different dyes remained separate. After 40 minutes the two dyes were evenly
distributed in the hybrid cell surface membrane.

What explains this observation?

A All protein molecules in the cell surface membrane are fixed to structures within the cell, but
phospholipid molecules move freely between them.
B Groups of protein and phospholipid molecules in the cell surface membrane are attached to
each other and move together.
C Only protein molecules in the outer layer of the cell surface membrane can move freely
between phospholipid molecules.
D Protein molecules in the outer layer of the cell surface membrane and those which span the
bilayer can move freely between phospholipid molecules.

14 The diagram shows a plant cell.

The plant cell is put into a solution with a water potential less negative than the cell contents.

What will happen to the appearance of the cell?

A B C D

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17

 7

15 The diagram shows the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure.

2 3

Which molecules in the membrane are identical?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 only D 4 only

16 The photomicrograph shows a stage of mitosis.

What would be correct for the next stage in mitosis?

paired chromatids nuclear membrane

A absent absent
B absent re-forming
C present absent
D present breaking down

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17 [Turn over

 8

17 The diagram shows part of the organisation of a DNA molecule and the associated histones.

Which statement about the features labelled P, Q and R during prophase of mitosis is correct?

A The coiled DNA molecule forms Q and wraps around the histones of R to form small clusters
held in place by histone P.
B The groups of histones, P, and its associated DNA, Q, move closer together as the
chromosome condenses around R.
C The histones P and R are made of protein around which the DNA molecule, Q, is wrapped so
that the DNA molecule can fit inside the nucleus.
D The linked groups of histones P and R and the associated DNA, Q, form strands that fold
and twist together to form a chromatid.

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17

 9

18 The bacterium Escherichia coli divides once every 50 minutes at 36 °C.

15
E. coli were grown on a medium containing only heavy nitrogen, N, until all of the bacterial DNA
contained heavy nitrogen (0 minutes).

Some of the bacteria were moved from a heavy nitrogen medium and cultured in a medium with
only light nitrogen, 14N.

Some bacteria were collected after each of three generations. Their DNA was extracted and
centrifuged.

Hybrid DNA contains heavy and light nitrogen.

The diagram shows the possible positions (upper, middle and lower) of the bands of DNA. The
actual positions of bands in the first two samples are shown.

upper upper

middle middle

lower lower

0 50 100 150
sample time:
minutes minutes minutes minutes

Which proportion of the DNA of the sample taken at 150 minutes will be at the upper position?

A 25% B 50% C 75% D 100%

19 Different tissues in a plant were supplied with a radioactively labelled substance to identify which
tissues were actively synthesising mRNA.

Which radioactively labelled substances would be most suitable for this experiment?

1 adenine
2 ribose
3 inorganic phosphate
4 uracil

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 2 and 4 only
D 4 only

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17 [Turn over

 10

20 Electron micrographs may show large numbers of ribosomes forming chains along mRNA
molecules.

What is the advantage of this arrangement, compared to when ribosomes appear singly on the
mRNA?

A Different polypeptides can be produced simultaneously.

B Fewer tRNA molecules are required to translate the polypeptide.
C Large polypeptide chains can be produced.
D Polypeptides can be produced more rapidly.

21 Which row is correct for adenine?

joins to its
has a single
is a purine complementary base
ring structure
with 3 hydrogen bonds

A    key
B    = correct
C    = incorrect
D   

22 The graph shows the loss of mass in a potted plant due to transpiration.

mass / g

time / minutes

What could have occurred at point X on the graph?

A A plastic bag was placed around the plant.

B The lower epidermis was sealed with petroleum jelly.
C The plant was placed into a dark cupboard.
D Warm moving air was blown over the plant.

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17

 11

23 Which row is correct for a phloem sieve tube element?

cell surface 80S

cytoplasm nucleus
membrane ribosomes

A     key
B     = present
C     = absent
D    

24 An aphid, such as a greenfly, uses a tubular mouthpart called a stylet to feed on nutrients in the
plant.

It inserts the stylet through the surface of a stem or leaf.

When a stylet is cut near the aphid’s head, leaving the stylet in the plant, a liquid with a low water
potential continues to flow out of the plant.

Which statement explains this?

A The stylet is in a phloem sieve tube element in which there is a high concentration of solutes.
B The stylet is in a phloem sieve tube element in which there is a low concentration of solutes.
C The stylet is in a xylem vessel element in which there is a high concentration of solutes.
D The stylet is in a xylem vessel element in which there is a low concentration of solutes.

25 Which statement correctly describes transport pathways in dicotyledonous plants?

A In the apoplast pathway, water may move through plasmodesmata.

B In the symplast pathway, water may move through intercellular spaces.
C The apoplast pathway may be blocked by the Casparian strip.
D The symplast pathway may be blocked by the tonoplast.

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17 [Turn over

 12

26 The graph shows pressure changes during a cardiac cycle.

pressure
/ kPa

Z
W

0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8

time / s

Which row correctly identifies W, X, Y, and Z?

W X Y Z

A atrioventricular semi-lunar semi-lunar atrioventricular

valves close valves close valves open valves open

B atrioventricular semi-lunar semi-lunar atrioventricular

valves close valves open valves close valves open

C semi-lunar atrioventricular atrioventricular semi-lunar

valves close valves open valves close valves open

D semi-lunar atrioventricular atrioventricular semi-lunar

valves open valves close valves open valves close

27 What is systolic blood pressure?

A the blood pressure in the arteries when the heart is relaxing

B the blood pressure in the left ventricle at the end of a contraction
C the maximum blood pressure in the arteries
D the maximum blood pressure in the right ventricle

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17

 13

28 When they remain at high altitudes the red blood cell count of humans increases.

Why does this occur?

1 to increase the Bohr effect

2 to increase the diffusion gradient for oxygen in the lungs
3 to maintain transport of oxygen

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

29 Which comparisons of blood, tissue fluid and lymph are correct?

1 Blood has a higher concentration of proteins than tissue fluid because the larger
proteins are too big to pass through the endothelial pores into tissue fluid.
2 Lymph has a higher concentration of lymphocytes than tissue fluid as a high number
of lymphocytes are located in lymph nodes.
3 Macrophages are too large to leave the blood to enter tissue fluid whereas
neutrophils, which are much smaller, can enter tissue fluid and pass into lymph.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

30 A number of different tissues occur in the walls of major blood vessels.

Which row correctly identifies the main tissues found in the three layers of the wall of an artery?

outer layer middle layer inner layer

(tunica externa) (tunica media) (tunica intima)

A collagen elastic endothelium

B collagen muscle elastic
C elastic collagen endothelium
D muscle collagen elastic

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17 [Turn over

 14

31 The photomicrograph shows a section through lung tissue.

Which structures are present in this photomicrograph?

artery vein bronchioles bronchus trachea

A      key
B      = present
C      = absent
D     

32 An athlete who smokes just before a race may not be able to run at their maximum speed
because less oxygen is carried by the blood.

Which explanation is correct?

A Carbon dioxide binds to haemoglobin forming carbaminohaemoglobin.

B Carbon dioxide binds to haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin.
C Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin forming carbaminohaemoglobin.
D Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin.

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17

 15

33 Some of the requirements of an efficient gas exchange system are a large surface area and a
short diffusion distance.

What is correct about how alveoli are adapted to meet these requirements?

large surface area short diffusion distance

A collagen and elastin fibres that an extracellular layer round

allow the alveoli to stretch the alveolus wall contains
blood capillaries
B gases dissolve in a layer of walls of alveoli are
liquid to speed up diffusion squamous epithelium
C many folded capillaries are next to
interconnected alveoli alveolus wall
D sac shape of alveoli formed red blood cells are very
by squamous cells close to capillary walls

34 The diagram shows three types of cell found in the human gas exchange system.

X Y Z

Apart from causing cancer, which cell types will be directly affected when a person is exposed to
tar in cigarette smoke?

A X, Y and Z B X and Y only C X and Z only D Y and Z only

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17 [Turn over

 16

35 Some common antibiotics are listed. The action of each antibiotic is described.

1 rifampicin – inhibits RNA polymerase

2 streptomycin – inhibits 70S ribosomes
3 neomycin – inhibits DNA synthesis
4 ampicillin – inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis

Which of these antibiotics will affect the activities of bacterial cells only?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 2 and 4 only
D 4 only

36 What could cause an outbreak of malaria in a country after it had been eliminated?

1 mosquitoes become resistant to insecticides

2 migration of population due to war
3 malarial parasites become resistant to quinine

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

37 Which disease is caused by a bacterium and can be spread by airborne droplets?

A cholera
B measles
C smallpox
D tuberculosis (TB)

38 Smallpox has been eradicated, but malaria and cholera have not.

Which statements correctly explain this?

1 Cholera pathogens in the intestines are not destroyed by antibiotics.

2 Plasmodium antigens change during the life cycle.
3 Smallpox antigens remain stable.
4 Vaccines only work against viruses.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17

 17

39 When a person is given a vaccination immunity to certain pathogens develops.

Which of the effects of vaccination are correct?

1 production of antibodies to protect against future infections

2 results in artificial active immunity
3 stimulation of appropriate lymphocytes

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

40 What is the first response by the immune system to a pathogen?

A ingestion of the pathogen by phagocytes

B production of antibodies
C production of antigens
D stimulation of B memory cells

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17

 18

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17

 19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/M/J/17

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2017
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9519836939*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB17 06_9700_13/2RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over
 2

1 Where are cisternae found in a cell?

1 endoplasmic reticulum
2 Golgi body
3 mitochondrion

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 2 and 3

2 The diagram shows an eyepiece graticule and part of a stage micrometer scale as seen using
×100 magnification.

eyepiece graticule

stage micrometer scale

0.1 mm

How is the value, in µm, of one eyepiece graticule unit calculated?

A divide 100 by 0.1 and multiply by 1000

B divide 100 by 0.1 and multiply by 1000 divided by 100
C multiply 0.1 by 1000 and divide by 100
D multiply 0.1 by 1000 and divide by 100 then divide again by 100

3 It is possible for a bacterium to synthesise a eukaryotic protein.

This involves introducing a eukaryotic gene into the bacterial DNA, which can be translated.

What explains why a bacterial cell can produce a eukaryotic protein but cannot produce a
eukaryotic glycoprotein?

A Bacteria do not have 70S ribosomes.

B Bacteria do not have a nuclear envelope.
C Bacteria do not have Golgi bodies.
D Bacteria do not have mitochondria.

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/M/J/17

 3

4 Which structures are found in both typical eukaryotic cells and typical prokaryotic cells?

1 70S ribosomes
2 80S ribosomes
3 circular DNA

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 only

5 Steps 1–4 are used to test for a non-reducing sugar.

1 Put 5 cm3 of solution into a test-tube.

2 Add a few drops of acid.
3 Neutralise with alkali.
4 Add 6 cm3 Benedict’s solution.

When is the solution boiled?

A between steps 1 and 2

B between steps 2 and 3 and after step 4
C between steps 2 and 3 only
D after step 4 only

6 Which diagram shows the monomer of cellulose?

A B C D

CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH

H O OH HO O H H O H H O OH
H H H H
OH H OH H OH H OH HO
HO H H OH HO OH HO H
H OH H OH H OH H H

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/M/J/17 [Turn over

 4

7 The diagram shows some of the relationships between cellulose, collagen and haemoglobin.

1 2 3 4 5

Which row is correct?

1 2 3 4 5

A cellulose carbohydrate collagen protein haemoglobin

B cellulose fibrous haemoglobin structural collagen
C haemoglobin globular cellulose carbohydrate collagen
D haemoglobin protein collagen structural cellulose

8 The diagram shows a protein molecule.

globular
head

key
long polypeptide
short polypeptide

Two long polypeptides each form α-helices for much of their length and these twist together into a
fibre.

At one end, each of these polypeptides coils into a globular head.

Two short polypeptides bind to each head.

What describes the protein structure of this molecule?

A quaternary structure because each molecule consists of six polypeptides

B secondary structure because the long polypeptides form α-helices

C tertiary structure because the α-helices form a fibre

D tertiary structure because the heads form globular proteins

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/M/J/17

 5

9 Which statements about both amylose and amylopectin are correct?

1 They are polymers.

2 They are formed by hydrolysis reactions.
3 They are linear molecules.

4 They contain α-1,4 glycosidic bonds.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only

10 The graph shows energy changes in a chemical reaction.

2 4
energy
3

progress of reaction

What is the activation energy when an enzyme is added?

A 1+2 B 2 only C 3–2 D 4

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/M/J/17 [Turn over

 6

11 The graph shows the results of investigations into the effect of amylase on the hydrolysis of
starch at three different temperatures.

50 °C
60 °C
concentration of
reducing sugar 70 °C
/ arbitrary units

0 30 60
time / minutes

In each investigation the concentration and volume of the solutions was kept constant.

Which conclusion may be drawn?

A 50 °C is the optimum temperature of amylase.

B At 60 °C all the starch is hydrolysed after 30 minutes.

C At 70 °C the amylase is denatured before hydrolysis is complete.

D The rate of hydrolysis of starch is faster at 50 °C than at 70 °C.

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/M/J/17

 7

12 The graph compares the effect of temperature on the activity of the protease enzyme, papain,
when in solution (free) and when immobilised in alginate beads.

immobilised
papain
activity of
papain

free papain

0 20 40 60 80
temperature / °C

Which statement about the effect of immobilisation of papain is correct?

A It alters the shape of papain’s active site at higher temperatures.

B It decreases the activity of papain at higher temperatures.
C It increases the stability of papain at higher temperatures.
D It reduces the number of collisions of papain with the substrate.

13 Which row is correct for facilitated diffusion of molecules or ions into a cell?

A ATP required movement against the membrane protein

concentration gradient required
B ATP required movement down the membrane protein
concentration gradient not required
C ATP not required movement against the membrane protein
concentration gradient not required
D ATP not required movement down the membrane protein
concentration gradient required

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/M/J/17 [Turn over

 8

14 The diagram represents an experiment where two solutions, P and Q, were separated by a
partially permeable membrane.

partially permeable
membrane

solution P solution Q

What is correct about the initial movement of the molecules , and between the two
solutions, P and Q?

net movement net movement no net

from Q to P from P to Q movement

A
B
C
D

15 Which functions are correct for components of the cell surface membrane?

stabilising the allowing osmosis barrier to

hydrophobic layer to occur dissolved ions

A cholesterol phospholipids and proteins phospholipids

B glycolipids phospholipids proteins
C phospholipids proteins cholesterol
D proteins glycoproteins and glycolipids glycolipids

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/M/J/17

 9

16 The diagram shows the cell cycle of a mammalian cell.

G2 M
S cytokinesis

G1

Checkpoints in the cell cycle of mammals prevent the cycle from continuing when mistakes are
made or DNA is damaged.

Four of the checkpoints are described.

1 Mitosis is blocked if DNA replication is incomplete.

2 Anaphase is blocked if the assembly of chromatids on the spindle is unsuccessful.
3 DNA replication is blocked if DNA is damaged.
4 DNA replication stops if damage to DNA has not been repaired.

In which phases of the cell cycle do these checkpoints occur?

checkpoint
1 2 3 4

A M G1 S G2
B G2 M G1 S
C G2 S G1 M
D S G2 M G1

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17 The photomicrograph shows cells undergoing mitosis.

Which statement describes what will happen next in cell X?

A Chromatin coils up tightly, and the nuclear envelope breaks down.

B Chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell and attach to the spindle.
C Sister chromatids move towards opposite poles, pulled by the spindle fibres.
D Spindle fibres break down, and the cell prepares for cytokinesis.

18 Which statement about nucleotides is correct?

A Adenine and guanine are pyrimidines.

B ATP is a phosphorylated nucleotide.
C Purines have a single ring structure.
D Uracil replaces cytosine in RNA.

19 Scientists have made a nucleic acid (HNA) that has a sugar with the same number of carbon
atoms as glucose instead of deoxyribose. Although genetic information can be stored by HNA,
naturally occurring DNA polymerase cannot replicate HNA.

Which statements could explain why naturally occurring DNA polymerase cannot replicate HNA?

1 DNA polymerase cannot form bonds between the sugars of two HNA nucleotides.
2 DNA polymerase cannot form hydrogen bonds between two HNA nucleotides.
3 HNA nucleotides do not fit into the active site of DNA polymerase.
4 The shape of an HNA nucleotide is slightly larger than that of a DNA nucleotide.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1 and 4 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 and 4 only

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/M/J/17

 11

20 Meselson and Stahl investigated DNA replication by growing bacteria in a culture containing
heavy nitrogen, 15N, until all the DNA was labelled.

These bacteria, the parental generation, were then transferred to a culture containing only light
nitrogen, 14N, and allowed to replicate for two generations.

DNA was extracted from each generation of bacteria and its relative mass estimated. The flow
diagram shows the results.

sequence of events relative mass of DNA

100%
parental generation labelled 15N heavy

100%
first generation growth in 14N medium

50% medium
14
second generation growth in N
50% light

Which row explains the relative mass of the DNA in the second generation grown in 14N?

50% medium DNA molecules 50% light DNA molecules

strand 1 strand 2 strand 1 strand 2

A only 15N only 14N only 14N only 14N

B only 15N only 15N only 14N only 14N
C only 15N only 15N only 14N only 15N
D only 15N half 14N, half 15N only 14N half 14N, half 15N

21 Which statement is correct?

A During transcription, mRNA is synthesised from DNA nucleotides to have the same
sequence of nucleotides as the DNA strand on which it was made.
B During transcription, tRNA is synthesised from RNA nucleotides and carries codons that are
complementary to the sequence of nucleotides on the DNA strand on which it was made.
C During translation, mRNA is synthesised from RNA nucleotides to have the complementary
sequence of nucleotides to that of the DNA strand on which it was made.
D During translation, ribosomes join amino acids in a sequence determined by mRNA with the
complementary sequence of nucleotides to that of the DNA strand on which it was made.

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 12

22 The diagrams show transverse sections of parts of a plant.

leaf stem root

3
1
4 5

In the transverse sections, which tissues transport most amino acids?

1 2 3 4 5 6

A       key
B       = transports most amino acids
C       = does not transport most amino acids
D      

23 The statements are descriptions of how water moves across the root to the xylem vessel
elements in plants.

1 Water enters the intercellular spaces.

2 Water enters the cytoplasm by osmosis.
3 Water moves from cell to cell through plasmodesmata.
4 Water moves through the cell wall.

Which statements are correct for both the apoplast pathway and the symplast pathway?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 2 and 4 only
D 4 only

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24 The diagram shows the tissues involved in the transport of sucrose in a plant.

Where is the highest concentration of sucrose?

phloem

sieve
tube companion
element cell

B
mesophyll cell
A

root cell
C D

25 Which features adapt root hair cells for efficient absorption of water?

1 a large number of mitochondria

2 a large number of protein carriers in the cell surface membrane

3 a large surface area to volume ratio

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

26 Three areas involved in the control of heart action are listed.

1 atrioventricular node
2 Purkyne tissue
3 sinoatrial node

In which order are they involved?

A 1→2→3 B 1→3→2 C 3→1→2 D 3→2→1

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/M/J/17 [Turn over

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27 As blood flows from an artery to a vein, the blood pressure in the vessels changes. The four
graphs represent data for blood vessels in the sequence shown.

key artery arteriole capillaries venule veins

(small artery) (small vein)
art a c v vein

Which graph shows these changes correctly?

A B

blood blood
pressure pressure

art a c v vein art a c v vein

C D

blood blood
pressure pressure

art a c v vein art a c v vein

28 How is most carbon dioxide transported in the blood?

A as carbaminohaemoglobin
B as carbonic acid
C as hydrogencarbonate ions
D in solution in cytoplasm

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 15

29 When a doctor or nurse takes a blood sample from a person they use a needle to penetrate a
vein, not an artery.

Which reasons explain why veins are used?

1 Arteries carry blood under more pressure than veins.

2 Arteries have a thicker middle layer than veins.

3 Veins carry deoxygenated blood.

4 Veins have a larger lumen than arteries.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 2 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only

30 The diagram is an incomplete summary explaining the role of haemoglobin in the carriage of
carbon dioxide.

1 3
CO2 in plasma CO2 + 2 4

5
9 6 + 7

8 Cl – Cl – in plasma
O2 in plasma 4O2 11
1
10
CO2 in plasma
12

Which set of labels is correct?

A 1 = facilitated diffusion, 4 = carbonic acid, 7 = hydrogencarbonate ions

B 2 = water, 8 = dissociation, 10 = carbaminohaemoglobin
C 3 = carbonic anhydrase, 9 = oxyhaemoglobin, 11 = carbaminohaemoglobin
D 5 = carbonic anhydrase, 6 = hydrogen ions, 12 = red blood cell

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/M/J/17 [Turn over

 16

31 Which description of part of the gas exchange system is correct?

part of gas
ciliated smooth
exchange cartilage goblet cells
epithelium muscle
system

A alveolus     key
B bronchus     = present
C bronchiole     = absent
D trachea    

32 When a person suffers an asthma attack, the tubes of the gas exchange system narrow and extra
mucus is produced.

Which changes occur during an asthma attack?

1 Activity of ciliated epithelium increases.

2 Endocytosis in goblet cells increases.
3 Smooth muscles are more active.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

33 Which factors result from paralysis of cilia caused by smoking?

1 accumulation of mucus
2 increased chance of lung infection
3 emphysema
4 scarring of airway lining

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

34 What is the minimum number of cell membranes a molecule of carbon dioxide and a molecule of
oxygen pass through during gas exchange between alveoli and the plasma in the capillaries?

carbon dioxide oxygen

A 2 4
B 3 5
C 4 4
D 4 5

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/M/J/17

 17

35 Which is correct for measles?

airborne
virus transmission
A B C

rash

36 Some antibiotics are used in animal feed to reduce disease.

What explains why these antibiotics should not be used in the treatment of human diseases?

A Human cells may stop responding to these antibiotics.

B Humans may be allergic to these antibiotics.
C Pathogenic bacteria may develop resistance to these antibiotics.
D Useful gut bacteria may be killed by these antibiotics.

37 In what order do the following processes occur to produce a population of bacteria that are
resistant to a new antibiotic?

1 change in reproductive success of bacteria

2 increase in frequency of the resistance allele in the population
3 increase in genetic variation within the population
4 random mutation occurs in bacterial DNA

A 1→3→2→4

B 2→1→3→4

C 3→4→1→2

D 4→3→1→2

38 Which type of new vaccine production would be most important in the fight to eradicate measles
in developing countries?

A a combined vaccine to combat it and other diseases

B a single vaccine, without the need for boosters
C a vaccine containing only live measles pathogens
D a vaccine containing monoclonal antibodies

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/M/J/17 [Turn over

 18

39 The photomicrograph shows human blood, with three types of white cell labelled.

T R

Which row correctly identifies these white cells?

cell R cell S cell T

A lymphocyte lymphocyte lymphocyte

B lymphocyte phagocyte phagocyte
C phagocyte lymphocyte phagocyte
D phagocyte phagocyte lymphocyte

40 A monoclonal antibody specific for a virus was produced.

This antibody was treated with an enzyme to break the bonds between the variable and constant
regions.

The separated variable and constant regions were then added to cells infected with the virus.

Which statements are correct?

1 The constant regions would bind to different parts of the virus antigens.
2 The viruses could be engulfed by phagocytes if they were present.
3 The variable regions would all bind to the same part of the virus antigens.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

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© UCLES 2017 9700/13/M/J/17

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/M/J/17

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2017
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5026880790*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 14 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB17 11_9700_11/4RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over
 2

1 Which row is correct for a typical plant cell?

cell wall cell diameter ribosomes

A cellulose 1-5 µm 80S

B cellulose 5-40 µm 70S and 80S
C peptidoglycan 1-5 µm 70S
D peptidoglycan 5-40 µm 70S and 80S

2 An electron micrograph of a cell shows large quantities of rough endoplasmic reticulum and many
Golgi bodies.

What type of cell is being viewed?

A bacterium
B guard cell
C lymphocyte
D mesophyll

3 Which cell structures can form vesicles?

cell structure
cell surface endoplasmic
Golgi body
membrane reticulum

A    key
B    = can form vesicles
C    = cannot form vesicles
D   

4 Which set of measurements is correct?

thickness of cell surface

diameter of diameter of red
membrane of red blood
capillary blood cell
cell

A 7 µm 7 µm 7 nm
B 7 µm 7 nm 7 nm
C 0.7 mm 7 µm 7 nm
D 0.7 mm 0.7 mm 7 µm

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5 The size of the measles virus is approximately 150 nm.

The Mimivirus is approximately 4.5 times larger than the measles virus, whilst the Pandoravirus is
approximately 1.5 times larger than the Mimivirus.

Which viruses can be seen using both a light microscope with a maximum resolution of 0.25 µm
and an electron microscope?

measles virus Mimivirus Pandoravirus

A    key
B    = can be seen
C    = cannot be seen
D   

6 Which carbohydrate gives a brick red colour when boiled with Benedict’s solution?

A cellulose
B fructose
C glycogen
D sucrose

7 Which two polysaccharides both have 1,6 glycosidic bonds and are branched?

A amylopectin and amylose

B amylopectin and glycogen
C amylose and glycogen
D glycogen and cellulose

8 Three carbohydrate molecules are shown.

CH2OH CH2OH
CH2OH
O O OH O
OH
OH
OH CH2OH OH
HO OH HO

OH OH OH
1 2 3

Which two molecules combine to form a molecule of sucrose?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D two of molecule 1

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/O/N/17 [Turn over

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9 The diagram shows the amino acids in a polypeptide.

key
type of amino acid
polar basic
polar acidic
Asp
Arg Lys polar
Cys Thr
Lys Leu non-polar
Pro Asn
Arg
Val
Ser
Asn Glu
Lys
Thr Arg Phe
Met
Gln Lys
Phe Met
His Ala
Val Gln
Met Ala
His Asn
Asp Ala
Glu
Cys Thr
Ser
C terminal end Tyr
Ser Glu
Asn
Lys
Ser Thr
Ser Ser N terminal end
Ser Ala
Ala

An enzyme catalyses the hydrolysis of bonds between polar basic amino acids and non-polar
amino acids.

How many peptides (chains of amino acids) will be formed as the result of the hydrolysis of this
polypeptide?

A 5 B 6 C 8 D 13

10 Lysozyme is an enzyme found in tears and saliva.

Which statement refers only to the tertiary structure of lysozyme?

A A section of the molecule consists of an α-helix.

B It consists of a single polypeptide.
C It is 129 amino acids long.
D The 35th and 52nd amino acids help form the active site.

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11 Some RNA molecules, called ribozymes, can catalyse reactions in a similar way to protein
enzymes.

Most of these ribozymes have other RNA molecules as their substrates and catalyse reactions
that break specific sugar phosphate bonds in the substrate molecules.

Which statements about these ribozymes are correct?

1 Hydrogen, ionic and disulfide bonds will be involved in the ribozyme structure.
2 The active site of a ribozyme is formed from a specific sequence of nucleotides.
3 Ribozymes can form because RNA can have a specific secondary and tertiary
structure.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

12 The graph shows the effect of an enzyme on a reaction.

W key
X
Y
energy substrate

Z
product

time

Which labels are correct?

A X is the reaction without the enzyme, W is the activation energy.

B X is the reaction with the enzyme, Z is the overall energy change.
C Y is the reaction with the enzyme, W is the difference in activation energy.
D Z is the energy gained by the product, W is the activation energy with the enzyme.

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/O/N/17 [Turn over

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13 Which statements about non-competitive enzyme inhibitors are correct?

1 The inhibitor can bind to the enzyme whether or not the enzyme has its substrate
bound in the active site.
2 The inhibitor may bind at an allosteric site.
3 The inhibitor may not prevent substrate binding at the active site, but will prevent
product formation.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

14 The following are all processes that allow movement into cells.

1 phagocytosis
2 active transport
3 facilitated diffusion

Which processes require ATP?

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 1 only D 2 only

15 The fluidity of the cell surface membrane can be changed by a number of factors.

As the fluidity of cell surface membranes decreases, which process would be least affected?

A active transport
B diffusion
C endocytosis
D osmosis

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16 The diagram shows the cell cycle.

During which phase do chromosomes condense and become visible?

cell division

C A

17 Colchicine is a chemical that stops chromatids from separating during mitosis.

A cell is treated with colchicine.

Which stage of mitosis will this cell reach but not complete?

A anaphase
B metaphase
C prophase
D telophase

18 The following statements describe the process of translation.

1 A peptide bond forms between adjacent amino acids.

2 Hydrogen bonds form between the anticodon and the codon.

3 mRNA binds to the ribosome.

4 tRNA enters the ribosome carrying a specific amino acid.

In which order does this process take place?

A 3→2→1→4

B 3→4→2→1

C 4→2→1→3

D 4→2→3→1

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/O/N/17 [Turn over

 8

19 Which row represents the correct features of the nitrogenous base adenine?

joins its
has a
complementary pairs with
single ring is a purine
base by three thymine
structure
hydrogen bonds

A     key
B     = true
C     = false
D    

20 The codons UGU and UGC code for the amino acid cysteine, which can form disulfide bonds in a
polypeptide.

The codon UGG codes for the amino acid tryptophan, which does not contain a sulfur atom.

The codon UGA is a stop signal.

The DNA triplet code for the 10th amino acid in a particular polypeptide is ACA.

Which single base substitutions in this triplet code will result in no disulfide bond being formed
with the 10th amino acid in the polypeptide?

A ACC and ACG

B ACG and ACT
C ACT and ACC
D ACT only

21 A student produced a table of differences between RNA and DNA. The table contains one
mistake.

Which row has the mistake?

RNA DNA

A contains ribose contains deoxyribose

B contains uracil contains thymine
C found throughout cell found only in nucleus
D single polynucleotide per molecule two polynucleotides per molecule

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/O/N/17

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22 The diagrams show transverse sections of parts of a plant with some transport tissues labelled
1–6.

leaf stem root

3
1
4 5

Which tissues mainly transport water and which tissues mainly transport sucrose?

A 1 water 5 4 sucrose 6

B 2 water 3 4 sucrose 5

C 3 water 5 2 sucrose 6

D 1 water 6 2 sucrose 3

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/O/N/17 [Turn over

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23 Transpiration is the consequence of which feature of plants?

A the presence of symplast and apoplast pathways

B the requirement for a transport system in plants
C the requirement for leaves to exchange gases
D the thin waxy cuticle on the lower epidermis of leaves

24 Mass flow is the bulk movement of materials from one place to another.

How many of the vessels listed carry fluids by mass flow?

● artery
● phloem sieve tube
● vein
● xylem vessel

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

25 The diagram shows a xerophytic leaf in different conditions, P and Q.

X
X

P Q

Which statements describe the difference between the cells in layer X in conditions P and Q?

1 more negative water potential in P than Q

2 more cells plasmolysed in P
3 cells less turgid in Q
4 water potential becomes zero in Q

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/O/N/17

 11

26 What could increase the rate of transpiration?

A increasing the humidity

B increasing the light intensity
C decreasing the temperature
D decreasing the wind speed

27 What happens during ventricular systole in a mammalian heart?

A aortic pressure increases

B atrioventricular valves open
C semilunar valves close
D ventricular pressure decreases

28 Which substances could displace oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin?

1 carbon dioxide
2 carbon monoxide
3 hydrogencarbonate ions
4 hydrogen ions

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

29 The graph shows the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen at two different concentrations of carbon
dioxide.

Which point on the graph shows the percentage saturation of haemoglobin entering the
pulmonary artery?

C low CO2
100 high CO2

D
percentage
saturation A
of haemoglobin 50
with oxygen

B
0
partial pressure of oxygen / kPa

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 12

30 The diagram shows some of the reactions of carbon dioxide when it enters the blood from cells in
a metabolically active tissue.

Which reaction is catalysed by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase?

CO2

A B
plasma CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3−

C D
CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3−

red blood cell

31 How many phospholipid bilayers does oxygen pass through in diffusing from an alveolar air
space to form oxyhaemoglobin in a red blood cell in a mammalian lung?

A 3 B 5 C 6 D 9

32 Which statements about the human gas exchange system are correct?

1 The absence of cartilage in small bronchioles allows them to expand.

2 The walls of the alveoli are made of cuboidal epithelium.
3 Alveoli secrete surfactant which reduces surface tension in the lungs.
4 The trachea and bronchi are supported by circles of cartilage.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

33 A disease damages alveoli walls, causing the alveoli to burst.

What effect does this have on the gas exchange system?

surface area for maximum volume

gas exchange of air breathed out

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C decreases no change
D no change no change

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/O/N/17

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34 What are short-term effects of nicotine on the cardiovascular system?

1 constriction of small arteries

2 increase in heart rate
3 increase in blood pressure

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

35 What is correct for tuberculosis (TB)?

airborne
transmission virus
A B C

rash

36 Which factors contribute to outbreaks of measles after natural disasters?

1 contamination of drinking water with untreated sewage

2 lack of effective vaccination coverage in the population before the disaster
3 people living in overcrowded accommodation

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

37 Which of these statements explain why some vaccines can be taken by mouth but tuberculosis
(TB) vaccine has to be injected?

1 Macrophages present antigens in vaccines to stimulate an immune response.

2 The TB antigens necessary to produce an immune response are proteins which
would be digested in the stomach and small intestine.
3 There are no B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes in the stomach.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/O/N/17 [Turn over

 14

38 Which method of gaining immunity can be described as natural active immunity?

A feeding on colostrum
B inhaling the chicken pox virus
C injection with antibodies
D through the placenta

39 Which statements about endocytosis are correct?

1 It is part of phagocytosis.
2 It is a passive process.
3 Materials are taken into the cell.
4 Vesicles form within the cytoplasm.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

40 The statements refer to vaccination programmes for each of the diseases cholera, measles,
smallpox and tuberculosis (TB).

Which statement is correct for TB?

A Most children are vaccinated before their first birthday.

B The pathogen has not mutated or changed its antigens.
C The pathogen lives in the intestine where antibodies cannot get to it.
D The vaccine is not effective against some strains of the pathogen.

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/O/N/17

 15

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/O/N/17

 16

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 9700/11/O/N/17

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2017
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5635932162*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB17 11_9700_12/3RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over
 2

1 Which equation for calculating the actual size of a specimen, A, or image size, I, or magnification,
M, is correct?

A A = M÷I B A=I×M C I = M ÷A D M = I÷A

2 One of the smallest viruses is the polio virus, which has a diameter of approximately 30 nm.

In 2003, the Mimivirus was discovered which has a diameter of approximately 680 nm.

In 2013, the Pandoravirus was discovered which has a diameter of approximately 1000 nm.

Which row correctly matches a cell structure with a virus that has a similar approximate size?

polio virus Mimivirus Pandoravirus

A lysosome nucleolus nucleus

B nucleolus lysosome mitochondrion
C nucleolus mitochondrion lysosome
D ribosome lysosome mitochondrion

3 Which cell components are present in all prokaryotic cells?

cell surface endoplasmic

cell wall flagellum
membrane reticulum

A     key
B     = present
C     = not present
D    

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/O/N/17

 3

4 The electron micrograph shows part of an animal cell.

What will be synthesised in large quantities in this cell?

1 ATP
2 glucose
3 RNA

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 only

5 Mitochondria are thought to have evolved from prokaryotic cells that were ingested by an
ancestral cell.

Which feature have the prokaryotes lost during their evolution into mitochondria?

A cell wall
B circular chromosome
C endoplasmic reticulum
D ribosomes

6 Which statement is correct?

A A virus is composed of a protein coat which may surround RNA or DNA.

B Eukaryotic plant cell walls contain peptidoglycans in addition to cellulose.
C Plasmodesmata and centrioles are found in all plant cells.
D Prokaryotic cells contain 80S ribosomes which they use to manufacture proteins.

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7 A student carried out four tests for biological molecules on a sample of milk.

The tests and their results were as follows.

● Heating to 80 °C with Benedict’s solution gave a brick red colour.

● Adding Biuret solution gave a purple colour.
● Adding iodine solution gave an orange colour.

● Boiling with acid, followed by neutralisation, then heating to 80 °C with Benedict’s

solution gave a brick red colour.

Which biological molecules must be present in the milk?

1 non-reducing sugars
2 protein
3 reducing sugars
4 starch

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 and 4

8 Which features adapt a cellulose molecule for its function?

1 Long chains of glucose molecules coil into a helix.

2 Many hydrogen bonds form between adjacent chains.
3 It is insoluble in water.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

9 Two disaccharides are maltose and sucrose. Maltose is formed from two molecules of glucose,
whilst sucrose is formed from fructose and glucose.

Which row shows the molecular formulae of the two disaccharides?

maltose sucrose

A C12H22O11 C12H22O11
B C12H22O11 C12H24O12
C C12H24O12 C12H22O11
D C12H24O12 C12H24O12

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10 The diagram shows the structure of the polysaccharide chitin which is found in the cell wall of
fungi.

CH3

C O

CH2OH N H CH2OH

H C O C C H H C O

C C O C C O C C

C C H H C O C C H

N H CH2OH N H

O C O C

CH3 CH3

Which statements are correct for chitin and for cellulose?

1 The monomers are joined by 1,4 glycosidic bonds.

2 Every second monosaccharide in the polysaccharide chain is rotated by 180°.

3 The polysaccharide contains the elements carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

11 Which row correctly matches the functional and structural features of cellulose, collagen,
glycogen or triglyceride?

structure

molecules held
molecule function fibrous together by branched chains
hydrogen bonds

A cellulose support   
triglyceride energy source   
B collagen strengthening   
cellulose support   
C collagen strengthening   
glycogen storage   
D glycogen storage   
triglyceride energy source   

key = true = false

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12 A polypeptide has a number of amino acids (n).

How many peptide bonds and R groups (side chains) does this polypeptide have?

A n – 1 peptide bonds and n – 1 R groups

B n – 1 peptide bonds and n R groups
C n peptide bonds and n – 1 R groups
D n peptide bonds and n R groups

13 What are the features of triglycerides?

lower proportion
less dense
polar of hydrogen than
than water
in carbohydrates

A    key
B    = yes
C    = no
D   

14 Which of these statements describe the action of an extracellular enzyme?

1 synthesis of a polynucleotide in the nucleus during DNA replication

2 digestion of macromolecules in the lumen of the small intestine

3 synthesis of ATP molecules in the mitochondria

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 only

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15 An experiment was carried out in which the enzyme lipase was used to hydrolyse a triglyceride.

The pH was recorded at regular intervals during the reaction.

The results are shown in the table.

time / minutes pH

0 7.0
2 6.2
4 5.6
6 5.1
8 4.7
10 4.6
12 4.6
14 4.6

At 14 minutes unreacted triglyceride was still present.

What explains the results after 10 minutes?

A The end-products acted as competitive inhibitors.

B The end-products acted as non-competitive inhibitors.
C The enzyme reaction had reached Vmax.
D The tertiary structure of the enzyme had been lost.

16 Which statement about the effect of substrate concentration on the activity of an enzyme is
correct?

A Above a certain concentration of substrate an enzyme reaches its maximum rate of reaction.
B At high concentration of competitive inhibitor increasing the substrate concentration has no
effect.
C At high substrate concentration a non-competitive inhibitor no longer affects the enzyme
activity.
D The higher the concentration of substrate the faster an enzyme can catalyse a reaction.

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17 Which row shows a correct function of the components of the cell surface membrane?

phospholipids cholesterol proteins glycoproteins

A prevent the entry of regulates allow exchange allow cell-to-cell

non-polar molecules permeability of the of ions communication
membrane between the cell and
its environment
B prevent the entry of stabilises the allow cell-to-cell provide sites
polar molecules membrane by communication of attachment
binding to water for hormones
molecules
C regulate the prevents the entry allow exchange stabilise the
flexibility of protons of gases membrane by
of the cell between the cell and binding to water
membrane its environment molecules
D regulate the fluidity stabilises the form channels for allow cell-to-cell
of the cell membrane over a polar molecules recognition
membrane range of
temperatures

18 The graph shows how the rate of entry of substance X into a cell changes as the concentration of
substance X outside the cell increases.

rate of entry of
substance X

concentration of
substance X outside the cell

The diagram shows part of a cell surface membrane.

1 2 3

Which pathways could substance X use to enter the cell?

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

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19 The photomicrographs show cells in various stages of the cell cycle.

In which stage does semi-conservative replication of DNA take place?

A B C D

20 The diagram shows the structure of one chromosome.

Which row is correct?

number of
1 2
DNA strands

A centromere chromatid 2
B centromere telomere 4
C chromatid telomere 2
D telomere chromatid 4

21 Cancer cells may divide by far more divisions than other cells found in humans.

Which statement about cancer cells is correct?

A They are able to synthesise the enzyme telomerase.

B They have a mutation in the telomeres so DNA is not hydrolysed.
C They have DNA polymerase so can replicate their DNA without telomere loss.
D They increase the number of copies of repeated DNA sequences in the telomeres.

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22 What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds in a length of DNA containing 700
nucleotides?

A 350 B 700 C 1050 D 2100

23 Which statements concerning DNA and RNA are correct?

1 Adenine and guanine are bases that have a double ring structure; cytosine, thymine
and uracil are bases with a single ring structure.
2 An adenine nucleotide from DNA is the same as an adenine nucleotide from RNA;
DNA adenine pairs with thymine and RNA adenine pairs with uracil.
3 The base pairing that occurs in a double DNA helix and when RNA is synthesised
during transcription is always according to the rule that a purine pairs with a
pyrimidine.
4 The two polynucleotides on a DNA molecule run in opposite directions so that the
double helix formed has two strands that are parallel to each other.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

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24 Two sets of bacteria were grown using different types of nitrogen-containing growth media.

One set was grown in a medium containing the ‘heavy’ isotope of nitrogen, 15N, until all the DNA
was labelled. The other set was grown in a medium containing the ‘light’ isotope of nitrogen, 14N,
until all the DNA was labelled.

The DNA from each set of bacteria was extracted and centrifuged. The diagram shows the
position in the centrifuge tubes of this DNA.

DNA with 14N

DNA with 15N

Bacteria with 15N labelled DNA were transferred to a medium containing 14N and allowed to
reproduce once. The DNA of the new generation of bacteria was extracted and centrifuged.

Which tube shows the position of DNA from this new generation of bacteria?

A B C D

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25 The diagram shows the nucleotide sequence of a small section of a gene which is transcribed.

GCGCGCGGCGCG

The table shows the amino acids coded for by 10 mRNA codons.

mRNA codon amino acid

AAG Lys
ACG Thr
CGG CGC CGU Arg
CCG Pro
GCC GCG Ala
GGC Gly
UGC Cys

What is the order of the four amino acids in the polypeptide translated from this small section of a
gene?

A Ala-Ala-Cys-Ala
B Ala-Arg-Gly-Ala
C Arg-Ala-Pro-Arg
D Arg-Arg-Thr-Arg

26 What contributes to the movement of water through the xylem vessel elements?

A cohesion of water molecules through hydrogen bonding

B ion movement followed by passive osmosis
C negative water potential in the xylem
D surface tension at the top of the plant

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27 The diagram shows a xerophytic leaf in different conditions, P and Q.

X
X

P Q

Which statements about the cells in layer X of the leaf in each of the conditions P and Q are
correct?

1 less negative water potential in P than Q

2 cells may be turgid in P and plasmolysed in Q
3 cells less turgid in P than Q
4 no net diffusion of water into X in either P or Q

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only

28 What are features that adapt root hair cells for efficient uptake of mineral ions?

1 a large number of mitochondria

2 a large number of protein carriers in the cell surface membrane

3 a large surface area to volume ratio

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

29 The transverse sections of two plant organs are shown.

S
Q

T
R

Which pair of tissues contains proton pumps?

A Q and S B Q and T C R and S D R and T

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30 Measurements of the stem of a young tree showed that the diameter varied slightly. It decreased
during the day and increased during the night.

Which statement explains these observations?

A During the day, cohesion between water molecules and lignin in the walls of the xylem
vessels pulls the walls of the vessels inwards.
B During the day, the tension developed in a moving column of water molecules reduces the
pressure inside the xylem vessels, so that their walls move inwards.
C During the night, the adhesion of water molecules to the lignin in the walls of the xylem
vessels pushes the walls of the vessels outwards.
D During the night, the pressure of the column of water molecules adhering to one another
increases and pushes the walls of the xylem vessels outwards.

31 Which statement about the human circulatory system is correct?

A Blood passes twice through the heart in one complete circulation.

B Blood, tissue fluid and lymph are all parts of the circulatory system.
C Capillaries have the lowest blood pressure.
D Veins in the circulatory system all carry deoxygenated blood.

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32 The graph shows changes in the volume of the ventricles during the cardiac cycle.

volume
/ arbitrary
units
R

ventricular diastole
atrial systole
systole
stages of the cardiac cycle

Which valves open and close at P and R?

atrioventricular semilunar valve

valve at P at R

A closes closes
B closes opens
C opens closes
D opens opens

33 Haemoglobin can bind to carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and oxygen.

1 carbon dioxide
2 carbon monoxide
3 oxygen

Which gases share a binding site?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

34 A good gas exchange system maintains a steep diffusion gradient, has a large total surface area
and a short diffusion distance.

Which feature of the human gas exchange system helps to maintain a steep diffusion gradient?

A A large number of alveoli are present in each lung.

B Alveoli walls contain elastic fibres allowing expansion.
C The air brought into the alveoli by ventilation is high in oxygen.
D The endothelium of the capillary wall is made of flattened cells.

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35 Which statement about bronchioles is correct?

A They have cartilage and ciliated cells.

B They have cartilage and elastic tissue.
C They have cartilage and muscle tissue.
D They have elastic tissue and ciliated cells.

36 In which regions of the human gas exchange system is the function of some types of cell directly
affected by tar in cigarette smoke?

A bronchioles and alveoli only

B trachea, bronchus, bronchioles, alveoli
C trachea and bronchus only
D trachea, bronchus and bronchioles only

37 What is the causative agent and method of transmission of smallpox?

method of
causative agent
transmission

A Morbillivirus direct contact

B Morbillivirus waterborne
C Variola direct contact
D Variola waterborne

38 A scientist investigated the effect of an antibiotic on the treatment of cholera.

320 people suffering with cholera were split into two groups. One group was treated with an
antibiotic while the other group was not given antibiotics. Both groups were given fluids
containing sugars and mineral salts (oral rehydration therapy).

The scientist recorded the number of days that each person suffered from diarrhoea.

The table shows the results.

mean time person had

treatment
diarrhoea / days

antibiotic and oral rehydration therapy 3.2

oral rehydration therapy 5.3

What is the percentage decrease in the mean time that a person suffered from diarrhoea when
they were treated with the antibiotic?

A 39.6% B 60.4% C 165.6% D 252.4%

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39 Which sequence of events occurs during an immune response?

1 development of plasma cells

2 mitosis of B-lymphocytes
3 recognition of non-self antigens
4 secretion of antibodies

A 2→3→4→1

B 2→4→3→1

C 3→1→2→4

D 3→2→1→4

40 An influenza vaccine can be made by growing the viruses in chicken eggs.

The viruses are extracted in liquid from the eggs and inactivated. The purified egg extract
containing the viruses is then used as the vaccine.

What is a side-effect of using this vaccine in some people?

A An auto-immune condition could occur.

B An immune response to egg antigens could occur.
C The egg antigens could cause infections.
D The influenza viruses could cause infections.

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 9700/12/O/N/17

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2017
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7462309111*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB17 11_9700_13/3RP
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1 Which statement about the light microscope is correct?

A As the smallest distance to see two points as distinct separate points decreases, the
resolution also decreases.

B If the resolution is 220 nm, then a bacterium 0.2 µm in diameter will not be visible.
C If the wavelength of light is 600 nm, then two membranes 300 nm apart will be visible as two
distinct membranes.
D Using visible light of a longer wavelength, such as red light, will improve the resolution.

2 The diagram shows a stage micrometer scale viewed with an eyepiece graticule, using a
magnification of ×200.

0.1 mm

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

Using the same magnification, a chloroplast is measured as 4 eyepiece graticule divisions long.

How long is the chloroplast?

A 1.0 × 101 µm

B 4.0 × 102 µm

C 2.5 × 10–1 µm

D 2.5 × 10–2 µm

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3 A cell was supplied with cytosine labelled with radioactive carbon.

In which cell structure would radioactivity be detected first?

A endoplasmic reticulum
B Golgi body
C nucleus
D ribosome

4 The diagram shows some similarities between chloroplasts, mitochondria and typical
prokaryotes.

1 2 3 4 5

Which row is correct?

1 2 3 4 5

A chloroplasts circular DNA mitochondria 80S ribosomes prokaryotes

B chloroplasts 80S ribosomes mitochondria circular DNA prokaryotes
C prokaryotes circular DNA mitochondria circular DNA chloroplasts
D prokaryotes 70S ribosomes chloroplasts 80S ribosomes mitochondria

5 Which statement supports the fact that mature plant cells can carry out the same role as
lysosomes?

A A range of hydrolytic enzymes can be found within mature plant vacuoles.

B Glycogen, found within vesicles, can be hydrolysed to glucose molecules.
C Single membrane-bound vesicles are formed from plant Golgi bodies.
D Vesicles, formed from smooth endoplasmic reticulum, contain enzymes.

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6 A student carried out four tests for biological molecules on a sample of milk.

The tests and their results were as follows.

● Heating to 80 °C with Benedict’s solution gave a green colour.

● Adding Biuret solution gave a purple colour.
● Adding iodine solution gave an orange colour.

● Boiling with acid, followed by neutralisation, then heating to 80 °C with Benedict’s

solution gave a brick red colour.

Which conclusion about these results is correct?

A only protein and reducing sugar present

B only protein and non-reducing sugar present
C only protein, reducing sugar and non-reducing sugar present
D only starch, protein and sugar present

7 The diagrams show four monosaccharides with the formula C6H12O6.

1 2 3 4

CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH

H O H H O OH H O H H O H
H H H H
OH H OH H H H OH HO
HO OH HO H HO OH HO OH
H OH H OH OH OH H H

Which diagrams show glucose molecules?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

8 Which bonds will be broken when a molecule of glycogen is broken down?

1 α-1, 4

2 β-1, 4

3 α-1, 6

4 β-1, 6

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 4 only

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9 The diagram shows the amino acids in a polypeptide.

key
type of amino acid
polar basic

polar acidic
Asp
Arg Lys polar
Cys Thr
Lys Leu non-polar
Pro Asn
Arg
Val
Ser
Asn Glu
Lys
Thr Arg Phe
Met
Gln Lys
Phe Met
His Ala
Val Gln
Met Ala
His Asn
Asp Ala
Glu
Cys Thr
Ser
C terminal end Tyr
Ser Glu
Asn
Lys
Ser Thr
Ser Ser N terminal end
Ser Ala
Ala

An enzyme catalyses the hydrolysis of any peptide bond between a non-polar amino acid and
any polar amino acid.

How many small peptides and single amino acids will be formed by the action of this enzyme?

small single
peptides amino acids

A 6 1
B 8 1
C 12 3
D 13 4

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10 A person with diabetes is unable to make enough of the protein insulin.

Some forms of diabetes can be treated by using insulin produced by animals. Scientists have
compared the amino acids in insulin produced by animals to human insulin.

Which level of protein structure were the scientists studying?

A primary
B secondary
C tertiary
D quaternary

11 The diagrams show four fatty acids, each with a chain of 18 carbon atoms.

Which fatty acid, as part of a phospholipid molecule, would contribute most to the fluidity of a cell
surface membrane?

COOH
A

COOH
B

COOH
C

COOH
D

12 Which levels of protein structure are maintained by disulfide bonds?

A secondary, tertiary and quaternary

B tertiary and quaternary only
C quaternary only
D tertiary only

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13 An experiment was conducted to investigate the effect of temperature on the activity of the
enzyme β-glucosidase. The enzyme was tested when in solution (free) and when immobilised in
alginate beads.

The results are shown in the graph below.

120

100

80
β-glucosidase
activity 60
/ arbitrary units
40
immobilised
20 free enzyme
enzyme
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
temperature / °C

Which statement about the effect of immobilisation of β-glucosidase is correct?

A It increases the kinetic energy of the enzyme.

B It inhibits the activity of the enzyme.
C It reduces the optimum temperature of the enzyme.
D It stabilises the enzyme against denaturation.

14 An investigation was carried out into the effect of an increasing concentration of substrate
molecules on the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction. All other variables were standardised.

Which statement is correct?

A The rate increases to a maximum and then levels off.

B The rate increases to an optimum and then decreases.
C The value of Km will increase.
D The Vmax will never be reached.

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15 Which features are correct for a competitive inhibitor of an enzyme-catalysed reaction?

rate of reaction
binds to changes shape similar shape affected by
active site of enzyme to substrate concentration
of inhibitor

A     key
B     = correct
C     = incorrect
D    

16 Liver cells contain membrane-bound organelles called peroxisomes, which contain the enzyme
catalase. This enzyme hydrolyses hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen gas.

A student cut two identical sized pieces of liver and placed one in a refrigerator at 5 °C and the
other in a freezer at –18 °C.

After 12 hours both pieces were raised to room temperature and placed in equal volumes of
hydrogen peroxide.

The liver that had been at –18°C produced bubbles of oxygen more rapidly than the liver that had
been at 5 °C.

Which statement explains why the liver that had been at –18 °C produced bubbles of oxygen
more rapidly than the liver that had been at 5 °C?

A At 5 °C the cell surface membrane allowed water to enter cells and dilute the catalase.

B Freezing at –18 °C made the cell walls more permeable to hydrogen peroxide.

C Ice crystals damaged the cell membranes of the liver cells at –18 °C.
D The higher temperature had denatured some of the catalase.

17 Which of these processes allow movement in both directions across cell surface membranes?

1 active transport
2 diffusion
3 facilitated diffusion
4 osmosis

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1 and 4 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

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18 The diagram shows an experiment in which two different cell surface membranes were joined to
form a single large membrane.

The outer surface of one membrane contained molecules of protein P and the outer surface of
the other membrane contained molecules of protein Q.

The positions of the two proteins in each membrane were observed just before they were joined
together and 1 hour after they were joined.

protein P protein Q

joined membrane after 1 hour

Which statements are correct?

1 This provides evidence for the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes.
2 This shows that proteins can move freely in cell membranes.
3 This shows that the membrane is fluid but the proteins are not.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

19 Which row describes osmosis across a cell surface membrane?

moves molecule
molecule uses energy
down a concentration
moved from ATP
gradient

A solute   key
B solute   = correct
C solvent   = incorrect
D solvent  

20 What describes a telomere?

A a cell structure composed mainly of protein and involved in cell division

B a protein that associates with DNA to help condense it
C a region of DNA that links two sister chromatids together
D a region of repetitive nucleotide sequences at the end of a chromatid

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21 Uncontrolled cell division can form tumours.

Which statement is correct for tumour cells only?

A Metaphase does not take place.

B Cytokinesis does not occur.
C Interphase takes less time.
D They have mutated DNA.

22 Which of these events are part of mitosis?

1 interphase
2 anaphase
3 cytokinesis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 only

23 Rifampicin is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis.

It works by inhibiting RNA polymerase in bacteria.

Which of these processes are prevented by this antibiotic?

1 DNA replication
2 transcription
3 translation

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

24 A gene codes for the sequence of amino acids in a single polypeptide. Haemoglobin consists of
two α-globins and two β-globins.

How many genes are needed to code for a single haemoglobin molecule?

A 1 B 2 C 4 D 8

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25 A single substitution in an allele of the gene coding for haemoglobin results in sickle cell
haemoglobin.

The mRNA sequence for three amino acids for normal haemoglobin is shown.

CCUGAAGAG

The mRNA sequence for sickle cell haemoglobin is shown.

CCUGUAGAG

The table shows some of the triplet codes for two amino acids.

DNA triplet codes amino acid

CTC Glu
CTT Glu
CAT Val
CAC Val

Which row is correct for the substituted DNA nucleotide of the allele and the substituted amino
acid of the protein?

DNA new amino

nucleotide acid

A A Glu
B A Val
C T Glu
D T Val

26 What is the minimum number of hydrogen bonds in a length of DNA containing 700 base pairs?

A 350 B 700 C 1400 D 2100

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27 The photomicrograph is a section through a plant organ.

Which label identifies the xylem vessels?

28 Which of these statements correctly describe transport pathways in dicotyledonous plants?

1 In the apoplast pathway, water may move through plasmodesmata.

2 In the symplast pathway, water may move through intercellular spaces.
3 The apoplast pathway may be blocked by the Casparian strip.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

29 Mass flow is the bulk movement of materials from one place to another.

Which vessels carry fluids by mass flow?

1 artery
2 phloem sieve tube
3 vein
4 xylem vessel

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 only

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30 Amino acids move from a phloem sieve tube element into a root cell.

Which changes to the water potential and the volume of liquid in the phloem sieve tube element
are correct?

water potential volume of liquid

A becomes higher decreases

B becomes higher increases
C becomes lower decreases
D becomes lower increases

31 The table shows the volume of water taken up over a 10 minute period for two species of plant, X
and Y.

time water uptake / mm3

/ minutes X Y

2 4.2 1.2
4 7.8 2.3
6 10.9 3.7
8 13.3 4.4
10 16.9 4.9

Both plants were tested at the same time, in the same room and using identical potometers. A
student concluded that Y was a xerophyte so lost less water.

What feature of the experiment could bring this conclusion into doubt?

A The student did not control air flow or temperature surrounding the plants.
B The student did not leave the plants to acclimatise to their surroundings.
C The student did not take measurements at 0 minutes.
D The student did not take account of the area of leaves.

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32 What happens during left ventricular systole?

A The atrioventricular node causes the immediate contraction of the ventricle, causing the
atrioventricular valve to close.
B The Purkyne tissue between the atrium and ventricle causes the ventricle to contract, closing
the atrioventricular valve and opening the semilunar valve.
C The sinoatrial node causes the atrium to stop contracting and the blood pressure in the
ventricle to increase above that in the atrium.
D The wave of excitation causes the ventricle to contract so that the blood pressure in the
ventricle is higher than in the aorta, opening the semilunar valve.

33 The photograph shows blood cells as seen using a high power light microscope.

Which row correctly identifies the different types of white blood cell?

1 2 3

A lymphocyte monocyte neutrophil

B monocyte neutrophil macrophage
C neutrophil monocyte lymphocyte
D phagocyte lymphocyte monocyte

34 Which of these processes are responsible for the Bohr shift?

1 Carbon dioxide reacts with haemoglobin to form carbaminohaemoglobin.

2 Carbon dioxide reacts with water to form carbonic acid.
3 Haemoglobinic acid is formed from the dissociation of carbonic acid.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/O/N/17

 15

35 The photomicrograph shows a cross-section through a bronchus.

What is the function of the tissues X and Y?

X Y

A secrete mucus prevent collapse of the airway

B support the airway dilate airway
C trap dust and dirt secrete mucus
D waft dust and dirt upwards constrict airway

36 Which flow diagram correctly describes the effect of tar entering the lungs?

carcinogens
come into uncontrolled mass of cells
A → mutation occurs → →
contact with cell division produced
DNA

mucus
goblet cells phagocytes causes
accumulates
B secrete more → → attracted by → irritation and
causing
mucus inflammation coughing
infection

goblet cells phagocytes

mass of cells
C secrete more → mutation occurs → attracted by →
produced
mucus inflammation

phagocytes elastase
uncontrolled
D attracted by → mutation occurs → → destroys the
cell division
inflammation alveolar walls

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/O/N/17 [Turn over

 16

37 The antibiotic penicillin prevents the formation of cross-links between peptidoglycans during
bacterial cell wall synthesis by blocking the enzyme transpeptidase.

Which statements describe the action of penicillin on bacteria?

1 It is an enzyme inhibitor.
2 It weakens the bacterial cell wall.
3 It will work at any stage during the bacterial life cycle.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

38 Which pathogens are spread by droplet infection?

1 Mycobacterium tuberculosis

2 Vibrio cholerae

3 Morbillivirus

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

39 The flow diagram shows the events following activation of a T-lymphocyte by binding to antigens
on an infected cell.

T-lymphocyte

helper cells killer cells

B-lymphocytes X Y more
activated killer cells

Z memory
cells

Which row correctly identifies X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A memory cells macrophages antibodies

B memory cells memory cells plasma cells
C neutrophils memory cells plasma cells
D plasma cells neutrophil memory cells

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/O/N/17

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40 Smallpox was eradicated from the human population by a worldwide preventative programme.

Which type of immunity was triggered in people who were treated as part of this programme?

A artificial active immunity

B artificial passive immunity
C natural active immunity
D natural passive immunity

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/O/N/17

 18

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/O/N/17

 19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/O/N/17

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2017 9700/13/O/N/17

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2018
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7923937703*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB18 03_9700_12/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over
 2

1 The eyepiece lens of a microscope can be fitted with an eyepiece graticule.

Which of these statements about eyepiece graticules are correct?

1 They measure the actual length of cells in micrometres.

2 They help biologists to draw cells with correct proportions.

3 They change in size when the objective lens is changed from ×10 to ×40.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 only

2 A student was asked to use the scale bar shown to calculate the magnification of a cell on a
photomicrograph.

2 μm

Which method could the student use to calculate the magnification of the cell?

A divide the diameter of the cell by the length of the scale bar, both measured in the same units
of length
B measure the diameter of the cell in millimetres, multiply by 2000 and divide by the length of
the scale bar measured in millimetres
C measure the length of the scale bar in millimetres, convert to micrometres and divide by 2
D measure the length of the scale bar in millimetres, convert to micrometres and multiply by 2

3 Which eyepiece and objective lens combination of a light microscope allows the greatest number
of cells in a field of view to be seen?

eyepiece lens objective lens

A ×5 ×10
B ×5 ×40
C ×10 ×10
D ×10 ×40

4 Which row correctly matches each cell structure with its function?

microtubules rough endoplasmic reticulum

A allow vesicles to move within the cell synthesises amino acids

B form cilia and centrioles produces ribosomes
C form the spindle during prophase transports proteins
D move chromosomes during anaphase makes triglycerides and phospholipids

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18

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5 Which animal cells would have the most extensive Golgi bodies?

A ciliated epithelial cells

B goblet cells
C red blood cells
D smooth muscle cells

6 Which of these processes will require ATP?

1 transport of water in the xylem

2 semi-conservative replication of DNA

3 facilitated diffusion of amino acids into the cell

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

7 Which concentrations could be produced by a serial dilution of an 8.00% glucose solution?

A 4.00%, 2.00%, 1.00%, 0.50% and 0.25%

B 4.00%, 3.00%, 2.00%, 1.00% and 0.00%
C 6.00%, 4.00%, 2.00%, 1.00% and 0.50%
D 8.00%, 6.00%, 4.00%, 2.00% and 0.00%

8 A student wrote these statements about polysaccharides.

1 Amylose is formed from condensation reactions between β-glucose monomers.

2 Branches in amylopectin molecules form between carbon atoms 1 and 4 on
α-glucose molecules.

3 In unbranched β-glucose chains, each monomer is rotated 180° relative to its

adjacent monomer.

Which of these statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 only

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18 [Turn over

 4

9 Which diagram correctly shows the formation of a peptide bond between two amino acids?

A B

H H O H H O H H O

N C C N C C N C C H 2O

H H C H OH H H OH H H OH
H H O
H C H H 2O N C C
C H OH
O OH H

C D

H H O H H O

N C C N C C

H H C H OH H H H H C H OH
O
H H O
C N C C C
O OH N C C N O
H H OH H H
H 2O H H OH
H 2O

10 Sugars with a ring structure can also have a linear structure.

Which sugar molecules could be represented by the linear structure shown in the diagram?

H O
C

H C OH

HO C H

H C OH

H C OH

CH2OH

A α-glucose, deoxyribose and ribose

B α-glucose only
C deoxyribose and ribose only
D deoxyribose only

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18

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11 Which molecules are globular proteins?

1 amylase
2 haemoglobin
3 DNA polymerase

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

12 When hydrolysed, which molecules have products containing a carboxyl group?

1 phospholipids
2 polysaccharides
3 proteins

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

13 Lysosomes contain many different hydrolytic enzymes that may act within cells (intracellular
enzymes) or outside cells (extracellular enzymes).

Which process must occur in order for lysosomal enzymes to act outside the cell?

A active transport
B endocytosis
C exocytosis
D phagocytosis

14 The diagram shows an enzyme, its substrate and an enzyme/substrate complex.

enzyme substrate enzyme/substrate

complex

Which statement explains how the substrate is able to enter the active site of the enzyme?

A Contact between the substrate and the enzyme causes a change in the enzyme shape.
B The shape of the active site and the shape of the substrate are complementary.
C The substrate within the active site forms hydrogen bonds with amino acids.
D When the enzyme/substrate complex forms, the tertiary structure of the enzyme changes.

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18 [Turn over

 6

15 What could be used to calculate the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction?

1 the appearance of product

2 the disappearance of substrate
3 the Michaelis-Menten constant (Km)

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 2 and 3

16 Cholesterol is an integral component of the cell surface membrane.

Which statement about cholesterol is correct?

A It allows ions to pass freely through the cell surface membrane.

B It has a hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail.
C It helps to regulate the fluidity of the cell surface membrane.
D It reduces the mechanical stability of the phospholipid bilayer.

17 Which type of bond in phospholipids has a role in increasing the fluidity of cell surface
membranes?

A C—C
B C C
C C—O
D C O

18 Which of these substances can pass directly through cell surface membranes without using a
carrier protein or a channel protein?

1 Ca2+
2 CO2
3 C6H12O6

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 only

19 Companion cells use ATP to move hydrogen ions out of the cell and co-transporter proteins to
allow hydrogen ions to return with sucrose molecules.

Which two processes are involved in this movement?

A active transport and diffusion

B active transport and facilitated diffusion
C exocytosis and diffusion
D exocytosis and facilitated diffusion

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18

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20 How many copies of each different DNA molecule will be found in a cell at the start of each of
these stages of the mitotic cell cycle?

G2 of
prophase cytokinesis
interphase

A 1 1 2
B 1 2 1
C 2 1 2
D 2 2 2

21 Three parts of a chromosome and their functions are listed.

part
P1 centromere
P2 histone proteins
P3 telomere

function
F1 packages DNA into compact structures
F2 holds two chromatids together
F3 prevents loss of genes

Which combination is correct?

A P1 and F1 B P1 and F3 C P2 and F2 D P3 and F3

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18 [Turn over

 8

22 The graphs show various distance measurements taken from metaphase of mitosis onwards. The
graphs are to scale when compared to one another.

distance

time

distance

time

distance

time

Which row correctly identifies the distance measurement for each graph?

X Y Z

A distance between distance between distance of centromeres

poles of spindle sister chromatids from poles of spindle
B distance between distance of centromeres distance between
poles of spindle from poles of spindle sister chromatids
C distance of centromeres distance between distance between
from poles of spindle poles of spindle sister chromatids
D distance of centromeres distance between distance between
from poles of spindle sister chromatids poles of spindle

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18

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23 A culture of bacteria was allowed to reproduce using nucleotides containing the heavy isotope of
nitrogen (15N). After several generations, all of the bacterial DNA molecules contained heavy
nitrogen.

DNA was extracted from a sample of the culture, mixed with caesium chloride solution and spun
at high speed in a centrifuge. In this process, DNA molecules of different masses separate into
bands at different positions in the centrifuge tube. The heavier the DNA molecules, the closer to
the bottom of the centrifuge tube that a band forms.

The diagram shows the position of the DNA molecules containing heavy nitrogen in the centrifuge
tube.

The culture of bacteria was then allowed to reproduce using nucleotides containing the light
isotope of nitrogen (14N).

DNA samples were taken and separated by centrifugation after the bacteria had divided once and
again after the bacteria had divided twice.

In which positions would the DNA be found after the cells had divided once and after the cells
had divided twice?

after dividing once after dividing twice

A half at K and half at L quarter at K, quarter at M and half at L

B half at K and half at M quarter at K, quarter at M and half at L
C all at L half at K and half at L
D all at M half at L and half at M

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18 [Turn over

 10

24 The diagram represents a molecule of ATP.

P
Q

What are the components of ATP labelled P, Q and R?

P Q R

A adenine deoxyribose phosphates

B adenosine pentose a phosphate group
C adenosine ribose phosphorus
D purine pentose phosphates

25 The table shows three anticodons for different amino acids.

amino acid anticodon

alanine CGU
histidine GUA
serine UCA

Which DNA triplet on the DNA template strand codes for the amino acid serine?

A AGU B TCA C TGT D UCA

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18

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26 The photomicrograph shows a transport tissue in the stem of a grape vine.

What is the structure labelled T?

A companion cell
B sieve plate
C sieve tube element
D xylem vessel element

27 The diagrams show transverse sections of parts of a plant. Transport tissues are labelled 1 to 6.

leaf stem root

3
1
4 5

Which row shows tissues that mainly transport water and tissues that mainly transport sucrose?

mainly transport mainly transport

water sucrose

A 1 and 3 4 and 6
B 2 and 3 4 and 5
C 3 and 5 2 and 6
D 4 and 6 2 and 3

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18 [Turn over

 12

28 What will increase the rate of transpiration?

1 increasing the humidity

2 increasing the light intensity
3 decreasing the temperature
4 decreasing the wind speed

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 2 only D 4 only

29 Which properties of water are important for transport in xylem?

1 cohesion
2 adhesion
3 high energy requirement for evaporation
4 good solvent properties

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1 and 4 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 3 only

30 Which statement about the blood flow in the cardiac cycle is correct?

A Blood flows into the aorta through the semilunar valve due to contraction of the right
ventricle.
B Blood flows into the left atrium through the pulmonary artery when the wall of the left atrium
relaxes.
C Blood flows into the right atrium through the vena cava when the wall of the right atrium
relaxes.
D Blood flows into the right ventricle through the semilunar valve due to contraction of the right
atrium.

31 Which of these statements about the formation of haemoglobinic acid are correct?

1 It depends on the formation of carbaminohaemoglobin.

2 It removes excess hydrogen ions preventing the blood becoming too acidic.
3 It is linked to the action of carbonic anhydrase.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18

 13

32 What can combine with the haem group of a haemoglobin molecule?

1 oxygen
2 carbon dioxide
3 carbon monoxide

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

33 Which factors would help a person to adjust from living at a low altitude to living at a high
altitude?

1 formation of fewer red blood cells

2 an increase in the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood
3 an increase in the output of blood by the heart

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

34 Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes bronchitis and emphysema.

Which symptom is specific to emphysema?

A excess mucus secretion by the goblet cells

B inflammation of the bronchial epithelium
C loss of elasticity of the alveolar walls
D thickening of the smooth muscle of the bronchi

35 What identifies the structures present in a bronchus?

cartilage cilia

C
D B

goblet cells

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18 [Turn over

 14

36 Which of these terms can be used to describe the role of mosquitoes in the transmission of
malaria?

1 malarial parasite
2 pathogen
3 vector

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 3 only

37 Bacteria that infect skin wounds can become resistant to the antibiotic commonly used to kill
them.

Which statement explains how these bacteria could become resistant to the antibiotic?

A Exposure to the antibiotic causes a change in the bacterial cell wall, preventing the antibiotic
from working.
B Other bacteria that normally protect the skin against infection are killed by the antibiotic,
allowing the infectious bacteria to survive.
C Random mutations in DNA allow some of the bacteria to survive in the presence of the
antibiotic.
D The antibiotic causes the bacterial DNA to mutate, allowing the bacteria to survive in the
presence of the antibiotic.

38 Some children are born with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID).

Children with this inherited disease do not normally have any T-lymphocytes and suffer from
many infectious diseases.

How may these children be cured from SCID?

A transfusion of antibodies
B treatment with stem cells
C use of different antibiotics
D vaccination against all diseases

39 The hybridoma method is used for the production of monoclonal antibodies.

Which two types of cell are used in this method?

A stem cell and B-lymphocyte

B stem cell and T-lymphocyte
C tumour cell and B-lymphocyte
D tumour cell and T-lymphocyte

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18

 15

40 A vaccine is used to create artificial active immunity. After being given a vaccine, it will take a
period of time before a person develops long-term immunity against the disease.

Which statement about this period of time explains this delay?

A No memory cells have been produced from B-lymphocytes.

B No plasma cells have been produced from B-lymphocytes.
C The primary immune response has not produced enough antibodies.
D The secondary immune response has not produced enough antibodies.

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18

 16

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/F/M/18

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2018
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5924034730*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 20 printed pages.

IB18 06_9700_11/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over
 2

1 Which statements about resolution and magnification are correct?

resolution magnification

A the ability to distinguish between two the number of times larger an image is
separate objects that are very close compared with the real size of the object
together
B the clarity of the image formed the power of the microscope to focus
by the microscope on very small objects
C the number of times larger an image is the ability to distinguish between two
compared with the real size of the object separate objects that are very close
together
D the power of the microscope to focus the clarity of the image formed
on very small objects by the microscope

2 An eyepiece graticule has a scale with 100 divisions. A stage micrometer has a scale with
50 divisions, each of which is 0.040 mm apart.

Using a ×40 objective lens, the whole length of this stage micrometer scale lines up with
15 divisions of the eyepiece graticule.

What is the actual length of the 100 division scale of the eyepiece graticule?

A 1.3 mm B 13 mm C 75 µm D 750 µm

3 A prokaryotic cell which is 1 µm in diameter, is magnified 50 000 times in an electron micrograph.

What is the diameter of the cell in the electron micrograph?

A 5 × 10–1 mm

B 5 × 100 mm

C 5 × 101 mm

D 5 × 102 mm

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18

 3

4 A scientist carried out an experiment to separate cell structures in animal cells.

The cells were broken open to release the cell structures.

This extract was filtered into a centrifuge tube and then spun in a centrifuge. The heaviest cell
structure sank to the bottom forming pellet 1, as shown in the diagram.

liquid above
pellet

pellet 1

The liquid above pellet 1 was poured into a clean centrifuge tube and spun in the centrifuge at a
higher speed to separate the next heaviest cell structure. This cell structure sank to the bottom,
forming pellet 2.

This procedure was repeated twice more to obtain pellet 3 and pellet 4, each containing a single
type of cell structure.

Which row shows the order in which the cell structures were collected?

pellet 1 pellet 2 pellet 3 pellet 4

A nucleus lysosomes mitochondria ribosomes

B nucleus mitochondria lysosomes ribosomes
C ribosomes lysosomes mitochondria nucleus
D ribosomes mitochondria lysosomes nucleus

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18 [Turn over

 4

5 Radioactively-labelled nucleotides are introduced into a cell.

In which cell structures will the radioactivity first become concentrated?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

6 What is the general formula for amylose?

A (C5H10O5)n B (C5H10O6)n C (C6H10O5)n D (C6H12O6)n

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18

 5

7 The diagram shows relationships between some important molecules and bonds.

peptide

ic
3 2

id
es

os
te

yc
r

gl
triglyceride cellulose

vegetable oil amylopectin

What is represented by circles numbered 1, 2 and 3?

1 2 3

A bonds formed carbohydrates lipids

by condensation
B bonds formed lipids carbohydrates
by condensation
C bonds formed carbohydrates lipids
by hydrolysis
D bonds formed lipids carbohydrates
by hydrolysis

8 In unsaturated lipid molecules, where are double bonds located?

A between fatty acids and glycerol

B within fatty acids and within glycerol
C within fatty acids only
D within glycerol only

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18 [Turn over

 6

9 Phospholipids and triglycerides are important biological molecules.

Which properties are correct for these molecules?

non-polar partially hydrophobic

A phospholipid phospholipid
B phospholipid triglyceride
C triglyceride phospholipid
D triglyceride triglyceride

10 The diagrams show two arrangements of amino acids in a protein.

Which row correctly names the bonds at S or T?

ionic bond hydrogen bond

A absent S and T
B S only T only
C S and T absent
D T only S and T

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18

 7

11 Students were asked to highlight only the R groups of two ring-shaped amino acids.

Which pair of diagrams are correct for both amino acids?

H H
O O
H 3N + C C H 2N +
C C
A O– O–
C NH
H 2C CH2
C
CH2
C NH+

H H
O O
H 3N + C C H 2N + C C
B O– O–
C NH
H 2C CH2
C
CH2
C NH+

H H
O O
H 3N + C C H 2N +
C C
C O– O–
C NH
H 2C CH2
C
CH2
C NH+

H H
O O
H 3N + C C H 2N +
C C
D O– O–
C NH
H 2C CH2
C
CH2
C NH+

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18 [Turn over

 8

12 Which words from the table correctly complete the paragraph about enzymes?

When the pH of an environment is decreased below the optimum pH of an enzyme, 1

bonds between adjacent 2 groups, holding the 3 structure, are disrupted.

1 2 3

A hydrogen and ionic R tertiary

B hydrogen hydroxyl secondary
C ionic and peptide R primary and tertiary
D peptide amine primary

13 The effect of substrate concentration on an enzyme-catalysed reaction was measured in three

different conditions:

● with no inhibitor
● with a competitive inhibitor
● with a non-competitive inhibitor.

The graph shows the results.

enzyme with
no inhibitor

inhibitor X
rate of
reaction
inhibitor Y

0
0 substrate concentration

Which statement is correct?

A X is a competitive inhibitor which binds to a site other than the active site of the enzyme.
B X is a non-competitive inhibitor which has a similar shape to the active site of the enzyme.
C Y is a competitive inhibitor which has a similar shape to the active site of the enzyme.
D Y is a non-competitive inhibitor which binds to a site other than the active site of the enzyme.

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18

 9

14 Which statements about the cell surface membrane are correct?

1 Channel proteins allow water soluble ions and molecules across the membrane.
2 Glucose can pass into the cell via carrier proteins.
3 Oxygen passes freely through the membrane as it is soluble in lipids.
4 Some glycoproteins act as antigens.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 3 and 4 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

15 Which of these features increase the efficiency of ion uptake by a root hair cell?

1 many mitochondria in the cell

2 high concentration of ions in the vacuole
3 protein carriers in the cell surface membrane

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

16 What can increase the fluidity of the cell surface membrane at low temperatures?

1 double bonds between carbon atoms in the fatty acid chains

2 cholesterol
3 fatty acids having shorter chains

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18 [Turn over

 10

17 The diagrams show the shape and size of two types of cell.

50 μm
45 μm

10 μm 5 μm
10 μm 10 μm

palisade mesophyll cell columnar epithelial cell

surface area = 2200 μm2 volume = 2250 μm3

Which statement is correct about the palisade cell and epithelial cell shown in the diagrams?

A An increase in surface area reduces the distance for gases to reach the centre of the cell.

B The surface area of the palisade mesophyll cell is 500 µm2 greater than the columnar
epithelial cell.
C The surface area to volume ratio is greater in the columnar epithelial cell than the palisade
mesophyll cell.

D The volume of the palisade mesophyll cell is 2500 µm3 greater than that of the columnar
epithelial cell.

18 A student observed the cells in the growing region (meristem) of an onion root and obtained the
data shown.

stage number of cells

interphase 886
prophase 73
metaphase 16
anaphase 14
telophase 11

Which percentage of cells contains chromosomes that appear as two chromatids?

A 7.3 B 8.9 C 95.9 D 97.5

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 11

19 Which of these events are part of mitosis?

1 interphase
2 telophase
3 cytokinesis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 only

20 During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?

A G1 B G2 C M D S

21 Which row is correct for guanine?

has a joins its

double ring is a purine complementary base with
structure three hydrogen bonds

A    key
B    = correct
C    = incorrect
D   

22 Meselsohn and Stahl investigated DNA in bacteria. They grew bacteria in a medium with only
heavy nitrogen, 15N, until all of the bacterial DNA was heavy.

These bacteria were moved from a heavy nitrogen medium and cultured in a medium with only
light nitrogen, 14N.

A sample of bacteria was collected from the first generation in the medium containing light
nitrogen and their DNA was analysed.

Hybrid DNA contains both heavy and light DNA.

Which row shows the percentage of heavy DNA strands and the percentage of hybrid DNA
molecules in the first generation produced in the medium containing light nitrogen?

percentage of heavy percentage of hybrid

DNA strands DNA molecules

A 25 50
B 50 50
C 50 100
D 75 100

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18 [Turn over

 12

23 Which is the correct DNA triplet on the original DNA template that codes for the amino acid
histidine (His)?

amino acid anticodon

Ala CGU
His GUA
Ser UCA

A CAU B CGT C GTA D GUA

24 The photomicrograph shows tissues in a stained transverse section of a plant stem.

Students are asked to draw four adjacent xylem vessel elements.

Which drawing, all drawn to the same scale, is correct?

A B C D

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18

 13

25 What is a function of the hairs (trichomes) on xerophytic leaves?

A adding a waterproof layer

B protecting the stomata
C reducing the surface area
D trapping a layer of moist air

26 Which features of companion cells are essential to their function?

1 They are connected by plasmadesmata to the sieve tube elements.

2 They have a thinner cell wall than a sieve tube element.
3 They contain a nucleus and mitochondria.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

27 The photomicrograph shows a human blood smear.

Which row identifies the labelled cells?

1 2 3

A lymphocyte monocyte neutrophil

B lymphocyte neutrophil monocyte
C monocyte lymphocyte neutrophil
D monocyte neutrophil lymphocyte

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18 [Turn over

 14

28 The diagram shows the changes in electrical activity in the heart muscle during one cardiac cycle.
This is called an electrocardiograph (ECG).

sinoatrial node
stimulated

stimulates
ventricular
systole

Which electrocardiogram shows a rate of 75 beats per minute?

A B

0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4
time / s time / s

C D

0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4
time / s time / s

29 Which effect could be due to a reduced concentration of carbonic anhydrase?

A Carbaminohaemoglobin concentrations will decrease.

B Less oxygen is released from oxyhaemoglobin for active tissues.
C The pH of the blood will be lowered.
D The rate of dissociation of carbonic acid is increased.

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18

 15

30 Which statement correctly compares blood plasma and tissue fluid in a healthy person?

A Blood plasma contains more protein than tissue fluid.

B Both blood plasma and tissue fluid contain red blood cells.
C Tissue fluid contains white blood cells whereas blood plasma does not.
D Tissue fluid is formed from blood plasma and is not returned to blood plasma.

31 The diagram shows three features found in tissues of the gas exchange system.

ciliated goblet
epithelium cells

cartilage

Which tubes of the gas exchange system could be represented at position P in the diagram?

bronchus bronchiole trachea

A    key
B    = yes
C    = no
D   

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18 [Turn over

 16

32 The diagram shows a magnified section of part of the lungs containing specialised tissues.

Which row is correct for structures labelled 1 to 6?

contains high proportion of

carbonic
HCO3– ions lysosomes
anhydrase

A 1 3 4
B 2 4 5
C 3 5 6
D 4 6 1

33 A short-term effect of smoking is a decreased blood supply to the fingers and toes.

Which component of cigarette smoke causes this effect?

A carbon monoxide
B carcinogens
C nicotine
D tar

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18

 17

34 The symptoms of two diseases are listed.

disease 1 disease 2

coughing up blood shortness of breath

pain when breathing difficulty breathing out
loss of weight fatigue

Which row identifies diseases 1 and 2?

disease 1 disease 2

A chronic bronchitis emphysema

B emphysema lung cancer
C lung cancer chronic bronchitis
D lung cancer emphysema

35 Which statements about a non-infectious disease may be correct?

1 It can result from a mutation.

2 It can be transmitted by an insect vector.
3 It can be transmitted from mother to child.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18 [Turn over

 18

36 The diagram shows one way of testing the effect of an antibiotic on bacteria.

colonies of bacteria

diameter of zone
petri dish with measured every
nutrient agar day for 5 days
grown for
containing
5 days
bacteria

disc of filter paper

soaked in antibiotic

The table shows the results of testing five different types of bacteria.

Zones of less than 13.0 mm show the presence of resistant bacteria.

type of diameter of zone / mm

bacteria day 1 day 2 day 3 day 4 day 5

1 24.1 21.9 19.0 17.6 14.3

2 18.6 15.4 12.2 9.0 2.0
3 17.9 12.8 12.4 11.1 10.9
4 19.4 15.3 13.2 8.1 2.0
5 22.0 21.0 20.5 20.4 20.4

Which statement can be supported by this data?

