Advanced Computer Networks

Reference Book: 1. Peterson & Davie "computer Networks: A System Approach

Basics of Networking – MCQs

1. What is the main purpose of a computer network?

A. File compression
B. Hardware manufacturing
C. Resource sharing
D. Image processing
Answer: C. Resource sharing

2. Which of the following is a key characteristic of a packet-switched network?

A. Dedicated path
B. Constant delay
C. Store-and-forward mechanism
D. Fixed bandwidth allocation
Answer: C. Store-and-forward mechanism

3. The OSI model has how many layers?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: C. 7

4. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for routing?

A. Data Link
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application
Answer: B. Network

5. Which protocol is used at the Transport Layer in the TCP/IP model?

A. IP
B. HTTP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: C. TCP
6. In the TCP/IP model, which layer is responsible for logical addressing?
A. Application
B. Transport
C. Internet
D. Network Access
Answer: C. Internet

7. What is the default port number for HTTP?

A. 20
B. 21
C. 80
D. 443
Answer: C. 80

8. Which protocol provides error detection but not correction?

A. TCP
B. IP
C. UDP
D. Ethernet
Answer: D. Ethernet

9. A MAC address is associated with which OSI layer?

A. Network
B. Transport
C. Data Link
D. Physical
Answer: C. Data Link

10. Which topology connects each node to a central device?

A. Ring
B. Mesh
C. Star
D. Bus
Answer: C. Star

11. What is the purpose of ARP in a network?

A. Assign IP addresses
B. Convert MAC to IP
C. Convert IP to MAC
D. Encrypt data
Answer: C. Convert IP to MAC

12. Which device operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model?

A. Switch
B. Repeater
C. Router
D. Hub
Answer: C. Router

13. Which of the following is not a guided transmission medium?

A. Coaxial cable
B. Fiber optic
C. Twisted pair
D. Infrared
Answer: D. Infrared

14. Which type of communication allows data to travel in both directions, but only one
direction at a time?
A. Simplex
B. Half Duplex
C. Full Duplex
D. Broadcast
Answer: B. Half Duplex

15. What does DNS stand for?

A. Data Network System
B. Digital Network Service
C. Domain Name System
D. Dynamic Network Setup
Answer: C. Domain Name System

16. What is the role of the Transport Layer?

A. IP Addressing
B. Routing
C. Process-to-process delivery
D. Encryption
Answer: C. Process-to-process delivery
17. Which addressing scheme is used in the Network Layer?
A. Physical address
B. Logical address
C. Port number
D. URL
Answer: B. Logical address

18. Which protocol is connectionless and provides no guarantee of delivery?

A. TCP
B. FTP
C. UDP
D. SMTP
Answer: C. UDP

19. Which term refers to the time it takes for a data packet to travel from source to
destination?
A. Bandwidth
B. Jitter
C. Throughput
D. Latency
Answer: D. Latency

20. What is the main advantage of layering in network models?

A. Reduces hardware cost
B. Allows parallel processing
C. Increases transmission speed
D. Simplifies network design and troubleshooting
Answer: D. Simplifies network design and troubleshooting

✅ Applications – MCQs with Answers

1. Which protocol is primarily used to transfer web pages?

A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. HTTP
D. DNS
Answer: C. HTTP
2. Which protocol is used to send email from a client to a server?
A. POP3
B. IMAP
C. SMTP
D. HTTP
Answer: C. SMTP

3. Which application-layer protocol is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses?

A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. DNS
D. DHCP
Answer: C. DNS

4. Which of the following is a pull protocol?

A. SMTP
B. POP3
C. DNS
D. SNMP
Answer: B. POP3

5. The default port for HTTPS is:

A. 20
B. 80
C. 110
D. 443
Answer: D. 443

6. Which protocol allows users to access their mail on a remote server while keeping the
mail on the server?
A. POP3
B. SMTP
C. IMAP
D. FTP
Answer: C. IMAP

