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Cambridge International AS & A Level
BIOLOGY 9700/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2020
1 hour
You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.
*2962952437*
You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet
Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)
INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.
IB20 03_9700_12/4RP
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1 The diagram shows an eyepiece graticule and cell viewed through a microscope. When the
eyepiece graticule was calibrated at this magnification, the whole length of the graticule shown
covered 12 divisions of a stage micrometer scale.
There were 100 divisions in 10 mm of the stage micrometer.
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
What is the actual length of the cell?
A 2.5 µm B 3.6 µm C 360 µm D 3 mm
2 Which cell structures can form vesicles?
cell structure
cell surface endoplasmic
Golgi body
membrane reticulum
A key
B = can form vesicles
C = cannot form vesicles
D
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3 The diagram shows three circles, 1, 3 and 5, representing chloroplasts, mitochondria and typical
prokaryotes.
circle 3
circle 1 circle 5
2 4
Which row correctly identifies the three circles and some of the structures that are shared
between them?
circle 1 2 circle 3 4 circle 5
A chloroplasts circular DNA mitochondria 80S ribosomes prokaryotes
B chloroplasts 80S ribosomes mitochondria circular DNA prokaryotes
C prokaryotes circular DNA mitochondria circular DNA chloroplasts
D prokaryotes 70S ribosomes chloroplasts 80S ribosomes mitochondria
4 Which cell structures contain RNA?
1 centrioles
2 mitochondria
3 nucleus
4 ribosomes
A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1 and 2 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only
5 It is possible for a bacterium to synthesise a eukaryotic protein.
This involves introducing a eukaryotic gene into the bacterial DNA. The eukaryotic gene is then
translated by the bacterium.
What explains why a bacterial cell can produce a eukaryotic protein but cannot produce a
eukaryotic glycoprotein?
A Bacteria do not have rough endoplasmic reticulum.
B Bacteria do not have a nuclear envelope.
C Bacteria do not have mitochondria.
D Bacteria do not have Golgi bodies.
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6 Which structures are found in typical prokaryotic cells and also in typical plant cells?
A cell walls
B histones
C telomeres
D tonoplasts
7 The molecule shown is a polymer of reducing sugars.
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
O O O O
OH OH OH OH
O O O
HO OH
OH OH OH OH
Which procedures could be carried out to show that this molecule is a polymer of reducing
sugars?
1 Add hydrolytic enzyme and then heat with Benedict’s solution.
2 Dissolve in water, neutralise and then heat with Benedict’s solution.
3 Boil with hydrochloric acid, neutralise and then heat with Benedict’s solution.
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
8 Which statement about biological molecules is correct?
A Amylopectin, amylose and cellulose are all polymers.
B Amylose, cellulose and glucose are all macromolecules.
C Cellulose, glucose and starch are all monomers.
D Sucrose, starch and amylopectin are all polysaccharides.
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9 Sugars with a ring structure can also have a linear structure.
C O
H C OH
HO C H
H C OH
H C OH
CH2OH
Which of these sugar molecules could be represented by the linear structure in the diagram?
1 glucose
2 ribose
3 sucrose
A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 1 only D 2 only
10 Which statements about phospholipids and triglycerides are correct?
1 They both contain ester bonds.
2 They both have three fatty acid chains per molecule.
3 They both may have saturated and unsaturated fatty acid chains.
4 They are both used only as storage molecules.
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 4 only
11 The diagrams show three examples of different bonds.
bond 1 bond 2 bond 3
O
NH O C C N CH2 S S CH2
Which bonds hold the secondary structure of proteins together?
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 only
D 2 and 3 only
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12 Hydrogen bonding explains many of the properties of water, including the high latent heat of
vapourisation and high specific heat capacity.
For which processes in plants is hydrogen bonding in water important on hot sunny days?
1 preventing denaturation of enzymes in leaves
2 reducing water loss by evaporation
3 allowing leaves to cool down quickly at night
4 holding the column of water in xylem vessels together
A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only
13 What is the most appropriate set of controls to use in an investigation into the rate of an
enzyme-catalysed reaction over a range of temperatures from 25 °C to 65 °C?
A enzyme and substrate at all temperatures tested
B enzyme and boiled substrate at all temperatures tested
C boiled enzyme only at all temperatures tested
D substrate only at all temperatures tested
14 An investigation is carried out with an enzyme at its optimum temperature and pH.
The rate of the enzyme reaction is measured at different substrate concentrations.
The investigation is repeated in the presence of a competitive inhibitor.