A All the types of bacteria become resistant to antibiotics over time.

B Only types 2, 3 and 4 of the bacteria show resistance to the antibiotic.
C The antibiotic can be used to treat types 1 and 3 only.
D Type 5 of the bacteria can never become resistant to the antibiotic.

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 19

37 Some animals have genes that code for small peptides called cathelicidins. These peptides kill a
wide range of bacteria by attaching to lipids in bacterial membranes, so weakening or disrupting
them.

Scientists have produced a synthetic version of the cathelicidin that kills bacteria that are
resistant to a number of antibiotics such as tetracycline.

Which pair of statements explain how this synthetic cathelicidin might help with the problem of
antibiotic resistance?

1 It is synthetic so bacteria can never become resistant to it.

2 It could be used instead of tetracycline, allowing tetracycline resistance to be
reduced.
3 The only way a bacterium could develop resistance to it is by altering all the lipids in
its membranes.
4 It could be used to kill multidrug-resistant strains of bacteria for which there is no
effective antibiotic.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

38 Hybridomas are used as a basis for the production of large numbers of monoclonal antibodies.

Which statement describes how hybridomas are made?

A fusing activated T-lymphocytes with cancer cells

B fusing B-lymphocytes with cancer cells
C fusing memory cells with cancer cells
D fusing T-lymphocytes with cancer cells

39 Which statement about the properties of the antigen binding sites in antibody molecules is
correct?

A They are located on the light chains only.

B They have a hinge region to give flexibility for different antigens.
C They have binding sites for receptors on phagocytes.
D They have variable amino acid sequences for different antigens.

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18 [Turn over

 20

40 The statements describe ways in which different types of monoclonal antibodies can work.

1 binding to proteins on cell surfaces and triggering the immune system

2 blocking molecules on cell surfaces that inhibit T-cells
3 blocking cell signalling receptors that trigger cell division
4 blocking cell signalling receptors that trigger the immune response

Which types of monoclonal antibody could be used to treat cancer?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 4 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/M/J/18

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2018
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*6240518218*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB18 06_9700_12/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over
 2

1 Some features of cells are listed.

1 cell wall
2 cell surface membrane
3 ribosomes

Which features can be found in plant cells and in prokaryotic cells?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

2 Which of these statements about light microscopy are correct?

1 The greater the resolution of a light microscope, the greater the detail that can be
seen.
2 The greater the magnification of a light microscope, the greater the detail that can
be seen.
3 Increasing the magnification of a light microscope up to its limit of resolution allows
more detail to be seen.
4 The shorter the wavelength of light used in a light microscope, the greater the detail
that can be seen.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 3 and 4 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 4 only

3 Which type of cell contains the highest proportion of cell structures bound by a single membrane?

A ciliated epithelial cell

B goblet cell
C red blood cell
D smooth muscle cell

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18

 3

4 The table shows a variety of structures which may be found in cells.

Which row shows structures that could be found in the root cells of a plant?

glycogen
plasmodesmata Golgi body mitochondria
granules

A     key
B     = present
C     = absent
D    

5 Which of these cell structures are present in Plasmodium?

Golgi
ribosomes
body
B

A
C

mitochondria

6 A student was asked to estimate the concentration of glucose in a solution using the Benedict’s
test. The student was provided with a 1.0 mol dm–3 glucose solution and was told to make a
0.6 mol dm–3 solution by proportional dilution.

Which row shows the correct volumes of both 1.0 mol dm–3 glucose solution and distilled water
needed to make the 0.6 mol dm–3 solution?

volume of
volume of
1.0 mol dm–3
distilled
glucose
water / cm3
solution / cm3

A 12 8
B 10 10
C 8 12
D 6 14

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18 [Turn over

 4

7 The diagram shows part of a carbohydrate molecule formed by glucose.

What is the name of the molecule?

A amylose
B cellulose
C glycogen
D starch

8 The diagram shows the relationship between some biological molecules.

1 2 3 4 5

Which row is correct?

1 2 3 4 5

A α-glucose carbohydrate sucrose monomer fructose

B cellulose polymer starch carbohydrate amylase
C fructose reducing sugar β-glucose monomer amino acid
D haemoglobin protein amylose polymer cellulose

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18

 5

9 Which diagram shows the reaction that occurs to join two of the monomers that form cellulose?

C C C C
H C O H H C O H H C O H H C O H

A C C C C C C O C C

HO C C OH HO C C OH HO C C C C OH

H 2O

H 2O
C C C C
H C O OH H C O OH H C O C O OH
B C C C C C C C C

HO C C H HO C C H HO C C H HO C C H

H 2O
C C
H C O H HO C C OH H C O C C OH

C C C C C C C C C

HO C C OH H C O H HO C C OH H C O H
C C

H 2O
C C
H C O OH HO C C H H C O C C H
D C C C C C C O C C

HO C C H H C O OH HO C C H H C O OH
C C

10 Which molecules contain C=O bonds?

1 amino acids
2 fatty acids
3 glycerol

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18 [Turn over

 6

11 Which row describes a collagen molecule?

bonds stabilising
properties primary structure helix
the molecule

A disulfide high temperatures high proportion double

increase flexibility of glycine
B disulfide resistant to repeat sequences single
stretching of three amino acids
C hydrogen high tensile repeat sequences triple
strength of three amino acids
D hydrogen insoluble high proportion alpha
in water of glycine and proline

12 A student investigated the hydrolysis of the lipid in high-fat milk, using the enzyme lipase.

• 1 cm3 of enzyme solution was added to 10 cm3 of high-fat milk.

• The temperature was kept constant.

• The pH of the reaction mixture was recorded at time 0 minutes and every minute for
20 minutes.

Which statements could be supported by the results of the investigation?

1 Less product is made as time proceeds because the substrate is decreasing.

2 The pH of the reaction mixture changes more rapidly in the first few minutes and
then changes less rapidly.
3 The product gradually causes more lipase molecules to denature.
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18

 7

13 A student carried out an investigation into the effect of temperature on the rate of an
enzyme-catalysed reaction.

At each temperature, the substrate concentration was measured after 10 minutes. All the other
variables were kept constant.

Which graph shows the effect of increasing temperature on the substrate concentration after
10 minutes?

A B

substrate substrate
concentration concentration

temperature / °C temperature / °C

C D

substrate substrate
concentration concentration

temperature / °C temperature / °C

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18 [Turn over

 8

14 The graph shows how the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction depends on the concentration of
substrate.

0.4

0.3
initial rate
of reaction 0.2
/ mmol s–1
0.1

0.0
0.0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0

substrate concentration / mmol dm–3

What is the Michaelis-Menten constant (Km) for this enzyme under these conditions?

A 0.19 mmol dm–3

B 0.38 mmol dm–3
C 1.5 mmol dm–3
D 5.0 mmol dm–3

15 The formula shows how the rate of diffusion across a cell surface membrane can be calculated.

surface area × difference in concentrat ion

thickness of membrane

Which row shows how the fastest rate of diffusion can be achieved?

surface area difference in thickness of

available concentration membrane

A high high high

B high high low
C low high low
D low low high

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18

 9

16 The diagram shows part of the cell surface membrane of an active animal cell.

more negative water potential X

L M

less negative water potential Y

Which statements correctly describe the net movement of molecules across this membrane?

1 Oxygen diffuses through molecules M from X to Y.

2 Carbon dioxide diffuses through molecules M from X to Y.
3 Water moves from Y to X through molecule L.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

17 Some epidermal cells from a well-watered plant are placed in three solutions which have different
water potentials.

Which row correctly shows the state of the plant cells in each of the solutions?

water potential of solution

lower than cells equal to cells higher than cells

A plasmolysed turgid plasmolysed

B plasmolysed turgid turgid
C turgid plasmolysed plasmolysed
D turgid plasmolysed turgid

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18 [Turn over

 10

18 One of the chromosomes in a nucleus has a telomere which contains many repeats of the base
sequence TTAGGG.

This chromosome was extracted from four different cells and the total number of bases in the
telomere was determined.

Which total number of bases was found in the cell that had undergone the most mitotic divisions?

A 5548 B 5580 C 5645 D 5700

19 The chromosome content of each daughter cell must be identical to that of the mother cell for
successful cell replacement when repairing tissues.

Which stages of mitosis make sure that each daughter cell receives one chromatid from each
chromatid pair?

A prophase and metaphase

B metaphase and anaphase
C anaphase and telophase
D telophase and interphase

20 Which of these statements about cytokinesis is always true?

1 Cell structures replicate.

2 Cell structures are shared between two cells.
3 Nuclear envelope reforms.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 only D 3 only

21 Which statement is correct about the number of telomeres present in prophase of a human body
cell?

A 46 as there is one telomere at the end of 46 chromosomes

B 92 as there is one telomere at each end of 46 chromosomes
C 92 as there is one telomere at the end of 92 chromatids
D 184 as there is one telomere at each end of 92 chromatids

22 Which statement explains why DNA replication is described as semi-conservative?

A Half of each original strand is conserved in each new molecule of DNA.

B Half of the base sequence of each strand is conserved in each new molecule of DNA.
C Only one strand of DNA is used as a template during replication.
D The template for each new molecule of DNA is one strand of the original molecule.

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18

 11

23 A section of a DNA molecule has the coding sequence: AGGCAATGGC.

Which statements are correct?

1 This coding sequence contains 3 pyrimidines.

2 The double-stranded DNA of this section contains 26 hydrogen bonds between
complementary bases.
3 The double-stranded DNA of this section has 20 sugar-phosphate bonds.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

24 XNA is a laboratory-made nucleic acid made of nucleotides in which one component has been
replaced by chemical X. The chemical X is not found in nature. The part of the molecule
responsible for coding is not changed.

Which organic component of a DNA or RNA nucleotide has been replaced by X?

A five-carbon sugar
B phosphate group
C purine base
D pyrimidine base

25 Which statements about tRNA are correct?

1 Hydrogen bonds between bases temporarily hold tRNA against mRNA.

2 The base sequences in the tRNA molecules are the same as the base sequences in
the mRNA that is being translated.
3 The specificity of the tRNA molecule for glycine and the specificity of the enzyme
that loads glycine are both necessary for correct loading.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

26 What is the role of ATP in a companion cell when sucrose is loaded into a sieve tube element?

A moving sucrose into the sieve tube element

B removing protons from the sieve tube element
C removing protons out of the cytoplasm of the companion cell
D taking up sucrose into the cytoplasm of the companion cell

27 A potometer was used to measure the transpiration rate of a leafy shoot.

What could be the correct units?

A cm min B cm2 min–1 C cm3 g–1 min D cm3 min–1

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18 [Turn over

 12

28 Which combination of features is characteristic of a phloem sieve tube element as it is loaded

from a source?

water potential of
lignification of
the phloem sieve
the cell wall
tube element

A higher than source absent

B higher than source present
C lower than source absent
D lower than source present

29 The diagrams show transverse sections of parts of a plant.

1
3

Which structures, labelled 1 to 4, transport water and sucrose?

1 2 3 4

A     key
B     = correct
C     = incorrect
D    

30 Which statement explains why the ventricles contract after the atria?

A The band of fibres between the atria and the ventricles conducts the excitation wave slowly.
B The excitation wave has to pass through a small area of conducting fibres in the septum.
C The excitation wave has to travel further to reach the base of the ventricles than to spread
across the atria.
D The excitation wave travels slowly through the Purkyne tissue to reach the base of the
septum.

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18

 13

31 If the left atrioventricular valve in the heart does not close completely it results in blood flowing
back into the atrium during ventricular systole.

What would be the immediate effect of this back flow?

A blood flowing from the heart carries less oxygen because less blood enters the lungs
B diastolic pressure in the left ventricle falls because less blood enters the pulmonary artery
C lower systolic pressure in the left atrium and less blood enters the pulmonary artery
D raised pressure in the left atrium and less blood enters the aorta

32 The graph shows two oxygen dissociation curves, one for a tissue at rest and one for the same
tissue during exercise.

100 tissue at rest

tissue during exercise

percentage
saturation 50
with oxygen

0
pO2 / kPa

What factors have caused the difference in the position of the dissociation curve during exercise
compared with the dissociation curve for the tissue at rest?

1 increase in pH
2 decrease in pH
3 increase in haemoglobin affinity for O2
4 decrease in haemoglobin affinity for O2

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

33 Which of these statements about the formation of haemoglobinic acid are correct?

1 It can only occur with the dissociation of oxygen from haemoglobin.

2 It removes excess hydrogen ions preventing blood becoming too acidic.
3 It is linked to the action of carbonic anhydrase.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18 [Turn over

 14

34 Which of these structures contain cartilage and cilia?

1 bronchi
2 bronchioles
3 trachea

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 3 only

35 What correctly describes the effect of carcinogens on lung tissue that causes a tumour to
develop?

A Cells in damaged alveoli walls divide more rapidly to replace damaged areas.
B Cilia are paralysed and mucus accumulates in the lungs causing DNA to change.
C DNA changes, causing bronchial epithelial cells to divide by mitosis in an uncontrolled way.
D Haemoglobin carries less oxygen, causing bronchial cells to divide by mitosis in an
uncontrolled way.

36 Which row identifies both the type of pathogen that causes cholera and the way in which cholera
is transmitted from person to person?

type of pathogen method of transmission

A bacteria drinking water contaminated
with the pathogen
B bacteria inhaling water droplets
contaminated with the pathogen
C virus drinking water contaminated
with the pathogen
D virus inhaling water droplets
contaminated with the pathogen

37 Why do people with HIV/AIDS have a higher occurrence of malaria than people without
HIV/AIDS?

A HIV/AIDS and malaria are both diseases where the pathogen travels in blood.
B HIV/AIDS and malaria are both transmitted in blood.
C HIV/AIDS infects T-lymphocytes which are used by the malaria pathogen.
D HIV/AIDS suppresses the immune response to the malaria pathogen.

38 How many variable regions are there on a typical Y-shaped antibody molecule?

A 2 B 3 C 4 D 6

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18

 15

39 Where are antigens found?

on the surface of on the surface of

pathogen macrophage

A   key
B   = antigens found
C   = antigens not found
D  

40 When an organ is transplanted from one person to another, rejection of the non-self organ must
be avoided. At the same time, the immune system of the recipient must be maintained to prevent
death from infections.

What prevents rejection of the transplanted organ?

A continued activity of B-lymphocytes

B natural active immunity
C natural passive immunity
D suppression of T-lymphocyte activity

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18

 16

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/M/J/18

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2018
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*0862226228*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 06_9700_13/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over
 2

1 Which steps are needed to find the actual width of a xylem vessel viewed in transverse section
using a ×10 objective lens?

1 Convert from mm to µm by multiplying by 10–3.

2 Calibrate the eyepiece graticule using a stage micrometer on ×4 objective lens.

3 Measure the width of the xylem vessel using an eyepiece graticule.
4 Multiply the number of eyepiece graticule units by the calibration of the eyepiece
graticule.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1 and 2 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only

2 The diagram shows functions of four cell structures, W, X, Y and Z.

W makes
glycolipid

Z transports function X makes

protein protein

Y makes
lipid

Which row correctly matches the cell structure with the letter representing a function?

rough smooth
Golgi body ribosome endoplasmic endoplasmic
reticulum reticulum

A W X Z Y
B X Z Y W
C Y W X Z
D Z Y W X

© UCLES 2018 9700/13/M/J/18

 3

3 Which cell structures produce ATP?

1 chloroplasts
2 mitochondria
3 nucleus

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

4 When mucus is secreted from a goblet cell these events take place.

1 addition of carbohydrate to protein

2 fusion of the vesicle with the cell surface membrane
3 secretion of a glycoprotein
4 separation of a vesicle from the Golgi body

What is the sequence in which these events take place?

A 1→4→2→3

B 1→4→3→2

C 4→1→2→3

D 4→1→3→2

5 Which row could be correct for a virus?

carbohydrate DNA phospholipid lipid protein RNA

A      
B      
C      
D      

key
 = present
 = not present

6 Which size range would include most prokaryotic cells?

A B C D

1 nm 100 nm 1 µm 100 µm 1 mm

© UCLES 2018 9700/13/M/J/18 [Turn over

 4

7 Solutions of three biological molecules are tested for sugars. The table shows the colours of the
solutions after testing.

boiled with hydrochloric acid,

heated with Benedict’s
solution neutralised, then heated with
solution
Benedict’s solution

1 blue orange
2 green green
3 orange red

Which solutions contained glucose before testing?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

8 A solution containing equal masses of amylose and amylopectin is completely hydrolysed.

Which molecules will be found after the hydrolysis?

A α-glucose only

B β-glucose only

C equal masses of α-glucose and β-glucose

D more α-glucose than β-glucose

9 Which molecules contain the following bonds?

ester hydrogen disulfide

A amylase haemoglobin catalase

B glycerol glycogen collagen
C lipids amylopectin amylose
D phospholipids cellulose antibodies

10 Which feature of phospholipids enables a bilayer to form?

A They are insoluble in water.

B They are polar molecules.
C They have hydrophobic and hydrophilic components.
D They may contain saturated or unsaturated fatty acids.

© UCLES 2018 9700/13/M/J/18

 5

11 Which description is correct for collagen?

A A collagen molecule has a high proportion of the amino acid glycine, which has a very small
R group.
B A group of three collagen fibres forms a strong, insoluble coiled structure termed a triple
helix.
C Each of the collagen polypeptides in a collagen molecule has a regular spiral arrangement of
many alpha helices.
D Peptide bonds are present between amino acids of the different polypeptides forming the
collagen molecule.

12 Which statement about the properties of water is correct?

A Bonds between hydrogen atoms cause water to have a high specific heat capacity.
B The high latent heat of vaporisation of water is due to the presence of hydrogen bonds.
C The high specific heat capacity of water causes cooling during evaporation.
D Water can dissolve amylopectin as it has hydrophilic side chains.

13 Catechol is a chemical found in a number of fruits. Catechol can be oxidised to a quinone by the
enzyme catechol oxidase.

Catechol oxidase is inhibited by parahyroxybenzoic acid (PHBA) which is structurally similar to

catechol.

Catechol oxidase is also inhibited by phenylthiourea (PTU) which binds to a copper atom in the
enzyme.

How do both these inhibitors reduce the enzyme activity?

1 altering the specificity of the enzyme

2 competing with substrates for the active site

3 decreasing the Vmax of the reaction

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 only C 2 only D 3 only

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14 Four students investigated the effect of catalase on hydrogen peroxide.

Each student started a digital clock at the beginning of the experiment and stopped the clock after
25 bubbles had been counted.

The time recorded on the digital clock is shown below.

hundredths
hours minutes seconds
of a second

00 01 33 54

Which of the times recorded by the students is appropriate for this experiment?

A 1.34 minutes
B 1 minute 33.54 seconds
C 94 seconds
D 93.54 seconds

15 What is the effect of an enzyme in an enzyme-catalysed reaction?

A decreases the activation energy and decreases the energy yield

B decreases the activation energy and has no effect on the energy yield
C increases the activation energy and increases the energy yield
D increases the energy yield and decreases the activation energy

16 The diagram shows part of the cell surface membrane.

2
4

Which components act as antigens?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

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 7

17 Which processes use energy in the form of ATP?

1 endocytosis
2 exocytosis
3 facilitated diffusion

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

18 The diagram shows a partially plasmolysed plant cell.

solution X

Z
solution Y

What is found at Z?

A air
B solution X
C solution Y
D water

19 Which features of an organism are affected by a drug that stops mitosis?

1 cell repair
2 cell replacement
3 number of stem cells
4 tissue repair
5 tumour formation

A 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 4 and 5 only
D 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

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20 Which row shows the appearance of a chromosome at the beginning of prophase of mitosis and
the number of DNA strands in the chromosome?

appearance of number of
one chromosome DNA strands

A 2

B 4

C 1

D 2

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 9

21 The graph shows measurements taken during one mitotic cell cycle.

X
2

1
distance

0 5 10 15 20 25
time / minutes

Which stage of mitosis begins at X and which measurements are shown by curves 1 and 2?

distance between
distance between
stage centromeres of
centromeres of
beginning at X chromosomes and
sister chromatids
poles of spindle

A anaphase 1 2
B anaphase 2 1
C metaphase 1 2
D metaphase 2 1

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 10

22 The diagram shows the outline structure of two nucleotide bases which occur in DNA.

This pair is held together by two hydrogen bonds, shown as dashed lines.

nucleotide 2

nucleotide 1

Which row correctly identifies these two nucleotide bases?

nucleotide 1 nucleotide 2

A adenine thymine
B cytosine guanine
C guanine cytosine
D thymine adenine

23 DNA polymerase catalyses condensation reactions between molecules during semi-conservative

replication of DNA.

Which two molecules are joined by DNA polymerase?

A base and base

B base and nucleotide
C nucleotide and nucleotide
D phosphate and deoxyribose

24 What occurs during each of DNA replication and transcription and translation?

1 ATP provides energy.

2 Condensation reactions occur to form a polymer.
3 Hydrogen bonds form between purine and pyrimidine bases.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 only D 3 only

© UCLES 2018 9700/13/M/J/18

 11

25 Part of a sequence of DNA from a person with a genetic disease is:

TAGTAACCACAAAGG

The corresponding sequence of DNA from a person without this genetic disease is:

TAGTAAAAACCACAAAGG

The possible mRNA codons for some amino acids are shown in the table.

amino acid mRNA codons

1 GGU GGC GGA GGG
2 AUU AUC AUA
3 UUU UUC
4 UCU UCC UCA UCG

Which amino acid is missing from a person with this genetic disease?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

26 The photomicrograph shows a section through a plant organ.

Which statement could be used to describe this organ?

A The central region of this organ has supporting tissue.

B The endodermis tissue is a thick layer around the edge of the organ.
C The epidermis tissue in this organ has unicellular extensions (trichomes).
D The xylem tissue is found in greatest density in the centre of the organ.

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 12

27 Which diagram correctly represents part of a sieve tube element?

A B

lignified cell wall dense cytoplasm

empty lumen nucleus

sieve plate sieve plate

C D

tonoplast thin layer of cytoplasm

vacuole cellulose cell wall

sieve plate sieve plate

28 Which of the processes involved in water movement through xylem vessels depends on
hydrogen bonding between water molecules?

A adhesion
B cohesion
C evaporation
D hydrostatic pressure

29 Which statements about water movement in plants are correct?

1 Water can pass through cellulose.

2 Water cannot pass through lignin.
3 Water can pass through suberin.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2018 9700/13/M/J/18

 13

30 Which blood vessel has the thickest walls?

31 Which statement about the role in the mammalian circulatory system of the heart, blood vessels
and blood is correct?

A The contraction of heart muscle causes blood to enter arteries that pump the blood to
organs, causing the formation of tissue fluid between cells before returning to the heart in
veins.
B The heart connects two sets of blood vessels so that oxygen from the lungs can be
distributed by red blood cells and wastes can be collected from tissues by blood plasma for
removal.
C The heart muscle contracts and relaxes causing blood, carrying materials from one part of
the body to another, to move through blood vessels that connect the different parts of the
body.
D The heart provides enough pressure to push blood through arteries to capillaries between
cells causing filtration of blood and the formation of tissue fluid which diffuses back into
veins.

32 What explains how the maximum uptake of oxygen occurs as blood passes through the
capillaries of the lungs?

A Each haemoglobin molecule can temporarily bind to four oxygen atoms.

B Oxyhaemoglobin formation increases the capacity of red blood cells to transport oxygen.
C The binding of the first oxygen molecule to haemoglobin decreases the molecule’s affinity for
binding other oxygen molecules.
D The dissociation of carbon dioxide from carboxyhaemoglobin allows more haemoglobin to be
available for oxygen binding.

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 14

33 At high altitudes, the oxygen content of the air may be a third of that at sea level.

As a person climbs a mountain, their body gradually adjusts to the high altitude.

What is increased during this period of adjustment?

A the concentration of haemoglobin in the red blood cells

B the oxygen-carrying capacity of the haemoglobin
C the number of red blood cells per mm3 of blood
D the rate at which haemoglobin releases oxygen to the tissues

34 What helps to maintain a concentration gradient between blood and the air in the alveolus?

A the flow of blood through the lungs

B the presence of haemoglobin in blood cells
C the single-celled alveolar walls
D the squamous epithelium of capillaries

35 The diagram shows three features found in the tissues of the gas exchange system.

Y
goblet
ciliated
cells
epithelium
X

cartilage

Which structures of the gas exchange system could be represented at position X and at position
Y in the diagram?

1 bronchiole
2 trachea
3 bronchus

X Y

A 1 2 and 3
B 1 and 3 2
C 2 1 and 3
D 2 and 3 1

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36 Blood tests on people who regularly smoke cigarettes show that approximately 5% of their
haemoglobin carries carbon monoxide.

People who smoke e-cigarettes inhale a vapour with no carbon monoxide. A person who smokes
cigarettes regularly, switches to e-cigarettes and a blood test is carried out after a month.

Which chemical in the blood would be found in a lower concentration in this blood test?

A carbaminohaemoglobin
B carbonic anhydrase
C carboxyhaemoglobin
D hydrogencarbonate ions

37 Emphysema is a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, COPD. People with emphysema
have a very low level of a plasma protein which inhibits the enzyme elastase.

Elastase breaks down the elastic fibres in the bronchioles and alveoli.

Which are effects of the low levels of inhibitor in people with emphysema?

1 alveoli do not stretch and recoil properly during inhalation and exhalation
2 blood is poorly oxygenated resulting in a rapid breathing rate
3 bronchioles collapse during exhalation trapping air in the alveoli

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

38 Some antibiotics work by binding to ribosomes.

Which statement explains why these antibiotics kill bacteria cells but do not kill most human
cells?

A mRNA in bacteria is formed in the cytoplasm from naked DNA.

B The antibiotics cannot pass through human cell membranes.
C The codes used for amino acids in bacteria are different from those used by humans.
D The ribosomes of bacteria have a different structure from those of humans.

39 Where are antigens found?

on the surface on the surface

in blood plasma
of pathogen of macrophage

A    key
B    = antigens found
C    = antigens not found
D   

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40 The diagram allows the identification of different types of immunity.

immunity

short term long term

1

acquired by fetus from acquired by injection acquired as a result acquired by injection

the maternal circulation of antibodies into of infection by a of an attenuated
across the placenta the bloodstream pathogen pathogen
2 3

Which row correctly identifies the types of immunity labelled 1, 2 and 3?

1 2 3

A active artificial natural

B active natural artificial
C passive artificial natural
D passive natural artificial

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 9700/13/M/J/18

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2018
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7610296737*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 11_9700_11/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over
 2

1 A student made notes describing photomicrographs of four cells.

cell 1 Grey cytoplasm at edge of cell contains many black lines and spots. Large white
area in centre of cell.
cell 2 Grey cytoplasm contains many black lines and spots which fill the entire cell.
cell 3 Pale blue cytoplasm surrounds a single dark blue spot.
cell 4 Many green structures are enclosed within a rectangular shape with visible
boundaries.

Which table identifies the type of cell and the type of microscope used to take each photograph?

A B
animal cell plant cell animal cell plant cell
electron electron
1 2 1 2
microscope microscope
light light
3 4 4 3
microscope microscope

C D
animal cell plant cell animal cell plant cell
electron electron
2 1 2 1
microscope microscope
light light
3 4 4 3
microscope microscope

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/O/N/18

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2 The diagram shows a slide of a transverse section of a stem. This diagram is the same size as
the actual slide.

A student observed this slide using a light microscope at a magnification of ×40. The student
made a plan drawing of the stem, which was 20 cm in diameter.

The student labelled the plan ‘Transverse section of a stem ×40’.

Which statement explains why this label is not correct?

A The actual size of the stem should have been checked using an eyepiece graticule.
B The actual size of the stem was smaller under low power.

C The image size in the drawing was larger than ×40.

D The image size in the drawing was smaller than ×40.

3 Which cell structures may contain cisternae?

endoplasmic
chloroplast Golgi body mitochondrion
reticulum

A    
B    
C    
D    

key
= may contain cisternae
= does not contain cisternae

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4 Which row correctly describes the function of the cell structures?

smooth
lysosomes mitochondria endoplasmic Golgi body
reticulum

A digestion of abundant in sites processing a stack of

unwanted of active transport of proteins flattened sacs
structures
B digestion of ATP synthesis lipid production glycoprotein
unwanted production
structures
C spherical sacs abundant in sites lipid production glycoprotein
containing of active transport production
hydrolytic enzymes
D spherical sacs ATP synthesis glycoprotein lipid production
containing production
hydrolytic enzymes

5 The diagram shows the relationship between various cells and their components.

1 2 3 4 5

Which row is correct?

1 2 3 4 5

A 80S ribosome eukaryotic cell mitochondrion 70S ribosome prokaryotic cell

B chloroplast plant cell cell wall prokaryotic cell 80S ribosome
C circular DNA nucleus eukaryotic cell mitochondrion 70S ribosome
D prokaryotic cell circular DNA chloroplast membrane 70S ribosome
bound

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6 Which comparison of bacteria cell walls and plant cell walls is correct?

bacteria cell wall plant cell wall

A made of a polymer of α-glucose made of cellulose

B made of a polymer of β-glucose made of a polymer of amino sugars
C made of a polymer of amino sugars made of a polymer of α-glucose
D made of peptidoglycan made of a polymer of β-glucose

7 A glycosidic bond is broken and two monosaccharides are formed during a positive test for a
non-reducing sugar.

Which row identifies the catalyst and reactants in this process?

catalyst reactants

A hydrochloric acid fructose and glucose

B hydrochloric acid sucrose and water
C sucrase enzyme fructose and glucose
D sucrase enzyme sucrose and water

8 Which pair of statements are correct?

A Carbon and oxygen occur in a ratio of 2 : 1 in carbohydrates.

Triglycerides are soluble in water.
B Glycolipids are found in all cell surface membranes.
Carbohydrates are stored as starch in plants.
C Phospholipids all have two saturated hydrocarbon chains.
Polysaccharides are polymers.
D Water is released during the formation of a glycosidic bond.
Phospholipids all have three ester bonds.

9 What is the general formula for cellulose?

A (C5H10O5)n B (C5H10O6)n C (C6H10O5)n D (C6H12O6)n

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10 A triglyceride consists of glycerol and three different fatty acids, linoleic acid (L), oleic acid (O)
and palmitic acid (P).

The diagram shows one possible arrangement of the fatty acids L, O and P in the molecule.

glycerol O

What is the total number of different arrangements of the fatty acids in this triglyceride?

A 3 B 4 C 5 D 9

11 Which statements about a peptide bond are correct?

1 It joins two monomers which are always identical to each other.

2 It contains four different atoms.
3 It can be broken by the addition of water at room temperature.
4 It is important in the primary structure of proteins.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 4 only

12 Which statements about the primary structure of a protein are correct?

1 It may be branched.
2 It is determined by the sequence of DNA bases.
3 It is unique to that protein.
4 It determines the tertiary structure of the protein.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

13 A mutation occurred within the DNA sequence coding for an enzyme, causing a decrease in the
rate of a reaction catalysed by this enzyme.

Which statements could explain the decrease in the rate of reaction?

1 An inhibitor for this enzyme has an increased affinity for the enzyme and forms an
enzyme–inhibitor complex more easily.
2 The active site of the enzyme might have changed shape and so is no longer
complementary.
3 The activation energy for the reaction with the mutated enzyme is greater than with
the non-mutated enzyme.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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14 Which row is correct for an enzyme with a low Michaelis-Menten constant?

affinity of enzyme substrate concentration

for substrate at maximum reaction rate

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

15 The diagram shows a glycoprotein embedded in the cell surface membrane of a human red blood
cell. This glycoprotein is part of a system of cell surface blood group recognition sites.

key
= carbohydrate
P

cell surface
membrane

Which row identifies the role of this glycoprotein and regions P and Q of the molecule?

role of
region P region Q
glycoprotein

A antigen amino acids with amino acids with hydrophilic

hydrophobic R groups R groups in the cell’s cytoplasm
B carrier amino acids with amino acids with hydrophilic
hydrophilic R groups R groups in the cell’s cytoplasm
C channel amino acids with amino acids with hydrophobic
hydrophilic R groups R groups outside the cell
D receptor amino acids with amino acids with hydrophobic
hydrophobic R groups R groups outside the cell

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/O/N/18 [Turn over

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16 The diagram shows the transport of ions across the cell surface membrane. Inside the cell there
is a low concentration of sodium ions (Na+) and a high concentration of potassium ions (K+).
Outside the cell there is a low concentration of K+ and a high concentration of Na+.

The carrier molecule is a pump which exchanges Na+ for K+.

inside cell

2
1

cell surface
membrane

4
carrier 3
molecule outside cell

Which ionic movements are represented by the arrows?

active transport active transport diffusion diffusion

of K+ of Na+ of Na+ of K+

A 2 3 1 4
B 2 3 4 1
C 3 2 1 4
D 3 2 4 1

17 The indicator cresol red changes from red to yellow when put into an acid.

Some blocks of agar containing cresol red were cut to different sizes and put in an acid. All other
variables were kept constant. The blocks were measured in mm.

Which block became completely yellow most quickly?

A 3 × 30 × 30 B 6×6×6 C 6 × 12 × 12 D 12 × 12 × 12

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18 When red blood cells are put into pure water they burst (haemolysis).

Which statements explain this haemolysis?

1 The water potential of the surrounding liquid is lower than the water potential of the
contents of the red blood cell.
2 The cell surface membranes of red blood cells are not supported by cell walls.
3 More water moves into the red blood cells by osmosis than leaves the cells.
4 Water enters the red blood cells by osmosis but does not leave the cells.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

19 How many copies of each DNA molecule will be found in a cell at each stage of the mitotic cell
cycle?

G1 of
cytokinesis
interphase

A 1 1
B 1 2
C 2 1
D 2 2

20 Which metabolic processes will be very active in a cell that has just completed cytokinesis?

1 ATP formation
2 DNA replication
3 protein synthesis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 only D 3 only

21 A mutation occurs in a gene which prevents the production of telomerase.

What is the effect of this mutation if it occurs in bone marrow stem cells?

A a rapid increase in the production of lymphocytes

B a tumour grows in the bone marrow
C bone marrow stem cells eventually no longer divide
D the total blood cell count will be unchanged

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22 What are the products when a DNA molecule replicates?

A two molecules of DNA each made of a paired sequence of bases

B two molecules of DNA each made of a paired sequence of nucleotides
C two strands of DNA each made of a paired sequence of bases
D two strands of DNA each made of a paired sequence of nucleotides

23 Following translation, the alpha polypeptide chain of haemoglobin, α-globin, undergoes

modification. During this modification, the first amino acid is removed, leaving 141 amino acid
residues.

How many nucleotides does the gene coding for α-globin contain?

A 141 B 142 C 423 D 426

24 Which statements correctly describe transport pathways in dicotyledonous plants?

1 In the apoplast pathway, water does not move through plasmodesmata.

2 In the symplast pathway, water does not move through intercellular spaces.
3 The apoplast pathway may be blocked by the Casparian strip.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/O/N/18

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25 The photomicrograph shows a transverse section through a root.

What is the simplest ratio of the diameter of the root (excluding root hairs) to the diameter of the
vascular tissue and endodermis?

A 40 mm : 11 mm
B 40 : 11
C 8 cm : 2.2 cm
D 80 : 22

26 Which properties of water molecules are important in the upward flow of water through xylem?

1 Water molecules are attracted to each other by hydrogen bonding.

2 Water molecules are attracted to cellulose by adhesion.
3 Water molecules have high cohesion in water columns.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

27 What is correct for a phloem sieve tube element that is unloading to a sink?

water potential of the

lignification of
phloem sieve tube
the cell wall
element becomes

A less negative than sink absent

B less negative than sink present
C more negative than sink absent
D more negative than sink present

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/O/N/18 [Turn over

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28 Which statement concerning transpiration is correct?

A On a humid day, the water potential gradient between the intercellular air space and the
external atmosphere increases to stimulate water loss by evaporation.

B Water arriving at the spongy mesophyll cells via the symplast pathway must move by
osmosis through the cell surface membrane before evaporation from the surface of the cells.
C Water diffuses down the water potential gradient from the saturated air space through the
guard cells before evaporating from the surface of the cells into the atmosphere.
D Water moves up the xylem in the apoplast pathway and can continue on this pathway by
osmosis to reach the spongy mesophyll cells before evaporating into the intercellular air
space.

29 The diagram shows a section through the heart and the associated blood vessels.

What is correct for the flow of blood through the heart?

A 1→2→3→4

B 2→1→3→4

C 3→4→1→2

D 4→3→2→1

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/O/N/18

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30 Blood, tissue fluid and lymph each have a different composition.

Which row shows the composition of lymph?

water antibodies lipid

A    key
B    = present
C    = absent
D   

31 Which row shows the change in concentration of some substances in red blood cells when
carbon dioxide diffuses from active cells?

carbonic hydrogencarbonate hydrogen

anhydrase ions ions

A decreases no change no change

B increases increases increases
C no change decreases increases
D no change increases increases

32 The diagram shows the pressure changes in various structures of the left side of the heart during
the cardiac cycle.

At the end of which period is the ventricle full of blood?

A B C D

pressure key
/ kPa left ventricle
aorta
left atrium

0
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8
time / s

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/O/N/18 [Turn over

 14

33 The photomicrographs show a cross-section through the lining of part of the respiratory system.

Which statements are correct?

1 Goblet cells are visible between squamous epithelium cells.

2 Smooth muscle is visible.
3 The section cannot be from a bronchiole as cartilage is visible.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

34 In the lungs, oxygen and carbon dioxide pass through cell surface membranes by diffusion.

Which row is correct?

number of cell surface membranes diffused through by

oxygen from air carbon dioxide to air

A 3 2
B 3 2 or 3
C 5 4
D 5 4 or 5

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/O/N/18

 15

35 Which flow diagram correctly describes the effect of tar entering the lungs?

carcinogens
come into mutation uncontrolled
A → →
contact with occurs cell division
DNA

mucus
goblet cells phagocytes
accumulates
B secrete more → → attracted by
causing
mucus inflammation
infection

mucus phagocytes elastase

C accumulates → attracted by → destroys the
causing infection inflammation alveolar walls

phagocytes causes
D mutation occurs → attracted by → irritation and
inflammation coughing

36 Which list contains only infectious diseases?

A cholera, HIV / AIDS, lung cancer and malaria

B cholera, malaria, tuberculosis (TB) and sickle cell anaemia
C HIV / AIDS, malaria, measles and tuberculosis (TB)
D lung cancer, measles, sickle cell anaemia and tuberculosis (TB)

37 Which disease is caused by a eukaryote?

A cholera
B malaria
C measles
D smallpox

38 A vaccine is available against most common strains of the influenza virus.

The virus that causes influenza often undergoes mutation in the gene coding for its antigenic
protein.

Which statements explain why vaccinated people are not immune to a mutated influenza virus?

1 They will not have primary immune response to the mutated antigen.
2 They will not have a secondary immune response to the mutated antigen.
3 Their memory cells do not recognise the mutated antigen.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/O/N/18 [Turn over

 16

39 Which statements correctly describe lymphocytes?

1 Each B-lymphocyte has the ability to make several types of antibody molecules.
2 Some B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes become memory cells.
3 Plasma cells secrete antibodies into the blood plasma.
4 Some T-lymphocytes stimulate macrophages to kill infected cells.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 4 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

40 Addison’s disease can occur when antibodies are produced in response to an enzyme found in
some organs of the body.

Which statements correctly describe Addison’s disease?

1 It is a non-infectious disease.
2 It is a type of auto-immune disease.
3 Antibodies are produced against a self-antigen.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 9700/11/O/N/18

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2018
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7687750630*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB18 11_9700_12/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over
 2

1 What is the diameter of a typical prokaryote, such as Streptococcus?

A 7.5 × 101 nm

B 7.5 × 102 nm

C 7.5 × 100 µm

D 7.5 × 101 µm

2 A specimen of plant tissue is first observed under a microscope using red light with a wavelength
of 650 nm.

The same specimen is then observed under the same conditions, but using green light with a
wavelength of 510 nm.

What happens to the magnification and resolution when using green light compared to red light?

magnification resolution

A decreases decreases
B increases increases
C remains the same decreases
D remains the same increases

3 Which structures are present in a Vibrio cholerae cell?

circular DNA

D B

80S
mitochondria C ribosomes

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4 The removal of a plant cell wall by enzyme digestion leaves an intact membrane-bound structure
called a protoplast.

Which statement explains why protoplasts are easily damaged?

A Mitochondria stop producing ATP to maintain membrane integrity.

B Net movement of water is no longer limited by turgor.
C Secretory vesicles are unable to fuse with the cell surface membrane.
D The shape of the cell structures is changed by the loss of cell shape.

5 Which statements are correct for a green plant?

1 ATP is produced by mitochondria.

2 ATP is produced by chloroplasts.
3 ATP forms part of the DNA.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

6 Which processes occur in eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

1 hydrolysis
2 mitosis
3 transcription
4 translation

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

7 A sample of a solution was tested for reducing sugar and the result was negative.

Another sample of the same solution was then tested for non-reducing sugar and the result was
positive.

Which step in the test for non-reducing sugar breaks the glycosidic bonds?

A addition of Benedict’s reagent

B addition of sodium hydroxide
C boiling with hydrochloric acid

D heating to 80 °C

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8 Which row correctly identifies three polysaccharides

α-glucose α-glucose β-glucose

straight chain branching chain straight chain

A amylose amylopectin cellulose

B amylose glycogen amylopectin
C glycogen amylose amylopectin
D glycogen amylose cellulose

9 Which row describes a triglyceride?

insoluble in
hydrophobic
alcohol

A   key
B   = correct
C   = not correct
D  

10 Which diagram shows where a peptide bond would be formed?

A B

H R O H R O H R O O R H

N C C N C C N C C C C N

H H OH H H OH H H OH H O H H

C D

H R O H R O H R O
H H
N C C N C C N C C N

H H OH H H OH H H OH H C R

C
O OH

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11 Which statements about collagen molecules are correct?

1 Both types of secondary structure occur within the molecules.

2 Large numbers of hydrogen bonds stabilise the molecules.
3 Repeated amino acid sequences determine the tertiary structure.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

12 The protein glutenin gives bread dough its elasticity. The diagram represents a polypeptide of
glutenin.

tightly tightly
coiled coiled
region region

loose spiral

What describes the structure of glutenin?

A quaternary structure because there are both globular and fibrous regions
B quaternary structure because there are both spiral and tightly coiled regions

C secondary structure because the loose spiral is an α-helix

D tertiary structure because the different regions form a 3D shape

13 Which diagram correctly shows hydrogen bonding between water molecules?

The symbol δ indicates the partial charge on an atom in the water molecule.

A B C D

δ+ δ+ δ– δ–
O H O H
δ– δ– δ– δ– δ+ δ+ δ– δ+
H H O O H H O O
δ+ δ+ δ– δ–
O H O H
δ– δ– δ– δ– δ+ δ+ δ– δ+
H H O O H H O O

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14 Aspirin inhibits an enzyme by reacting with an amino acid that forms an essential part of the
3D structure of the enzyme. Part of the aspirin molecule binds firmly with the amino acid.

What describes this inhibition?

1 competitive inhibition
2 non-competitive inhibition
3 reversible inhibition

A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

15 The table shows the Michaelis-Menten constant, Km, for three enzymes.

enzyme Km / mmoldm–3

C 1.5 × 10–2
P 3.0 × 10–4
F 5.0 × 10–6

Which interpretation of the information is correct?

A Enzyme C has a Vmax which is half that of enzyme P.

B Enzyme C will reach Vmax in the shortest time interval.
C Enzyme F has the greatest affinity for its substrate.

D Enzyme P has a Vmax of 6.0 × 10–3 mmoldm–3.

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16 The diagram is a drawing from an electron micrograph of a typical animal cell.

How many layers of phospholipids will a molecule of oxygen cross to travel directly from X,
outside the cell, to Y, the matrix of the mitochondrion?

A 3 B 4 C 5 D 6

17 How could water molecules cross the cell surface membrane of animal cells?

1 carrier proteins

2 channel proteins

3 cholesterol molecules

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 only

18 The diagram shows a xylem vessel in a root and four adjacent parenchyma cells.

As water moves up the xylem vessel, it is replaced by water from cell D. Water in cell D is
replaced by water in cell C, resulting in a flow of water from cell A to the xylem.

Which cell has the least negative water potential?

xylem

A B C D

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19 Agar cubes can be used to demonstrate the effect of changing surface area to volume ratio on
diffusion.

Three different agar cubes made using a dilute acid were placed into an indicator solution that
diffused into the cubes. When the indicator came into contact with the acid it changed colour.

The cubes were 1 cm3, 2 cm3 and 3 cm3 and were left in the indicator solution for 10 minutes. All
other variables were kept the same. The results were recorded as diagrams.

The results for the 2 cm3 cube are shown.

cube changed colour

not to original colour to a depth of 0.5 cm
scale

Which diagrams represent the results for the 1 cm3 and the 3 cm3 cubes?

not to
scale

cube changed colour cube changed colour

A completely to a depth of 0.5 cm

1 cm3
3 cm3

cube changed colour cube changed colour

B completely to a depth of 1 cm

1 cm3
3 cm3

cube changed colour cube changed colour

C to a depth of 0.25 cm to a depth of 0.5 cm

1 cm3
3 cm3

cube changed colour cube changed colour

D to a depth of 0.25 cm to a depth of 1 cm

1 cm3
3 cm3

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20 The photomicrograph shows cells in different stages of mitosis.

S R

Which statements are correct?

1 Cell T shows metaphase.

2 DNA replication occurs in cell R.
3 The amount of DNA in cell P is the same as in cell T.

4 The correct order for the stages is S → R → T → P → Q.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

21 Which changes in a group of mammalian cells, dividing by mitosis, would be necessary for the
formation of a tumour?

1 Mitosis is no longer inhibited by cell to cell contact.

2 Cells acquire the ability to migrate and set up new colonies.
3 Cells become able to divide indefinitely.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 2 and 3

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22 Which row shows some of the events during a mitotic cycle in the correct time sequence?

time

A centromere of nucleoli become nuclear envelope spindle

each chromosome visible breaks into small microtubules
splits vesicles produced

B nuclear envelope spindle centromere of nucleoli become

breaks into small microtubules each chromosome visible
vesicles produced splits

C nucleoli become nuclear envelope spindle centromere of

visible breaks into small microtubules each chromosome
vesicles produced splits

D spindle centromere of nucleoli become nuclear envelope

microtubules each chromosome visible breaks into small
produced splits vesicles

23 What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds in a length of DNA containing 700 base pairs?

A 350 B 700 C 1400 D 2100

24 What is the common component of the three molecules RNA, DNA, and ATP?

A adenosine
B hydrogen bonds
C phosphate
D ribose

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25 Photomicrographs of a dicotyledonous plant root, stem and leaf are shown.

2
3

4 5

Which row is correct for the labels 1 to 5 on the photomicrographs?

1 2 3 4 5

A cortex phloem epidermis parenchyma endodermis

B phloem parenchyma xylem epidermis cortex
C phloem xylem endodermis cortex epidermis
D xylem phloem endodermis cortex epidermis

26 Which features apply to phloem sieve tube elements and to xylem vessel elements?

1 no cytoplasm
2 no end walls
3 no nucleus

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 only D 3 only

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27 Which statement correctly describes an event in the process of mass flow in phloem sieve tube
elements?

A Any part of a plant where sucrose is loaded into a sieve tube element is called a sink.
B Loading sucrose into a sieve tube element increases the water potential inside it.
C Mass flow in the phloem is a passive process occurring at the same rate as diffusion.
D Sucrose moves down a hydrostatic pressure gradient in the phloem from source to sink.

28 The diagram shows a potato tuber at different stages.

1 dormant tuber (not growing)

2 sprouting roots and shoots
3 growing roots and shoots
4 making new potato tubers

1
2

3
4

Which row identifies a stage where a potato tuber acts as a source and a stage where it acts as a
sink?

source sink

A 1 3
B 2 4
C 3 2
D 4 1

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29 What describes the role of the atrio-ventricular node of the heart?

A It causes the muscles of the ventricles to contract from the apex upwards.
B It delays the transmission of a wave of electrical activity from the sinoatrial node.
C It initiates a new wave of electrical activity in the ventricles.
D It provides a non-conducting barrier between the atria and the ventricles.

30 The diagram shows pressure changes during the cardiac cycle.

Which arrow indicates ventricular systole?

20

B
D
pressure
10
/ kPa

A
C

0
–1
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4
time / s

31 Which process can be carried out by a mature red blood cell?

A active transport

B cell division
C phagocytosis
D protein synthesis

32 Haemoglobin can bind to carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and oxygen.

Which statement about the binding sites of haemoglobin is correct?

A Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide bind to one site, oxygen binds to a different site.
B Carbon dioxide and oxygen bind to one site, carbon monoxide binds to a different site.
C Carbon monoxide and oxygen bind to one site, carbon dioxide binds to a different site.
D Carbon monoxide, oxygen and carbon dioxide all bind to different sites.

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33 Which tissues are present in a bronchus?

ciliated smooth
cartilage
epithelium muscle

A    key
B    = present
C    = absent
D   

34 Cigarette smoke contains tar.

Which statements describe the effect of tar on the respiratory system?

1 Tar causes goblet cells to increase the secretion of mucus.

2 Tar increases the risk of blood clots forming inside blood vessels.
3 Tar may cause changes to the DNA in epithelial cells.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

35 Symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) include a cough, breathlessness

and chest infections.

Some of the changes in the lungs that result from smoking are listed.

1 Alveoli lose elastin and collapse.

2 Bacteria accumulate in the mucus.
3 Cilia are inactivated.
4 Goblet cells secrete more mucus.

Which changes cause the cough in COPD?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1 and 4 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 and 4 only

36 Which statements about infectious diseases are correct?

1 Cholera has a vaccine available and is caused by a bacterial pathogen of the Vibrio
group.
2 Measles has a vaccine available and is caused by a pathogen called Morbillivirus.
3 Smallpox was eradicated by vaccination and was caused by a bacterial pathogen
called Variola.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 only

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37 The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the small subunit of bacterial ribosomes, stopping protein
synthesis.

Bacteria have become resistant to tetracycline due to the effect of mutations.

Which effect could produce resistance to tetracycline?

A preventing tetracycline from binding to the bacterial cell wall

B preventing tetracycline from entering the bacterial cell
C preventing tetracycline from inhibiting transcription
D preventing the production of tetracycline by ribosomes

38 Where are antigens found?

on the surface
in blood plasma
of macrophages

A   key
B   = antigens found
C   = antigens not found
D  

39 The graph shows how the body reacts following exposure to an antigen for the first and second
time.

first second
concentration
exposure exposure
of antibody

time

What is the direct cause of the increase in antibody production after the second exposure to
antigens?

A B-memory cells
B macrophages
C plasma cells
D T-memory cells

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40 Why has it proved difficult to develop an effective vaccine against malaria?

A Mosquitoes have many stages in their life cycles.

B The human immune system does not recognise the antigens of the parasite.
C The parasites can only be attacked when outside the liver cells and red blood cells.
D Vaccines are rapidly broken down by proteases in the stomach.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 9700/12/O/N/18

 Cambridge International Examinations
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2018
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9654955273*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB18 11_9700_13/3RP
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1 Which statement explains why it is necessary to use an electron microscope to see the cristae of
a mitochondrion?

A The magnification of the electron microscope is greater than that of the light microscope.
B The membranes of the cristae are separated by a distance greater than 200 nm.
C The resolution of a student microscope using daylight is too low.
D The wavelength of an electron beam is longer than the wavelength of light.

2 A prokaryotic cell which is 0.25 µm in diameter, is magnified 50 000 times on an electron

micrograph.

How big will its diameter be in the electron micrograph?

A 1.25 × 10–1 mm

B 1.25 × 100 mm

C 1.25 × 101 mm

D 1.25 × 102 mm

3 When making measurements in experiments, which methods could have parallax errors?

1 using a calibrated eyepiece graticule to measure length

2 using a measuring cylinder to measure volume
3 using a ruler to measure length of a shoot

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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4 The diagram is a drawing from an electron micrograph of a typical animal cell.

What is the function of the membrane system labelled X?

A lipid synthesis only

B protein synthesis and transport
C protein synthesis only
D protein transport only

5 The diagram is a drawing from an electron micrograph of a typical animal cell.

Where would nucleic acid be found?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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6 The diagram shows some similarities between chloroplasts, mitochondria and typical
prokaryotes.

1 2 3 4 5

Which row is correct?

1 2 3 4 5

A chloroplasts circular DNA mitochondria linear DNA prokaryotes

B mitochondria 70S ribosomes chloroplasts linear DNA prokaryotes
C mitochondria linear DNA chloroplasts 70S ribosomes prokaryotes
D prokaryotes 70S ribosomes mitochondria 70S ribosomes chloroplasts

7 A student carried out tests on the same volume of four different solutions to investigate the
presence of protein, starch and reducing sugar in each.

The results are shown in the table.

solution Benedict’s solution biuret reagent iodine solution

1 blue purple yellow

2 orange pale purple blue-black
3 orange purple yellow
4 red pale blue yellow

Which conclusion can be drawn from these results?

A Solution 1 has a lower protein and lower reducing sugar content than solution 2.
B Solution 2 has less starch compared to solutions 1, 3 and 4.
C Solution 3 has the most protein and the least starch.
D Solution 4 has a high reducing sugar content and no starch.

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8 Which words correctly complete the description of amylose?

The ««1«« amylose is a ««2«« made up of ««3«« of the ««4«« glucose.

1 2 3 4

A macromolecule monomer polymers disaccharide

B macromolecule monomer polymers monosaccharide
C polysaccharide polymer monomers disaccharide
D polysaccharide polymer monomers monosaccharide

9 Which statements about glycosidic bonds are correct?

1 They occur by condensation reactions between the OH groups of two molecules.

2 They occur only between glucose molecules.
3 The bonds can only be formed between carbon 1 and carbon 4 or carbon 1 and
carbon 6 of adjacent molecules.
4 Hydrolysis of the bonds releases energy.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

10 What is the general formula for glycogen?

A (C5H10O5)n B (C5H10O6)n C (C6H10O5)n D (C6H12O6)n

11 Which statements are correct?

1 In a triglyceride molecule the bonds between the fatty acids and the glycerol
molecule are called ester bonds.
2 Triglycerides are formed by a condensation reaction between the hydroxyl group of
a fatty acid molecule and one of the carboxyl groups of the glycerol molecule.
3 Triglycerides are insoluble in water because the fatty acid carbon chain is non-polar.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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12 The table shows the diameter of some atoms when they form bonds.

single bond double bond

atom
/ nm / nm

H 0.060 –
O 0.132 0.110
N 0.140 0.120
C 0.154 0.134

The approximate length of the amino acid shown was estimated using the figures in the table.

R O

H N C C O H

H H

0.7 nm

What would be the approximate length of a dipeptide formed using this amino acid?

A 0.9 nm B 1.2 nm C 1.4 nm D 1.7 nm

13 Which statement about the typical modes of action of a competitive inhibitor and a
non-competitive inhibitor is correct?

A Competitive inhibitors can bind to alternative (allosteric) sites of an enzyme, non-competitive

inhibitors have an irreversible effect on the enzyme.
B Competitive inhibitors have exactly the same shape as the substrate, non-competitive
inhibitors can have any shape.
C Competitive inhibitors may be used to regulate enzyme activity, non-competitive inhibitors
have no functions in enzyme regulation.
D Competitive inhibitors will not alter Vmax, non-competitive inhibitors will reduce Vmax.

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14 Some animals produce antimicrobial proteins which protect them from pathogens. These proteins
could be used to kill human pathogens, however when used as a medicine they are broken down
by protein-digesting enzymes.

Replacing one of the amino acids found in the protein with one that had been synthesised in the
laboratory resulted in a modified protein that was not broken down.

What could explain why this modified protein was not broken down by the protein digesting
enzymes?

1 The modified protein has a different tertiary structure to the original protein.
2 The modified protein is not complementary in shape to the enzyme’s active site.
3 The modified protein is unable to induce a fit with the protein digesting enzyme.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

15 An investigation was carried out on the effect of temperature on an enzyme-catalysed reaction.

The enzyme and its substrate were initially placed into separate test-tubes and raised to the
temperature required. They were then mixed and placed into four tubes A, B, C and D.

These tubes were incubated for the time and at the temperature stated. The mass of the product
formed was then measured.

In which tube was the rate of reaction highest?

incubation incubation mass of

time / s temperature / °C product / µg

A 30 25 2.5
B 30 45 5.0
C 600 25 32.0
D 600 45 10.0

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16 In an experiment the proteins in the cell surface membrane of a living cell were labelled with a
fluorescent dye.

A small area of the membrane was observed using a microscope. A laser was then used to
permanently destroy the fluorescence of the dye molecules in this field of view.

The fluorescence in this field of view was later seen to return.

What does this experiment show?

A Proteins are found only on the outer surface of cell surface membranes.
B Proteins in the outer layer of a bilayer do not penetrate into the inner layer.
C Proteins move freely in the phospholipids of a bilayer.
D The cell surface membrane of the cell is a bilayer.

17 In plants adapted to cold conditions, their cell surface membranes change as the weather gets
colder, allowing the plants to carry out exocytosis.

Which change occurs in their cell surface membranes?

A a decrease in the ratio of proteins to saturated phospholipids

B a decrease in the ratio of unsaturated phospholipids to saturated phospholipids
C an increase in the ratio of proteins to unsaturated phospholipids
D an increase in the ratio of unsaturated phospholipids to saturated phospholipids

18 Which statement describes endocytosis?

A movement across a membrane against the concentration gradient and requiring energy
B movement across a membrane down the concentration gradient using a carrier molecule
C movement across a membrane into a cell using a vesicle and requiring energy
D movement across a membrane using a vesicle and requiring no energy

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19 An indicator is colourless in acid and pink in alkali.

In an experiment a petri dish of agar was prepared using an acidic solution of this indicator.

A disc of agar 1 cm in diameter was removed from the centre to create a well.

A white card showing circular marker lines 1 cm apart was placed underneath the petri dish.

1 cm3 alkali solution was put into the well in the agar and a stop-watch was started.

A circular disc of pink colour appeared and spread through the agar. It reached the first marker
line in a short time but took longer to reach the second marker line and a very long time to reach
the third marker line.

What explains these observations?

A facilitated diffusion of alkali solution

B facilitated diffusion of the indicator
C simple diffusion of alkali solution
D simple diffusion of the indicator

20 How many copies of each DNA molecule will be found in a cell at each stage of the mitotic cell
cycle?

G2 of
metaphase cytokinesis
interphase

A 1 1 1
B 1 2 2
C 2 1 1
D 2 2 2

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21 Centromere, chromatids and telomeres are parts of a chromosome in a eukaryotic cell.

Which row correctly describes these structures?

centromere chromatid telomere

A binds the two sister contains histone proteins protects the tips of each
chromatids of a and a molecule of chromatid from shortening at
chromosome together double-stranded DNA each mitotic division

B site of attachment of contains histone proteins prevents the genes nearest

spindle microtubules and a molecule of the ends of each chromatid
single-stranded DNA from being lost

C site of production of contains a molecule of contains DNA with many

spindle microtubules double-stranded DNA with no repeats of short base
associated histone proteins sequences

D splits at metaphase contains a molecule of ensures that when DNA is

of mitosis single-stranded DNA with no replicated, the ends of the
associated histone proteins molecule are included

22 Which bases found in nucleic acids are purines?

A adenine and cytosine

B guanine and adenine
C thymine and cytosine
D uracil and guanine

23 A length of double-stranded DNA contains 120 nucleotides and codes for a section of a
polypeptide.

What is the maximum length of this section of a polypeptide?

A 20 amino acids
B 40 amino acids
C 60 amino acids
D 120 amino acids

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24 Four students were asked to suggest a set of four labels to add to a plan diagram of a transverse
section of a dicotyledonous leaf.

Which student suggested a correct set of labels?

label 1 label 2 label 3 label 4

A lower phloem spongy palisade
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll
B phloem sieve upper spongy xylem vessel
tubes epidermis mesophyll elements
C spongy endodermis xylem vessel palisade
mesophyll elements mesophyll
D waxy cuticle xylem companion spongy
cells mesophyll

25 Photomicrograph X shows a transverse section through a typical stem. Photomicrograph Y

shows a longitudinal section through one type of cell shown in photomicrograph X.

Which letter represents the cells from photomicrograph Y?

photomicrograph X photomicrograph Y

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26 By which process would water rise up through xylem vessels in a plant root when the shoot has
been removed?

A capillarity, root pressure and transpiration pull

B capillarity and root pressure only
C capillarity and transpiration pull only
D root pressure only

27 Which changes occur to the water potential and the volume of liquid in the phloem sieve tube
element when carbohydrate is moved into a sink?

water potential volume of liquid

of the sieve of the sieve
tube element tube element

A lowers decreases
B lowers increases
C raises decreases
D raises increases

28 The graph shows the diameter of a tree trunk over time.

diameter of
tree trunk

12:00 00:00 12:00 00:00 12:00

time of day

Which statement explains these changes?

A Cohesive tension forces increased during the day.

B Columns of water break up during the day.
C Mass flow of sucrose decreased during the day.
D Root pressure increased during the day.

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29 What is found in all blood vessels, lymph and tissue fluid?

1 carbon dioxide
2 glucose
3 white blood cells
4 antibodies

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2 and 4 only

30 Which reactions will be taking place in blood that is passing through active tissues?

1 HbO8 → Hb + 4O2

2 HbO8 + H+ → HHb + 4O2

3 HCO3– + H+ → H2CO3

4 H2O + CO2 → H2CO3

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only

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31 The graph shows the percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen at a range of partial
pressures of oxygen and at two partial pressures of carbon dioxide.

One curve is at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the lungs and the other curve at the
partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the liver.

100 L

M
percentage
saturation of
haemoglobin
with oxygen
J
K
0
0 partial pressure
of oxygen / kPa

Which points on the curves correspond to the percentage saturation of haemoglobin at the lungs
and at the liver?

A L and J B L and K C M and J D M and K

32 A person moves from sea level to live at a high altitude.

After three months living at high altitude, which change would be found in this person when at
rest?

A increased volume of blood per heartbeat

B increased breathing rate
C increased heart rate
D increased mass of red blood cells

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33 The diagram shows three of the features found in tissues of the gas exchange system.

ciliated goblet
epithelium cells

cartilage

Which structures of the gas exchange system could be represented at position X in the diagram?

1 bronchiole
2 trachea
3 bronchus

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

34 Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes bronchitis and emphysema.

Which row shows the effects of bronchitis?

T-helper cells bronchioles infection

A destroyed inflamed absent

B destroyed narrowed present
C increased scarred present
D increased stiffened absent

35 Which factors affect the distribution of the disease malaria?

1 draining swamps
2 vaccination
3 antibiotics
4 migration of people due to conflict
5 climate

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1, 4 and 5 C 2, 3 and 5 D 3, 4 and 5

© UCLES 2018 9700/13/O/N/18 [Turn over

 16

36 Which diseases cannot be treated with antibiotics?

1 cholera
2 HIV/AIDS
3 measles

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

37 A West African country introduced a measles vaccination during a measles epidemic.

Later, it was realised that vaccinated children were more likely to survive childhood than
unvaccinated children, even when there were no measles epidemics.

The vaccine had given the children some protection against other pathogenic infections.

Which statement could account for this extra protection?

A B-lymphocytes produced memory cells which gave the children passive immunity to these
infections.
B Memory cells produced plasma cells which secreted anti-measles antibodies that bound to
antigens that closely resembled measles antigens.
C Memory cells produced plasma cells which secreted anti-measles antibodies that bound to
any antigen.
D T-lymphocytes produced memory cells which gave the children natural immunity against
these other infections.

© UCLES 2018 9700/13/O/N/18

 17

38 Which graph shows the changes in antibody concentration following a second exposure to the
same infection?

1000
antibody 100
A concentration
/ arbitrary units 10
1

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
time / days
first exposure second exposure

1000
antibody 100
B concentration
/ arbitrary units 10
1

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
time / days
first exposure second exposure

1000
antibody 100
C concentration
/ arbitrary units 10
1

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
time / days
first exposure second exposure

1000
antibody 100
D concentration
/ arbitrary units 10
1

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
time / days
first exposure second exposure

© UCLES 2018 9700/13/O/N/18 [Turn over

 18

39 Where are antigens found?

on surface in blood
of pathogen plasma

A   key
B   = antigens found
C   = antigens not found
D  

40 Whooping cough is a highly infectious disease of the gas exchange system, caused by the
bacterium Bordetella pertussis.

Which method provides protection to infants against whooping cough and reduces the chance of
developing this disease later in life?

A a short course of more than one type of antibiotic

B a six month course of one type of antibiotic
C injections of antibody specific to Bordetella pertussis
D injections of dead Bordetella pertussis bacteria

© UCLES 2018 9700/13/O/N/18

 19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2018 9700/13/O/N/18

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 9700/13/O/N/18

 Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2019
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*6970876938*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB19 03_9700_12/4RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over
 2

1 The diagram below was drawn from an electron micrograph of an animal cell.

Which diagram would represent the same cell seen under a simple light microscope, using
daylight as the only light source?

A B

C D

2 The diameter of a red blood cell in a diagram was measured as 2.5 cm.

The actual diameter of the red blood cell was 7 µm.

Which calculation would give the correct magnification for the red blood cell in the diagram?

A 7 B 2500 C 25 000 D 25 000

25 000 7 7 7000

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/F/M/19

 3

3 The diagram shows a fin whale drawn to scale.

3m

A student made three statements about the diagram.

1 The magnification is ×0.006.

2 The ratio of actual size to diagram size is 1667 : 1.

3 The fin whale has an actual length of 24 m.

Which statements are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 3 only

4 Which structures are found in both chloroplasts and mitochondria?

1 70S ribosomes
2 80S ribosomes
3 circular DNA

A 1 and 3 B 2 and 3 C 1 only D 3 only

5 Radioactively labelled amino acids are introduced into a cell that is actively secreting an enzyme.

In which cell structure will the radioactivity first become concentrated?

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/F/M/19 [Turn over

 4

6 Ribosomes exist as separate subunits that are bound together during protein synthesis.

What do these subunits consist of?

A mRNA and protein

B mRNA and tRNA
C rRNA and protein
D rRNA and tRNA

7 Four solutions were tested with Benedict’s solution. The table shows the colour of the solutions
after testing.

solution colour

1 green
2 blue
3 brick red
4 yellow

Which row shows solutions that could have given these results?

solution 1 solution 2 solution 3 solution 4

A 0.05% reducing 0.5% non-reducing 1.0% reducing 0.1% reducing

sugar sugar sugar sugar
B 0.5% reducing 0.0% reducing 1.0% reducing 0.1% reducing
sugar sugar sugar sugar
C 1.0% reducing 1.0% non-reducing 1.5% reducing 0.5% reducing
sugar sugar sugar sugar
D 0.05% non-reducing 0.5% reducing 1.0% non-reducing 0.1% non-reducing
sugar sugar sugar sugar

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/F/M/19

 5

8 The diagram shows a molecule of three hexose sugars.

CH2OH CH2OH
CH2OH
O
C O C O
H H H OH OH
H H
C C C C C C
OH H OH H H OH
HO OH HO H H CH2OH
C C C C C C
H OH H OH OH H
1 2 3

Which row correctly shows examples of carbohydrates in which these three hexose sugars
occur?

sucrose cellulose amylopectin

A 1 2 3
B 1 3 2
C 2 3 1
D 3 2 1

9 Which feature of glycogen distinguishes glycogen from starch?

A All glycogen molecules are highly branched.

B All glycogen molecules are polysaccharides.

C All glycogen molecules contain α-glucose.

D All glycogen molecules contain 1,4-glycosidic bonds.

10 A student wrote four statements about what happens during hydrolysis of a carbohydrate.

1 Disaccharides are formed from monosaccharides.

2 Glycosidic bonds are broken.
3 Molecules of water are released.
4 Monosaccharides can be formed.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

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11 The table compares three molecules, X, Y and Z, which contain the elements carbon, hydrogen
and oxygen only.

The percentage of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms in each molecule is shown.

molecule % carbon % hydrogen % oxygen

X 25.0 50.0 25.0

Y 28.5 47.7 23.8
Z 34.6 61.6 3.8

Which row correctly identifies molecules X, Y and Z?

molecule
X Y Z

A monosaccharide disaccharide polysaccharide

B monosaccharide polysaccharide triglyceride
C polysaccharide triglyceride monosaccharide
D triglyceride monosaccharide polysaccharide

12 Which statements about the differences between phospholipids and triglycerides are correct?

1 Phospholipids have hydrophobic regions but triglycerides do not.

2 The fatty acids in a phospholipid are always saturated but in a triglyceride they may
be saturated or unsaturated.
3 Phospholipids are polar molecules but triglycerides are non-polar.

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 only

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/F/M/19

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13 An investigation was carried out into the effect of different treatments on the permeability of the
cell surface membranes and tonoplasts of beetroot cells. Beetroot cell vacuoles contain a red
pigment. This pigment is unable to pass out of the cells because it cannot diffuse through the
tonoplasts or cell surface membranes.

1 cm3 cubes were cut from beetroot tissue and washed in running water for 20 minutes to remove
any pigment released from damaged cells.

The cubes were then placed in test-tubes with different contents and observed for five minutes.

Which row shows a correct explanation for the observation recorded for one of the treatments?

treatment observation explanation

A dilute contents of membrane proteins

hydrochloric acid test-tube stay clear have been denatured

B ethanol contents of lipids, including membrane

test-tube turn red phospholipids, have dissolved

C water at 20 °C contents of membrane proteins

test-tube stay clear have been denatured

D water at 80 °C contents of lipids, including membrane

test-tube turn red phospholipids, have dissolved

14 Which levels of protein structure can determine the specificity of an enzyme?

1 primary
2 secondary
3 tertiary
4 quaternary

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 2 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/F/M/19 [Turn over

 8

15 The graph shows the effect of substrate concentration on the initial rate of an enzyme-catalysed
reaction. The enzyme concentration is constant.

S T

initial rate of
reaction
R

0
0 substrate concentration

Which statement about the graph is correct?

A Between R and S the number of enzyme molecules is limiting the rate of reaction.
B Between R and S the number of product molecules is limiting the rate of reaction.
C Between S and T the number of enzyme molecules is limiting the rate of reaction.
D Between S and T the number of substrate molecules is limiting the rate of reaction.

16 The diagram represents the reversible interaction between the active site of an enzyme and
different inhibitors, X and Y.

change in the shape

enzyme molecules of the active site of
the enzyme molecule

active site active site

inhibitor X inhibitor Y

Which row correctly identifies the type of inhibition shown by inhibitor X and inhibitor Y?

X Y

A competitive competitive
B competitive non-competitive
C non-competitive competitive
D non-competitive non-competitive

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/F/M/19

 9

17 Which statements about the movement of water in and out of cells are correct?

1 Water moves from regions of more negative water potential to regions of less
negative water potential.
2 Water can cross cell membranes by passing through channel proteins.
3 Water can pass through cellulose cell walls.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

18 The diagram shows part of a cell surface membrane.

6 2

4
5

Which row correctly identifies functions of two of the numbered molecules?

molecule function molecule function

A 1 acts as an antigen 4 stabilises the membrane

B 2 acts as a receptor 5 active transport
C 3 facilitated diffusion 4 regulates the fluidity of the membrane
D 6 active transport 5 acts as an enzyme

19 During mitosis in animal cells, which process occurs after prophase?

A Centrioles move towards the poles of the cell.

B Centromeres attach to spindle microtubules.
C Chromatids join to form chromosomes.
D Chromosomes condense and become visible.

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 10

20 Embryonic stem cells are able to replicate continuously.

What happens to the telomeres during repeated mitotic cell cycles of embryonic stem cells?

A Their lengths increase.

B Their lengths decrease.
C They are completely lost.
D They stay the same length.

21 A length of DNA was analysed and sequenced. 24% of its nitrogenous bases were adenine.

Which percentage of the bases will be cytosine?

A 24 B 26 C 48 D 76

22 Rifampicin is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis (TB).

It works by inhibiting RNA polymerase in bacteria.

Which processes are directly inhibited by this antibiotic?

1 DNA replication
2 transcription
3 ATP synthesis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

23 Which terms describe the method by which water is transported within xylem vessel elements?

1 mass flow
2 cohesion-tension
3 osmosis

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

24 Which combination of features is characteristic of a phloem sieve tube element as it is loaded

from a source?

water potential of the

lignification of the cell wall
phloem sieve tube element

A less negative than source absent

B less negative than source present
C more negative than source absent
D more negative than source present

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/F/M/19

 11

25 The diagrams show transverse sections of parts of a plant with some transport tissues labelled
from 1 to 6.

leaf stem root

3
1
4 5

Which row shows tissues that mainly transport water and tissues that mainly transport sucrose?

mainly transport mainly transport

water sucrose

A 1 and 3 4 and 6
B 1 and 6 3 and 5
C 2 and 3 4 and 5
D 3 and 5 2 and 6

26 Which properties of lignin are important for the function of xylem vessels in the stem of a tall
plant, such as a tree?

1 It is inflexible so does not bend easily.

2 It is not permeable to water.
3 It is strong to resist collapse under pressure.
4 It has weaker adhesion to water molecules than cellulose.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

27 A heating sleeve was placed around the trunk of a small tree at a height of 1 m above the ground.
This allowed a narrow region of the tree trunk to be heated to 60 °C.

How will heating this region to 60 °C affect the transport of phloem sap and xylem sap between
the roots and leaves?

movement of movement of
phloem sap xylem sap

A   key
B   = transport continues
C   = transport stops
D  

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/F/M/19 [Turn over

 12

28 The photomicrograph shows a section through a structure found in mammals viewed using a light
microscope.

×60

What are the main components of layer W?

A collagen fibres only

B elastic fibres and collagen fibres
C smooth muscle and elastic fibres
D squamous epithelial cells forming an endothelium

29 Which row correctly identifies the locations in which a type of molecule or cell can be present?

tissue
type of molecule or cell blood lymph
fluid

A antigens    key
B glucose    = can be present

C lymphocyte    = cannot be present

D neutrophil   

30 Which statements about the formation of haemoglobinic acid are correct?

1 It is linked to the action of carbonic anhydrase.

2 It prevents blood from becoming too acidic by removing excess hydrogen ions.
3 It can only occur when oxygen associates with haemoglobin.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/F/M/19

 13

31 The graph shows the oxygen dissociation curves of haemoglobin for eight species of mammal.

100 key

mammals in
decreasing order
percentage 1 2 3456 7 8 of size
oxygen
50 1 elephant
saturation of
2 horse
haemoglobin
3 human
4 sheep
5 fox
6 cat
0 7 rat
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
8 mouse
partial pressure of oxygen / kPa

Which conclusion is consistent with the data shown in the graph?

A The haemoglobin of larger mammals will combine with oxygen at a lower partial pressure of
oxygen than that of smaller mammals.
B The haemoglobin of larger mammals will release oxygen at a higher partial pressure of
oxygen than that of smaller mammals.
C The metabolic activity of the mammal is directly proportional to the ability of its haemoglobin
to release oxygen.
D The size of the mammal is directly proportional to the ability of its haemoglobin to release
oxygen.

32 The statements list some of the events in the cardiac cycle. They are not in the correct order.

1 The impulse travels through Purkyne tissue.

2 The ventricles contract.
3 The atrioventricular node delays the impulse for a fraction of a second.
4 The muscle tissue of the sinoatrial node contracts.
5 The wave of excitation sweeps upwards from the base of the ventricles.
6 A wave of excitation sweeps across the atria.
7 The atria contract.

Which statement describes the second of these events to occur in the cardiac cycle?

A 1 B 4 C 6 D 7

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/F/M/19 [Turn over

 14

33 Which statement about typical bronchioles is correct?

A They have cartilage and ciliated cells.

B They have goblet cells and smooth muscle.
C They have smooth muscle and cartilage.
D They have smooth muscle and ciliated cells.

34 Tobacco smoke contains substances that affect the functioning of the human body.

substance effect

w nicotine 1 decreases oxygenation of haemoglobin

x carbon monoxide 2 increases risk of cancer
y tar 3 increases risk of blood clotting

What shows the substances matched with their correct effects?

A w-1, x-2, y-3

B w-1, x-3, y-2
C w-2, x-1, y-3
D w-3, x-1, y-2

35 Which two diseases are transmitted by airborne droplets?

A cholera and malaria

B malaria and measles
C measles and tuberculosis (TB)
D tuberculosis (TB) and cholera

36 Which features do the causative agents of measles, malaria and tuberculosis (TB) have in
common?

the ability to surface

cytoplasm
produce ATP antigens

A    key
B    = have in common
C    = do not have in common
D   

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/F/M/19

 15

37 What explains why most viruses that cause diseases in humans are unaffected by antibiotics?

A Viral antigens do not bind to antibiotics.

B Viral nucleic acids are protected by a protein coat.
C Viruses contain no ribosomes or mRNA.
D Viruses reproduce inside living eukaryotic cells.

38 Why does the white blood cell count increase in people with leukaemia?

A More antibodies are required so there are more B-lymphocytes.

B More lymphocytes are produced in bone marrow.
C More memory cells are produced in plasma.
D More T-lymphocytes are required to stimulate the immune system.

39 Where are antibodies found during an immune response?

on the surface on the surface

of pathogens of memory cells

A   key
B   = antibodies found
C   = antibodies not found
D  

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/F/M/19 [Turn over

 16

40 The graph shows the changes that occur in the concentration of antibodies in the blood of a baby
before birth and during the first few months after birth.

birth

total antibodies

concentration
of antibodies
antibodies
in blood of
made by baby
baby
antibodies
from mother

0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
time / months

Which description about the changes in immunity during the first few months after birth is correct?

A active artificial immunity decreases, active natural immunity increases

B active natural immunity decreases, active artificial immunity increases
C passive artificial immunity decreases, active natural immunity increases
D passive natural immunity decreases, active natural immunity increases

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/F/M/19

 Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2019
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7713874507*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB19 06_9700_11/4RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over
 2

1 A student was told that the actual length of a cell structure is 5 µm.

The student was asked to state an equation that can be used to calculate the magnification of an
electron micrograph of this cell structure. The student used some of the letters q to u in the
equation.

q = the length of the cell structure image on the micrograph in centimetres

r = the length of the cell structure image on the micrograph in millimetres
s = 1000
1
t= 5

u= 5

Which is the correct equation to calculate the magnification?

q r ×u
A ×u B q×s×t C D r×s×t
s s

2 Which features of cilia and root hairs are correct?

cannot be
more than one
increase cell resolved with contain
present on a
surface area the light vacuoles
cell
microscope

A cilia cilia root hairs root hairs

B cilia root hairs cilia cilia
C root hairs cilia root hairs cilia
D root hairs root hairs cilia root hairs

3 Which are functions of microtubules?

1 allowing movement of cilia in a bronchus

2 attachment of centromeres during metaphase
3 moving secretory vesicles around a cell

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2019 9700/11/M/J/19

 3

4 Some cell structures are listed.

1 mitochondria
2 nucleus
3 chloroplasts
4 ribosomes

What is the correct order of these cell structures when listed from largest to smallest?

A 1, 2, 3, 4 B 2, 3, 1, 4 C 2, 4, 1, 3 D 3, 4, 2, 1

5 Which cell structures have ribosomal RNA (rRNA)?

1 chloroplast

2 mitochondrion

3 nucleus
4 rough endoplasmic reticulum

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 2 and 4 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

6 A cell structure in the macrophage destroys bacteria. Some bacteria stop this cell structure from
functioning.

Which cell structure in the macrophage is stopped from functioning by the bacteria?

A Golgi body
B lysosome
C ribosome
D vesicle

© UCLES 2019 9700/11/M/J/19 [Turn over

 4

7 A solution of amylase was added to a suspension of starch. After 30 seconds, three samples of
the mixture were tested with iodine solution, Benedict’s solution or with biuret reagent.

Which are the expected results?

colour with test reagent

iodine solution Benedict’s solution biuret reagent

A black green purple

B black red blue
C brown blue purple
D brown yellow blue

8 A student carried out a Benedict’s test on several different known concentrations of α-glucose.

Which graph represents the results correctly?

A B

time to first concentration

colour change of α-glucose

0 0
0 concentration 0 time to first
of α-glucose colour change

C D

concentration time to first

of α-glucose colour change

0 0
0 time to first 0 concentration
colour change of α-glucose

© UCLES 2019 9700/11/M/J/19

 5

9 The diagram shows three hexose sugars.

CH2OH CH2OH
CH2OH
O
C O C O
H H H OH OH
H H
C C C C C C
OH H OH H H OH
HO OH HO H H CH2OH
C C C C C C
H OH H OH OH H
1 2 3

Which row correctly shows examples of carbohydrates in which these three hexose sugars
occur?

sucrose cellulose starch

A 1 2 3
B 1 3 2
C 2 3 1
D 3 2 1

10 What can occur during condensation of carbohydrates?

A a disaccharide is produced from monosaccharides

B glycosidic bonds are broken
C molecules of water are used up
D monosaccharides are produced

11 What is true about triglycerides?

hydrophobic insoluble in alcohol

A   key
B   = correct
C   = not correct
D  

12 What is the minimum number of carbon atoms in an amino acid?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

© UCLES 2019 9700/11/M/J/19 [Turn over

 6

13 In an investigation, the same concentration of the enzyme phosphorylase was added to different
concentrations of glucose phosphate and incubated at 30 °C. At 1 minute intervals, one drop of
the reaction mixture was removed and added to a drop of iodine solution on a white tile.

The diagram shows the results of this investigation.

concentration of glucose
phosphate / mg dm–3

0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35
colour of
0 iodine solution
1
2 brown
3 black
time / minutes
4
5
6
7
8
9

What explains the trend in the results of this investigation?

A Phosphorylase catalyses a reaction converting glucose phosphate to starch.

B The maximum rate of reaction is reached at 20 mg dm–3 of glucose phosphate.
C Substrate concentration is limiting at concentrations of glucose phosphate 25 mg dm–3 or
less.
D Enzyme concentration is limiting at concentrations of glucose phosphate 25 mg dm–3 or less.

14 What is the definition of the Michaelis-Menten constant, Km, for an enzyme?

A Vmax
B half Vmax
C the substrate concentration that gives Vmax
D the substrate concentration that gives half Vmax

© UCLES 2019 9700/11/M/J/19

 7

15 The graph shows how the rate of entry of glucose into a cell changes as the concentration of
glucose outside the cell changes.

rate of entry
of glucose
into the cell

concentration of glucose
outside the cell

What is the cause of the plateau at X?

A All the carrier proteins are saturated with glucose.

B The carrier proteins are denatured and no longer able to function.
C The cell has used up its supply of ATP.
D The concentrations of glucose inside and outside the cell are equal.

16 The diagram shows the movement of substance Z across a cell surface membrane.

Z outside cell
membrane Z
Z inside cell

time

Which process is involved in this movement?

A endocytosis
B exocytosis
C phagocytosis
D pinocytosis

© UCLES 2019 9700/11/M/J/19 [Turn over

 8

17 Visking tubing is often used as a model during experiments to investigate osmosis in plants.

What could Visking tubing be used to represent?

cell surface
cell wall tonoplast
membrane

A    key
B    = represents
C    = does not represent
D   

18 A scientist stains the chromosomes of a diploid plant cell with a fluorescent dye to observe the
telomeres.

This cell has 38 chromosomes.

How many telomeres will the scientist observe in one of the nuclei during telophase of mitosis?

A 38 B 76 C 114 D 152

19 The photomicrograph shows a cell during mitosis.

What is happening in this cell?

1 Centrioles are replicating.

2 Spindle microtubules are shortening.
3 Chromatin is condensing.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 only D 3 only

© UCLES 2019 9700/11/M/J/19

 9

20 Which events listed are part of mitosis?

1 interphase
2 prophase
3 cytokinesis

A 1, 2 and 3
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 only
D 2 only

21 The graph shows the length of the spindle fibres during mitosis.

Which region of the graph shows when all the centromeres have detached from the spindle
fibres?