7. What is the primary purpose of the FTP protocol?

A. Email forwarding
B. Domain resolution
C. File transfer
D. Streaming video
Answer: C. File transfer

8. In the DNS hierarchy, which domain is at the top level?

A. Root
B. TLD
C. Hostname
D. Subdomain
Answer: A. Root

9. Which of the following is a URL component that specifies the resource location?
A. Domain
B. Path
C. Port
D. Protocol
Answer: B. Path

10. Which of the following is used for real-time communication over the Internet (e.g.,
video conferencing)?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. VoIP
D. IMAP
Answer: C. VoIP

11. Which layer initiates requests for web services?

A. Transport
B. Network
C. Application
D. Data Link
Answer: C. Application

12. What is the purpose of DHCP?

A. Transferring files
B. Assigning IP addresses
C. Encrypting data
D. Mapping domains
Answer: B. Assigning IP addresses
13. Which HTTP method is used to retrieve data from a server?
A. POST
B. PUT
C. GET
D. DELETE
Answer: C. GET

14. What does a web browser use to render a web page?

A. TCP/IP
B. HTML
C. DNS
D. SMTP
Answer: B. HTML

15. What is the purpose of cookies in web applications?

A. Secure the connection
B. Increase speed
C. Store client-side data
D. Transfer files
Answer: C. Store client-side data

16. Which protocol is often used for remote login?

A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. POP3
D. SMTP
Answer: B. Telnet

17. In DNS, what does a “CNAME” record do?

A. Associates domain with IP
B. Redirects a domain to another domain
C. Assigns TTL
D. Stores DNS query logs
Answer: B. Redirects a domain to another domain

18. Which protocol uses a three-way handshake for connection establishment?

A. UDP
B. FTP
C. TCP
D. HTTP
Answer: C. TCP

19. Which of the following can be used for sending and receiving files via email?
A. SMTP only
B. POP3 only
C. SMTP and POP3
D. HTTP
Answer: C. SMTP and POP3

20. Which service translates www.example.com to its corresponding IP address?

A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. DHCP
D. DNS
Answer: D. DNS

📘 Topic 1: Network Architecture – 20 MCQs with

Answers

1. What does network architecture define?

A. Physical layout of devices
B. Rules for formatting and transmitting data
C. Design principles and structure of network systems
D. IP address schemes
Answer: C. Design principles and structure of network systems

2. Which of the following is not a common network architecture model?

A. Client-Server
B. Peer-to-Peer
C. Ring
D. Hybrid
Answer: C. Ring

3. In a client-server architecture, the client is responsible for:

A. Serving data
B. Requesting services
C. Managing IP addressing
D. Routing packets
Answer: B. Requesting services

4. The internet architecture is based on which model?

A. OSI Model
B. TCP/IP Model
C. Hybrid Model
D. Token Ring
Answer: B. TCP/IP Model

5. The primary goal of layering in network architecture is:

A. Increase bandwidth
B. Ensure security
C. Simplify design and implementation
D. Reduce cost
Answer: C. Simplify design and implementation

6. Which of the following describes a service interface in layered architecture?

A. Physical connection between devices
B. Method of communication between layers
C. IP routing method
D. Firewall configuration
Answer: B. Method of communication between layers

7. Encapsulation in network architecture refers to:

A. Breaking data into fragments
B. Wrapping data with protocol-specific headers
C. Encrypting data
D. Applying a security certificate
Answer: B. Wrapping data with protocol-specific headers

8. Which architecture type distributes functionality among multiple peers?

A. Star
B. Client-Server
C. Peer-to-Peer
D. Bus
Answer: C. Peer-to-Peer
9. Which protocol suite supports layered communication architecture?
A. Ethernet
B. TCP/IP
C. SMTP
D. HTTP
Answer: B. TCP/IP

10. The OSI model was developed by:

A. IEEE
B. IETF
C. ISO
D. ITU
Answer: C. ISO

11. The main difference between Internet architecture and OSI model is:
A. Number of layers
B. Use of encryption
C. IP address format
D. Data transmission speed
Answer: A. Number of layers

12. Which layer in the OSI model corresponds to the Internet layer in TCP/IP?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Application
Answer: C. Network