How will the results with the competitive inhibitor be different from the original results?
Km with competitive Vmax with competitive
inhibitor inhibitor
A higher lower
B higher the same
C the same lower
D the same the same
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15 Which description of cell surface membrane permeability is correct?
A An increase in the concentration of cholesterol molecules in the cell surface membrane can
increase its permeability to hydrophilic substances.
B Cell surface membrane permeability to large hydrophilic molecules is high and can be
increased by membrane transport proteins involved in facilitated diffusion.
C The permeability of the cell surface membrane to ions increases as the proportion of
saturated fatty acid chains in the phospholipids increases.
D Without the presence of carrier and channel membrane proteins, the cell surface membrane
has a low permeability to large polar molecules.
16 Which transport mechanism within a cell can occur in the absence of membranes?
A active transport
B diffusion
C facilitated diffusion
D osmosis
17 A student measured the time taken for complete diffusion of a dye into agar blocks of different
sizes.
The results are shown in the table.
size of agar block time for
/ mm × mm × mm diffusion / s
5×5×5 6.2
10 × 10 × 10 16.1
15 × 15 × 15 34.5
5 × 10 × 15
What is the predicted time for complete diffusion of the dye into the agar block measuring
5 mm × 10 mm × 15 mm?
A 6.2 s
B 16.1 s
C 34.5 s
D more than 34.5 s
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18 A plant cell with a water potential of –600 kPa was placed in a solution with a water potential of
–410 kPa for 10 minutes.
Which row is correct?
net movement water potential
effect on cell
of water of cell
A into cell becomes higher becomes turgid
B into cell becomes lower bursts
C out of cell becomes higher swells
D out of cell becomes lower becomes plasmolysed
19 Which cells contain telomeres that are longer than those in a helper T-lymphocyte secreting
cytokines?
1 bone marrow stem cells
2 mature red blood cells
3 activated memory B-lymphocytes
A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only
20 In which stage of the cell cycle are telomeres needed to prevent the loss of genes?
A prophase
B cytokinesis
C G1 phase
D S phase
21 Which row shows part of the correct sequence of mitosis?
A chromosomes nuclear
chromosomes spindle fibres
→ line up at the → envelope →
condense shorten
equator disappears
B chromosomes nuclear
spindle fibres chromosomes
line up at the → → → envelope
shorten condense
equator reappears
C chromosomes nuclear
spindle fibres chromosomes
line up at the → → envelope →
shorten uncoil
equator reappears
D nuclear chromosomes
chromosomes spindle fibres
→ envelope → → line up at the
uncoil shorten
disappears equator
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22 What is correct for cytosine?
joins to its
has a single ring
is a pyrimidine complementary base
structure
with 3 hydrogen bonds
A key
B = correct
C = incorrect
D
23 Scientists grew bacteria in a medium containing heavy nitrogen, 15N, as the only source of
nitrogen. After many generations, both strands of all of the bacterial DNA molecules contained
heavy nitrogen.
These bacteria were then moved from the heavy nitrogen medium into a medium with only light
nitrogen, 14N. The bacteria divided once to form the first generation and once more to form the
second generation.
A sample of bacteria was collected from the second generation and the DNA was analysed to
find:
● the percentage of DNA strands that contained only light nitrogen
● the percentage of DNA molecules that contained light nitrogen and heavy nitrogen.
Which row shows the results of this analysis?
percentage of DNA strands percentage of DNA molecules
that contained only light that contained light nitrogen
nitrogen and heavy nitrogen
A 50 25
B 50 50
C 75 25
D 75 50
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24 The table shows the tRNA anticodons for four amino acids.
amino acid tRNA anticodons
asparagine UUA, UUG
glutamic acid CUU, CUC
proline GGA, GGG, GGU, GGC
threonine UGA, UGG, UGU, UGC
A cell makes a polypeptide containing the amino acid sequence shown.
asparagine – threonine – proline – glutamic acid
Which sequence of bases on the transcribed strand of a DNA molecule could code for this part of
the polypeptide?
A AATACCCCTGAA
B AATACCCCTCAA
C TTACTTGGATGG
D TTATGGGGACTT
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25 The photomicrograph shows a section of a plant organ.
Students were asked to study the photomicrograph and identify the organ, giving a reason to
support their answer.
Which statement written by the students correctly identifies the organ and provides a correct
reason to support this identification?
A It is a leaf because the xylem is located on the inner side of each vascular bundle.
B It is a stem because there is a ring of endodermis visible around the edge of the vascular
tissue.