B
C
length of
spindle
fibres A

D
time

22 A short piece of DNA, 19 base pairs long, was analysed to find the number of nucleotide bases in
each of the polynucleotide strands. Some of the results are shown below.

number of nucleotide bases

A C G T
strand 1 4
strand 2 7 5

How many nucleotide bases containing C were present in strand 1?

A 2 B 3 C 5 D 7

© UCLES 2019 9700/11/M/J/19 [Turn over

 10

23 Which nucleic acid bases are purines?

A adenine and cytosine

B cytosine and thymine
C guanine and adenine
D uracil and cytosine

24 In a genetic engineering experiment a piece of double-stranded DNA containing 6000 nucleotides

coding for a specific polypeptide is transcribed and translated.

What is the total number of amino acids in this polypeptide?

A 500 B 1000 C 2000 D 3000

25 Which statements about tRNA are correct?

1 Hydrogen bonds between bases temporarily hold tRNA against mRNA.

2 The base sequences in the tRNA molecules are the same as the base sequences in
the mRNA that is being translated.
3 tRNA translates the base sequence in mRNA into the amino acid sequence in a
protein.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2019 9700/11/M/J/19

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26 The photomicrograph shows a transverse section of part of a dicotyledonous leaf.

What are the correct labels for 1, 2, 3 and 4?

1 2 3 4

A phloem xylem palisade mesophyll spongy mesophyll

B phloem xylem spongy mesophyll palisade mesophyll
C xylem phloem palisade mesophyll spongy mesophyll
D xylem phloem spongy mesophyll palisade mesophyll

27 Some of the features present in transport tissues in plants are listed.

1 lignified walls
2 cytoplasm
3 mitochondria
4 pits
5 plasmodesmata

Which of these features are present in phloem sieve tube elements?

A 1, 2 and 5 B 1, 3 and 4 C 2, 3 and 5 D 2, 4 and 5

© UCLES 2019 9700/11/M/J/19 [Turn over

 12

28 The diagram shows the relationship between phloem sieve tube elements, xylem vessel
elements and companion cells.

1 3 5

2 4

Which row is correct?

1 2 3 4 5
A companion endoplasmic phloem sieve no xylem vessel
cells reticulum tube elements nucleus elements
B companion nucleus phloem sieve cytoplasm xylem vessel
cells tube elements elements
C phloem sieve mitochondria companion nucleus xylem vessel
tube elements cells elements
D xylem vessel no phloem sieve vacuole companion
elements cytoplasm tube elements cells

29 Which statement correctly describes a transport pathway in plants?

A In the apoplast pathway, water may move through plasmodesmata.

B In the symplast pathway, water may move through intercellular spaces.
C The apoplast pathway may be blocked by the Casparian strip.
D The symplast pathway may be blocked by the tonoplast.

© UCLES 2019 9700/11/M/J/19

 13

30 The photograph shows an external view of the front of a mammalian heart.

S
P

Which row identifies the position of the structures labelled P, Q, R and S?

P Q R S

A left atrium cardiac muscle Purkyne tissue pulmonary vein

B left atrium left ventricle coronary artery vena cava
C right atrium cardiac muscle Purkyne tissue aorta
D right atrium right ventricle coronary artery pulmonary artery

31 What happens during ventricular systole?

1 The atrioventricular node transmits an electrical signal to the apex of the heart.
2 The pressure in the ventricles drops below the pressure in the atria.
3 The atrioventricular valves close and the semilunar valves open.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 only D 3 only

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 14

32 Athletes often move from low altitude to high altitude to train for a race.

Which statements about the effect of training at high altitude are correct?

1 Higher concentrations of carbon dioxide stimulate greater oxygen dissociation.

2 Lower concentrations of oxygen stimulate the uptake of more oxygen by red blood
cells.
3 Lower partial pressures of oxygen stimulate higher production of red blood cells.

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 only D 3 only

33 The graph shows the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curves at pH 7.6 and at pH 7.2.

Which point on the graph shows the percentage saturation of haemoglobin in the blood leaving
an active muscle?

pH 7.6
C
pH 7.2
A D

percentage B
saturation of
haemoglobin

partial pressure of oxygen

34 Which row correctly describes the short-term effects of carbon monoxide and nicotine on the
body of a smoker?

demand for oxygen concentration of oxygen in blood

A decreased by carbon monoxide increased by nicotine

B decreased by nicotine increased by carbon monoxide
C increased by carbon monoxide decreased by nicotine
D increased by nicotine decreased by carbon monoxide

© UCLES 2019 9700/11/M/J/19

 15

35 Which statements about bronchioles are correct?

1 They have ciliated cells.

2 They have goblet cells.
3 They have muscle tissue.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

36 Which features are important for the diffusion of oxygen out of an alveolus?

1
blood pressure
forces red blood cells
through capillaries

2
4
epithelium is
surfactant present to features permeable to
reduce surface tension
respiratory gases

3
moist squamous
epithelium present

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only

37 The diagram shows some of the pathogens that cause disease in humans and some of the ways
they are transmitted.

1 2 W
bacterium protoctist contaminated water

pathogen method of
transmission

3 Y X
Morbillivirus contaminated coughs and
food sneezes

What is the correct pathogen and method of transmission for measles?

A 1 and X B 2 and W C 3 and W D 3 and X

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 16

38 Which row is correct for each disease?

cholera HIV / AIDS malaria measles

A caused by a can be transmitted eradication caused by
bacterium in breast milk programme a virus
and across placenta unsuccessful

B eating raw may be carried carried by male can cause

shellfish can be by a vector Anopheles blindness
a source of infection mosquitoes

C air borne caused by causative agent is a symptoms usually

infection a retrovirus eukaryote include a rash

D can be caught by causes reduction mainly kills children no effective

swimming in in number of under five years vaccination available
contaminated water T-lymphocytes

39 Which statements describe myasthenia gravis?

1 Antibodies attack proteins within the body.

2 T-lymphocytes are involved in an inflammatory response.
3 The immune system blocks receptors at the neuromuscular junction.
4 The immune system attacks the central nervous system.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

40 Which row shows the cells that are able to divide continuously and are involved in monoclonal
antibody production?

mouse
hybridoma
cancer cells B-lymphocyte
cells
plasma cells

A    key
B    = correct
C    = not correct
D   

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 9700/11/M/J/19

 Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2019
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9874289435*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB19 06_9700_12/4RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over
 2

1 The actual length of a cell structure is 8 µm.

Which steps are used to calculate the magnification of an electron micrograph of this cell
structure?

step 1 measure the length of the cell structure image on the micrograph in centimetres
step 2 measure the length of the cell structure image on the micrograph in millimetres
step 3 divide the image length by 1000
step 4 multiply the image length by 1000
step 5 divide by 8
step 6 multiply by 8

A steps 1, 3 and 6
B steps 1, 4 and 6
C steps 2, 3 and 5
D steps 2, 4 and 5

2 What is the typical resolution of a microscope using daylight as a light source with a ×10 eyepiece
lens and a ×40 objective lens?

A 0.20 nm B 200 nm C 100 µm D 400 µm

3 Two different types of cell, P and Q, were broken up using ultrasound and their contents
analysed. Both types of cell contained small circular DNA. The circular DNA from P all carried the
same base sequence, but those from Q were of two types, with different base sequences.

What may be concluded about the identity of cell types P and Q?

P Q

A heart muscle fibres root cortical cells

B lymphocytes mature red blood cells contaminated by bacteria
C mature red blood cells phloem sieve tube element
D root cortical cells leaf mesophyll cells

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19

 3

4 Which features shown in the diagram can be present in viruses?

4 1
RNA DNA

feature

3 2
70S protein coat
ribosomes

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

5 After boiling a sample of milk with Benedict’s solution, a yellow colour is observed.

Which conclusion about the sample of milk is correct?

A Reducing sugars are not present.

B Reducing sugars are present.
C There is a high concentration of fructose.
D There is a low concentration of sucrose.

6 Which of the statements about polysaccharides can be used to describe amylose and cellulose?

1 contains 1,4 glycosidic bonds

2 contains 1,6 glycosidic bonds

3 polymer of glucose

A 1 and 2
B 1 and 3
C 1 only
D 2 and 3

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19 [Turn over

 4

7 Which diagram shows the formation of a peptide bond?

A B

H H O H H O H H O O H H

N C C N C C N C C C C N

H H OH H H OH H H OH HO H H

H2 O H 2O

C D

H H O H H O H H O O H H

N C C N C C N C C C C N

H H OH H H OH H H OH HO H H

H 2O
H 2O

8 In enzyme-catalysed reactions, the position of the amino acids found at the active site is
important.

During the synthesis of enzymes, amino acids are brought together in the correct position to form
the active site.

Which levels of protein structure must be involved in forming the active site?

level of protein structure

primary secondary tertiary quaternary

A     key
B     = involved
C     = not involved
D    

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19

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9 Which features affect the tensile strength of collagen?

1 the helical structure of collagen chains

2 the small R group of the amino acids in collagen
3 the insoluble nature of collagen
4 the bonds between collagen molecules

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

10 A fixed volume of the enzyme catalase was added to a fixed volume of hydrogen peroxide
solution. The diagram shows how the concentration of product changed over the course of the
reaction.

concentration
of product

0
0 time

What explains the shape of this graph?

A The active sites become saturated.

B The enzyme was denatured.
C The hydrogen peroxide inhibited the reaction.
D The substrate molecules were used up.

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19 [Turn over

 6

11 A fixed volume and concentration of substrate and enzyme were mixed. All other variables were
kept constant. The enzyme-catalysed reaction was left until it was complete.

Which graph shows how the rate of reaction changes with time?

A B

rate of rate of
reaction reaction

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

rate of rate of
reaction reaction

0 0
0 time 0 time

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19

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12 The fatty acids elaidic acid and oleic acid have exactly the same structural formulae, with one
double bond in the chain. However, the shapes of the chains are different, as shown in the
diagram.

elaidic acid oleic acid

COOH COOH

Which row shows the effect of the presence of these fatty acids on the structure and behaviour of
a cell surface membrane?

elaidic acid oleic acid

A does not fit closely with other fits closely with other fatty
fatty acids so that the membrane acids so that the membrane is
is less fluid at high temperatures less fluid at low temperatures
B does not fit closely with other fits closely with other fatty
fatty acids so that the membrane acids so that the membrane is
is more fluid at low temperatures less fluid at low temperatures
C fits closely with other fatty does not fit closely with other
acids so that the membrane is fatty acids so that the membrane
less fluid at high temperatures is more fluid at low temperatures
D fits closely with other fatty does not fit closely with other
acids so that the membrane is fatty acids so that the membrane
more fluid at low temperatures is more fluid at high temperatures

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19 [Turn over

 8

13 The diagram shows a cell surface membrane.

X
Y

Which is a correct role for a labelled molecule?

A W is involved in controlling membrane stability.

B X is involved in active transport.
C Y is involved in cell signalling.
D Z is involved in diffusion of ions.

14 The diagram shows a simple cell signalling pathway in which a signal molecule leads to a
response, such as a secretion.

signal
→ P → Q → response
molecule

Which row identifies P and Q?

P Q

A activated enzyme in cytoplasm target in cell surface membrane

B lipid in cell surface membrane extracellular enzyme
C protein in cell surface membrane activated enzyme in cytoplasm
D target in cytoplasm protein in cell surface membrane

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19

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15 Three parts of a chromosome and their functions are listed.

part function

P1 centromere F1 holds the coils of DNA together

P2 histone proteins F2 holds two chromatids together
P3 telomere F3 prevents loss of genes

Which part is matched with its correct function?

A P1 and F1 B P2 and F1 C P2 and F3 D P3 and F2

16 The enzyme telomerase prevents loss of telomeres after many mitotic cell cycles.

Which cells need to transcribe telomerase enzyme?

1 cancer cells
2 stem cells
3 activated memory B-lymphocytes

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

17 The diagram shows some of the stages which take place during the cell cycle.

1
number of DNA
molecules in
cell doubles

4 stages
2
nuclear envelope during cell
cell grows
disappears cycle

3
chromosomes
become visible

Which two stages take place during interphase?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19 [Turn over

 10

18 Which statement correctly describes the base pairing in a molecule of DNA?

A The purine adenine forms bonds with the pyrimidine thymine.

B The purine adenine forms bonds with the pyrimidine uracil.
C The purine cytosine forms bonds with the pyrimidine guanine.
D The purine guanine forms bonds with the pyrimidine thymine.

19 Which statements about complementary base pairing are correct?

1 It allows translation to occur.

2 Purines and pyrimidines are the same size.
3 The base pairs are of equal length.
4 Uracil forms two hydrogen bonds with adenine.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 3 and 4 only
C 1 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only

20 The diagram shows the possible organisation of DNA molecules after one replication.

Which organisation is correct?

one strand
of DNA

A B C D

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19

 11

21 The diagram shows part of the DNA sequence of a gene and a mutated sequence of the same
gene.

normal DNA sequence ... CCG GAT TAT TGC GAG AAA TGG CAT TCT AGG ...
mutated DNA sequence ... CCG GAT GTA TTG CGA GAA ATG CAT TCT AGG ...

What are possible effects of the mutated sequence?

1 the presence of mRNA stop codons, UAG, UAA or UGA

2 a change in the sequence of amino acids
3 a non-functional protein
4 ribosomes cannot translate the mRNA

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 1 and 4 only D 2 and 3 only

22 What is correct for phloem sieve tube elements?

A Companion cells provide structural support to the phloem sieve tube elements.
B Lignified walls of phloem sieve tube elements prevent transport of mineral salts by mass
flow.
C Phloem sieve tube elements become narrower as movement of sucrose occurs.
D Plasmodesmata allow movement of water and solutes across cell walls of phloem sieve tube
elements.

23 The diagrams show transverse sections of parts of a plant.

Transport tissues are labelled 1 to 6.

leaf stem root

3
1
4 5

Which combination shows the tissues that have a main function of transporting water?

1 2 3 4 5 6

A       key
B       = transporting water is a main function
C       = transporting water is not a main function
D      

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19 [Turn over

 12

24 The statements are descriptions of how water moves across the root to the xylem vessel
elements.

1 Water enters cell walls.

2 Water enters cytoplasm by osmosis.
3 Water moves from cell to cell through plasmodesmata.
4 Water moves through cell walls.

Which statements describe the apoplast pathway?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 4 only
D 4 only

25 Four plants, A, B, C and D, were grown in the same conditions and their transpiration rates
measured.

Which plant is most likely to be a xerophyte?

transpiration A
rate / mg cm–2 B
C

00:00 12:00 24:00

time of day / hours

26 Sucrose moves from a mesophyll cell in a leaf into a phloem sieve tube element.

Which changes to the water potential and the volume of liquid in the phloem sieve tube element
are correct?

water potential
volume of liquid
becomes

A less negative decreases

B less negative increases
C more negative decreases
D more negative increases

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19

 13

27 The diagram shows a cross-section through a mammalian heart.

Which chambers of the heart are represented by W and X?

W X

A left ventricle right ventricle

B right atrium left atrium
C right atrium right ventricle
D right ventricle left ventricle

28 At a certain point in a cardiac cycle, the pressure in the right ventricle is lower than that in the
right atrium and lower than that in the pulmonary artery.

Which row is correct?

atrioventricular
semilunar valve
valve

A closed closed
B closed open
C open closed
D open open

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19 [Turn over

 14

29 The diagram shows the pathway for the transport of carbon dioxide that occurs in red blood cells.

CO2

H 2O
2

haemoglobin 3 4

Which row is correct?

1 2 3 4
A carbaminohaemoglobin haemoglobinic hydrogen ions hydrogencarbonate
acid ions
B carbonic anhydrase carbonic acid hydrogen ions hydrogencarbonate
ions
C carboxyhaemoglobin carbonic carbonic acid carbon dioxide
anhydrase
D haemoglobinic acid carbonic acid hydrogencarbonate hydrogen ions
ions

30 The diagram shows a transverse section through an artery.

Which statement describes the tissues present in layer X?

A collagen and smooth muscle only

B elastic fibres and collagen only
C elastic fibres and smooth muscle only
D elastic fibres, collagen and smooth muscle

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19

 15

31 The large arteries close to the heart have a thick elastic layer in their walls.

Which statements about this layer are correct?

1 helps to maintain the blood pressure in arteries

2 reduces friction within the arteries
3 prevents too much pressure bursting the artery wall

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

32 Which tissues are present in the walls of a trachea and an alveolus?

tissue
epithelium with smooth
goblet cells muscle
A trachea  
alveolus   key
B trachea   = present
alveolus   = absent
C trachea  
alveolus  

D trachea  
alveolus  

33 The surface tension of the layer of liquid lining the alveoli tends to pull the walls inwards so alveoli
could collapse.

Which statements could explain how this is prevented?

1 Alveolar fluid is moved around by cilia.

2 Elastic fibres keep the alveoli open.
3 Epithelial cells secrete a chemical that reduces the cohesion in water.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19 [Turn over

 16

34 The diagram shows some of the effects of nicotine and carbon monoxide in cigarette smoke.

1 3

carbon
nicotine monoxide

Which row is correct?

1 2 3
A increase in heart rate short-term effect on combines more readily with
cardiovascular system haemoglobin than oxygen
B increases diameter can cause combines irreversibly
of small arteries chronic bronchitis with haemoglobin
C reduces the oxygen short-term effect on reduces the blood
carrying capacity of blood gas exchange system supply to hands and feet
D stimulates goblet cells highly addictive increases risk
to secrete more mucus of blood clotting

35 Which row correctly identifies the causative organism of each disease?

cholera measles smallpox tuberculosis

A Variola Morbillivirus Vibrio Mycobacterium

B Variola Mycobacterium Vibrio Morbillivirus
C Vibrio Morbillivirus Variola Mycobacterium
D Vibrio Mycobacterium Variola Morbillivirus

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19

 17

36 The following advice was given to a person travelling to a country where there had been an
outbreak of an infectious disease.

● cook food well and eat it hot

● peel fruit and vegetables
● drink only cool, boiled water
● wash hands often with soap and cool, boiled water

Which infectious disease would this advice help to protect against?

A cholera
B malaria
C measles
D tuberculosis

37 What is a social factor that affects the spread of malaria?

A an increase in drug resistant forms of malaria

B climate change
C difficulty in producing a vaccine
D migration of people because of wars

38 Which are specific immune responses?

1 phagocytosis
2 production of antibodies
3 production of memory cells

A 1 and 3 only B 1 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

39 Newborn babies have natural passive immunity.

What is correct for this type of immunity?

immunity is antibodies are

temporary broken down

A   key
B   = correct
C   = not correct
D  

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19 [Turn over

 18

40 The diagrams show three different types of antibody structure.

IgG IgA IgM

Which row is correct?

IgG IgA IgM

A one binding site for two light chains two heavy chains
an antigen molecule
B two heavy chains four binding sites five hinge regions
for antigen molecules
C two hinge regions four heavy chains five light chains

D two light chains four hinge regions ten binding sites

for antigen molecules

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19

 19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/M/J/19

 Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2019
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8538879965*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB19 06_9700_13/4RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over
 2

1 Which combination of lenses for a light microscope will give the greatest magnification?

eyepiece lens objective lens

A ×5 ×100
B ×10 ×40
C ×15 ×40
D ×15 ×100

2 The photomicrograph shows some mesophyll tissue from a dicotyledonous leaf.

5 µm

What is the magnification of the photomicrograph?

A × 280 B × 2800 C × 3570 D × 7000

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/M/J/19

 3

3 The diagram shows a typical animal cell as seen using an electron microscope.

Which of the numbered structures are needed for proteins to be secreted at the cell surface
membrane?

A 2, 3, 4 and 5 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1 and 3 D 5 only

4 Lysosomes vary in shape and size, making them difficult to identify.

What describes a lysosome?

A a vesicle containing enzymes, enclosed by a double membrane, that is budded off the
endoplasmic reticulum
B a vesicle containing hydrolytic enzymes and surrounded by a single membrane, found only in
phagocytes
C a vesicle enclosed by a single membrane, containing several different hydrolytic enzymes
that may act inside or outside the cell
D a vesicle surrounded by a double membrane, containing enzymes which can hydrolyse
damaged organelles in a cell

5 Which statements about ATP are correct?

1 It is produced in mitochondria only.

2 It can be hydrolysed to form ADP.
3 It contains deoxyribose.

A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/M/J/19 [Turn over

 4

6 A single-celled organism lives inside the body of a fish. This single-celled organism is
rod-shaped, 700 µm long, enclosed in a cell wall and has cytoplasm containing thousands of
copies of small, circular DNA.

Which statement about this single-celled organism is correct?

A It is a eukaryote, because it can be seen without using a microscope.

B It is a eukaryote, because it is too large to be a prokaryote.
C It is a plant, because it is enclosed in a cell wall.
D It is a prokaryote, because it has small, circular DNA in its cytoplasm.

7 A solution of amylase was added to a suspension of starch. The mixture was stirred and kept at
40 °C for 45 minutes.

Samples were then tested with various reagents.

What is the expected set of results?

test and resulting colour

iodine test Benedict’s test biuret test

A black blue blue

B black orange purple
C brown blue blue
D brown orange purple

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/M/J/19

 5

8 The diagram shows three hexose sugars.

CH2OH CH2OH
CH2OH
O
C O C O
H H H OH OH
H H
C C C C C C
OH H OH H H OH
HO OH HO H H CH2OH
C C C C C C
H OH H OH OH H
1 2 3

Which row correctly shows examples of carbohydrates in which these three hexose sugars
occur?

sucrose cellulose amylose

A 1 2 3
B 1 3 2
C 2 3 1
D 3 2 1

9 What can occur as a result of a condensation reaction?

1 A disaccharide is formed.
2 A glycosidic bond is broken.
3 A molecule of water is produced.
4 Two monosaccharides join together.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/M/J/19 [Turn over

 6

10 The diagram shows some relationships between features of carbohydrates.

α-glucose 1,4 bonds

1 4

3
2

branched

Which row correctly matches the carbohydrate with some of its features?

1 2 3 4

A amylopectin sucrose glycogen cellulose

B amylose glycogen amylopectin cellulose
C cellulose amylopectin glycogen sucrose
D glycogen cellulose amylose amylopectin

11 Which row describes a triglyceride?

insoluble
hydrophilic
in alcohol

A   key
B   = correct
C   = not correct
D  

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/M/J/19

 7

12 The diagram shows three triglycerides, X, Y and Z.

O
H2COC
O

X HCOC
O
H2COC

O
H2COC
O
Y HCOC
O
H2COC

O
H2COC
O
Z HCOC
O
H2COC

What is correct for these triglycerides?

contains contains contains more

saturated unsaturated than two different
fatty acids fatty acids fatty acids

A X, Y and Z X and Y X and Y

B X, Y and Z Z X and Y
C X and Y X, Y and Z X, Y and Z
D Z X and Y X, Y and Z

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13 Which features of collagen result in it having high tensile strength?

1 Bonds form between adjacent molecules.

2 Each three-stranded molecule is held together by hydrogen bonds.
3 Every third amino acid in the polypeptide is small.
4 The primary structure is held together by peptide bonds.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 1 and 2 only D 2, 3 and 4

14 Which levels of protein structure would always be changed if an enzyme works by the induced fit
hypothesis?

primary secondary tertiary quaternary

A     key
B     = always changed
C     = not changed
D    

15 The enzyme β-galactosidase can catalyse the hydrolysis of four substrates, A, B, C and D, with
similar structures.

Each substrate has a different Km value.

For which substrate does β-galactosidase have the lowest affinity?

A Km = 4 × 10–3 mol dm–3

B Km = 1 × 10–3 mol dm–3

C Km = 2 × 10–4 mol dm–3

D Km = 1 × 10–4 mol dm–3

16 Which is correct for competitive inhibitors of enzymes?

1 They occupy the active site of an enzyme.

2 They have exactly the same shape as the substrate.
3 They can be used to control the rate of enzyme activity.
4 They can bind to a site on an enzyme other than the active site.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2, 3 and 4

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17 The diagram represents the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure.

3
2
1

4
6 5

Which two of the numbered components contribute to the fluidity of the membrane?

A 1 and 3 B 2 and 4 C 3 and 5 D 4 and 6

18 The cell surface membranes of some cells are largely made up of phospholipids and cholesterol,
with few proteins.

Which transport mechanisms will be reduced across these membranes?

1 facilitated diffusion
2 active transport
3 diffusion

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

19 One of the glycoproteins present in the cell surface membrane of human cells is called ICAM-1.

ICAM-1 is a cell adhesion molecule and it is also used by the common cold virus to attach to
human cells.

Which statements are true about ICAM-1?

1 A drug binding to ICAM-1 to block the common cold virus could stop cells attaching
to each other.
2 Part of the ICAM-1 structure must be complementary to proteins in the coat of the
common cold virus.
3 The ICAM-1 structure must have hydrophobic parts to stabilise it within the cell
membrane.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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20 A student weighed a cylinder of potato and then put it into a test-tube containing a salt solution.

The potato cylinder was removed from the salt solution after one hour. It was blotted dry and then
reweighed. The student recorded that the potato had lost mass.

Which row shows the correct explanation for the results the student collected?

water potential condition of the

of the potato cells potato cells
before soaking after soaking

A higher plasmolysed
B higher turgid
C lower plasmolysed
D lower turgid

21 Some parts of a typical human chromosome are more numerous than others.

Which of the parts are listed in order from the most numerous to the least numerous?

A centromere, nucleotide, histone

B DNA molecule, telomere, centromere
C histone, telomere, DNA molecule
D telomere, centromere, nucleotide

22 The enzyme telomerase prevents loss of telomeres after many mitotic cell cycles.

Which cells need to transcribe telomerase enzyme?

1 stem cells
2 activated memory B-lymphocytes
3 helper T-lymphocytes secreting cytokines

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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23 The diagram shows a cell during mitosis.

Which description correctly identifies the cell?

A a plant cell during anaphase

B a plant cell during metaphase
C an animal cell during anaphase
D an animal cell during metaphase

24 A gene codes for the production of a protein, p53, that binds to damaged DNA during interphase
and prevents its replication. A carcinogen in cigarette smoke mutates this gene.

Which statement explains why this mutation may cause cancer?

A Cells with no p53 are allowed to undergo mitosis.

B Cells with no p53 allow their damaged DNA to replicate.
C The carcinogen in cigarette smoke increases the rate of cell division.
D The p53 causes uncontrolled cell division.

25 What is the role of DNA polymerase?

A condensation reactions to produce DNA nucleotides for replication

B correct alignment of RNA nucleotides along a template strand of DNA
C formation of bonds to complete the sugar-phosphate backbone
D formation of glycosidic bonds between complementary base pairs

26 Which row represents the correct features of the nitrogenous base thymine?

has a forms two hydrogen

pairs with
single ring is a purine bonds with its
cytosine
structure complementary base

A     key
B     = correct
C     = not correct
D    

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27 Meselson and Stahl investigated DNA in bacteria. They grew bacteria in a medium with only
heavy nitrogen, 15N, until all of the bacterial DNA was heavy.

These bacteria were moved from a heavy nitrogen medium and cultured in a medium with only
light nitrogen, 14N.

A sample of bacteria was collected from the second generation and their DNA analysed.

Hybrid DNA contains both heavy and light DNA.

Which row shows the percentage of heavy DNA strands and the percentage of hybrid DNA
molecules in the second generation produced in the medium containing light nitrogen?

percentage of heavy percentage of hybrid

DNA strands DNA molecules

A 25 25
B 25 50
C 50 25
D 50 50

28 The table shows the DNA triplet codes for some amino acids.

amino acid DNA triplet code amino acid DNA triplet code

arginine GCA glycine CCA

arginine GCC glycine CCG
arginine GCG glycine CCT
asparagine TTA lysine TTC
asparagine TTG lysine TTT
STOP ATC proline GGA
cysteine ACA proline GGC
cysteine ACG valine CAC

The base sequence on the DNA strand coding for a polypeptide is shown.

CCA TTC ACG GCG TTA GCA

Two mutations occur in this sequence during DNA replication.

Which mutated DNA would have no effect on the polypeptide synthesised?

A CCA ATC ACG GCG TTG GCA

B CCA TTC ACA GCA TTA GCA
C CCA TTC ACG CCG TTA GCC
D CCT TTC ACG GCG TTA GGA

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29 A group of students were asked to look at the photomicrograph of a cross-section of unfamiliar

material and make observations.

The students described X as:

1 circular
2 a hollow tube
3 a spherical structure.

Which descriptions are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 3 only

30 Irrigating crop plants with water containing low concentrations of salt causes an increase in the
concentration of salt in the soil.

What explains why the increase in salt concentration eventually kills the crop?

water potential water potential direction of water

in roots in soil movement

A ↓ into the roots key

B ↑ into the soil solution ↑ = water potential increases
C ↓ out of the roots ↓ = water potential decreases
D ↑ into the roots

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31 The photomicrograph shows a transverse section through part of a plant root.

Which tissue inhibits the path of water through the apoplastic pathway?

D
A

32 The table shows some information about three blood vessels, P, Q and R, from a mammal.

wall percentage composition of wall

diameter
thickness
/ mm muscle collagen elastin
/ mm
P 25 2 22 33 40
Q 20 1 25 40 25
R 4 1 35 25 30

Which row identifies blood vessels P, Q and R?

P Q R

A artery vein artery

B artery vein capillary
C vein artery capillary
D vein artery vein

33 Which row correctly identifies the locations in which a type of molecule or cell is present?

tissue
type of molecule or cell blood lymph
fluid

A antigen    key
B glucose    = is present
C lymphocyte    = is not present
D neutrophil   

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34 The graph shows the percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen at different partial
pressures of oxygen.

Which range of partial pressures of oxygen results in the greatest change of percentage
saturation of haemoglobin per kPa?

100 D

C
80

60
percentage B
saturation of
haemoglobin
with oxygen
40

A
20

0
0 5 10 15 20
partial pressure of oxygen / kPa

35 How many layers of cell surface membrane separate an oxygen molecule in the air space of an
alveolus from the nearest haemoglobin molecule?

A 3 B 4 C 5 D 6

36 Which biochemical is formed and what happens to the oxygen dissociation curve of adult
haemoglobin when carbon dioxide combines with haemoglobin?

biochemical formed oxygen dissociation curve

A carbaminohaemoglobin shifts to the left

B carbaminohaemoglobin shifts to the right
C carboxyhaemoglobin shifts to the left
D carboxyhaemoglobin shifts to the right

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37 The diagram has been used to identify four infectious diseases.

infectious disease

waterborne not waterborne

1

virus not a virus

4

airborne not airborne

2 3

Which row correctly identifies the infectious diseases?

1 2 3 4

A cholera measles HIV / AIDS TB

B cholera smallpox malaria measles
C malaria HIV / AIDS TB cholera
D malaria TB measles cholera

38 How does penicillin affect bacteria?

A It inhibits DNA replication by binding to nucleotides.

B It inhibits translation by preventing tRNA binding to ribosomes.
C It is a competitive inhibitor of an enzyme in cell wall synthesis.
D It is a competitive inhibitor of an enzyme in protein synthesis.

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39 Growth factors are chemicals that stimulate a cell to divide.

Growth factors are transported around the body in the blood, and they attach to cells that have
complementary growth factor receptors on their surface.

Some cells have too many growth factor receptors on their surface and so the cells continue to
divide, forming a tumour.

Trastuzumab is used as a treatment for some cancers.

Trastuzumab works by binding to a specific growth factor receptor on a tumour cell. This stops
the cell dividing and the cell dies.

What is trastuzumab?

A a monoclonal antibody
B a vaccine
C an antibiotic
D an enzyme inhibitor

40 What describes artificial active immunity?

A protection against a pathogen by an injection of antibodies

B protection against a pathogen by drinking colostrum containing antibodies
C stimulation of lymphocytes by antigens contained in a vaccine
D stimulation of lymphocytes by antigens on the surface of invading pathogens

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/M/J/19

 Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2019
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7089766514*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB19 11_9700_11/4RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over
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1 Which cell structure contains cytoplasm?

A chloroplasts
B mitochondria
C plasmodesmata
D smooth endoplasmic reticulum

2 Some cell structures are listed in a particular order.

1 nucleus
2 ribosome
3 Golgi body
4 vesicle

What determines the order in which these cell structures are listed?

A sequence used in synthesis of a lipid

B sequence used in synthesis of an antibody
C size from largest to smallest
D size from smallest to largest

3 The drawing has been made from a section showing part of an alveolus and a red blood cell in a
capillary. The magnification of the drawing is ×5000.

alveolus

red blood cell

What is the minimum distance that oxygen must diffuse from air in an alveolus into the red blood
cell?

A 0.1 nm B 1.0 nm C 0.1 µm D 1.0 µm

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4 Four students were asked to match the function with the appearance of some cell structures in an
animal cell.

The functions were listed by a number.

1 mRNA passes through to the ribosome

2 synthesis of polypeptides
3 packaging of hydrolytic enzymes that will remain in the cell

The appearances were listed by a letter.

V membranes which surround an enclosed inner cavity

W non-membrane bound, spherical structures
X a double membrane interspersed with pores
Y non-membrane bound, cylindrical structures
Z membrane-bound sacs, arranged as a flattened stack

Which student correctly matched the numbered functions with the appearance of the cell
structure?

1 2 3

A V X Y
B V Z Z
C X W Z
D X Z W

5 The antibiotic chloramphenicol inhibits protein synthesis in mitochondria and in some

prokaryotes. Chloramphenicol does not inhibit protein synthesis in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic
cells.

What would be the effect on the cells of a person being treated with chloramphenicol?

rate of ATP production transcription of nuclear DNA

A decreases decreases
B decreases no effect
C increases decreases
D no effect no effect

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6 The diagram shows the monosaccharide xylose.

H C O OH
H
C OH H C
HO C C H

H OH

Many xylose monomers can be joined by glycosidic bonds to form a polysaccharide which is
found in plant cell walls.

Which diagram shows the formation of a glycosidic bond between two xylose monomers?

H H

H C O OH H C O OH
H H
A C OH H C C OH H C
HO C C H HO C C H

H OH H OH

H H

H C O OH H C O OH
H H
B C OH H C C OH H C
HO C C H HO C C H

H OH H OH
H OH
H
HO C C H
H C O OH
H C OH H C
C C OH H C
H
H C O OH
HO C C H
H
H OH
H OH
H
HO C C H
H C O OH
H C OH H C
D C OH H C
H
H C O OH
HO C C H
H
H OH

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7 Which colour indicates the lowest concentration of reducing sugar present in a solution after
testing with Benedict’s solution?

A brown
B green
C red
D yellow

8 Which molecules are monomers?

1 ribose
2 glucose
3 deoxyribose
4 sucrose

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

9 Which molecules have properties that are dependent on hydrogen bonds?

1 cellulose
2 glycogen
3 haemoglobin
4 water

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

10 Some features of triglycerides are listed.

1 can be liquid or solid at room temperature

2 contains a high proportion of carbon–hydrogen bonds
3 insoluble in water
4 less dense than water

Which of these features make triglycerides suitable energy stores?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 3 only

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11 Some foods contain hydrogenated vegetable oils. These are unsaturated fats that have been
converted to saturated fats.

Which property of the fats will have changed?

A Their hydrocarbon chains will fit together more closely.

B Their solubility in water will increase.
C They will have more double bonds in their molecules.
D They will remain liquid at room temperature.

12 Which statements could be used to describe enzyme molecules and antibody molecules?

1 Hydrogen bonds stabilise the structure of the protein and are important for it to
function efficiently.
2 Hydrophilic R-groups point in to the centre of the molecule and cause it to curl into a
spherical shape.
3 The tertiary structure of the protein molecule plays an important role in the
functioning of the protein.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

13 The Vmax and Km are determined for an enzyme-catalysed reaction.

What will be the effects on the Vmax and Km in the presence of a competitive inhibitor?

Vmax Km

A decreases increases
B increases decreases
C stays the same decreases
D stays the same increases

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14 The graph shows how the concentration of components,1, 2, 3 and 4, of an enzyme-catalysed

reaction changes with time.

concentration

2
3
4
time

Which row identifies the components of this reaction?

component 1 component 2 component 3 component 4

A enzyme–substrate unbound enzyme product substrate

complex
B enzyme–substrate product substrate unbound enzyme
complex
C product enzyme–substrate unbound enzyme substrate
complex
D product unbound enzyme substrate enzyme–substrate
complex

15 Which statement suggests that a membrane protein is involved in active transport?

A It allows movement of molecules across a membrane if concentration differences exist.

B It can only function if mitochondria are supplied with sufficient oxygen.
C It has a tertiary structure with a binding site with a specific shape.
D It is found in the cell surface membranes and the mitochondrial membranes.

16 Cell surface receptors used in cell signalling are usually proteins that extend from one side of the
membrane to the other side of the membrane.

What is the role of the extracellular part of the protein?

A binding the signalling molecule

B functioning as an enzyme
C increasing the solubility of the receptor
D transmitting the signal from the target cell

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17 Which substances can pass directly through cell surface membranes and do not use a carrier
protein or channel protein?

1 K+ and Cl –
2 CO2
3 C6H12O6

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 only

18 A student put a layer of plant epidermal cells on a microscope slide. The student put a drop of
potassium nitrate solution on the layer of cells and observed that:

• the cell surface membrane of many of the cells had separated from the cell wall

• the cytoplasm and cell contents had shrunk.

What explains these observations?

direction of net water water potential of cells water potential of

movement at start / kPa solution at start / kPa

A cells to solution –100 –500

B cells to solution –500 –100
C solution to cells –100 –500
D solution to cells –500 –100

19 The enzyme telomerase prevents loss of telomeres after many mitotic cell cycles.

Which cells transcribe a high concentration of telomerase?

1 neutrophils
2 mature red blood cells
3 activated memory T-lymphocytes

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 3 only

20 At which stage of mitosis do these events occur?

chromosomes become
centromeres separate
shorter and thicker

A anaphase interphase
B anaphase prophase
C metaphase interphase
D metaphase prophase

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21 Which components could be found in nucleotides of rRNA?

1 any one of two different nitrogenous bases with a double ring structure
2 any one of two different purine bases
3 any one of three different nitrogenous bases with a single ring structure
4 any one of three different pyrimidine bases

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 4 only D 3 and 4 only

22 How many statements are true for semi-conservative replication of DNA in a prokaryotic cell?

1 the process takes place in the cytoplasm

2 an adenine nucleotide will line up against a uracil on the template strand
3 each new DNA molecule will contain one strand from the parent molecule
4 if the parent molecule contained 40% guanine nucleotides each new DNA molecule
will contain 20% guanine nucleotides

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

23 Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a mutation in an allele of the gene that codes for the β-globin
polypeptide of haemoglobin.

The diagram shows the sequence of bases in a small section of the coding strand of DNA for
both the HbA (normal) and HbS (sickle cell) β-globin alleles.

HbA CTGACTCCTGAGGAGAAGTCT
HbS CTGACTCCTGTGGAGAAGTCT

How will the mutation in the allele result in the production of an altered version of the
β-globin polypeptide?

A A tRNA molecule with the anticodon GUG will hydrogen bond to the altered codon on mRNA.
B All the amino acids coded for after the mutation will differ from those in the HbA protein.
C mRNA transcribed from the HbS allele will contain the codon CAC instead of the codon CTC.
D The ribosome will be unable to continue translation of the HbS mRNA after the altered codon.

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24 The diagrams show some tissue types in plant organs.

1
2
4

Which row identifies the tissue types?

1 2 3 4

A phloem phloem phloem xylem

B phloem xylem phloem xylem
C xylem phloem xylem phloem
D xylem xylem phloem xylem

25 Which row correctly describes the adaptations of companion cells, phloem sieve tube elements
and xylem vessel elements for their roles?

companion cell phloem sieve tube element xylem vessel element

A a thin layer of cytoplasm strong, lignified cell walls many plasmodesmata
to reduce resistance to flow for supporting the plant for communication
between cells

B empty cells allowing many plasmodesmata strong, lignified cell walls

water to flow freely for communication for supporting the plant
between cells

C many plasmodesmata a thin layer of cytoplasm empty cells allowing

for communication to reduce resistance to flow water to flow freely
between cells

D strong, lignified cell walls empty cells allowing a thin layer of cytoplasm
for supporting the plant water to flow freely to reduce resistance to flow

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26 Irrigating crop plants with water containing low concentrations of salt causes an increase in the
concentration of salt in the soil.

What explains why the increase in salt concentration could eventually kill the crop?

water potential water potential direction of water

in roots in soil movement

A decreases out of the roots

B increases into the roots
C decreases out of the roots
D increases into the roots

27 The diagram shows the pathway of water across root cells to the xylem.

Which cell is in the endodermis?

A B C D xylem

28 Which row shows the cause of mass flow in the phloem and the direction of movement of phloem
sap by mass flow?

cause of mass flow direction of movement

in the phloem of phloem sap by mass flow

A hydrostatic pressure gradient sink to source

B hydrostatic pressure gradient source to sink
C water potential gradient sink to source
D water potential gradient source to sink

29 Which statement about oxygen combining with haemoglobin is correct?

A All oxygen molecules which combine stop the haemoglobin molecule changing shape.
B Four oxygen molecules can combine with each haem group.
C The first oxygen molecule to combine does not affect the shape of haemoglobin.
D The second oxygen molecule to combine makes it easier for the third to combine.

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30 The diagram shows the Bohr effect.

100

80

X
percentage 60
saturation of
haemoglobin Y
with oxygen 40

20

0
0 2 4 6 8 10
partial pressure of oxygen / kPa

What causes the shift from X to Y?

A decreased concentration of carbon dioxide and high pH

B decreased concentration of carbon dioxide and low pH
C increased concentration of carbon dioxide and high pH
D increased concentration of carbon dioxide and low pH

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31 Which plan diagram represents the tissues in a major vein?

A B

C D

32 Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a heart defect that people can have from birth. People with
VSD have a hole in the wall (septum) that separates the left and right ventricles.

What could happen in a person with VSD?

1 Blood will leak through the hole, mostly from right to left.
2 The volume of blood circulating through the lungs will be higher than in a person
without VSD.
3 Less oxygen will be delivered to the body tissues.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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33 The diagram shows the pressure changes in some structures of the right side of the heart during
the cardiac cycle.

pressure X
/ kPa

0
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8
time / s

Which structure is represented by X?

A pulmonary artery
B right atrium
C right ventricle
D vena cava

34 The diagram shows a section through a type of epithelium.

80 µm

Where is this type of epithelium found in the respiratory system?

trachea bronchus all bronchioles

A    key
B    = present
C    = not present
D   

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35 In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), airflow through the airways is reduced.

Which statements explain the reduced airflow?

1 More mucus is secreted into the airways.

2 Airways and alveoli lose their elasticity.
3 Many of the alveoli are destroyed.
4 Carbon monoxide binds irreversibly to haemoglobin.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

36 Outbreaks of cholera commonly occur in refugee camps that are set up after a major natural
disaster such as earthquakes.

The list shows some measures that can be taken to limit the spread of cholera in the refugee
camps.

1 treating all drinking water supplies with a high concentration of chlorine

2 setting up an emergency treatment centre to isolate cases of cholera and treat them
with antibiotics
3 using concentrated disinfectant to clean sewage disposal areas and infected
bedding
4 health workers visiting regularly to detect cases
5 keeping good records of the number of cases and deaths at treatment centres

Which features of these control measures involve an economic factor?

A 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B 1, 3 and 5 only
C 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
D 2 and 4 only

37 Which use of antibiotics helps to reduce the spread of resistance in bacteria?

A using high concentrations of the antibiotic to kill all the bacteria

B giving routine preventative antibiotics to people who are having an operation
C regularly changing the type of antibiotic used to treat particular bacterial infections
D giving antibiotics to treat low level infection caused by a bacterium

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38 The graph shows the amount of antibody produced in response to an antigen.

concentration
of antibody
in the blood

0 10 20 30 40
time in days
first exposure to an antigen

From the graph, which statement is correct?

A It takes 25 days to achieve active immunity.

B Memory cells for this antigen are present in the body within 20 days.
C T-helper lymphocytes are activated on day 12.
D The second exposure to the antigen occurred on day 25.

39 Which sequence summarises the hybridoma method for the production of monoclonal
antibodies?

A B C D
inject mammal inject mammal inject mammal inject mammal
with antibodies with antibodies with antigens with antigens
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
harvest harvest harvest harvest
antibodies B-lymphocytes antibodies B-lymphocytes
from blood from spleen from blood from spleen
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
test for fuse with test for fuse with
wanted antibody cancer cells wanted antibody cancer cells
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
fuse with test for fuse with test for
cancer cells wanted antibody cancer cells wanted antibody
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
large scale large scale large scale large scale
culture culture culture culture

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40 The vaccination programme for smallpox was a medical success story which resulted in the
World Health Organisation finally declaring the world free from smallpox in 1980.

Which statement correctly identifies the reasons for the success of the smallpox vaccination
programme?

A The virus also infected animals making it easy to stop the transmission cycle.
B The virus remained in the body following infection and could become active later.
C The virus was stable and not prone to mutations.
D The virus was unstable and prone to mutations.

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 9700/11/O/N/19

 Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2019
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2599123414*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB19 11_9700_12/4RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over
 2

1 A student calibrated the scale on an eyepiece graticule in the eyepiece lens of a light microscope.
The student was given a stage micrometer scale to use.

The divisions on the stage micrometer scale were 0.1 mm apart.

Which data must the student collect in order to calibrate the eyepiece graticule?

1 magnification of the eyepiece lens of the microscope

2 number of divisions of the stage micrometer scale seen in one field of view of the
microscope
3 number of divisions of the eyepiece graticule scale equivalent to each division of the
stage micrometer scale

A 1 and 3 B 2 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

2 The diameter of living cells varies considerably.

The diameter of a typical eukaryotic cell is 1.5 × 101 µm.

The diameter of a typical prokaryotic cell is 7.5 × 102 nm.

Using these measurements, what is the maximum number of each cell type which could fit along
a line 1 cm long?

number of white number of

blood cells Streptococcus cells

A 6.7 × 104 1.3 × 102

B 6.7 × 103 1.3 × 105
C 6.7 × 102 1.3 × 104
D 6.7 × 101 1.3 × 103

3 Which structures are found in animal cells and in plant cells?

1 centriole
2 lysosome
3 nucleolus
4 vacuole

A 1 and 3 only
B 2 and 4 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D 1, 2, 3 and 4

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/O/N/19

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4 Which features shown in the diagram can be present in eukaryotes?

4
peptidoglycan 1
cell wall DNA

feature

3 2
70S RNA
ribosomes

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

5 Four students were asked to match the function with the appearance of some cell structures in an
animal cell.

The functions were listed by a number.

1 organises microtubules to produce the spindle during cell division

2 synthesis of polypeptides
3 synthesis of lipids

The appearances were listed by a letter.

V membranes which surround an enclosed inner cavity

W non-membrane bound, spherical structures
X a double membrane interspersed with pores
Y non-membrane bound, cylindrical structures
Z membrane-bound sacs, arranged as a flattened stack

Which student correctly matched the numbered functions with the appearance of the cell
structure?

1 2 3

A W X Z
B W Z V
C Y W V
D Y Z W

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6 Which types of RNA are present in prokaryotic cells and in eukaryotic cells?

mRNA rRNA tRNA

A    key
B    = present
C    = not present
D   

7 A student carried out four tests for biological molecules on a solution. The results are shown in
the table.

test for biological

observation
molecules

iodine orange-brown
biuret purple
Benedict’s orange
emulsion clear

Which three molecules may be present in this solution?

A glucose, starch, globin

B globin, glucose, collagen
C starch, sucrose, collagen
D sucrose, globin, collagen

8 A student was asked to estimate the concentration of reducing sugar in an unknown solution
using the Benedict’s test. Five reducing sugar solutions with different concentrations were
provided in order to produce a calibration curve.

The student added 2 cm3 of Benedict’s solution to each of the reducing sugar solutions, heated
them in a water-bath and recorded the time taken for the first appearance of a colour change.

Which variables should the student standardise, when carrying out the Benedict’s test on each
reducing sugar solution, to ensure the results are comparable?

1 volume of reducing sugar used

2 the temperature of the water-bath
3 the time the solutions are heated

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 3 only

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9 Which rows show the chemical groups present in the biological molecules listed?

biological presence of carboxyl presence of two or more

molecule (COOH) groups hydroxyl (OH) groups

1 amino acid yes no

2 β-glucose no yes
3 glycerol no no
4 fatty acid yes no

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

10 The diagram shows the formation of a biological macromolecule.

O O

OH C (CH2)16 CH3 CH2 O C (CH2)16 CH3

CH2 OH
O O
CH2 OH + → + 3H2O
OH C (CH2)16 CH3 CH2 O C (CH2)16 CH3
CH2 OH O O

OH C (CH2)16 CH3 CH2 O C (CH2)16 CH3

Which type of bonds are formed in the macromolecule product?

A ester bonds
B glycosidic bonds
C hydrogen bonds
D peptide bonds

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11 Fibrous proteins are composed of chains of amino acids held together by bonds. An example of
part of a fibrous protein is shown.

O R H
N
N
H O X
Y

O R H
N
N
H O

Which type of bond is at X and Y?

X Y

A disulfide hydrophobic interaction

B hydrogen peptide
C hydrophobic interaction ionic
D ionic peptide

12 Which row about the structure of proteins is correct?

primary structure secondary structure quaternary structure

A is the number is the left-handed is the sub-unit

of amino acids spiral formed by the polypeptides that
present in a protein primary structure link together to
form a protein

B is the order of is the coiling of a contains two types

amino acids present in chain of amino acids of polypeptide that
a protein to form a β-pleated interact forming the
encoded by DNA sheet or α-helix shape of a protein

C is the result of occurs because of is formed by four

translation of an attraction between polypeptides and
mRNA molecule by hydrogen and an additional reactive
a ribosome into a oxygen atoms in group attached to the
chain of amino acids the peptide bonds protein

D is the sequence is formed by is formed by the

of amino acids in hydrogen bonding linking together
a protein coded by between amino acids of more than one
an mRNA molecule forming the polypeptide to
primary structure form a protein

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13 A student wrote four statements about water.

1 Water has a high specific heat capacity which maintains the temperature of water
within cells.
2 Mammals rely on water having a relatively low latent heat of vapourisation to keep
them cool.

3 When a negatively charged ion is added to water, the δ+ charge on the hydrogen
atom is attracted to the ion.
4 When surrounded by water, non-polar molecules tend to be pushed apart from one
another.

Which statements are correct?

1 2 3 4

A     key
B     = correct
C     = not correct
D    

14 Which statement about the active site of an enzyme is correct?

A It always has a specific fixed shape.

B It reduces the total energy of the product.
C It does not form chemical bonds with its substrate.
D It is determined by the primary structure of the enzyme.

15 When investigating the rate of reaction of the enzyme lipase on the hydrolysis of triglycerides, the
pH must be maintained at an optimum to prevent the lipase denaturing.

What is the reason for this?

A The addition of water molecules produced by hydrolysis increases the pH.

B The products of hydrolysis decrease the pH.
C The products of hydrolysis increase the pH.
D The removal of water molecules used in hydrolysis decreases the pH.

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16 An experiment was carried out to compare the effect of pH on the activity of an enzyme that was
in solution and the same enzyme that had been immobilised on a gel. All other variables were
kept the same.

The results are shown in the graph.

enzyme key
activity
immobilised enzyme
enzyme in solution

4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
pH

Which statement explains these results when the enzyme is immobilised?

A The primary structure has changed.

B The secondary structure has changed.
C The tertiary structure has changed.
D The quaternary structure has changed.

17 High concentrations of ethanol can disrupt cell membrane structure and make the cell surface
membrane leaky.

Yeast cells release ethanol as a waste product of metabolism.

Yeast cells can alter the composition of the cell surface membrane to reduce the effect of
ethanol.

● A saturated fatty acid, X, is replaced by an unsaturated fatty acid, Y.

● Y has a shorter hydrocarbon chain than X.
● There is an increase in the phospholipid to protein ratio.

Which statement would explain why the effect of ethanol is reduced?

A A greater proportion of phospholipid may increase the entry of ethanol via channel proteins.
B An increase in hydrophobic interaction by phospholipid tails improves membrane stability.
C An increase in the proportion of fatty acids with double bonds decreases membrane fluidity.
D The shorter hydrocarbon chain of Y decreases membrane fluidity.

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18 The photomicrograph shows the appearance of onion epidermal cells after they have been
soaked in solution X for one hour.

What fills the space labelled Y?

A air
B cytoplasm
C solution X
D water

19 Equal sized potato pieces were placed into a test-tube and covered with a sucrose solution. The
test tube was left for 30 minutes. All other variables were controlled.

After 30 minutes, the potato piece had not changed in size.

What can be concluded from this result?

A The concentration of sucrose is the same in the potato and in the solution and there is no
more movement of water into or out of the potato.
B The concentration of sucrose is the same in the potato and in the solution and there is no net
movement of water into the potato.
C The water potential is the same in the potato and in the sucrose solution and there is no
more movement of water into or out of the potato.
D The water potential is the same in the potato and in the sucrose solution and there is no net
movement of water into or out of the potato.

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20 Which row shows the correct number of each component of a single chromosome during
prophase of mitosis?

polynucleotide
centromeres chromatids telomeres
strands

A 1 0 2 2
B 1 2 4 4
C 2 0 4 2
D 2 2 2 4

21 The cell cycle includes mitosis.

Which are features of nuclear division?

1 forms cells of equal size to the parent cell

2 forms genetically identical nuclei
3 semi-conservative replication of DNA

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

22 The RNA triplet UAG acts as a stop codon terminating the synthesis of a polypeptide. The
diagram shows a strand of DNA which codes for four amino acids.

Where would an insertion mutation of a thymine nucleotide result in the termination of

translation?

TC CACTC GATG C

A B C D

23 What is correct for uracil?

It joins its
It has a single complementary
It is a purine
ring structure base with 2
hydrogen bonds

A    key
B    = correct
C    = not correct
D   

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24 The photomicrograph shows a vascular bundle.

3 2

Which describes the relationship of water potential in the labelled cells?

A Cell 3 is less negative than cell 1.

B Cell 2 is less negative than cell 3.
C Cell 3 is more negative than cells 1 and 2.
D Cells 1, 2 and 3 have the same water potential.

25 Which features have a role in the transport of water in xylem vessel elements?

1 capillary action
2 cohesion
3 hydrogen bonding

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 3 only

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26 What is a definition of transpiration?

A the evaporation of water vapour from a leaf due to the diffusion of water from an area of low
water potential to high water potential
B the loss of water vapour from a plant to its environment by diffusion down a water potential
gradient
C the movement of water from root to leaf due to the adhesion of water molecules to one
another
D the uptake of water by plant roots by movement of water down a continuous water potential
gradient from air to soil

27 Which are present in the walls of arteries?

smooth collagen
endothelium elastic tissue
muscle fibres

A     key
B     = present
C     = not present
D    

28 The statements list some of the events in the cardiac cycle. They are not in the correct order.

Which statement describes the fifth of these events to occur in the cardiac cycle?

1 The impulse travels through Purkyne tissue.

2 A wave of excitation sweeps across the atria.
3 The atrioventricular node delays the impulse for a fraction of a second.
4 The sinoatrial node contracts.
5 The wave of excitation sweeps upwards from the base of the ventricles.
6 The ventricles contract.
7 The atria contract.

A 1 B 3 C 4 D 7

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29 Which row correctly identifies the molecules or cells that are present in the different locations?

type of molecule or cell blood lymph tissue fluid

A antibodies    key
B large plasma proteins    = present
C lymphocytes    = not present
D phagocytes   

30 When active tissues have high carbon dioxide concentrations, oxyhaemoglobin releases oxygen
to these tissues.

What encourages this release in the presence of high concentrations of carbon dioxide?

1 carboxyhaemoglobin forms more readily

2 oxyhaemoglobin dissociates more readily
3 haemoglobin needs higher concentrations of oxygen to become saturated

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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31 The graph shows oxygen dissociation curves of haemoglobin at two different carbon dioxide
concentrations.

The partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs is 100 mmHg.

The partial pressure of oxygen in metabolically active tissues is 35 mmHg.

100

90

80

70

60
percentage
saturation of
haemoglobin 50
with oxygen
40

30

20

10

0
0 20 40 60 80 100
partial pressure of oxygen / mmHg

What is the percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen at the lungs and in metabolically
active tissues?

percentage saturation of
haemoglobin with oxygen
metabolically
lungs
active tissue

A 92 40
B 92 66
C 94 40
D 94 66

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32 Which statement is correct?

A Alveoli have goblet cells to produce mucus to trap pathogens from the air.
B Cartilage in the bronchi keeps the bronchi open and allows air to flow through freely.
C Complete rings of cartilage in the bronchioles make sure that air can reach the alveoli.
D During exercise, muscles in the bronchioles and alveoli relax to allow a greater flow of air.

33 Four types of cell in the gas exchange system are listed.

J alveolus epithelium cell

K ciliated cell
L goblet cell
M smooth muscle cell

The ticks () in the table show specialised features of three of these types of cell.

lots of
many many Golgi
endoplasmic
mitochondria bodies
reticulum

1 
2 
3   

Which row correctly matches the specialised feature with the correct cell?

1 2 3

A J M K
B K J M
C K M L
D M K J

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34 Some symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are listed.

1 bursting of alveoli
2 loss of elastic fibres
3 increase in secretion of mucus
4 reduction in surface area for gaseous exchange
5 narrowing of airways

Which of these are also the symptoms of emphysema?

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1, 3 and 5 C 2, 3 and 5 D 3, 4 and 5

35 The diagram shows properties of diseases.

Which shows the properties that are common to tuberculosis (TB) and measles?

bacterial infectious
A

B
C D

transmitted by
airborne droplets

36 The diagram shows some of the pathogens that cause disease in humans and some of the ways
they are transmitted.

1 2 W
bacterium protoctist contaminated water

pathogen method of
transmission

3 X Y
Morbillivirus mosquito bite coughs and
sneezes

What is the correct pathogen and method of transmission for cholera?

A 1 and W B 1 and X C 2 and X D 3 and Y

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37 Different antibiotics function in different ways. It is important that the antibiotic kills the bacteria,
but does not harm the infected human.

The antibiotic tetracycline has been found to affect the way in which human mitochondria
function.

Which statements could explain why human mitochondria function is affected by tetracycline?

A The antibiotic prevents the synthesis of peptidoglycan cell walls.

B The antibiotic prevents synthesis of linear DNA.
C The antibiotic prevents translation of circular DNA.
D The antibiotic prevents translation by binding to 70S ribosomes.

38 Immune response to a vaccination against a virus can be assessed by making three

measurements:

1 the concentration of anti-virus antibody in the blood

2 the time taken to increase the antibody concentration significantly after a booster
vaccination
3 the number of virus-specific lymphocytes per cm3 blood.

What describes the immunity of an individual when the values of 1, 2 and 3 are all low ten years
after vaccination?

A active immunity due to the presence of memory cells

B low immunity due to the absence of antibodies
C low immunity due to the absence of memory cells
D passive immunity due to the presence of antibodies

39 The enzyme telomerase prevents loss of telomeres after many mitotic cell cycles.

Which types of white blood cell involved in an autoimmune condition will contain active
telomerase?

mature helper
B-lymphocyte neutrophils T-lymphocyte
plasma cells memory cells

A    key
B    = contain active telomerase
C    = do not contain active telomerase
D   

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40 Which features of monoclonal antibodies make them useful in the diagnosis and treatment of
disease?

1 A particular monoclonal antibody attaches to a specific antigen.

2 Identical monoclonal antibodies can be produced in large numbers.
3 Binding a monoclonal antibody to its specific antigen may mark that antigen for
destruction by white blood cells.
4 Fluorescent or radioactive markers can be attached to a monoclonal antibody to
show where the antigen is in the body.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 3 and 4 only

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/O/N/19

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BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/O/N/19

 20

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 9700/12/O/N/19

 Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2019
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5573000885*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB19 11_9700_13/4RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over
 2

1 Plant cells are stained and then seen with a simple light microscope using daylight as the only
light source.

Which cell structures are clearly visible at a magnification of ×400?

A chloroplast grana
B lysosomes
C nucleoli
D ribosomes

2 How many nanometres are there in one millimetre?

A 1000 B 10 000 C 100 000 D 1 000 000

3 Which cell structures contain 70S ribosomes?

1 chloroplasts

2 mitochondria

3 nucleus

4 cytoplasm

A 1 and 2 only B 1 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 4 only

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/O/N/19

 3

4 The electron micrograph shows part of a plant cell.

5 μm

Which combination correctly identifies the labelled cell structures?

P Q R S

A cell surface membrane cytoplasm mitochondrion nucleus

B cell surface membrane vacuole chloroplast nucleus
C cell wall cytoplasm mitochondrion nucleolus
D cell wall vacuole chloroplast nucleolus

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/O/N/19 [Turn over

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5 Four students were asked to match the function with the appearance of some cell structures in an
animal cell.

The functions were listed by a number.

1 mRNA passes through to the ribosome

2 organises microtubules to produce the spindle during cell division
3 packaging of hydrolytic enzymes that will remain in the cell

The appearances were listed by a letter.

V membranes which surround an enclosed inner cavity

W non-membrane bound, spherical structures
X a double membrane interspersed with pores
Y non-membrane bound, cylindrical structures
Z membrane-bound sacs, arranged as a flattened stack

Which student correctly matched the numbered function with the appearance of the cell
structure?

1 2 3

A V W Y
B V Y Z
C X W Y
D X Y Z

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6 Tests for biological molecules were carried out on food samples.

Which correctly matches the biological molecules in the food samples with the colour for a
positive result?

A B

fructose black fructose black

purple purple
starch starch
red red
triglyceride white triglyceride white

C D

fructose black fructose black

purple purple
starch starch
red red
triglyceride white triglyceride white

7 What occurs during the formation of a glycosidic bond between two α-glucose molecules?

A a 1, 4 bond is always formed

B a hydrogen bond is always formed
C a molecule of water is always formed
D a hydroxyl (OH) group is always formed

8 What is the maximum number of condensation reactions that occur when a triglyceride is
synthesized?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

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9 Three proteins that have a quaternary structure are listed.

• Type IX collagen is formed from three different polymers.

• The main form of haemoglobin contains two alpha globins and two beta globins.

• HIV protease consists of two identical polymers.

Which row shows the correct number of genes needed to code for each protein?

number of genes
type IX HIV
haemoglobin
collagen protease

A 1 2 2
B 1 4 1
C 3 2 1
D 3 4 2

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10 The diagrams show the structure of an amino acid with some parts of the molecule shaded.

Which diagram shows the shaded part of the molecule that is common to all amino acids?

A B

H H

C C

NH2 NH2

CH3 CH3
COOH COOH

C D

H H

C C

NH2 NH2

CH3 CH3
COOH COOH

11 Some extracellular protease enzymes are synthesised in an inactive form called zymogen.

Zymogen is converted to the active protease in the Golgi body.

What is the purpose of producing zymogen before converting it to the extracellular protease?

A to avoid unwanted digestion of proteins inside the cell

B to avoid unwanted digestion of proteins outside the cell
C to catalyse digestion of proteins in the cytoplasm
D to catalyse digestion of proteins in the rough endoplasmic reticulum

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12 The Michaelis-Menten constant for an enzyme-catalysed reaction is referred to as Km, and the
maximum velocity of such a reaction is known as Vmax.

Which statement about Km and Vmax is correct?

A An enzyme with a high value of Km can reach its Vmax at a low substrate concentration.
B An enzyme with a high value of Km has a high affinity to its substrate.
C An enzyme with a low value of Km can reach its Vmax at a high substrate concentration.
D An enzyme with a low value of Km has a high affinity to its substrate.

13 The diagram represents part of the fluid mosaic model of a cell surface membrane.

Which parts of the membrane are hydrophilic?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 2 and 3 only C 3 and 4 D 4 only

14 Which statements about the proteins and glycoproteins in cell surface membranes are correct?

1 They can allow cells to bond together to form tissues.

2 They can recognise messenger molecules like hormones.
3 They can be antigens and allow cell to cell recognition.

A 1, 2 and 3
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only

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15 Which pair of factors is inversely proportional to the rate of diffusion?

A concentration gradient and surface area over which diffusion occurs

B distance over which diffusion occurs and size of diffusing molecule
C size of diffusing molecule and concentration gradient
D surface area over which diffusion occurs and distance over which diffusion occurs

16 Raisins are dried fruit that contain high concentrations of sugar.

Which row is correct when raisins are first put into water?

water potential in the raisin

direction of water movement
compared to surrounding water

A less negative into the raisin

B less negative out of the raisin
C more negative into the raisin
D more negative out of the raisin

17 Which processes that occur in cell division are represented in the diagram?

3
mass of nuclear
DNA in a cell 2
/ arbitrary units
1

0
time

A DNA replication and nuclear division only

B DNA replication, nuclear division and cytokinesis
C mitosis and cytokinesis
D mitosis only

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18 What happens to the telomeres during mitosis of a cancer cell?

A The length increases.

B The length decreases.
C They are completely lost.
D They stay the same length.

19 The graph shows three measurements obtained after metaphase of mitosis.

2
distance

time

What measurements do the curves represent?

distance between distance between

distance between
centromeres and centromeres of sister
poles of spindle
poles of spindle chromatids

A 1 2 3
B 1 3 2
C 3 1 2
D 3 2 1

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20 The diagram represents a nucleotide containing guanine.

base

Which statements about this nucleotide are correct?

1 The carbohydrate can be ribose or deoxyribose.

2 Base pairing occurs with three hydrogen bonds.
3 Guanine is a purine.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

21 What is the maximum number of codon-anticodon interactions within one ribosome?

A 2 B 3 C 4 D 6

22 Meselson and Stahl investigated DNA in bacteria. They grew bacteria in a medium with only
heavy nitrogen, 15N, until all of the bacterial DNA was heavy.

These bacteria were moved from a heavy nitrogen medium and cultured in a medium with only
light nitrogen, 14N.

A sample of bacteria was collected from the first generation and their DNA analysed.

Hybrid DNA contains heavy DNA and light DNA.

Which row shows the percentage of light DNA strands and the percentage of hybrid DNA
molecules in the first generation produced in the medium containing light nitrogen?

percentage of light percentage of hybrid

DNA strands DNA molecules

A 25 50
B 50 50
C 50 100
D 75 100

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23 Which statements about tRNA structure are correct?

1 There is a binding site for the attachment of a specific amino acid and a different
binding site for the attachment to the ribosome, so that translation can occur.
2 There is a ribose-phosphate backbone with strong phosphodiester bonds and areas
within the polynucleotide chain where base pairing occurs.
3 There is an anticodon that contains the same triplet of bases as the triplet of DNA
bases that has been transcribed to produce the mRNA codon.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

24 Which row explains why xylem vessels have no cytoplasm?

to increase
to contain a larger to transport water the cellulose
volume of water faster content of the
vessel walls

A    key
B    = explains
C    = does not explain
D   

25 What causes water to move from the root hair cells to the endodermis?

A diffusion through cell walls, osmosis down a water potential gradient in the cytoplasm
B diffusion through the symplast, osmosis and root pressure through the apoplast
C osmosis from cell vacuole to cell vacuole, active transport into the endodermis
D osmosis through the intercellular spaces, diffusion in cell walls and cytoplasm

26 What is true about a Casparian strip?

location formed from effect

A cell wall of cortical cell lignin closes symplastic pathway

B cell wall of endodermis cell suberin closes apoplastic pathway
C cytoplasm of cortical cell lignin closes apoplastic pathway
D cytoplasm of endodermis cell suberin closes symplastic pathway

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/O/N/19

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27 Which xerophytic adaptations reduce the water potential gradient between leaf surface and
atmosphere?

1 rolled leaves
2 hairy leaves
3 sunken stomata
4 fewer stomata
5 fleshy leaves

A 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2 and 5 only

28 When sucrose is loaded into the phloem it has to travel from mesophyll cells to a companion cell
and then into the phloem.

In many plants, proton pumps and co-transporter molecules are involved in this process.

Which row shows the relative concentrations of sucrose in each type of cell?

relative concentration of sucrose / arbitrary units

mesophyll companion phloem sieve
cell cell tube element

A 5 10 15
B 5 15 10
C 15 10 5
D 15 5 10

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/O/N/19 [Turn over

 14

29 The image shows three white blood cells labelled X, Y and Z.

Z
X

Which row correctly identifies these cells?

cell X cell Y cell Z

A lymphocyte neutrophil monocyte

B lymphocyte monocyte neutrophil
C monocyte lymphocyte neutrophil
D neutrophil lymphocyte monocyte

30 Which is the correct sequence for the opening of the valves in the mammalian heart during one
cardiac cycle?

A B

right atrioventricular valve left atrioventricular valve

↓ ↓
pulmonary semilunar valve aortic semilunar valve
↓ ↓
left atrioventricular valve right atrioventricular valve
↓ ↓
aortic semilunar valve pulmonary semilunar valve

C D

left atrioventricular valve left atrioventricular valve

and and
aortic semilunar valve right atrioventricular valve
↓ ↓
right atrioventricular valve aortic semilunar valve
and and
pulmonary semilunar valve pulmonary semilunar valve

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/O/N/19

 15

31 Red blood cells may contain a molecule known as 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG).

When 2,3-BPG binds to haemoglobin a higher partial pressure of oxygen is needed to bring
about 50% saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen.

Which statements about the effect of 2,3-BPG are correct?

1 2,3-BPG in red blood cells causes the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the right.
2 The binding of 2,3-BPG to haemoglobin reduces the Bohr effect.
3 The binding of 2,3-BPG to haemoglobin lowers the affinity of the haemoglobin for
oxygen.
4 When 2,3-BPG is absent, oxyhaemoglobin is less likely to unload oxygen.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

32 Aortic stenosis is a heart valve disorder in which the aortic semilunar valve opening is narrow.

Which effect could aortic stenosis have on heart structure and function?

A The cardiac muscle of the left ventricle wall is thinned by blood leaking out of the left
ventricle during ventricular diastole.
B There is less cardiac muscle in the left ventricle and reduced diastolic blood pressure,
caused by the smaller blood volume entering the left atrium.
C The tendons of the heart valves are weakened by blood being forced back through the left
atrioventricular valve into the left atrium.
D The wall of the left ventricle thickens, leading to an enlarged heart and inability to relax and
fill completely during diastole.

33 What explains why the red blood cell count of humans increases when they remain at high
altitudes?

A Haemoglobin is not saturated with oxygen in the lungs.

B The partial pressure of oxygen in the air is higher.
C The percentage of oxygen in the air has decreased.
D There is more carbon dioxide, increasing the Bohr effect.

34 Which may contain ciliated epithelium?

A trachea only
B trachea and bronchi only
C trachea, bronchi and bronchioles
D bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli

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 16

35 Which row shows the effects of chronic bronchitis?

lymph glands alveoli bronchi infection

A destroyed damaged inflamed absent

B destroyed inflamed scarred present
C swollen damaged scarred present

D swollen inflamed inflamed absent

36 The statements refer to the disease tuberculosis (TB).

1 The pathogen lives inside human cells so is not accessible to the immune system.
2 The bacterial pathogen reproduces slowly.
3 The pathogen is not very sensitive to antibiotics.

Which explains why antibiotic treatment for TB takes a long time?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

37 Scientists studied the multidrug resistant bacterial infections in children, caused by one type of
bacteria, between 2007 and 2015. The percentage of multidrug resistant infections rose from
0.2% to 1.5%.

What was the percentage increase in multidrug resistant infections between 2007 and 2015?

A 1.3% B 87% C 130% D 650%

38 Why is it necessary for a person with a bacterial infection to take antibiotics at evenly spaced time
intervals?

A to increase the concentration of antibiotic slowly to a level which is lethal to the bacteria
B to maintain a concentration of antibiotic in the body which is lethal to the bacteria
C to prevent the development of resistant strains of bacteria
D to select and kill the resistant strains of bacteria

39 The enzyme telomerase prevents loss of telomeres after many mitotic cell cycles. Three types of
cell are used to produce monoclonal antibodies.

1 cancer cells undergoing uncontrolled cell division

2 mature B-lymphocytes
3 hybridoma cells

Which cells involved in this technique contain active telomerase enzyme?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/O/N/19

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40 What explains why monoclonal antibodies are useful in the diagnosis of disease?

A They bind to and neutralise one type of antibody.

B They bind to and neutralise one type of pathogen.
C Their shape is complementary to one specific antibody.
D Their shape is complementary to one specific antigen.

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/O/N/19

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BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/O/N/19

 19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/O/N/19

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2019 9700/13/O/N/19

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2020
1 hour

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*2962952437*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 03_9700_12/4RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
 2

1 The diagram shows an eyepiece graticule and cell viewed through a microscope. When the
eyepiece graticule was calibrated at this magnification, the whole length of the graticule shown
covered 12 divisions of a stage micrometer scale.

There were 100 divisions in 10 mm of the stage micrometer.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

What is the actual length of the cell?

A 2.5 µm B 3.6 µm C 360 µm D 3 mm

2 Which cell structures can form vesicles?

cell structure
cell surface endoplasmic
Golgi body
membrane reticulum

A    key
B    = can form vesicles
C    = cannot form vesicles
D   

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20

 3

3 The diagram shows three circles, 1, 3 and 5, representing chloroplasts, mitochondria and typical
prokaryotes.

circle 3
circle 1 circle 5

2 4

Which row correctly identifies the three circles and some of the structures that are shared
between them?

circle 1 2 circle 3 4 circle 5

A chloroplasts circular DNA mitochondria 80S ribosomes prokaryotes

B chloroplasts 80S ribosomes mitochondria circular DNA prokaryotes
C prokaryotes circular DNA mitochondria circular DNA chloroplasts
D prokaryotes 70S ribosomes chloroplasts 80S ribosomes mitochondria

4 Which cell structures contain RNA?

1 centrioles
2 mitochondria
3 nucleus
4 ribosomes

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1 and 2 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only

5 It is possible for a bacterium to synthesise a eukaryotic protein.

This involves introducing a eukaryotic gene into the bacterial DNA. The eukaryotic gene is then
translated by the bacterium.

What explains why a bacterial cell can produce a eukaryotic protein but cannot produce a
eukaryotic glycoprotein?

A Bacteria do not have rough endoplasmic reticulum.

B Bacteria do not have a nuclear envelope.
C Bacteria do not have mitochondria.
D Bacteria do not have Golgi bodies.

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20 [Turn over

 4

6 Which structures are found in typical prokaryotic cells and also in typical plant cells?

A cell walls
B histones
C telomeres
D tonoplasts

7 The molecule shown is a polymer of reducing sugars.

CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH

O O O O

OH OH OH OH
O O O
HO OH
OH OH OH OH

Which procedures could be carried out to show that this molecule is a polymer of reducing
sugars?

1 Add hydrolytic enzyme and then heat with Benedict’s solution.

2 Dissolve in water, neutralise and then heat with Benedict’s solution.
3 Boil with hydrochloric acid, neutralise and then heat with Benedict’s solution.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

8 Which statement about biological molecules is correct?

A Amylopectin, amylose and cellulose are all polymers.

B Amylose, cellulose and glucose are all macromolecules.
C Cellulose, glucose and starch are all monomers.
D Sucrose, starch and amylopectin are all polysaccharides.

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20

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9 Sugars with a ring structure can also have a linear structure.

C O

H C OH

HO C H

H C OH

H C OH

CH2OH

Which of these sugar molecules could be represented by the linear structure in the diagram?

1 glucose
2 ribose
3 sucrose

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 1 only D 2 only

10 Which statements about phospholipids and triglycerides are correct?

1 They both contain ester bonds.

2 They both have three fatty acid chains per molecule.
3 They both may have saturated and unsaturated fatty acid chains.
4 They are both used only as storage molecules.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 4 only

11 The diagrams show three examples of different bonds.

bond 1 bond 2 bond 3

O

NH O C C N CH2 S S CH2

Which bonds hold the secondary structure of proteins together?

A 1, 2 and 3
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 only
D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20 [Turn over

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12 Hydrogen bonding explains many of the properties of water, including the high latent heat of
vapourisation and high specific heat capacity.

For which processes in plants is hydrogen bonding in water important on hot sunny days?

1 preventing denaturation of enzymes in leaves

2 reducing water loss by evaporation
3 allowing leaves to cool down quickly at night
4 holding the column of water in xylem vessels together

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only

13 What is the most appropriate set of controls to use in an investigation into the rate of an
enzyme-catalysed reaction over a range of temperatures from 25 °C to 65 °C?

A enzyme and substrate at all temperatures tested

B enzyme and boiled substrate at all temperatures tested
C boiled enzyme only at all temperatures tested
D substrate only at all temperatures tested

14 An investigation is carried out with an enzyme at its optimum temperature and pH.

The rate of the enzyme reaction is measured at different substrate concentrations.

The investigation is repeated in the presence of a competitive inhibitor.

How will the results with the competitive inhibitor be different from the original results?

Km with competitive Vmax with competitive

inhibitor inhibitor

A higher lower
B higher the same
C the same lower
D the same the same

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20

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15 Which description of cell surface membrane permeability is correct?

A An increase in the concentration of cholesterol molecules in the cell surface membrane can
increase its permeability to hydrophilic substances.
B Cell surface membrane permeability to large hydrophilic molecules is high and can be
increased by membrane transport proteins involved in facilitated diffusion.
C The permeability of the cell surface membrane to ions increases as the proportion of
saturated fatty acid chains in the phospholipids increases.
D Without the presence of carrier and channel membrane proteins, the cell surface membrane
has a low permeability to large polar molecules.

16 Which transport mechanism within a cell can occur in the absence of membranes?

A active transport
B diffusion
C facilitated diffusion
D osmosis

17 A student measured the time taken for complete diffusion of a dye into agar blocks of different
sizes.

The results are shown in the table.

size of agar block time for

/ mm × mm × mm diffusion / s

5×5×5 6.2
10 × 10 × 10 16.1
15 × 15 × 15 34.5
5 × 10 × 15

What is the predicted time for complete diffusion of the dye into the agar block measuring
5 mm × 10 mm × 15 mm?

A 6.2 s
B 16.1 s
C 34.5 s
D more than 34.5 s

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20 [Turn over

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18 A plant cell with a water potential of –600 kPa was placed in a solution with a water potential of
–410 kPa for 10 minutes.

Which row is correct?

net movement water potential

effect on cell
of water of cell

A into cell becomes higher becomes turgid

B into cell becomes lower bursts
C out of cell becomes higher swells
D out of cell becomes lower becomes plasmolysed

19 Which cells contain telomeres that are longer than those in a helper T-lymphocyte secreting
cytokines?

1 bone marrow stem cells

2 mature red blood cells
3 activated memory B-lymphocytes

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

20 In which stage of the cell cycle are telomeres needed to prevent the loss of genes?

A prophase
B cytokinesis
C G1 phase
D S phase

21 Which row shows part of the correct sequence of mitosis?

A chromosomes nuclear
chromosomes spindle fibres
→ line up at the → envelope →
condense shorten
equator disappears

B chromosomes nuclear
spindle fibres chromosomes
line up at the → → → envelope
shorten condense
equator reappears

C chromosomes nuclear
spindle fibres chromosomes
line up at the → → envelope →
shorten uncoil
equator reappears

D nuclear chromosomes
chromosomes spindle fibres
→ envelope → → line up at the
uncoil shorten
disappears equator

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20

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22 What is correct for cytosine?

joins to its
has a single ring
is a pyrimidine complementary base
structure
with 3 hydrogen bonds

A    key
B    = correct
C    = incorrect
D   

23 Scientists grew bacteria in a medium containing heavy nitrogen, 15N, as the only source of
nitrogen. After many generations, both strands of all of the bacterial DNA molecules contained
heavy nitrogen.

These bacteria were then moved from the heavy nitrogen medium into a medium with only light
nitrogen, 14N. The bacteria divided once to form the first generation and once more to form the
second generation.

A sample of bacteria was collected from the second generation and the DNA was analysed to
find:

● the percentage of DNA strands that contained only light nitrogen

● the percentage of DNA molecules that contained light nitrogen and heavy nitrogen.

Which row shows the results of this analysis?

percentage of DNA strands percentage of DNA molecules

that contained only light that contained light nitrogen
nitrogen and heavy nitrogen

A 50 25
B 50 50
C 75 25
D 75 50

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20 [Turn over

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24 The table shows the tRNA anticodons for four amino acids.

amino acid tRNA anticodons

asparagine UUA, UUG

glutamic acid CUU, CUC
proline GGA, GGG, GGU, GGC
threonine UGA, UGG, UGU, UGC

A cell makes a polypeptide containing the amino acid sequence shown.

asparagine – threonine – proline – glutamic acid

Which sequence of bases on the transcribed strand of a DNA molecule could code for this part of
the polypeptide?

A AATACCCCTGAA
B AATACCCCTCAA
C TTACTTGGATGG
D TTATGGGGACTT

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20

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25 The photomicrograph shows a section of a plant organ.

Students were asked to study the photomicrograph and identify the organ, giving a reason to
support their answer.

Which statement written by the students correctly identifies the organ and provides a correct
reason to support this identification?

A It is a leaf because the xylem is located on the inner side of each vascular bundle.
B It is a stem because there is a ring of endodermis visible around the edge of the vascular
tissue.
C It is a stem because the vascular bundles are arranged in a ring near the epidermis.
D It is a xerophytic leaf because there is a thick epidermis made up of many layers of cells.

26 What is correct about the apoplastic pathway and symplastic pathway in a root?

apoplastic pathway symplastic pathway

A Casparian strip blocks water moves across the
the movement of water root through cell walls
B water moves across the water moves from cell to
root through cell walls cell via the plasmodesmata
C water moves from cell to water passes through
cell via the plasmodesmata the cytoplasm
D water passes through Casparian strip blocks
the cytoplasm the movement of water

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20 [Turn over

 12

27 Sucrose moves into a phloem sieve tube element from a leaf mesophyll cell.

Which changes to the water potential and the volume of solution in the phloem sieve tube
element are correct?

water potential volume of

becomes solution

A higher decreases
B higher increases
C lower decreases
D lower increases

28 The photomicrograph shows three white blood cells labelled X, Y and Z.

Y
Z

Which row correctly identifies these cells?

cell X cell Y cell Z

A lymphocyte monocyte neutrophil

B lymphocyte neutrophil monocyte
C monocyte neutrophil lymphocyte
D neutrophil monocyte lymphocyte

29 Which row correctly identifies the locations in which a type of molecule or cell is present?

tissue
type of molecule or cell blood lymph
fluid

A antibody    key
B large plasma protein     = present
C lymphocyte     = not present
D phagocyte   

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20

 13

30 The graph shows the changes in pressure that occur in the left side of the heart during one
cardiac cycle.

key
pressure
left ventricle
aorta
left atrium

0
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8
time / s

At which time are the semi-lunar valves in the heart open?

A 0.1 s B 0.3 s C 0.5 s D 0.7 s

31 What would change the ratio of red blood cells to white blood cells in the blood of a healthy
human?

1 development of leukaemia
2 infection with Variola
3 living for six months at high altitude

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

32 The diagram represents three types of cell found in the human gas exchange system.

X Y Z

Which of these cell types could be affected when a person is exposed to tar in cigarette smoke?

A X, Y and Z B X and Z only C Y and Z only D Y only

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20 [Turn over

 14

33 The photomicrograph shows part of the lung as seen using a light microscope.

Which row correctly identifies the features labelled 1, 2 and 3?

1 2 3

A alveolus capillary bronchiole

B alveolus bronchiole capillary
C bronchiole small artery alveolus
D small artery bronchiole alveolus

34 How many times must a molecule of oxygen pass through a cell surface membrane as it diffuses
from inside an alveolus, through a cell in the capillary wall, to bind to a molecule of haemoglobin?

A 3 B 4 C 5 D 10

35 A disease is an abnormal disruption to the functioning of an organism or part of an organism.

Which disruption to function is an example of an infectious disease?