13. Which of the following represents the bottom layer in the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Physical
C. Transport
D. Application
Answer: B. Physical

14. A key characteristic of modular architecture is:

A. Layer interdependence
B. Layer independence
C. Centralized routing
D. Network redundancy
Answer: B. Layer independence

15. Which of these does not typically belong to network architecture?

A. Layer design
B. Protocol interfaces
C. Voltage levels
D. Addressing schemes
Answer: C. Voltage levels

16. A layered architecture helps in:

A. Making networks slower
B. Tightly coupling functions
C. Isolating changes in one layer
D. Removing the need for protocols
Answer: C. Isolating changes in one layer

17. Which term defines how data flows across different layers in architecture?
A. Abstraction
B. Encapsulation
C. Protocol stack
D. Service model
Answer: D. Service model

18. Network transparency in architecture refers to:

A. Encryption
B. User-friendly addressing
C. Hiding complexity of underlying layers
D. High throughput
Answer: C. Hiding complexity of underlying layers

19. Application Layer interacts directly with:

A. Physical Layer
B. Transport Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Data Link Layer
Answer: B. Transport Layer
20. An end-to-end principle in network design implies:
A. All functions should be centralized
B. Only endpoints should handle functions like reliability
C. Routers manage all error checking
D. Transport layer is optional
Answer: B. Only endpoints should handle functions like reliability

📗 Topic 2: Network Software – 20 MCQs with Answers

1. What is the main purpose of network software?

A. Allocate power to routers
B. Physically connect cables
C. Manage data communication and protocols
D. Manufacture networking hardware
Answer: C. Manage data communication and protocols

2. A protocol in network software is defined as:

A. A physical cable
B. A type of software license
C. Rules for communication
D. Device driver
Answer: C. Rules for communication

3. Which of these is a network software protocol?

A. HDMI
B. TCP
C. SSD
D. USB
Answer: B. TCP

4. Socket programming is mostly used in:

A. Transport Layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Physical Layer
D. Application Layer
Answer: A. Transport Layer

5. Which system call is used to create a socket in network software?

A. fork()
B. create()
C. open()
D. socket()
Answer: D. socket()

6. What type of socket provides reliable communication?

A. Datagram
B. Raw
C. Stream
D. Pipe
Answer: C. Stream

7. Which protocol uses stream sockets?

A. UDP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: C. TCP

8. The role of a port number in network software is:

A. Identify a computer
B. Identify a router
C. Identify a specific process/service on a host
D. Specify physical location
Answer: C. Identify a specific process/service on a host

9. Which protocol provides connectionless communication?

A. TCP
B. FTP
C. UDP
D. Telnet
Answer: C. UDP

10. Which command-line tool is often used to test network connectivity?

A. telnet
B. ifconfig
C. ping
D. chmod
Answer: C. ping
11. Which of the following is not part of network software?
A. Routing protocol
B. Switch firmware
C. HTTP
D. NIC hardware
Answer: D. NIC hardware

12. API in network software refers to:

A. Application Programming Interface
B. Automatic Protocol Integration
C. Address Port Index
D. App Process Interface
Answer: A. Application Programming Interface

13. What does the bind() system call do in socket programming?

A. Accepts incoming data
B. Connects to a server
C. Assigns a local address to a socket
D. Terminates connection
Answer: C. Assigns a local address to a socket

14. In server-side socket programming, which call waits for client connections?
A. accept()
B. listen()
C. send()
D. open()
Answer: A. accept()

15. DNS software is responsible for:

A. Email routing
B. Assigning MAC addresses
C. Translating hostnames to IP addresses
D. Managing port numbers
Answer: C. Translating hostnames to IP addresses

16. Which of the following software layers is responsible for congestion control?
A. Application Layer
B. Transport Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Data Link Layer
Answer: B. Transport Layer