C It is a stem because the vascular bundles are arranged in a ring near the epidermis.
D It is a xerophytic leaf because there is a thick epidermis made up of many layers of cells.
26 What is correct about the apoplastic pathway and symplastic pathway in a root?
apoplastic pathway symplastic pathway
A Casparian strip blocks water moves across the
the movement of water root through cell walls
B water moves across the water moves from cell to
root through cell walls cell via the plasmodesmata
C water moves from cell to water passes through
cell via the plasmodesmata the cytoplasm
D water passes through Casparian strip blocks
the cytoplasm the movement of water
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27 Sucrose moves into a phloem sieve tube element from a leaf mesophyll cell.
Which changes to the water potential and the volume of solution in the phloem sieve tube
element are correct?
water potential volume of
becomes solution
A higher decreases
B higher increases
C lower decreases
D lower increases
28 The photomicrograph shows three white blood cells labelled X, Y and Z.
Y
Z
Which row correctly identifies these cells?
cell X cell Y cell Z
A lymphocyte monocyte neutrophil
B lymphocyte neutrophil monocyte
C monocyte neutrophil lymphocyte
D neutrophil monocyte lymphocyte
29 Which row correctly identifies the locations in which a type of molecule or cell is present?
tissue
type of molecule or cell blood lymph
fluid
A antibody key
B large plasma protein = present
C lymphocyte = not present
D phagocyte
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30 The graph shows the changes in pressure that occur in the left side of the heart during one
cardiac cycle.
key
pressure
left ventricle
aorta
left atrium
0
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8
time / s
At which time are the semi-lunar valves in the heart open?
A 0.1 s B 0.3 s C 0.5 s D 0.7 s
31 What would change the ratio of red blood cells to white blood cells in the blood of a healthy
human?
1 development of leukaemia
2 infection with Variola
3 living for six months at high altitude
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
32 The diagram represents three types of cell found in the human gas exchange system.
X Y Z
Which of these cell types could be affected when a person is exposed to tar in cigarette smoke?
A X, Y and Z B X and Z only C Y and Z only D Y only
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33 The photomicrograph shows part of the lung as seen using a light microscope.
Which row correctly identifies the features labelled 1, 2 and 3?
1 2 3
A alveolus capillary bronchiole
B alveolus bronchiole capillary
C bronchiole small artery alveolus
D small artery bronchiole alveolus
34 How many times must a molecule of oxygen pass through a cell surface membrane as it diffuses
from inside an alveolus, through a cell in the capillary wall, to bind to a molecule of haemoglobin?
A 3 B 4 C 5 D 10
35 A disease is an abnormal disruption to the functioning of an organism or part of an organism.
Which disruption to function is an example of an infectious disease?
A Airflow to one lung is disrupted by uncontrolled cell division forming a mass of cells.
B Airways become inflamed due to exposure to smoke.
C Oxygen transport is disrupted due to changes in protein shape in red blood cells.
D Lung tissue is disrupted by the multiplication of prokaryotic cells.
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36 The number of people at risk of contracting malaria has increased due to an increase in the
distribution of Anopheles mosquitoes.
What could be the cause of this increase in the distribution of Anopheles mosquitoes?
A antibiotic resistance
B drug resistance in Plasmodium
C no effective vaccine
D global warming
37 Which diseases are treated with antibiotics?
cholera
A B
D
TB measles
C
38 Which row correctly describes B-lymphocytes?
release antibodies
processed in
immediately after
the thymus
formation
A key
B = correct
C = incorrect
D
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39 Which features of monoclonal antibodies are important to their use in the treatment of cancer?
1 They can bind to tumour-associated antigens.
2 They can distinguish between different strains of pathogens.
3 They can deliver drugs to specific targets.
1 2 3
A key
B = is important
C = is not important
D
40 A student was asked to explain why vaccination has successfully eradicated smallpox but not
other diseases, such as measles, malaria and sickle cell anaemia. These are the statements
made by the student.
1 The antigens of the virus causing smallpox did not change, unlike the antigens of
the virus causing measles.
2 Sickle cell anaemia has many different types of mutation, unlike smallpox, so each
would require a vaccine.
3 Unlike smallpox, malaria involves animals as part of the transmission cycle and this
makes the cycle harder to break.
4 The vaccine against measles often causes a poor primary immune response so that
booster vaccines are required, unlike the vaccine against smallpox.
Which statements are possible explanations?
A 1, 3 and 4 B 1 and 2 C 1 and 4 only D 2 and 4
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