A Airflow to one lung is disrupted by uncontrolled cell division forming a mass of cells.
B Airways become inflamed due to exposure to smoke.
C Oxygen transport is disrupted due to changes in protein shape in red blood cells.
D Lung tissue is disrupted by the multiplication of prokaryotic cells.

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20

 15

36 The number of people at risk of contracting malaria has increased due to an increase in the
distribution of Anopheles mosquitoes.

What could be the cause of this increase in the distribution of Anopheles mosquitoes?

A antibiotic resistance
B drug resistance in Plasmodium
C no effective vaccine
D global warming

37 Which diseases are treated with antibiotics?

cholera

A B
D
TB measles
C

38 Which row correctly describes B-lymphocytes?

release antibodies
processed in
immediately after
the thymus
formation

A   key
B    = correct
C    = incorrect
D  

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20 [Turn over

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39 Which features of monoclonal antibodies are important to their use in the treatment of cancer?

1 They can bind to tumour-associated antigens.

2 They can distinguish between different strains of pathogens.
3 They can deliver drugs to specific targets.

1 2 3

A    key
B    = is important
C    = is not important
D   

40 A student was asked to explain why vaccination has successfully eradicated smallpox but not
other diseases, such as measles, malaria and sickle cell anaemia. These are the statements
made by the student.

1 The antigens of the virus causing smallpox did not change, unlike the antigens of
the virus causing measles.
2 Sickle cell anaemia has many different types of mutation, unlike smallpox, so each
would require a vaccine.
3 Unlike smallpox, malaria involves animals as part of the transmission cycle and this
makes the cycle harder to break.
4 The vaccine against measles often causes a poor primary immune response so that
booster vaccines are required, unlike the vaccine against smallpox.

Which statements are possible explanations?

A 1, 3 and 4 B 1 and 2 C 1 and 4 only D 2 and 4

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/F/M/20

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2020
1 hour

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*9944619739*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 06_9700_11/3RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
 2

1 The photomicrograph shows the ultrastructure of part of a cell.

Which statement about the type of cell shown in the photomicrograph is correct?

A It is a plant cell because it has both chloroplasts and a nucleus.

B It is a plant cell because it has chloroplasts.
C It is an animal cell because it has a cell membrane.
D It is an animal cell because it has mitochondria.

© UCLES 2020 9700/11/M/J/20

 3

2 Which structures are found in typical eukaryotic cells?

1 70S ribosomes
2 80S ribosomes
3 linear DNA (chromosomes)
4 circular DNA

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only

3 A student examined a slide of human blood with a light microscope and made a careful drawing
of the different cell types. The student used an eyepiece graticule so that the relative sizes of the
different cell types were drawn accurately.

In the drawing:

● red blood cells were 7 mm in diameter

● lymphocytes were 6 mm in diameter
● neutrophils were 14 mm in diameter.

What is the linear magnification of the drawing?

A ×10 B ×40 C ×100 D ×1000

© UCLES 2020 9700/11/M/J/20 [Turn over

 4

4 The diagram shows a graduated slide, with divisions of 0.1 mm viewed using an eyepiece
graticule.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

Pollen grains were grown in a sugar solution and viewed using the eyepiece graticule.

Diagram 1 shows the pollen grains at the start. Diagram 2 shows the pollen grains after four
hours.

diagram 1 diagram 2

pollen
tube

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

at start after 4 hours

What is the growth rate of the pollen tubes?

A 5 µmh–1 B 10 µmh–1 C 5 mmh–1 D 10 mmh–1

© UCLES 2020 9700/11/M/J/20

 5

5 The table shows a comparison between two features of a typical eukaryotic cell and a typical
prokaryotic cell.

Which row shows the correct comparison between these cells?

presence of centromeres presence of telomeres

eukaryotic prokaryotic eukaryotic prokaryotic
cell cell cell cell

A     key
B     = present
C     = not present
D    

6 The flow diagram shows the results of a number of tests on a solution of biochemicals.

solution of biochemicals

Benedict’s test non-reducing iodine test biuret test

blue sugar test blue-black purple
yellow

Which substances are present in the solution?

A amylose, amylopectin and lipid

B glucose, starch and catalase
C sucrose, amylase and triglyceride
D sucrose, starch and catalase

7 Maltose and sucrose are disaccharides. Maltose is formed from two molecules of glucose, whilst
sucrose is formed from fructose and glucose.

Which row shows the molecular formulae of the two disaccharides?

maltose sucrose

A C12H22O11 C12H22O11
B C12H22O11 C12H24O12
C C12H24O12 C12H22O11
D C12H24O12 C12H24O12

© UCLES 2020 9700/11/M/J/20 [Turn over

 6

8 The diagrams show short sections of some common polysaccharides and modified
polysaccharides.

CH2OH H NHCOCH3 CH2OH H OH

O O
H O H H O H
H OH H H OH H
O OH H H O O OH H H O
H H H H
O O
H NHCOCH3 CH2OH H OH CH2OH

1 2

CH2OH CH2OH
O H H O
H H
H H
O OH H O OH H O

H OH H OH

The polysaccharides can be described as:

● F is composed of β-glucose monomers with 1,4 glycosidic bonds

● G is composed of α-glucose monomers with 1,4 glycosidic bonds

● H is composed of N-acetylglucosamine monomers with β-1,4 glycosidic bonds.

Which row correctly matches the numbered diagrams to the descriptions of the polysaccharides?

polysaccharide polysaccharide polysaccharide

F G H

A 2 1 3
B 2 3 1
C 3 1 2
D 3 2 1

9 Which molecules contain at least two double bonds?

1 unsaturated fatty acid

2 collagen
3 haemoglobin

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2020 9700/11/M/J/20

 7

10 The diagram shows a protein molecule.

globular
head

key
long polypeptide
short polypeptide

Two long polypeptides each form α-helices for much of their length and these twist together into a
fibre.

At one end, each of these polypeptides coils into a globular head.

Two short polypeptides bind to each globular head.

What describes the protein structure of this molecule?

A quaternary structure because each molecule consists of six polypeptides

B secondary structure because the long polypeptides form α-helices

C tertiary structure because the α-helices form a fibre

D tertiary structure because the heads form globular proteins

11 Which types of bond will keep a folded protein in its precise shape for the longest time as the
temperature rises?

A disulfide
B hydrogen
C hydrophobic interactions
D ionic

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12 Protease enzymes are found in many locations inside and outside the cells. Four of these
locations are listed.

1 lysosomes
2 lumen of the stomach
3 at a telophase spindle
4 mucus in the trachea

Which of these locations are sites of intracellular hydrolysis?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 only

13 An enzyme is modified for industrial use. It has a lower Michaelis-Menten constant (Km) than the
unmodified enzyme.

What is true of the modified enzyme?

A It is more specific.
B It has a higher affinity for its substrate.
C It has a lower maximum rate of reaction (Vmax).
D It needs more substrate to become saturated.

14 A decrease in some factors will increase the fluidity of the cell surface membrane.

Which pair of factors, when decreased, will increase the fluidity of the cell surface membrane?

a decrease in

A • distance between phospholipid molecules

• proportion of short fatty acid chains
B • distance between phospholipid molecules
• temperature
C • proportion of phospholipids with saturated fatty acid chains
• proportion of long fatty acid chains
D • proportion of phospholipids with unsaturated fatty acid chains
• temperature

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15 The diagram shows a cell surface membrane.

2
3

Which statements about the labelled molecules in the membrane are correct?

● 1 is involved in the diffusion of ions.

● 2 is involved in facilitated diffusion.
● 3 is involved in the recognition of antigens.
● 4 is involved in membrane fluidity.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 and 4 D 2 and 4 only

16 Equal sized potato pieces were placed into test-tubes containing equal volumes of different
concentrations of sucrose solution and left for 30 minutes. All other variables were controlled.

After 30 minutes, the potato piece in one of the concentrations of sucrose solution had not
changed in size.

What can be concluded from this result?

1 There is no net movement of water into or out of the potato.

2 The water potential of the potato is the same as the water potential of the sucrose
solution.
3 The concentration of sucrose in the potato is the same as the concentration of the
sucrose solution.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

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17 Which feature of stem cells enables them to replace cells in tissues such as the skin?

A They are undifferentiated cells that are present at birth.

B They differentiate to form skin cells.
C They divide by mitosis to supply some cells that can differentiate.
D They have the full number of chromosomes.

18 During prophase, a scientist stains the chromosomes of a diploid animal cell with a fluorescent
dye to stain telomeres. This cell has 32 chromosomes.

How many telomeres will the scientist observe?

A 32 B 64 C 96 D 128

19 The diagram shows the cell cycle.

During which phase do chromosomes condense and become visible?

cytokinesis

C A

20 What is correct for thymine?

joins its
has a single ring
is a pyrimidine complementary base
structure
with 3 hydrogen bonds

A    key
B    = correct
C    = incorrect
D   

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21 A short piece of DNA 15 base pairs long was analysed to find the number of nucleotide bases in
each of the polynucleotide strands. Some of the results are shown below.

number of nucleotide bases

A C G T
strand 1 6 3
strand 2 4

How many nucleotides containing guanine were present in strand 1?

A 2 B 3 C 4 D 6

15
22 Scientists grew bacteria in a medium containing heavy nitrogen, N, as the only source of
nitrogen.

After many generations, all of the bacterial DNA contained heavy nitrogen.

These bacteria were then moved from the heavy nitrogen medium into a medium with only light
nitrogen, 14N.

Some bacteria were collected from each of the next three generations and their DNA was
analysed.

Hybrid DNA contains both heavy and light nitrogen.

Which row shows the correct DNA of the first and third generations?

DNA of first generation DNA of third generation

A all hybrid half hybrid, half light

B all hybrid one quarter hybrid,

three quarters light
C half hybrid, half heavy half hybrid, one quarter
heavy, one quarter light
D half hybrid, half light one quarter hybrid,
three quarters light

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23 A population of bacteria is exposed to the antibiotic penicillin. Most of the bacteria die.

However, some bacteria in the population have an allele coding for an enzyme that breaks down
penicillin. These bacteria are able to survive.

Which could explain how these bacterial cells acquired this allele?

1 An error during DNA replication.

2 An error during transcription.
3 An error during translation.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

24 A dicotyledonous leaf has a palisade mesophyll layer that is approximately twice as thick as the
spongy mesophyll layer.

Which plan diagram is correct?

A B
upper surface upper surface
of leaf of leaf
xylem phloem

phloem xylem

C D
upper surface upper surface
of leaf of leaf
xylem phloem

phloem xylem

25 A number of processes contribute to maintaining a water potential gradient in plants allowing

water to reach the highest parts of a plant.

Which processes are responsible for maintaining this water potential gradient?

1 capillarity
2 osmosis
3 transpiration

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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26 What is a correct statement about the movement of substances absorbed by roots?

A Ions have to pass through cell walls to cross the endodermis.

B Ions move through the symplastic pathway only until they reach the Casparian strip.
C Soil water has a more negative water potential than the xylem sap.
D Water passes through the symplastic pathway along a water potential gradient.

27 Which arrangement of four molecules of water shows how water may cohere when moving up a
xylem vessel?

A B

key

oxygen atom

hydrogen atom

hydrogen bond

C D

28 Which statement about sucrose loading into companion cells and then into the phloem sieve tube
element is not correct?

A Hydrogen ions and sucrose molecules move into the companion cells using a carrier protein.
B Hydrogen ions are pumped out of the companion cells by active transport.
C Sucrose molecules are carried into the companion cells down the concentration gradient for
sucrose.
D Sucrose molecules move from a companion cell into the sieve tubes of the phloem through
plasmodesmata.

29 What explains why the left and right sides of the heart contract simultaneously?

A Both atria have a sinoatrial node.

B Both sides of the heart are supplied by the same coronary artery.
C Purkyne tissue links the two sides of the heart.
D There is no barrier to electrical excitation between two sides of the heart.

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30 The statements list some of the events in the cardiac cycle. They are not in the correct order.

1 The impulse travels through Purkyne tissue.

2 A wave of excitation sweeps across the atria.
3 The atrioventricular node delays the impulse for a fraction of a second.
4 The sinoatrial node contracts.
5 The wave of excitation sweeps upwards from the base of the ventricles.
6 The ventricles contract.
7 The atria contract.

Which statement describes the third of these events to occur in the cardiac cycle?

A 1 B 3 C 4 D 7

31 The diagram shows pressure changes in different parts of the heart during one cardiac cycle.

During which period are the semilunar valves open and the atrioventricular valves closed?

A B C D

pressure key
aortic pressure
ventricle pressure
atrial pressure

time

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32 Which diagram shows the events that occur during transport of carbon dioxide by the blood?

A B

CO2 CO2
tissue fluid tissue fluid
plasma plasma

CO2 + water CO2 + CO2 +

carbonic carbamino- haemoglobin water
anhydrase haemoglobin
carbonic
H+ + HCO3– H2CO3 CO2 + anhydrase
haemoglobin
H2CO3

carbamino-
haemoglobin H+ + HCO3–
red blood red blood
cell cell

C D

CO2 CO2
tissue fluid tissue fluid
plasma plasma

CO2 + CO2 + CO2 + CO2 +

water haemoglobin H2CO3
haemoglobin water
carbonic
anhydrase H+ +
carbamino- carbonic HCO3–
H+ + HCO3– H2CO3 carbamino- haemoglobin anhydrase
haemoglobin

red blood red blood

cell cell

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 16

33 Which structures are found in bronchi?

smooth muscle

A C
B
goblet
cartilage
D cells

34 Which tissue in the respiratory system is correctly linked to its function?

tissue function
A cartilage stretch and recoil to force air out
B ciliated epithelium gives protection from suspended particles in the air
C elastic fibres contract and relax to adjust diameter of bronchioles
D smooth muscle keeps trachea and bronchi open

35 Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes emphysema.

Which effects does emphysema have on gaseous exchange?

1 surface area to volume ratio of lungs decreases

2 distance of the diffusion pathway decreases
3 volume of oxygen diffused per unit time decreases

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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36 The diagram shows some of the pathogens that cause disease in humans and some of the ways
they are transmitted.

X
1 2 contaminated
bacterium protoctist water

pathogen method
of
transmission

3 Z Y
virus using a coughs and
vector sneezes

Which row matches the correct number for the pathogen with the correct letter for their mode of
transmission for cholera and measles?

cholera measles

A 1 and X 3 and Y
B 1 and Y 3 and Y
C 2 and X 2 and Z
D 3 and Z 1 and X

37 Which factors would increase the global distribution of malaria?

1 a fall in annual rainfall

2 an increase in the use of antibiotics
3 a rise in global air temperatures
4 increasing irrigation of land for farming

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 3 and 4 only

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38 The antibiotic teixobactin was discovered in January 2015. Teixobactin kills some bacteria such
as Staphylococcus and Mycobacterium.

Most antibiotics work by binding to proteins. Teixobactin binds to lipids that are used in the
synthesis of bacterial cell walls. This means that it is unlikely that bacteria will quickly develop
resistance to teixobactin.

Which statements explain why bacteria are unlikely to quickly develop resistance to teixobactin?

1 A mutation in the gene coding for a protein allows selection for resistance.
2 Teixobactin binds to a lipid rather than to a protein.
3 The structure of a lipid is not encoded by DNA.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

39 Which row correctly describes the type of immunity gained from being injected with an antitoxin?

active artificial passive natural

A     key
B      = correct
C      = not correct
D    

40 Where are antibodies found during an immune response?

on surface of in blood
pathogen plasma

A   key
B   = antibodies found
C   = antibodies not found
D  

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BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2020 9700/11/M/J/20

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 9700/11/M/J/20

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2020
1 hour

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*4216422056*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 06_9700_12/3RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
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1 What is the definition of the resolution of a light microscope?

A the degree of sharpness produced by the microscope

B the greatest distance between two objects visible in the same field of view
C the minimum distance that allows two objects to be viewed as separate
D the size of the smallest object visible using the microscope

2 The electron micrograph shows a type of virus at a magnification of ×30 000.

What is the length of the virus?

A 2.2 × 103 nm

B 2.2 × 102 nm

C 2.2 × 101 nm

D 2.2 × 100 nm

3 Which row correctly shows a feature of a cell structure?

site of protein
makes lysosomes
synthesis
A smooth endoplasmic rough endoplasmic
reticulum reticulum

B ribosomes Golgi body

C rough endoplasmic ribosomes
reticulum
Golgi body smooth endoplasmic
D
reticulum

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4 Four students were asked to match the function with the appearance of some cell structures in an
animal cell.

The functions were listed by a number.

1 organises microtubules to produce the spindle during cell division

2 synthesis of polypeptides
3 packaging of hydrolytic enzymes that will remain in the cell

The appearances were listed by a letter.

V membranes which surround an enclosed inner cavity

W non-membrane bound, spherical structures
X a double membrane with many pores
Y non-membrane bound, cylindrical structures
Z membrane-bound sacs, arranged as a flattened stack

Which student correctly matched the numbered function with the appearance of the cell
structure?

1 2 3

A W X Y
B W Z W
C Y W Z
D Y Z Z

5 The features of some cells and cell structures that make ATP are listed.

1 has outer boundary membrane and folded inner membrane

2 has peptidoglycan cell wall outside an outer boundary membrane
3 has a double boundary membrane and stacks of inner membranes

Which row identifies these components?

1 2 3

A bacterium chloroplast mitochondrion

B chloroplast bacterium mitochondrion
C chloroplast mitochondrion bacterium
D mitochondrion bacterium chloroplast

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6 Mitochondria are thought to have evolved from prokaryotic cells that were ingested by an
ancestral cell.

Which feature have these prokaryotes lost during their evolution into mitochondria?

A cell wall
B circular chromosome
C internal membranes
D ribosomes

7 A student carried out the Benedict’s test on a sample and got a negative result.

What should the student do to confirm there are no sugars present in the sample?

A boil the sample for 5 minutes then repeat the Benedict’s test
B boil with alkali, neutralise with hydrochloric acid and repeat the Benedict’s test
C boil with hydrochloric acid, neutralise with alkali and repeat the Benedict’s test
D repeat the Benedict’s test but add more Benedict’s reagent

8 The diagrams show three hexoses.

CH2OH CH2OH
O
C O C O
H H HOH2C OH H OH
H H
C C C C C C
OH H H OH OH H
HO OH H CH2OH HO H
C C C C C C
H OH OH H H OH
1 2 3

In which carbohydrates do these three hexoses occur?

sucrose cellulose glycogen

A 1 2 3
B 1 3 2
C 2 3 1
D 3 2 1

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9 The diagram shows part of the chemical structure of a naturally occurring polysaccharide.

COOH CH2OH COOH CH2OH

O O O O O O
OH O OH
HO HO HO
OH HN CH3 OH HN CH3

O O

What types of glycosidic bonds are present?

A α-1,3 and α-1,4

B α-1,4 and α-1,6

C β-1,3 and β-1,4

D β-1,4 and β-1,6

10 What is the maximum number of water molecules produced when a triglyceride is synthesised?

A 3 B 2 C 1 D 0

11 What occurs during the formation of a peptide bond between two amino acids?

A OH is removed from COOH and H is removed from an R group.

B OH is removed from COOH and H is removed from NH2.
C H is removed from COOH and OH is removed from an R group.
D O is removed from COOH and 2H is removed from NH2.

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12 The diagram represents roles of water in living organisms.

1
carries dissolved
substances

role of
water in living
organisms 2
3 provides a constant
temperature control environment for
due to evaporation aquatic organisms

Which roles are dependent upon hydrogen bonds between water molecules?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

13 The diagram shows a metabolic pathway.

enzyme 1 enzyme 2 enzyme 3

reactant substance X substance Y end product

What would be the effect of adding a small amount of a non-competitive inhibitor of enzyme 2?

A Enzyme 2 would be partially denatured.

B Substance X would increase in concentration.
C Substance Y would no longer be formed.
D The initial reactant would no longer be metabolised.

14 Two enzymes are added to a solution containing a low concentration of a substrate that they can
both use.

Which statement is correct?

A Both enzymes will use equal amounts of the substrate.

B Neither enzyme will be able to use the substrate.
C The enzyme with the lower Vmax will use less of the substrate than the other enzyme.
D The enzyme with the lower Vmax will use more of the substrate than the other enzyme.

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15 The diagram shows the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure.

Structures 1, 2, 3 and 4 are types of molecule.

2 3

Which types of molecules are always identical?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 only D 4 only

16 What is the role of G protein in cell signalling?

A to act as a membrane-bound enzyme

B to act as a switch releasing a second messenger
C to amplify the original signal
D to change the shape of the protein receptor

17 When a small quantity of phospholipid is added to a test-tube of water and then shaken
vigorously, an emulsion is formed by small droplets called liposomes.

Which diagram shows the arrangement of phospholipid molecules in a cross-section of a

liposome?

A B C D

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18 What are the features of facilitated diffusion?

1 It uses protein channels in the membrane and is driven by the energy from ATP.
2 It moves molecules from regions of higher concentration to lower concentration and
is driven by the kinetic energy of the molecules which are diffusing.
3 It uses protein channels in the membrane, and the maximum rate of diffusion
depends on the number of these channels.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

19 Which description of chromosome structure is correct?

A A chromosome at the beginning of interphase consists of two identical chromatids, each

containing one linear molecule of DNA.
B Telomeres are lengths of non-coding DNA found at one end of each chromatid to prevent
loss of genes during cell division.
C The two identical chromatids of a chromosome are held together by a centromere in which
there is no DNA.
D The very long DNA molecule of each chromatid is coiled and held together by proteins called
histones.

20 Which processes involve mitosis?

clonal selection forming cells at the

of T-lymphocytes tip of a growing root

B
A C

replacing skin cells

damaged by an injury

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21 A drug has been developed to treat certain types of cancer. It prevents mitosis by binding to the
spindle and preventing sister chromatids being separated and moving to opposite poles of the
cell.

The photomicrograph shows cells in different phases of mitosis.

3
4

What represents the stages of mitosis that will be able to occur in a cell which is entering
prophase when treated with this drug?

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 only D 3 and 4

22 Some viruses have single-stranded DNA as their genetic material. This DNA molecule has to be
folded to fit in the protein coat.

Which statements about single-stranded DNA are correct?

1 Single-stranded DNA cannot replicate semi-conservatively.

2 If only the percentage of cytosine is known, then the percentage of guanine can be
calculated, but the percentage of adenine and thymine cannot be calculated.
3 Hydrogen bonds may be present within the DNA molecule.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

23 How many statements are true for semi-conservative replication of DNA in a eukaryotic cell?

1 The process takes place in the nucleus.

2 Adenine will line up against uracil on the complementary strand.
3 Each new molecule will contain one strand of the original molecule.
4 If the original molecule contained 40% guanine each new molecule will contain 20%
guanine.

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

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24 Part of the nucleotide sequence of an mRNA molecule is shown, with spaces between the
codons.

CAG UAC AGC AAU CUA UAA

The translation of the codons is provided.

amino acid
codon
or STOP

AAU asn
AGC ser
CAG gln
CUA leu
UAA STOP
UAC tyr
UAU tyr

Which events will cause the termination of polypeptide synthesis during translation?

1 Deletion of C from the leu codon.

2 Deletion of C from the tyr codon.
3 The ribosome reaching the UAA codon.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

25 External factors change the rate of transpiration, which also affects the water potential gradient of
cells in the leaf.

Which combination is correct?

external factor changing the water potential gradient

rate of transpiration in the leaf

A decreasing temperature increases

B decreasing wind speed increases
C increasing relative humidity decreases
D increasing sunlight decreases

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26 The photomicrograph shows a transverse section through a leaf.

×50

Which features of a xerophytic leaf are visible in this section?

1 sunken stomata
2 two layers of epithelium
3 thick cuticle
4 small surface area to volume

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 3 and 4 only

27 Which changes occur as carbohydrates move out of a root cell into a phloem sieve tube?

water potential in a volume of liquid

phloem sieve tube in phloem
becomes sieve tube

A less negative decreases

B less negative increases
C more negative decreases
D more negative increases

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28 The photomicrograph shows three white blood cells labelled X, Y and Z.

Z
Y

Which row correctly identifies these cells?

cell X cell Y cell Z

A lymphocyte monocyte neutrophil

B lymphocyte neutrophil monocyte
C monocyte neutrophil lymphocyte
D neutrophil monocyte lymphocyte

29 The graph represents data on blood vessels and blood flow.

key
X
Y
Z

arteries small capillaries small veins

arteries veins

Which row correctly identifies the curves?

speed of pressure of total cross-

blood flow blood sectional area

A X Y Z
B X Z Y
C Y Z X
D Z X Y

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30 Which components of blood are present in lymph?

white blood sodium

proteins
cells ions

A    key
B    = present
C    = not present
D   

31 What correctly describes the significance of the increase of the red blood cell count of humans
who move from living at low altitude to high altitude?

A After a few weeks at high altitude, the number of red blood cells increases to compensate for
the lower availability of oxygen in the air.
B At high altitude, the bone marrow produces more red blood cells to provide binding sites for
the increased number of oxygen molecules available.
C At high concentrations of oxygen in the blood, a cytokine stimulates the production of red
blood cells to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
D After only a few days at high altitude the number of red blood cells increases considerably to
compensate for the lower availability of oxygen in the air.

32 Which structures of the human gas exchange system are supported by cartilage?

bronchus bronchiole trachea

A    key
B    = cartilage present
C    = cartilage not present
D   

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33 Carbon monoxide, nicotine and tar are components of tobacco smoke.

Which row correctly describes their effect on a smoker’s body?

carbon monoxide nicotine tar

A causes loss of consciousness increases the destroys cilia on cells
at very low concentrations diameter of lining the airways
blood vessels

B forms a stable increases blood stimulates goblet cells

compound with pressure to secrete mucus
haemoglobin

C forms increases the settles on cells

carbaminohaemoglobin diameter of the lining the airways
coronary artery

D forms decreases the contains carcinogens

carboxyhaemoglobin heart rate

34 Which statements about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are correct?

1 The disease can often be reversed by treatment.

2 The patient’s symptoms normally do not change.
3 The patient is normally over 30 years old.
4 The patient coughs frequently, producing a lot of mucus.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

35 Which of these causative agents of disease can be transmitted by droplet infection?

1 Vibrio
2 Mycobacterium
3 Morbillivirus

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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36 The table compares total antibiotic use (X) and the percentage of antibiotic-resistant pneumonia
cases (Y) in five countries.

(X) total antibiotic use (Y) percentage of

country / defined dose per 1000 penicillin-resistant
people per day pneumonia cases

Austria 13 10
Denmark 11 4
Iceland 17 15
Spain 30 50
USA 24 33

What is supported by the data?

A When X decreases there is an increase in Y.

B When X increases there is an increase in Y.
C When X increases it causes an increase in Y.
D There is no relationship between X and Y.

37 Which statement about the development of resistance to antibiotics in bacteria is correct?

A All mutations in bacteria result in resistance to antibiotics.

B Antibiotics increase the rate of mutation in bacteria.
C Mutations leading to antibiotic resistance only occur when antibiotics are used to treat
pathogenic bacteria.
D The proportion of antibiotic-resistant bacteria in a population only increases if the antibiotic is
used.

38 A blood cell count can indicate how many white blood cells there are in the blood.

Where else in the body are white blood cells found?

1 bone marrow
2 lymph
3 lungs

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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39 Myasthenia gravis is a disease that results from the immune system failing to distinguish between
self and non-self. Antibodies bind to a component of the junctions between a muscle and its
nerve.

What correctly describes Myasthenia gravis?

A Impulses in the nerve to the affected muscle cannot be blocked.

B The affected muscle cannot be repeatedly stimulated.
C The affected muscle is permanently stimulated.
D The nerve to the affected muscle does not carry any nerve impulses.

40 A monoclonal antibody, specific for a virus, was treated with an enzyme to break the bonds
between the variable and constant regions.

The separated variable and constant regions were then added to cells infected with the virus.

Which statements are correct?

1 The constant regions would bind to different parts of the virus antigens.
2 The viruses could be engulfed by phagocytes if they were present.
3 The variable regions would all bind to the same part of the virus antigens.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/M/J/20

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2020
1 hour

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*7008547425*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 06_9700_13/3RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
 2

1 A student was given a photomicrograph of a cell and told the magnification of the image.

The student was asked to calculate the actual size of the cell.

Which row in the table explains how to do this?

measure the convert to µm by rearrange the

image in multiplying by formula to

M
A cm 1.0 × 104
I
B cm 1.0 × 106 I×M

I
C mm 1.0 × 103
M
D mm 1.0 × 104 I×M

2 The electron micrograph shows part of a eukaryotic cell.

Which cell structure is a site of protein synthesis?

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 3

3 Some stains can be used to identify cell structures in living cells.

A dilute solution of one stain causes the whole cell to appear blue.

The blue colour rapidly disappears in most cell structures. Those cell structures that release
energy stay blue.

Which type of cell structure is likely to stay blue?

A endoplasmic reticulum
B Golgi body
C lysosome
D mitochondrion

4 A molecule of carbon dioxide is in the centre of a mitochondrion.

Assuming there are no other cell structures in its path, how many phospholipid layers will the
carbon dioxide molecule have to pass through in order to leave the cell?

A 2 B 3 C 6 D 8

5 Which row identifies the type of ribosome found in each of the different structures?

cytoplasm of
chloroplast prokaryotic cell mitochondrion
eukaryotic cell

A 70S 70S 80S 70S

B 70S 80S 70S 70S
C 80S 70S 80S 80S
D 80S 80S 70S 80S

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6 The colour of a positive Benedict’s test is due to the formation of copper oxide. The mass of
copper oxide is proportional to the mass of reducing sugar present.

Samples of fruit juice were tested for the presence of reducing sugars and non-reducing sugars
using the Benedict’s test.

The table shows the mass of copper oxide after boiling with Benedict’s solution and after acid
hydrolysis and boiling with Benedict’s solution.

Which sample contained the most non-reducing sugar?

mass of copper oxide / mg

after boiling with after acid hydrolysis and
Benedict’s solution boiling with Benedict’s solution

A 20 20
B 30 45
C 50 55
D 65 75

7 Which polysaccharides contain 1, 4 and 1, 6 glycosidic bonds?

1 amylopectin
2 amylose
3 cellulose
4 glycogen

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 4 only

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8 The diagram shows a small part of a polypeptide.

CH3 CH3
H O CH
H
CH N C CH
N C CH N C
H H
O CH CH3 O

CH2
CH3

What would the products be if the part shown was completely hydrolysed?

H O H O H O

A H N C C H N C C H N C C

H OH OH CH OH
CH CH3 CH3 CH3
CH2
CH3

H H O H H O H H O

B N C C N C C N C C

H H H H H H CH H
CH CH3 CH3 CH3
CH2
CH3
H O H O H O

C N C C N C C N C C

H H OH H OH H CH OH
CH CH3 CH3 CH3
CH2
CH3
H H O H H O H H O

D N C C N C C N C C

H H OH H OH H CH OH
CH CH3 CH3 CH3
CH2
CH3

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 6

9 The enzyme trypsin hydrolyses proteins to amino acids. Trypsin does not function when the pH is
very low as its 3D shape would be changed.

What explains this change in 3D shape?

A Hydrogen ions attach themselves to negatively charged R groups.

B Hydrogen ions disrupt disulfide bonds.
C Hydrogen ions increase hydrogen bonding between amino acids.
D Hydrogen ions reduce the affinity of hydrophilic R groups for water.

10 The flow chart shows some of the steps in the formation of collagen.

three polypeptide chains

held together by X bonds

triple helix

held together by intermolecular bonds

Which row correctly identifies X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A disulfide fibres fibrils

B hydrogen fibrils fibres
C hydrogen microfibrils fibres
D peptide and hydrogen fibres microfibrils

11 Which molecules contain at least two double bonds?

1 saturated fatty acid

2 collagen
3 haemoglobin

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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12 Two experiments, X and Y, were carried out using an enzyme from humans.

Experiment X was carried out at a constant temperature of 37 °C. During experiment Y, the
temperature was increased from 37 °C to 80 °C. All other factors were kept the same.

Which graph shows the results?

A B

X X

product product
concentration Y concentration

0 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes time / minutes

C D

X
Y
product X product
concentration concentration
Y

0 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes time / minutes

13 What affects the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction when in the presence of a

non-competitive inhibitor?

1 enzyme concentration
2 inhibitor concentration
3 substrate concentration

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

14 What describes the fluid-mosaic model of membrane structure?

A Cholesterol makes the membrane more fluid.

B Fluids can cross the membrane by diffusion or osmosis.
C Proteins act as receptors for cell signalling.
D Proteins and phospholipids move and change places.

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15 Blocks of agar are stained with a pH indicator and used to investigate the diffusion of an acid
solution.

Which block would completely change colour the fastest?

A 1mm × 1mm × 1 mm

B 1mm × 0.25mm × 0.25 mm

C 1mm × 0.5mm × 0.5 mm

D 2mm × 0.5mm × 0.5 mm

16 The diagram shows the water potential of three adjacent plant cells, P, Q and R.

–198 kPa Q

R –224 kPa

–212 kPa

Which shows the net movement of water between cells P, Q and R?

A P → Q and P → R and R → Q

B P → Q and P → R

C Q → P and Q → R and R → P

D Q → P and R → P

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17 Which row correctly describes parts of chromosome structure present during mitosis?

centromere chromatid telomere

A region of a single DNA region of DNA with
chromosome polynucleotide with many cytosine and
with no DNA histone proteins guanine bases

B region of non-coding DNA double-stranded region of DNA with

holding two DNA molecule with many short repeated
chromatids together histone proteins sequences of bases

C region of DNA with no DNA molecule coiled region of DNA with no

histone proteins that allows round histone proteins proteins that protects
separation of chromatids to form a chain of the end of a chromatid
during anaphase nucleosomes

D region that attaches one of two identical region of non-coding

to spindle microtubules DNA molecules that DNA holding the
and divides was replicated ends of the
during prophase during interphase chromatids together

18 The diagram shows the relative time taken for each stage in the cell cycle.

X
Y

Which row identifies the correct sequence of the stages in the cell cycle?

cytokinesis interphase mitosis

A X Y Z
B X Z Y
C Y Z X
D Z X Y

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19 Scientists have made a nucleic acid, HNA, that has a sugar with the same number of carbon
atoms as glucose instead of deoxyribose. Although genetic information can be stored by HNA,
naturally occurring DNA polymerase cannot replicate HNA.

Which statements could explain why naturally occurring DNA polymerase cannot replicate HNA?

1 DNA polymerase cannot form bonds between the sugars of two HNA nucleotides.
2 DNA polymerase cannot form hydrogen bonds between two HNA nucleotides.
3 HNA nucleotides do not fit into the active site of DNA polymerase.
4 The shape of an HNA nucleotide is slightly larger than that of a DNA nucleotide.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1 and 4 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 and 4 only

20 Which statements about the nucleotide containing uracil are correct?

1 Uracil is a pyrimidine.
2 The carbohydrate is always ribose.
3 Base pairing occurs with 3 hydrogen bonds.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

21 DNA replication involves several stages.

1 Each strand of DNA double helix acts as a template for the opposite strand.
2 The enzyme DNA polymerase links bases together.
3 Hydrogen bonds between bases A and T and between C and G are broken.

Which statements about DNA replication are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 3 only

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22 The sequence of bases in mRNA for the first eight amino acids in the β-polypeptide of adult
haemoglobin is:

GUG–CAC–CUG–ACU–CCU–GAG–GAG–AAG.

In haemoglobin C, which is a cause of haemolytic anaemia, the sequence is:

GUG–CAC–CUG–ACU–CCU–AAG–GAG–AAG.

The coding for seven of the amino acids is listed.

amino acid DNA triplet

glu CTC
his GTG
leu GAG
lys TTC
pro GGA
thr TGA
phe AAG

Which change occurs to the amino acid sequence of adult haemoglobin to make haemoglobin C?

A Histidine is changed to leucine.

B Proline is changed to threonine.
C Glutamic acid is changed to lysine.
D Leucine is changed to phenylalanine.

23 Some antibiotics kill prokaryotes by binding to RNA polymerase.

What effect will this have on protein synthesis?

A Codons on mRNA will be unable to hydrogen bond to complementary anticodons on tRNA.

B Condensation reactions joining RNA nucleotides will not take place to form mRNA.
C DNA will not unwind and unzip to allow for base pairing with RNA nucleotides.
D Free RNA nucleotides will not base pair to exposed bases on the DNA template strand.

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24 The diagrams show transverse sections through parts of plants.

Which of the labelled regions contains cells which are dead?

C
A
D

25 The diagram shows the distribution of tissues in part of a transverse section through a plant
organ.

2
3

Which row correctly identifies tissues 1, 2 and 3?

1 2 3

A cortex endodermis phloem

B cortex epidermis xylem
C endodermis epidermis pith
D pith endodermis phloem

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26 The circumference of a tree stem was measured continually for 48 hours.

The results are shown on the chart recording.

circumference
of tree stem

12 00 24 00 12 00 24 00 12 00
time of day

What explains the changes in circumference recorded during the 48 hours?

A Adhesion forces decrease during the night.

B Cohesive tension forces increase during the day.
C Mass flow of sucrose increases during the night.
D Root pressure decreases during the day.

27 Which description of movement in phloem is correct?

A Adding sucrose to a sieve tube element increases its water potential so that water enters and
increases the hydrostatic pressure.
B At a sink, such as a storage organ, sucrose is removed from a sieve tube element and
polymerised into starch.
C At a source, such as a photosynthesising leaf, sucrose enters a sieve tube element by
facilitated diffusion.
D At a source, sucrose is loaded into a companion cell using a protein that carries both
hydrogen ions and sucrose molecules.

© UCLES 2020 9700/13/M/J/20 [Turn over

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28 Which statements about blood vessels are correct?

1 Collagen fibres in the walls of arteries and veins prevent overstretching.

2 Elastic fibres in large arteries allow stretching during ventricular systole.
3 Smooth muscle in arteries controls the distribution of blood to different parts of the
body.
4 Veins have valves because their walls are thin.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 2 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only

29 The photomicrograph shows three white blood cells labelled X, Y and Z.

X
Z

Which row correctly identifies these cells?

cell X cell Y cell Z

A lymphocyte neutrophil monocyte

B lymphocyte monocyte neutrophil
C monocyte lymphocyte neutrophil
D neutrophil lymphocyte monocyte

30 The enzyme carbonic anhydrase catalyses the reaction:

CO2 + H2O → HCO3– + H+

Which statements describe the role of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase?

1 to speed up the decrease in pH of blood in the presence of carbon dioxide

2 to facilitate the Bohr effect in haemoglobin
3 to speed up the reaction between carbon dioxide and water

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 only C 2 only D 3 only

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31 The graph shows the oxygen dissociation curves of adult haemoglobin at two partial pressures of
carbon dioxide W and X.

100

80
curve X

60
percentage curve W
saturation of
haemoglobin
with oxygen
40

20

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
partial pressure of oxygen / kPa

Which pair of statements are correct?

1 Curve W shows the oxygen dissociation curve at a higher concentration of carbon

dioxide than curve X.
2 Curve X shows the oxygen dissociation curve at a higher concentration of carbon
dioxide than curve W.
3 At a partial pressure of oxygen of 7.0 kPa the haemoglobin from curve W has a
higher affinity for oxygen than haemoglobin from curve X.
4 At a partial pressure of oxygen of 7.0 kPa the haemoglobin from curve X has a
higher affinity for oxygen than haemoglobin from curve W.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

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32 A person has two blood tests one month apart. The number of each type of cell in a fixed sample
size is counted.

type of cell first test after one month

red blood cells normal higher

lymphocytes normal higher

What could this suggest about the person based on the results after one month?

body temperature moved to higher ATP synthesis

higher altitude in cells is higher

A no no yes
B no yes no
C yes no no
D yes yes yes

33 A student was asked to describe the differences between four microscope slides of sections
taken from different parts of the gas exchange system.

slide 1 not present: cartilage, glands

present: few goblet cells, ciliated epithelial cells, smooth muscle
slide 2 present: incomplete cartilage rings, glands, goblet cells, ciliated epithelial cells, smooth
muscle
slide 3 not present: cartilage, glands, goblet cells, smooth muscle
present: squamous epithelial cells
slide 4 present: plates of cartilage, glands, goblet cells, ciliated epithelial cells, smooth muscle

Which is the correct identification of the parts of the gas exchange system?

slide 1 slide 2 slide 3 slide 4

A alveolus bronchiole bronchus trachea

B bronchiole bronchus alveolus trachea
C bronchiole trachea alveolus bronchus
D bronchus trachea bronchiole alveolus

© UCLES 2020 9700/13/M/J/20

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34 Cigarette smoke contains carbon monoxide, nicotine and tar.

Which row correctly describes how these substances affect the body?

carbon monoxide nicotine tar

A stimulates stimulates the nervous leads to obstructive
nerve endings system to reduce the lung disease
diameter of the arteries
B forms increases the risk blocks goblet cells
carbaminohaemoglobin of blood clots
C causes increased combines with increases the risk
blood pressure haemoglobin of blood clots
D combines with stimulates carcinogenic
haemoglobin nerve endings

35 Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema.

In what order do these events occur as emphysema develops?

1 Macrophages move into alveolar air spaces.

2 Tar paralyses cilia.
3 Macrophages secrete elastase.
4 Bacteria accumulate in alveoli.

A 2→4→1→3

B 2→4→3→1

C 4→1→3→2

D 4→2→3→1

36 If someone smokes cigarettes, what will be the immediate result of this action on the red blood
cells?

A Carbon monoxide will combine with the globin in haemoglobin.

B Carbon monoxide replaces carbon dioxide in carbaminohaemoglobin.
C Less oxyhaemoglobin will form.
D More haemoglobinic acid will be formed.

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37 What is correct for tuberculosis (TB)?

airborne
transmission virus
A B C

rash

38 Some common antibiotics are listed. The action of each antibiotic is described.

1 rifampicin – inhibits RNA polymerase

2 streptomycin – inhibits 70S ribosomes
3 neomycin – inhibits DNA synthesis
4 ampicillin – inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis

Which of these antibiotics will affect the activities of bacterial cells only?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 2 and 4 only
D 4 only

39 Which method of gaining immunity can be described as natural active immunity?

A feeding on colostrum
B inhaling the chicken pox virus
C injection with antibodies
D through the placenta

40 Which statements correctly explain why smallpox has been eradicated, but not malaria or
cholera?

1 Cholera vaccines provide only short-term immunity.

2 Plasmodium antigens change during the life cycle.
3 Smallpox antigens remain stable.
4 Vaccines only work against viruses.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

© UCLES 2020 9700/13/M/J/20

 19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2020 9700/13/M/J/20

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 9700/13/M/J/20

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2020
1 hour

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*1346699030*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 11_9700_11/5RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
 2

1 Which row shows the correct order of size of these cell structures?

1 width of a mitochondrion
2 width of a ribosome
3 width of a cell surface membrane
4 width of a chloroplast

largest  smallest

A 1 4 2 3
B 1 4 3 2
C 4 1 2 3
D 4 2 1 3

© UCLES 2020 9700/11/O/N/20

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2 The diagram shows a stage micrometer scale viewed through an eyepiece containing a graticule.

The small divisions of the stage micrometer scale are 0.1 mm.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

The stage micrometer scale is replaced by a slide of a plant cell.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

What is the actual length of the nucleus in the plant cell?

A 8 m B 25 m C 200 m D 0.8 mm

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3 Insulin is a hormone synthesised from two polypeptide chains inside cells of the pancreas.

Which row shows the cell structures that are used in producing insulin and releasing it from the
cells?

rough
Golgi body lysosome endoplasmic
reticulum

A    key
B    = used
C    = not used
D   

4 The electron micrograph shows a cell structure in a eukaryotic cell.

Which statements about this cell structure are correct?

1 ATP is synthesised in this cell structure.

2 The cell structure is made of protein molecules.
3 The cell structure replicates during interphase of the cell cycle.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

© UCLES 2020 9700/11/O/N/20

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5 Four students were asked to match the function with the appearance of some cell structures in an
animal cell.

The functions were listed by number.

1 synthesis of polypeptides
2 synthesis of lipids
3 packaging of hydrolytic enzymes that will remain in the cell

The appearances were listed by letter.

V membranes which surround an enclosed inner cavity

W non-membrane-bound, spherical structures
X a double membrane interspersed with pores
Y non-membrane-bound, cylindrical structures
Z membrane-bound sacs, arranged as a flattened stack

Which student correctly matched the numbered function with the appearance of the cell
structure?

1 2 3

A W V Z
B W Z Y
C Z W Z
D Z V W

6 The DNA of typical prokaryotes is naked and circular.

Which statement describes how the DNA of eukaryotes differs from the DNA of typical
prokaryotes?

A Only DNA of eukaryotes has a nuclear envelope around it and is a double helix.
B Only DNA of eukaryotes has a nuclear envelope around it and is circular.
C Only DNA of eukaryotes has proteins attached to it and is a double helix.
D Only DNA of eukaryotes has proteins attached to it and is linear.

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7 A student carried out the Benedict’s test on two different types of milk, X and Y.

A sample of each type of milk was heated to 100 C in a water-bath with Benedict’s solution and
the time taken for the first appearance of a colour change was recorded.

The results are shown in the table.

time for first appearance

type of
of a colour change with
milk
Benedict’s solution / s

X 13
Y 26

Which row shows the biological molecule the student detected in each sample of milk and the
sample of milk with the highest concentration of this biological molecule?

biological sample of milk with the

molecule present in highest concentration of
each sample of milk this biological molecule

A glucose X
B glucose Y
C reducing sugar X
D reducing sugar Y

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8 The diagram shows the structure of a monomer.

CH2OH

O
H H
H
OH H
HO OH

H OH

Which molecules contain this monomer?

amylopectin

A C
B
glycogen D sucrose

9 Which molecules are formed by condensation which involves a carboxyl group?

A amylopectin, collagen, triglyceride, sucrose

B amylopectin, collagen, triglyceride

C amylopectin, -globin, sucrose

D collagen, -globin, triglyceride

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10 Which row correctly matches the function with the structural features of cellulose, collagen,
glycogen or triglyceride?

structure

molecules held
molecule function fibrous together by branched chains
hydrogen bonds

A cellulose support   
triglyceride energy source   
B collagen strengthening   
cellulose support   
C collagen strengthening   
glycogen storage   
D glycogen storage   
triglyceride energy source   

key = correct = not correct

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11 The diagram shows the amino acids in a polypeptide.

key
type of amino acid
polar basic

polar acidic
Asp
Arg Lys polar
Cys Thr
Lys Leu non-polar
Pro Asn
Arg
Val
Ser
Asn Glu
Lys
Thr Arg Phe
Met
Gln Lys
Phe Met
His Ala
Val Gln
Met Ala
His Asn
Asp Ala
Glu
Cys Thr
Ser
C terminal end Tyr
Ser Glu
Asn
Lys
Ser Thr
Ser Ser N terminal end
Ser Ala
Ala

An enzyme catalyses the hydrolysis of any peptide bond between a non-polar amino acid
and any polar amino acid.

How many small peptides and single amino acids will be formed by the action of this enzyme?

small single
peptides amino acids

A 6 1
B 8 1
C 12 3
D 13 4

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12 Which properties of water reduce temperature changes inside cells?

1 cohesion
2 latent heat of vaporisation
3 specific heat capacity

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

13 Which enzyme is extracellular?

A Amylase in saliva is an enzyme that catalyses the breakdown of starch in the mouth.
B ATP synthetase is an enzyme found in mitochondria that synthesises ATP.
C DNA polymerase is an enzyme that helps build DNA molecules by assembling nucleotides.
D RNA polymerase is an enzyme involved in the process of gene transcription.

14 The graph shows how the concentration of components of an enzyme-catalysed reaction

changes with time.

Which line represents enzymes with empty active sites?

concentration

B
C
D
time

15 Which effects can non-competitive inhibitors have on enzyme-controlled reactions?

1 lower the Km value

2 reduce the concentration of the product
3 reduce the rate of a metabolic pathway

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

16 Which processes can allow transport into or out of a cell?

1 active transport
2 facilitated diffusion
3 osmosis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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17 Plant cells were put into one of three different concentrations of sugar solution, 10%, 5% and
2.5%.

The cells were left for 50 minutes and then observed using a light microscope.

cell X cell Y cell Z

vacuole

Which statements are correct?

1 Cell Y had a lower water potential than the sugar solution it was put into.
2 Cell Z was put into the 10% sugar solution.
3 Cell Z had a less negative water potential than the sugar solution it was put into.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

18 During telophase of mitosis, a scientist stains the chromosomes of a diploid animal cell with a
fluorescent dye to observe the telomeres.

This cell has 22 chromosomes.

How many telomeres will the scientist observe in one of the nuclei?

A 22 B 44 C 66 D 88

19 Methotrexate is a drug used to treat cancer. It can act as an enzyme inhibitor preventing the
synthesis of nucleotides containing thymine.

Cells treated with methotrexate are not able to complete the cell cycle.

A cell entering telophase is treated with methotrexate.

Which stage of the cell cycle will be affected by the action of methotrexate?

A anaphase
B interphase
C metaphase
D prophase

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20 Which stage of mitosis is correctly described?

A In anaphase chromosomes line up across the equator.

B In metaphase the centrosomes replicate.
C In prophase chromatids move to opposite poles.
D In telophase chromosomes uncoil to form chromatin.

21 The diagram represents a nucleotide containing cytosine.

base

Which statements about this nucleotide are correct?

1 The carbohydrate could be ribose.

2 The organic base contains nitrogen.
3 Base pairing occurs with guanine.
4 Cytosine is a purine.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

22 A section of DNA contains 73 base pairs.

number of bases on each strand

adenine cytosine guanine thymine

strand 1 29 V 14 W
strand 2 21 X Y Z

Which row represents the correct number of bases?

V W X Y Z

A 9 21 14 9 29
B 14 29 9 9 21
C 21 9 29 9 14
D 29 9 29 14 9

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23 The photograph shows a section of a stem.

Which labelled part is the xylem?

B
A

24 Some fungi cause wilting in crop plants by growing within the xylem vessel elements.

Which process will be directly affected by these fungi?

A cohesion between water molecules

B development of root pressure
C mass flow during movement of assimilates
D uptake of water by root hair cells

25 Which features have a role in the transport of water in xylem vessel elements?

1 capillary action
2 adhesion
3 hydrogen bonding

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2020 9700/11/O/N/20 [Turn over

 14

26 The loading of sucrose into companion cells involves a number of processes.

Which process is active?

A the movement of hydrogen ions into the cytoplasm of companion cells

B the movement of hydrogen ions out of the cytoplasm of companion cells
C the movement of sucrose into companion cells
D the movement of sucrose out of companion cells

27 The statements describe events that occur during the movement of sucrose.

1 Hydrostatic pressure is decreased.

2 Hydrostatic pressure is increased.
3 Sucrose is loaded into the phloem vessel.
4 Sucrose is unloaded from the phloem vessel.
5 Water moves by osmosis into the phloem.
6 Water moves by osmosis out of the phloem.
7 Water potential decreases in the phloem.
8 Water potential increases in the phloem.

Which sequence correctly describes what happens in a plant at a source during the movement of
sucrose?

A 3752

B 3861

C 4752

D 4861

28 Which are present in the walls of capillaries?

smooth collagen
endothelium elastic tissue
muscle fibres

A     key
B     = present
C     = not present
D    

© UCLES 2020 9700/11/O/N/20

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29 The photomicrograph shows three white blood cells labelled X, Y and Z.

Y
X

Which row correctly identifies these cells?

cell X cell Y cell Z

A lymphocyte monocyte neutrophil

B lymphocyte neutrophil monocyte
C monocyte neutrophil lymphocyte
D neutrophil monocyte lymphocyte

30 Which sequence of letters correctly identifies the order of events during the cardiac cycle?

T atrial walls contract

U impulse is delayed a fraction of a second
V wave of excitation enters the atrioventricular node
W wave of excitation passes down the Purkyne tissue
X wave of excitation spreads from the sinoatrial node
Y ventricles contract

A B C D

V W X X
T U V U Y T Y V

X W T Y W U W T
Y X V U

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 16

31 The graph shows the effect of three different partial pressures of carbon dioxide on the oxygen
dissociation curve for human haemoglobin.

100

X partial pressure of
Y carbon dioxide
percentage Z
saturation of X = 3.0 kPa
haemoglobin
with oxygen Y = 5.0 kPa

Z = 7.0 kPa

0
0 12

partial pressure of oxygen / kPa

What effect does decreasing the partial pressure of carbon dioxide have on haemoglobin?

A It is less efficient at taking up oxygen and less efficient at releasing oxygen.

B It is less efficient at taking up oxygen and more efficient at releasing oxygen.
C It is more efficient at taking up oxygen and less efficient at releasing oxygen.
D It is more efficient at taking up oxygen and more efficient at releasing oxygen.

32 What is correct about the transport of carbon dioxide by blood?

1 The enzyme carbonic anhydrase catalyses the formation of carbonic acid in red
blood cells.
2 Carbon dioxide diffuses from active cells to red blood cells and reacts with water.
3 Carbonic acid dissociates forming hydrogen ions that combine with haemoglobin to
form carbaminohaemoglobin.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

33 Which statements about all bronchioles are correct?

1 they have goblet cells

2 they have ciliated cells
3 they have muscle tissue

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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34 The graph shows the volume of air breathed out quickly and with force, following a deep breath
in, for three different people, X, Y and Z.

5 X

4 Y

volume of 3
air breathed
out / dm3 2
Z
1

0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / s

What is a possible explanation for the differences in the volume of air breathed out by these
people shown?

chronic bronchitis emphysema normal lung function

A X Z Y
B Y X Z
C Y Z X
D Z Y X

35 The diagrams show some of the pathogens that cause disease in humans and some of the ways
they are transmitted.

1 2 W
bacterium protoctist contaminated water

pathogens
method of
transmission

3 Y X
Morbillivirus contaminated coughs and
food sneezes

What is the correct pathogen and method of transmission for the disease TB?

A 1 and W B 1 and X C 2 and X D 3 and Y

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 18

36 The proportion of the local population who have malaria in area R is higher than the proportion in
area S.

Which factor causes this difference?

A Area R has a more humid climate than area S.

B Area R is nearer the equator than area S.
C There is a higher population in area R than area S.
D There is less sewage treatment in area R than area S.

37 Species X is a single-celled eukaryote.

Species X has been genetically modified to produce penicillin, which does not harm the cell walls
of species X.

What may be concluded from this information?

1 The cell walls of species X are chemically different from those of bacteria.
2 The cell walls of species X are made of peptidoglycan.
3 The cell walls of species X are made of cellulose.

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 only D 3 only

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38 When exposed to an antigen for a second time, memory cells stimulate a secondary immune
response.

Which correctly shows the secondary immune response?

memory cell

A B C D

secretes divides into divides into secretes

antibodies plasma cells plasma cells and antibodies and
memory cells divides into
memory cells

39 Monoclonal antibodies are produced for use in diagnosis or treatment of disease. To obtain the
antibodies for an antigen, a mouse is injected with the antigen.

Some of the events in the production of the monoclonal antibody are listed.

1 Plasma cells are fused with cancer cells to form a hybridoma.

2 Hybridomas that secrete the required antibody are identified and cloned.
3 B-lymphocytes that recognise the antigen multiply and become plasma cells.
4 Hybridomas divide by mitosis and secrete antibodies.
5 Plasma cells are removed from the mouse spleen.

What is the sequence of the first four events in the production of the monoclonal antibody?

A 3512

B 3514

C 5124

D 5142

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 20

40 Which row describes passive immunity?

involves an memory
triggered by permanent
immune cells
an antigen protection
response produced

A     key
B     = correct
C     = not correct
D    

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 9700/11/O/N/20

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2020
1 hour

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*9497169310*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 11_9700_12/5RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
 2

1 The size of the measles virus, Morbillivirus, is approximately 150 nm.

The Mimivirus is approximately 4.5 times larger than Morbillivirus, whilst the Pandoravirus is
approximately 1.5 times larger than the Mimivirus.

Which viruses can be seen using a light microscope with a maximum resolution of 0.25 m and
using an electron microscope?

Morbillivirus Mimivirus Pandoravirus

A    key
B    = can be seen
C    = cannot be seen
D   

2 The electron micrograph shows a type of virus at a magnification of 60 000.

What is the actual length of the virus?

A 1.1 nm B 11 nm C 110 nm D 1100 nm

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/O/N/20

 3

3 The electron micrograph shows a structure found in the cytoplasm of an animal cell.

Which biological molecules are found in this structure?

1 nucleic acid
2 protein
3 phospholipid

A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

4 Four students were asked to match the function with the appearance of some cell structures in an
animal cell.

The functions were listed by number.

1 mRNA passes through to the ribosome

2 synthesis of lipids
3 packaging of hydrolytic enzymes that will remain in the cell

The appearances were listed by letter.

V membranes which surround an enclosed inner cavity

W non-membrane-bound, spherical structures
X a double membrane interspersed with pores
Y non-membrane-bound, cylindrical structures
Z membrane-bound sacs, arranged as a flattened stack

Which student correctly matched the numbered function with the appearance of the cell
structure?

1 2 3

A V W Z
B V Z Y
C X V W
D X V Z

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 4

5 Which are found in typical prokaryotic cells and in typical plant cells?

1 cell wall
2 circular DNA
3 cytoplasm

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

6 The diagram shows some features that occur in organisms.

4 1
RNA DNA

feature

3 2
70S protein
ribosomes

Which features can be present in viruses?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

7 Diastase is an enzyme that breaks down starch into maltose. Maltose is a reducing sugar.

A sample of starch is treated with boiled diastase and left for 15 minutes.

Samples of the mixture are then tested with iodine solution and with Benedict’s reagent.

What are the results?

iodine solution Benedict’s reagent

A blue-black blue
B blue-black red
C brown blue
D brown red

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/O/N/20

 5

8 Which pair of monosaccharides forms sucrose?

CH2OH CH2OH
H O H H O OH
H H
A
OH H OH H
OH OH OH H
H OH H OH

CH2OH CH2OH
H O H H O H
H H
B
OH H OH H
OH OH OH OH
H OH H OH

CH2OH
HOCH2 O OH
H O H
H OH
C H
CH2OH
OH H H
OH OH
OH H
H OH

CH2OH
HOCH2 O OH
H O OH
H OH
D H
CH2OH
OH H H
OH H OH H
H OH

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 6

9 The diagram shows the structures of two amino acids.

1 2 4 5
H2N CH COOH H2 N CH COOH

CH2 CH2 6

OH
3

OH
7

These amino acids will form part of a protein that has a tertiary structure.

Which numbered groups could form hydrogen bonds to maintain the tertiary structure of the
protein?

A 1 and 6 B 2 and 4 C 3 and 5 D 3 and 7

10 Which row about the structure of proteins is correct?

primary structure tertiary structure quaternary structure

A is the number is the result of cross is the polypeptides

of amino acids bonding between that link together
present in a protein all the amino acids in to form a protein
the primary structure

B is the order of is the shape formed contains two types

amino acids present by folding of a of polypeptide that
in a protein polypeptide and interact forming the
encoded by DNA held together by shape of a protein
hydrogen bonds

C is the result of is the result of ionic is formed by four

translation of an and hydrogen bonds, polypeptides and
mRNA molecule by disulfide bridges an additional
a ribosome into a and hydrophobic reactive group
chain of amino acids interactions between attached to the
amino acids protein

D is the sequence is formed as a result is formed by the

of amino acids in of interaction of the linking together
a protein coded by side chains of of more than one
an mRNA molecule amino acids in the polypeptide to
primary structure form a protein

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/O/N/20

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11 Which row correctly identifies structural features of a collagen molecule and a haemoglobin
molecule?

molecule consists of
globular protein
more than one polypeptide

A collagen and haemoglobin collagen and haemoglobin

B collagen and haemoglobin haemoglobin only
C haemoglobin only collagen and haemoglobin
D haemoglobin only haemoglobin only

12 Which statements describe some enzyme actions?

1 Enzymes hold reacting molecules so that their reactive groups are close together.
2 In an enzyme-catalysed reaction, more molecules have sufficient energy to react
than in the absence of the enzyme.
3 Reactions catalysed by enzymes take place at a lower temperature than they would
without the enzyme.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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13 Lipase is an enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of lipids. An experiment was carried out to
investigate changes in pH when lipase is added to a food sample containing a high proportion of
lipids.

The results are shown in the graph.

pH of
food 7
sample

6
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55 60
time / minutes

Which statements are possible explanations of the results of the experiment between 50 minutes
and 60 minutes?

1 Enzyme concentration becomes the limiting factor.

2 Substrate concentration becomes the limiting factor.
3 All the enzyme active sites are occupied.
4 Denaturation of the enzyme by the products takes place.
5 Products are acting as competitive inhibitors.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 4 and 5 C 2, 3 and 4 D 2, 4 and 5

14 The painkiller ibuprofen reduces the activity of an enzyme involved in the production of
prostaglandin.

Ibuprofen binds reversibly to the active site of the enzyme.

Which type of enzyme inhibition describes this example and why?

A competitive inhibition because ibuprofen alters the shape of the enzyme

B competitive inhibition because ibuprofen and the substrate cannot bind at the same time
C non-competitive inhibition because ibuprofen blocks the active site
D non-competitive inhibition because ibuprofen has the same shape as the substrate

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15 Equal-sized potato pieces were placed into test-tubes containing equal volumes of different
concentrations of sucrose solution and left for 30 minutes. All other variables were controlled.

After 30 minutes, the potato piece in one of the concentrations of sucrose solution had not
changed in size.

What can be concluded from the result for this potato piece?

1 The concentration of sucrose in the potato is the same as the concentration of the
sucrose solution.
2 The water potential of the potato is the same as the water potential of the sucrose
solution.
3 There is no more movement of water into or out of the potato.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

16 Four agar blocks are stained green using universal indicator and suspended in 1 mol dm–3
hydrochloric acid.

beaker

hydrochloric acid

agar block

The time taken for the agar blocks to change from green to red was recorded.

Which agar block would be the first to become completely red?

A 2 cm  2 cm  2 cm

B 2 cm  1 cm  4 cm

C 2 cm  3 cm  2 cm

D 5 cm  2 cm  3 cm

17 During the cell cycle, the mass of DNA in a cell is doubled.

At which stage in the cell cycle is the mass of DNA in a cell reduced?

A anaphase
B cytokinesis
C interphase
D prophase

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18 How many of the listed structures typically contain genetic material that has telomeres?

 bacterial cell

 chloroplast

 mitochondrion

 nucleus

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

19 In eukaryotes, the chromosomes become shorter and thicker during mitosis. The thickening may
be increased by molecules called protamines. The protamines replace part of the structure of the
chromosome.

Which part of the chromosome is replaced by protamines?

A centromeres
B chromatids
C histones
D telomeres

20 How many hydrogen bonds are holding the two strands of this section of a DNA molecule
together?

A A G T G C T G A A G T G T T T
T T C A C G A C T T C A C A A A

A 16 B 32 C 38 D 48

21 Which description of a eukaryotic gene is correct?

A a sequence of bases that forms part of a DNA molecule and codes for a protein
B a sequence of nucleotides that forms part of a DNA molecule and codes for a polypeptide
C a sequence of bases that forms part of an RNA molecule and codes for a protein
D a sequence of nucleotides that forms part of an RNA molecule and codes for a polypeptide

22 The DNA sequence CCAAGAAGTCGACAAACA is translated to synthesise the amino acid chain
gly-ser-ser-ala-val-cys.

As a result of a mutation, the sequence length of the amino acid chain is shortened from six to
two amino acids. A stop codon in mRNA is UGA.

Which base in the DNA sequence was changed by the mutation?

A A B C C G D T

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23 Which combination of features is correct for a phloem sieve tube element as it unloads into a
sink?

water potential lignified cell wall

A higher than sink absent

B higher than sink present
C lower than sink absent
D lower than sink present

24 Mass flow is the bulk movement of materials from one place to another.

Which vessels carry fluids by mass flow?

1 artery
2 phloem sieve tube
3 vein
4 xylem vessel

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 only

25 Which two rows are correct for the movement of water from the soil into a root?

soil root

1 lower solute concentration higher solute concentration

2 higher water potential lower water potential
3 higher solute concentration lower solute concentration
4 lower water potential higher water potential

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

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26 ATP is used in companion cells to provide the energy for loading a sieve tube element with
sucrose.

How does the co-transporter mechanism use this energy?

A to pump hydrogen ions into the sieve tube element

B to pump hydrogen ions out of the companion cell
C to pump sucrose into the sieve tube element
D to pump sucrose out of the companion cell

27 Why is the mammalian circulatory system described as a double circulation?

A Blood flows twice through the heart in one complete cardiac cycle.
B Blood flows twice through the heart in one complete circuit of the body.
C Blood remains within arteries, capillaries and veins.
D Blood transports both oxygen and carbon dioxide.

28 Which sequence of letters correctly identifies the order of events during the cardiac cycle?

T atrial walls contract

U impulse is delayed a fraction of a second
V wave of excitation enters the atrioventricular node
W wave of excitation passes down the Purkyne tissue
X wave of excitation spreads from the sinoatrial node
Y ventricles contract

A B C D

V X V X
Y W T U T U Y V

X U W V X W W T
T Y Y U

29 Which factors affect blood pressure?

1 the diameter of the blood vessels

2 the systolic pressure of the heart ventricles
3 the volume of blood returning to the heart in each cardiac cycle

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/O/N/20

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30 The diagram is a summary of the role of haemoglobin in the transport of carbon dioxide.

1 3
CO2 in plasma CO2 + 2 4

5
9 6 + 7

8 Cl – Cl – in plasma
O2 in plasma 4O2 11
1
10
CO2 in plasma
12

Which set of labels is correct?

A 1 = facilitated diffusion, 4 = carbonic acid, 7 = hydrogencarbonate ions

B 2 = water, 8 = dissociation, 10 = carbaminohaemoglobin
C 3 = carbonic anhydrase, 9 = oxyhaemoglobin, 11 = carbaminohaemoglobin
D 5 = carbonic anhydrase, 6 = hydrogen ions, 12 = red blood cell

31 The graph shows the oxygen dissociation curves of haemoglobin from two species of
mammal, S and T.

percentage
saturation of
haemoglobin
with oxygen T

0
0
partial pressure
of oxygen / kPa

Which statements could explain the difference in the oxygen dissociation curves of species S and
species T?

1 Species T has a lower haemoglobin concentration in its red blood cells than
species S.

2 The haemoglobin in species T has a lower affinity for oxygen than the haemoglobin
in species S.

3 Species T lives at higher altitudes than species S.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 only D 3 only

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/O/N/20 [Turn over

 14

32 Which are present in bronchioles?

1 endothelium
2 ciliated cells
3 smooth muscle tissue

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

33 The partial pressure of oxygen in air inside alveoli is 14 kPa.

The partial pressure of oxygen in pulmonary capillaries is 6 kPa.

What will be the effect of these partial pressures on diffusion?

A Carbon dioxide will not diffuse in any direction.

B Oxygen will diffuse from alveoli into capillaries.
C Oxygen will diffuse from capillaries into alveoli.
D Oxygen will diffuse equally in both directions.

34 Which can be directly linked to a reduction in the surface area available for gas exchange in
human lungs?

1 emphysema
2 lung cancer
3 smoking tobacco

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

35 Which row is correct about the affinity between haemoglobin and the gases carbon dioxide,
carbon monoxide and oxygen?

highest affinity lowest affinity

A carbon monoxide carbon dioxide oxygen

B carbon monoxide oxygen carbon dioxide
C oxygen carbon dioxide carbon monoxide
D oxygen carbon monoxide carbon dioxide

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/O/N/20

 15

36 An earthquake caused damage to sanitation systems in a large tropical village.

Drinking water became contaminated with sewage. Heavy rain then caused flooding and left
large pools of water in the village. Housing was destroyed and people in the village had to live in
very overcrowded conditions.

Which infectious diseases could increase in the village population as a result of the earthquake
and heavy rain?

1 cholera
2 malaria
3 tuberculosis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

37 Which statements about the use of antibiotics could cause an increase in antibiotic-resistant
bacteria?

1 Patients do not always complete the course of antibiotics.

2 Patients keep unused antibiotics from previous prescriptions and take them at a
later date in smaller doses than prescribed.
3 Antibiotics are used in farming to prevent infections.
4 Doctors prescribe narrow spectrum antibiotics that only kill a few types of bacteria.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

38 Which row is correct for neutrophils and B-lymphocytes?

neutrophil B-lymphocyte

A can change shape activated by contact with antigens

B found in organs rather than in blood kill virus-infected cells
C may be long-lived cells always short-lived cells
D their lysosomal enzymes digest bacteria secrete cytokines

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/O/N/20 [Turn over

 16

39 Rabies is usually a fatal disease. Rabies is transmitted to people in the saliva of infected animals.

A person who has been bitten by an infected animal needs immediate treatment.

The treatment is a vaccination against rabies and an injection containing antibodies to the rabies
antigen.

What type of immunity is given by the injection of antibodies?

A artificial active
B artificial passive
C natural active
D natural passive

40 A graft of tissue, such as skin, from a different person is usually rejected by the body.

Which statement about graft rejection is correct?

A The graft is rejected by B-lymphocytes because they make and release antibodies which
react with the surface antigens on the graft cells.
B The graft is rejected by B-lymphocytes because T-lymphocytes are not stimulated to produce
antibodies.
C The graft is rejected by T-lymphocytes because the graft tissue causes T-lymphocytes to
release antibodies.
D The graft is rejected by T-lymphocytes because they circulate in the blood and can gather at
the graft site.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 9700/12/O/N/20

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2020
1 hour

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*8216609634*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

IB20 11_9700_13/3RP
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
 2

1 What are the appropriate units for measuring diameters of alveoli, diameters of white blood cells
and the width of cell walls?

diameters of diameters of width of

alveoli white blood cells cell walls

A mm mm nm
B mm m m
C m mm m
D m m nm

2 The actual diameter of a prokaryotic cell is 0.5 m. An electron micrograph of the cell has a
magnification of 50 000.

What is the diameter of the cell in the image?

A 2.5  10–1 mm

B 2.5  100 mm

C 2.5  101 mm

D 2.5  102 mm

© UCLES 2020 9700/13/O/N/20

 3

3 The electron micrograph shows some cell structures.

Some cell structures are listed.

1 nucleolus
2 chloroplast
3 microtubules
4 ribosomes
5 mitochondria
6 plasmodesmata

Which cell structures can be seen in the electron micrograph?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1, 4, 5 and 6 C 2, 3, 5 and 6 D 2, 4, 5 and 6

4 Which part of the cell is often continuous with the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A cell surface membrane

B Golgi body
C mitochondrion
D nuclear envelope

© UCLES 2020 9700/13/O/N/20 [Turn over

 4

5 Which statements about ATP are correct?

1 It is produced in chloroplasts.
2 It is used during protein synthesis.
3 It contains deoxyribose.
4 It is used in facilitated diffusion.
5 It is used to load sucrose into companion cells.

A 1, 2 and 5 B 1, 3 and 5 C 2, 3, 4 and 5 D 2 and 4 only

6 Four students were asked to match the function with the appearance of some cell structures in an
animal cell.

The functions were listed by number.

1 mRNA passes through to the ribosome

2 organises microtubules to produce the spindle during cell division
3 synthesis of lipids

The appearances were listed by letter.

V membranes which surround an enclosed inner cavity

W non-membrane-bound, spherical structures
X a double membrane with pores
Y non-membrane-bound, cylindrical structures
Z membrane-bound sacs, arranged as a flattened stack

Which student correctly matched the numbered functions with the appearance of the cell
structure?

1 2 3

A V W Z
B V Y W
C X W V
D X Y V

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7 A student carried out tests for biological molecules on the same sample of milk.

The tests and their results were as follows.

● Heating to 80 C with Benedict’s solution gave a red colour.

● Boiling with acid, followed by neutralisation, then heating to 80 C with Benedict’s

solution also gave a red colour.

● Adding Biuret solution gave a purple colour.

● Adding iodine solution gave a yellow colour.
Which biological molecules must be present in the milk?

1 non-reducing sugars
2 protein
3 reducing sugars
4 starch

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 and 4

8 Which row is correct for carbohydrates?

monomer polymer macromolecule

A fructose amylose cellulose

B glucose deoxyribose amylopectin
C monosaccharide glycogen deoxyribose
D sucrose starch glycogen

9 Which molecules contain 1,6 glycosidic bonds?

1 amylopectin
2 glycogen
3 starch

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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10 Which row correctly shows the ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms for glucose, a saturated
fatty acid and sucrose?

ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms

saturated fatty
glucose sucrose
acid

A 1:2 1:2 1 : 1.8

B 1:2 4:1 1:2
C 2:1 1:4 2:1
D 2:1 2:1 1.8 : 1

11 Which row shows a correct comparison between a phospholipid molecule and a triglyceride
molecule?

phospholipid molecule triglyceride molecule

A contains a hydrophobic phosphate group is a hydrophobic molecule

B contains one glycerol molecule contains three glycerol molecules
C fewer ester bonds more ester bonds
D more fatty acids fewer fatty acids

12 Adult human haemoglobin typically consists of two  chains and two  chains.

Approximately 5% of humans have one amino acid in the  chain that has been changed. This
change affects the structure and stability of haemoglobin.

Which levels of protein structure could be affected in the haemoglobin of the humans with the
changed amino acid?

A primary only
B primary and quaternary only
C secondary, tertiary and quaternary only
D primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary

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13 Lysozyme occurs in human tears, saliva, milk and mucus.

Lysozyme has a role in the immune system and hydrolyses peptidoglycan.

Which description of lysozyme is correct?

A It is an extracellular antibody.
B It is an intracellular antibody.
C It is an extracellular antibacterial protein.
D It is an intracellular antibacterial protein.

14 Which letter in the flow diagram shows the effect of adding a competitive inhibitor to an
enzyme-catalysed reaction?

is a reversible reaction

yes no

affects the Vmax value affects the Km value

of the enzyme of the enzyme

yes no yes no

A B C D

15 The cell surface membrane structure is described as a ‘fluid mosaic’.

Which statement describes the ‘mosaic’ part of the cell surface membrane?

A the different patterns that are obtained by the moving phospholipid molecules
B the random distribution of cholesterol molecules within the phospholipid bilayer
C the regular pattern produced by the phospholipid heads and membrane proteins
D the scattering of the different proteins within the phospholipid bilayer

16 Solute X is at a higher concentration outside a cell than in the cytoplasm.

Which processes may allow solute X to be moved through the cell surface membrane?

A active transport, diffusion and facilitated diffusion

B active transport, diffusion and osmosis
C diffusion, facilitated diffusion and osmosis
D exocytosis, facilitated diffusion and osmosis

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17 Three molecules found in prokaryotes are listed.

1 phospholipid
2 protein
3 peptidoglycan

Which molecules are found in prokaryotic cell surface membranes?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

18 What happens to the surface area to volume ratio of a cube when the length of each side is
doubled?

A The ratio decreases by a quarter.

B The ratio decreases by half.
C The ratio doubles.
D The ratio increases by four times.

19 Three parts of a chromosome and their functions are listed.

part function

p1 centromere f1 holds the coils of DNA together

p2 histone proteins f2 holds two chromatids together
p3 telomere f3 prevents loss of genes

Which part is matched with its correct function?

A p1 and f2 B p2 and f2 C p2 and f3 D p3 and f1

20 Which features of mitosis are important for a single-celled organism?

1 asexual reproduction
2 production of genetically identical cells
3 growth

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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21 Some events in the cell cycle are listed.

Which events are part of mitosis?

1 interphase
2 metaphase
3 cytokinesis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 only

22 Which row represents the correct features of guanine?

joins its
has a
complementary pairs with
single ring is a purine
base via three thymine
structure
hydrogen bonds

A     key
B      = correct
C      = not correct
D    

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15
23 Bacteria were grown in a medium containing N. After several generations, all of the DNA
contained 15N.

Some of these bacteria were transferred to a medium containing the common isotope of nitrogen,
14
N. The bacteria were allowed to divide once. The DNA of some of these bacteria was extracted
and analysed. This DNA was all hybrid DNA containing equal amounts of 14N and 15N (14N / 15N).

In another experiment, some bacteria from the medium with 15N were transferred into a medium
of 14N. The bacteria were allowed to divide three times. The DNA of some of these bacteria was
extracted and analysed.

What is the composition of this DNA?

A B
100 100

75 75
percentage percentage
50 50
of DNA of DNA
25 25

0 0
14 14
N N / 15N 14
N 14
N / 15N

C D
100 100

75 75
percentage percentage
50 50
of DNA of DNA
25 25

0 0
14 14
N N / 15N 14
N 14
N / 15N

24 A molecule of transfer RNA (tRNA) has the anticodon sequence UAC.

What will be the corresponding nucleotide sequence in the DNA?

A ATG B AUG C TAC D TUG

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25 Some of the features present in transport tissues in plants are listed.

1 lignified walls
2 cytoplasm
3 many mitochondria
4 pits
5 plasmodesmata
6 sieve plates

Which of these features are present in xylem vessel elements?

A 1, 2, 4 and 5 B 1 and 4 only C 2, 3, 5 and 6 D 2, 3 and 5 only

26 The diameter of a tree trunk usually decreases slightly during the day and increases slightly at
night.

Which three environmental factors, if increased, could cause the largest decrease in diameter?

A humidity, temperature, wind speed

B humidity, light intensity, temperature
C humidity, light intensity, wind speed
D light intensity, temperature, wind speed

27 Sucrose moves within a phloem sieve tube from a source to a sink by mass flow.

Which type of gradient within the phloem sieve tube between the source and sink causes the
movement of sucrose?

A diffusion gradient
B hydrostatic gradient
C concentration gradient
D water potential gradient

28 Which are present in the walls of veins?

smooth collagen
endothelium elastic tissue
muscle fibres

A     key
B      = present
C      = not present
D    

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29 Which row is correct for the location of a type of molecule or cell?

tissue
type of molecule or cell blood lymph
fluid

A antibodies    key
B plasma proteins     = present
C lymphocytes     = not present
D phagocytes   

30 What effect does decreasing carbon dioxide concentration have on haemoglobin?

A It is less efficient at taking up oxygen and less efficient at releasing oxygen.

B It is less efficient at taking up oxygen and more efficient at releasing oxygen.
C It is more efficient at taking up oxygen and less efficient at releasing oxygen.
D It is more efficient at taking up oxygen and more efficient at releasing oxygen.

31 Why does the red blood cell count increase in humans as they start living at high altitude?

A to allow more carbon dioxide to be excreted by the lungs, preventing a fall in blood pH
B to allow more oxygen to be taken up by the haemoglobin as the partial pressure of oxygen is
lower
C to allow more oxygen to be taken up by the lungs as there is a lower percentage of oxygen in
the air
D to allow more oxygen to be transported as the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen is lowered

32 The diagram shows a photomicrograph of part of a bronchus.

Which label identifies smooth muscle?

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33 Which statements about all bronchioles are correct?

1 They have epithelium.

2 They have goblet cells.
3 They have muscle tissue.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 only D 3 only

34 Which row shows the effects of emphysema?

number of
alveoli elastin
capillaries

A burst less decrease

B burst more increase
C shrink less increase
D shrink more decrease

35 Which row is correct?

infectious or
disease transmission
non-infectious

A HIV/AIDS genetic infectious

B lung cancer pathogen infectious
C sickle cell anemia genetic non-infectious
D TB pathogen non-infectious

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36 The diagrams show the result of incubating two species of bacteria, P and R, on separate Petri
dishes each containing nutrient agar.

Three filter paper discs have been added to each Petri dish.

bacteria N N key
N = no antibiotic
X = antibiotic X
X Y X Y Y = antibiotic Y

bacteria P bacteria R

Which statement is correct?

A Antibiotics X and Y are resistant to bacteria P.

B Bacteria P are resistant to both antibiotics.
C Bacteria R have a mutation that makes them resistant to antibiotic Y.
D N is a control disc showing bacteria R grow when antibiotic Y is not present.

37 The statements are about infectious diseases.

1 Disease may be spread between humans by contact.

2 Disease-causing organism has many antigenic variations.
3 Spread of disease may be influenced by climate.
4 A vaccination programme is available.

Which row matches the correct statement numbers with each disease?

cholera measles malaria

A 1 1 and 2 1 and 3
B 1 and 4 4 2
C 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 and 4
D 4 1 and 4 2 and 3

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38 Muscle cells have cell surface receptors for the neurotransmitter, ACh. These receptors allow the
muscle to respond to a nerve impulse.

In the condition myasthenia gravis, the helper T cells stimulate a clone of B cells to become
plasma cells and secrete antibodies that bind to and block these ACh receptors. The muscles
cannot be stimulated and begin to break down.

A short-term treatment for myasthenia gravis is to inject monoclonal antibodies into the blood.

What is the target of these monoclonal antibodies?

A antibodies that bind to ACh receptors

B muscle cell surface ACh receptors
C plasma cells secreting anti-ACh receptor antibodies
D the stimulating neurotransmitter ACh

39 The diagram shows the simplified structure of an antibody.

X U

Which statement is correct?

A U and X allow the antibody to bind to two different antigens.

B V allows the antibody to fit around the antigen.
C W can bind to one specific antigen.
D X can bind with a specific phagocyte receptor.

40 Why have vaccination programmes eradicated smallpox but not TB?

A Vaccination can provide immunity only for smallpox but not for TB.
B Only TB is associated with poor living conditions.
C The smallpox virus showed little variation of antigens.
D The TB pathogen is a bacterium and the smallpox pathogen is a virus.

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2020 9700/13/O/N/20

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2021
1 hour

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*7720255634*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 03_9700_12/3RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
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1 The photomicrograph shows onion cells.

The actual length of the onion cell labelled Y is 350 m.

What is the magnification of the photomicrograph?

A 2.5 B 25 C 40 D 400

2 Which row correctly shows the presence of a cell structure in typical plant cells and in typical
prokaryotic cells?

typical
typical
prokaryotic
plant cells
cells

A centrioles   key
B 70S ribosomes    = present
C lysosomes    = not present
D cellulose cell walls  

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3 Which letter identifies cell structures where semi-conservative replication of DNA occurs?

chloroplasts

B
A
mitochondria nuclei
D C

4 Which parts of a cell contain ribosomes?

1 chloroplast
2 mitochondrion
3 Golgi body
4 cytoplasm

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 2 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only

5 Which range of cell diameters is typical for prokaryotic cells?

A 1 nm to 5  102 nm

B 1  103 nm to 5 m

C 1  101 m to 5  102 m

D 1  102 m to 5  103 m

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6 Which row shows a combination of molecules that could be found together in a single isolated
virus?

carbohydrate DNA phospholipid lipid protein RNA

A       key
B        = present
C        = not present
D      

7 A student carried out four biochemical tests on a sample of food.

test observation

emulsion cloudy
Benedict’s yellow
biuret purple
iodine yellow

Which conclusion is supported by the results?

A Fat is not present.

B Glucose is present.
C Protein is present.
D Starch is present.

8 Which diagram represents a molecule of -glucose?

A B C D

CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH

O O O OH HO O
OH OH OH OH OH
HO OH HO OH HO OH
OH OH OH

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9 Which statements about glycosidic bonds are correct?

1 Condensation between glucose and fructose uses water and forms sucrose.

2 Glycogen contains -1,4 glycosidic bonds and -1,6 glycosidic bonds formed by
condensation.
3 The hydrolysis of amylopectin uses water to break glycosidic bonds and release
-glucose.

4 Amylose contains -1,6 glycosidic bonds formed by condensation.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 2 and 3 only D 2 and 4

10 A triglyceride has ......1...... bonds formed by joining fatty acids to ......2...... .

Which row correctly completes this sentence?

1 2

A ester glycine
B hydrogen glycerol
C ester glycerol
D hydrogen glycine

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11 The diagram shows a phospholipid molecule divided into three regions, X, Y and Z. R, in region
X, represents a range of possible chemical groups.

X R
O
O P O–
O
CH2 CH CH2
O O
C O C O
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
Y CH2 CH2 Z
CH2 CH
CH2 CH
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
CH3 CH3

Regions X, Y and Z affect the properties of cell surface membranes in different ways.

Which row shows the effect of each region on the properties of a cell surface membrane?

increases
permeability of repels polar attracts water
hydrophobic molecules molecules
region

A X X Y and Z
B Y Y and Z X
C Y and Z X Y and Z
D Z Y and Z X

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12 Which statement about collagen is correct?

A Tissues containing collagen fibres cannot stretch.

B Each polypeptide chain forms an alpha helix.
C Three helices are held together by hydrogen bonds.
D Three polypeptide chains form a single collagen fibre.

13 Catechol is a chemical found in a number of fruits. Catechol can be oxidised to a quinone by the
enzyme catechol oxidase.

Catechol oxidase is inhibited by parahydroxybenzoic acid (PHBA), which is structurally similar to

catechol. In the presence of PHBA, the Michaelis-Menten constant (Km) for catechol oxidase
increases.

How does PHBA inhibit catechol oxidase?

1 PHBA and catechol can both bind to the enzyme but not at the same time.
2 PHBA is a non-competitive inhibitor of catechol oxidase.

3 PHBA decreases the Vmax of the reaction.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 only C 2 only D 3 only

14 Which statements about the fluid mosaic model of a membrane are correct?

1 The movement of phospholipids in the membrane is reduced if the fatty acid tails are
saturated.
2 Glycoproteins in the outer layer of the membrane can move.
3 Channel proteins are fixed in position.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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15 Diagram 1 and diagram 2 show how the transverse section through a leaf changes when the leaf
is moved from solution X to solution Y.

leaf

solution X solution Y

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which row describes the water potential of the leaf cells and surrounding solutions in diagram 2
compared with diagram 1?

water potential of leaf cells

water potential of solution Y
in diagram 2 compared with
compared with water
water potential of leaf cells
potential of solution X
in diagram 1

A less negative less negative

B less negative more negative
C more negative less negative
D more negative more negative

16 Which features must always be present for water to move between two solutions by osmosis?

1 carrier proteins
2 cell surface membrane
3 selectively permeable membrane
4 water potential gradient

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4 only

17 When living pancreatic cells were placed in a solution of a red stain called neutral red, the
cytoplasm became red. The cells were then removed from the solution of neutral red.

The red stain in the cytoplasm moved into vesicles, which were exported from the cell, eventually
leaving the cell colourless.

Which transport mechanisms could explain how the red stain entered and left the cells?

A active transport and facilitated diffusion

B diffusion and exocytosis
C facilitated diffusion and endocytosis
D osmosis and exocytosis

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18 DNA molecules in a eukaryotic cell must be packaged compactly because their combined length
is much greater than the diameter of the nucleus.

Which structures are required during the process of packaging DNA molecules compactly?

A chromatids
B chromosomes
C histone proteins
D telomeres

19 Which statements about mitosis are correct?

1 Mitosis results in genetically identical cells.

2 Mitosis is involved in asexual reproduction.
3 Mitosis occurs immediately after cytokinesis.
4 Mitosis can be used to repair damaged cells.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 3 and 4 only

20 A human chromosome is made up of different parts. Some parts of a typical human chromosome
are more numerous than others.

Which parts are listed in order from least numerous to most numerous in a human white blood
cell?

A centromere  chromatid  histone protein

B DNA molecule  telomere  centromere

C histone protein  telomere  DNA molecule

D telomere  centromere  chromatid

21 A piece of double-stranded DNA containing 12  103 nucleotides is transcribed and translated to

produce a single polypeptide.

What is the maximum number of amino acids in this polypeptide?

A 6  103 B 4  103 C 2  103 D 1  103

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22 Which statements about complementary base pairing are correct?

1 Cytosine forms two hydrogen bonds with guanine.

2 Purines and pyrimidines are different sizes.
3 Adenine forms the same number of hydrogen bonds with thymine as it does with
uracil.
4 The base pairs in a molecule of DNA are of equal length and equal width.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

23 What are the products when a DNA molecule replicates?

A two molecules of DNA each made of a sequence of paired bases

B two molecules of DNA each made of a sequence of paired nucleotides
C two strands of DNA each made of a sequence of paired bases
D two strands of DNA each made of a sequence of paired nucleotides

24 Which descriptions apply to phloem sieve tube elements and to xylem vessel elements?

1 no cytoplasm
2 no end walls
3 no nucleus

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 only D 3 only

25 Some of the parts of a plant root involved in water transport are listed.

1 Casparian strip
2 cell walls of cortex cells
3 endodermal cells
4 epidermal cells
5 xylem vessels

Which sequence shows part of a pathway through which water can move across a root?

A 235 B 215 C 421 D 432

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26 What is an example of a mass flow system in a plant?

A the loading of amino acids from the surrounding tissues into companion cells
B the movement of sap through the phloem sieve tubes in the stem
C the movement of water across the root along the symplastic pathway
D the movement of water vapour from the internal spaces in the leaf out through the stomata

27 The diameter of a tree trunk usually decreases slightly during the day.

Which changes in environmental factors during the day could cause the diameter to decrease
even more?

increased temperature

C A
D
increased light
increased
B intensity
humidity

28 Which statement about the role of co-transporter proteins in the movement of sucrose is correct?

A Co-transporter proteins pump hydrogen ions into phloem sieve tubes along with sucrose.
B Hydrogen ions diffuse through co-transporter proteins with sucrose into companion cells.
C Plasmodesmata move sucrose into phloem sieve tubes via co-transporter proteins.
D Sucrose is moved through co-transporter proteins by active transport.

29 Which row correctly describes the heart during atrial systole?

wall of atrioventricular semilunar

ventricle valve valve

A contracted closed closed

B contracted open open
C relaxed closed open
D relaxed open closed

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30 The diagram shows a capillary, some tissue cells and a lymph vessel.

2 capillary

1 3
tissue
cells
4
lymph
vessel

Which row correctly identifies arrows 1, 2, 3 and 4?

1 2 3 4

A diffusion of glucose flow of water and diffusion of flow of tissue fluid

small solutes carbon dioxide
B diffusion of glucose flow of water and osmosis of water diffusion of oxygen
plasma proteins
C diffusion of oxygen flow of water and diffusion of flow of tissue fluid
small solutes carbon dioxide
D diffusion of oxygen flow of water and osmosis of water diffusion of
plasma proteins carbon dioxide

31 The table shows the results used to draw an oxygen dissociation curve for adult haemoglobin.

partial pressure of oxygen

1 2 3 4 5 6 7
/ kPa
volume of oxygen per gram
0.11 0.32 0.58 0.77 0.96 1.07 1.15
of haemoglobin / cm3 g–1

What is the percentage increase in the volume of oxygen per gram of haemoglobin when the
partial pressure of oxygen increases from 3 kPa to 5 kPa?

A 32.8% B 39.6% C 60.4% D 65.5%

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32 The graph shows the oxygen dissociation curves for adult haemoglobin at two carbon dioxide
concentrations.

100 P

Q
percentage
saturation of
haemoglobin
with oxygen
S

R
0
0 partial pressure
of oxygen / kPa

Which letters show measurements taken in the capillaries of the lungs and in the capillaries of
active muscle?

lungs active muscle

A P R
B P S
C Q R
D Q S

33 Which substances can combine with adult haemoglobin and reduce the oxygen-carrying capacity
of the blood?

1 carbon dioxide
2 carbon monoxide
3 hydrogencarbonate ions
4 hydrogen ions

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 only

34 How many times must a molecule of carbon monoxide pass through a cell surface membrane as
it diffuses from an air space in an alveolus, through a cell in the capillary wall, into a red blood
cell?

A 3 B 4 C 5 D 6

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35 The heart rate of a person at rest was recorded at intervals over two 15-minute periods.

During the first five minutes of the second 15-minute period, the person smoked a cigarette.

The graph shows the results recorded during the two 15-minute periods.

110

smoking
for first five
100 minutes

90
heart rate
/ beats
per min
80 not smoking

70

60
0 5 10 15
time / mins

What can be concluded from the graph?

A Carbon monoxide affects the heart rate.

B Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin increasing the flow of blood.
C Nicotine increases the heart rate so is a stimulant.
D The heart rate increases as a result of smoking.

36 Emphysema is a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A person with

emphysema has difficulties in breathing out.

Why does emphysema cause difficulties in breathing out?

A Smooth muscle fibres in the airways are destroyed.

B Too little mucus is produced in the bronchi.
C The elasticity of the alveoli decreases.
D The surface area of the alveoli becomes larger.

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37 Which factors contribute to outbreaks of measles after natural disasters?

1 contamination of drinking water with untreated sewage

2 lack of effective vaccination coverage in the population before the disaster
3 people living in overcrowded accommodation

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

38 There are two main classes of antibiotics, broad spectrum and narrow spectrum.

Broad spectrum antibiotics affect a wide range of bacteria, while narrow spectrum antibiotics
affect specific types of bacteria.

Which uses of antibiotics may result in antibiotic-resistant bacteria?

1 a broad spectrum antibiotic given to reduce the effects of the influenza virus
2 a broad spectrum antibiotic to treat Mycobacterium tuberculosis in humans
3 a narrow spectrum antibiotic to treat diarrhoea and sickness in cattle

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

39 People with the autoimmune disease myasthenia gravis can have a treatment to relieve the
symptoms. In this treatment, one of the components of their blood is removed.

Which blood component is removed?

A antibodies
B macrophages
C neutrophils
D red blood cells

40 Why are spleen cells fused with myeloma cells during monoclonal antibody production?

A so that the antibodies become specific for the necessary antigen

B so that the resulting hybridoma cells can reproduce indefinitely
C to allow antibodies that are not specific for the required antigen to be removed
D to increase the rate of production of antibodies produced by the hybridoma cells

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 9700/12/F/M/21

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2021
1 hour

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*2933176764*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB21 06_9700_11/4RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
 2

1 The diagram shows a mitochondrion drawn from an electron micrograph.

The actual length of the mitochondrion, using the line X–Y, is 3000 nm.

What is the magnification of the drawing of the mitochondrion?

A 100 B 1000 C 10 000 D 100 000

2 A specimen of plant tissue is observed twice with a microscope, firstly using red light with a
wavelength of 650 nm and then using green light with a wavelength of 510 nm.

What happens to the magnification and resolution when using green light compared to red light?

magnification resolution

A decreases decreases
B increases increases
C remains the same decreases
D remains the same increases

3 The electron micrograph shows a structure found in the cytoplasm of an animal cell.

What is this cell structure?

A centriole
B lysosome
C ribosome
D vesicle

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4 Which cell structures contain nucleic acid?

1 Golgi body
2 lysosome
3 mitochondria
4 ribosomes

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1 and 4 only D 3 and 4

5 Which statements about mitochondria, chloroplasts or prokaryotes are correct?

1 Mitochondria and chloroplasts have a fully permeable inner membrane and a

partially permeable outer membrane.
2 Prokaryotes and chloroplasts have 70S ribosomes that are the sites for translation
and polypeptide synthesis.
3 Prokaryotes and mitochondria have an outer membrane and an inner, folded
membrane where ATP synthesis occurs.
4 Prokaryotes and mitochondria have circular DNA where genes coding for
information are located.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only

6 The very large (1000 nm) Pandora viruses found in Chile and Australia are considered to be
viruses because they cannot replicate their own genome and cannot make proteins.

They also share essential structural features with other viruses.

What are the essential structural features of viruses?

1 non-cellular
2 protein coat
3 both DNA and RNA
4 either DNA or RNA

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only

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7 A sample of food was heated with Benedict’s solution which changed colour to green.

A second sample of the same food was boiled with dilute hydrochloric acid and neutralised using
sodium hydrogencarbonate. It was then heated with Benedict’s solution which changed colour to
red.

What did these results show?

glucose present

A
reducing D non-reducing
sugar present sugar present
C B

8 Which pair of molecules only includes macromolecules that can be found in animal cells?

A amylase and amylopectin

B collagen and glycogen
C deoxyribose and starch
D sucrose and haemoglobin

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9 Homogalacturonan is a polysaccharide found in plant cell walls.

The diagram shows a molecule of the monomer used to form homogalacturonan.

CO2H
O
HO H
OH H
H OH
H OH

A student studied the structure of this monomer and compared it with the structure of the
monomer used to form cellulose.

Which carbon atoms in the monomer in the diagram have hydroxyl groups arranged in different
positions to those found in the cellulose monomer?

A carbon one and carbon four

B carbon one only
C carbon three and carbon four
D carbon three only

10 Which statement is correct for triglycerides and phospholipids?

A A phosphate group is joined to a glycerol molecule.

B Hydrocarbon chains may be saturated or unsaturated.
C They are polar molecules.
D They contain three ester bonds.

11 Which description of collagen is correct?

A A collagen molecule consists of three polypeptide chains, each in the shape of a helix. The
three chains are wound together into a triple helix called a fibre.

B A collagen molecule consists of three polypeptide chains, each of which is an -helix. The
three chains are wound tightly together into a triple helix. Many of these triple helices bind
together as a fibre.
C A collagen molecule consists of three polypeptide chains wound tightly into a triple helix
called a fibre.
D A collagen molecule consists of three polypeptide chains in which every third amino acid is
glycine. The three polypeptides are wound tightly together into a triple helix. Many of these
helices form a fibre.

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12 In a healthy human, the mean value for the number of haemoglobin molecules in one red blood
cell is 260 million.

How many -globin chains does one red blood cell contain in a healthy human?

A 1.3  108 B 2.6  108 C 5.2  108 D 1.04  109

13 Which statements about a peptide bond are correct?

1 It joins two monomers which are always identical to each other.

2 It contains four different atoms.
3 It can be broken by the addition of water at room temperature.
4 It is important in the primary structure of proteins.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 4 only

14 Which graph correctly shows the activation energy of a reaction when an enzyme is added?

A B
activation activation
energy no enzyme energy no enzyme
enzyme
enzyme

energy products energy products

reactants reactants

progress of reaction progress of reaction

C D
activation activation
energy no enzyme energy no enzyme
enzyme
enzyme

energy reactants energy reactants

products products

progress of reaction progress of reaction

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15 The enzyme lactase is found in the membranes of epithelial cells lining the small intestine.

The enzyme is formed by a single polypeptide that folds to give three regions.

 an active site with the free amino group outside the cell

 a short section inside the membrane

 a short section inside the cell

What type of amino acid would be found in each of the three regions?

inside the inside the

outside the cell
membrane cell

A hydrophilic hydrophobic hydrophilic

B hydrophilic hydrophobic hydrophobic
C hydrophobic hydrophilic hydrophobic
D hydrophobic hydrophobic hydrophilic

16 A student wrote three statements about cell signalling.

1 A signal chemical always has the same shape as a protein receptor on a target cell.
2 An increase in temperature may decrease the effect of cell to cell signalling.
3 A mutation may decrease production of active protein receptors for the cell surface
membrane.

Which statements are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

17 At which stages of mitosis are chromosomes composed of two chromatids that are held together
by a centromere?

A anaphase and telophase

B anaphase and prophase
C metaphase and prophase
D metaphase and telophase

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18 The jellyfish, Turritopsis dohrnii, is described as being immortal. If T. dohrnii is not eaten by
predators or diseased, it seems to be able to live forever. There is no way to determine the
biological age of a T. dohrnii individual.

Which feature of the cells in T. dohrnii could explain these observations?

A very long G phases in the cell cycle

B a very short S phase in the cell cycle
C an ability to restore telomeres to their original length
D fewer chromosomes than other eukaryotic organisms

19 Some chemicals, used to stop tumour growth, work by preventing the DNA double helix from
uncoiling and separating.

During which stage of the cell cycle would they act?

A anaphase
B interphase
C metaphase
D prophase

20 Four nucleotides, A, B, C and D, each consist of three phosphate groups, a nitrogenous base
and a pentose sugar. Characteristics of the base and sugar components before they are joined to
form each nucleotide are shown in the table.

Which nucleotide could pair with an adenine base during DNA replication?

ratio of carbon to
ring structure of
oxygen atoms in
nitrogenous base
pentose sugar

A double 1:1
B double 5:4
C single 1:1
D single 5:4

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21 The statements describe the process of translation.

1 A peptide bond forms between adjacent amino acids.

2 Hydrogen bonds form between the anticodon and the codon.

3 mRNA binds to the ribosome.

4 tRNA enters the ribosome carrying a specific amino acid.

In which order does this process take place?

A 3214

B 3421

C 4213

D 4231

22 The sequence of amino acids in a section of a polypeptide is:

… histidine–proline–aspartic acid–leucine...

amino acid possible DNA triplet codes

aspartic acid CTA CTG

histidine GTA GTG
leucine GAT GAC
proline GGA GGG

What is a correct sequence of mRNA codons for this polypeptide section?

A …CAC CCC GAA CUG…

B …CAU CCU GAC CUA…
C …GTA CCA CTG GAT…
D …GUA GGA CUG GAU…

23 What contributes to the upward movement of water in a xylem vessel of a plant?

1 cohesion of water molecules by hydrogen bonding

2 adhesion of water molecules to the cellulose walls of xylem vessels by hydrogen
bonding
3 removal of water from xylem vessels in a leaf reduces the hydrostatic pressure in
the xylem

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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24 The diameter of a tree trunk usually decreases slightly during the day.

Which changes in environmental factors during the day could cause the diameter to decrease
even more?

increased
light intensity

C A
D
increased increased
wind speed B temperature

25 The diagram shows a transverse section of a stem.

Which area is the phloem?

D C B

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26 The diagram shows a xerophytic leaf in different conditions, P and Q.

Y
Y

P Q

Which statements describe the difference between the cells in layer Y in conditions P and Q?

1 more negative water potential in P than Q

2 more cells plasmolysed in P
3 cells less turgid in Q
4 water potential becomes zero in Q

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

27 Different substances, such as sucrose and amino acids, can move in different directions in the
phloem sieve tube elements.

Which statement explains this?

A Active transport occurs in some phloem sieve tube elements and mass flow occurs in other
sieve tube elements.
B Both active transport and mass flow occur in each individual phloem sieve tube element.
C Mass flow occurs in both directions at the same time in each individual phloem sieve tube
element.
D Mass flow occurs in different directions in different phloem sieve tube elements at the same
time.

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28 The statements list some of the events in a cardiac cycle. The statements are not in the correct
order.

Which statement describes the fourth of these events to occur in the cardiac cycle?

1 The impulse travels through Purkyne tissue.

2 A wave of excitation sweeps across the atria.
3 The atrioventricular node delays the impulse for a fraction of a second.
4 The sinoatrial node contracts.
5 The wave of excitation sweeps upwards from the base of the ventricles.
6 The ventricles contract.
7 The atria contract.

A 1 B 3 C 4 D 7

29 Which row correctly identifies components of both lymph and tissue fluid?

red sodium white

antibodies
blood cells ions blood cells

A     key
B      = component present
C      = component not present
D    

30 Which row is correct for the mean blood pressure in different parts of the human circulatory
system?

mean blood pressure

right artery in vein in capillary
atrium arm arm in arm key

A + ++++ ++ +++ ++++ highest mean blood pressure

B ++ ++++ +++ + +++
C +++ ++ ++++ + ++
D ++++ +++ + ++ + lowest mean blood pressure

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31 Which mechanism accounts for the way most of the carbon dioxide is transported in blood?

A Carbon dioxide dissolves in plasma and is carried in solution.

B Carbon dioxide is converted to carbaminohaemoglobin inside red blood cells.
C Carbon dioxide is converted to carboxyhaemoglobin inside red blood cells.
D Carbon dioxide is converted to hydrogencarbonate ions inside red blood cells.

32 The graph shows the dissociation curves for haemoglobin at two different partial pressures of
carbon dioxide.

At which position on the graph, A, B, C, or D, is the concentration of haemoglobinic acid lowest in

red blood cells?

low carbon dioxide

partial pressure
C

percentage saturation of
haemoglobin with oxygen high carbon dioxide
partial pressure
A
B

partial pressure of oxygen / kPa

33 The table shows the partial pressure of carbon dioxide and oxygen in two blood vessels.

partial pressure of partial pressure of

gas in pulmonary gas in pulmonary
artery / kPa vein / kPa

carbon dioxide 6 5
oxygen 5 15

What explains the difference in the partial pressures of oxygen in the pulmonary artery and
pulmonary vein?

A Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the blood in the capillaries.
B Carbon dioxide diffuses into the alveoli from the blood in the capillaries.
C Oxygen diffuses from the body cells into the blood in the capillaries.
D Carbon dioxide diffuses into the body cells from the blood in the capillaries.

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34 Which graph shows the effect of carbon monoxide on the percentage saturation of haemoglobin
with oxygen?

A B

percentage percentage
saturation of saturation of
haemoglobin haemoglobin
with oxygen with oxygen key
= without
carbon
partial pressure partial pressure monoxide
of oxygen of oxygen
= with
carbon
monoxide
C D

percentage percentage
saturation of saturation of
haemoglobin haemoglobin
with oxygen with oxygen

partial pressure partial pressure

of oxygen of oxygen

35 Which row shows the correct methods of transmission of the named pathogens?

method of transmission
airborne droplets insect vector water

A Morbillivirus Mycobacterium Vibrio

B Mycobacterium Plasmodium Vibrio
C Plasmodium Vibrio Morbillivirus
D Vibrio Plasmodium Mycobacterium

36 Which disease is caused by a eukaryote?

A cholera
B malaria
C measles
D smallpox

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37 What is the initial mechanism by which bacteria become resistant to antibiotics?

A genetic mutation
B overuse of antibiotics
C natural selection
D patients not finishing a course of antibiotics

38 What are functions of T-lymphocytes?

1 production of cytokines

2 production of toxins

3 recognition of an antigen bound to an antigen-presenting cell

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

39 What is correct about the role of memory cells in long-term immunity?

1 They divide to form plasma cells and memory cells when the pathogen enters the
body a second time.
2 They produce a fast response so that the person infected with the pathogen does
not become ill again.
3 They produce more antibodies than were produced during the primary immune
response.
4 They remain in the blood and lymphatic system after the pathogen has been
destroyed.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only

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40 Which events result in a person developing actively acquired immunity?

1 becoming infected by TB bacteria

2 drinking breast milk
3 receiving an injection of antigens
4 receiving an injection of antibodies

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 4

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 9700/11/M/J/21

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2021
1 hour

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*8967891093*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 06_9700_12/5RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
 2

1 Which row describes the membranes surrounding each cell structure?

chloroplast mitochondrion nucleus

A single single double

B double single single
C single double single
D double double double

2 The mean width of mitochondria in an electron micrograph is 6 mm.

The magnification of the electron micrograph is 9600.

What is the actual mean width of the mitochondria?

A 6  10–3 mm B 6  10–4 mm C 6  10–2 m D 6  103 m

3 Which sequence shows the correct order of some of the stages in the production and secretion of
an enzyme?

A Golgi body  ribosome  rough endoplasmic reticulum  mRNA

B mRNA  smooth endoplasmic reticulum  Golgi body  vesicle

C ribosome  rough endoplasmic reticulum  vesicle  Golgi body

D smooth endoplasmic reticulum  mRNA  vesicle  ribosome

4 Different antibiotics function in different ways. Ideally, the antibiotic kills the bacteria, but does not
harm the infected human.

One type of antibiotic, tetracycline, can affect the way in which human mitochondria function.

What explains the effect of tetracycline on human mitochondria?

1 The antibiotic prevents the synthesis of peptidoglycan cell walls.

2 The antibiotic prevents synthesis of linear DNA.
3 The antibiotic prevents translation by binding to 70S ribosomes.

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

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5 A prokaryotic cell is 5.0 m in length.

A virus particle is 300 nm in length.

How many times larger is the prokaryotic cell compared to the virus particle?

A 2 B 17 C 60 D 167

6 A student carries out a semi-quantitative test with Benedict’s solution.

Which statement about this procedure is correct?

A It detects only the presence or absence of glucose.

B It provides an indication of relative reducing sugar concentrations.
C The precipitate needs to be filtered, dried and weighed to give the reducing sugar
concentration.
D A colorimeter needs to be used to determine the glucose concentration.

7 Which row is correct for carbohydrates?

macromolecule monomer polymer

A sucrose starch -glucose

B glycogen sucrose starch
C -glucose glycogen sucrose
D starch -glucose glycogen

8 Which shows the correct general formula for glycogen?

A (C5H10O5)n B (C5H10O6)n C (C6H10O5)n D (C6H12O6)n

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9 Chitin is a structural polysaccharide found in the hard, outer shells of animals such as crabs.

Chitin is made of chains of amino sugars that contain NH groups.

The diagram shows two sugars in the chain of a chitin molecule.

CH2OH H NHCOCH3

H O H
O
H OH H
O OH H H O
H H
O
H NHCOCH3 CH2OH

Which polysaccharide is most like chitin?

A amylopectin
B amylose
C cellulose
D glycogen

10 Four fatty acids and their formulae are listed.

caprylic acid CH3(CH2)6COOH

lauric acid CH3(CH2)10COOH
oleic acid CH3(CH2)7CH=CH(CH2)7COOH
palmitoleic acid CH3(CH2)5CH=CH(CH2)7COOH

Which fatty acids are saturated?

A caprylic acid and lauric acid

B caprylic acid and oleic acid
C lauric acid and palmitoleic acid
D oleic acid and palmitoleic acid

11 Which molecule contains the smallest number of hydrogen atoms?

A -glucose
B glycine, an amino acid in which the R group is H
C glycerol
D a saturated fatty acid containing eight carbon atoms

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12 The diagram shows sucrose and sucralose.

CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2Cl

O O Cl O O

OH HO OH HO
OH O CH2OH O CH2Cl
OH OH OH OH

sucrose sucralose

The enzyme sucrase breaks down sucrose but cannot break down sucralose. Four students were
asked to suggest why sucrase can break down sucrose but not sucralose.

Three of the students gave correct suggestions.

Which suggestion cannot be correct?

A The Cl atoms change the shape of the sucralose molecule so it is not the same shape as the
active site of sucrase.
B The Cl atoms of the modified fructose cannot bind to the active site of sucrase.
C The Cl atoms cannot cause an induced fit, so sucralose does not enter the active site of
sucrase.
D The Cl atoms cause fewer temporary hydrogen bonds between sucralose and the active site
of sucrase.

13 The graph shows the energy levels involved in an enzyme-catalysed reaction. Substrate
molecules X and Y combine to give product Z.

Which arrow shows the reduction in activation energy due to the enzyme?

B
C
energy X+Y A

D
Z

0
0 time / s

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14 Which roles of the cell surface membrane result from the properties of the phospholipids?

1 to allow cytokinesis to occur in mitotic cell division

2 to allow entry and exit of oxygen and carbon dioxide

3 to allow the phagocytosis of a bacterium into a cell

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

15 Which factors can be changed to affect the rate of facilitated diffusion across a cell surface
membrane?

1 the surface area of the membrane

2 the concentration gradient
3 the number of specific protein channels

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 3 only

16 The diagram shows an experiment using a model cell to investigate the movement of substances.

membrane permeable
model cell to monosaccharides
and water
solution containing
0.03 mol dm–3 sucrose
0.02 mol dm–3 glucose
solution containing
0.01 mol dm–3 sucrose
0.01 mol dm–3 glucose

Which statements are correct?

1 There is net movement of sucrose out of the model cell.

2 There is net movement of glucose out of the model cell.
3 There is net movement of water into the model cell.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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17 Human chromosomes have different parts. Some parts are more numerous than others.

Which parts are listed in order from most numerous to least numerous in a human white blood
cell?

A centromere  nucleotide  histone protein

B DNA molecule  telomere  centromere

C histone protein  telomere  DNA molecule

D telomere  centromere  nucleotide

18 The diagram represents the cell cycle of a human cell. During the cell cycle the number of
chromatids changes.

mitosis

G2 M

S C cytokinesis

G1

Which row is correct for the number of chromatids in M, G1, and G2?

M G1 G2

A 46 46 92
B 46 92 92
C 92 46 92
D 92 92 92

19 A single skin cell was isolated and transferred to growth medium in a sterile Petri dish. The Petri
dish was incubated for 16 days. During this time, the number of skin cells multiplied as a result of
repeated mitotic divisions.

One of the chromosomes in the nucleus of each skin cell has a telomere that contains many
repeats of the base sequence TTAGGG. On each of days 4, 8, 12 and 16 of the incubation
period, a single cell was removed from the Petri dish. The total number of bases in the telomere
of this chromosome was determined for each cell. Each of the four cells had a different total
number of telomere bases for this chromosome: 5548, 5580, 5645 and 5700.

What was the total number of telomere bases in the chromosome from the cell that had
undergone the most mitotic divisions?

A 5548 B 5580 C 5645 D 5700

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20 A short piece of DNA, 18 base pairs long, was analysed to find the number of nucleotide bases in
each of the polynucleotide strands.

Some of the results are shown in the table.

number of nucleotide bases

adenine cytosine guanine thymine

strand 1 4 7
strand 2 5

How many nucleotides containing thymine were present in strand 2?

A 2 B 4 C 5 D 7

21 The diagram shows a strand of DNA and mRNA during transcription.

1 2

P C G P

P G C P

Which row correctly identifies 1, 2 and 3?

1 2 3

A purine deoxyribose two hydrogen bonds

B purine ribose three hydrogen bonds
C pyrimidine deoxyribose two hydrogen bonds
D pyrimidine ribose three hydrogen bonds

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22 Two students were discussing the involvement of DNA and RNA in transcription and translation.

 Student 1 always stated correct facts.

 Student 2 gave further information, which was sometimes correct.

correct facts given by student 1 further information given by student 2

1 A length of mRNA is 747 nucleotides This mRNA can produce a polypeptide
long, including stop and start codons. that is 249 amino acids long.

2 Adjacent mRNA codons of AAU There is a total of 14 hydrogen bonds

and CUG bind to complementary formed between these two codons and
tRNA anticodons. their anticodons.

3 RNA polymerase catalyses the formation During translation, an RNA adenine

of the mRNA from the template strand nucleotide will pair with a DNA thymine
of DNA. nucleotide.

4 A DNA adenine nucleotide is structurally The difference is in the hexose sugars;

different to an RNA adenine nucleotide. DNA is deoxyribose and RNA is ribose.

Which further information, given by student 2, is correct?

A 1 and 4 B 2 and 3 C 2 only D 4 only

23 Which descriptions of the adaptations of xylem vessel elements to their function are correct?

1 They have pits between vessels allowing water to pass from one vessel to another.
2 They are thickened with lignin to stop them collapsing when the column of water is
under tension.
3 They form a continuous hollow tube through the plant providing little resistance to
water movement.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 only D 2 and 3 only

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24 The diameter of a tree trunk usually decreases slightly during the day.

Which changes in environmental factors during the day could cause the diameter to decrease
even more?

increased
humidity

C A
D

increased increased
wind speed B light intensity

25 A student wanted to find out the rate of transpiration using a potometer as shown.

cut shoot

reservoir

air bubble capillary tube

volume beaker
scale of water

The student was told to work out a value for transpiration using the units mm3, m–2 and hour–1.

Which measurements would the student need to take?

A volume of water in the reservoir, length of the capillary tubing, temperature and how many
leaves are on the shoot
B volume of water in the reservoir, radius of the capillary tubing, time and surface area of the
leaves
C distance air bubble moves, radius of the capillary tubing, time and surface area of the leaves
D distance air bubble moves, length of the capillary tubing, temperature and how many leaves
are on the shoot

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26 In plants, assimilates such as sucrose are loaded from source cells into sieve tube elements. The
assimilates are then transported from source to sink.

What is needed to transport sucrose from source cells through phloem tissue to sink cells?

water potential
gradient between A B ATP
the source and
the sink

hydrostatic pressure gradient

between the source and the sink

27 The sinoatrial node initiates the cardiac cycle.

What is the correct order in which the chambers of the heart contract?

A atria and ventricles at the same time

B both atria then both ventricles
C left atrium, then left ventricle, then right atrium, then right ventricle
D right atrium, then right ventricle, then left atrium, then left ventricle

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28 The graph shows pressure changes in different parts of the heart during a mammalian cardiac
cycle. W, X, Y and Z indicate when a valve opens or closes.

pressure key
/ kPa aorta
ventricle
Z atrium
W

0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8

time / s

Which row is correct?

W X Y Z

A opens closes closes opens

B opens opens closes opens
C closes opens closes opens
D closes closes opens opens

29 What can combine with the haem group of a haemoglobin molecule?

1 oxygen
2 carbon dioxide
3 carbon monoxide

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

30 What is the main reaction occurring in blood capillaries at the gas exchange surface in a human
lung?

A Carbonic acid dissociates into carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions.

B Carbonic anhydrase converts carbon dioxide into hydrogencarbonate ions.
C Carbon dioxide combines with haemoglobin to form carbaminohaemoglobin.
D Carbon dioxide is produced from hydrogencarbonate ions by carbonic anhydrase.

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31 Which reactions take place in blood that is passing through active tissues?

1 HbO8  Hb + 4O2

2 HbO8 + H  HHb + 4O2

3 HCO3– + H  H2CO3

4 H2O + CO2  H2CO3

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only

32 Which row shows the tissues that are present in the wall of the trachea and in the wall of the
bronchus?

squamous
cartilage goblet cells
epithelium

A    key
B     = present
C     = not present
D   

33 In some cases where a person has lung disease, the partial pressure of oxygen in the pulmonary
veins is less than the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.

What could explain the difference in partial pressure of oxygen?

1 A high proportion of alveoli are collapsed and do not have enough alveolar
capillaries.
2 The partial pressure of oxygen in the pulmonary arteries is lower than in the alveolar
air.
3 The rate of diffusion of oxygen from the alveolar air to the surrounding alveolar
capillaries is too slow.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

34 How many times must a molecule of carbon dioxide pass through a cell surface membrane as it
diffuses from the plasma, through a cell in the capillary wall, into an alveolus?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

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35 Which disease is spread by a vector?

A AIDS / HIV
B cholera
C malaria
D measles

36 Which statement explains why a one-dose vaccination programme for measles has not yet
eliminated the disease?

A Many infants under the age of eight months have passive immunity.
B Some children need several booster doses to develop full immunity.
C The one-dose measles vaccine has a success rate of 93%.
D The virus does not often change its antibodies.

37 What has contributed to the increase in antibiotic resistance in bacteria?

1 increased use of vaccines for animal diseases

2 mutations in bacterial DNA
3 patients not completing their antibiotic treatment

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

38 What explains why monoclonal antibodies can be used to target cancer cells?

A Cancer cells have different antigens from normal body cells.

B Specific cancer drugs can be attached to the monoclonal antibody.
C They secrete a type of antigen that binds to a specific antibody.
D They are secreted by hybridomas of cancer cells and B-lymphocytes.

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39 Which statements correctly describe lymphocytes?

1 Each B-lymphocyte has the ability to make several types of antibody molecules.
2 Some B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes become memory cells.
3 Plasma cells secrete antibodies into the blood plasma.
4 Some T-lymphocytes stimulate macrophages to kill infected cells.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 4 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

40 A country introduced a measles vaccination during a measles epidemic.

Later, it was realised that vaccinated children were more likely to survive childhood than
unvaccinated children, even when there were no measles epidemics.

The vaccine had given the children some protection against other pathogenic infections.

Which statement could account for this extra protection?

A B-lymphocytes produced memory cells which gave the children passive immunity to these
infections.
B Memory cells produced plasma cells which secreted anti-measles antibodies that bound to
antigens that closely resembled measles antigens.
C Memory cells produced plasma cells which secreted anti-measles antibodies that bound to
any antigen.
D T-lymphocytes produced memory cells which gave the children natural immunity against
these other infections.

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 16

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
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To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 9700/12/M/J/21

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2021
1 hour

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*2040912579*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 06_9700_13/6RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
 2

1 Which set of measurements is correct?

thickness of cell
diameter of diameter of red
surface membrane
capillary blood cell
of red blood cell

A 7 m 7 m 7 nm
B 7 m 7 nm 7 nm
C 0.7 mm 7 m 7 nm
D 0.7 mm 0.7 mm 7 m

2 The diagram shows an eyepiece graticule and part of a stage micrometer scale as seen using
100 magnification.

eyepiece graticule

stage micrometer scale

0.1 mm

Which is the correct method for calculating the value of one eyepiece graticule unit in
micrometres (m)?

A divide 100 by 0.1 then multiply by 1000

B divide 100 by 0.1 then multiply by 1000 divided by 100
C multiply 0.1 by 1000 then divide by 100
D multiply 0.1 by 1000 then divide by 100 then divide again by 100

3 A prokaryotic cell, 1 m in diameter, is magnified 50 000 times on an electron micrograph.

What is the diameter as shown in the electron micrograph?

A 0.5 mm B 5 mm C 50 mm D 500 mm

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4 Which cell structures contain DNA?

1 mitochondria
2 chloroplasts
3 centrioles
4 nucleolus

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

5 Four students were asked to match the function with the appearance of some cell structures in an
animal cell.

The functions were listed by number.

1 mRNA passes through to the ribosome

2 synthesis of polypeptides
3 synthesis of lipids

The appearances were listed by letter.

V membranes which surround an enclosed inner cavity

W non-membrane bound, spherical structures
X a double membrane interspersed with pores
Y non-membrane bound, cylindrical structures
Z membrane-bound sacs, arranged as a flattened stack

Which student correctly matched the numbered function with the appearance of the cell
structure?

1 2 3

A V X Z
B V Z W
C X W V
D X Z V

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6 Which row is correct for structures found in eukaryotic cells?

circular DNA 70S ribosomes 80S ribosomes

A present present present

B present present absent
C present absent present
D absent present absent

7 Four solutions were tested for the presence of four different biological molecules. The
appearance of the solutions after each test are shown in the table.

Benedict’s
solution following acid Benedict’s biuret emulsion
hydrolysis

1 blue blue purple cloudy

2 green blue purple clear
3 red green purple cloudy
4 yellow yellow blue clear

Which solutions contained molecules with ester bonds?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 4 only

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8 The diagrams represent two monosaccharides with the same molecular formula (C6H12O6).

Both can exist in an alpha () or beta () form as shown.

CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH

C O C O C O C O
HO OH H OH HO H H H
H H H H
C C C C C C C C
OH H OH H OH H OH H
H H HO H H OH HO OH
C C C C C C C C
H OH H OH H OH H OH
β-galactose β-glucose α-galactose α-glucose

The diagram shows a lactose molecule formed by condensation between glucose and galactose.

CH2OH CH2OH
O O
HO H OH
H H
O
OH H OH H
H H H

H OH H OH

Which molecules have condensed to form lactose?

A -glucose and -galactose

B -glucose and -galactose

C -glucose and -galactose

D -glucose and -galactose

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9 One type of covalent bond between two monomers is shown.

CH2OH
O
H H
H
OH H
...O O
CH2
H OH
O
H H
H
OH H
...O O...
H OH

Which molecules contain this type of covalent bond?

A amylopectin, amylase, glycogen and starch

B amylopectin, amylase and glycogen only
C amylopectin, glycogen and starch only
D amylase, glycogen and starch only

10 Which statements about carbohydrates and triglycerides are correct?

1 They form polymers.

2 They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
3 They are used as energy stores.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

11 Which molecules contain at least three double bonds?

A saturated fatty acid, collagen and haemoglobin

B collagen and saturated fatty acid
C haemoglobin and collagen
D saturated fatty acid and haemoglobin

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12 The diagrams show the structures of two amino acids. One contains two amino (–NH2) groups,
labelled 1 and 2. The other contains two carboxylic (–COOH) groups, labelled 3 and 4.

2 3
H 2N CH COOH H 2N CH COOH

CH2 CH2

C 1 COOH 4
O NH2

A peptide bond is formed between the two amino acids.

Which groups form the peptide bond?

A 1 and 4 B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 1 and 3

13 Which row about the structure of proteins is correct?

primary structure secondary structure tertiary structure quaternary structure

A is the number is the right-handed is the result of is the sub-unit

of amino acids spiral formed by the cross-bonding polypeptides that
present in a protein primary structure between specific link together to
amino acids in form a protein
the primary structure

B is the order of is the coiling of a is the shape formed contains two types
amino acids present chain of amino acids by the folding of a of polypeptide that
in a protein to form a -pleated polypeptide and is interact forming the
encoded by DNA sheet or an -helix held together by shape of a protein
hydrogen bonds

C is the result of occurs because of an is the result of ionic is formed by four

translation of an attraction between and hydrogen bonds, polypeptides and
mRNA molecule by hydrogen and disulfide bridges an additional
a ribosome into a oxygen atoms in and hydrophobic reactive group
chain of amino acids the peptide bonds interactions between attached to the
amino acids protein

D is the sequence is formed by is formed as a result is formed by the

of amino acids in hydrogen bonding of interaction of the linking together
a protein coded by between amino acids side chains of of more than one
an mRNA molecule forming the amino acids in the polypeptide to
primary structure primary structure form a protein

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14 The enzyme -galactosidase can catalyse the hydrolysis of four substrates with similar
structures.

Each substrate gives a different Km value.

For which substrate does -galactosidase have the highest affinity?

substrate Km / mol dm–3

A 1 4  10–3
B 2 1  10–3
C 3 2  10–4
D 4 1  10–4

15 An investigation was carried out on the effect of temperature on the activity of an enzyme when it
is immobilised and when it is non-immobilised (free in solution). The product of the enzyme-
catalysed reaction causes a decrease in pH.

The graph shows the results of the investigation.

key
non-immobilised, 75 °C
pH immobilised, 75 °C
immobilised, 37 °C
non-immobilised, 37 °C

time

Which would give the highest yield of product?

A immobilised, 37 C

B immobilised, 75 C

C non-immobilised, 37 C

D non-immobilised, 75 C

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16 An indicator mixed with agar forms a pink colour. The pink-coloured agar becomes colourless
when put in acid.

Blocks of pink-coloured agar are cut to different sizes and put in acid. All other variables are kept
constant.

Which block becomes colourless most quickly?

A 3 mm  30 mm  30 mm

B 6 mm  6 mm  6 mm

C 6 mm  12 mm  12 mm

D 12 mm  12 mm  12 mm

17 Three identical plant cells were put into one of three different concentrations of sugar solution,
10%, 5% and 2.5%.

The cells were left for 50 minutes and then observed using a light microscope.

cell X cell Y cell Z

vacuole

Which statement is not correct?

A Cell X has the same water potential as the sugar solution it was put into.
B Cell Y is turgid and cell Z is plasmolysed.
C Cell Y was put into the 2.5% sugar solution.
D Cell Z had a more negative water potential than the sugar solution it was put into.

18 How many copies of each different DNA molecule are found in a cell at the start of each of these
stages of the mitotic cell cycle?

G2 of
prophase cytokinesis
interphase

A 1 1 2
B 1 2 1
C 2 1 2
D 2 2 2

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19 Hydra are simple animals which can reproduce asexually.

The photomicrograph shows an adult hydra with a new hydra developing while attached to the
side of the adult animal.

Which processes have occurred in the two hydra?

1 DNA replication
2 growth
3 mitosis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

20 The diagram represents a nucleotide containing thymine.

base

Which statements about this nucleotide are correct?

1 Thymine is a pyrimidine.
2 Base pairing occurs with two hydrogen bonds.
3 The carbohydrate can be ribose or deoxyribose.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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21 Some of the events that occur during transcription are listed.

1 Bonds break between complementary bases.

2 Bonds form between complementary bases.
3 Sugar-phosphate bonds form.
4 Free nucleotides pair with complementary nucleotides.

Before the mRNA molecule leaves the nucleus, which events occur twice during transcription?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 2, 3 and 4 D 1 and 2 only

22 The table shows the DNA triplet codes for some amino acids.

amino acid DNA triplet code amino acid DNA triplet code

arginine GCA glycine CCA

arginine GCC glycine CCG
arginine GCG glycine CCT
asparagine TTA lysine TTC
asparagine TTG lysine TTT
cysteine ACA proline GGA
cysteine ACG proline GGC
STOP ATC valine CAC

The base sequence on the DNA template strand coding for part of a polypeptide is shown.

CCA TTC ACG GCG TTA GCA

Two mutations occur in this sequence during DNA replication.

Which mutated DNA would result in a polypeptide with one different amino acid?

A CCA ATC ACG GCG TTG GCA

B CCA TTC ACA GCA TTA GCA
C CCA TTC ACG CCG TTA GCC
D CCT TTC ACG GCG TTA GCC

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23 A gene codes for the sequence of amino acids in a single polypeptide. Haemoglobin consists of
two -globins and two -globins.

How many genes are needed to code for a single haemoglobin molecule?

A 1 B 2 C 4 D 8

24 Which properties of water molecules are important in the upward flow of water through the
xylem?

1 Water molecules are attracted to each other by hydrogen bonding.

2 Water molecules are attracted to cellulose by adhesion.
3 Water molecules have high cohesion in water columns.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

25 The graph shows the rate of water absorption and the rate of water loss by a plant during one
24-hour period. The plant was growing in natural conditions.

water loss

rate of water
absorption
or loss
water
absorption

0
00:00 04:00 08:00 12:00 16:00 20:00 24:00
night day night
time

What may be concluded from the graph?

1 The rate of water absorption and the rate of water loss peak at 16:00.
2 The rate of water loss is greater than the rate of water absorption for 12 hours.
3 The rate of water absorption is greater than the rate of water loss at night.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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26 Which statements explain why a stem is cut under water and connected to a potometer under
water?

1 to prevent plasmolysis of xylem vessel elements

2 to prevent the collapse of xylem vessel elements
3 to prevent air entering xylem vessel elements

A 1, 2 and 3 B 2 and 3 only C 1 only D 3 only

27 Sucrose moves into an actively dividing shoot tip from a phloem sieve tube element.

Which changes to the water potential and the volume of liquid in the phloem sieve tube element
are correct?

water potential
volume of liquid
becomes

A less negative decreases

B less negative increases
C more negative decreases
D more negative increases

28 Sucrose is loaded into phloem sieve tubes from companion cells.

What is the correct order of statements that explains this mechanism?

1 Hydrogen ions diffuse into companion cells through co-transporter proteins.

2 Hydrogen ions are pumped out of companion cells by active transport.
3 Sucrose diffuses into phloem sieve tubes via plasmodesmata.
4 Sucrose is co-transported along with hydrogen ions.

A 1243

B 1423

C 2143

D 4123

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29 Which components are found in arteries?

collagen

A C
B
smooth
endothelium
D muscle

30 Which diagram correctly shows the direction of the flow of blood through the heart?

A B

C D

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31 Which row correctly identifies the pulmonary artery?

thickness of blood oxygen content of blood

vessel wall / mm blood inside vessel pressure / mmHg

A 1.30 deoxygenated 15–30

B 2.10 oxygenated 80–120
C 0.15 oxygenated 5–15
D 0.20 deoxygenated 3–8

32 What is found in all blood vessels, lymph and tissue fluid?

1 carbon dioxide
2 glucose
3 white blood cells
4 antibodies

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2 and 4 only

33 At high altitudes, the oxygen content of the air may be a third of that at sea level.

As a person slowly climbs a mountain, their body gradually adjusts to the high altitude.

What is increased during this period of adjustment?

A the concentration of haemoglobin in the red blood cells

B the oxygen-carrying capacity of the haemoglobin
C the number of red blood cells per mm3 of blood
D the rate at which haemoglobin releases oxygen into the tissues

34 Which row correctly shows features present in terminal bronchioles?

smooth
cartilage cilia
muscle

A    key
B     = present
C     = not present
D   

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35 The photomicrograph shows a section through lung tissue.

Which structures are present in this photomicrograph?

artery vein bronchus trachea

A     key
B      = present
C      = not present
D    

36 The symptoms of two diseases are listed.

disease 1 disease 2

coughing up blood shortness of breath

pain when breathing difficulty breathing out
loss of weight fatigue

Which row identifies diseases 1 and 2?

disease 1 disease 2

A chronic bronchitis emphysema

B emphysema lung cancer
C lung cancer chronic bronchitis
D lung cancer emphysema

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37 Disease transmission can be reduced in different ways.

 antibiotic therapy for sufferers

 vaccination for non-sufferers

 more living space per person

The transmission of which disease can be reduced by all of these methods?

A cholera
B TB
C malaria
D measles

38 What do pathogens of HIV / AIDS, malaria and TB have in common?

cell surface
genes ribosomes
membrane

A    key
B     = common to all three pathogens
C     = not common to all three pathogens
D   

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39 The diagram shows the immune response following infection by a virus.

activated cells

F
activated cell

chemical
stimulation
E

H G
host cell infected
with virus
secretion of
antibodies

Which row identifies the cells labelled E, F, G and H?

E F G H

A B-memory cell T-helper cell T-killer cell plasma cell

B B-memory cell T-memory cell macrophage plasma cell
C plasma cell T-memory cell T-helper cell B-memory cell
D T-killer cell B-memory cell macrophage T-helper cell

40 Monoclonal antibodies are used to test for the presence of the hormone HCG in the urine of a
human female during early pregnancy.

Which statements describe how the monoclonal antibodies used in this test are produced?

1 HCG is injected into a mouse, and plasma cells in the mouse produce antibodies
specific to HCG.
2 Antibodies are extracted from the mouse and then fused with cancer cells to
produce hybridoma cells.
3 Single hybridoma cells are cultured and they divide by mitosis to produce a clone of
hybridoma cells.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2021 9700/13/M/J/21

 19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2021 9700/13/M/J/21

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 9700/13/M/J/21

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2021
1 hour

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*7746127627*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB21 11_9700_11/6RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
 2

1 A student observes a cell using a light microscope. The student then draws the cell.

Which items will the student need to calculate the magnification of the drawing?

1 eyepiece graticule
2 ruler
3 hand lens
4 stage micrometer scale

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 only

2 Which equations correctly show the relationship between magnification, image size and actual
size in microscopy?

image size
1 magnification =
actual size

actual size
2 magnification =
image size

image size
3 actual size =
magnification

magnification
4 actual size =
image size

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

© UCLES 2021 9700/11/O/N/21

 3

3 In which cell structures does DNA transcription occur?

chloroplast

A
D
mitochondrion nucleus
C B

4 Which rows could correctly identify the nucleic acids present in two different virus particles in a
sample of air?

DNA RNA

1   key
2    = nucleic acid present
3    = nucleic acid not present
4  

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

5 Tests on four samples from a mixture of biological molecules gave the results shown in the table.

boiled with boiled with excess

excess Benedict’s solution after biuret iodine
test
Benedict’s acid hydrolysis and reagent solution
solution neutralisation

result blue red purple yellow

Which biological molecules were in the mixture?

A reducing sugar and protein

B reducing sugar, non-reducing sugar and starch
C non-reducing sugar and protein
D non-reducing sugar and starch only

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6 One molecule of X is formed by a single condensation reaction releasing one molecule of water.

What is molecule X?

A a disaccharide
B a phospholipid
C a polysaccharide
D a triglyceride

7 The table shows some information about carbohydrate polymers.

Which row describes glycogen?

-1,4 -1,6
shape of function of
glycosidic glycosidic
molecule molecule
bonds bonds

A   branched storage key

B   helical storage  = present
C   branched structural  = not present
D   helical structural

8 The diagrams show four phospholipid molecules.

Which molecule could contribute most to the fluidity of a cell surface membrane?

A B

C D

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9 Which properties of phospholipids explain why single layers of phospholipids added to water
immediately form bilayers?

1 The hydrophobic fatty acid chains repel water molecules so the tails pack together.

2 The non-polar fatty acid chains are attracted to each other by hydrophobic
interactions.

3 Hydrogen bonds form between the phosphate groups and water.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

10 The diagrams show three examples of different bonds.

bond 2
bond 1 bond 3
O

NH O C C N CH2 S S CH2

Which bonds hold the tertiary structure of proteins together?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

11 Which feature of collagen enables it to fulfil a structural role in skin and in tendons?

A Adjacent collagen molecules are linked by ester bonds.

B Collagen fibres form layers with the fibres in different directions.
C Collagen molecules are formed as a triple helix of polypeptide chains.
D Polypeptide chains of collagen are tightly folded into compact shapes.

12 The graph shows how the concentrations of four components, 1, 2, 3 and 4, of an

enzyme-catalysed reaction change with time.

concentration

2
3
4
time

Which component is the enzyme–substrate complex?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

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13 The table shows the Michaelis–Menten constant, Km, for three enzymes.

enzyme Km / mmol dm–3

C 1.5  10–2
P 3.0  10–4
F 5.0  10–6

Which interpretation of the information is correct?

A Enzyme C has a Vmax which is half that of enzyme P.

B Enzyme C will reach Vmax in the shortest time interval.
C Enzyme F has the greatest affinity for its substrate.

D Enzyme P has a Vmax of 6.0  10–3 mmol dm–3.

14 What explains how a signal molecule produced by one cell can be detected by a target cell?

A A signal molecule can bind to any type of cell surface receptor.

B A signal molecule has a complementary shape to a cell surface receptor.
C Signal molecules enter the cell by diffusion.
D Signal molecules enter the cell by endocytosis.

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15 Some enzymes are produced in the cells of the pancreas. The enzymes are secreted when
required.

Which process is used to transport these enzymes out of the cells of the pancreas?

A active transport
B facilitated diffusion
C endocytosis
D exocytosis

16 Plant cells were submerged in a solution with a water potential less negative than that found
inside the cells.

What describes the condition of the plant cells after 20 minutes?

A burst
B incipient plasmolysis
C plasmolysed
D turgid

17 What will be present in each chromosome at the end of the G2 phase of the cell cycle?

A two centrioles
B two centromeres
C two molecules of DNA
D two telomeres

18 Which events listed are part of the cell cycle?

1 interphase
2 metaphase
3 cytokinesis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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19 Which features of an organism are affected by a drug that kills cells that are dividing mitotically?

1 cell repair
2 cell replacement
3 number of stem cells
4 tissue repair
5 tumour formation

A 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 4 and 5 only
D 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

20 The graph shows how the distance between sister chromatids (curve P) and the distance
between chromatids and centrioles (curve Q) changes during part of mitosis.

40 curve P

distance
/ μm 20

curve Q
0
T V W X
time

Which statements could be correct?

1 T to V represents interphase.
2 T to W represents metaphase.
3 W to X represents anaphase.

A 1 and 3 B 2 and 3 C 1 only D 2 only

21 Which statement helps to explain why the two sugar-phosphate chains in a DNA molecule are a
constant distance apart?

A Adenine and thymine are held together by the same number of hydrogen bonds as cytosine
and guanine.
B Each nucleotide molecule is the same size.
C Each purine base is linked to a pyrimidine base.
D The sugar-phosphate strands of the helix are held together by sulfur bridges.

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22 During DNA replication, what must happen before a newly added nucleotide is bonded to the
next nucleotide in the strand?

1 complementary base pairing

2 hydrogen bond formation
3 phosphodiester bond formation

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

23 An antibiotic enters bacterial cells through a membrane channel protein, P.

Some bacterial cells have shown resistance to this antibiotic by acquiring a mutation which
alters P. This mutation prevents the entry of the antibiotic into the cell.

Which conclusions can be drawn about how resistance to this antibiotic developed in these
bacteria?

1 The mutation changed the order of the amino acids in the gene coding for P.
2 The mutation resulted in the production of P with an altered tertiary structure.
3 The antibiotic is a hydrophobic molecule and so cannot cross the phospholipid
bilayer to enter the cell.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

24 What is the correct tRNA anticodon coding for the amino acid proline?

DNA triplet code

amino acid
on transcribed strand

alanine CGT
histidine GTG
proline GGT

A CCA B CCU C GGT D GGU

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25 The table shows the observations made by a student about three different cell types, P, Q and R,
seen in a transverse section of a plant stem, using a light microscope.

ratio of cell wall

width to whole structures observed in cell contents
cell width

P 1 : 10 none
Q 1 : 20 regular pattern of circles in some cells
R 1 : 20 granular appearance of all cells

What type of cells are P, Q and R?

P Q R

A companion cell phloem sieve tube element xylem vessel element

B companion cell xylem vessel element phloem sieve tube element
C xylem vessel element companion cell phloem sieve tube element
D xylem vessel element phloem sieve tube element companion cell

26 Water molecules are attracted to each other. This property is important in the upward movement
of water in xylem.

Which term is used to describe the attraction of water molecules to each other?

A adhesion
B cohesion
C hydrophilic
D polar

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27 The diagram shows a model to demonstrate mass flow.

water
concentrated dilute sucrose solution
sucrose solution Y X Z

partially permeable partially permeable

membrane membrane

In a plant, what are the structures W, X, Y and Z and what is the direction of flow of solution
along W?

phloem xylem roots leaves direction of flow along W

A W X Y Z from Z to Y
B W X Z Y from Y to Z
C X W Y Z from Y to Z
D X W Z Y from Z to Y

28 The parts of the heart that control heart action are listed.

● sinoatrial node (SAN)

● atrioventricular node (AVN)
● Purkyne tissue

Which row is correct for atrial contraction and ventricular contraction?

atrial contraction ventricular contraction

A AVN produces SAN produces
waves of excitation waves of excitation
B Purkyne tissue carries AVN produces
waves of excitation waves of excitation
C SAN and AVN produce Purkyne tissue carries
waves of excitation waves of excitation
D SAN produces Purkyne tissue carries
waves of excitation waves of excitation

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29 The diagram shows part of the circulatory system in a mammal.

1 2 3 4

direction of
direction of blood flow
vena cava
blood flow
aorta

Where is the blood pressure and the speed of flow the lowest?

lowest blood lowest speed

pressure of flow

A 1 4
B 2 3
C 3 2
D 4 1

30 The photomicrograph shows human blood cells.

What type of blood cell is X?

A B-lymphocyte
B monocyte
C phagocyte
D T-lymphocyte

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31 The diagram shows some of the reactions of carbon dioxide when it enters the blood from cells in
a metabolically active tissue.

Which reaction is catalysed by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase?

CO2

plasma
A B
CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3−

C D
CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3−

red blood cell

32 The graph shows the oxygen dissociation curves for haemoglobin in animals that live at high
altitude and animals that live at low altitude.

100
high
altitude
percentage
saturation
of haemoglobin low
with oxygen altitude

0
partial pressure of oxygen / kPa

What explains the oxygen dissociation curve at high altitude?

A Haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen.

B Haemoglobin releases oxygen more readily.
C The change in partial pressure of carbon dioxide causes a Bohr effect.
D The decrease in percentage of carbon dioxide causes the curve to shift to the left.

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33 The diagram shows three features found in the mammalian gas exchange system.

ciliated goblet
epithelium cells
X

cartilage

Which structures of the gas exchange system could be represented by X in the diagram?

A small bronchiole only

B small bronchiole and bronchus
C trachea only
D trachea and bronchus

34 What are short-term effects of nicotine on the cardiovascular system?

1 constriction of small arteries

2 increase in heart rate
3 increase in blood pressure

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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35 Some features of a disease are listed.

● It can be transmitted by animals to other animals, including humans.

● One mode of transmission is by transfusion with contaminated blood.
● The causative organism can show multiple drug resistance.
● The majority of humans who die from the disease are children.

Which disease has all these features?

A cholera
B HIV / AIDS
C malaria
D tuberculosis

36 The following advice was given to a person travelling to a country where there had been an
outbreak of an infectious disease.

● Cook food well and eat it hot.

● Peel fruit and vegetables.
● Drink only cool, boiled water.
● Wash hands often with soap and cool, boiled water.

Which infectious disease would this advice help to protect against?

A cholera
B malaria
C measles
D tuberculosis

37 Which description of multiple drug resistance in bacteria is correct?

A Bacteria have DNA with resistant genes for several different types of antibiotic.
B Different species of bacteria have DNA with resistant genes for one type of antibiotic.
C Large numbers of one species of bacteria are immune to several different types of antibiotic.
D Many different species of bacteria are immune to one type of antibiotic.

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38 Which description of a T-lymphocyte is correct?

A They are only found in blood and secrete cytokines in response to infection.
B They can leave the blood and accumulate at sites of inflammation.
C They can leave the blood and secrete cytotoxins when exposed to bacteria.
D They circulate in the blood and always present antigens in response to infection.

39 Where are antibodies found during an immune response?

on the surface in blood

of memory cells plasma

A   key
B    = antibodies found
C    = antibodies not found
D  

40 Monoclonal antibodies are used in the diagnosis and treatment of disease. They are produced
using a technique known as cell fusion.

Which two structures are fused together in this technique?

A antigens and hybridoma cells

B T-lymphocytes and cancer cells
C cancer cells and plasma cells
D hybridoma cells and antibodies

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 9700/11/O/N/21

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2021
1 hour

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*7009474675*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB21 11_9700_12/6RP
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1 A scale bar on an electron micrograph is 2 cm long and represents an actual length of 1 m.

What is the magnification of the electron micrograph?

A 200 B 2000 C 20 000 D 200 000

2 The eyepiece of a microscope is fitted with an eyepiece graticule and a stage micrometer scale is
placed on the microscope.

Which statements about the stage micrometer scale are correct?

1 The scale can be used to measure the actual length of cells directly.
2 The scale allows you to calibrate the eyepiece graticule.

3 Less of the scale is visible as the objective lens changes from 10 to 40.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 2 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 only

3 Four students were asked to match the function with the appearance of some cell structures in an
animal cell.

The functions were listed by number.

1 mRNA passes through to the ribosome

2 organises microtubules to produce the spindle during cell division
3 synthesis of polypeptides

The appearances were listed by letter.

V membranes which surround an enclosed inner cavity

W non-membrane bound, spherical structures
X a double membrane interspersed with pores
Y non-membrane bound, cylindrical structures
Z membrane-bound sacs, arranged as a flattened stack

Which student correctly matched the numbered function with the appearance of the cell structure?

1 2 3

A V W X
B V Y Z
C X W Z
D X Y W

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4 Which cell structures are required for the formation of lysosomes and the hydrolytic enzymes that
they contain?

mitochondria

rough B
endoplasmic Golgi
reticulum A D C body

5 Which cell structures contain rRNA?

1 chloroplast
2 mitochondrion
3 nucleus
4 smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 2 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only

6 The single-celled organism Thiomargarita namibiensis measures 700 m in diameter and is

enclosed in a cell wall. The genetic material of T. namibiensis is located free in the cytoplasm
where it occurs as thousands of copies of circular DNA. Most of the cell is taken up by a large
vacuole, which stores essential chemicals for metabolism.

Which statement is correct?

A It must be a eukaryote because a diameter of 700 m is too large for a prokaryote.

B It must be a plant because it contains a vacuole.
C It must be a plant because it is enclosed in a cell wall.
D It must be a prokaryote because its DNA is circular and located in the cytoplasm.

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7 A student carried out four tests on a sample of biological molecules.

test observation

emulsion cloudy
Benedict’s yellow
biuret purple
iodine yellow

Which conclusions made by the student are correct?

1 Fat was present.

2 Glucose was present.
3 Protein was present.
4 Starch was not present.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only

8 Which general formula is correct for monosaccharides such as fructose?

A (CHO)n B (CH2O)n C (CHO2)n D (C2HO)n

9 Which statements can be used to describe the structure of cellulose?

1 a polymer of glucose monomers linked by -1,4 glycosidic bonds

2 a polysaccharide of hexose monomers

3 an unbranched macromolecule made of -glucose monomers

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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10 Complete hydrolysis of polysaccharides requires all the glycosidic bonds between the monomers
to be broken.

Enzyme X only breaks -1,4 glycosidic bonds.

Which row shows how completely enzyme X can hydrolyse molecules of glycogen and amylose?

glycogen amylose

A + ++ key
B ++ + – no hydrolysis

C ++ – + some hydrolysis

D – + ++ most hydrolysis

11 Which molecules contain at least two double bonds?

A saturated fatty acid, collagen and haemoglobin

B collagen and saturated fatty acid only
C haemoglobin and collagen only
D saturated fatty acid and haemoglobin only

12 The diagram shows an amino acid.

H CH3 O

N C C

H H OH

Which group is changed to produce different amino acids?

A OH B C=O C CH3 D NH2

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13 Which row is correct about the structure of proteins?

primary secondary tertiary quaternary

A determined by occurs by disulfide, ionic, always formed by

the sequence of hydrogen bonding hydrogen bonds association of two
DNA nucleotides between NH and and hydrophobic or more
C=O groups of interactions are all polypeptides
amino acids involved

B the number of in a single the bonds are always formed by

amino acids in polypeptide it is formed at specific two or more
each polypeptide either an -helix points determined polypeptides held
chain or a -pleated by the primary together by bonds
sheet structure formed between
the polypeptides

C formed by an -helix is only globular always formed

twenty different formed by proteins have this by two or
amino acids hydrogen bonds level of structure more different
linked in a between side polypeptides to
specific order chains of give the final shape
amino acids

D the sequence a -pleated sheet reactions between always formed

of amino acids in is the result of a side chains of by two or
each polypeptide folded specific amino more polypeptides
chain polypeptide acids give a and a metal ion
forming hydrogen specific 3-D shape
bonds between
adjacent strands

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14 Which graph correctly shows possible changes in energy levels as a chemical reaction
progresses with or without an enzyme?

A B

energy levels S energy levels

P S P

progress of reaction progress of reaction

C D

energy levels S energy levels S

P
P

progress of reaction progress of reaction

key
with enzyme
without enzyme
S substrate
P product

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15 The graph shows the relationship between the concentration of substrate and the rate of an
enzyme-catalysed reaction.

rate of
enzyme-catalysed
reaction

0
0 concentration
of substrate

Which row shows how Km and Vmax for this enzyme would be affected if the same reaction was
carried out in the presence of a competitive inhibitor?

Km Vmax

A increases decreases
B increases remains the same
C remains the same decreases
D remains the same remains the same

16 Liver cells contain vesicles that have proteins in their membranes which are specific for the
transport of glucose.

When these cells need to take up glucose, the vesicles fuse with the cell surface membrane.

How does the uptake of glucose occur?

A exocytosis
B diffusion
C endocytosis
D facilitated diffusion

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17 A student set up an experiment to investigate diffusion.

A block of agar, 1.0 cm  1.0 cm  1.0 cm, was stained uniformly with a water-soluble blue dye.
The block of agar was put into a test-tube containing 10 cm3 of distilled water at 20 C.

The intensity of the blue colour of the water after five minutes was measured.

Four other experiments, A, B, C and D, were then carried out using different numbers of agar
blocks, different sizes of agar blocks and different temperatures. All other variables were
standardised.

Which experiment would give a lighter blue colour in the water after five minutes compared to the
first experiment?

size of each number of temperature of

agar block / cm agar blocks distilled water / C

A 0.5  0.5  0.5 8 30

B 0.5  0.5  0.5 2 20
C 0.5  1.0  1.0 2 30
D 2.0  1.0  1.0 1 20

18 Which description is correct?

A A centromere holds two chromatids together until the end of prophase and attaches to the
microtubules of the spindle.
B A chromatid is one of two identical parts of a chromosome and is made of proteins and two
molecules of DNA.
C A chromosome is a structure with two identical parts, made of DNA and proteins, found in the
nucleus of a prokaryotic cell.
D A telomere is a sequence of DNA nucleotides, such as GGGTAA, repeated many times and
found at the ends of each chromatid.

19 During metaphase, a scientist stains the chromosomes of a diploid animal cell with fluorescent
dye to allow the telomeres to be observed.

This cell has 26 chromosomes.

How many telomeres will the scientist observe?

A 26 B 52 C 78 D 104

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20 The photomicrographs show cells in various stages of the cell cycle.

1 2 3 4

Which cells contain twice as many DNA molecules as a cell from the same organism that has
just finished a complete mitotic cell cycle ending with cytokinesis?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 only

21 Uncontrolled cell division can result in the formation of a tumour.

Which part of the cell cycle would take less time during the formation of a tumour?

A cytokinesis
B interphase
C mitosis
D telophase

22 A piece of a DNA molecule contains 84 base pairs. The table shows the number of adenine and
cytosine bases in one or both of the DNA strands in this piece of DNA molecule.

base strand 1 strand 2

adenine 28 23
cytosine 15

How many guanine bases are present in this piece of DNA molecule?

A 18 B 33 C 36 D 41

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23 The mRNA sequences of the three stop codons are shown.

UAA UAG UGA

Which mutation in the template (transcribed) strand of a DNA sequence that codes for a
polypeptide would cause translation to stop prematurely?

A ATT changed to ATC

B ACT changed to ACA
C ACC changed to ATT
D ATC changed to TAG

24 Which features of companion cells are essential to their function?

1 They are connected to the sieve tube elements by plasmodesmata.

2 They have a thicker cell wall than a sieve tube element.
3 They contain a nucleus and mitochondria.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 2 and 3

25 Which statements about water movement in plants are correct?

1 Water can pass through cellulose cell walls.

2 Water cannot pass through lignified cell walls.
3 Water can pass through cell walls that contain suberin.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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26 The diameter of a tree trunk usually decreases slightly during the day.

Which changes in environmental factors during the day could cause the diameter to decrease
even more?

increased
humidity

C A
D
increased increased
wind speed B temperature

27 Which sequence of events could lead to mass flow in a phloem sieve tube?

1 Sucrose moves into a sieve tube element.

2 Protons (H+) and sucrose molecules move into a companion cell through a
co-transporter protein.
3 A very high hydrostatic pressure is produced.
4 The water potential of the sieve tube element decreases.

5 Protons (H+) are actively pumped out of a companion cell.

6 Water moves down a water potential gradient by osmosis.

A 125643

B 312564

C 351246

D 521463

28 What will happen as a result of the blood pressure in the right ventricle becoming higher than the
blood pressure in the right atrium?

A The semilunar valve in the aorta will close.

B The semilunar valve in the pulmonary artery will close.
C The left atrioventricular valve will close.
D The right atrioventricular valve will close.

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29 The graph shows pressure changes in different parts of the heart during a mammalian cardiac
cycle. W, X, Y and Z indicate when a valve opens or closes.

X
key
aorta
pressure
ventricle
atrium
Z
W

0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8

time / s

Which row correctly identifies W, X, Y and Z?

W X Y Z
A atrioventricular atrioventricular semilunar semilunar
valve opens valve closes valve opens valve closes
B atrioventricular semilunar semilunar atrioventricular
valve closes valve opens valve closes valve opens
C semilunar semilunar atrioventricular atrioventricular
valve opens valve closes valve opens valve closes
D semilunar atrioventricular atrioventricular semilunar
valve closes valve opens valve closes valve opens

30 Which statements are correct?

1 Compared with blood, tissue fluid has less protein and no red blood cells.
2 Lymph may contain lipids, carbon dioxide and phagocytes.
3 Tissue fluid contains glucose, amino acids, urea and carbon dioxide.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

31 Which statements about the formation of haemoglobinic acid are correct?

1 It can only occur with the dissociation of oxygen from haemoglobin.

2 It removes excess hydrogen ions, preventing blood from becoming too acidic.
3 It is linked to the action of carbonic anhydrase.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

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32 What explains how the maximum volume of oxygen is taken up as blood passes through the
capillaries of the lungs?

A Each haemoglobin molecule can temporarily bind to four oxygen atoms.

B The dissociation of carbon dioxide from carboxyhaemoglobin allows more haemoglobin to be
available for binding oxygen.
C The binding of the first oxygen molecule to haemoglobin decreases the affinity of
haemoglobin for binding other oxygen molecules.
D Oxyhaemoglobin formation increases the ability of red blood cells to transport oxygen.

33 The image shown is a photomicrograph of a transverse section of part of the gas exchange
system.

What describes the image?

A a thin inner layer of ciliated epithelial cells on top of a layer containing cartilage, supported by
elastic fibres
B a very thin epithelial lining with walls containing elastic fibres, surrounded by many blood
vessels
C an inner layer of ciliated epithelial and goblet cells on top of elastic fibres, supported by an
outer layer consisting of cartilage
D an inner layer of ciliated epithelial and goblet cells on top of loose tissue with mucous glands,
supported by a continuous ring of cartilage

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34 Which row shows the tissues that are present in the wall of the trachea and the wall of the
bronchus?

smooth squamous goblet

muscle epithelium cells

A    key
B     = present
C     = not present
D   

35 When a person suffers an asthma attack, the tubes of the gas exchange system narrow and extra
mucus is produced.

Which changes occur during an asthma attack?

1 Activity of ciliated epithelium increases.

2 Endocytosis in goblet cells increases.
3 Smooth muscles are more active.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

36 Which flow diagram correctly describes the effect of tar entering the lungs?

carcinogens
come into mutation uncontrolled
A  
contact with occurs cell division
DNA

mucus
goblet cells phagocytes
accumulates
B secrete more   attracted by
causing
mucus inflammation
infection

mucus phagocytes elastase

C accumulates  attracted by  destroys the
causing infection inflammation alveolar walls

phagocytes causes
mutation
D  attracted by  irritation and
occurs
inflammation coughing

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37 Which control measures would reduce the transmission of tuberculosis (TB)?

boiling water
antibiotics vaccination
before drinking it

A yes no no
B yes yes yes
C no yes no
D no yes yes

38 Comorbidity is where an individual has two or more diseases or medical conditions at the same
time. Some medical conditions are particularly likely to result in comorbidity. In one example,
initial infection with one pathogen can increase the risk of developing a second disease by a
factor of 15 or more. The second disease is then the major cause of death for these people.

Which description could fit this example?

A cholera infection followed by development of malaria

B cholera infection followed by development of AIDS
C HIV infection followed by development of TB
D malaria infection followed by development of TB

39 Which conditions are infectious and result in a high white blood cell count?

1 leukaemia
2 myasthenia gravis
3 TB

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 3 only

40 Which cell type causes the secondary immune response to be much faster than the primary
immune response?

A helper T-lymphocyte
B memory cell
C phagocyte
D plasma cell

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 9700/12/O/N/21

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2021
1 hour

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*6870415011*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB21 11_9700_13/4RP
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
 2

1 A student was asked to use the scale bar shown to calculate the magnification of a cell on a
photomicrograph.

2 μm

Which method could the student use to calculate the magnification of the cell?

A divide the diameter of the cell by the length of the scale bar, with both measured in the same
units of length
B measure the diameter of the cell in millimetres, multiply by 2000 and divide by the length of
the scale bar measured in millimetres
C measure the length of the scale bar in millimetres, convert to micrometres and divide by 2
D measure the length of the scale bar in millimetres, convert to micrometres and multiply by 2

2 Which statements about light microscopy are always correct?

1 The greater the resolution of a light microscope, the greater the detail that can be
seen.
2 The greater the magnification of a light microscope, the greater the detail that can
be seen.
3 Increasing the magnification of a light microscope up to its limit of resolution allows
more detail to be seen.
4 The shorter the wavelength of light used in a light microscope, the greater the detail
that can be seen.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 3 and 4 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 4 only

3 What is the length of a typical prokaryote, such as the bacterium Escherichia coli ?

A 1.5  101 nm

B 1.5  102 nm

C 1.5  100 m

D 1.5  101 m

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4 Which cell structures are present in Plasmodium?

Golgi B
ribosomes
body
A
C

mitochondria

5 Which cell structures may contain nucleic acid?

1 cytoplasm
2 chloroplast
3 ribosome
4 Golgi body

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

6 Which row shows correct features of ATP?

carbohydrate
site of production of ATP
in ATP

A deoxyribose mitochondria and chloroplasts

B pentose mitochondria and chloroplasts
C hexose chloroplasts only
D ribose mitochondria only

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7 Which tests will identify biological molecules that contain monomers with a carboxyl group?

Benedict’s

D
A
biuret ethanol
C B

8 Which polysaccharide is correctly described?

polysaccharide monomer biological role

A amylopectin -glucose storage molecule in animals

B amylose -glucose storage molecule in plants
C cellulose -glucose structural molecule in plants
D glycogen -glucose structural molecule in animals

9 Which formula represents a saturated fatty acid?

A C18H36O2 B C18H34O2 C C18H32O2 D C18H30O2

10 Which molecules always contain at least four double bonds?

A triglyceride, collagen and haemoglobin

B collagen and triglyceride only
C haemoglobin and collagen only
D triglyceride and haemoglobin only

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11 Which row about the structure of proteins is correct?

primary structure secondary structure tertiary structure

A the number the left-handed the result of

of amino acids spiral formed by the cross-bonding between
present in a protein primary structure specific amino acids in
the primary structure

B the order of the coiling of a the shape formed

amino acids present chain of amino acids by folding of a
in a protein to form a -pleated polypeptide and
encoded by DNA sheet held together by
hydrogen bonds

C the result of occurs because of the result of ionic

translation of an attraction between and hydrogen bonds,
mRNA molecule by hydrogen and disulfide bridges
a ribosome into a oxygen atoms in and hydrophobic
chain of amino acids the side chains interactions between
amino acids

D the sequence formed by formed as a result

of amino acids in hydrogen bonding of interaction of the
a protein coded by between amino acids side chains of
an mRNA molecule forming the amino acids in the
primary structure primary structure

12 Which statement about collagen is correct?

A A collagen fibre is made of three parallel helices with hydrogen bonds holding them in place.
B It is an insoluble fibrous protein with a quaternary structure.
C One-third of the amino acids making up collagen are valine.
D Collagen fibres are formed from several collagen molecules held together by ionic bonds.

13 Which properties of water are the result of hydrogen bonding between water molecules?

1 solvent action
2 specific heat capacity
3 latent heat of vapourisation

A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

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14 Which descriptions about all enzymes are correct?

1 catalyse the breakdown of large molecules into smaller molecules

2 only function inside cells
3 form temporary bonds with the substrate
4 have a tertiary structure

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

15 The cells in the roots of beetroot plants contain a red pigment.

When pieces of root tissue are soaked in cold water, some of the red pigment leaks out of the
cells into the water.

An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of temperature on the loss of red pigment
from the root cells. It was found that the higher the temperature of the water, the higher the rate
of loss of red pigment from the root cells.

Which statements could explain this trend?

1 Enzymes in the cells denature as the temperature increases, so the pigment can no
longer be used for reactions inside the cells and diffuses out.
2 As the temperature increases, the tertiary structure of protein molecules in the cell
surface membrane changes, increasing the permeability of the membrane.
3 Phospholipid molecules gain kinetic energy as the temperature rises, increasing the
fluidity of the phospholipid bilayer and allowing pigment molecules to diffuse out
more easily.

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

16 The diagram shows a partially plasmolysed plant cell.

solution X

Z
solution Y

What is found at Z?

A air
B solution X
C solution Y
D water

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17 A single-celled organism lives in freshwater. Water that enters the cytoplasm of the cell by
osmosis is collected into a structure called the contractile vacuole. To remove the water the
contractile vacuole fuses with the cell surface membrane.

A student counted the number of times that the contractile vacuole filled and emptied when the
cell was placed in solutions with different water potentials. The results are shown in the table.

water potential of rate of contractile

external solution vacuole emptying
/ kPa / min–1

0 31
–100 20
–200 13
–300 8
–400 6
–500 0

Which statement explains the pattern observed as the water potential of the external solution
decreased?

A The water potential gradient between the cell and the solution increased, causing water to
move into the cell more rapidly and the contractile vacuole to empty more frequently.
B The water potential gradient between the cell and the solution increased, causing water to
move into the cell less rapidly and the contractile vacuole to empty less frequently.
C The water potential gradient between the cell and the solution decreased, causing water to
move into the cell more rapidly and the contractile vacuole to empty more frequently.
D The water potential gradient between the cell and the solution decreased, causing water to
move into the cell less rapidly and the contractile vacuole to empty less frequently.

18 Which row shows the correct number of each component of a single chromatid during anaphase
of mitosis?

polynucleotide
centromeres telomeres
strands

A 1 2 2
B 1 4 4
C 2 2 4
D 2 4 2

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19 Some processes are listed.

 cytokinesis

 differentiation

 DNA replication

 mitosis

How many of the listed processes occur during tissue repair by stem cells?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

20 The photomicrographs show cells in various stages of the cell cycle.

Which stage of mitosis is not shown?

A anaphase
B prophase
C metaphase
D telophase

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21 Which letter in the key describes uracil?

is a purine

yes no

is found has a single

in RNA ring structure

yes no yes no

A B C D

22 When a gene for protease is activated, which nucleic acid will be formed?

A DNA
B mRNA
C rRNA
D tRNA

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23 The diagram shows a vascular bundle from the stem of a plant.

Which row describes the functions of the labelled cells?

transports transports stores

sucrose mineral ions starch

A 1 2 3
B 2 1 3
C 2 3 1
D 3 1 2

24 Some of the features present in the transport tissues of plants are listed.

1 lignified walls
2 cytoplasm
3 mitochondria
4 chloroplasts
5 plasmodesmata

Which features are present in sieve tube elements?

A 1, 2 and 5 B 1, 3 and 4 C 2, 3 and 5 D 2, 4 and 5

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25 Which statements explain why transpiration is an inevitable consequence of gas exchange in

plants?

1 Hydrolysis reactions are taking place in cells.

2 ATP production is occurring.
3 Stomata must be open.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

26 In an investigation, a leafy shoot was attached to a potometer and exposed to a variety of

conditions. The time taken for the meniscus to move 50 mm along the capillary tubing was
recorded for each set of conditions.

time taken to
temperature air
humidity move 50 mm
/ C movement
/s

20 dry not moving 125

20 dry moving 71
30 dry not moving 40
20 humid not moving 166
20 humid moving 83
30 humid not moving 55

Which row shows the slowest and fastest rates of water uptake for this investigation?

slowest rate fastest rate

/ mm s–1 / mm s–1

A 0.3 1.3
B 0.3 3.3
C 3.3 0.3
D 1.3 0.8

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27 Proton pumps (H+ pumps) and co-transporters are used by plants when loading sucrose into a
phloem sieve tube element at a source.

Which row is correct?

proton pump co-transporter

A pumps protons into a the high concentration of protons in the

companion cell raising its pH companion cell allows the transporter to
be used for moving sucrose out of the cell
B pumps protons into a the high concentration of protons in a
mesophyll cell raising its pH mesophyll cell drives the transport of
sucrose into the cell
C pumps protons out of a the high concentration of protons outside
companion cell into its cell wall a companion cell drives the transport of
sucrose into the cell
D pumps protons out of a the low concentration of protons in a
mesophyll cell into its cell wall mesophyll cell allows the transporter to be
used for moving sucrose out of the cell

28 The statements list some of the events in the cardiac cycle. They are not in the correct order.

1 The impulse travels through Purkyne tissue.

2 A wave of excitation sweeps across the atria.
3 The atrioventricular node delays the impulse for a fraction of a second.
4 The sinoatrial node contracts.
5 The wave of excitation sweeps upwards from the base of the ventricles.
6 The ventricles contract.
7 The atria contract.

Which statement describes the sixth of these events to occur in the cardiac cycle?

A 1 B 3 C 4 D 5

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29 Which tissue types are present in the walls of all blood vessels?

1 collagen
2 elastic
3 endothelial
4 smooth muscle

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 3 only

30 The photomicrograph shows three white blood cells labelled X, Y and Z.

X
Y

Which row correctly identifies these cells?

cell X cell Y cell Z

A lymphocyte monocyte neutrophil

B lymphocyte neutrophil monocyte
C monocyte neutrophil lymphocyte
D neutrophil monocyte lymphocyte

31 When active tissues have high carbon dioxide concentrations, oxyhaemoglobin needs to release
oxygen to the tissues.

How is the carbon dioxide transported away by the blood from the tissues?

1 as carboxyhaemoglobin
2 as carbaminohaemoglobin
3 as hydrogencarbonate ions

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

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32 Which effect does increasing carbon dioxide concentration have on haemoglobin?

A Haemoglobin is less efficient at taking up oxygen and less efficient at releasing oxygen.
B Haemoglobin is less efficient at taking up oxygen and more efficient at releasing oxygen.
C Haemoglobin is more efficient at taking up oxygen and less efficient at releasing oxygen.
D Haemoglobin is more efficient at taking up oxygen and more efficient at releasing oxygen.

33 The diagram shows a magnified section of part of the lungs containing specialised tissues.

Which row is correct for the structures labelled 1 to 6?

contains high proportion of

carbonic hydrogencarbonate
lysosomes
anhydrase ions

A 1 3 4
B 2 4 5
C 3 5 6
D 4 6 1

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34 The table shows some parts of an animal’s lungs that contain different cell types.

cell type present

part of lungs smooth
ciliated goblet
muscle

trachea    key
bronchus     = present
bronchiole     = not present
alveoli   

Which parts of this animal’s lungs clean inhaled air and which carry out gas exchange?

clean inhaled air gas exchange

A bronchiole and alveoli bronchus and trachea

B bronchus and trachea only bronchiole only
C bronchus and trachea only bronchiole and alveoli
D bronchiole, bronchus, trachea alveoli only

35 What helps to maintain a steep oxygen concentration gradient between the air in an alveolus and
the blood?

1 Breathing in brings in a supply of air with a relatively high concentration of oxygen to

the alveolus.
2 Blood flow brings blood with a relatively low concentration of oxygen to the alveolus.
3 The relatively low concentration of carbon dioxide in the alveolus results in the
carbon dioxide leaving the red blood cell, allowing haemoglobin to combine with
oxygen.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

36 Goblet cells are found in the trachea.

Which cell structures would be found extensively in a goblet cell?

Golgi body mitochondria ribosomes

A    key
B     = found extensively
C     = not found extensively
D   

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37 In a country where malaria has successfully been eliminated, an outbreak of malaria can occur
years later.

What could allow this later outbreak of malaria to occur?

1 mosquitoes become resistant to insecticides

2 migration of the population due to war
3 malarial parasites become resistant to quinine

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

38 Which row about a person with leukaemia only and about a person with measles only is correct?

white blood cell bone marrow white blood cell

count in a person function in a person count in a person
with leukaemia only with leukaemia only with measles only

A decreased increased decreased

B decreased decreased increased
C increased normal decreased
D increased increased increased

39 What is the cause of symptoms of people with myasthenia gravis?

A antibodies block receptor molecules on the cell surface membrane of muscle cells
B it is an autoimmune disease where self-antigens attack antibodies
C the destruction of T-lymphocytes, which have receptors complementary to self-antigens
D the loss of cell surface membrane receptors in nerve cells found in the spinal cord

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40 Tetanus is a bacterial infection.

The graph shows the blood antibody concentration of two people.

On day 0, person G was injected with antibodies to the tetanus toxin and person H was injected
with the vaccine for tetanus.

25
G H
20

antibody 15
concentration
/ arbitrary units 10

0
0 5 10 15 20
time / days
time of
injection

What could be the result if G and H were infected with the tetanus bacteria on day 20?

A Tetanus antibodies would not be produced in person G.

B Antibody production would peak after day 32 in person G.
C Antibody concentration would stay constant in person H.
D A second antibody peak would occur in person H that would be lower than the first peak.

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BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2021 9700/13/O/N/21

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BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2021 9700/13/O/N/21

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2021 9700/13/O/N/21

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*1106378042*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 03_9700_12/4RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 2

1 Which cell organelles are clearly visible when viewed with a light microscope at high power
(×400)?

endoplasmic
ribosomes centrioles chloroplasts
reticulum

A     key
B      = clearly visible
C      = not clearly visible
D    

2 Microvilli and root hairs are characteristic structures of some cell types.

Which row identifies some features of a microvillus and a root hair?

more than one

surrounded
present on a
by cell wall
cell

A root hair microvillus

B microvillus microvillus
C root hair root hair
D microvillus root hair

3 The photomicrograph is of a plant cell. The cell is 25 µm in width from X to Y.

X
Y

What is the magnification of the photomicrograph?

A 2.0 × 101 B 2.0 × 102 C 2.0 × 103 D 2.0 × 104

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/F/M/22

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4 Which eukaryotic cell structures all contain nucleic acids?

A cytoplasm, Golgi bodies, mitochondria, nuclei

B centrioles, chloroplasts, mitochondria, ribosomes
C centrioles, mitochondria, nuclei, ribosomes
D chloroplasts, mitochondria, cytoplasm, ribosomes

5 Which statements about viruses are correct?

1 They contain DNA or RNA.

2 They use host cells to synthesise virus proteins.
3 They can have a protective coat of peptidoglycan.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

6 What are features of prokaryote cells, chloroplasts and mitochondria?

ribosomes smaller circular

than 80S A B C DNA

surrounded by a
double membrane

7 A student used Benedict’s solution to test a sample known to contain carbohydrate.

At the end of the test the solution was blue.

Which carbohydrate could be present in the sample?

A glucose
B fructose
C maltose
D sucrose

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 4

8 Sugars with a ring structure can also have a linear structure.

C O

H C OH

HO C H

H C OH

H C OH

CH2OH

Which sugar molecules could be represented by the linear structure in the diagram?

1 ribose
2 deoxyribose
3 glucose

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

9 Which row matches each molecule to a type of bond that is present?

ester bond hydrogen bond disulfide bond

A amylase haemoglobin catalase

B glycerol glycogen collagen
C lipid amylopectin amylose
D phospholipid cellulose antibody

10 Which row shows features of a carbohydrate polymer found inside animal cells?

α-1,4 α-1,6
shape of
glycosidic glycosidic
molecule
bonds bonds

A   branched key
B   helical  = present
C   branched  = absent
D   helical

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11 The statements describe the structure of a polysaccharide found in the cell walls of certain plants.

1 The polysaccharide is composed of two different monosaccharides.

2 The monosaccharides are joined by 1,4 glycosidic bonds.
3 The polysaccharide contains pentose sugars.

Which statements are also true for cellulose?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 only

12 The general formula for a saturated fatty acid is CnH2nO2.

Which of these fatty acids are unsaturated?

1 C10H19COOH
2 C15H31COOH
3 C17H31COOH
4 C18H32COOH

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

13 What enables triglycerides to perform their functions in living organisms?

1 Triglycerides have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.

2 Triglycerides have a high ratio of carbon–hydrogen bonds to carbon atoms.
3 Hydrolysis of triglycerides releases metabolic water.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 only

14 The diagrams show three examples of different bonds.

bond 2
bond 1 O bond 3

NH O C N CH2 S S CH2

Which bonds can hold the quaternary structure of proteins together?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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15 Which row correctly describes the primary structure, secondary structure, tertiary structure and
quaternary structure of some proteins?

primary secondary tertiary quaternary

structure structure structure structure

A determines the depends on defines the overall formed when two

folding of the hydrogen bonding shape and folding or more identical
polypeptide between the of the protein polypeptides join
side-chains of together
amino acids

B defines the order usually forms is held together by found in globular

of amino acids in immediately after all the types of proteins such as
the polypeptide polypeptide bonding that haemoglobin but
synthesis occur in proteins never in fibrous
proteins

C involves covalent involves essential for the formed when two

bonds only interactions function of or more
between –H and enzymes and polypeptides join
=O receptors together

D involves peptide involves folding changes can involve

bonds between between local reversibly when hydrogen bonds,
the side-chains of regions within a bound to covalent bonds
amino acids polypeptide non-competitive and hydrophobic
molecule inhibitors interactions

16 Which relationships could be investigated using a colorimeter?

1 the effect of light intensity on the rate at which a solution of a light-sensitive dye
changes from green to colourless
2 the effect of temperature on the rate of breakdown of cell membranes in tissues with
pigmented cells, such as beetroot (red beet)
3 the effect of pH on the rate of release of oxygen from the breakdown of hydrogen
peroxide by catalase
4 the effect of light intensity on the rate of change of skin colour of lizards that become
paler in bright light

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 4 only D 2 and 3 only

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17 Which transport mechanism does not require a concentration gradient to be present in order to
take place?

A exocytosis
B facilitated diffusion
C osmosis
D transpiration

18 High concentrations of ethanol disrupt cell membrane structure by denaturing proteins and
increasing the separation of adjacent phospholipid molecules. As a result, cell membranes can
decrease in thickness by up to 30% and become more permeable.

Yeast cells release ethanol as a waste product of metabolism. In response to increased ethanol
concentration in their environment, yeast cells are able to increase the tolerance of their cell
membranes to ethanol.

Which statement correctly explains a response to ethanol that could account for the increase in
tolerance of yeast cell membranes to ethanol?

A Decreasing the ratio of saturated fatty acids to unsaturated fatty acids within cell membranes
helps to prevent the tails of phospholipids on one side of the bilayer from sliding past the tails
of phospholipids on the other side of the bilayer.
B Increasing the proportion of palmitoleic acid (a C16 unsaturated fatty acid) to oleic acid (a
C18 unsaturated fatty acid) in the phospholipids of the bilayer increases the fluidity of the cell
membrane.
C Activating a cell-signalling pathway triggers the unfolded protein response in the endoplasmic
reticulum. The unfolded protein response pauses protein synthesis and initiates cell death in
yeast cells with a high proportion of mis-folded proteins.
D Increasing the proportion of ergosterol in the cell membrane prevents the accumulation of
polar molecules, such as ethanol, within the cell. Ergosterol in yeast cells has a similar effect
on membrane permeability as cholesterol in mammalian cells.

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19 In an investigation, a plant cell was placed in pure water.

The initial rate at which water molecules entered the cell, R, was greater than the initial rate at
which water molecules left the cell.

In a second investigation, a plant cell of the same type was placed in a solution with a water
potential equal to that of the cell contents.

What will happen in the second investigation over a period of five minutes?

A Water molecules will not enter or leave the cell because the water potential of the cell
contents is equal to that of the solution.
B Water molecules will enter and leave the cell in equal amounts, both at an initial rate that is
less than R in the first investigation.
C Water molecules will enter and leave the cell in equal amounts, both at an initial rate that is
greater than R in the first investigation.
D Water molecules will enter and leave the cell in equal amounts, both at an initial rate that is
equal to R in the first investigation.

20 The protein p53 is produced in a cell in response to DNA damage. This protein stops the cell
cycle for a short time just before the DNA is replicated, so that the DNA can be repaired.

At which phase of the cell cycle will this stop occur?

A M B G1 C S D G2

21 Some parts of a typical human chromosome are more numerous than others.

Which parts are listed in order from the most numerous to the least numerous?

A centromere, nucleotide, histone

B DNA molecule, telomere, centromere
C histone, telomere, DNA molecule
D telomere, centromere, nucleotide

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22 Which row correctly describes a stage of mitosis?

stage of mitosis nuclear envelope centromeres spindle

A prophase disappears replicate spindle microtubules
begin to form
B metaphase not present move to the spindle microtubules
poles of the cell fully formed
C anaphase begins to reform split into two some spindle
microtubules shorten

D telophase reforms at maximum spindle microtubules

distance from cell break down
equator

23 The diagram represents a nucleotide containing adenine.

base

Which statements about this nucleotide are correct?

1 The carbohydrate is a pentose.

2 The base contains nitrogen.
3 Base pairing occurs with uracil.
4 Adenine is a pyrimidine.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 3 and 4 only

24 Which row is correct for the replication of a DNA molecule?

enzyme that adds

direction of DNA
complementary nucleotides to
synthesis
lagging strand

A 3′ to 5′ DNA polymerase
B 3′ to 5′ DNA ligase
C 5′ to 3′ DNA polymerase
D 5′ to 3′ DNA ligase

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25 Some students were asked to look at the photomicrograph of a cross-section of unfamiliar

material and describe what they could see.

The students described the cross-section of F as:

1 circular
2 a hollow tube
3 spherical.

Which descriptions of the cross-section of F correctly state what the students could actually see?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 3 only

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/F/M/22

 11

26 The diagram shows the relationship between phloem sieve tube elements, xylem vessel
elements and companion cells.

1 3 5

2 4

Which row correctly identifies what could be represented by the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5?

1 2 3 4 5
A companion endoplasmic phloem sieve no xylem vessel
cells reticulum tube elements nucleus elements
B companion nucleus phloem sieve cytoplasm xylem vessel
cells tube elements elements
C phloem sieve mitochondria companion nucleus xylem vessel
tube elements cells elements
D xylem vessel no phloem sieve vacuole companion
elements cytoplasm tube elements cells

27 Why does an air bubble in a xylem vessel element stop the flow of water?

1 loss of adhesion
2 loss of cohesion
3 collapse of xylem vessel element

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 only

28 Which changes to the water potential and the volume of solution in a phloem sieve tube occur
when amino acids are moved into a sink from the phloem sieve tube?

water potential in volume of solution

the phloem sieve in the phloem
tube becomes sieve tube

A higher decreases
B higher increases
C lower decreases
D lower increases

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/F/M/22 [Turn over

 12

29 Which feature of some xerophytic leaves reduces the rate of transpiration by decreasing the
water potential gradient between the internal leaf surface and the atmosphere?

A a thick waxy cuticle on the upper surface of the leaf

B leaves reduced to spines with a small surface area to volume ratio
C stomata located in sunken pits on the leaf surface
D elongated leaves that are swollen storing large amounts of water

30 The diagram shows a cross-section through a mammalian heart.

H
G

Which chambers of the heart are represented by G and H?

G H

A left ventricle right ventricle

B right atrium left atrium
C right atrium right ventricle
D right ventricle left ventricle

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/F/M/22

 13

31 Blood entering the heart from the vena cava passes through, or past, several structures before
entering the lungs.

Five of these structures are included in this list.

atrioventricular node
aorta
semilunar valve
left atrium
pulmonary vein
Purkyne tissue
sinoatrial node
pulmonary artery

After arranging these five structures in the correct order of blood flow from the vena cava to the
lungs, which structure will be third?

A atrioventricular node
B Purkyne tissue
C semilunar valve
D sinoatrial node

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/F/M/22 [Turn over

 14

32 The bar charts show the quantity of endothelial tissue, elastic tissue and muscle tissue in the
walls of three blood vessels, P, Q and R.

key
endothelial tissue
elastic tissue
muscle tissue

P Q R

quantity quantity quantity

tissue tissue tissue

Which row correctly identifies the three blood vessels?

P Q R

A elastic artery muscular artery vein

B vein elastic artery muscular artery
C muscular artery elastic artery vein
D elastic artery vein muscular artery

33 The maximum pressure in each of the four chambers of a healthy human heart was recorded
during one cardiac cycle. The maximum pressures recorded were 3 mm Hg, 10 mm Hg, 25 mm Hg
and 120 mm Hg.

Which value was recorded for the right ventricle?

A 3 mm Hg B 10 mm Hg C 25 mm Hg D 120 mm Hg

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/F/M/22

 15

34 The graph shows the pressure changes in three structures of the right side of the heart during
the cardiac cycle.

pressure T

0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8

time / s

What is represented by the line labelled T?

A pressure changes in the pulmonary artery

B pressure changes in the right atrium
C pressure changes in the right ventricle
D pressure changes in the vena cava

35 Which statement helps to explain why there is no cartilage in the walls of the bronchioles?

A Cartilage would make the bronchioles too narrow.

B Gases must diffuse across the walls of the bronchioles.
C Smooth muscle is sufficient to support the walls of the bronchioles.
D The bronchiole walls do not need to change shape.

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 16

36 The photomicrograph shows a cross-section of part of the gas exchange system of a mammal.

What is shown by the line labelled V?

A the diameter of an alveolus

B the diameter of a bronchiole
C the diameter of a capillary
D the diameter of a trachea

37 Which feature of the disease cholera decreases the spread of the pathogen Vibrio cholerae?

A Immunity to cholera after vaccination is short lived, lasting less than two years after
vaccination in 50% of people.
B Up to 98% of people infected with Vibrio cholerae are symptomless carriers.
C Cholera rapidly kills up to 50% of people with symptoms if they are not treated.
D Simple rehydration therapy successfully treats about 99% of people with symptoms of
cholera.

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/F/M/22

 17

38 Which row shows how penicillin kills bacteria?

process inhibited by penicillin effect on bacteria

A formation of water enters and
peptidoglycan cross-links bacteria burst
B breakdown of water enters and
peptidoglycan cross-links bacteria burst
C formation of water leaves and
peptidoglycan cross-links bacteria dehydrate
D breakdown of water leaves and
peptidoglycan cross-links bacteria dehydrate

39 In the hybridoma method, what is grown by cell culture to produce monoclonal antibodies?

A antigens
B clones
C lymphocytes
D myeloma cells

40 Which type of immunity does a baby have at birth?

A active artificial
B active natural
C passive artificial
D passive natural

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© UCLES 2022 9700/12/F/M/22

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© UCLES 2022 9700/12/F/M/22

 20

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/F/M/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*5303999249*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 06_9700_11/4RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 2

1 A student used a stage micrometer scale to calibrate an eyepiece graticule.

The diagram shows the view of both the stage micrometer scale and the eyepiece graticule seen
by the student. The divisions on the stage micrometer scale are 0.1 mm apart.

stage micrometer scale

eyepiece graticule

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 10

The student removed the stage micrometer scale and viewed a slide with blood cells on it. The
same lenses were used so that the magnification remained unchanged.

The student measured the diameter of one of the white blood cells on the slide using the
eyepiece graticule and recorded that it was 8 eyepiece units.

What is the correct diameter of this white blood cell in micrometers?

A 0.2 B 0.8 C 20 D 800

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22

 3

2 Four students were asked to match the function with the appearance of some cell structures in an
animal cell.

The functions were listed by number.

1 mRNA passes through to the ribosome

2 produces the mitotic spindle during cell division
3 packaging of hydrolytic enzymes that will remain in the cell

The appearances were listed by letter.

V membranes which surround an enclosed inner cavity

W non-membrane-bound, spherical structures
X a double membrane interspersed with pores
Y non-membrane-bound, cylindrical structures
Z membrane-bound sacs, arranged as a flattened stack

Which student correctly matched the numbered function with the appearance of the cell
structure?

1 2 3

A V W Y
B V Y Z
C X W Y
D X Y Z

3 Which size range would include most prokaryotic cells?

A B C D

1 nm 100 nm 1 µm 100 µm 1 mm

4 What is present in a typical prokaryotic cell and a typical eukaryotic cell?

A 70S ribosomes
B centrioles
C circular DNA in the cytoplasm
D starch granules

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 4

5 Which statement about viruses is correct?

A They all have a capsid made of protein.

B They all contain RNA.
C They all have an outer envelope made of phospholipids.
D They all contain 80S ribosomes.

6 Samples of glucose, sucrose, and a mixture of glucose and sucrose were divided into two halves
M and N.

M was then tested with Benedict’s solution.

N was boiled with dilute hydrochloric acid, neutralised and then tested with Benedict’s solution.

The colour of the solution was compared to colour standards.

Which table identifies the correct colour changes for these samples?

A B
sample M N sample M N

glucose blue blue glucose yellow yellow

sucrose blue yellow sucrose blue yellow
mixture blue yellow mixture blue yellow

C D
sample M N sample M N

glucose yellow yellow glucose yellow red

sucrose blue yellow sucrose blue red
mixture yellow red mixture yellow red

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22

 5

7 Which molecules contain 1,4-glycosidic bonds?

amylose

D B
C
cellulose glycogen

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 6

8 The diagram shows three triglycerides, X, Y and Z.

O
H2COC
O

X HCOC
O
H2COC

O
H2COC
O
Y HCOC
O
H2COC

O
H2COC
O
Z HCOC
O
H2COC

Which row is correct for these triglycerides?

contains contains contains more

saturated unsaturated than two different
fatty acids fatty acids fatty acids

A X, Y and Z X and Y X and Y

B X, Y and Z Z X and Y
C X and Y X, Y and Z X, Y and Z
D Z X and Y X, Y and Z

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22

 7

9 Some foods contain hydrogenated vegetable fats. These are unsaturated fats that have been
converted to saturated fats.

Which property of the fats will have changed?

A Their hydrocarbon chains will fit together more closely.

B Their solubility in water will increase.
C They will have more double bonds in their molecules.
D They will remain liquid at room temperature.

10 A polypeptide contains a specific number of amino acids, n.

How many peptide bonds are present in this polypeptide?

A n–1 B n C n+1 D n+2

11 Which statement is correct?

A Amylase, ribose and phospholipid are all macromolecules.

B Cellulose, glucose and catalase are all polymers.
C Deoxyribose, fructose and ribose are all monosaccharides.
D Sucrose, deoxyribose and amylopectin are all polysaccharides.

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 8

12 A student used colorimetry to monitor the hydrolysis of a protein by a protease enzyme.

The student used biuret solution to determine the concentration of protein in the hydrolysis
reaction.

The student produced a calibration curve using known concentrations of protein.

Which diagram shows the calibration curve?

A B

transmission absorbance

0 0
0 protein 0 protein
concentration concentration

C D

transmission absorbance

0 0
0 protein 0 protein
concentration concentration

13 A student completed an experiment to measure how increasing concentrations of substrate

affects the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction.

The student then repeated the experiment after adding a fixed quantity of a reversible competitive
inhibitor.

Which row describes the effect of a reversible competitive inhibitor on enzyme activity?

attachment of inhibitor effect of increasing substrate concentration

at active site on rate of enzyme-controlled reaction

A no little effect on the rate

B yes rate increases
C no rate increases
D yes little effect on the rate

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22

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14 The diagram shows a liposome.

Liposomes can be used to move therapeutic drugs into cells of the body to treat conditions such
as cancer.

Which row shows the property of a drug that could be transported in the sections of the liposome
labelled 1 and 2?

property of drug property of drug

transported in location 1 transported in location 2

A hydrophilic hydrophilic
B hydrophilic hydrophobic
C hydrophobic hydrophilic
D hydrophobic hydrophobic

15 Some processes occurring in cells are listed.

1 endocytosis of water into cells

2 exocytosis of enzymes from cells
3 facilitated diffusion of glucose into red blood cells
4 phagocytosis of dead cells by macrophages

Which processes use ATP?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22 [Turn over

 10

16 The graph shows changes in the concentration of a solute inside a cell.

concentration
of solute
inside cell

0
0 time

What explains this change in concentration?

1 diffusion
2 endocytosis
3 exocytosis
4 osmosis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 1 and 4 only D 2 and 4

17 The indicator cresol red, changes from red to yellow when put into acid.

Four blocks of agar containing cresol red were cut to different sizes measured in millimetres. The
blocks were submerged in acid. All other variables were kept constant. The time taken for each of
the blocks to completely turn yellow was recorded.

Which of the four blocks became completely yellow most quickly?

A 3  30  30 B 666 C 6  12  12 D 12  12  12

18 Which processes require mitosis?

1 the cloning of T-lymphocytes

2 the repair of cell structures by protein synthesis
3 the growth of multicellular organisms from a single cell
4 the reproduction of a unicellular eukaryote

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 1 and 2 only D 3 and 4 only

19 Which events listed are part of the cell cycle?

1 interphase
2 prophase
3 cytokinesis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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20 Telomerase is an enzyme that adds nucleotides to telomeres.

Which statement about telomerase is correct?

A A high concentration of telomerase in a cell damages genes during DNA replication.

B A high concentration of telomerase in cancerous cells limits the rate of tumour growth.
C The low concentration of telomerase in stem cells means that these cells can divide an
unlimited number of times.
D The low concentration of telomerase in body cells means that these cells can divide a limited
number of times.

21 The photomicrograph shows cells at different stages of mitosis.

S R

A student wrote four statements about the photomicrograph.

1 Cell P shows anaphase.

2 Spindle formation is occurring in cell Q.
3 The amount of DNA in cell R is the same as in cell T.

4 The correct order for the stages is S  R  T  P  Q.

Which statements are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22 [Turn over

 12

22 Bacterial cells with DNA containing only the ‘heavy’ isotope of nitrogen (15N) are allowed to
reproduce for three generations in a culture medium containing the normal isotope of
nitrogen (14N).

Which percentage of the DNA molecules produced contain strands with the heavy isotope of
nitrogen?

first generation second generation third generation

% % %

A 50 25 12.5
B 75 50 25
C 100 50 25
D 100 75 50

23 A bacterial circular DNA molecule is 2 600 150 base pairs long. 26% of the bases are adenine.

How many cytosine bases would be in the DNA molecule?

A 624 036 B 676 039 C 1 248 072 D 1 352 078

24 Which statement relating to the structure of DNA is correct?

A Two DNA strands are joined to each other by phosphodiester bonds.

B The alignment of bases to form a double helix is only achieved between antiparallel strands.
C Three hydrogen bonds are formed between all base pairs containing purines.
D The number of cytosine bases always equals the number of thymine bases.

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22

 13

25 A student sketched a diagram to represent the process of transcription.

Which part of their diagram shows the non-transcribed strand?

T A
A T A
G C B
C G
T UA
T UA
C CG
direction of
D A AT transcription
C CG
G GC
G GC
T A
T A C
A T
CG

26 Which row is correct for the movement of water in a root?

molecule present
pathway
in Casparian strip

A apoplast pathway through intercellular spaces suberin

B apoplast pathway through plasmodesmata lignin
C symplast pathway through plasmodesmata lignin
D symplast pathway through intercellular spaces suberin

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22 [Turn over

 14

27 The table contains some information about uptake and movement of water and of mineral ions
in plants.

water mineral ions

mechanism for uptake osmosis diffusion, active transport

site of uptake root hair cells root hair cells
mechanism of release evaporation, diffusion diffusion, active transport
site of release stomata plant cells

Using the information provided, which factors will affect the uptake and movement of water or of
mineral ions in plants?

1 humidity
2 surface area of root hair cell
3 oxygen concentration
4 temperature

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 3 and 4 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 4 only

28 Which changes to the water potential and the volume of solution in the phloem sieve tube occur
when sucrose is moved from a photosynthesising leaf into the phloem sieve tube?

water potential in volume of solution

the phloem sieve in the phloem
tube becomes sieve tube

A higher decreases
B higher increases
C lower decreases
D lower increases

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22

 15

29 A student wrote the following statements about a possible mechanism for loading sucrose from
a source.

1 When energy is released from ATP, the released energy is used to move sucrose
through a co-transporter protein in the companion cell membrane.
2 As sucrose is moved into a companion cell the pH in the cell wall of the companion
cell decreases.
3 Proton pumps in the cell membrane of a companion cell move sucrose into the
phloem sieve tube element.

Which statements are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

30 The diagram shows a transverse section through an artery.

Which tissues are present in layer X?

A collagen and smooth muscle only

B elastic fibres and collagen only
C elastic fibres and smooth muscle only
D elastic fibres, collagen and smooth muscle

31 What is systolic blood pressure?

A the blood pressure in the arteries when the heart is relaxing

B the blood pressure in the left ventricle at the start of a contraction
C the maximum blood pressure in the arteries
D the maximum blood pressure in the right ventricle

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22 [Turn over

 16

32 The diagram shows pressure changes in the left side of the heart and aorta over time. The length
of this cardiac cycle is 0.6 s. Points 1, 2, 3 and 4 indicate when atrioventricular valves and
semilunar valves either open or close.

18

16
3
14 2

12

10
pressure
/ kPa key
8 left
ventricle
6
aorta
4 4 left
1 atrium
2

0
0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6
time / s

What is the total time during one cardiac cycle that the atrioventricular valves and the semilunar
valves are both closed at the same time?

A 0.03 s B 0.04 s C 0.07 s D 0.21 s

33 Which reactions take place in the capillaries surrounding an alveolus?

1 carbon dioxide + water  carbonic acid

2 carbon dioxide + haemoglobin  carbaminohaemoglobin

3 haemoglobinic acid  haemoglobin + hydrogen ions

4 hydrogencarbonate ions + hydrogen ions  carbonic acid  carbon dioxide + water

A 1 and 2 B 3 and 4 C 3 only D 4 only

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22

 17

34 Which statement explains the importance of the chloride shift in red blood cells (RBC)?

A Carbon dioxide diffuses from blood plasma into RBC and chloride ions diffuse out of RBC to
maintain a balance of positive and negative ions.
B Hydrogencarbonate ions diffuse into plasma from RBC and chloride ions diffuse into RBC to
maintain a balance of positive and negative ions.
C Carbon dioxide in RBC together with chloride ions stimulate the release of oxygen from
haemoglobin to allow increased levels of respiration.
D Hydrogencarbonate ions diffuse into RBC from plasma and chloride ions diffuse into plasma
to maintain a balance of positive and negative ions.

35 The photomicrographs show a cross-section through the lining of part of the respiratory system.

Which statements about the photomicrographs are correct?

1 Goblet cells are visible between squamous epithelium cells.

2 Smooth muscle is visible.
3 The section cannot be from a bronchiole as cartilage is visible.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

36 The surface tension of the layer of liquid lining the alveoli tends to pull the walls inwards so alveoli
could collapse.

Which statements could explain how this is prevented?

1 Alveolar fluid is moved around by cilia.

2 Elastic fibres keep the alveoli open.
3 Epithelial cells secrete a chemical that reduces the cohesion in water.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22 [Turn over

 18

37 What will reduce the rate at which bacteria become resistant to antibiotics?

1 prescribing two antibiotics with different modes of action

2 prescribing different antibiotics for the same bacterium

3 finishing a prescribed course of antibiotics

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

38 T-lymphocytes have a protein, PD-1, on their surface. Some cancer cells have a receptor
molecule on their surface which binds with PD-1, inactivating the T-lymphocyte.

A monoclonal antibody, lambrolizumab, has been produced against this receptor.

Trials showed that in 54 of 135 people with advanced skin cancer who were given lambrolizumab
the tumours more than halved in volume. In six of the 57 people who were given the highest dose
the tumours disappeared.

What may be correctly concluded from this information?

1 Lambrolizumab binds with a receptor on the surface of skin cancer cells.

2 Cancer cells to which lambrolizumab is bound cannot inactivate T-lymphocytes.
3 Lambrolizumab targets and kills skin cancer cells.
4 Lambrolizumab allows a patient’s own immune system to kill cancer cells.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22

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39 A person’s blood group is determined by antigens present on the red blood cells.

The table shows the antigens and antibodies in the blood of people with different blood groups.

presence of A or B antigens presence of antibodies to

blood group
on red blood cells A or B in plasma

A A only anti-B only

B B only anti-A only
AB A and B neither
O neither anti-A and anti-B

During a blood transfusion, it is essential that the person receiving the blood does not have
antibodies to the donor’s blood.

Which blood groups can be given to a person with blood group AB?

A AB only
B O only
C A and B only
D A, B, AB and O

40 Which types of cell are stimulated to divide by the cytokines produced by T-helper cells?

A macrophages
B B-lymphocytes only
C T-killer cells only
D B-lymphocytes and T-killer cells

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/M/J/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*8655127533*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB22 06_9700_12/6RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 2

1 The photomicrograph shows a bronchiole and alveoli.

The magnification of the image is 360.

What is the maximum diameter of the bronchiole lumen?

A 14 m B 80 m C 140 m D 170 m

2 A specimen is observed twice with a microscope, firstly using green light with a wavelength of
510 nm and then using red light with a wavelength of 650 nm.

What happens to the magnification and resolution when using red light compared to green light?

magnification resolution

A decreases remains the same

B increases increases
C remains the same decreases
D remains the same increases

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/M/J/22

 3

3 Four students were asked to match the function with the appearance of some cell structures in an
animal cell.

The functions were listed by number.

1 produces the mitotic spindle during cell division

2 synthesis of polypeptides
3 synthesis of lipids

The appearances were listed by letter.

V membranes which surround an enclosed inner cavity

W non-membrane-bound, spherical structures
X a double membrane interspersed with pores
Y non-membrane-bound, cylindrical structures
Z membrane-bound sacs, arranged as a flattened stack

Which student correctly matched the numbered functions with the appearance of the
cell structure?

1 2 3

A W X Z
B W Z V
C Y W V
D Y Z W

4 What is found in chloroplasts and mitochondria?

A 70S ribosomes only

B 70S ribosomes and circular DNA
C 80S ribosomes and circular DNA
D circular DNA only

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/M/J/22 [Turn over

 4

5 Which feature is correct for all known viruses?

A capsid made of lipid and protein

B DNA core
C outer envelope of phospholipid
D non-cellular structure

6 Four extracts from different plant materials were made and tested with Benedict’s solution.

The extracts were boiled with Benedict’s solution for 240 seconds and the final colour was
recorded.

colour produced
extract
after 240 seconds

1 red
2 yellow
3 blue
4 green

Which sequence of plant extracts represents an increasing quantity of reducing sugar?

A 1243

B 3124

C 3214

D 3421

7 Which have properties that are dependent on hydrogen bonds?

1 cellulose
2 a molecule of haemoglobin
3 water

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

8 Which statement is correct?

A Cellulose, glycogen and amylopectin are all polymers.

B Ribose, amylase and phospholipid are all macromolecules.
C Starch, glucose and amylose are all monomers.
D Sucrose, deoxyribose and amylopectin are all polysaccharides.

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/M/J/22

 5

9 The diagram shows two amino acids. Some of the hydrogen atoms are numbered 1 to 6.

H H O H H O

N C C N C C

H H OH H H OH
1 2 3 4 5 6

Which two numbered hydrogen atoms could contribute to the production of a molecule of water
when a peptide bond forms between these two amino acids?

A 1 and 4 B 1 and 6 C 3 and 5 D 2 and 4

10 A student wrote four statements about water.

1 Water has a high specific heat capacity which maintains the temperature of water
within cells.
2 Mammals rely on water having a relatively low latent heat of vaporisation to keep
them cool.

3 When a negatively charged ion is added to water, the  charge on the hydrogen
atom is attracted to the ion.
4 When surrounded by water, non-polar molecules tend to be pushed apart from one
another.

Which statements are correct?

1 2 3 4

A     key
B      = correct
C      = not correct
D    

11 Typical enzymes are large globular proteins with a specific tertiary shape.

Which molecular interactions are directly involved in maintaining the tertiary shape?

1 hydrogen bonding
2 disulfide bridges
3 hydrophobic interactions

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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12 Which statement about the Michaelis–Menten constant (Km) is correct for an enzyme with a low
affinity for its substrate?

A It has a high Km and reaches Vmax at a high substrate concentration.

B It has a high Km and reaches Vmax at a low substrate concentration.
C It has a low Km and reaches Vmax at a high substrate concentration.
D It has a low Km and reaches Vmax at a low substrate concentration.

13 Long chain, saturated fatty acids change from solid to liquid at higher temperatures compared
with short chain, unsaturated fatty acids.

Which fatty acids would be more likely to form triglycerides in mammals that live in cold climates?

A long chain saturated

B long chain unsaturated
C short chain saturated
D short chain unsaturated

14 When animal cells are cultured, salt solution is added to keep the cells alive.

What is the purpose of the salt solution?

A to allow facilitated diffusion of salts into the cells

B to prevent diffusion of other ions in or out of the cells
C to prevent net movement of water into or out of the cells
D to provide a source of energy for active transport

15 The following are all processes that allow movement into cells.

1 phagocytosis
2 active transport
3 facilitated diffusion

Which processes require ATP?

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 1 only D 2 only

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16 Which features are required to allow for efficient diffusion?

1 a large surface area

2 a short diffusion pathway
3 maintenance of a constant diffusion gradient

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

17 What is a role of mitosis?

A growth of organisms
B production of genetically different cells
C repair of cells
D replacement of cancerous tissue

18 Telomeres prevent the loss of genes from the ends of chromosomes during DNA replication, but
they become shorter each time they are copied.

In cancer cells and stem cells, the telomeres remain the same length.

Which statement is correct for all human cells?

A If telomeres become too short, a cell may stop dividing.

B Adding telomeres could increase the rate of ageing of cells.
C Telomeres are repaired by the enzyme RNA polymerase.
D Telomeres prevent all damage occurring to DNA molecules.

19 The nucleus of a mouse body cell in G1 phase of the cell cycle has 1.2  10–12 g of DNA.

What will be the mass of DNA in the nucleus of the cell at the end of S phase and at the end of
G2 phase of the cell cycle?

end of S phase end of G2 phase

A 1.2  10–12 g 1.2  10–12 g

B 1.2  10–12 g 2.4  10–12 g
C 2.4  10–12 g 1.2  10–12 g
D 2.4  10–12 g 2.4  10–12 g

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20 What occurs during prophase in animal cells?

1 fragmentation of the nuclear envelope

2 nucleolus disappears
3 stained chromosomes become visible
4 centrioles replicate

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1 and 4 only

21 Which statement describes the structure of ATP?

A It is a DNA nucleotide with two extra phosphates.

B It is a DNA nucleotide with three extra phosphates.
C It is an RNA nucleotide with two extra phosphates.
D It is an RNA nucleotide with three extra phosphates.

22 Rifampicin is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis.

It works by inhibiting RNA polymerase in bacteria.

Which processes are directly inhibited by this antibiotic?

1 DNA replication
2 enzyme synthesis
3 ATP synthesis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

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23 The table shows the DNA triplet codes for some amino acids.

amino acid DNA triplet code amino acid DNA triplet code

arginine GCA glycine CCA

arginine GCC glycine CCG
arginine GCG glycine CCT
asparagine TTA lysine TTC
asparagine TTG lysine TTT
cysteine ACA proline GGA
cysteine ACG proline GGC
STOP ATC valine CAC

The base sequence on the template DNA strand coding for part of a polypeptide is shown.

CCA ACG GCG TTA TTC GCA

Two mutations occur in this sequence during DNA replication.

Which mutated template DNA strand would result in a shorter polypeptide?

A CCA ACA GCA TTA TTC GCA

B CCA ACG CCG TTA TTC GCC
C CCA ACG GCG TTG ATC GCA
D CCT ACG GCG TTA TTC GGA

24 Some of the features present in transport tissues are listed.

1 lignified walls
2 cytoplasm
3 mitochondria
4 pits
5 plasmodesmata

Which features are present in xylem vessel elements?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 4 and 5
C 1 and 4 only
D 2, 3 and 5

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25 The diagrams show transverse sections through parts of plants.

3
1
4 5

Which row is correct?

transports
contains lignin
organic solutes

A 1, 4, 5 2, 3, 6
B 1, 4, 6 2, 3, 5
C 2, 3, 5 1, 4, 6
D 2, 4, 6 1, 3, 5

26 Which molecules form hydrogen bonds with water during transpiration?

1 cellulose in the xylem wall

2 suberin in the xylem wall
3 other water molecules in the xylem

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

27 Some plant species can take up heavy metal contaminants that are dissolved in soil water and
then transport them within the plant. Within plant cells, the heavy metals accumulate mainly in
the vacuole.

Which suggestions about the transport and accumulation of heavy metals are valid?

1 After initial entry into the root, some of the heavy metals can pass through the
tonoplast to be stored in the vacuole of cells in the cortex.
2 The heavy metals take an apoplastic pathway in the xylem but at the endodermis
must take a symplastic pathway.
3 The rate of accumulation of the heavy metals in leaf cells will be faster at night,
when photosynthesis is not occurring, than during the day.
4 The presence of heavy metals causes the transpiration stream to slow down and
reduce the rate of transpiration.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

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28 What is the correct route for the movement of water from cell to cell in the apoplast pathway?

A through adjacent cell surface membranes

B through intercellular spaces
C through plasmodesmata
D through the Casparian strip

29 Which row shows the correct sequence for the movement of sucrose into phloem sieve tubes?

first second third

A diffusion of sucrose into the active transport of protons cotransport of protons and
companion cell cytoplasm into the companion sucrose into the sieve tubes
cell cytoplasm

B cotransport of protons and active transport of protons diffusion of sucrose into

sucrose into the companion out of the companion the sieve tubes
cell cytoplasm cell cytoplasm

C active transport of protons diffusion of sucrose into the cotransport of protons and
into the companion companion cell cytoplasm sucrose into the sieve tubes
cell cytoplasm

D active transport of protons cotransport of protons and diffusion of sucrose into

out of the companion sucrose into the companion the sieve tubes
cell cytoplasm cell cytoplasm

30 What occurs during ventricular systole in a mammalian heart?

1 Aortic pressure increases.

2 Atrial pressure does not change.
3 Ventricular pressure increases.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

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31 Which plan diagram represents the tissues in a major vein?

A B

C D

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32 The diagram shows the pressure changes in various structures of the left side of the heart during
the cardiac cycle.

At the end of which period is the ventricle full of blood?

A B C D

pressure key
/ kPa left ventricle
aorta
left atrium

0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8

time / s

33 Which description of movement of substances during tissue fluid formation is correct?

A Low hydrostatic pressure forces substances out of the capillary at the arterial end allowing
small substances to enter the fluid that bathes the cells.
B Tissue fluid moves back into the venule due to a net hydrostatic pressure change in the
capillary.
C Movement of water in tissue fluid into the capillary by osmosis is due to the low water
potential and low hydrostatic pressure inside the capillary.
D A high water potential of the surrounding tissue fluid causes substances to leave the
capillaries at the arterial end.

34 Which row shows the change in concentration of some substances in red blood cells when
carbon dioxide diffuses from active cells?

carbonic hydrogencarbonate hydrogen

anhydrase ions ions

A decreases no change no change

B increases increases increases
C no change decreases increases
D no change increases increases

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35 Which statements about the human gas exchange system are correct?

1 The absence of cartilage in small bronchioles allows them to expand.

2 The walls of the alveoli are made of cuboidal epithelium.
3 Alveoli secrete a substance which reduces surface tension.
4 The trachea and bronchi are supported by rings of cartilage.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

36 Four types of cell in the gas exchange system are listed.

J alveolus epithelium cell

K ciliated cell
L goblet cell
M smooth muscle cell

The ticks () in the table show specialised features of three of these types of cell.

lots of
many many Golgi
endoplasmic
mitochondria bodies
reticulum

1 
2 
3   

Which row correctly matches the specialised feature with the correct cell?

1 2 3

A J M K
B K J M
C K M L
D M L J

37 Why is it difficult to control the spread of tuberculosis?

1 Global air travel for commerce and tourism has increased.

2 The bacterium that causes tuberculosis has evolved resistance to some antibiotics.
3 The bacterium that causes tuberculosis shows great antigenic variability.
4 Civil unrest and poverty result in overcrowded living conditions.

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1 and 4 only C 2 and 3 D 4 only

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38 Rabies is a viral disease which can be spread to humans by a bite from an infected animal.

One method of treatment is to inject the patient with antibodies specific to the rabies virus.

Which statements about this treatment are correct?

1 The patient will have natural passive immunity to rabies.

2 The injected antibodies will be broken down by the patient.
3 The patient’s memory cells will be able to produce this antibody more rapidly in the
future.
4 The immunity provided will only last a short time.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

39 A person’s blood group is determined by antigens present on the red blood cells. The table
shows the antigens and antibodies in the blood of people with different blood groups.

blood presence of A or B presence of antibodies to

group antigens on red blood cells A or B in plasma

A A only anti-B only

B B only anti-A only
AB A and B neither
O neither anti-A and anti-B

During a blood transfusion, it is essential that the person who receives the blood does not have
antibodies to the donor’s blood.

Which blood groups can be given to a person with blood group B?

A A and B B AB and B C AB and O D B and O

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40 A student used a diagram to show four types of cells involved in the primary immune response.

cell type 4 cell type 1

recognise the foreign release chemicals that
antigen, move towards stimulate phagocytes
it and surrounds it to engulf antigens

unknown antigen
enters the body

cell type 3 cell type 2

produce the antibodies destroy cells infected
required to bind to with viruses which would
the antigen be released into the body

Which row is correct?

cell 1 cell 2 cell 3 cell 4

A B-lymphocyte macrophage T-killer cell T-helper cell

B macrophage B-lymphocyte T-helper cell T-killer cell
C T-helper cell T-killer cell B-lymphocyte macrophage
D T-killer cell T-helper cell B-lymphocyte macrophage

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/M/J/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*2953340874*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages.

IB22 06_9700_13/7RP
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1 The diagram shows a section through epithelium found in part of the respiratory system.

80 μm

What is the magnification of the diagram?

A 35 B 350 C 3500 D 35 000

2 Four students were asked to match the function with the appearance of some cell structures in an
animal cell.

The functions were listed by number.

1 mRNA passes through to the ribosome

2 synthesis of polypeptides
3 packaging of hydrolytic enzymes that will remain in the cell

The appearances were listed by letter.

V membranes which surround an enclosed inner cavity

W non-membrane-bound, spherical structures
X a double membrane interspersed with pores
Y non-membrane-bound, cylindrical structures
Z membrane-bound sacs, arranged as a flattened stack

Which student correctly matched the numbered functions with the appearance of the
cell structure?

1 2 3

A V X Y
B V Z Z
C X W Z
D X Z W

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3 An experiment was carried out to separate the cell structures in an animal cell.

The cells were broken open. The extract was filtered and put into a centrifuge tube. This tube was
then spun so that the heaviest cell structure sank to the bottom first, forming pellet 1, as shown.

liquid above
pellet

pellet 1

The liquid above pellet 1 was poured into a clean centrifuge tube and spun again at a higher
speed to separate the next heaviest cell structure. This cell structure sank to the bottom, forming
pellet 2.

This procedure was repeated twice to obtain pellet 3 and pellet 4, each containing a single
cell structure.

What is a function of the cell structure extracted in pellet 1?

A digestion of old organelles

B production of ATP
C production of mRNA
D synthesis of protein

4 ATP molecules are synthesised in mitochondria.

Which sugar is found in these ATP molecules?

A deoxyribose
B fructose
C glucose
D pentose

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5 Which row shows a comparison that is not correct between a typical prokaryotic cell and a typical
eukaryotic plant cell?

prokaryotic cell eukaryotic plant cell

A DNA not associated DNA associated
with histones with histones
B no endoplasmic reticulum endoplasmic reticulum
present present
C peptidoglycan cell walls cellulose cell walls

D all ribosomes approximately all ribosomes approximately

18 nm in diameter 22 nm in diameter

6 It is suggested that primitive prokaryotic cells may be ancestors of certain organelles in

eukaryotic cells.

Which organelle is most similar in composition to a typical prokaryote?

A Golgi bodies
B lysosomes
C mitochondria
D nucleoli

7 The concentration of reducing sugar in a solution can be found if an observational measurement

is compared to a standard.

Which observational measurement could be used to estimate the concentration of reducing sugar
in an unknown solution?

1 the colour of the solution after 20 minutes

2 the time for the first colour change to occur
3 the rate of formation of solid particles

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 only D 3 only

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8 The diagram shows three hexose sugars.

CH2OH CH2OH
CH2OH
O
C O C O
H H H OH OH
H H
C C C C C C
OH H OH H H OH
HO OH HO H H CH2OH
C C C C C C
H OH H OH OH H
1 2 3

Which row correctly shows examples of carbohydrates in which these three hexose sugars
occur?

sucrose cellulose amylopectin

A 1 2 3
B 1 3 2
C 2 3 1
D 3 2 1

9 Trehalose is a sugar that gives a negative result when tested with Benedict’s solution.

A molecule of trehalose forms two -glucose molecules when it is hydrolysed.

Which row is correct?

sugar that gives

formula of
the same result with
trehalose
Benedict’s as trehalose

A C12H22O11 fructose
B C12H22O11 sucrose
C C12H24O12 fructose
D C12H24O12 sucrose

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10 Olestra is an artificial lipid. It is made by attaching fatty acids, by condensation, to a

sucrose molecule.

A simplified diagram of olestra is shown. R represents the position where fatty acids would
be attached.

CH2OR
O
H H ROCH2 O H
H
OR H
O H RO
RO CH2OR

H OR
OR H

Humans cannot hydrolyse olestra. However, other animals may be able to do so.

How many molecules of water would be needed to hydrolyse one molecule of olestra into fatty
acids, fructose and glucose?

A 11 B 10 C 9 D 8

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11 Which molecule contains at least one peptide bond?

A B
H
H O OH
HO CH2 C C
H C O C R
O H O
O N
HO C CH2 C C H
H C O C R
H O
O N
CH3 C C H
H C O C R
O
N
H
H H

C D

HOCH2 NH2
CH2OH OH OH
C
N
H O H C N
H
H H H HC
H2 C CH
OH H O C N N
HO O CH2OH O O
H OH –
O HC CH
P CH CH
O O
OH

12 RNA polymerase and peptidyl transferase are both enzymes involved in protein synthesis.

Which statements describe similarities between these two enzymes?

1 They are both globular proteins.

2 They both have the same tertiary structure.
3 They are both intracellular enzymes.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 2 and 3

13 What is a feature of competitive enzyme inhibition?

A The inhibitor binds permanently to the active site.

B Inhibition can be reversed by increasing the concentration of the substrate.
C The inhibitor molecule changes the secondary structure of the enzyme.
D The substrate and the inhibitor are the same shape.

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14 Batrachotoxin is a poison found in frogs in the Colombian jungle. The poison is used to produce
poison darts.

The poison works by increasing the permeability of the cell surface membrane of nerve and
muscle cells to sodium ions, which move out of the cells.

Four students made statements about how the poison affects the cells.

1 Water leaves the cells by osmosis, causing the cells to shrink.

2 Water enters the cells by osmosis, causing the cells to burst.
3 When the sodium ions move out of the cells the intracellular fluid has a more
positive water potential than the extracellular fluid.
4 When the sodium ions move out of the cells the extracellular fluid has a more
positive water potential than the intracellular fluid.

Which statements are correct for the cells affected by batrachotoxin?

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

15 Which processes use energy in the form of ATP?

1 endocytosis
2 exocytosis
3 facilitated diffusion

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

16 An indicator is colourless in acid and pink in alkali.

In an experiment a petri dish of agar was prepared using an acidic solution of this indicator.

A disc of agar 1 cm in diameter was removed from the centre to create a well.

A white card showing circular marker lines 1 cm apart was placed underneath the petri dish.

1 cm3 alkali solution was put into the well in the agar and a stop-watch was started.

A circular disc of pink colour appeared and spread through the agar. It reached the first marker
line in a short time but took longer to reach the second marker line and a very long time to reach
the third marker line.

What explains these observations?

A facilitated diffusion of alkali solution

B facilitated diffusion of the indicator
C simple diffusion of alkali solution
D simple diffusion of the indicator

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17 The diagram shows a section of a glycoprotein molecule found embedded in a cell surface
membrane. Each of the amino acids is represented by a small shaded circle.

amino acid Q

amino acid chain

forms an alpha helix

Which row shows a property of the amino acids found in the alpha helix and a property of
amino acid Q?

property of
property of
amino acids found
amino acid Q
in the alpha helix

A non-polar polar
B non-polar non-polar
C polar polar
D polar non-polar

18 Some cells are listed.

1 bacterial cells
2 cancer cells
3 lymphocytes
4 mature red blood cells
5 stem cells

Which cells can divide by mitosis?

A 1, 2, 4 and 5
B 1, 2 and 3
C 2, 3 and 5
D 3, 4 and 5

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19 Which statements about mitosis are correct?

1 At the end of telophase, two nuclei are formed.

2 Centrioles attach chromosomes to the spindle during metaphase.
3 Chromatids are pulled apart during anaphase.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

20 Which statement about telomeres is correct?

A They allow cells in culture from any age of donor to divide a fixed number of times.

B They are genes which are present on the 5 end of every chromosome.

C They are unpaired regions of DNA on the 3 end of every chromosome.

D They prevent introns and exons being lost from genes during cell division.

21 The diagram shows stages of mitosis.

3
2

What is the correct sequence of the stages of mitosis numbered on the diagram?

A 13425

B 13452

C 31452

D 34125

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22 Which statement about the transcription and translation of a gene is correct?

A The non-transcribed strand of DNA has a base sequence that is identical to the mRNA
produced in transcription.
B The template strand of DNA has a base sequence that is identical to the mRNA produced in
transcription.
C The non-transcribed strand of DNA has a base sequence that is complementary to the tRNA
molecules required in translation.
D The template strand of DNA has a base sequence that is complementary to the tRNA
molecules required in translation.

23 Which statement about mRNA is correct?

A The primary transcript becomes modified by the joining of introns to become mRNA.
B The primary transcript is synthesised and then modified to mRNA in the nucleus.
C mRNA contains nucleotides containing the sugar deoxyribose.
D The bases in mRNA are held together by covalent bonds.

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24 The diagram shows part of a DNA molecule.

O
H 3C

O
O D N
O H O
N O
H N H O
O P O–
N
O O
N C
O– P O N
N N
O
O N
O O
O
H H A
N N N O P O–
O H
N N O
O –
P O B H H

O N O
O
O
O

O P O–
O
O
O– P O

Which label is correct?

A adenine
B guanine
C cytosine
D thymine

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25 The sequence of bases in DNA coding for the first eight amino acids in the -polypeptide of adult
haemoglobin is:

CAC GTG GAC TGA GGA CTC CTC TTC

However, in haemoglobin C, which is a cause of haemolytic anaemia, it becomes:

CAC GTG GAC TGA GGA TTC CTC TTC

Some of the DNA triplets that code for the amino acids are listed in the table.

amino acid DNA triplet

Glu CTC
His GTG
Leu GAG
Lys TTC
Pro GGA
Thr TGA

Which change occurs to the amino acid sequence of normal haemoglobin to make it
haemoglobin C?

A Glutamic acid is changed to lysine.

B Histidine is changed to leucine.
C Leucine is changed to lysine.
D Proline is changed to threonine.

26 The diagram shows a plant organ.

Which letter correctly labels the xylem?

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27 The photomicrograph shows a vascular bundle found in a plant organ.

Which statements about this vascular bundle are correct?

1 The vascular bundle is part of the structure of a root.

2 Some of the cells in region X have very large numbers of mitochondria.
3 Region Y is made up of a number of different cell types.

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 only

28 Which changes to the water potential and the volume of solution in the phloem sieve tube
element occur when sucrose is moved from the phloem sieve tube element to an actively dividing
shoot tip?

water potential in volume of solution

phloem sieve tube in phloem sieve
element becomes tube element

A higher decreases
B higher increases
C lower decreases
D lower increases

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29 Which processes occur during the loading of sucrose into phloem sieve tubes?

1 Protons are pumped out of the cytoplasm of the companion cell into its cell wall.
2 There is a higher concentration of protons in the symplastic pathway outside the
companion cell.
3 Protons are unable to move back into the companion cell.
4 A co-transporter molecule acts as a carrier for protons and sucrose.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

30 The photomicrograph shows a section through a structure found in mammals viewed using a
light microscope.

×60

What are the main components of layer W?

A collagen fibres only

B elastic fibres and collagen fibres
C smooth muscle and elastic fibres
D squamous epithelial cells forming an endothelium

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31 Which statement correctly links muscular or elastic arteries to their function?

A The aorta is an example of a muscular artery as it transports blood from the left ventricle of
the heart.
B Arteries further away from the heart are muscular arteries as they transport blood at high
pressure.
C Elastic arteries expand when the heart contracts and then recoil as the heart relaxes to
maintain pressure.
D Muscular arteries facilitate smoother blood flow than elastic arteries as their walls expand
and recoil.

32 The graph shows the changes in pressure that occur in the left side of the heart during one
cardiac cycle.

key
pressure left ventricle
aorta
left atrium

0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8

time / s

What is the heart rate in beats per minute?

A 75 B 80 C 120 D 150

33 Which events occur during ventricular systole?

1 Atrioventricular valves close.

2 Muscle in ventricle walls relaxes.
3 Semilunar valves open.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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34 Which reactions take place in a capillary in the lungs?

1 Carbonic acid is formed from carbon dioxide and water.

2 Carbaminohaemoglobin is formed from carbon dioxide and haemoglobin.
3 Haemoglobinic acid is formed from haemoglobin and hydrogen ions.
4 Carbon dioxide and water are formed from hydrogencarbonate ions and hydrogen
ions.

A 1 and 2 B 3 and 4 C 3 only D 4 only

35 Which features are important for the process of diffusion of oxygen out of an alveolus?

1
blood pressure
forces red blood cells
through capillaries

2
4
epithelium is
substance to reduce features permeable to
surface tension
respiratory gases

3
moist squamous
epithelium present

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 4

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/M/J/22 [Turn over

 18

36 A student viewed three slides at both low magnification and high magnification. Each slide was a
section through a different airway of the gas exchange system.

The student observed three features in each slide.

slide three features observed by student

1 irregular arrangement of cartilage
highly folded inner layer
cilia on epithelial cells

2 very few goblet cells

cilia on epithelial cells
thick layer of smooth muscle relative to wall thickness

3 smooth muscle tissue

blood vessels
many goblet cells

Which row correctly identifies the three slides?

slide 1 slide 2 slide 3

A bronchus bronchiole trachea

B bronchus trachea bronchiole
C trachea bronchiole bronchus
D trachea bronchus bronchiole

37 Which terms can be used to describe the role of mosquitoes in the transmission of malaria?

1 malarial parasite
2 pathogen
3 vector

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 3 only

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/M/J/22

 19

38 Rheumatoid arthritis is a disease which causes the body’s immune system to attack its own cells.
The disease can be treated using monoclonal antibodies.

The table shows how five different monoclonal antibodies can work.

monoclonal
mode of action
antibody

1 binding to proteins on cell surfaces and triggering the immune system

2 blocking molecules on cell surfaces that inhibit T-lymphocytes
3 blocking cell signalling receptors that trigger cell division
4 binding to antigens on cell surfaces and releasing a drug
5 blocking cell signalling receptors that trigger the immune response

Inflammation and swelling of joints are symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis. The cytokine,
TNFalpha, activates cells in the immune system leading to death of cells in the joint.

Which types of monoclonal antibody could be used to treat rheumatoid arthritis?

A 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
C 2, 3 and 5 only
D 4 and 5 only

39 A person’s blood group is determined by antigens present on the red blood cells. Antibodies in
the plasma of the person who receives the blood can make some blood transfusions unsafe.

The table shows the antigens and antibodies in the blood of people with different blood groups.

presence of A or B antigens presence of antibodies to

blood group
on red blood cells A or B in plasma

A A only anti-B only

B B only anti-A only
AB A and B neither
O neither anti-A and anti-B

Which blood groups can be given to a person with blood group A?

A A and AB B A and O C B and O D AB only

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/M/J/22 [Turn over

 20

40 Some of the events during the primary immune response are listed.

1 phagocytosis of a foreign microbe by a macrophage and antigen presentation

2 some T-lymphocytes will become T-killer cells which kill infected body cells
3 the T-helper cell divides by mitosis to produce T-lymphocyte clones
4 a T-helper cell with the complementary receptor binds to the antigens being
presented

What is the correct sequence of events during the primary immune response?

A 4132

B 1432

C 3142

D 3412

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/M/J/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*8952450982*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB22 11_9700_11/4RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 2

1 The photomicrograph shows part of a plant cell.

5 μm

What is the magnification of the cell?

A ×250 B ×400 C ×1000 D ×4000

2 Which row matches each organelle with its function?

rough endoplasmic
microtubules Golgi body centrioles
reticulum

A make cilia and separates some makes lysosomes assemble the

spindle processes from spindle during
cytoplasm nuclear division

B move vesicles assembles amino contains enzymes move

within the cell acids to make for destroying worn chromosomes apart
proteins out parts of the cell during anaphase

C move chromatids modifies proteins makes move cilia

apart during which may be glycoproteins
anaphase released from cell

D form part of the makes triglycerides modifies proteins move individual

cytoskeleton and phospholipids by adding cells
carbohydrates

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/O/N/22

 3

3 Where are 80S ribosomes found?

1 chloroplasts
2 cytoplasm of eukaryotes
3 mitochondria
4 cytoplasm of prokaryotes

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 only D 4 only

4 Which feature, when present in an organism, enables it to be identified as a prokaryote?

A cytoplasmic DNA
B cell wall
C nucleus
D ribosomes

5 What is the function of the nucleolus?

A the formation and breakdown of the nuclear envelope

B the formation of rough endoplasmic reticulum
C the synthesis of ribosomal proteins
D the synthesis of rRNA

6 The diagram shows the results of a number of tests on a solution of biochemicals.

solution of biochemicals

Benedict’s test non-reducing iodine test biuret test

blue sugar test blue-black blue
yellow

Which substances are present in the solution?

A non-reducing sugar and starch only

B protein, non-reducing sugar and starch
C starch and reducing sugar
D starch only

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 4

7 Which diagram shows the ring form of β-glucose?

A B

CH2OH CH2OH

H C O OH H C O H
H H
C C C C
OH H OH H
HO C C H HO C C OH

H OH H OH

C D

CH2OH CH2OH

H C O H H C O H
H H
C C C C
OH OH H H
HO C C OH HO C C OH

H H OH OH

8 Which row correctly matches the example with the type of molecule?

disaccharide macromolecule monomer polymer

A fructose glycogen glucose starch

B starch haemoglobin ribose glycogen
C maltose ribonucleic acid sucrose cellulose
D sucrose cellulose fructose collagen

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/O/N/22

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9 The enzyme α-amylase hydrolyses amylopectin but it is not able to hydrolyse some of its
glycosidic bonds.

● It only hydrolyses 1,4 glycosidic bonds.

● It is not able to hydrolyse the last bond of a chain.
● It is not able to hydrolyse the bonds in a chain of three units attached by a
1,6 glycosidic bond to another chain.

Which glycosidic bond can be hydrolysed by α-amylase?

O O O
A
B

O O O O O O
D C

10 Molecule X is a lipid.

H H O H H H H H
H H H H H H
C C C C C C C C
HO C O C C C C C H
H H H H H H H
OH H H H H H

molecule X

Which row is correct for molecule X and a triglyceride?

molecule X contains triglyceride contains

A one unsaturated fatty acid saturated fatty acids

B no ester bonds three ester bonds
C one fatty acid three fatty acids
D two fatty acids three fatty acids

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/O/N/22 [Turn over

 6

11 Bread contains a mixture of polypeptides known as gluten.

Two of the polypeptides found in gluten are glutenin and gliadin.

Which statement describes the tertiary structure of a protein?

A Disulfide bonds form between glutenin and gliadin.

B A large proportion of the amino acids in gliadin are glutamine.

C α-helical sections are found in glutenin and gliadin.

D Amino acids with hydrophobic R groups are found on the inside of glutenin.

12 A student was provided with two test-tubes, one containing 10 cm3 of solution P and one
containing 10 cm3 of solution Q. When these solutions were mixed together and left for 24 hours,
the concentration of P decreased but the concentration of Q remained the same.

The student wrote the following conclusions.

1 P may break down over time.

2 Q may be a biological catalyst.
3 P may be the substrate for Q.

Which conclusions could be supported by the information?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

13 Which statements are correct for the lock and key hypothesis and the induced fit hypothesis of
enzyme action?

1 The substrate is the same shape as the active site.

2 The substrate is held in place in the active site by temporary bonds.
3 The enzyme and sometimes the substrate change shape slightly as the substrate
molecule enters the enzyme.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/O/N/22

 7

14 A student investigated the rate of enzyme activity with increasing substrate concentration. The
experiment was repeated with the addition of a reversible non-competitive enzyme inhibitor. A
graph was plotted to show the results.

Which graph represents the results of the two experiments?

A B

rate of rate of
enzyme enzyme
activity activity

substrate substrate
concentration concentration key
= without enzyme
= inhibitor
C D
= with enzyme
= inhibitor
rate of rate of
enzyme enzyme
activity activity

substrate substrate
concentration concentration

15 A cuboidal epithelium cell has a length of 2 µm.

The cell is an approximate cube shape.

What is the most accurate estimate of the surface area : volume ratio of this cuboidal epithelium
cell?

A 1:2 B 1:3 C 2:1 D 3:1

16 Which statement is correct for facilitated diffusion and active transport?

A As the direction of the concentration gradient changes so does the direction of movement of
the molecules.
B Molecules always move at the same rate as simple diffusion.
C Specific molecules are transported across a membrane.
D The molecule ATP is required to move specific molecules quickly through proteins in the
membrane.

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/O/N/22 [Turn over

 8

17 Equal sized potato pieces were placed into a test-tube and covered with a sucrose solution. The
test-tube was left for 30 minutes. All other variables were standardised.

After 30 minutes, the potato piece had not changed in size.

What can be concluded from this result?

A The concentration of sucrose is the same in the potato and in the solution and there is no
more movement of water into or out of the potato.
B The concentration of sucrose is the same in the potato and in the solution and there is no net
movement of water into the potato.
C The water potential is the same in the potato and in the sucrose solution and there is no
more movement of water into or out of the potato.
D The water potential is the same in the potato and in the sucrose solution and there is no net
movement of water into or out of the potato.

18 How many of these processes produce genetically identical cells?

● growth of plant roots

● replacement of dead human skin cells
● repair of damaged muscle tissue
● asexual reproduction of coral

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

19 Which row shows the correct number of each component of a single chromosome at the end of
prophase of mitosis?

polynucleotide
centromeres chromatids telomeres
strands

A 1 0 2 2
B 1 2 4 4
C 2 0 4 2
D 2 2 2 4

20 Which processes occur during interphase?

1 DNA replication
2 microtubule organisation
3 synthesis of ribosomes

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/O/N/22

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21 Embryonic stem cells are able to replicate continuously.

What happens to the telomeres during repeated mitotic cell cycles of embryonic stem cells?

A Their lengths increase.

B Their lengths decrease.
C They are completely lost.
D They stay the same length.

22 Which nitrogenous bases are pyrimidines?

A adenine and thymine

B cytosine and guanine
C thymine and uracil
D uracil and guanine

23 DNA replication in bacteria was investigated. Bacteria were grown in a medium with only heavy
nitrogen, 15N, until all of the bacterial DNA was heavy.

These bacteria were moved from the heavy nitrogen medium and cultured in a medium with only
light nitrogen, 14N. This formed the first generation.

The bacteria continued to reproduce, and a sample of bacteria was collected from the second
generation and the DNA analysed.

Hybrid DNA contains heavy and light DNA.

Which row is correct for the second generation?

percentage of heavy percentage of hybrid

DNA strands DNA molecules

A 25 25
B 25 50
C 50 25
D 50 50

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24 The sequence shows the series of bases at the start of a gene.

TAC CGA CCA CCA CAA CCA CGA...

After transcription, the mRNA was translated via tRNA into a sequence of amino acids. When this
part of the polypeptide was analysed, it was found to contain the amino acids in the table.

amino acid number present

Ala 2
Gly 3
Met 1
Val 1

What is the sequence of amino acids in this part of the polypeptide?

A Met Ala Gly Ala Gly Gly Val

B Met Ala Gly Gly Val Gly Ala
C Met Gly Ala Ala Val Ala Gly
D Met Gly Ala Ala Gly Gly Val

25 The table shows the mode of action of two antibacterial drugs that can affect the synthesis of
proteins.

antibacterial
rifampicin streptomycin
drug
mode of binds to RNA causes errors in
action polymerase translation

If bacteria are treated with the drugs rifampicin and streptomycin, what will be the immediate
effects?

1 Transcription will stop but faulty proteins may continue to be synthesised.

2 If translation has started, proteins may be faulty.
3 Translation will be inhibited.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/O/N/22

 11

26 The electron micrograph shows a cross-section of a leaf vein and some neighbouring cells.

Which structure contributes to mass flow by the use of proton pumps?

27 The diagrams show some tissue types in plant organs.

1
2
4

Which row identifies the tissue types?

1 2 3 4

A phloem phloem phloem xylem

B phloem xylem phloem xylem
C xylem phloem xylem phloem
D xylem xylem phloem xylem

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/O/N/22 [Turn over

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28 Which description of xylem vessel elements is correct?

A cells joined to form a tube, pits at intervals, sieve plates between cells, surrounded by the
endodermis in roots
B contains cells joined end to end, containing cytoplasm, cell walls with lignin, located to the
outside of phloem in vascular bundles
C contains elongated cells with end walls broken down, located in vascular bundles in the stem
and leaves
D dead elongated cells, lignified cell walls with pits at intervals, associated with companion
cells in the roots only

29 Which properties of lignin are important for the function of xylem vessels in the stem of a tall
plant, such as a tree?

1 It is inflexible so does not bend easily.

2 It is not permeable to water.
3 It is strong to resist collapse under pressure.
4 It has weaker adhesion to water molecules than cellulose.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

30 Which row is correct for the sucrose concentrations and the water potentials in a source and
a sink in a potato plant, at 12:00 p.m.?

sucrose concentration water potential

source sink source sink

A higher lower higher lower

B higher lower lower higher
C lower higher higher lower
D lower higher lower higher

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/O/N/22

 13

31 The diagram shows one possible way in which sucrose may be loaded into a sieve tube element.

companion cell

1
protons move out
3 of the companion cell

sieve tube
element
protons move into
the companion cell
2
sucrose molecules move
into the companion cell

Which steps require ATP?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 3 only

32 Which statements about arteries are correct?

1 Artery walls can resist high pressure.

2 Arteries pump blood out of the heart.
3 Blood in arteries has the same flow rate as in veins.
4 The pulse in arteries is the result of a surge in blood that causes expansion of the
artery wall.
5 There are semilunar valves at the junction of arteries with the heart.

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1, 3 and 5 C 1, 4 and 5 D 2, 3 and 4

33 What happens during ventricular systole in a mammalian heart?

1 The atrioventricular node transmits an electrical signal to the apex of the heart.
2 The pressure in the ventricles drops below the pressure in the atria.
3 The atrioventricular valves close and the semilunar valves open.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/O/N/22 [Turn over

 14

34 A shortage of protein in the diet of children can lead to a disease that causes excess tissue fluid
to build up in the abdomen.

What explains why a build-up of excess tissue fluid can occur in this disease?

A A shortage of plasma proteins decreases blood water potential; less tissue fluid returns to the
blood.
B A shortage of plasma proteins increases blood water potential; less tissue fluid returns to the
blood.
C A shortage of protein in the diet causes weak cardiac muscle, reducing hydrostatic pressure.
D A shortage of protein in the tissue fluid decreases its water potential; more water leaves the
blood.

35 Red blood cells may contain a molecule known as 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG).

When 2,3-BPG binds to haemoglobin, a higher partial pressure of oxygen is needed to bring
about 50% saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen.

Which statements about the effect of 2,3-BPG are correct?

1 2,3-BPG in red blood cells causes the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the right.
2 The binding of 2,3-BPG to haemoglobin reduces the Bohr effect.
3 The binding of 2,3-BPG to haemoglobin lowers the affinity of the haemoglobin for
oxygen.
4 When 2,3-BPG is not present, oxyhaemoglobin is less likely to unload oxygen.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

36 Carbon dioxide is continually produced by respiring cells. It diffuses into red blood cells and
dissociates into hydrogen ions (H+) and hydrogen carbonate ions (HCO3–). HCO3– then diffuses
out of the cell in exchange for chloride ions (Cl –) in the chloride shift.

What is the importance of the chloride shift?

A It helps to maintain a neutral pH in the red blood cell by acting as a buffer.

B It maintains a balance of positive and negative charge between the cell and the plasma.
C It causes the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the left, releasing more oxygen.
D It prevents carbon dioxide combining with haemoglobin, allowing haemoglobin to combine
with oxygen.

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/O/N/22

 15

37 The photomicrograph shows a section through a bronchus.

Which annotated label is correct?

C D
cartilage keeps squamous epithelium allows
the airway open for efficient gas exchange

B
elastic tissue
stretches when
breathing in
A
smooth muscle
changes the
diameter of
the airway

38 Penicillin is an antibiotic used to treat infections caused by bacteria.

Which events explain how bacteria become resistant to penicillin?

1 The number of bacteria with the allele for resistance to penicillin increases.
2 Resistance to penicillin is the result of a mutation in a bacterium.
3 Bacteria with the allele for resistance to penicillin pass the allele to their daughter
cells.
4 The mutation for resistance to penicillin is always caused by the presence of
penicillin.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/O/N/22 [Turn over

 16

39 Which statements explain why some vaccines can be taken by mouth but tuberculosis (TB)
vaccine has to be injected?

1 Macrophages present antigens in vaccines to stimulate an immune response.

2 The TB antigens necessary to produce an immune response are proteins which
would be digested in the stomach and small intestine.
3 There are no B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes in the stomach.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

40 A student wrote the following statements about the production of monoclonal antibodies.

Which statement is not correct?

A Non-self antigen is injected into a mammal.

B Plasma cells secrete the specific antibody in response to a non-self antigen.
C Selected hybridoma cells divide by mitosis to form a clone.
D T-lymphocytes are fused with cancer cells to form hybridoma cells.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 9700/11/O/N/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*1761414481*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB22 11_9700_12/5RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 2

1 The diagram shows a stage micrometer, with divisions 0.10 mm apart, viewed through an
eyepiece containing a graticule.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 10

The area of the field of view of the microscope can be calculated using this formula.

area = πr2

A student calculated the area of the field of view of the microscope using the information provided
and a value for π of 3.142.

Which answer has been rounded correctly to an appropriate number of significant figures?

A 0.04909 mm2

B 5 × 10–2 mm2

C 4.909 × 104 µm2

D 4.91 × 104 µm2

2 Where are cisternae found in a cell?

1 endoplasmic reticulum
2 Golgi body
3 mitochondria

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 2 and 3

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/O/N/22

 3

3 Which row matches the functions to the cell structures?

vacuole nucleolus ribosomes lysosomes

A stores water, manufactures protein involved in cell
sugar and messenger RNA synthesis recognition
pigment

B exports proteins manufactures lipid synthesis involved in cell

ribosomal RNA recognition

C stores water, manufactures protein contains

sugar and ribosomal RNA synthesis enzymes
pigment

D exports proteins manufactures lipid synthesis contains

messenger RNA enzymes

4 Which structures are found in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A cell membrane and nucleus

B cell membrane and ribosomes
C nucleus and mitochondria
D mitochondria and ribosomes

5 Which molecules are present in all viruses?

1 thymine
2 adenine
3 cytosine

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

6 The table shows the observations recorded from tests for biological molecules on four samples,
A, B, C and D.

Which conclusion is correct?

Benedict’s biuret iodine

conclusion
solution reagent solution

A blue blue blue-black contains starch only

B blue purple orange contains reducing sugar only
C green blue orange contains reducing sugar and protein
D red blue blue-black contains starch and protein

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/O/N/22 [Turn over

 4

7 The diagrams show some biological molecules.

Which biological molecule forms a polymer with a structural role in plants?

A B
CH2OH H
C O H C OH
H H
H
C C H C OH
OH H
HO OH
C C H C OH
H OH
H

C D
NH2 CH2OH

N C O
N H OH
H
C C
HO OH H
N N HO H
O C C
C C
H OH
C C

OH OH

8 Which molecule is a disaccharide and a reducing sugar?

A fructose
B glucose
C maltose
D sucrose

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/O/N/22

 5

9 The diagram shows bonding in part of a polysaccharide.

CH2OH
O H

OH

O X
OH
CH2OH CH2OH CH2 CH2OH
O H O H O H O H

OH OH OH OH
O O O

OH OH OH OH

Which type of glycosidic bond is shown at position X?

A α-1,4 B α-1,6 C β-1,4 D β-1,6

10 Which statements about triglycerides and phospholipids are correct?

1 Fatty acids in a triglyceride may be saturated or unsaturated but in a phospholipid

they are always saturated.
2 Triglycerides and phospholipids both have a hydrophobic region.
3 Triglycerides are non-polar molecules and phospholipids are polar molecules.

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 only

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/O/N/22 [Turn over

 6

11 Silk moth caterpillars have been genetically modified to produce a mixture of their own silk and
the much stronger spider silk of the golden orb web spider.

The spider silk polypeptide chain has many repeated sequences of two amino acids, glycine and
alanine, arranged in a crystalline structure.

What correctly describes the structure of spider silk?

A primary protein structure with regions of α-helices

B secondary protein structure with regions of β-pleated sheets

C tertiary protein structure with regions of α-helices

D quaternary protein structure with regions of β-pleated sheets

12 Which property of the tertiary structure of a globular protein enables it to catalyse a metabolic
reaction?

A It has hydrophobic amino acid R groups on the outside.

B It will be denatured by high temperatures.
C The R groups of some amino acids form bonds with a substrate.
D The three-dimensional shape depends on hydrogen bonding.

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/O/N/22

 7

13 A student investigated the effect of substrate concentration on the activity of an enzyme.

The graph shows the results of this investigation.

X
activity of
enzyme

substrate concentration

An increase in which factors could lead to a change in the activity of the enzyme at point X on the
graph?

1 pH
2 substrate concentration
3 temperature

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

14 The Michaelis–Menten constant, Km, is the substrate concentration at which an enzyme works at
half its maximum rate.

What is correct when the Km value is low?

A The enzyme has a low affinity for the substrate and the quicker the reaction will proceed to
its maximum rate.
B The enzyme has a low affinity for the substrate and the slower the reaction will proceed to its
maximum rate.
C The enzyme has a high affinity for the substrate and the quicker the reaction will proceed to
its maximum rate.
D The enzyme has a high affinity for the substrate and the slower the reaction will proceed to
its maximum rate.

15 Which functions are performed by glycoproteins on the surface of a cell surface membrane?

1 to act as enzymes catalysing reactions in the membrane

2 to have a specific site where chemicals can bind
3 to secrete specific chemicals used for cell signalling

A 1, 2 and 3 B 2 and 3 only C 2 only D 3 only

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 8

16 The diagram represents a process by which molecules move out of a cell through a cell surface
membrane.

Which process does this represent?

A exocytosis
B diffusion
C facilitated diffusion
D osmosis

17 The photomicrograph shows the appearance of onion epidermal cells after they have been
soaked in solution X for one hour.

What fills the space labelled Y?

A air
B cytoplasm
C solution X
D water

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18 The enzyme telomerase prevents loss of telomeres after many mitotic cell cycles.

Which cells need to transcribe telomerase enzyme?

1 cancer cells
2 stem cells
3 activated memory B-lymphocytes

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

19 Which processes that occur in the cell cycle are represented in the diagram?

3
mass of nuclear
DNA in a cell 2
/ arbitrary units
1

0
time

A DNA replication and nuclear division only

B DNA replication, nuclear division and cytokinesis
C mitosis and cytokinesis
D mitosis only

20 A gene codes for the production of a protein, p53, that binds to damaged DNA during interphase
and prevents its replication. A carcinogen in cigarette smoke mutates the gene coding for the p53
protein, preventing production of the protein.

Which statement explains why this mutation may cause cancer?

A Cells with no p53 are able to undergo mitosis.

B Cells with no p53 replicate their damaged DNA.
C The carcinogen in cigarette smoke increases the rate of cell division.
D The mutated p53 causes uncontrolled cell division.

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21 Stained onion cells undergoing mitosis were observed using a microscope.

Which row is correct for mitosis in plant cells?

prophase metaphase anaphase telophase

A centrioles chromosomes pair two telomeres are two nuclear
visible up at the equator visible on each membranes form
chromatid

B centromeres chromosomes align chromosomes centrioles

present at the equator replicate to disappear
form chromatids

C each chromosome centromeres attach chromatids separate chromosomes

is visible as two to spindle fibres and migrate decondense
chromatids to opposite poles

D spindle fibres formed centromeres attach chromatids are spindle fibres

by centrioles to spindle fibres pulled apart form new nuclear
by centrioles membranes

22 How many statements about semi-conservative replication of DNA in a eukaryotic cell are
correct?

1 The process takes place in the cytoplasm.

2 An adenine nucleotide will line up against uracil on the template strand.
3 Each daughter molecule will contain half of the original DNA molecule.
4 If the DNA molecule contained 40% guanine nucleotides, each daughter molecule
will contain 20% guanine nucleotides.

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/O/N/22

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23 A section of the polypeptide coding for the haemoglobin β-chain contains the following amino
acids.

– Pro – Glu – Glu –

Patients with sickle cell anaemia have mutated β-polypeptide chains. The section of the mutated
polypeptide contains the following amino acids.

– Pro – Val – Glu –

The table shows the possible anticodons for Val.

amino acid anticodon

Val CAA
Val CAG
Val CAC
Val CAU

What is the corresponding DNA triplet code for the substituted amino acid in the mutated
polypeptide?

A GTT B GAC C CTC D CAT

24 Which diagram correctly represents temporary hydrogen bonding during transcription?

A B C D

A U C G G C T U

25 The diagram shows part of the DNA sequence of a gene and a mutated sequence of the same
gene.

normal DNA sequence ... CCG GAT TAT TGC GAG AAA TGG CAT TCT AGG ...
mutated DNA sequence ... CCG GAT GTA TTG CGA GAA ATG CAT TCT AGG ...

What are possible effects of the mutated sequence?

1 the presence of mRNA stop codons, UAG, UAA or UGA

2 a change in the sequence of amino acids
3 a non-functional protein
4 ribosomes cannot translate the mRNA

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 1 and 4 only D 2 and 3 only

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26 The electron micrograph shows a longitudinal section through part of a plant stem.

What is X?

A xylem vessel element

B stem cell
C phloem sieve tube element
D companion cell

27 Sodium chloride is added to a culture solution containing freshwater single-celled plant cells.

What happens to the water potential of the culture solution when the sodium chloride is added
and what may happen to the plant cells after 5 minutes?

water potential of the

single-celled plant cells
culture solution when
after 5 minutes
sodium chloride added

A becomes less negative become plasmolysed

B becomes less negative become turgid
C becomes more negative become plasmolysed
D becomes more negative become turgid

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28 Which statements correctly describe transport pathways in dicotyledonous plants?

1 In the apoplast pathway, water may move through plasmodesmata.

2 In the symplast pathway, water may move through intercellular spaces.
3 The apoplast pathway may be blocked by the Casparian strip.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

29 Which statement about the movement of water from roots to leaves is not correct?

A A continuous column of water is partly maintained by the attraction of water molecules to

cellulose.
B Hydrogen bonding between water molecules enables mass flow of water.
C Hydrostatic pressure in xylem vessel elements is higher in roots than in leaves.
D Water potential changes throughout the length of the xylem vessel elements.

30 Which terms describe the method by which water is transported within xylem vessel elements?

1 cotransport
2 cohesion-tension
3 osmosis

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

31 What is the main function of a companion cell in phloem tissue?

A providing cytoplasmic contact with the sieve tube element for loading
B providing structural support for the sieve tube element
C providing the nucleus for cell division in the phloem
D providing the source of assimilates for storage

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32 The photomicrograph shows a blood smear.

Which cell is a monocyte?

A
C

33 The table shows some information about three blood vessels, P, Q and R, from a mammal.

wall percentage composition of wall

diameter
thickness elastic
/ mm muscle collagen
/ mm tissue

P 25 2 22 33 40
Q 20 1 25 40 25
R 4 1 35 25 30

Which row identifies blood vessels P, Q and R?

P Q R

A artery vein artery

B artery vein capillary
C vein artery capillary
D vein artery vein

34 Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a heart defect that people can have from birth. People with
VSD have a hole in the wall (septum) that separates the left and right ventricles.

What could happen in a person with VSD?

1 Blood will leak through the hole, mostly from right to left.
2 The volume of blood circulating through the lungs will be higher than in a person
without VSD.
3 Less oxygen will be delivered to the body tissues.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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35 Which statement about the structure of the heart is correct?

A The semilunar valves close when the pressure in the ventricles falls lower than the pressure
in the arteries.
B A muscle called the septum separates the atria from the ventricles.
C There is a small patch of tissue in the right atrium that acts to delay the electrical impulse.
D Closure of valves in the veins prevents backflow of blood into the ventricles.

36 What can be found in the wall of an alveolus in the lungs of a human?

elastic
cartilage cilia
fibres

A    key
B    = present
C    = not present
D   

37 What are the functions of cilia in the gas exchange system?

1 to move mucus
2 to trap pathogens and dust
3 to increase the surface area

1 2 3

A    key
B    = a function
C    = not a function
D   

38 Cholera and tuberculosis are infectious diseases that can spread when people have to live in
overcrowded conditions.

Which strategies would help control the spread of cholera and tuberculosis?

1 covering food to prevent flies landing on it

2 providing chlorinated drinking water
3 treating severe cases with antibiotics

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

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39 Immunity to certain pathogens develops when a person is given a vaccination.

Which effects of vaccination are correct?

1 production of antibodies to protect against future infections

2 results in artificial active immunity
3 stimulation of appropriate lymphocytes

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

40 A student wrote three statements about antibodies.

1 Their structure depends on peptide, hydrogen and disulfide bonds.

2 They are protein molecules with both tertiary and quaternary structure.
3 Four polypeptides provide four antigen binding sites.

Which statements are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 9700/12/O/N/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*5911368780*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 11_9700_13/5RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 2

1 The electron micrograph shows a chloroplast from a tobacco leaf.

If the actual length of this chloroplast measured along X–Y is 10 µm, what is the magnification of
the image?

A ×6.3 B ×63 C ×630 D ×6300

2 Some cell structures are listed.

1 endoplasmic reticulum
2 Golgi body
3 mitochondrion
4 chloroplast

Which cell structures do not contain cristae?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 3 and 4 only

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/O/N/22

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3 Which letter represents cell structures where mRNA may be found?

cytoplasm

C
B
mitochondrion nucleus
D

4 Which row is correct for typical prokaryotic cells and mitochondria?

prokaryotic
feature mitochondria
cells

A 70S ribosomes no yes

B circular DNA yes no
C peptidoglycans yes no
D small size, 1–5 µm long no no

5 Which statement is correct?

A A virus is composed of a protein coat which surrounds RNA or DNA.

B Suberin and cellulose are found in all plant cell walls.
C Plasmodesmata and centrioles are found in all plant cells.
D Prokaryotic cells contain an endoplasmic reticulum to synthesise proteins.

6 The Benedict’s test and ethanol emulsion test were carried out on a sample of biological
molecules. The solution became brick-red during the Benedict’s test and cloudy during the
ethanol emulsion test.

Which molecules did the sample contain?

A reducing sugars and lipids

B proteins and reducing sugars only
C starch, proteins and reducing sugars
D non-reducing sugars and lipids

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7 Which diagram is correct for α-glucose?

A B

CH2OH OH
C O C O
H H H H
H H
C C C C
OH H OH H
HO OH HO OH
C C C C
H OH CH2OH OH

C D

OH CH2OH
C O C O
H OH H OH
H H
C C C C
OH H OH H
HO H HO H
C C C C
CH2OH OH H OH

8 Which reaction correctly represents one way sucrose can form?

A (α-glucose – OH–) + (fructose – H+) → sucrose + H2O

B (α-glucose + OH–) + (α-glucose + H+) → sucrose – H2O

C (α-glucose – OH–) + (β-glucose – H+) → sucrose + H2O

D (α-glucose + OH–) + (fructose + H+) → sucrose – H2O

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/O/N/22

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9 The diagram represents part of an alginic acid molecule. Alginic acid is a polymer found in the
cell walls of brown seaweeds.

COOH H H
O
H O H
H OH HO
OH HO COOH
O
H H
O
H H H n

Which statement about alginic acid is correct?

A Alginic acid is a linear polysaccharide containing 1,6 glycosidic bonds between each hexose
sugar.
B Alginic acid is formed from two monomers joined by 1,4 glycosidic bonds.
C Alternate monosaccharides are arranged in opposite directions; this is also seen in glycogen
molecules.
D Hexose sugars and water molecules are joined by condensation reactions to make alginic
acid.

10 Which features are correct for triglycerides and phospholipids?

1 They have ester bonds between glycerol and fatty acids.

2 Fatty acid chains may have single or double bonds between carbon atoms in the
chains.
3 The fatty acid chains are non-polar and hydrophobic.
4 Saturated fatty acid chains allow closer packing of the molecules than unsaturated
fatty acid chains.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1 and 3 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D 2 and 4 only

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11 A scientist studying the structure of a protein reported that it consists of two polypeptide chains
joined by disulfide bonds.

Which feature of protein structure does this describe?

A primary structure
B secondary structure
C tertiary structure
D quaternary structure

12 Some molecules fluoresce when illuminated with ultraviolet light. Changes in the structure or
shape of such molecules can change the intensity of the fluorescence.

The enzyme tryptophan synthase fluoresces bluish-green because of a phosphate group

associated with the active site. The enzyme catalyses the reaction shown.

serine + indole → tryptophan

Adding serine to the enzyme increases the intensity of the fluorescence, but when indole is also
added the bluish-green fluorescence decreases in intensity.

What may be concluded from these observations?

1 Serine and indole attach to the active site of the enzyme.

2 An enzyme–serine complex is formed.
3 An enzyme–serine–indole complex is formed.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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13 Yeast contains the enzyme catalase which catalyses the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
as shown.

catalase
2H2O2 2H2O + O2

Yeast was added to a solution of hydrogen peroxide and the total volume of oxygen released was
recorded every 30 seconds for 2 minutes. All other variables were standardised.

The data is shown in the table.

total volume of
time / s
O2 / cm3

30 157
60 251
90 283
120 285

What explains the pattern of the data?

A The rate of reaction increases as more enzyme–substrate complexes are formed.

B The rate of reaction increases as the enzyme reaches its maximum velocity (Vmax).
C The volume of oxygen released decreases as the enzymes begin to denature.
D The volume of oxygen released decreases as more substrate is converted into product.

14 The Michaelis–Menten constant, Km, is a measure of the affinity of an enzyme for its substrate.

1 The higher the affinity, the lower the Km.

2 The lower the affinity, the slower the reaction will be.
3 At Km, half the active sites of the enzyme are occupied by the substrate.

Which statements about Km are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

15 Which features are correct for active transport and facilitated diffusion?

1 The movement of molecules and ions depends on ATP.

2 They are specific for one type of molecule or ion.
3 They use membrane proteins.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

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16 The diagram represents two solutions, P and Q, that were separated by a partially permeable
dialysis tubing.

partially permeable
dialysis tubing

solution P solution Q key

molecule 1
molecule 2
molecule 3
partially permeable
dialysis tubing

What will be the initial movement of the molecules, 1, 2 and 3, between solution P and
solution Q?

net movement net movement no net

from Q to P from P to Q movement

A molecule 1 molecule 2 molecule 3

B molecule 1 molecule 3 molecule 2
C molecule 2 molecule 3 molecule 1
D molecule 3 molecule 1 molecule 2

17 A student weighed a cylinder of potato and then put it into a test-tube containing a salt solution.

The potato cylinder was removed from the salt solution after one hour. It was blotted dry and then
reweighed. The student recorded that the potato had lost mass.

Which row shows the correct explanation for the results the student collected?

water potential of the

condition of the
potato cells before soaking
potato cells
compared to the
after soaking
water potential after soaking

A higher plasmolysed
B higher turgid
C lower plasmolysed
D lower turgid

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18 Which row shows the correct number of each component in a single chromosome at the start of
telophase of mitosis?

polynucleotide
centromeres telomeres
strands

A 1 2 2
B 1 4 4
C 2 4 2
D 2 2 4

19 The photomicrographs show cells in various stages of the cell cycle.

In which stage does semi-conservative replication of DNA take place?

A B C D

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20 The diagram shows the epidermis of human skin. This is formed of four layers of cells.

Cells in each layer have specific functions which are outlined on the diagram. As the cells are
produced, they move upwards as shown by the arrow.

cells in this layer are dead and eventually

break away from the skin
the keratinocyte cells continue to synthesise
keratin and glycolipids to waterproof the skin
the keratinocyte cells begin the synthesis of
the protein keratin and a glycolipid that
prevent water loss from the skin
basal cells divide by mitosis and differentiate
into the keratinocyte cells which move up
into the layer above as they are produced

Which row shows cells that are acting as stem cells in the skin epidermis and an organelle
needed by the keratinocytes?

cells that are acting organelle needed by

as stem cells the keratinocytes

A basal cells only centrioles

B basal cells only Golgi body
C basal cells and keratinocytes centrioles
D basal cells and keratinocytes Golgi body

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/O/N/22

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21 The diagram shows some of the stages that take place during the cell cycle.

1
number of DNA
molecules in
cell doubles

4 stages
2
nuclear envelope during cell
cell grows
disappears cycle

3
chromosomes
become visible

Which two stages take place during interphase?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

22 What does a nucleotide contain?

1 an amino acid
2 a codon
3 a nitrogenous base
4 a sugar

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

23 A diagram can be used to show some relationships between different nucleic acid bases.

1 2 3 4 5

Which row is correct for the words that can be placed at positions 1–5?

1 2 3 4 5

A adenine purine cytosine pairs with guanine

B cytosine purine guanine pairs with uracil
C guanine pairs with cytosine pyrimidine thymine
D thymine pairs with uracil pyrimidine adenine

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24 The bacterium Escherichia coli divides once every 50 minutes at 36 °C.

15
E. coli were grown on a medium containing only heavy nitrogen, N, until all of the bacterial DNA
contained heavy nitrogen.

Some of the bacteria were moved from a heavy nitrogen medium and cultured in a medium with
only light nitrogen, 14N (0 minutes).

These bacteria continued to reproduce and samples were extracted and centrifuged at regular
intervals.

Hybrid DNA contains both heavy and light nitrogen.

The diagram shows the possible positions (upper, middle and lower) of the bands of DNA. The
actual positions of bands in the first two samples are shown.

upper upper

middle middle

lower lower

0 50 100 150
sample time:
minutes minutes minutes minutes

Which proportion of the DNA of the sample taken at 150 minutes will be at the upper position?

A 25% B 50% C 75% D 100%

25 Following translation, the alpha polypeptide chain of haemoglobin, α-globin, undergoes

modification. During this modification, the first amino acid is removed, leaving 141 amino acid
residues.

How many nucleotides does the mRNA coding for α-globin contain?

A 141 B 142 C 423 D 426

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/O/N/22

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26 The photomicrograph shows a section through a plant organ.

Which statement could be used to describe this organ?

A The central region of this organ has supporting tissue.

B The endodermis tissue is a thick layer around the edge of the organ.
C The epidermis tissue in this organ has extensions (trichomes).
D The xylem tissue is found in greatest density in the centre of the organ.

27 The statements describe some of the properties of water.

1 requires a lot of heat energy to evaporate

2 retains a lot of heat energy
3 is able to form hydrogen bonds with other water molecules
4 is able to form hydrogen bonds with other polar and non-polar molecules

Which properties are also important for transport in xylem?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1 and 3 only D 3 and 4

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/O/N/22 [Turn over

 14

28 Which xerophytic adaptations reduce the water potential gradient between leaf surface and
atmosphere?

1 rolled leaves
2 hairy leaves
3 sunken stomata
4 fewer stomata
5 fleshy leaves

A 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2 and 5 only

29 The diagram shows seven stages of a tulip bulb’s growth.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Which row identifies the correct stages in which the tulip bulb is acting as a source only or as a
sink only?

source sink
only only

A 1 5
B 3 4
C 4 6
D 5 7

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/O/N/22

 15

30 What would be changed if mitochondrial activity was inhibited by a metabolic poison acting on
cells in the phloem tissue?

1 concentration of hydrogen ions in the cell wall of companion cells

2 concentration of sucrose in the cytoplasm of cells in a leaf
3 hydrostatic pressure gradient in the phloem sieve tube

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

31 By which process does sucrose move through phloem sieve tube elements?

A active transport
B diffusion
C facilitated diffusion
D mass flow

32 Which blood vessels carry blood into the atria?

1 coronary artery
2 vena cava
3 pulmonary artery
4 pulmonary vein

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

33 Which statements about the cardiac cycle are correct?

1 The atrioventricular valves close during atrial systole.

2 The left and right ventricles contract together.
3 There is a time delay as the electrical impulse passes from the atrioventricular node
to the sinoatrial node.
4 Electrical impulses pass along the Purkyne tissue to the ventricles.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4 only

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34 At one point in the cardiac cycle, the pressure in the right ventricle is lower than that in the right
atrium and lower than that in the pulmonary artery.

Which row is correct?

atrioventricular
semilunar valve
valve

A closed closed
B closed open
C open closed
D open open

35 Which statements about the formation of haemoglobinic acid are correct?

1 It is linked to the action of carbonic anhydrase.

2 It prevents blood from becoming too acidic by removing excess hydrogen ions.
3 It can only occur when oxygen associates with haemoglobin.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

36 The graph shows the dissociation curves for haemoglobin at two different partial pressures of
carbon dioxide.

At which position on the graph would most chloride ions be found in the red blood cells?

low carbon dioxide

partial pressure
C

percentage saturation of
haemoglobin with oxygen high carbon dioxide
partial pressure
A
B

partial pressure of oxygen / kPa

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/O/N/22

 17

37 Oedema is caused by the accumulation of tissue fluid around body cells.

What would increase the amount of tissue fluid around body cells?

A lower blood pressure than normal

B lower blood plasma protein concentration than normal
C higher blood plasma protein concentration than normal
D lower tissue fluid protein concentration than normal

38 Certain bacteria develop resistance to an antibiotic by actively transporting the antibiotic out of
the cell. This prevents the antibiotic building up to toxic concentrations.

What must be found in a bacterial cell to allow it to develop this form of antibiotic resistance?

gene coding for

mitochondria
a channel protein

A
B C

source of
chemical energy

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/O/N/22 [Turn over

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39 Which statements explain the differences between a primary and a secondary response to
exposure to the same antigen?

1 The primary response is slow, because there are only a few B-lymphocytes that are
specific to the antigen.
2 The secondary response is faster, because there are many memory cells specific to
the antigen.
3 More antibodies are produced during the secondary response, because many of the
memory cells differentiate into plasma cells specific to the antigen.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

40 Which statement about B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes is correct?

A They become active only when a specific antibody binds to their surface receptor.
B They divide to form clones when meeting an antitoxin in a cell.
C They produce memory cells to respond to an antigen when exposed in the future.
D They release hormone-like cytokines which stimulate release of antibodies.

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/O/N/22

 19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/O/N/22

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 9700/13/O/N/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2023
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*8506119059*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB23 03_9700_12/4RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
 2

1 The photomicrograph shows cells from a human blood smear.

neutrophil

P Q

Which calculation shows a correct method to calculate the actual diameter of the neutrophil
shown in the photomicrograph in micrometres (m)?

length of line PQ in mm  1000

A
magnification of photomicrograph

length of line PQ in mm  10 000

B
magnification of photomicrograph

magnification of photomicrograph
C
length of line PQ in mm  1000

magnification of photomicrograph
D
length of line PQ in mm  10 000

2 A student calibrated an eyepiece graticule using a stage micrometer.

 Each division of the stage micrometer was 0.01 mm.

 With a 10 magnification objective lens, 10 eyepiece graticule units matched

10 divisions on the stage micrometer.

The same microscope was used with a 40, instead of a 10, magnification objective lens to
measure the diameter of an alveolus. The diameter of the alveolus was found to be 96 eyepiece
graticule units.

The eyepiece lens was not changed.

What is the best estimate for the diameter of the alveolus?

A 0.960 mm B 3.84 mm C 240 m D 384 m

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3 Which statements are correct for chloroplasts and also for mitochondria?

1 They contain 80S ribosomes.

2 They can transcribe their circular DNA.
3 They can translate mRNA.
4 They are enclosed by double membranes.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1 and 2 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only

4 The electron micrograph shows some cells from a root.

Which cell structure is not usually found in cells from a root?

D B

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5 Dialysis (Visking) tubing is an artificial partially permeable membrane with pore sizes of
approximately 2.5 nm. Glucose molecules have a diameter of about 1.5 nm and can pass through
the pores in the membrane.

What else can pass through the pores?

1 bacteria
2 haemoglobin
3 ribosomes
4 fructose

A 1 and 3 B 2 and 4 C 2 only D 4 only

6 What is present in all viruses?

A ribose
B deoxyribose
C adenine
D thymine

7 To estimate the concentration of glucose in an unknown solution, equal volumes of a range of

known concentrations of glucose were each mixed with the same excess volume of Benedict’s
solution. After mixing, the solutions were placed in a thermostatically controlled water-bath at
90 C for three minutes.

The unknown solution was then treated in the same way and the colours of the known and
unknown solutions compared.

What is the independent variable in this procedure?

A concentration of glucose
B final colour of solutions
C temperature of water-bath
D volume of glucose solutions

8 Which statements are correct for amylose and also for amylopectin?

1 They are carbohydrate molecules.

2 They are formed by condensation reactions.
3 They are linear molecules.

4 They contain -1,4 glycosidic bonds.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

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9 Which statement is a correct comparison between saturated triglyceride molecules and

unsaturated triglyceride molecules of approximately the same molecular masses?

A Unsaturated triglycerides have more double bonds and fewer hydrogen atoms than saturated
triglycerides.
B Unsaturated triglycerides have fewer double bonds and fewer hydrogen atoms than
saturated triglycerides.
C Unsaturated triglycerides have more double bonds and more hydrogen atoms than saturated
triglycerides.
D Unsaturated triglycerides have fewer double bonds and more hydrogen atoms than saturated
triglycerides.

10 The diagram represents a molecule from a cell surface membrane.

B
C

Which description of one of the labels is correct?

A fatty acid at the hydrophilic end of the molecule

B hydrophobic end of the triglyceride molecule
C hydrophobic end of the glycerol molecule
D phosphate group at the hydrophilic end of the molecule

11 Which row correctly shows levels of protein structure that can be held together by each type of
interaction?

hydrophobic
hydrogen bonds covalent bonds
interactions
A primary, secondary tertiary structure primary and
and tertiary structure tertiary structure
B secondary structure primary and tertiary structure
tertiary structure
C secondary and tertiary structure primary and
tertiary structure tertiary structure
D secondary and tertiary structure primary and
tertiary structure secondary structure

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12 Which molecules contain at least three double bonds?

saturated triglyceride

C A
D

collagen B haemoglobin

13 Which diagram correctly shows hydrogen bonding between two water molecules?

A B C D
+ + δ+ δ+ δ– δ– – –
H H H H H H H H

O– H O– O H O O H O O+ H O+
+ δ– δ+ δ– δ+ δ– δ+ –

H H H H
+ δ+ δ– –

14 Which statement describes an example of an extracellular enzyme?

A Amylase in saliva is an enzyme that catalyses the breakdown of starch in the mouth.
B Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that helps in the transport of carbon dioxide in blood.
C DNA polymerase is an enzyme that helps build DNA molecules from nucleotides.
D RNA polymerase is an enzyme involved in the process of gene transcription.

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15 Which row is correct for enzymes that catalyse reactions using the lock-and-key hypothesis?

effect of the enzyme on the

shape of active site in comparison
activation energy of the
to the substrate
reaction being catalysed

A lowers the activation energy changes to become

complementary as the
enzyme–substrate complex forms

B lowers the activation energy complementary before, during and

after the formation of an
enzyme–substrate complex

C raises the activation energy changes to become

complementary as the
enzyme–substrate complex forms

D raises the activation energy complementary before, during and

after the formation of an
enzyme–substrate complex

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16 A scientist investigated the rate of breakdown of hydrogen peroxide.

Four experiments were carried out using different mixtures.

 substrate only

 substrate + enzyme

 substrate + enzyme + competitive inhibitor

 substrate + enzyme + non-competitive inhibitor

The results are sketched in the graph.

1
rate of 2
breakdown
of hydrogen 3
peroxide

substrate concentration

Which row shows the correct lines for two of the experimental mixtures?

substrate + enzyme +
substrate only
competitive inhibitor

A 1 2
B 4 2
C 1 3
D 4 3

17 Which of these substances can pass directly through cell surface membranes without using a
carrier protein or a channel protein?

1 Ca2+
2 CO2
3 C6H12O6

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 2 only

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18 What happens to the surface area to volume ratio of a cube when the length of each side is
doubled?

A The ratio decreases by four times.

B The ratio halves.
C The ratio doubles.
D The ratio increases by four times.

19 Which events are part of the mitotic cell cycle?

1 interphase
2 telophase
3 cytokinesis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

20 The estimated total number of red blood cells in the human body is 2.5  1013.

It is estimated that, each day, 2.5  1011 red blood cells are removed from the circulation and are
replaced by stem cells in the bone marrow.

Which percentage of the total number of red blood cells is replaced each day?

A 0.01% B 0.1% C 1% D 10%

21 DNA polymerase catalyses condensation reactions between molecules during semi-conservative

replication of DNA.

What is joined by DNA polymerase?

A base and base

B base and nucleotide
C nucleotide and nucleotide
D phosphate and ribose

22 Two polynucleotide strands make up a DNA molecule.

Which description is correct?

A The percentage of cytosine is 50% of that of guanine in the whole molecule.

B The percentage of cytosine is the same as that of guanine in the whole molecule.
C The percentage of cytosine is the same as that of guanine in each strand.
D The percentage of cytosine is the same in each strand of the molecule.

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23 The PDx1 protein is found in a wide range of animal species where it is regarded as essential for
normal metabolism. In sand rats, the gene coding for the PDx1 protein has a much lower
proportion of A and T nucleotides than PDx1 genes from other animals.

Finding the complete DNA sequence of the PDx1 gene in sand rats has been difficult.
Sequencing involves splitting off nucleotides one at a time from single-stranded DNA.

What could account for the difficulty in finding the DNA sequence of the PDx1 gene in sand rats?

1 The PDx1 gene is present in only a small proportion of nuclei.

2 The PDx1 gene is transcribed in only some cells.
3 The strength of the hydrogen bonding between the two strands of the PDx1 gene is
unusually high.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 only C 2 only D 3 only

24 Different tissues in a plant were supplied with a radioactively labelled substance to identify which
tissues were actively synthesising mRNA.

Which radioactively labelled substances would be suitable for this experiment?

1 adenine
2 uracil
3 inorganic phosphate
4 ribose

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 2 and 4 only
D 4 only

25 Which row correctly matches the structure and function of phloem sieve tube elements?

structure function
A peripheral cytoplasm to provide as little resistance
with no nucleus to flow as possible
B end walls modified to to slow down the rate of
form sieve plates transport of solutes
C elongated cells joined to form a tube to transport
end to end dissolved mineral ions and water
D cellulose cell wall with no lignin to prevent loss of water

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26 Which feature of xylem vessel elements helps adhesion during transpiration?

A Lignin forms a complete secondary wall.

B New vessels carry extra water as the plants grow.
C There are no cross walls between vessel elements.
D The vessel elements form a narrow tube.

27 Mass flow is the bulk movement of materials from one place to another.

How many of the vessels listed carry fluids by mass flow?

● artery
● phloem sieve tube
● vein
● xylem vessel

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

28 Cellulose, lignin and suberin are components of various plant cell walls.

Descriptions of these cell wall components are listed.

1 a component of the Casparian strip

2 redirects water into the symplast pathway
3 a hydrophobic component of cell walls
4 water interacts with this molecule in the apoplast pathway

Which row correctly matches three of the descriptions with cell wall components?

cellulose lignin suberin

A 2 4 1
B 3 4 2
C 4 1 2
D 4 3 1

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29 The arrows show the direction of water movement across a plant root, from water in the soil to
the xylem.

plasmodesmata

water 1 3 5 7 8
in soil
2
4 6

xylem

Which arrows show water movement only in the apoplast pathway?

A 1, 3, 5, 7 and 8
B 2, 4 and 6
C 2 and 4 only
D 3, 5 and 7 only

30 Which row correctly identifies sources and sinks of sugars?

root cells storage cells of

absorbing seed that is
mineral ions starting to grow

A sink source
B sink sink
C source source
D source sink

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31 The photomicrograph shows a section through a tissue with an artery.

Which row correctly shows the type of artery and whether the blood inside the artery is
oxygenated or deoxygenated?

type of artery blood

A muscular deoxygenated
B muscular oxygenated
C elastic deoxygenated
D elastic oxygenated

32 Heart surgery may cause a decrease in the transmission of impulses in the Purkyne tissue to the
right side of the heart.

What is a possible effect of this decrease?

A Impulses would be delayed by the atrioventricular node.

B The muscle of the right ventricle would contract slightly more slowly than the muscle of the
left ventricle.
C The muscle of the right atrium would not contract as fully as the muscle of the left atrium.
D The sinoatrial node would transmit fewer impulses.

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33 The diagram shows a network of blood vessels that supply blood to muscle tissue in the human
body.

X Y
artery

vein

What is a correct comparison between the blood at X and the blood at Y when the muscle tissue
is at rest?

water potential of
blood pressure
blood at X compared
at X compared with
with water potential
blood pressure at Y
of blood at Y

A equal higher
B equal lower
C higher higher
D higher lower

34 Scientists have shown that the oxygen dissociation curves for haemoglobin of smaller mammals
are to the right of those of larger mammals.

What does this suggest about the haemoglobin of smaller mammals?

A At low partial pressures of oxygen, it binds to oxygen more strongly than the haemoglobin of
larger mammals.
B It saturates with oxygen at lower partial pressures of oxygen than the haemoglobin of larger
mammals.
C It releases oxygen more easily than the haemoglobin of larger mammals.
D When the partial pressure of oxygen is high, it carries more oxygen than the haemoglobin of
larger mammals.

35 What is an effect of an increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood?

A increased movement of chloride ions out of red blood cells

B increased concentration of haemoglobinic acid
C decreased concentration of hydrogencarbonate ions in blood plasma
D decreased concentration of carbaminohaemoglobin

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36 Two of the requirements of an efficient gas exchange system are a large surface area and a short
diffusion distance.

Which row correctly describes how alveoli are adapted to meet these requirements?

large surface area short diffusion distance

A elastin fibres prevent the an extracellular layer inside
alveolus wall from collapsing the alveolus wall contains
blood capillaries

B gases dissolve in a layer of alveolar walls are next

liquid to speed up diffusion to capillaries
C alveoli are folded and walls of alveoli are
interconnected only one cell thick
D walls of alveoli are formed of red blood cells are very
squamous epithelial cells close to capillary walls

37 What defines infectious diseases?

A Symptoms are caused by a bacterium that passes from contaminated air, soil or water to a
host.
B Symptoms are caused by a pathogen that is transmitted from one host to another.
C Symptoms are caused by a microorganism that is carried by a vector.
D Symptoms are caused by a virus that mutates to infect a new species.

38 A hurricane destroys a large town on an island. People move away from the town and set up
tents, where sanitation is poor.

Which disease is most likely to spread within a week of the change in living conditions?

A cholera
B HIV
C malaria
D TB

39 Which statement correctly explains why viruses are unaffected by penicillin?

A Penicillin only affects host cell metabolism.

B Penicillin only binds with 70S ribosomes.
C Penicillin only blocks mRNA synthesis in prokaryotes.
D Penicillin only blocks peptidoglycan synthesis.

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40 Which processes characterise the mode of action of phagocytes?

1 antibody production
2 receptor binding
3 endocytosis
4 exocytosis
5 hydrolysis

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1 and 4 only C 2, 3, 4 and 5 D 3 and 5 only

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/F/M/23

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2023
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*8185371055*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB23 06_9700_11/4RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
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1 The electron micrograph shows onion root cells prepared using a freeze-fracture technique. The
cells were quickly frozen and then physically broken apart. Freeze fracture breaks apart cells
along weak areas, such as membranes and the surfaces of organelles.

structure X

×20 000

Which statement best explains the appearance of the electron micrograph?

A The cells were broken apart at the endoplasmic reticulum; structure X is a ribosome.
B The cells were broken apart at the nuclear envelope; structure X is a nuclear pore.
C The cells were broken apart at the nuclear envelope; structure X is a ribosome.
D The cells were broken apart at the tonoplast; structure X is a plasmodesma.

2 Which cell structures can form vesicles?

cell surface endoplasmic

Golgi body
membrane reticulum

A    key
B    = can form vesicles
C    = cannot form vesicles
D   

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3 Four students were asked to match the function with the appearance of some cell structures in an
animal cell.

The functions were listed by number.

1 synthesis of polypeptides
2 synthesis of lipids
3 packaging of hydrolytic enzymes that will remain in the cell

The appearances were listed by letter.

V membranes which surround an enclosed inner cavity

W non-membrane-bound, spherical structures
X a double membrane interspersed with pores
Y non-membrane-bound, cylindrical structures
Z membrane-bound sacs, arranged as a flattened stack

Which student correctly matched the numbered function with the appearance of the cell
structure?

1 2 3

A W V Z
B W Z Y
C Z W Z
D Z V W

4 Which cells contain a tonoplast?

sieve tube
root hair companion endodermis
element

A     key
B     = contain tonoplast
C     = do not contain tonoplast
D    

5 Which organelles found in animal or plant cells are surrounded by double membranes?

A chloroplasts, mitochondria, vacuoles

B chloroplasts, mitochondria, nuclei
C chloroplasts, nuclei, vacuoles
D mitochondria, nuclei, vacuoles

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6 Some scientists think that mitochondria evolved from bacteria that entered the cytoplasm of a
different cell and were able to survive there.

Which structural features of mitochondria support this hypothesis?

folded internal
circular DNA 70S ribosomes
membrane

A    key
B    = supports
C    = does not support
D   

7 What is present in all viruses, all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes?

A ribose
B deoxyribose
C cytosine
D thymine

8 The table shows some steps that can be made in carrying out the Benedict’s test.

Which combination of steps is required to carry out a semi-quantitative test on a reducing sugar
solution?

standardise boiling
standardise volume boil with time with Benedict’s
of Benedict’s hydrochloric acid solution and
solution and volume and then neutralise compare final colour
of test solution with alkali with numbered
colour standards

A    key
B    = step made
C    = step not made
D   

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9 The diagrams show three examples of different bonds.

bond 1 bond 2 bond 3

O

NH O C C N CH2 S S CH2

Which bonds hold the secondary structure of proteins together?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

10 Insulin is a globular protein involved in cell signalling. It is transported in the blood plasma from
the cells that synthesise it to its target cells. A molecule of insulin contains six sulfur-containing
amino acids and has two polypeptide chains.

Which statements about insulin are correct?

1 An insulin molecule has a quaternary structure.

2 Insulin polypeptides are held together by six disulfide bonds.
3 Amino acids with hydrophobic R groups would be found in the centre of an insulin
molecule.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

11 Which statement correctly explains why blood plasma can be maintained at a stable
temperature?

A It has a low specific heat capacity.

B It has a high specific heat capacity.
C It has a low latent heat of vaporisation.
D It has a high latent heat of vaporisation.

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12 Which region on the graph shows the activation energy of an enzyme-catalysed reaction?

A
C
B
energy of
molecules
in a reaction
without D
with enzyme enzyme

time

13 The graph shows the effect of an increasing substrate concentration on the rate of an
enzyme-catalysed reaction.

maximum rate of reaction

rate of
reaction P
Q

substrate concentration

Line P represents the result when the enzyme is used at its optimum pH and optimum
temperature and without an inhibitor.

Line Q represents the result when the reaction conditions are changed.

Which descriptions of changes to the reaction conditions could result in line Q if all other
conditions were kept the same?

1 Add an inhibitor that attaches to a site other than the active site.
2 Add an inhibitor that has a similar shape to the substrate.
3 Add an inhibitor that blocks the active site of the enzyme.
4 Carry out the reaction at a higher temperature.

A 1, 3 and 4 B 1 and 4 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 3 only

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14 Which statement about cell signalling is correct?

A One type of receptor molecule will recognise all ligands in the body.
B The binding of a ligand may cause a change to the shape of the receptor.
C The receptors for ligands are always found on the inside of cells.
D The same ligand is made by all of the cells in the body.

15 Four students, A, B, C and D, observed plant epidermal cells that had been placed in a
concentrated sucrose solution for 30 minutes. They were asked to identify the partially permeable
layer and to explain the appearance of the cells in terms of water potential and movement of
water.

Which student is correct?

partially water potential movement of water

permeable layer at start of experiment during experiment

A cell surface cell contents have a lower water moved out of the cell
membrane water potential than the and no water moved in
sucrose solution

B cell surface cell contents have a higher more water moved out
membrane water potential than the of the cell than moved in
sucrose solution

C cell wall cell contents have a lower more water moved out
water potential than the of the cell than moved in
sucrose solution

D cell wall cell contents have a higher water moved out of the cell
water potential than the and no water moved in
sucrose solution

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16 The table compares the surface area to volume ratios of five agar blocks that differ in dimensions
but which all have the same volume.

The agar blocks can be used to measure the efficiency of diffusion, where efficiency is measured
as the time taken for a dye to reach all parts of the block.

length width height surface volume surface area :

/ mm / mm / mm area / mm2 / mm3 volume ratio

1 8 8 8 384 512 0.75

2 16 16 2 640 512 1.3
3 32 4 4 544 512 1.1
4 32 32 0.5 2112 512 4.1
5 64 4 2 784 512 1.5

Which prediction can be made about the way in which size and dimensions of these blocks affect
the efficiency of diffusion?

A The efficiency of diffusion will decrease as the width of a block increases.

B The efficiency of diffusion will increase as the height of a block increases.
C The efficiency of diffusion will increase as a block of fixed volume is flattened.
D The efficiency of diffusion will decrease as a block of fixed volume is elongated.

17 The cell cycle includes mitosis.

What are features of this type of nuclear division?

1 forms cells of equal size to the parent cell

2 forms genetically identical nuclei
3 semi-conservative replication of DNA

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

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18 A student observed the cells in the growing region (meristem) of an onion root and obtained the
data shown.

number
stage
of cells

interphase 886
prophase 73
metaphase 16
anaphase 14
telophase 11

Which percentage of cells contains chromosomes that appear as two chromatids?

A 7.3% B 8.9% C 95.9% D 97.5%

19 Which statement about messenger RNA is correct?

A In eukaryotic cells, mRNA is made by removing exons from the primary RNA transcript.
B mRNA is a single-stranded polynucleotide containing a different purine base than DNA.
C mRNA molecules contain ribose sugars joined to phosphate groups by phosphodiester
bonds.
D The monomers of mRNA contain a phosphate group, deoxyribose sugar and a nitrogenous
base.

20 Which structures are involved in transcription only?

DNA template RNA

anticodons
strand polymerase

A    key
B    = involved
C    = not involved
D   

21 One gene provides the code for the production of which type of molecule?

A amino acid
B DNA
C nucleotide
D polypeptide

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22 The table shows some mRNA codons that code for certain amino acids.

mRNA codon amino acid

GCG, GCA, GCC, GCU alanine

ACG, ACA, ACC, ACU threonine
UGC, UGU cysteine
UAC, UAU tyrosine
CAG, CAA glutamine
CGG, CGA, CGC, CGU arginine

A DNA template strand has the base sequence shown.

ACAGTATTATTTGCAACG

What would the change in the amino acid be if the first base in the fifth DNA triplet was
substituted for an A base?

A alanine to cysteine
B alanine to threonine
C arginine to cysteine
D arginine to threonine

23 Which structures contain cytoplasm with mitochondria and a nucleus?

xylem vessel element

companion phloem
cell A D C sieve tube
element

24 What is the correct term to describe intermolecular hydrogen bonding between water molecules?

A adhesion
B cohesion
C osmosis
D diffusion

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25 The diagram shows the outline of a xerophytic leaf that had been left for 45 minutes in different
conditions, P and Q.

Y
Y

P Q

Which statements about the cells in layer Y of the leaf in each of the conditions P and Q after
45 minutes are correct?

1 There is a less negative water potential in P than in Q.

2 The cells may be turgid in P and plasmolysed in Q.
3 The cells are less turgid in P than in Q.
4 There is no net diffusion of water into Y in either P or Q.

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1, 3 and 4 C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only

26 How does sucrose move from chloroplasts to the phloem?

1 diffusion
2 apoplast pathway
3 symplast pathway

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

27 How are companion cells involved in loading sucrose into phloem sieve tube elements?

A actively through cotransporter proteins and passively through plasmodesmata

B actively through cotransporter proteins and plasmodesmata
C passively through cotransporter proteins only
D actively through plasmodesmata only

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28 The photomicrograph shows blood cells as seen using a high-power light microscope.

Which row correctly identifies the different types of white blood cell?

1 2 3

A lymphocyte monocyte neutrophil

B monocyte neutrophil macrophage
C neutrophil monocyte lymphocyte
D phagocyte lymphocyte monocyte

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29 Plan diagrams of two blood vessels are shown.

fatty tissue

1 2

Which labels are correct?

1 2 3 4 5
A aorta vena cava elastic smooth epithelium
fibres muscle

B artery vein collagen smooth endothelium

fibres muscle and
elastic tissue

C vein artery collagen elastic squamous

fibres fibres cells

D coronary coronary elastic smooth epithelium

artery vein fibres muscle and
elastic tissue

30 What are found in blood and tissue fluid?

1 carbon dioxide
2 fatty acids
3 white blood cells
4 proteins

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 2 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only

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31 Which reactions would be slowed down by an inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase?

1 CO2 + haemoglobin → carbaminohaemoglobin

2 CO2 + H2O → H2CO3

3 H2CO3 → H+ + HCO3–

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

32 Which sequence of letters correctly identifies the order of events during the cardiac cycle?

T atrial walls contract

U impulse is delayed by a fraction of a second
V wave of excitation enters the atrioventricular node
W wave of excitation passes down the Purkyne tissue
X wave of excitation spreads from the sinoatrial node
Y ventricles contract

A B C D

V X V X
Y W T U T U Y V

X U W V X W W T
T Y Y U

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33 The diagram gives information about blood pressure in the left side of the heart during the cardiac
cycle.

pressure key
2 aorta
/ kPa
atrium
ventricle
1
4

0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6

time / s

Valves open and close at the points numbered.

Which row identifies the valves opening or closing at the points numbered?

atrioventricular semilunar atrioventricular semilunar

valve opens valve opens valve closes valve closes

A 1 3 4 2
B 2 4 3 1
C 3 1 2 4
D 4 2 1 3

34 A person with no breathing conditions rests for an hour. Their breathing in this time is shallow and
slow, so little air from outside the body reaches the alveoli. The person’s heart rate remains
constant.

Which statement is correct?

A The carbon dioxide concentration in the blood in the pulmonary vein will be higher than in the
pulmonary artery.
B Carbon dioxide molecules in the air of the alveoli move out of the blood by active transport.
C The air in the alveoli has a lower concentration of oxygen than the blood in the pulmonary
vein.
D Oxygen molecules diffuse from the air in the alveoli into the blood at a slower rate than when
the person is active.

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/M/J/23 [Turn over

 16

35 Which statements about all bronchioles are correct?

1 They have epithelium.

2 They have goblet cells.
3 They have muscle tissue.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 only D 3 only

36 The diagram shows some of the pathogens that cause disease in humans and some of the ways
they are transmitted.

1 2 W
bacterium protoctist contaminated water

pathogen method of
transmission

3 X Y
virus mosquito bite coughs and
sneezes

What is the correct pathogen and method of transmission for malaria?

A 1 and X B 2 and W C 2 and X D 3 and Y

37 Some of the processes which result in the formation of a population of bacteria that are resistant
to a new antibiotic are listed.

1 change in reproductive success of bacteria

2 increase in frequency of the resistance allele in the population
3 increase in genetic variation within the population
4 random mutation occurs in bacterial DNA

What is the correct order of these processes?

A 1→3→2→4

B 2→1→3→4

C 3→4→1→2

D 4→3→1→2

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/M/J/23

 17

38 When bacteria are grown in a Petri dish containing discs with antibiotics, there will be zones of
inhibition of bacterial growth.

antibiotic disc
zone of inhibition

area of
bacterial
growth

The chart shows the size of the zones of inhibition when a species of bacteria was incubated on
five different plates of agar, each containing a disc with a different antibiotic.

30

25

20
zone of
inhibition 15
/ mm
10

0
1 2 3 4 5
antibiotic

Which conclusions can be made about the most and least effective antibiotics on this species of
bacteria?

most effective least effective

antibiotic antibiotic

A 3 2
B 4 3
C 3 1
D 2 3

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/M/J/23 [Turn over

 18

39 Which blood cell type does not recognise, engulf and digest non-self particles?

A macrophages
B neutrophils
C phagocytes
D T-killer cells

40 Repeated infections with malaria result in more effective immunity to malaria.

Which type of immunity is responsible for the more effective immunity?

A artificial active
B artificial passive
C natural active
D natural passive

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/M/J/23

 19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/M/J/23

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/M/J/23

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2023
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*1961439536*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages.

IB23 06_9700_12/6RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
 2

1 A graticule and a micrometer scale can be used to measure the size of biological structures that
are viewed with a microscope.

Which row shows the correct locations for the placement of a graticule and a micrometer scale on
the microscope shown?

micrometer
graticule
scale

A 1 2
B 1 3
C 2 3
D 3 1

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23

 3

2 Six organelles found in eukaryotic cells are shown.

1 2 3

NOT TO
SCALE

4 5 6

Which organelles are involved in the synthesis and secretion of a glycoprotein?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4 B 1, 2, 4 and 6 C 2, 3 and 5 D 3, 4, 5 and 6

3 Which cell structures can have mRNA inside them?

1 chloroplast
2 mitochondrion
3 nucleus
4 rough endoplasmic reticulum

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23 [Turn over

 4

4 A scientist carried out an experiment to separate the organelles in an animal cell by mass.

The scientist mixed the cells with a buffer solution which had the same water potential as the
cells. The cells were broken open with a blender to release the organelles.

The extracted mixture was filtered and then spun in a centrifuge at a high speed to separate the
heaviest type of organelle. These sank to the bottom, forming solid pellet 1.

liquid above
pellet

solid pellet

The liquid above pellet 1 was poured into a clean centrifuge tube and spun in the centrifuge at a
higher speed to separate the next heaviest type of organelle. These organelles sank to the
bottom, forming solid pellet 2.

This procedure was repeated twice more to obtain pellet 3 and pellet 4, each containing a single
type of organelle.

What is the main function of the type of organelle extracted in pellet 2?

A digestion of old organelles

B production of ATP
C production of mRNA
D synthesis of protein

5 Which structures are found in palisade mesophyll cells and photosynthetic prokaryotes?

1 cell surface membrane

2 cellulose wall
3 ribosomes
4 chloroplasts

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 only

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23

 5

6 Which polymers are present in all viruses and all prokaryotes?

1 polynucleotides
2 polypeptides
3 polysaccharides

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

7 Which set of steps is the best method for conducting the emulsion test for lipids?

A Add 2 cm3 of water to the sample.

Pour the water into a test-tube containing 2 cm3 of ethanol.
Lipids are present if the mixture becomes cloudy.
B Add 2 cm3 of ethanol to the sample and shake.
Pour the ethanol into a test-tube containing 2 cm3 of water and boil.
Lipids are present if the mixture becomes clear.
C Add 2 cm3 of water to the sample and shake.
Pour the water into a test-tube containing 2 cm3 of ethanol and boil.
Lipids are present if the mixture becomes cloudy.
D Add 2 cm3 of ethanol to the sample and shake.
Pour the ethanol into a test-tube containing 2 cm3 of water and shake again.
Lipids are present if the mixture becomes cloudy.

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23 [Turn over

 6

8 A student was provided with a solution of carbohydrate. They removed two samples from the
solution and performed tests on each sample, as shown.

carbohydrate
solution

sample one sample two

boiled with dilute

Benedict’s test
hydrochloric acid

Benedict’s solution neutralised with dilute

remained blue sodium hydroxide

Benedict’s test

Benedict’s solution
turned yellow

Which statement explains the results?

A Condensation reactions occur in sample two to release reducing sugar.

B Glycosidic bonds in a polysaccharide have been broken to release reducing sugar.
C Sample one shows that sucrose is present in the carbohydrate solution.
D The change in colour to a yellow solution shows that glucose is present.

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23

 7

9 Which molecules contain at least two double bonds?

sucrose

C A
D

collagen haemoglobin
B

10 What describes cellulose?

A a branched chain of 1-4 α-glucose

B a branched chain of 1-4 β-glucose

C an unreactive linear chain of 1-4 α-glucose

D an unreactive linear chain of 1-4 β-glucose

11 Which part of the structure of haemoglobin carries oxygen?

A four polypeptide chains

B haem groups
C hydrogen bonds
D hydrophilic R groups

12 What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds that can form between two single water
molecules?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23 [Turn over

 8

13 CYP3A4 is an important enzyme in the human digestive system where it is needed to break
down a range of different toxins. The activity of CYP3A4 has been shown to be reduced by
substances called furanocoumarins. Furanocoumarins are found in some fruits and so dangerous
concentrations of toxins may develop in the human digestive system when fruits containing
furanocoumarins are eaten.

From the information provided, what can be concluded about molecules of the enzyme CYP3A4?

A They lower the activation energy of the toxin breakdown reactions.

B They bind specifically through the active site to a substrate found in some fruits.
C They change permanently when acted upon by furanocoumarin molecules.
D They resume normal activity when concentrations of furanocoumarins decrease.

14 A fixed volume and concentration of substrate and enzyme were mixed. All other variables were
kept constant. The enzyme-catalysed reaction was left until it was complete.

Which graph shows how the rate of reaction changes with time?

A B

rate of rate of
reaction reaction

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

rate of rate of
reaction reaction

0 0
0 time 0 time

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23

 9

15 Which molecules in cell surface membranes are typically involved in cell recognition?

cholesterol glycolipids glycoproteins phospholipids

A     key
B     = involved
C     = not involved
D    

16 What can increase the fluidity of the cell surface membrane?

1 single bonds between carbon atoms in the fatty acid chains

2 cholesterol
3 longer-chained fatty acids

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

17 The three main factors that affect the rate of diffusion across a membrane can be expressed by
the relationship shown.

surface area × concentration difference

rate of diffusion is proportional to
thickness of membrane

Which changes in the factors would result in the rate of diffusion doubling?

1 Surface area has doubled.

2 Concentration difference has halved.
3 Thickness of membrane has doubled.
4 Thickness of membrane has halved.

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1 and 3 C 1 and 4 only D 2 and 3

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23 [Turn over

 10

18 A student measured the time taken for complete diffusion of a dye into agar blocks of different
sizes which were suspended in the dye.

The results are shown.

size of agar block time for

/ mm × mm × mm diffusion / s

5×5×5 6.2
10 × 10 × 10 16.1
15 × 15 × 15 34.5
5 × 10 × 15

What is the predicted time for complete diffusion of the dye into the agar block measuring
5 mm × 10 mm × 15 mm?

A 6.2 s
B 16.1 s
C 34.5 s
D more than 34.5 s

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23

 11

19 An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of concentration of sucrose solution on
cells in a plant tissue.

A sample of plant tissue was cut into seven cylinders of equal length and diameter. The mass of
each cylinder was recorded.

Each of the seven cylinders was put into a different sucrose solution concentration.

bung

test-tube

sucrose
solution
plant tissue
cylinder

After two hours, the cylinders were removed, blotted dry and reweighed. The percentage change
in mass of each cylinder was recorded.

The graph shows the results of this investigation.

20
15
10
5
percentage change
in mass of plant 0
tissue cylinder 0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7
–5
–10
–15
–20
concentration of sucrose solution / mol dm–3

Which row explains the results if plant tissue cells were put in a sucrose solution of 0.45 mol dm–3?

water potential of the cytoplasm change in volume of the

of the cells at the start of the vacuoles of the cells at the end
experiment compared with the of the experiment, that were
water potential of 0.45 mol dm–3 initially placed in 0.45 mol dm–3
sucrose solution sucrose solution

A less negative decreased

B less negative increased
C more negative decreased
D more negative increased

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23 [Turn over

 12

20 The diagram shows part of the organisation of a section of a DNA molecule and the associated
histones, P and R, in prophase of mitosis.

Which statement about the features labelled P, Q and R during prophase of mitosis is correct?

A The coiled DNA molecule forms Q and wraps around histone R to form small clusters held in
place by histone P.
B The groups of histones, P, and its associated DNA, Q, move closer together as the
chromosome condenses around R.
C The histones P and R are made of protein around which the DNA molecule, Q, is wrapped so
that the DNA molecule can fit inside the nucleus.
D The linked groups of histones P and R and the associated DNA, Q, form strands that fold
and twist together to form a chromatid.

21 How many copies of each DNA molecule will be found in a cell at the start of the stages of the
mitotic cell cycle shown?

G1 of
cytokinesis
interphase

A 1 1
B 1 2
C 2 1
D 2 2

22 One characteristic of DNA is that it is a universal genetic code.

What is meant by a universal genetic code?

A All living organisms use the same triplet code for amino acids.
B All DNA triplets code for a different amino acid.
C Not all DNA triplets code for an amino acid.
D All living organisms contain the same four nucleic acids.

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23

 13

23 Which statement about mRNA is correct?

A It is a polymer made of nucleotides all joined with hydrogen bonds.

B Each nucleotide subunit contains the sugar ribose.
C It always has an equal proportion of adenine and uracil.
D The mRNA sequence is identical to the template strand of DNA.

24 The diagram shows part of the process of translation.

What are the names of the structures labelled X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A anticodon codon mRNA

B anticodon codon tRNA
C codon anticodon mRNA
D codon anticodon tRNA

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23 [Turn over

 14

25 The DNA triplets of genes are translated as amino acids or stop signals during protein synthesis.
The table shows some of these triplets.

name of
DNA triplet
amino acid

ATA tyrosine
ATG tyrosine
ACA cysteine
ACG cysteine
ATC stop signal
ACC tryptophan

What could be the effects of one substitution mutation in a triplet coding for tyrosine?

1 The triplet is translated as cysteine.

2 The triplet is translated as tryptophan.
3 The triplet is translated as tyrosine.
4 Translation stops at this triplet.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

26 Which row identifies cells with plasmodesmata?

phloem sieve companion xylem vessel

tube element cell element

A    key
B    = plasmodesmata present
C    = plasmodesmata not present
D   

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23

 15

27 Which statements about the apoplast and symplast pathways are correct?

1 In the apoplast pathway, water molecules move through free spaces in the cellulose
cell walls of plant roots.
2 In the symplast pathway, water molecules diffuse through the cytoplasm and
plasmodesmata of cells.
3 Water molecules travelling through plant tissue move by mass flow along the
apoplast pathway.
4 The Casparian strip blocks the symplast pathway and forces all water molecules to
enter the cytoplasm of endodermis cells.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 3 and 4 only

28 Where does water evaporate from during transpiration?

A intercellular spaces
B leaf surface
C mesophyll cell walls
D stomatal pores

29 The diagram shows the outline of three xerophytic leaves of the same type in three different
conditions, P, R and S.

layer Y layer Y layer Y

P R S

Which description of the water potential of the cells in layer Y is correct?

water potential of cells in layer Y

P R S

A higher than R and S lower than P and S lower than P

B higher than S lower than P higher than P
C lower than R higher than S higher than R
D lower than R and S higher than P lower than P

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23 [Turn over

 16

30 The photomicrograph shows a transverse section of the leaf of a species of grass.

The grass is specially adapted to grow in a dry habitat.

Which row correctly explains how the features help the grass to grow in this habitat?

hair-like structures leaf shape

A increase internal humidity decrease external humidity

B decrease external humidity increase internal humidity
C increase internal humidity increase internal humidity
D decrease external humidity decrease external humidity

31 Which statement supports the theory of active loading of sucrose into companion cells?

A The pH decreases in the cell wall of the companion cells compared with the cytoplasm.
B The pH decreases in the cytoplasm of the companion cells compared with the cell wall.
C The pH decreases in the companion cells and sieve tube elements.
D The pH decreases in the sieve tube elements compared with the companion cells.

32 Which properties of water are essential for its role in the transport of blood in mammals?

high latent heat solvent for polar

of vaporisation substances

A   key
B   = essential
C   = not essential
D  

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23

 17

33 The diagram shows some of the events that happen between the plasma and the red blood cells
in the circulatory system.

plasma red blood cell

1 1 + H2O

H2CO3
4
2 3 Hb
4
2

What do the numbers 1, 2, 3 and 4 represent?

1 2 3 4

A Cl – HCO3– H+ CO2
B CO2 HCO3– H+ Cl –
C HCO3– Cl – CO2 H+
D CO2 H+ HCO3– Cl –

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23 [Turn over

 18

34 The diagrams show the valves in the heart when viewed in cross-section from above at different
stages in the cardiac cycle.

semilunar valve atrioventricular valve

diagram 1 diagram 2

Which stages in the cardiac cycle are shown?

diagram 1 diagram 2

A diastole ventricular systole

B atrial systole diastole
C ventricular systole diastole
D diastole atrial systole

35 Where are squamous epithelial cells found in the human gas exchange system?

trachea bronchus alveolus

A    key
B    = found
C    = not found
D   

36 Which statement about gas exchange between air in the alveoli and blood in the pulmonary
capillaries is correct?

A The oxygen concentration in the capillaries leaving the pulmonary artery is higher than the
oxygen concentration in the alveoli.
B Gases must diffuse across the endothelium of the pulmonary capillaries and the endothelium
of the alveoli.
C The elastic fibres in the alveoli walls allow the alveoli to expand to increase the surface area
available for diffusion into the pulmonary capillaries.
D Breathing out reduces the carbon dioxide concentration gradient between the blood in the
pulmonary capillaries and the air in the alveoli.

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23

 19

37 The average thicknesses for some structures in the human respiratory system are shown.

average
structure thickness of
structure / nm

human cell membrane 5

cytoplasm of alveolar wall cells 190
cytoplasm of capillary wall cells 90
tissues between alveolar wall and capillary wall 300

A molecule of oxygen is in the alveolar air space next to the wall of the alveolus.

What is the shortest distance that the molecule needs to diffuse from its current position to the
haemoglobin that completely fills a red blood cell in the nearest capillary?

(Assume that the red blood cells touch the walls of a capillary.)

A 595 nm B 600 nm C 605 nm D 610 nm

38 The statements refer to the disease tuberculosis (TB).

1 The pathogen is not accessible to the immune system.

2 The bacterial pathogen reproduces slowly.
3 The pathogen is not very sensitive to antibiotics.

Which statements explain why antibiotic treatment for TB takes a long time?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

TURN OVER FOR QUESTIONS 39 AND 40.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23 [Turn over

 20

39 The average sizes of some pathogens are shown.

average size
pathogen
/ nm

HIV particle 100

Mycobacterium tuberculosis 3 000
Plasmodium 20 000
Vibrio cholerae 1 500

One type of air filter has been shown to be effective at preventing any pathogens of 1 µm or
larger from entering the air system of a room.

Based on their size and mode of transmission, which diseases would the air filter prevent from
entering the air system of a room?

HIV
TB malaria cholera
infection

A     key
B     = prevented
C     = not prevented
D    

40 A successful vaccination programme provides a level of immunity where the majority of a

population is protected.

There are several factors that can affect the success of a vaccination programme.

Which row correctly shows the factors that can affect the success of a vaccination programme?

frequent mutation of vaccination from pathogen is able to booster vaccinations

the pathogen eight weeks old invade T-cells needed frequently

A    
B    
C    
D    

key
= affects
= does not affect

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/M/J/23

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2023
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*8864591307*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB23 06_9700_13/5RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
 2

1 Which feature is visible with a light microscope using a natural light source?

A DNA molecule of diameter 2 nm

B Paramecium cell of diameter 200 µm

C phospholipid bilayer of width 8 nm
D ribosome of diameter 20 nm

2 The electron micrograph shows a structure found in the cytoplasm of an animal cell.

Which biological molecules are found in this structure?

1 nucleic acids
2 proteins
3 phospholipids

A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

3 Which cell structures contain nucleic acid?

1 cytoplasm
2 lysosomes
3 mitochondria

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 3 only

4 Mitochondria are thought to have evolved from prokaryotic cells that were ingested by an
ancestral cell.

Which feature have prokaryotes lost during their evolution into mitochondria?

A cell wall
B circular chromosome
C endoplasmic reticulum
D ribosomes

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/M/J/23

 3

5 Which polymers are present in all viruses, all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes?

1 polynucleotides
2 polypeptides
3 polysaccharides

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

6 How many of the listed structures typically contain genetic material that has telomeres?

• bacterial cell

• chloroplast

• mitochondrion

• nucleus

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

7 Steps 1, 2, 3 and 4 are used to test for a non-reducing sugar.

1 Put 5 cm3 of solution into a test-tube.

2 Add a few drops of acid.
3 Neutralise with alkali.
4 Add 6 cm3 of Benedict’s solution.

When is the solution heated or boiled?

A between steps 1 and 2

B between steps 2 and 3, and after step 4
C between steps 2 and 3 only
D after step 4 only

8 Which features contribute to the function of a cellulose molecule?

1 Long chains of glucose molecules coil into a helix.

2 Many hydrogen bonds form between adjacent chains.
3 It is insoluble in water.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/M/J/23 [Turn over

 4

9 What correctly describes triglycerides?

A non-polar molecules that are soluble in ethanol

B non-polar molecules that are soluble in water
C polar molecules that are soluble in ethanol
D polar molecules that are soluble in water

10 Cocoa butter contains three different triglycerides. These triglycerides are made from the fatty
acids:

• oleic acid (O)

• palmitic acid (P)

• stearic acid (S).

The three triglycerides found in cocoa butter are POS, SOS and POP.

The chemical structure of the triglyceride POS is shown next to a diagrammatic representation of
POS.

H O H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H

H C O C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C H G P

H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H L
Y
O H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H
C
H C O C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C H O
E
H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H
R
O H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H O

H C O C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C H L S

H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H

Which statement is correct?

A Triglyceride POP contains two unsaturated fatty acids joined by ester bonds to glycerol.
B Triglyceride POS contains two less carbon atoms than triglyceride POP.
C Triglyceride SOS contains four more carbon atoms than triglyceride POP.
D Triglyceride SOS contains two saturated fatty acids joined by hydrolysis to glycerol.

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/M/J/23

 5

11 Which molecules contain at least four double bonds?

unsaturated
triglyceride

C A
D

haemoglobin collagen
B

12 The diagram shows the amino acid glutamic acid.

COOH

H C CH2 CH2 COOH

NH2

What is the R group for glutamic acid?

A NH2
B H
C COOH
D CH2 CH2 COOH

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/M/J/23 [Turn over

 6

13 The diagram shows three interactions that hold protein molecules in shape.

N
H
S NH3+
interaction 1 S
O
interaction 3
C
COO–

S
S
interaction 2

Which row identifies these interactions?

interaction 1 interaction 2 interaction 3

A hydrogen bond disulfide bond hydrophobic interaction

B hydrogen bond covalent bond ionic bond
C hydrophobic interaction ionic bond hydrogen bond
D ionic bond disulfide bond peptide bond

14 Some animals produce antimicrobial proteins which protect them from pathogens. These proteins
could be used to kill human pathogens, however when used as a medicine they are broken down
by protein-digesting enzymes.

Replacing one of the amino acids found in the protein with an amino acid that had been
synthesised in the laboratory resulted in a modified protein that was not broken down.

What could explain why this modified protein was not broken down by the protein-digesting
enzymes?

1 The modified protein has a different tertiary structure to the original protein.
2 The modified protein is not complementary in shape to the enzyme’s active site.
3 The modified protein is unable to induce a fit with the protein-digesting enzyme.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/M/J/23

 7

15 A student investigated the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of an enzyme-catalysed

reaction. A graph was plotted to show the relationship between these two variables. The
student was asked to take readings from the graph that could be used to determine the
Michaelis–Menten constant, Km, for this enzyme.

J, K, L and M show points read from the graphs which the student could use to determine the
value of Km.

J
rate of rate of
reaction reaction

0 0
0 0 K
concentration concentration
of substrate of substrate

rate of rate of
reaction reaction
L

0 0
0 0 M
concentration concentration
of substrate of substrate

Which two readings must the student use to determine the value of Km?

A J and K B J and M C K and L D L and M

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16 The end-product of a metabolic pathway can act as a competitive inhibitor. This is called
end-product inhibition and allows a cell to control a metabolic pathway.

The diagram shows a metabolic pathway where the end-product could act as an inhibitor of
enzyme W.

substrate

enzyme W

intermediate 1

enzyme X

intermediate 2

inhibition enzyme Y

intermediate 3

enzyme Z

end-product

What would be the effect if enzyme Z was inhibited by the end-product instead of enzyme W?

quantity of quantity of
intermediate 1 end-product

A increase decrease
B increase unchanged
C decrease decrease
D decrease unchanged

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17 Which row shows the distribution of cholesterol and the carbohydrate chains of glycolipids and
glycoproteins in a cell surface membrane?

carbohydrate chains carbohydrate chains

cholesterol
of glycolipids of glycoproteins
A between phospholipid mainly on the mainly on the
heads only outer surface inner surface
B between phospholipid mainly on the mainly on the
heads only inner surface outer surface
C between phospholipids mainly on the mainly on the
inner surface inner surface
D between phospholipids mainly on the mainly on the
outer surface outer surface

18 Which row correctly describes all the possible relative concentrations of a substance when the
substance is moved by endocytosis or exocytosis?

endocytosis exocytosis
A concentrations equal concentrations equal
B concentrations equal, concentrations equal,
greater inside or greater inside or
greater outside greater outside

C concentrations equal concentrations equal

or greater outside or lower outside
D concentrations equal concentrations equal
or lower outside or greater outside

19 Which statement about simple diffusion is correct?

A It requires specific molecules in the cell surface membrane.

B It is a passive mode of transporting substances.
C It always requires a membrane for transport of substances.
D It only happens in the cells of prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

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20 Plant cells with the same water potential in their cytoplasm were each put into one of three
different concentrations of sugar solution, 10%, 5% and 2.5%.

The cells were left for 50 minutes and then observed using a light microscope.

cell X cell Y cell Z

vacuole

Which statements are correct?

1 Cell Y had a lower water potential than the sugar solution it was put into.
2 Cell Z was put into the 10% sugar solution.
3 Cell Z had a less negative water potential than the sugar solution it was put into.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

21 Which row describes some properties of stem cells?

able to divide
able to
by mitosis to able to repair
differentiate into
produce more damaged cells
specialised cells
stem cells

A    key
B    = is a property
C    = is not a property
D   

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22 The mitotic index is a measure of the proportion of cells that are undergoing mitosis in an area of
tissue. It is calculated using the formula shown.

mitotic index = (number of cells undergoing mitosis ÷ total number of cells) × 100

A scientist calculated the mitotic index of areas of onion root at different distances from the tip of
the root.

The results are shown.

14

12

10

8
mitotic
index
6

0
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4 1.6 1.8 2.0

distance from tip of root / mm

Which statement is correct?

A No cell division occurs further than 1.4 mm from the tip of the root.
B The rate of cell division decreases as the distance from the root tip decreases.
C Most of the cells undergoing cell division are closer to the tip of the root.
D For a sample of 200 cells 0.2 mm from the tip of the root, 6 would be undergoing mitosis.

23 Which molecules make up the structure of ATP?

1 adenine
2 thymine
3 deoxyribose
4 phosphate
5 ribose

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 1, 4 and 5 D 2, 4 and 5

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24 A short piece of DNA, 19 base pairs long, was analysed to find the number of nucleotide bases
in each of the polynucleotide strands. Some of the results are shown.

number of nucleotide bases

A C G T

strand 1 4
strand 2 7 5

How many cytosines were in strand 1?

A 2 B 3 C 5 D 7

25 Which statement about the role of DNA polymerase in the process of semi-conservative
replication of DNA is correct?

A DNA polymerase forms the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs.
B DNA polymerase moves along the lagging strand in the 3′ to 5′ direction.
C DNA polymerase joins new bases to the leading strand only.
D DNA polymerase moves along leading and lagging strands in the 5′ to 3′ direction.

26 The diagram shows the process of translation occurring at a ribosome.

ribosome

S
C A U U C G C U A A U G

What is the base sequence at S?

A CUA B CAT C GAU D GAT

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27 Which row correctly explains how the structures of phloem sieve tube elements and xylem vessel
elements are related to their functions as transport systems?

phloem sieve tube elements xylem vessel elements

A contain mitochondria to make ATP cell walls are thickened and

for the active loading of sucrose contain lignin which makes
into the phloem xylem vessels waterproof

B contain no nucleus so that end walls between cells are

dissolved solutes can move easily perforated so that water can move
through cells easily through xylem vessels

C end walls between cells are lignin in cell walls gives strength so
perforated so that dissolved solutes that xylem vessels do not collapse
can move between cells due to transpiration pull

D no end walls between cells so that contain no cytoplasm so that a

sucrose solution can move up and continuous column of water can
down the phloem move up the xylem vessels

28 Which component of plants is used by the apoplast pathway as water is moved from the soil to
the xylem?

A Casparian strip
B cellulose
C endodermis
D suberin

29 Which statements correctly describe transport pathways in dicotyledonous plants?

1 In the symplast pathway, water may move through intercellular spaces.

2 The symplast pathway may be blocked by the tonoplast.
3 In the apoplast pathway, water does not move through plasmodesmata.
4 The apoplast pathway may be blocked by the Casparian strip.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

30 Plants, such as the tobacco plant, retain very little of the water they take in and the volume of
water lost during transpiration is very high. This is because these plants can only absorb
carbon dioxide through open stomata.

Plants use carbon dioxide to synthesise glucose molecules. It is estimated that 400 molecules of
water are lost for each carbon dioxide molecule gained.

How many water molecules are lost for a plant to synthesise one molecule of glucose?

A 800 B 1200 C 2000 D 2400

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31 Which changes occur as sucrose is transferred from leaves into phloem sieve tubes to be
transported to a sink?

water potential volume of liquid

in phloem sieve in phloem
tubes becomes sieve tubes

A less negative decreases

B less negative increases
C more negative decreases
D more negative increases

32 The graph shown does not have any axis labels.

0
0

Which row shows appropriate labels for the axes that would explain mass flow in phloem?

x-axis y-axis

A distance from sink / m hydrostatic pressure / kPa

B hydrostatic pressure / kPa distance from sink / m
C distance from source / m hydrostatic pressure / kPa
D hydrostatic pressure / kPa distance from source / m

33 What is present in the blood in human veins?

1 chloride ions
2 carbonic anhydrase
3 oxyhaemoglobin

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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34 The photomicrograph shows two blood vessels P and Q.

Both these blood vessels are part of a network which transports blood around the body.

Which row is correct for blood vessel P and blood vessel Q?

blood vessel P blood vessel Q

A carries blood into arterioles carries blood into arterioles

B carries blood into arterioles carries blood from venules
C carries blood from venules carries blood into arterioles
D carries blood from venules carries blood from venules

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35 The diagram shows a blood capillary and the tissue fluid which surrounds it.

tissue fluid
W X

arteriole venule
Z blood capillary Y
end end

tissue fluid

Tissue fluid is formed when fluid and solutes from blood plasma pass through tiny gaps in the
capillary wall. Most tissue fluid is then returned to the blood in the capillary.

Which pressures will be needed at points W, X, Y and Z so that this system can function?

pressure at W pressure at X pressure at Y pressure at Z

/ mm Hg / mm Hg / mm Hg / mm Hg

A 18 26 36 26
B 26 26 18 36
C 26 36 26 18
D 36 18 26 26

36 What happens during ventricular systole in a mammalian heart?

A Aortic pressure increases.

B Atrioventricular valves open.
C Semilunar valves close.
D Ventricular pressure decreases.

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37 The photomicrograph shows a part of the human gas exchange system with one tissue
labelled P.

Which row is correct?

part of gas
function of tissue P
exchange system

A bronchus regulates the amount of air reaching the lungs

B bronchus provides support and prevents collapse
C bronchiole regulates the amount of air reaching the lungs
D bronchiole provides support and prevents collapse

38 How many times must a molecule of oxygen pass through a cell surface membrane as it diffuses
from the airspace inside an alveolus, through a cell in the capillary wall, to bind to a molecule of
haemoglobin?

A 3 B 4 C 5 D 10

39 A student wrote four statements about cholera.

Which statement is not correct?

A It can be controlled by vaccination.

B It is caused by bacteria spread by ingestion.
C HIV/AIDS increases the risk of infection.
D It may be transmitted by animal vectors.

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40 Monoclonal antibodies are produced using the hybridoma method.

What are removed from the spleen of a mouse to produce monoclonal antibodies?

A antigens
B clones
C lymphocytes
D myeloma cells

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BLANK PAGE

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/M/J/23

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2023
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*3346162285*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB23 11_9700_11/3RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
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1 Until recently, the typical viruses known to science were 20–150 nm in size.

In 2003, the Mimivirus was discovered with a size of approximately 680 nm.

In 2013, the Pandoravirus was discovered which has a size of over 1000 nm.

Which viruses can be seen using a light microscope with a maximum resolution of 0.25 µm and
an electron microscope?

typical virus Mimivirus Pandoravirus

A    key
B     = can be seen
C     = cannot be seen
D   

2 The diagram shows an eyepiece graticule and a cell viewed through a microscope. When the
eyepiece graticule was calibrated at this magnification, the whole length of the graticule shown
covered 12 divisions of a stage micrometer scale.

There were 100 divisions in 10 mm of the stage micrometer.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

What is the actual length of the cell?

A 2.5 µm B 3.6 µm C 360 µm D 3 mm

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3 Tay-Sachs disease results in a build-up of lipids in cells.

Which cell structure does not function correctly in this disease?

A Golgi body
B lysosome
C mitochondrion
D smooth endoplasmic reticulum

4 Which animal cells would have the most extensive Golgi bodies?

A ciliated epithelial cells

B goblet cells
C red blood cells
D smooth muscle cells

5 The diagram shows three circles, 1, 3 and 5, and the shared structures, 2 and 4.

circle 3

circle 1 circle 5
2 4

Which row correctly identifies the three circles and some of the structures that are shared
between them?

circle 1 2 circle 3 4 circle 5

A chloroplasts circular DNA mitochondria 80S ribosomes prokaryotes

B chloroplasts 80S ribosomes mitochondria circular DNA prokaryotes
C prokaryotes circular DNA mitochondria circular DNA chloroplasts
D prokaryotes 70S ribosomes chloroplasts 80S ribosomes mitochondria

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6 Which row about the genetic material in animal cells and prokaryotic cells is correct?

prokaryotic
prokaryotic
animal cells genetic material
genetic material
contain linear is surrounded
is double-stranded
DNA by a double
DNA
membrane

A    key
B     = correct
C     = not correct
D   

7 What is present in all viruses?

A uracil
B ribose
C thymine
D guanine

8 The test for non-reducing sugars requires a second Benedict’s test to be carried out.

Which set of steps is the correct method for carrying out the non-reducing sugar test before
carrying out the second Benedict’s test?

A Perform the Benedict’s test, which gives a negative result.

Warm gently with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Neutralise with sodium hydrogencarbonate.
B Perform the Benedict’s test, with the colour of the solution remaining red.
Boil with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Neutralise with sodium hydrogencarbonate.
C Perform the Benedict’s test, with the colour of the solution remaining blue.
Boil with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Neutralise with sodium hydrogencarbonate.
D Perform the Benedict’s test, which gives a negative result.
Neutralise with sodium hydrogencarbonate.
Warm gently with dilute hydrochloric acid.

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9 The diagrams show three types of covalent bonds.

1 2 3
O H H O H

C O C C O C C N

Which bonds will be found in glycolipids and glycoproteins?

bond 1 bond 2 bond 3

A glycolipids only glycolipids and glycoproteins
glycoproteins only
B glycolipids and glycolipids only glycoproteins
glycoproteins only
C glycoproteins glycolipids only glycolipids and
only glycoproteins
D glycoproteins glycolipids and glycolipids only
only glycoproteins

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10 Which molecules would be found in an oil (liquid) more than in a fat (solid)?

1 2

O O

H 2C O C (CH2)16 CH3 H 2C O C (CH2)12 CH3

O O

HC O C (CH2)16 CH3 HC O C (CH2)14 CH3

O O

H 2C O C (CH2)16 CH3 H 2C O C (CH2)7CH=CH(CH2)7 CH3

3 4

O O

H 2C O C (CH2)14 CH3 H 2C O C (CH2)14 CH3

O O

HC O C (CH2)14 CH3 HC O C (CH2)7CH=CH(CH2)7 CH3

O O

H 2C O C (CH2)14 CH3 H 2C O C (CH2)7CH=CHCH2CH=CH(CH2)4 CH3

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

11 Which row about the bonding found in the primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure of
proteins is correct?

primary secondary tertiary quaternary

A covalent covalent ionic and disulfide hydrogen and
only hydrophobic
interactions only

B covalent hydrogen hydrogen, ionic, hydrogen, ionic,

covalent and covalent and
hydrophobic hydrophobic
interactions interactions

C peptide covalent hydrogen, ionic, hydrogen, ionic

disulfide and and disulfide
hydrophobic
interactions

D peptide hydrogen ionic and disulfide ionic and disulfide

only only

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12 The specific heat capacity of different substances is shown.

specific heat
substance
capacity / J g–1 °C

air 1.0
hydrogen gas 14.3
water (liquid) 4.2
water (steam) 2.1

Which statement is correct?

A Air is a more stable environment than water because it is more resistant to changes in
temperature.
B It takes more energy to raise the temperature of hydrogen gas than it does to raise the
temperature of water.

C A specific heat capacity of 4.2 J g–1 °C means that it takes 4.2 J of energy to vaporise 1.0 g of
liquid water.
D There are more hydrogen bonds between water molecules in a gas than between water
molecules in a liquid.

13 The solid line on the graph represents the product formed over time for a reaction in a cell.

Which other line represents the effect of adding the enzyme for this reaction?

A
B

D
total product
formed

time

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14 The graph shows how the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction is affected by the change in
temperature. All other variables were standardised.

rate of region X
reaction

temperature

What is the factor limiting the rate in region X?

A substrate concentration
B enzyme concentration
C temperature
D number of empty active sites

15 How will the removal of a reversible non-competitive enzyme inhibitor affect an enzyme-catalysed
reaction?

A The Km will decrease and the Vmax will increase.

B The Km will increase and the Vmax will not change.
C The Km will not change and the Vmax will increase.
D The Km will not change and the Vmax will not change.

16 The dimensions of three agar cylinders, X, Y and Z, are summarised in the table.

radius length
cylinder
/ mm / mm

X 2 10
Y 1 20
Z 5 5

What is the correct order of surface area : volume ratio for the cylinders, from smallest to largest?

A X→Y→Z B Y→X→Z C Z→X→Y D Z→Y→X

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17 Three individual plant leaf cells were each placed in a different solution for 30 minutes. Each
solution had a different water potential.

Which row correctly shows the change in volume of the three cells after 30 minutes?

water potential of solution

lower than cells equal to cells higher than cells

A decreased increased decreased

B decreased no change increased
C increased decreased decreased
D increased no change increased

18 Which row is a representation of one chromosome at the beginning of prophase of mitosis and
the number of DNA strands in the chromosome?

appearance of number of
one chromosome DNA strands

A 2

B 4

C 1

D 2

19 Which events are part of mitosis?

1 interphase
2 telophase
3 cytokinesis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

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20 The statements are about genes and proteins involved in breast cancer.

● The protein coded by the BRAC1 gene inhibits the growth of breast cancer cells.
● The protein coded by the p53 gene suppresses tumours.

Which combination of genes is most likely to result in breast cancer?

BRAC1 p53

A   key
B    = normal active gene
C    = mutated gene
D  

21 The photomicrograph shows a cell during mitosis.

What is happening in this cell?

1 Chromosomes are condensing.

2 Centromeres are moving to opposite poles.
3 Spindle microtubules are shortening.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

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22 Which diagram correctly shows the structure of a piece of DNA?

A B
P P P
G C C G
P

P P P
A U G C
P

P P P
C G T A
P

P P P
U A C G
P

C D
P P
A C A T
P P

P P
T G C G
P P

P P
T G T A
P P

P P
C A C G
P P

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23 Bacteria were grown in a medium containing 15N. After several generations, all of the bacterial
DNA contained 15N. Some of these bacteria were transferred to a medium containing the
common isotope of nitrogen, 14N. The bacteria were allowed to divide once. The DNA of some of
these bacteria was extracted and analysed. This DNA was all hybrid DNA containing equal
amounts of 14N and 15N.

The remaining bacteria were left in the medium with 14N and allowed to divide one more time.
The DNA of some of these bacteria was extracted and analysed.

What is the percentage of hybrid DNA?

A 25% hybrid DNA

B 50% hybrid DNA
C 75% hybrid DNA
D 100% hybrid DNA

24 Which statements correctly describe the process of transcription?

1 mRNA is decoded by a ribosome to produce a specific amino acid chain.

2 A section of DNA is converted to RNA by RNA polymerase.
3 tRNA transfers amino acids to the ribosome.

A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

25 Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a mutation in an allele of the gene that codes for the β-globin
polypeptide of haemoglobin.

The diagram shows the sequence of bases in a small section of the template strand of DNA for
both the HbA (normal) and HbS (sickle cell) β-globin alleles.

HbA CTGACTCCTGAGGAGAAGTCT
HbS CTGACTCCTGTGGAGAAGTCT

Both the polypeptides for HbA and HbS are the same length.

How will the mutation in the allele result in the production of an altered version of the
β-globin polypeptide?

A A tRNA molecule with the anticodon GUG will form hydrogen bonds with the altered codon
on mRNA.
B All the amino acids coded for after the mutation will differ from those in the HbA protein.
C mRNA transcribed from the HbS allele will contain the codon CAC instead of the codon CTC.
D The ribosome will be unable to continue translation of the HbS mRNA after the altered codon.

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26 The plan diagram of a transverse section through a dicotyledonous plant stem was drawn by a
student. They had stained the section with a chemical that stains lignin.

Which row is correct for tissues W and Z?

stained
W Z
tissue

A phloem xylem W
B phloem xylem Z
C xylem phloem W
D xylem phloem Z

27 Which routes must water travel through in a plant, using the symplast pathway?

1 from soil into root hair cell vacuoles

2 from soil into root hair cell walls
3 from root hair cell walls to root cortex cell walls
4 from cortex cell walls into endodermis cells
5 from endodermis cells into xylem vessels
6 from leaf mesophyll cell walls into air spaces

A 1 and 4 B 2, 3 and 6 C 3, 5 and 6 D 4 and 5

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28 A plant leaf seen in transverse section with a microscope shows the features listed.

● a thick waxy cuticle on upper surface

● sunken stomata on lower surface
● rolled leaf so the edges curl

What is this leaf adapted for?

A to decrease carbon dioxide uptake

B to increase carbon dioxide uptake
C to decrease water loss by transpiration
D to increase water loss by transpiration

29 What occurs as carbohydrate is taken out of a sink into a phloem sieve tube element?

water potential
volume of liquid
in phloem sieve
in phloem sieve
tube element
tube element
becomes

A higher decreases
B higher increases
C lower decreases
D lower increases

30 Which factors affect blood pressure?

1 the diameter of the blood vessels

2 the systolic pressure of the heart ventricles
3 the volume of blood returning to the heart in each cardiac cycle

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

31 Sulthiame is a molecule that inhibits carbonic anhydrase.

Which effect would sulthiame have inside a red blood cell in muscle tissue that is respiring at a
high rate?

A a decrease in the rate of formation of haemoglobinic acid

B a decrease in the pH
C an increase in the rate of the chloride shift
D an increase in the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/O/N/23

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32 The partial pressure of oxygen in blood vessels in different parts of the body affects the
percentage saturation of each haemoglobin molecule with oxygen.

saturation of each
partial pressure of haemoglobin
blood vessel
oxygen / kPa molecule with
oxygen / %

vein in active muscle 4 25

vein in resting muscle 7 75
arteriole in lungs 12 100

Which statement explains the difference in saturation between a resting and an active muscle?

A A small decrease in partial pressure causes two atoms of oxygen to leave each haemoglobin
molecule because the oxygen dissociation curve is sigmoid shaped.
B A small decrease in partial pressure between 4 kPa and 7 kPa causes two molecules of
oxygen to leave each haemoglobin molecule because the oxygen dissociation curve is steep.
C Loading of oxygen is slower between 4 kPa and 7 kPa due to binding of one oxygen molecule
to each haemoglobin molecule making the next one harder to bind.
D Loading of oxygen is faster between 4 kPa and 7 kPa due to binding of one oxygen molecule
to each haemoglobin molecule making the next one easier to bind.

33 Which statements about the Bohr shift are correct?

1 The shift is accelerated by the action of carbonic anhydrase.

2 A decrease in blood pH will cause oxyhaemoglobin to dissociate.
3 A decrease in carbon dioxide concentration will cause more oxygen to bind to
haemoglobin.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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34 Some of the events during a cardiac cycle are listed.

1 Left and right atria contract.

2 Left and right ventricles contract.
3 A wave of electrical activity is conducted by the Purkyne tissue.
4 A wave of electrical activity passes through the atrioventricular node.

What is the correct sequence of events after the sinoatrial node sends out a wave of electrical
activity?

A 1→3→4→2

B 1→4→3→2

C 2→4→3→1

D 4→1→3→2

35 Oxygen and carbon dioxide enter and leave the blood in the capillaries of the alveoli.

Which statement about this process is correct?

A Oxygen and carbon dioxide only pass through one cell layer to reach their destination.
B Oxygen moves out of the blood and carbon dioxide moves into the blood during gaseous
exchange.
C Oxygen rapidly diffuses into the alveoli and carbon dioxide rapidly diffuses out of the alveoli
due to the large surface area of the alveoli.
D The capillaries have the lowest blood pressure in the body which allows the blood cells to
remain in the alveolar capillaries to maximise gas exchange.

36 Which statement is correct?

A Cholera is caused by the virus Vibrio cholerae.

B Mosquitoes are pathogens that cause malaria.
C Mycobacterium bovis only causes TB in humans.
D Plasmodium vivax is an example of a protoctist.

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37 The graph shows changes in the antibiotic resistance of a species of bacterium between 2000
and 2016 in one country. Samples of bacteria were collected every year from 48 hospitals. The
bacteria were tested to see if they showed resistance to five different antibiotics.

100

75
percentage
of antibiotic
50
resistant
bacteria
25

0
2000 2002 2004 2006 2008 2010 2012 2014 2016
year

key
tetracycline azithromycin
ciprofloxacin cefixime
penicillin

What can be concluded from the data in the graph?

A Overuse of ciprofloxacin has caused antibiotic resistance to increase by more than 20%
between 2000 and 2016.
B Percentage resistance to three of the antibiotics was at a peak in 2015.
C Changes in treatment guidelines have caused resistance to some antibiotics to decrease
from 2015 to 2016.
D The percentage of resistant bacteria is higher in 2016 than 2000 for all antibiotics.

38 Some responses made by cells of the immune system to a pathogen are listed.

1 mitosis
2 bind to specific antigens
3 produce memory cells
4 secrete antibodies

Which responses are correct for B-lymphocytes?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/O/N/23 [Turn over

 18

39 Which statements about uses of monoclonal antibodies are correct?

1 Monoclonal antibodies can be injected into patients to give active immunity.

2 Monoclonal antibodies can be injected into patients to treat viral infections.
3 Monoclonal antibodies can be used as diagnostic tests for specific pathogens.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

40 Which statement explains how a vaccination programme can control the spread of an infectious
disease in a population?

A Unvaccinated individuals are less likely to meet a vaccinated individual.

B Unvaccinated individuals are less likely to meet an infected individual.
C Vaccinated individuals cannot catch the disease.
D Vaccinated individuals have natural active immunity.

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/O/N/23

 19

BLANK PAGE

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/O/N/23

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2023 9700/11/O/N/23

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2023
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*6262433850*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages.

IB23 11_9700_12/3RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
 2

1 Which combination of lenses for a light microscope will give the greatest magnification?

eyepiece lens objective lens

A 5 100
B 10 40
C 15 40
D 15 100

2 The diagram shows an electron micrograph of virus particles in a human nucleus.

virus particle

×24 000

What is the diameter of the labelled virus particle?

A 1.5  100 m

B 1.5  10–2 m

C 1.5  100 nm

D 1.5  102 nm

3 What is correct about the synthesis and release of the glycoprotein mucin in goblet cells?

1 The protein is produced on ribosomes and a carbohydrate chain is added in the

Golgi body.
2 The glycoproteins are packed into vesicles in the Golgi body forming lysosomes.
3 Secretory vesicles containing the glycoprotein move from the Golgi body and fuse
with the cell surface membrane.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23

 3

4 What are functions of microtubules?

1 allowing movement of cilia in a bronchus

2 attachment to centromeres during metaphase
3 moving secretory vesicles around a cell

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

5 Which organelles contain nucleic acids?

Golgi body

B
A C mitochondrion

chloroplast

6 Some features of cells are listed.

1 cell wall
2 cell surface membrane
3 ribosomes

Which features can be found in plant cells and in prokaryotic cells?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

7 Which bonds are present in all viruses?

1 phosphodiester
2 peptide
3 covalent

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23 [Turn over

 4

8 A student carried out the Benedict’s test on four different concentrations of glucose solution and
then recorded the time taken for the first appearance of a colour change (the end-point).

The student found it difficult to identify the first appearance of a colour change and consistently
timed each solution for two seconds after the colour change first appeared. This introduced a
source of error into the experiment.

Which statements about this error are correct?

1 The effect of the error will be reduced if the student performs three repeats at each
concentration of glucose.
2 The error will prevent the student from identifying which solution has the highest
concentration of glucose.
3 The error is systematic as the student consistently timed each solution for two
seconds after the end-point.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

9 Which statements about amylopectin and glycogen are correct?

1 Amylopectin and glycogen contain 1-4 glycosidic bonds.

2 Amylopectin contains -glucose.

3 Glycogen contains more 1-6 branches than amylopectin.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 2 and 3

10 How many statements about fatty acids are correct?

 Fatty acids are either saturated or unsaturated.

 Fatty acids always have at least two double bonds.

 Long chains of fatty acids are very good energy stores.

 Fatty acids are insoluble in water and do not affect the water potential of the cell.

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23

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11 The diagram represents an amino acid.

H R O

N C C

H H OH

R represents a variable side chain.

What is not a possible side chain?

A CH3
B CH2CH2SCH3
C CH2CONH2
D HOCH2CH(OH)CH2OH

12 The graph shows the effect of an enzyme on a reaction.

transition state

X
energy of
system Y
substrate

product

time

Which row identifies X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A catalysed reaction uncatalysed reaction energy lost by product

B catalysed reaction uncatalysed reaction overall energy lost during reaction
C uncatalysed reaction catalysed reaction energy gained by product
D uncatalysed reaction catalysed reaction overall energy released during reaction

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23 [Turn over

 6

13 The graph shows the results of two experiments on the effect of increasing substrate
concentration on the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction.

One experiment was at a high concentration of enzyme and the second was at a low
concentration of enzyme.

All other variables were standardised.

high enzyme
concentration
initial rate low enzyme
X concentration
of reaction

substrate concentration

What would limit the initial rate of reaction at point X?

A enzyme concentration
B pH
C substrate concentration
D temperature

14 Which statements about the Michaelis–Menten constant (Km) of an enzyme are correct?

1 At the Km value, half the active sites of the enzyme should be occupied by the
substrate.
2 Km represents the substrate concentration at which the enzyme is working at half its
maximum rate.
3 The lower the Km value, the lower the affinity of the enzyme to its substrate.
4 When an enzyme has a high Km value, the enzyme-catalysed reaction will proceed
very slowly to its maximum rate.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only

15 Which component of cell surface membranes helps to reduce fluidity of the phospholipids at high
temperatures?

A phosphate groups
B unsaturated fatty acids
C cholesterol
D proteins

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23

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16 Plant cells were left for 50 minutes in three different sugar solutions, 10%, 5% and 1%. The water
potential in the cytoplasm of the three cells was the same at the start of the experiment.

The diagrams show the appearance of the cells after 50 minutes, using a light microscope.

cell P cell Q cell R

Which conclusion is correct?

A Cell P has the same concentration of sugar inside and outside the cell.
B Cell Q is flaccid and cell P is plasmolysed.
C Cell Q was placed in the 1% solution.
D The sugar solution outside cell R has a less negative water potential than inside cell R.

17 The graph shows the effect of increasing the side length of agar cubes on the surface area and
the volume of the cubes.

surface 1
area or
volume

0
0 side length

Which row correctly identifies line 1, line 2 and the effect of increasing side length on the
surface area : volume ratio of the cubes?

surface area :
line 1 line 2
volume ratio

A surface area volume decreases

B surface area volume increases
C volume surface area decreases
D volume surface area increases

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23 [Turn over

 8

18 A human embryo consists of 12 cells at the start of day 1. The cells divide by mitosis for 4
complete days at a rate of 1 division every 32 hours.

What is the maximum number of cells in the embryo at the end of day 4?

A 48 cells
B 96 cells
C 192 cells
D 384 cells

19 Which diagrams show roles of mitosis?

3 4

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 3 and 4 only

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23

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20 Which events are part of the mitotic cell cycle?

1 interphase
2 anaphase
3 cytokinesis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

21 Which statement correctly describes a feature of a DNA molecule?

A It has two parallel strands twisted into a double helix.

B It has complementary bases all held together by three hydrogen bonds.
C It has phosphodiester bonds that are formed using DNA ligase.
D It has a backbone of phosphate molecules and nucleotides.

22 Which diagram correctly shows the replication of DNA?

A B
5′ 5′
S2 S1
3′ 3′

5′ 5′
S1 S2
3′ 3′

C D
5′ 5′
S2 S1
3′ 3′

5′ 5′
S1 S2
3′ 3′

key
direction of replication
S1 leading strand
S2 lagging strand

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23 [Turn over

 10

23 The RNA codon wheel is a tool used to find which amino acid would be translated from an mRNA
sequence.

Phe
Gly

Leu
Gl

r
u

Se
CU AG

As
CUAG CU
AG

p
AG r
Ala UC G U Ty

UC
p

G
A C Sto

CA

AG
C AG U C A G U
C A Cys

UC
Val
G U Stop

A G UCAG
U G
Trp
Arg G A C U
Leu
U

Ser A C
AG

UC
s A

A
Ly C
UC

Pr

G
U G CU
o
A sn AG
CUAG U G C
U AG

Hi
AC
r
Th

s
Gln
Met

Arg
Ile

Codon position 1 is in the centre of the wheel, codon position 2 is in the middle of the wheel and
codon position 3 is near the edge of the wheel. The three letters on the outside edge of the wheel
identify the amino acid.

The diagram shows a section of DNA coding for one amino acid. The template strand is outlined
in a box and the DNA base sequence is read in the 5′ to 3′ direction.

template
strand

Which amino acid is coded for by this section of DNA?

A Gly B Pro C Trp D Thr

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23

 11

24 Four students sketched diagrams of the apoplast pathway and the symplast pathway.

Which sketch is the most accurate diagram of the two pathways?

Casparian strip

symplast
A xylem apoplast

Casparian strip

symplast
B xylem apoplast

Casparian strip

apoplast
C xylem
symplast

Casparian strip

apoplast
D xylem
symplast

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23 [Turn over

 12

25 The photomicrograph shows some xerophytic adaptations in leaf tissue.

2
3

Which row shows the correct functions for structures 1, 2 and 3?

reduces the water

vapour concentration reduces evaporation
traps a layer of
gradient between from the epidermis
moist air
the inside and outside of the leaf
of the leaf

A 1, 2 and 3 3 only 2 only

B 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2
C 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2
D 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 only

26 Which processes are required for the transfer of assimilates from a source cell into a phloem
sieve tube?

A active transport, facilitated diffusion and simple diffusion

B active transport and exocytosis
C active transport and simple diffusion only
D active transport only

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23

 13

27 When sucrose is loaded into the phloem it has to travel from mesophyll cells to a companion cell
and then into the phloem.

Which row shows the relative concentrations of sucrose in each type of cell in order for this
process to take place?

relative concentration of sucrose / arbitrary units

mesophyll companion phloem sieve
cell cell tube element

A 5 10 15
B 5 15 10
C 15 10 5
D 15 5 10

28 Which feature of transport in plants is correct for xylem and phloem?

A It is passive.
B It occurs by mass flow.
C It occurs from source to sink.
D It occurs only in one direction.

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23 [Turn over

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29 The diagram shows an anterior view of a vertical section through the human heart.

2
3

Which row shows the correct labels for the diagram?

1 2 3 4
A aorta atrioventricular semilunar valve pulmonary artery
valve
B pulmonary vein semilunar valve atrioventricular pulmonary vein
valve
C pulmonary artery semilunar valve atrioventricular vena cava
valve
D pulmonary vein atrioventricular semilunar valve vena cava
valve

30 What does the inner layer of veins and capillaries contain?

A collagen fibres
B elastic fibres
C endothelium
D smooth muscle

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23

 15

31 The graph shows the changes in blood pressure and water potential across a blood capillary from
the arterial end of the capillary to the venous end of the capillary.

water potential
of plasma

blood water
pressure potential
blood
pressure

arterial venous
end end
distance

What could result in an accumulation of excess tissue fluid?

A an increase in concentration of large proteins in the blood plasma

B an increase in blood pressure
C a decrease in the concentration of small proteins in tissue fluid
D a decrease in blood pressure

32 Which statement is correct about a red blood cell that has just entered a capillary in a respiring
muscle?

A There is a net decrease in chloride ions.

B There is a net decrease in haemoglobinic acid.
C There is a net increase in carbonic anhydrase.
D There is a net increase in carbaminohaemoglobin.

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23 [Turn over

 16

33 The graph shows some blood pressure changes that occur in a human during one cardiac cycle.

X
pressure in aorta
W

pressure pressure in left ventricle

T U V Y
pressure in left atrium

time

When does systole start and end in the right atrium and in the right ventricle?

in right atrium in right ventricle

systole systole systole systole
starts ends starts ends

A T V V X
B T U V Y
C U V W X
D V W W Y

34 Which statements about all bronchioles are correct?

1 They have goblet cells.

2 They have epithelial cells.
3 They have muscle tissue.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23

 17

35 What is shown in the electron micrograph?

×850

A scanning electron micrograph of bronchial epithelium and lymphocytes

B scanning electron micrograph of lung squamous epithelium and red blood cells
C transmission electron micrograph of bronchial epithelium and lymphocytes
D transmission electron micrograph of lung squamous epithelium and red blood cells

36 Which statement correctly describes infectious diseases?

A They are diseases caused by environmental factors that are not passed from one person to
another.
B They are diseases caused by a fault in the DNA that can be passed from a parent to their
offspring.
C They are diseases caused by a lack of a nutrient in the diet, such as a vitamin or mineral.
D They are diseases caused by a pathogen such as a bacterium, fungus, protoctist or virus.

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23 [Turn over

 18

37 Organism X produces molecule Y, which blocks the activity of 70S ribosomes.

An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of Y on bacterial cells.

An agar plate with bacteria growing all over its surface had four wells cut into the agar. Different
substances were added to each well and the agar plate with bacteria was incubated for a week.

The diagram shows the results after a week.

intact cells of organism X sterile distilled water only

bacterial growth

concentrated solution commonly used antibiotic

made from the cytoplasm
of lots of organism X cells
no bacterial growth

Which conclusions can be made from these results?

molecule Y would
molecule Y
molecule Y also affect the
cannot be
functions as an synthesis of proteins
released from cells
antibiotic from nuclear DNA
of organism X
in a human cell

A    key
B     = can be concluded
C     = cannot be concluded
D   

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23

 19

38 A patient has had repeated infections from the same pathogen over a few months. The patient
has been treated with the same antibiotic on each occasion.

Which treatment could prevent an increase in the antibiotic resistance of the pathogen?

A a narrow spectrum antibiotic to treat a non-cellular pathogen

B a repeat prescription for the same antibiotic at a higher dose
C a specific antibiotic after testing for the pathogen
D a wide spectrum antibiotic to treat different strains of the pathogen

39 A patient with kidney failure can be given a kidney transplant. In a kidney transplant, a healthy
kidney is taken from another person and put into the patient’s body.

Sometimes the donated kidney cells are killed by the patient’s body. In this primary immune
response, T-lymphocytes bind to antigens on the donated kidney cells and are activated.

The statements describe the next stages of the primary immune response.

1 Activated T-lymphocyte secretes cytokines.

2 B-lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells and make antibodies.
3 T-killer cells bind to antigens on donor kidney cells.
4 T-killer cells release toxins that destroy the donor kidney cells.
5 T-lymphocytes multiply by mitosis and differentiate into T-killer cells.

Which order correctly explains how donor kidney cells are killed?

A 1523

B 1534

C 3152

D 3541

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23 [Turn over

 20

40 The diagram shows the simplified structure of an antibody.

X U

Which statement is correct?

A U and X allow the antibody to bind to two different antigens.

B V allows the antibody to be flexible to bind to two antigens.
C W can bind to one specific antigen.
D X can bind with a specific phagocyte receptor.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2023 9700/12/O/N/23

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2023
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*9088973295*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB23 11_9700_13/3RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
 2

1 Which statement about light microscopy is correct?

A As the resolution increases, the magnification increases.

B As the magnification increases, the image always becomes clearer.
C The resolution will decrease as coloured light of increasing wavelengths is used.
D Magnification and resolution are terms that relate to the same factor.

2 The diagram shows a stage micrometer scale viewed through an eyepiece containing a graticule.

The small divisions of the stage micrometer scale are 0.1 mm.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

The stage micrometer scale is replaced by a slide of a plant cell.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

What is the maximum actual length of the nucleus in the plant cell?

A 8 µm B 25 µm C 200 µm D 0.8 mm

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/O/N/23

 3

3 What is the correct order for the involvement of the cell structures in the synthesis and secretion
of an enzyme?

1 cell surface membrane

2 Golgi body
3 nucleus
4 rough endoplasmic reticulum

A 1→2→3→4

B 2→1→3→4

C 3→4→2→1

D 4→3→2→1

4 Centrioles, cilia, microtubules and microvilli are structures found in eukaryotic cells.

Which statement about these cellular structures is correct?

A Centrioles, cilia and microvilli are composed of microtubules.

B Centrioles play a role in mitosis and semi-conservative DNA replication.
C Cilia and microvilli both increase the cell surface area for absorption.
D Microtubules are made of protein and form the spindle in mitosis.

5 Which description of plasmodesmata is correct?

A They are channels through plant cell walls, lined by the cell surface membrane.
B They are channels through plant cell walls that are formed from proteins.
C They are channels required for the movement of water through the apoplast pathway.
D They can become lignified and form pits in the walls of xylem vessel elements.

6 Which cell organelle does not have nucleic acids?

A chloroplast
B Golgi body
C mitochondrion
D ribosome

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/O/N/23 [Turn over

 4

7 Which processes occur in eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

1 hydrolysis
2 mitosis
3 transcription
4 translation

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

8 Which bonds are present in all viruses?

1 covalent
2 ester
3 phosphodiester

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

9 The diagram shows the structure of a monomer.

CH2OH

O
H H
H
OH H
HO OH

H OH

Which molecules contain this monomer?

amylopectin

A C
B
glycogen D sucrose

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/O/N/23

 5

10 A triglyceride consists of glycerol and three different fatty acids: linoleic acid (L), oleic acid (O)
and palmitic acid (P).

The diagram shows one possible arrangement of the fatty acids L, O and P in the molecule.

glycerol O

What is the total number of different arrangements of the fatty acids in this triglyceride?

A 3 B 4 C 5 D 9

11 Which statement about phospholipid molecules is correct?

A They contain one saturated fatty acid and two unsaturated fatty acids.
B They contain three phosphodiester bonds.
C They contain hydrophobic regions and hydrophilic regions.
D They contain a hydrophobic phosphate group that is soluble in water.

12 Hydrogen bonding explains many of the properties of water, including the high latent heat of
vaporisation and high specific heat capacity.

For which processes in plants is hydrogen bonding in water important on hot sunny days?

1 preventing denaturation of enzymes in leaves

2 reducing water loss by evaporation
3 allowing leaves to cool down quickly at night
4 holding the column of water in xylem vessels together

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only

13 Which feature of cellulose molecules contributes to the function of plant cell walls?

A Adjacent cellulose molecules are linked by glycosidic bonds.

B Branched chains of β-glucose molecules are linked by hydrogen bonds.

C Molecules of α-glucose are linked by 1-6 glycosidic bonds.

D Unbranched chains of β-glucose are linked by hydrogen bonds.

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/O/N/23 [Turn over

 6

14 Which statements describe some enzyme actions?

1 Enzymes hold reacting molecules so that their reactive groups are close together.
2 In an enzyme-catalysed reaction, more molecules have sufficient energy to react
than without the enzyme.
3 Reactions catalysed by enzymes take place at a lower temperature than they would
without the enzyme.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

15 Influenza virus has an enzyme called neuraminidase which breaks down glycoproteins in the
surface membrane of the cell that the virus will infect. The glycoprotein binds to the active site of
neuraminidase by induced fit.

Which statements about the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme action are correct?

1 The active site must have the same shape as the substrate for them to bind
together.
2 This enzyme is less likely to be affected by non-competitive inhibitors than an
enzyme working by the lock-and-key mechanism.
3 The substrate is converted to product by specific R-groups in the active site just like
the lock-and-key mechanism.

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/O/N/23

 7

16 The graph compares the effect of temperature on the activity of the protease enzyme, papain,
when in solution (free) and when immobilised in alginate beads.

immobilised
papain
activity of
papain

free papain

0 20 40 60 80
temperature / °C

Which statement about the effect of immobilisation of papain is correct?

A It alters the shape of papain’s active site at higher temperatures.

B It decreases the activity of papain at higher temperatures.
C It increases the stability of papain at higher temperatures.
D It reduces the number of collisions of papain with the substrate.

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/O/N/23 [Turn over

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17 The diagram shows how adrenaline activates processes inside a cell.

adrenaline

β-adrenergic receptor

cell surface memb

rane

activates
processes
G protein inside cell

Which row is correct?

type of receptor result of ligand binding

molecule to the receptor

A phospholipid receptor leaves membrane

B protein receptor changes shape
C phospholipid receptor changes shape
D protein receptor leaves membrane

18 The statements are comparisons of endocytosis and exocytosis.

● Both are mechanisms that involve vesicles or vacuoles and the transport of
materials across the cell surface membrane.
● Both mechanisms occur to allow bulk transport across the cell surface membrane.
● Endocytosis involves taking materials into the cell, whereas exocytosis involves the
release of materials from the cell.
● Some of the cell surface membrane is lost when endocytosis occurs and there is an
increase in the cell surface membrane when exocytosis occurs.

How many statements are correct?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

19 A student was asked to calculate the surface area : volume ratio for an agar cube with a side
length of 5.5 mm.

Which surface area : volume ratio is correct?

A 0.2 : 1 B 0.9 : 1 C 1.0 : 1 D 1.1 : 1

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/O/N/23

 9

20 Which statement about the behaviour of chromosomes during telophase is correct?

A Chromosomes attach to the spindle fibres at the equator.

B Chromosomes start to uncoil inside the newly formed nucleus.
C Chromosomes move towards the opposite poles of the cell.
D Chromosomes condense into compact structures in the cytoplasm.

21 The transmission electron micrograph shows a cell in a stage of the mitotic cell cycle.

Which statement explains why it is difficult to identify the stage of the mitotic cell cycle shown?

A Chromosomes have supercoiled and are visible, but centrioles are not visible.
B Anaphase may be continuing, or telophase may be starting.
C It is unclear whether the electron micrograph shows two cells in metaphase.
D Some people may consider interphase to have started.

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/O/N/23 [Turn over

 10

22 During lagging strand replication, short fragments of DNA are produced. The fragments are
joined together by DNA ligase.

Which row correctly describes the structure of these short fragments of DNA?

have base sequences contains only

consists of one
that are complementary carbon, hydrogen,
polynucleotide
to the newly synthesised oxygen and
strand
leading DNA strand nitrogen

A   
B   
C   
D   

key
 = correct
 = not correct

23 The genome of the bacterium Escherichia coli has been altered to enable it to code for an amino
acid that is not found in nature. All the ATC DNA stop triplets on the strand of DNA that is
transcribed have been substituted to ATT. The ATC triplet can then be inserted to code for the
new amino acid. A new tRNA can then be constructed to carry the new amino acid.

What is the anticodon of this new tRNA?

A ATC B AUC C TAG D UAG

24 40% of the bases in a section of a non-transcribed strand of DNA are purine molecules.

What will be the total percentage of cytosine and uracil bases in the primary transcript that is
transcribed from the other strand of the DNA?

A 20% B 30% C 40% D 60%

25 Which statement about xylem vessel elements is correct?

A Hollow vessels enable the constant movement of water up and down a plant.
B Pits enable the movement of water into adjacent xylem vessels.
C Vessels contain numerous mitochondria to generate ATP for active transport.
D Vessels contain perforated cross-walls called sieve plates.

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26 Ammonium ions, NH4+, can enter the xylem of plant roots by two pathways.

● In the apoplast pathway, ammonium ions move through cell walls until this pathway
is blocked by the Casparian strip. Ammonium ions then enter the cytoplasm of root
cells.
● In the symplast pathway, ammonium ions move through the cytoplasm of root cells.

A scientist measured the uptake of ammonium ions into the xylem of Arabidopsis thaliana.

The sgn3 mutant of A. thaliana does not have a Casparian strip. In the sgn3 mutant, ammonium
ions can enter the xylem without entering the cytoplasm of root cells.

The bar charts show the scientist’s results.

low high
concentration NH4+ concentration NH4+
80

60
uptake of NH4+
into xylem 40
/ μmol g–1 h–1
20

0
non- sgn3 non- sgn3
mutant mutant mutant mutant
plant variety

Which conclusion is correct?

A Fewer ammonium ions enter the xylem when they have to move through the cytoplasm of
root cells.
B More ammonium ions enter the xylem at low soil concentrations of ammonium ions.
C The Casparian strip acts as a barrier to reduce the movement of ammonium ions into the
xylem.
D The loss of the Casparian strip has little effect on the movement of ammonium ions into the
xylem.

27 Which row correctly shows processes required for the movement of water from a root hair cell to
the atmosphere?

cohesion diffusion evaporation

A    key
B     = required
C     = not required
D   

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28 Which process can be carried out by a mature red blood cell?

A active transport
B cell division
C phagocytosis
D protein synthesis

29 The photomicrograph shows three white blood cells labelled X, Y and Z.

Y
Z

Which row correctly identifies these cells?

cell X cell Y cell Z

A lymphocyte monocyte neutrophil

B lymphocyte neutrophil monocyte
C monocyte neutrophil lymphocyte
D neutrophil monocyte lymphocyte

30 When a blood vessel is damaged it can result in problems in the body.

Which row identifies the blood vessel that could have been damaged?

blood is not blood surges mean

blood is not being
returning to the that relatively constant
distributed to
heart and is blood pressure is not
organs that need it
collecting in organs maintained

A elastic artery muscular artery vein

B elastic artery vein muscular artery
C muscular artery elastic artery vein
D muscular artery vein elastic artery

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31 The diagram shows how tissue fluid is formed.

key
blood pressure
arteriole water potential venous
end end

direction of
blood flow
+4.3 kPa –3.3 kPa +1.6 kPa –3.3 kPa

+1.1 kPa –1.3 kPa +1.1 kPa –1.3 kPa

net flow out net flow into

of capillary capillary

What is the net pressure causing tissue fluid to flow out of the capillary at the arteriole end?

A –1.5 kPa B +1.0 kPa C +1.2 kPa D +5.2 kPa

32 What happens when carbon dioxide is transported by red blood cells?

A Hydrogencarbonate ions move into the red blood cells and chloride ions move into the
plasma.
B Chloride ions move into the red blood cells and bind to haemoglobin.
C Chloride ions move into the red blood cells and hydrogen ions move into the plasma.
D Chloride ions move into the red blood cells and hydrogencarbonate ions move into the
plasma.

33 What is typically found in the trachea, bronchi and bronchioles in the human gas exchange
system?

A cartilage
B ciliated epithelium
C squamous epithelium
D squamous endothelium

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34 The photomicrograph shows a section through part of the human gas exchange system.

Which structure is shown?

A alveolus
B bronchiole
C bronchus
D trachea

35 Which factors are required for the efficient diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the human
gas exchange system?

1 clean and warm air entering the lungs

2 maximised area of exchange surface
3 minimum distance between alveoli and blood

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

36 Which statements correctly identify why it is difficult to eliminate TB?

1 Humans have limited access to clean water.

2 Humans can be infected but the pathogen can be inactive.
3 A number of drug-resistant strains of the pathogen have evolved.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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37 Bacteria can become resistant to antibiotics.

What can help reduce the development of antibiotic resistance in bacteria?

1 Use specific antibiotics instead of wide spectrum.

2 Use antibiotics to treat viral infections.
3 Develop new antibiotics.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

38 The diagram shows one way of testing the effect of an antibiotic on bacteria.

colonies of bacteria

diameter of zone
Petri dish with measured every
grown for
nutrient agar day for 5 days
5 days
containing
bacteria

disc of filter paper

soaked in antibiotic

The table shows the results of testing five different types of bacteria.

Zones of less than 13.0 mm show the presence of resistant bacteria.

type of diameter of zone / mm

bacteria day 1 day 2 day 3 day 4 day 5

1 24.1 21.9 19.0 17.6 14.3

2 18.6 15.4 12.2 9.0 2.0
3 17.9 12.8 12.4 11.1 10.9
4 19.4 15.3 13.2 8.1 2.0
5 22.0 21.0 20.5 20.4 20.4

Which statement can be supported by this data?

A All the types of bacteria become resistant to antibiotics over time.

B Only types 2, 3 and 4 of the bacteria show resistance to the antibiotic.
C The antibiotic can be used to treat types 1 and 3 only.
D Type 5 of the bacteria can never become resistant to the antibiotic.

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39 Some responses made by cells of the immune system to a pathogen are listed.

1 mitosis
2 recognises a pathogen
3 produces memory cells
4 secretes enzymes

Which responses are correct for phagocytes?

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 only

40 Some vaccines do not contain antigens. The vaccines contain a molecule of mRNA. Cells in the
immune system use the mRNA molecule to make a protein antigen.

The statements describe the stages of how mRNA vaccines work when they enter a cell of the
immune system.

1 B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes with complementary receptors bind to the

protein.
2 Lymphocytes differentiate into memory cells that give long lasting immunity.
3 Ribosomes translate the mRNA molecule to make a protein.
4 The cell displays the protein on its cell surface membrane.

What is the correct order of the stages of how mRNA vaccines work?

A 1→2→4→3

B 3→1→2→4

C 3→4→1→2

D 4→1→2→3

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2023 9700/13/O/N/23

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2024
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*2474469207*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

03_9700_12_2024_1.12b
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1 A student used a light microscope to observe a blood smear on a microscope slide.

An eyepiece graticule was used to measure the diameter of a white blood cell on the slide. The
student recorded that the white blood cell was 5 eyepiece graticule units in diameter.

Which additional information does the student need to determine the diameter of the white blood
cell in micrometres?

A calibration of the eyepiece graticule using a stage micrometer only

B calibration of the eyepiece graticule using a stage micrometer and the magnification of the
eyepiece lens
C the magnification of the eyepiece lens only
D the magnification of the eyepiece lens and the magnification of the objective lens

2 Which statement explains why it is necessary to use an electron microscope to see the cristae of
a mitochondrion?

A The magnification of the electron microscope is greater than that of the light microscope.
B The membranes of the cristae are separated by a distance greater than 200 nm.
C The maximum resolution of a microscope using visible light is too low.
D The wavelength of an electron beam is longer than the wavelength of visible light.

3 Some stains can be used to identify cell structures in living cells.

A dilute solution of one stain causes the whole cell to appear blue.

The blue colour rapidly disappears from most cell structures. Those cell structures that release
energy stay blue.

Which type of cell structure is likely to stay blue?

A endoplasmic reticulum
B Golgi body
C lysosome
D mitochondrion

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4 When mucus is secreted from a goblet cell, these events take place.

1 addition of carbohydrate to protein

2 fusion of a vesicle with the cell surface membrane
3 extracellular release of a glycoprotein
4 separation of a vesicle from the Golgi body

What is the sequence in which these events take place?

A 1→4→2→3
B 1→4→3→2
C 4→1→2→3
D 4→1→3→2

5 The diagram shows four biological features.

4 1
RNA DNA

feature

3 2
70S capsid
ribosomes

Which biological features are present in typical prokaryotes?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

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 4

6 Which row shows features that occur in dicotyledonous plant cells and also in typical bacterial
cells?

key

✓ = found in dicotyledonous plant cells and also in typical bacterial cells

✗ = not found in at least one of these two types of cell

70S ribosomes 80S ribosomes centrioles circular DNA

A ✓ ✗ ✓ ✗
B ✓ ✗ ✗ ✓
C ✗ ✓ ✓ ✗
D ✗ ✓ ✗ ✓

7 Which flow chart outlining the test for non-reducing sugars is correct?

add alkaline
neutralise with dilute add Benedict’s solution
A sodium hydrogencarbonate
hydrochloric acid and boil
to sample

add alkaline
neutralise with dilute add biuret solution
B sodium hydrogencarbonate
hydrochloric acid and boil
to sample

boil sample with dilute neutralise with add Benedict’s solution

C
hydrochloric acid sodium hydrogencarbonate and boil

boil sample with dilute neutralise with add biuret solution

D
hydrochloric acid sodium hydrogencarbonate and boil

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8 Which diagrams show the release of a water molecule during the formation of a glycosidic bond?

1 2

CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH

H O H H O H H O OH HO H

HO OH HO OH HO H H O OH

H2 O CH2OH
H2O

CH2OH
H O H

HO OH
CH2OH H 2O

H O H

HO OH

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

9 Which molecules have a structural formula that contains C=O bonds?

1 amino acids
2 fatty acids
3 glycerol
4 protein

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

10 Which statement about triglycerides is correct?

A In any triglyceride, all the fatty acids are saturated or all the fatty acids are unsaturated.
B Two triglycerides are joined together by an ester bond.
C Triglycerides are polar hydrophobic molecules.
D Glycerol is joined to each fatty acid by a covalent bond.

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 6

11 Many flowers produce a sweet solution called nectar. Bees provided with nectar use enzyme Q to
change the nectar into honey.

After testing a sample of nectar for the presence of reducing sugar using standard laboratory
reagents, the sample was blue. After testing a sample of honey in the same way, the sample was
orange.

Which conclusion about the reaction catalysed by enzyme Q is consistent with these results?

type of reaction substrate product

A condensation maltose glucose

B condensation sucrose fructose
C hydrolysis sucrose fructose
D hydrolysis maltose glucose

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 7

12 The diagram shows the structure of part of a peptidoglycan molecule.

CH2OH H

H O O H
OH H
H
O H H O
O
O H
CH2OH
H 3C CH C O

NH

HC CH3

CO

NH

HC (CH3)2COOH

CO

NH NH2

HC (CH3)2CHCOOH

CO

NH

HC COOH

CH3

Which type of 1,4 linkage and how many peptide bonds are shown in this part of the molecule?

type of number of
1,4 linkage peptide bonds

A α-1,4 3
B α-1,4 4
C β-1,4 3
D β-1,4 4

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13 A scientist investigated the progress of two enzyme-catalysed reactions in separate test-tubes, X

and Y. Both reactions result in colour changes that can be detected using colorimetry.
3
0.5 cm samples were taken from each test-tube at the start of the investigation and at regular
intervals for the next 5 minutes. Copper ions were added to each sample as soon as the sample
was collected to inactivate the enzymes and stop the reactions from progressing further.

The absorbance of each sample was measured using a colorimeter.

The graph shows the results of this investigation.

percentage
absorbance
Y

0 1 2 3 4 5
time / minutes

Which statement is consistent with the results shown in the graph?

A The substrate in test-tube X has a higher absorbance than the product.

B The product in test-tube Y has a lower absorbance than the substrate.
C The rate of the reaction in test-tube X increased with time.
D The rate of the reaction in test-tube Y increased with time.

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14 A student investigated the hydrolysis of lipid in high-fat milk, using the enzyme lipase.

3 3
• 1 cm of enzyme solution was added to 10 cm of high-fat milk.
• The temperature was kept constant.
• The pH of the reaction mixture was recorded at time 0 minutes and every minute for
20 minutes.

Which statements correctly describe the expected results of this investigation?

1 The product forms more slowly as time proceeds because the concentration of the
substrate is decreasing.
2 The pH of the reaction mixture increases rapidly in the first few minutes and then
increases less rapidly.
3 The increase in the concentration of product eventually causes the lipase molecules
to denature.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

15 What is the correct range of measurements for the width of the cell surface membrane?

A 0.5–1.0 nm B 5–10 nm C 50–100 nm D 0.5–1.0 μm

16 Where in the cell surface membrane are the carbohydrate chains of glycoproteins and glycolipids
mainly located?

glycoproteins glycolipids

A inner surface inner surface

B inner surface outer surface
C outer surface inner surface
D outer surface outer surface

17 Sodium ions can enter cells across the cell surface membrane.

Which methods could be used by sodium ions to cross a cell surface membrane and enter a cell?

A active transport only

B active transport and facilitated diffusion
C facilitated diffusion and simple diffusion
D simple diffusion only

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18 The diagram shows how an artificial partially permeable membrane was used to separate a
5% sodium chloride solution and a 10% sodium chloride solution in a beaker. The two sides of the
beaker were labelled R and S.

partially permeable
membrane

R S

5% 10%
sodium chloride sodium chloride
solution solution

Which row correctly describes and explains what will happen in the half of the beaker labelled S?

description of S explanation

A volume of solution increases net movement of water from a higher water

potential to a lower water potential
B volume of solution increases net movement of water from a lower water
potential to a higher water potential
C volume of solution net movement of water from a higher water
decreases potential to a lower water potential
D volume of solution net movement of water from a lower water
decreases potential to a higher water potential

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19 Agar cubes can be used to demonstrate the effect on diffusion of changing the surface area to
volume ratio.

Three different agar cubes made using a coloured indicator solution were placed into a dilute acid
that diffused into the cubes. As the acid diffused into the agar cubes, the colour of the indicator
solution changed.
3 3 3
The cubes had volumes of 1 cm , 2 cm and 3 cm and were left in the dilute acid for 10 minutes.
All other variables were kept the same.

After 10 minutes, the agar cubes were removed from the dilute acid and cut in half. The cut surfaces
were observed and the results were recorded as diagrams. All diagrams were drawn to the same
scale.
3
The results for the 2 cm cube are shown.

original colour

3 3
Which diagrams show the results for the 1 cm and the 3 cm cubes?

1 cm3
3 cm3

1 cm3
3 cm3

1 cm3
3 cm3

1 cm3
3 cm3

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20 During sperm formation in mammals, part of the structure of each chromosome is replaced with
proteins called protamines. This replacement allows the DNA to be packaged much more densely
than would otherwise be possible.

Which part of the chromosome is replaced by protamines?

A centromeres
B chromatids
C histones
D telomeres

21 The diagram shows the mitotic cell cycle.

During which phase do chromosomes condense and become visible?

cytokinesis

C A

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 13

22 Which statements correctly describe features of stem cells that are essential for their role in cell
replacement and tissue repair?

1 After mitosis of stem cells, the daughter cells can either remain as stem cells or follow
a developmental pathway that leads to the formation of specialised cells.
2 Stem cells are different to all other body cells because they retain all of the genetic
information in their DNA throughout the life of the organism.
3 A small population of stem cells is retained in the body of adults throughout their life
time.
4 Stem cells have more telomeres than other body cells and this allows them to undergo
an unlimited number of mitotic divisions.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

23 Which statements are correct for all nucleotides?

1 The nitrogen-containing base is always attached to carbon atom 1 of the pentose.

2 The phosphate group is always attached to carbon atom 5 of the pentose.
3 A condensation reaction occurs to join the nitrogen-containing base to the pentose.
4 Nucleotides are linked together by condensation reactions between phosphate groups.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

24 How many phosphodiester bonds are present in a circular DNA molecule of 2700 base pairs?

A 2699 B 2700 C 5398 D 5400

25 Which statements about complementary base pairing are correct?

1 Purines and pyrimidines are different sizes.

2 Complementary base pairing occurs during translation.
3 The base pairs are of different lengths.
4 Uracil forms two hydrogen bonds with adenine.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

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 14

26 During the mitotic cell cycle, the chromosomal DNA is replicated. The specific points in DNA
molecules where replication is occurring are known as replication forks.

A typical human chromosome has about 150 million base pairs of DNA. It takes about 1 hour to
replicate the DNA of a typical human chromosome.

The rate of replication using a single replication fork is approximately 50 base pairs per second.

Approximately how many replication forks must occur in a typical human chromosome during DNA
replication?

A 835 B 41 700 C 50 000 D 3 000 000

27 Which molecule has its synthesis directly controlled by DNA?

A amylase
B cholesterol
C glycogen
D phospholipid

28 Which statement correctly describes the association between a companion cell and its sieve tube
cell?

A The companion cell provides all of the ATP used for energy-requiring processes in both
types of cell.
B The companion cell controls the active transport of molecules through the sieve plates.
C The companion cell prevents side-to-side movement of assimilates between sieve tube
cells.
D The companion cell provides a nucleus that controls cellular activities in both types of cell.

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 15

29 A maize seedling was grown in soil that contained lanthanum ions labelled with a chemical that
fluoresces under ultraviolet light. The diagram represents what was observed when a section of
root was examined using a light microscope with ultraviolet illumination.

key
fluorescence

root hair
Casparian strip
xylem

What is a correct conclusion about the transport of lanthanum ions in maize roots?

A The ions are not transported through the apoplast pathway or the symplast pathway.
B The ions are transported through the apoplast pathway only.
C The ions are transported through the apoplast pathway and symplast pathway.
D The ions are transported through the symplast pathway only.

30 Which description of adhesion and cohesion is correct?

A Adhesion refers to the force between the water molecules due to hydrogen bonding. Cohesion
refers to the force between water molecules and the xylem vessel walls.
B Adhesion refers to the reduced friction between hydrophobic lignin walls and the water
molecules. Cohesion refers to the force between water molecules and the xylem vessel
walls.
C Adhesion refers to the reduced friction between hydrophobic lignin walls and the water
molecules. Cohesion refers to the force between water molecules due to hydrogen bonding.
D Adhesion refers to the force between the water molecules and the xylem vessel walls.
Cohesion refers to the force between water molecules due to hydrogen bonding.

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31 Which conditions are needed to allow the mass flow of sucrose in phloem sieve tubes?

phloem sieve tube in sources phloem sieve tube in sinks

A higher hydrostatic pressure lower hydrostatic pressure

higher water potential lower water potential
B higher hydrostatic pressure lower hydrostatic pressure
lower water potential higher water potential
C lower hydrostatic pressure higher hydrostatic pressure
higher water potential lower water potential
D lower hydrostatic pressure higher hydrostatic pressure
lower water potential higher water potential

32 One type of congenital heart defect is where the left and right atria are not completely separated.
This is called an atrial septal defect (ASD).

ASD usually results in blood moving from the left atrium into the right atrium. This causes increased
blood pressure in the right atrium and decreased blood pressure in the left atrium.

Which row describes other effects caused by ASD?

% oxygenation
blood pressure in blood pressure in
of blood in
pulmonary artery aorta
pulmonary artery

A decreased increased decreased

B decreased increased increased
C increased decreased decreased
D increased decreased increased

33 Which property of water, related to its role in blood and tissue fluid, is correctly described?

A Water is a solvent for all biological molecules.

B Water is a solvent for most non-polar molecules.
C Water requires little energy to increase its temperature because it has a high specific heat
capacity.
D Water cools down slowly because it has a high specific heat capacity.

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 17

34 Which statement about tissue fluid formation is correct?

A The hydrostatic pressure of blood decreases from the arteriole end to the venule end of a
capillary.
B The water potential is always higher in the blood in the capillaries than in the tissue fluid in
the surrounding tissues.
C No cells move out of the blood in the capillaries into the tissue fluid.
D Most tissue fluid formation occurs at the venule end of a capillary.

35 Oxyhaemoglobin, carbaminohaemoglobin, haemoglobinic acid and carbonic anhydrase are found

inside red blood cells.

How many of these substances will show an overall decrease in concentration as a red blood cell
passes through capillaries in the lungs?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

36 Which of these structures typically contain cartilage and cilia?

1 bronchi
2 bronchioles
3 trachea

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 3 only

37 Which statements about the function of tissues found in the human gas exchange system are
correct?

1 Collagen in the bronchi prevents them collapsing.

2 Smooth muscle in the bronchioles can contract to increase the flow of air into the
alveoli.
3 Elastic fibres in the alveoli stretch and recoil during breathing.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 only

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38 Antibiotic-resistant strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis are a major problem when treating TB.
A new antibiotic, teixobactin, could be very effective at killing M. tuberculosis with only a small risk
that the bacteria will evolve teixobactin resistance.

Penicillin and similar antibiotics bind to a single protein, but teixobactin binds to two lipids that are
needed for the formation of the bacterial cell wall. Teixobactin binds to regions of the two lipids that
do not vary across many different species of bacteria.

Which statements help to explain why the use of teixobactin is thought to be less likely to lead to
the evolution of antibiotic resistance than the use of many other antibiotics, such as penicillin?

1 A single mutation can result in bacteria that are resistant to penicillin and similar
antibiotics but at least two mutations are required to produce teixobactin-resistant
bacteria.
2 Mutations can affect the structure of proteins but cannot affect the structure of lipids
because only proteins are made of amino acids.
3 The lack of variation across many species of bacteria in the two lipids that bind to
teixobactin suggest that the particular structure of these lipids is essential for
successful bacterial cell wall formation.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

39 Monoclonal antibodies are now being used to treat some human diseases.

What explains why monoclonal antibodies are suitable for this purpose?

1 They can divide by mitosis to produce the large numbers of antibodies required for
treatment.
2 They are specific to a particular antigen.
3 They can be modified so that they do not act as antigens themselves.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

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40 Measles is an infectious disease caused by a virus.

The graph shows the number of cases of measles each year in a country before and after a vaccine
was introduced.

900 000
vaccination introduced
800 000
700 000
600 000
number of 500 000
cases of
measles 400 000
300 000
200 000
100 000
0
1950 1960 1970 1980 1990 2000
year

What could have caused the decrease in the number of cases of measles after vaccination was
introduced?

vaccines provided vaccines provided fewer people are

artificial active artificial passive able to act as hosts
immunity in people immunity in people for the virus

A ✓ ✗ ✓ key
B ✗ ✓ ✓ ✓ = yes
C ✗ ✓ ✗ ✗ = no
D ✓ ✗ ✗

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2024 03_9700_12_2024_1.12

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2024
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*8862199181*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB24 06_9700_11/4RP
© UCLES 2024 [Turn over
 2

1 The diagram shows a stage micrometer scale viewed with an eyepiece graticule, using a
magnification of 200.

0.1 mm

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

Using the same magnification, a chloroplast is measured as 4 eyepiece graticule divisions long.

How long is the chloroplast?

A 1.0  101 m

B 4.0  102 m

C 2.5  10–1 m

D 2.5  10–2 m

2 Which range of cell diameters is typical for prokaryotic cells?

A 1 nm to 5  102 nm

B 1  103 nm to 5 m

C 1  101 m to 5  102 m

D 1  102 m to 5  103 m

© UCLES 2024 9700/11/M/J/24

 3

3 The diagram shows a typical animal cell.

Where would nucleic acids be found?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

4 Which structure is found in a typical bacterial cell?

A intron
B telomere
C template strand
D capsid

5 What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds that can form between a single water molecule
and other water molecules?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

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 4

6 The diagrams show the structure of four amino acids in aqueous solution.

COO– COO–
H C H 3N + CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 C
+
N H3 N+H3
H H
glycine lysine

COO– O COO–
CH3 C C CH2 C
N+H3 O– N+H3
H H
alanine aspartate

Which two structures have an overall charge?

A alanine and aspartate

B alanine and glycine
C aspartate and lysine
D glycine and lysine

7 The table shows the number of carbon atoms and the number of carbon–carbon double bonds in
molecules of three triglycerides and the fatty acids they contain.

The information is shown in the format ‘number of carbon atoms : number of carbon–carbon
double bonds’.

triglyceride fatty acid 1 fatty acid 2 fatty acid 3

54 : 1 15 : 0 18 : 0 18 : 1
56 : 4 17 : 0 X 18 : 2
57 : 3 18 : 0 18 : 1 18 : 2

Which description matches fatty acid 2 of the 56 : 4 triglyceride, identified in the table as X?

A saturated with 17 carbon atoms

B saturated with 18 carbon atoms
C unsaturated with 17 carbon atoms
D unsaturated with 18 carbon atoms

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8 Collagen molecules are made up of three polypeptide chains interacting together. The individual
polypeptide chains consist of a regular pattern of amino acids. Almost every third amino acid is
glycine.

Which protein structures of collagen are described?

A primary and secondary

B primary and quaternary
C secondary and tertiary
D tertiary and quaternary

9 The masses of the parts of haemoglobin are shown in the table.

component mass / Da

-globin chain 15 126

-globin chain 15 868
haem group 15 617

There are 1000 Da in 1 kDa.

What is the mass of a haemoglobin molecule in kDa?

A 31.6 B 33.5 C 62.6 D 64.5

10 What is the correct order of locations in the cell for the production of an extracellular enzyme?

A nucleus  ribosome  rough endoplasmic reticulum  Golgi body

B ribosome  nucleus  Golgi body  rough endoplasmic reticulum

C ribosome  rough endoplasmic reticulum  nucleus  Golgi body

D rough endoplasmic reticulum  nucleus  Golgi body  ribosome

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11 The graph shows the trend from an enzyme-catalysed reaction.

Which labels are correct for the x-axis and y-axis?

x-axis y-axis

A rate of reaction substrate concentration

B enzyme concentration temperature
C pH rate of reaction
D substrate concentration pH

12 Which statements about the Michaelis–Menten constant (Km) are correct?

1 The higher the Km, the higher the enzyme affinity for the substrate.
2 Km is a measure of the degree of enzyme affinity for the substrate.
3 Km is defined as the substrate concentration at which the enzyme functions at half
its maximum rate.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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13 The diagram shows how nicotine is transported from the blood plasma into a cell using a type of
cotransporter mechanism.

protons move down their

concentration gradient
blood out of the cell
plasma

cell surface
membrane

cytoplasm
of the cell nicotine is transported cotransporter protein
against its concentration
gradient into the cell

In the phloem tissue, there is a cotransporter mechanism that moves sucrose into the cytoplasm
of a companion cell.

Which statement correctly describes a similarity between the cotransport of nicotine and the
cotransport of sucrose?

A The cotransporter proteins generate a proton gradient by moving protons out of the cell by
active transport.
B The protons are transported through the cotransporter proteins by facilitated diffusion.
C The protons move through the cotransporter proteins in the opposite direction to the
movement of nicotine and sucrose.
D The cotransporter proteins use energy from ATP to transport protons with nicotine and
sucrose.

14 The diagram shows a simple metabolic pathway.

WXYZ

The letters W, X, Y and Z represent four different substances. At each step in the diagram the
substrate undergoes a chemical reaction catalysed by an enzyme. The reaction produces the
next substance in the pathway.

Which statements correctly describe the enzymes taking part in this metabolic pathway?

1 They are all globular proteins.

2 They all have the same tertiary structure.
3 They all contain hydrogen atoms in their structure.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

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15 A student observed the effect of two different concentrations of salt solution on blood cells.

The student added each concentration of salt solution to one of two microscope slides, and then
a small drop of fresh blood was added.

Each slide was viewed using the high power lens of a microscope and the student’s observations
were recorded.

slide 1 No red blood cells were visible.

slide 2 The red blood cells were visible but looked slightly crinkled.

Which row correctly explains the results obtained?

slide 1 slide 2

A Swelling of the cells The  of the cell was

caused them all to burst. more negative than the 
of the external solution.

B The  of the cell was The  of the external solution key

more negative than the  was more negative than the   = water potential
of the external solution. of the cell.

C The  of the cell was There is a net movement of

less negative than the  water out of the cell by osmosis.
of the external solution.
D The  of the external solution The  of the cell was very
was less negative than the  similar to, but slightly
of the cell. more negative than, the 
of the external solution.

16 Which statement correctly describes facilitated diffusion?

A The process only occurs using channel proteins that change shape and that use energy
provided by the cell.
B The process occurs using channel proteins or carrier proteins that may or may not change
shape.
C The process occurs using channel proteins or carrier proteins that use energy provided by
the cell.
D The process only occurs using carrier proteins that create a gradient to move ions in
opposite directions.

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17 Which row is correct for stem cells?

can be involved in the

can repair cells
formation of phagocytes

A yes no
B yes yes
C no no
D no yes

18 Eukaryotic organisms grow and increase in size as a result of cell division. The diagram shows
some stages of mitosis with one stage missing, labelled X.

What happens in stage X?

A Spindle fibres attach to the centromeres and the chromosomes line up along the equator.
B The chromatin coils and condenses and the nuclear membrane disintegrates.
C The chromosomes line up in pairs along the equator of the cell.
D Microtubules shorten so that spindle fibres contract and the centromeres divide.

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19 The graphs show various distance measurements taken from the start of metaphase of mitosis.
The graphs are to scale when compared to one another.

distance

time

distance

time

Which row correctly identifies the distance measurement for each graph?

X Y
A distance between distance of centromeres
poles of spindle from poles of spindle
B distance between distance between
poles of spindle sister chromatids
C distance of centromeres distance between
from poles of spindle sister chromatids
D distance of centromeres distance between
from poles of spindle poles of spindle

© UCLES 2024 9700/11/M/J/24

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20 Which row is correct for the start of anaphase of mitosis?

DNA is associated state of the

form of DNA with histone cell surface
proteins membrane

A chromosomes always broken apart

B chromosomes sometimes intact
C separated sister chromatids always intact
D separated sister chromatids sometimes broken apart

21 The diagrams show the chemical structure of four bases.

NH2 O

C C CH3
N HN C
C N
HC
C CH C CH
N N O N

H H

1 2

NH2 O

C C
N CH N C NH
HC
C CH C C
O N N N NH2
H H

3 4

Which diagrams show thymine and cytosine?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

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 12

22 The diagram shows the nucleotide sequence of a small section of the transcribed strand of a
gene.

CGG GCC CCG CGG

The table shows the amino acids coded for by 10 mRNA codons.

mRNA codon amino acid

AAG Lys
ACG Thr
CGG CGC CGU Arg
CCG Pro
GCC GCG Ala
GGC Gly
UGC Cys

What is the sequence of the four amino acids in the polypeptide translated from this small section
of a gene?

A Ala-Ala-Cys-Ala
B Ala-Arg-Gly-Ala
C Arg-Ala-Pro-Arg
D Arg-Arg-Thr-Arg

23 What does the process of translation require?

A DNA, free nucleotide bases and mRNA

B DNA, mRNA, amino acids and RNA polymerase
C mRNA, ribosomes and RNA polymerase
D mRNA, ribosomes, amino acids and tRNA

© UCLES 2024 9700/11/M/J/24

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24 The electron micrograph shows a longitudinal section of part of the stem of a plant.

What is the name of the structure labelled X?

A companion cell
B Casparian strip
C phloem sieve tube element
D xylem vessel element

25 Which substance makes xylem vessel walls impermeable to water?

A cellulose
B lignin
C suberin
D collagen

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26 The following tissues carry an electrical impulse during the cardiac cycle.

1 atrioventricular node
2 muscle wall of atria
3 Purkyne tissue
4 sinoatrial node

In which order does the electrical impulse travel during the cardiac cycle?

A 1234

B 1423

C 4213

D 4231

27 The graph shows changes in the volume of the ventricles during a single cardiac cycle.

atrial ventricular diastole

systole systole
volume of
ventricles P
/ arbitrary
units

R
time

Which row is correct for the atrioventricular valve at P and for the semilunar valve at R?

atrioventricular semilunar
valve at P valve at R

A closes closes
B closes opens
C opens closes
D opens opens

© UCLES 2024 9700/11/M/J/24

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28 The graph shows how changes in oxygen concentration affect the percentage oxygen saturation
of human haemoglobin and cat haemoglobin under normal physiological conditions. The partial
pressure of carbon dioxide was kept constant at 5.0 kPa and the temperature was kept constant
at 37 C.

100 human
cat

percentage
saturation of
haemoglobin
with oxygen

0
partial pressure of oxygen

Which conclusion is supported by the graph?

A The affinity of cat haemoglobin for oxygen is greater than the affinity of human haemoglobin
for oxygen.
B At high partial pressures of oxygen, cat haemoglobin picks up oxygen more easily than
human haemoglobin picks up oxygen.
C At low partial pressures of oxygen, oxygen is released more easily from cat haemoglobin
than from human haemoglobin.
D The shift in the oxygen dissociation curve caused by the Bohr effect is larger for cat
haemoglobin than for human haemoglobin.

29 Which statement is correct about how oxygen combines with haemoglobin?

A Combining all four oxygen molecules with haemoglobin does not affect the shape of
haemoglobin.
B One oxygen molecule can combine with each haem group of the haemoglobin molecule.
C The first oxygen molecule to combine with haemoglobin does not affect the shape of
haemoglobin.
D The third oxygen molecule to combine with haemoglobin makes it more difficult for the fourth
oxygen molecule to combine with haemoglobin.

30 How are alveoli adapted to their function?

A They contain squamous epithelium for a short diffusion distance.

B They contain goblet cells to produce mucus.
C They contain ciliated epithelium to move mucus.
D They contain cartilage to prevent alveolar collapse.

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 16

31 The diagram shows oxygen diffusing from the space inside an alveolus into the blood through the
gaseous exchange surface.

thickness of alveolar
wall and capillary
endothelium

W X
oxygen oxygen
concentration concentration
in the blood inside the
alveolus
oxygen

What would increase the rate of diffusion of oxygen from the alveolus to the blood?

increase decrease keep the same

A W X Y
B W Y X
C Y X W
D X Y W

32 Which tissues are present in a bronchus?

ciliated smooth
cartilage
epithelium muscle

A    key
B     = present
C     = not present
D   

© UCLES 2024 9700/11/M/J/24

 17

33 Steep concentration gradients must be maintained for efficient gaseous exchange to occur in
the human lungs.

Which row correctly describes how steep concentration gradients can be maintained?

elastic fibres in the walls continual supply of

of the alveoli recoil deoxygenated blood by
when breathing out the pulmonary artery

A   key
B    = helps maintain
C    = does not help maintain
D  

34 A scientist investigated the effect of an antibiotic on the treatment of cholera.

320 people with cholera were divided into two groups. One group was treated with the antibiotic
while the other group was not given the antibiotic. Both groups were given fluids containing
sugars and mineral salts (oral rehydration therapy).

The scientist recorded the number of days that each person had diarrhoea.

The table shows the results.

mean time person had

treatment
diarrhoea / days

antibiotic and oral rehydration therapy 3.2

oral rehydration therapy 5.3

What is the percentage decrease in the mean time that a person had diarrhoea when they were
treated with the antibiotic?

A 39.6% B 60.4% C 165.6% D 252.4%

35 How does the antibiotic penicillin affect the metabolism of a bacterial cell?

A Penicillin reduces cell growth by preventing water uptake.

B Penicillin inhibits the formation of cross-links in the cell wall between peptidoglycan
molecules.
C Penicillin inhibits the hydrolysis of peptidoglycan links in the cell wall during cell extension.
D Penicillin weakens the cell wall by digesting peptidoglycan molecules.

© UCLES 2024 9700/11/M/J/24 [Turn over

 18

36 Scientists studied the multidrug-resistant bacterial infections in children caused by one type of
bacteria between 2007 and 2015. The percentage of multidrug-resistant infections rose from
0.2% to 1.5%.

What was the percentage increase in multidrug-resistant infections between 2007 and 2015?

A 1.3% B 87% C 130% D 650%

37 Whooping cough is a highly infectious disease of the gas exchange system, caused by the
bacterium Bordetella pertussis.

Which method provides protection to infants against whooping cough and reduces the chance of
developing this disease later?

A a short course of more than one type of antibiotic

B a six-month course of one type of antibiotic
C injections of antibodies specific to Bordetella pertussis
D injections of antigens from Bordetella pertussis bacteria

38 The electron micrograph shows a type of blood cell.

What can be concluded from the electron micrograph?

A The cell secretes products that are toxic to pathogens.

B The cell synthesises a large quantity of proteins.
C The cell synthesises large quantities of antigens.
D The cell digests pathogenic bacteria.

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39 Why is mitosis important in the immune response?

A It allows B-lymphocytes to produce plasma cells.

B It allows B-lymphocytes to synthesise antibodies.
C It allows neutrophils to carry out phagocytosis.
D It allows T-lymphocytes to recognise foreign antigens.

40 What is fused with a B-lymphocyte to form a hybridoma cell in monoclonal antibody production?

A antigen
B clone
C macrophage
D myeloma cell

© UCLES 2024 9700/11/M/J/24

 20

BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2024 9700/11/M/J/24

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2024
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*6823534110*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB24 06_9700_12/RP
© UCLES 2024 [Turn over
 2

1 A prokaryotic cell which is 1 m in diameter is magnified 50 000 times in an electron micrograph.

What is the diameter of the cell in the electron micrograph?

A 5  10–1 mm

B 5  100 mm

C 5  101 mm

D 5  102 mm

2 The diagram shows a plant cell with some labelled structures.

P
R

Which labelled structures are bound by a double membrane?

A P and Q B P and S C R and Q D R and S

3 Which size of ribosome is found in mitochondria and typical prokaryotic cells?

A 50S B 60S C 70S D 80S

© UCLES 2024 9700/12/M/J/24

 3

4 Which row about typical prokaryotic cells and typical animal cells is correct?

lysosomes present
ATP is produced
for the break down
by the cell
of old organelles

A  
B  
C  
D  

key
 = correct for typical prokaryotic cells and typical animal cells
 = not correct for both cells but correct for either typical prokaryotic cells or typical animal cells

5 Which row is correct for the structures present in typical plant cells and typical animal cells?

cell structure plant cell animal cell

A plasmodesmata present present

B Golgi body present not present
C centriole not present present
D tonoplast not present not present

6 Which row is correct for cellulose?

rotation of alternate hydrogen bonds

shape of molecule
monomers by 180 between molecules

A  branched  key
B  branched   = present
C  unbranched   = not present
D  unbranched 

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7 Which statements about peptide bond formation are correct?

1 The bond formation occurs between a carbon of one amino acid and a nitrogen of
the next amino acid after the amino acids detach from tRNA.
2 The bond formation occurs at the ribosome while the amino acids are still attached
to tRNA, and is a hydrolysis reaction.
3 The bond formation is important for growth of an organism and when the bond
forms, a water molecule is removed.

A 1 and 3 B 2 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

8 The diagram shows naturally occurring D-glucose and a form of glucose that can be synthesised
in the laboratory, known as L-glucose.

CH2OH H

C O C O
H H HO OH
H CH2OH
C C C C
OH H H HO
HO OH H H
C C C C

H HO OH H

D-glucose L-glucose

The enzyme glucose oxidase catalyses the oxidation of D-glucose. The enzyme cannot catalyse
the oxidation of L-glucose.

Which statement about L-glucose explains this?

A L-glucose does not fit into the active site of glucose oxidase.
B L-glucose has a different structural formula to D-glucose.
C L-glucose is a synthetic sugar.
D L-glucose is the mirror image of D-glucose.

© UCLES 2024 9700/12/M/J/24

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9 Tests for biological molecules were carried out on three solutions. Each solution contained only
one type of biological molecule.

The observations were as follows.

solution test observation

1 Benedict’s test blue to orange

2 Benedict’s test after acid hydrolysis blue to red
3 biuret test blue to purple

Which solutions would contain either sucrose or amylase?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

10 Which row describes the expected effect on Vmax and Km when a competitive reversible inhibitor is
added to an enzyme-catalysed reaction?

substrate
effect on Vmax
concentration at Km

A no change increases
B no change no change
C decreases increases
D decreases no change

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11 The graph shows the effect of substrate concentration on the rates of reaction of three enzymes,
X, Y, and Z.

2500
enzyme Y
2000

rate of 1500 enzyme X

reaction
/ product
per second 1000

500
enzyme Z
0
0 200 400 600 800 1000 1200
substrate concentration / μmol dm–3

What is the correct order of affinity of these enzymes for their substrates, starting with the
enzyme with the highest affinity?

A XYZ B XZY C YXZ D ZXY

12 Which row correctly identifies the weak and strong bonds in the tertiary and quaternary structure
of a typical protein?

type of bond
disulfide hydrogen hydrophobic ionic

A strong strong weak weak

B strong weak weak weak
C weak weak strong strong
D weak weak weak strong

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13 Which row correctly describes haemoglobin?

A four polypeptide iron ions can in each chain, at 50% saturation,

chains, each associate with hydrophobic R-groups two oxygen
containing a oxygen, forming of amino acids point molecules are
haem group oxyhaemoglobin towards the centre of transported by the
the molecule molecule

B polypeptide chains each chain consists of two each chain can

interact to produce a contains a haem identical alpha chains transport an
globular chain group of amino and two identical oxygen molecule
acids surrounding beta chains
an iron ion

C polypeptide chains an iron ion is quaternary structure each molecule can

interact to produce present within each has two alpha chains transport a total of
an almost spherical haem group and two beta chains four oxygen atoms
molecule

D polypeptide chains iron ions in the in each chain, each molecule can
produce a loose molecule can bind hydrophobic R-groups transport a total of
helical shape, which reversibly with of amino acids eight oxygen atoms
folds to form a oxygen surround the iron ion
spherical molecule

14 Which process always takes place without the involvement of energy from ATP?

A active transport
B endocytosis
C exocytosis
D facilitated diffusion

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15 The diagram shows the entry of molecule X into a cell.

molecule X

Which row shows a property of molecule X and the effect of the concentration of ATP in the
cytoplasm on the rate of entry of molecule X?

property of molecule X concentration of ATP in the cytoplasm

A non-polar affects rate of entry of molecule X

B non-polar has no effect on rate of entry of molecule X
C polar affects rate of entry of molecule X
D polar has no effect on rate of entry of molecule X

© UCLES 2024 9700/12/M/J/24

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16 The electron micrograph shows some human blood cells.

Which row correctly shows the net movement of water by osmosis and the water potential of the
cytoplasm of cell X compared with the solution surrounding the cells?

water potential of
net movement of cytoplasm of cell X
water by osmosis compared with
the solution

A into the cell higher

B into the cell lower
C out of the cell higher
D out of the cell lower

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17 A red indicator solution was mixed with agar and the resulting solid was cut into small cylindrical
blocks. The blocks were placed in an acid which turns the indicator yellow and all other variables
were kept constant. The dimensions of the blocks are shown.

block 1 height 3 mm diameter 6 mm

block 2 height 6 mm diameter 12 mm
block 3 height 8 mm diameter 16 mm

The formula for calculating the surface area of a cylinder is 2rh + 2r 2. The formula for
calculating the volume of a cylinder is r 2h.

Which row shows the correct surface area (SA) to volume (V) ratio for each block and the time
taken for the block to turn yellow?

block 1 block 2 block 3

SA to V time to turn SA to V time to turn SA to V time to turn
ratio yellow / mins ratio yellow / mins ratio yellow / mins

A 0.75 : 1.0 4 1.5 : 1.0 5 2.0 : 1.0 11

B 0.75 : 1.0 11 1.5 : 1.0 5 2.0 : 1.0 4
C 1.33 : 1.0 4 0.67 : 1.0 5 0.5 : 1.0 11
D 1.33 : 1.0 11 0.67 : 1.0 5 0.5 : 1.0 4

18 Which metabolic processes will be very active in a cell that has just completed cytokinesis?

1 ATP formation
2 DNA replication
3 protein synthesis

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 only D 3 only

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19 The diagram shows a typical mitotic cell cycle and the point in the cell cycle that has been
reached by each of four cells, V, W, X and Y.

mitosis
cytokinesis
Y
X

W G2 phase

G1 phase

S phase

Which row correctly identifies the cells that match the two descriptions?

preparation for
DNA replication is
microtubule formation
complete but the cell
is nearly complete but
has not yet reached
chromosomes have
its maximum size
not yet condensed

A V X
B W Y
C V Y
D W X

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20 The graph shows the mean length of the spindle fibres during mitosis.

Which region of the graph shows when all the centromeres have detached from the spindle
fibres?

B
C
mean length
of spindle
fibres A

D
time

21 The mRNA codons ACU, ACC, ACA and ACG all code for the same amino acid, threonine.

Which anticodons could specify an amino acid other than threonine?

1 UCA
2 ACC
3 UGU
4 UGC

A 1, 3 and 4 B 1 and 2 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4 only

22 Which bond formation does DNA polymerase catalyse?

A hydrogen bonds between bases

B hydrogen bonds between nucleotides
C phosphodiester bonds between bases
D phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides

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23 In eukaryotes, the RNA molecules formed during transcription are modified by the removal of
non-coding sequences. This is followed by the joining together of coding sequences to form
mRNA.

What are the coding sequences also called?

A codons
B exons
C introns
D primary transcripts

24 Which row correctly identifies sinks for sucrose transported by mass flow in plants?

root storage growing growing

organ leaf bud shoot tip

A    key
B     = sink
C     = not a sink
D   

25 The diagram shows a transverse section through a transport tissue in a plant.

Which row correctly identifies cell 1 and cell 2?

cell 1 cell 2

A companion cell phloem sieve tube element

B companion cell xylem vessel element
C phloem sieve tube element phloem sieve tube element
D phloem sieve tube element xylem vessel element

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 14

26 Which statement correctly describes the movement of solutes in the symplast pathway?

A Cell surface membranes regulate the selective absorption of solutes into the symplast
pathway.
B Plasmodesmata control the movement of solutes from the symplast pathway to the apoplast
pathway.
C The symplast pathway transports dissolved mineral ions from the soil that cannot be
transported by the apoplast pathway.
D The movement of solutes through plasmodesmata in the symplast pathway is prevented in
the endodermis by suberin.

27 Which statement helps to explain why water molecules are forced to move through xylem vessel
elements as a consequence of transpiration?

A Water molecules form hydrogen bonds with cellulose in the walls of xylem vessel elements in
a process known as adhesion.
B Water molecules form hydrogen bonds with neighbouring water molecules in a process
known as cohesion.
C Water molecules form ionic bonds with dissolved mineral ions, which helps to keep the water
molecules together in a continuous column.
D Water has a high latent heat of vaporisation and this prevents the evaporation of water in the
xylem vessel elements.

28 The diagram shows the internal structure of the mammalian heart.

Which letter identifies the location of the atrioventricular node?

A C
B

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29 The diagram shows pressure changes in the left side of the heart during the cardiac cycle.

pressure key
/ kPa left ventricle
aorta
left atrium
X

0
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8
time / s

What happens in the heart at X?

A The atrioventricular valves close.

B The atrioventricular valves open.
C The semilunar valves close.
D The semilunar valves open.

30 Which components of blood are present in tissue fluid?

phagocytes some proteins sodium ions

A    key
B     = present
C     = not present
D   

31 In the lungs, movement of dissolved carbon dioxide out of the capillaries occurs in one of two
ways:

● by diffusion through the endothelial cells of the capillaries

● by leakage through pores in the endothelial cells of the capillaries.

What is the minimum number of times that a carbon dioxide molecule that has been transported
to the lungs in a red blood cell must cross a cell surface membrane to reach an air space in an
alveolus?

A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5

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32 What maintains the steep concentration gradients needed for successful gas exchange in the
lungs?

1 Air flow in the alveoli is in the opposite direction to blood flow in the capillaries.
2 Blood arrives in the lungs with a lower oxygen concentration and a higher
carbon dioxide concentration than the air in the alveoli.
3 Blood is constantly flowing through and out of the lungs, bringing a fresh supply of
red blood cells.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

33 Where is cartilage tissue always found in the human gas exchange system?

A in the trachea only

B in the bronchi only
C in the bronchioles and trachea
D in the bronchi and trachea

34 Scientists compared the density of goblet cells in the lungs and the density of mucus in the lungs
of three groups of people:

● people who do not smoke and do not have lung disease

● people who smoke tobacco but do not have lung disease

● people who smoke tobacco and have lung disease.

The results are shown in the table.

goblet cell density mucus density

group
/ cells per mm2 / arbitrary units

non-smokers 19 6
smokers who do not have lung disease 54 26
smokers with lung disease 37 15

What is indicated by these data?

1 There is a positive correlation (relationship) between density of goblet cells and

density of mucus.
2 Lung disease results in an increase in goblet cell density.
3 There is an association between tobacco smoking and an increase in mucus
density.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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35 Which disease does Mycobacterium bovis cause?

A cholera
B HIV / AIDS
C malaria
D tuberculosis

36 An antibiotic inhibits the formation of cross-links between the molecules that form cell walls in
bacteria.

Which statements explain why bacteria are killed by the antibiotic?

1 The bacterial cell is destroyed by osmotic lysis.

2 Cellulose molecules cannot form hydrogen bonds.
3 The cell wall is no longer partially permeable.

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 only D 2 only

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37 Scientists investigated the effect of increasing concentrations of an antibiotic on the development

of antibiotic resistance in bacteria.

The scientists grew four groups of bacteria and added a different concentration of antibiotic to
each group. The number of resistant bacteria and the total population of bacteria were measured
at intervals for 24 hours for each group.

The graphs show the results.

antibiotic concentration = 0 mg dm–3 antibiotic concentration = 90 mg dm–3

10 10
9 9
8 8
7 7
population 6 population 6
of bacteria 5 of bacteria 5
× 106 4 × 106 4
3 3
2 2
1 1
0 0
0 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24 0 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24
time / hours time / hours

antibiotic concentration = 215 mg dm–3 antibiotic concentration = 600 mg dm–3

10 10
9 9
8 8
7 7
population 6 population 6
of bacteria 5 of bacteria 5
× 106 4 × 106 4
3 3
2 2
1 1
0 0
0 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24 0 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24
time / hours time / hours
key
total population
resistant population

Which statements are correct conclusions that can be made from the results of this investigation?

1 Increasing the concentration of antibiotic decreases the population of non-resistant

bacteria at the end of 24 hours.
2 The proportion of antibiotic-resistant bacteria increases with increasing
concentrations of antibiotics.
3 Increasing the concentration of antibiotic always increases the number of resistant
bacteria.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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38 What is the correct sequence of events in a primary immune response?

A T-lymphocyte activation  B-lymphocyte selection  plasma cell release

B antigen presentation by macrophages  cytokines released by T-helper cells 

B-lymphocyte differentiation

C antigen presentation by neutrophils  T-memory cell activation  B-lymphocyte selection

D T-memory cell activation  B-memory cell activation  antibody production

39 Which statement about the properties of the antigen-binding sites in different antibody molecules
is correct?

A They are located on the light chains only.

B They have a hinge region to give flexibility for different antigens.
C They have binding sites for receptors on phagocytes.
D They have variable amino acid sequences for different antigens.

40 The diagram shows a stage in monoclonal antibody production.

X + cancer cells

hybridoma cells

What is represented by X?

A T-lymphocytes
B B-lymphocytes
C antigens
D antibodies

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
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publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2024 9700/12/M/J/24

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2024
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*1518005877*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB24 06_9700_13/2RP
© UCLES 2024 [Turn over
 2

1 An eyepiece graticule can be calibrated using a stage micrometer.

What is the correct reason why an eyepiece graticule is calibrated?

A An eyepiece graticule can be used to make measurements.

B An eyepiece graticule is magnified by the objective lens.
C An eyepiece graticule magnifies the specimen.
D An eyepiece graticule makes comparisons.

2 The image is an electron micrograph of a typical eukaryotic cell.

What can be concluded about the eukaryotic cell from the electron micrograph?

A It is an animal cell because it does not have a cell wall.

B It is an animal cell because it contains a permanent vacuole.
C It is a plant cell because it contains many chloroplasts.
D It is a plant cell because it contains many lysosomes.

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3 Which features are found in typical eukaryotes and also in typical bacteria?

can respire

A C
B
messenger RNA
binds to 80S contain
D
ribosomes circular DNA

4 Which type of cell will have the highest proportion of its volume taken up with cell structures
bound by a single membrane?

A ciliated epithelial cell

B goblet cell
C red blood cell
D companion cell

5 What causes the phosphate heads of phospholipids to become polar?

A The phosphate heads are joined to water molecules by hydrogen bonds.

B The phosphate heads are insoluble in water.
C The phosphate heads become ionised in water.
D The phosphate heads are joined to water molecules by covalent bonds.

6 Which statements describe features of cellulose that adapt it for its function in plant cells?

1 Three cellulose molecules coil around each other to form a triple helix structure.
2 Many hydrogen bonds form between adjacent cellulose molecules.
3 Covalent bonds form between adjacent cellulose molecules.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 only

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 4

7 Which structure shows -glucose?

A B

CH2OH CH2OH

C O C O
H OH H H
H H
C C C C
OH H OH H
HO H HO OH
C C C C

H OH H OH

C D

H CH2OH

C O C O
H CH2OH HO OH
H H
C C C C
H H OH H
HO OH H H
C C C C

OH OH H OH

8 What cannot occur as a result of a condensation reaction?

A breaking of a glycosidic bond

B formation of a disaccharide
C joining together of two amino acids
D production of a molecule of water

9 Which fact about the quaternary structure of proteins is correct?

A consists of four polypeptides

B depends on the presence of metal ions
C depends on the primary structure of the polypeptides

D is made of  and  polypeptides

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10 The diagram shows different molecules in a solution.

P
Q

R
S

Which statement could explain what happens when some of the molecules are mixed together?

A Molecule P forms an enzyme–substrate complex with the non-competitive inhibitor

molecule Q.
B Molecule Q binds to molecule P, increasing the activation energy.
C Molecules R and S bind to the active site of molecule P.
D Molecules S and R are the products of the breakdown of molecule P.

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11 The effect of substrate concentration on an enzyme-catalysed reaction was measured in three

different conditions:

● without an inhibitor

● with a competitive inhibitor

● with a non-competitive inhibitor.

The graph shows the results.

1
2
rate of
reaction
3

substrate concentration

Which row is correct?

with a with a
without an
competitive non-competitive
inhibitor
inhibitor inhibitor

A 1 2 3
B 1 3 2
C 3 1 2
D 3 2 1

12 Which aspect of enzyme activity can be compared by the Michaelis–Menten constant?

A activation energy of a reaction with or without an enzyme

B affinity of different enzymes for their substrates
C affinity of an enzyme at different substrate concentrations
D maximum rate of reaction (Vmax) at different temperatures

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13 The number of substrate molecules one enzyme molecule can convert to product in a second is
called the turnover number. This number is obtained when all conditions are optimum for the
specific enzyme-catalysed reaction.

turnover number
enzyme
/ s–1

catalase 2 800 000

carbonic anhydrase 600 000
phosphatase 971
protease 100

How many times faster at converting substrate to product is catalase compared to phosphatase?

A 29 B 288 C 2884 D 28 836

14 A red indicator solution was mixed with agar, and the resulting solid was cut into small cuboid
blocks. The blocks were placed in an acid which turns the indicator yellow, and all other variables
were kept constant. The dimensions of the three blocks used are shown.

block 1 3 mm  3 mm  3 mm

block 2 8 mm  8 mm  8 mm

block 3 11 mm  11 mm  11 mm

Which row shows the correct surface area (SA) to volume (V) ratio for each block, and the time
taken for the block to turn yellow?

block 1 block 2 block 3

SA to V time to turn SA to V time to turn SA to V time to turn
ratio yellow / mins ratio yellow / mins ratio yellow / mins

A 0.5 : 1.0 4 1.33 : 1.0 11 1.83 : 1.0 13

B 0.5 : 1.0 13 1.33 : 1.0 11 1.83 : 1.0 4
C 2.0 : 1.0 4 0.75 : 1.0 11 0.55 : 1.0 13
D 2.0 : 1.0 13 0.75 : 1.0 11 0.55 : 1.0 4

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15 The statements describe some events in the process of exocytosis of glycoprotein molecules.

1 Membrane of the Golgi body folds around glycoprotein molecules.

2 Vesicle binds to and fuses with the cell surface membrane.
3 Vesicle attached to microtubules moves through the cytoplasm.
4 Secretory vesicle forms.

What is the correct order of events for exocytosis?

A 1423

B 1432

C 2314

D 4132

16 Four cylinders that were identical in size, A, B, C and D, were cut from potatoes that had been
stored for different lengths of time.

The cylinders were weighed, immersed in 10% salt solution for 45 minutes and then reweighed.

The percentage change in mass was then calculated.

Which cylinder had a water potential similar to the 10% salt solution?

percentage
change in mass

A –7.2
B –2.5
C –0.9
D +3.4

17 The contents of a daughter cell are compared to the parent cell after one cell cycle.

Which row is correct?

number of volume of length of

chromosomes cytoplasm telomeres

A increases remains the same decreases

B increases decreases remains the same
C remains the same remains the same remains the same
D remains the same decreases decreases

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18 A high-power photomicrograph shows a cell in a stage of mitosis.

The chromosomes are visible and lined up along the cell equator but there is no nuclear
envelope.

Which stage of mitosis is shown by the photomicrograph?

A prophase
B metaphase
C anaphase
D telophase

19 Which statements about the cell cycle are correct?

1 The cell cycle includes interphase and mitosis.

2 DNA replication takes place in interphase.
3 A cell can remain in interphase for several months.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

20 A scientist stains the chromosomes of a plant cell with a fluorescent dye to observe the
telomeres.

This cell has 38 chromosomes.

How many telomeres will the scientist observe in one of the nuclei during telophase of mitosis?

A 38 B 76 C 114 D 152

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21 During the semi-conservative replication of DNA, the double helix is unwound by an enzyme.

Which diagram shows how the strands are copied?

A B

3′ 5′ 3′ 5′

5′ 5′
DNA 3′ DNA 3′
polymerase polymerase

lagging leading
strand strand
DNA DNA
ligase 3′ ligase 3′
5′ 3′ 5′ 5′ 3′ 5′
leading strand lagging strand

C D

5′ 3′ 5′ 3′

3′ 3′
DNA 5′ DNA 5′
polymerase polymerase

lagging leading
strand strand
DNA DNA
ligase 5′ ligase 5′
3′ 5′ 3′ 3′ 5′ 3′
leading strand lagging strand

© UCLES 2024 9700/13/M/J/24

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22 A transcription error results in the deletion of one nucleotide from the middle of a primary
transcript. mRNA forms from the primary transcript.

Which statement describes one possible effect of this deletion on the protein translated from this
mRNA?

A The protein will be unchanged as the same amino acids can be coded by another codon
formed by the deletion.
B The tertiary structure of the protein is not affected as only one amino acid has been changed
by the deletion.
C Only one amino acid has been changed by the deletion but this changes the quaternary
structure of the protein.
D The sequence of amino acids in the protein will be different as all the codons from the
deletion onwards are changed.

23 Which statements correctly describe the process of translation?

1 The nucleotide sequence on an mRNA molecule is used to produce a specific

amino acid chain.
2 A section of DNA is copied into an mRNA molecule by RNA polymerase.
3 A polypeptide is produced because anticodons on tRNA molecules attach to mRNA
codons through peptide bonds.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 2 and 3

24 A molecule of mRNA was used in translation. Part of its sequence is shown.

GAU CUG UAA CGG

There were no introns present in the section of DNA that was transcribed to make this mRNA.

What is the sequence of the non-transcribed DNA strand for this section?

A CTA GAC ATT GCC

B CUA GAC AUU GCC
C GAT CTG TAA CGG
D GAU CUG UAA CGG

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25 Which properties of water are dependent on hydrogen bonding between water molecules?

high latent heat solvent high specific

cohesion
of vaporisation action heat capacity

A     key
B      = dependent
C      = not dependent
D    

26 Which substances in xylem tissue are impermeable to water and prevent the collapse of the
vessels?

impermeable to water prevent collapse

A cellulose cellulose only

B cellulose lignin only
C lignin cellulose only
D lignin cellulose and lignin

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27 The electron micrograph shows a longitudinal section through phloem tissue.

Which student’s drawing of a sieve tube element is correctly drawn and labelled?

A B

mitochondrion
cell
wall

sieve sieve
plate plate

C D

cell cell
wall wall

cytoplasm cytoplasm

sieve
sieve plate
plate
mitochondrion

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28 Carrier proteins in the cell surface membranes of companion cells are involved in the transfer of
assimilates to phloem sieve tubes. The diagram represents the use of two types of carrier protein
in this process.

key
X
X X X Y
X X pump

X Y companion
X X cell cytoplasm cotransporter
cell surface
membrane

What are the substances labelled X and Y?

X Y

A H+ ions sucrose
B H+ ions glucose
C sucrose H+ ions
D glucose H+ ions

29 The diagram shows pressure changes during two cardiac cycles.

Which arrow indicates atrial systole?

20
D

pressure
10
/ kPa

B
C

0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4

time / s

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30 An irregular heartbeat may be the result of ineffective electrical stimulation of the atria.

Which area of the heart could be damaged, causing this irregular heartbeat?

A atrioventricular node
B septum
C Purkyne tissue
D sinoatrial node

31 The diagram shows the effect of three different concentrations of carbon dioxide on the oxygen
dissociation curve for human haemoglobin.

100

X X = partial pressure of
Y carbon dioxide: 3.0 kPa
percentage
saturation of Z Y = partial pressure of
haemoglobin carbon dioxide: 5.0 kPa
with oxygen Z = partial pressure of
carbon dioxide: 7.0 kPa

0
0 12
partial pressure of oxygen / kPa

Which effect does increasing carbon dioxide concentration have on haemoglobin?

A It makes haemoglobin less efficient at taking up oxygen and less efficient at releasing
oxygen.
B It makes haemoglobin less efficient at taking up oxygen and more efficient at releasing
oxygen.
C It makes haemoglobin more efficient at taking up oxygen and less efficient at releasing
oxygen.
D It makes haemoglobin more efficient at taking up oxygen and more efficient at releasing
oxygen.

32 Which reactions will be taking place in blood in a capillary that is next to an alveolus?

1 Hb + 4O2  HbO8 key

2 H2O + CO2  H2CO3 Hb = haemoglobin

3 H2CO3  H+ + HCO3–

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

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 16

33 Which structure of the gas exchange system always contains cartilage?

A alveoli
B bronchiole
C capillary
D bronchus

34 Exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen occurs between air in the alveoli and blood in the
capillaries of the lung.

Which partial pressures of the gases will allow gaseous exchange to occur?

CO2 in O2 in
CO2 in blood O2 in blood
alveolar air alveolar air
/ kPa / kPa
/ kPa / kPa

A 5.3 6.0 13.3 13.9

B 5.3 6.0 13.9 5.3
C 6.0 5.3 13.9 5.3
D 6.0 5.3 13.3 13.9

35 The plan diagram shows a cross-section of a trachea.

Which labelled tissue prevents the trachea from collapsing?

A C

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36 Which layers of cells does an oxygen molecule diffuse through when moving from an alveolus
into an alveolar capillary?

alveolus alveolar capillary

A squamous epithelium squamous epithelium

B endothelium squamous epithelium
C squamous epithelium endothelium
D endothelium endothelium

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 18

37 Bacteria may be classified according to differences in cell wall structure. The differences are
shown by using the Gram stain.

The diagram shows part of a Gram-positive bacterium and part of a Gram-negative bacterium,
drawn to the same scale.

external environment

peptidoglycan layer
Gram-positive
bacterium
periplasm (watery fluid
containing proteins)

cell surface membrane

cytoplasm

external environment

outer membrane made of

carbohydrate and lipid
Gram-negative periplasm
bacterium
peptidoglycan layer
periplasm
cell surface membrane
cytoplasm

The antibiotic penicillin kills bacteria by inhibiting the synthesis of the cell walls during bacterial
cell growth.

Which type of bacteria will be killed by penicillin more easily and why?

A Gram-positive bacteria because the peptidoglycan layer is exposed to penicillin directly

B Gram-positive bacteria because it has a thinner layer surrounding the cell membrane overall
C Gram-negative bacteria because the thin peptidoglycan layer can be broken down faster
D Gram-negative bacteria because there is more periplasm available, which gives a weaker
structure

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38 Which facts relate to the disease TB or its pathogen?

1 Viruses change their antigens to a limited extent.

2 TB is caused by only one species of pathogen.
3 HIV / AIDS makes the bacterial infection worse.
4 The pathogen may be transmitted by ingestion.
5 The pathogen may be transmitted from animals.
6 Multi-drug resistance occurs.

A 1, 4, 5 and 6
B 1, 2 and 6
C 2, 3 and 5
D 3, 4, 5 and 6

39 The events listed occur during the primary immune response to a specific pathogen.

1 activation of B-lymphocyte to produce plasma cells and memory cells

2 phagocytosis of invading pathogens by macrophages
3 T-helper cell activation and production of T-killer cells
4 expression of antigens on phagocyte cell surface
5 production and release of antibodies

Which row identifies a correct sequence of events?

first last

A 5 1 2 4 3
B 2 4 3 1 5
C 4 2 1 5 3
D 4 2 3 1 5

40 Influenza is an infectious disease caused by a virus.

It is possible to have influenza more than once.

Which statements explain why it is possible to have influenza more than once?

1 The viral antigens change as a result of mutations.

2 The immune system may be weak and make few B-memory cells.
3 Untreated HIV infection has resulted in a low T-helper cell count.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

© UCLES 2024 9700/13/M/J/24

 20

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2024 9700/13/M/J/24