17. Which tool captures and analyzes network packets?

A. Wireshark
B. Notepad++
C. GCC
D. GNS3
Answer: A. Wireshark

18. A datagram socket supports which protocol?

A. TCP
B. UDP
C. HTTP
D. FTP
Answer: B. UDP

19. Which network software component translates IP addresses to MAC addresses?

A. TCP
B. DNS
C. ARP
D. ICMP
Answer: C. ARP

20. Software that routes packets between networks is called a:

A. Firewall
B. Router
C. Switch
D. Gateway
Answer: B. Router

📘 Topic 1: Hardware Building Blocks & Encoding – 20

MCQs with Answers
These cover physical layer fundamentals, including transmission media, signal encoding, and
related hardware.
✅ Hardware Building Blocks & Encoding

1. Which layer of the OSI model handles encoding and transmission of raw bits?
A. Data Link
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Physical
Answer: D. Physical

2. What is the purpose of a network interface card (NIC)?

A. Encode data for transmission
B. Translate IP addresses
C. Manage application-level protocols
D. Store data packets
Answer: A. Encode data for transmission

3. Which of the following is a guided transmission medium?

A. Microwave
B. Fiber optic
C. Infrared
D. Satellite
Answer: B. Fiber optic

4. Which device regenerates signals to extend network range?

A. Switch
B. Router
C. Repeater
D. Hub
Answer: C. Repeater

5. What is the function of modulation in data communication?

A. Error correction
B. Channel encoding
C. Signal conversion
D. Address translation
Answer: C. Signal conversion

6. In Non-Return-to-Zero (NRZ) encoding, a logical 1 is represented by:

A. High to low transition
B. Constant high voltage
C. Alternating signal
D. Pulse
Answer: B. Constant high voltage

7. What is a disadvantage of NRZ encoding?

A. High bandwidth requirement
B. Synchronization loss
C. Complex circuitry
D. Signal inversion
Answer: B. Synchronization loss

8. Which encoding scheme uses a transition in the middle of the bit period?
A. NRZ
B. Manchester
C. Binary
D. 4B/5B
Answer: B. Manchester

9. Which encoding improves clock synchronization by adding extra bits?

A. NRZ
B. RZ
C. 4B/5B
D. Base64
Answer: C. 4B/5B

10. The physical layer is responsible for:

A. Routing
B. Reliable delivery
C. Bit-level transmission
D. Port assignment
Answer: C. Bit-level transmission

11. Which hardware component is responsible for collision detection in Ethernet?

A. Switch
B. NIC
C. Router
D. Transceiver
Answer: B. NIC
12. A signal that varies continuously over time is called a:
A. Digital signal
B. Binary stream
C. Analog signal
D. Encoded pulse
Answer: C. Analog signal

13. What is the advantage of fiber optic cables over copper wires?
A. Higher resistance
B. Lower cost
C. Less attenuation and interference
D. Simple installation
Answer: C. Less attenuation and interference

14. Which transmission mode sends data one bit at a time?

A. Parallel
B. Serial
C. Duplex
D. Simplex
Answer: B. Serial

15. What does the term "bit rate" refer to?

A. Number of packets per second
B. Number of bits transmitted per second
C. Bandwidth size
D. Frequency modulation
Answer: B. Number of bits transmitted per second

16. Which encoding scheme guarantees a transition for every bit?

A. NRZ
B. RZ
C. Manchester
D. ASCII
Answer: C. Manchester

17. In terms of encoding, “DC balance” ensures:

A. High transmission speed
B. Equal number of 1s and 0s
C. No data loss
D. Error correction
Answer: B. Equal number of 1s and 0s

18. Voltage levels used in digital signaling represent:

A. Bandwidth
B. Bit duration
C. Binary values
D. Network latency
Answer: C. Binary values

19. What is the main problem solved by encoding techniques?

A. Address resolution
B. Routing efficiency
C. Clock synchronization
D. Congestion control
Answer: C. Clock synchronization

20. A digital signal is:

A. Continuous
B. Discrete
C. Analog
D. Wireless only
Answer: B. Discrete

📗 Topic 2: Framing – 20 MCQs with Answers

These questions focus on data link layer framing, byte count, bit stuffing, synchronization,
and error detection concepts.

✅ Framing

1. In data communication, a frame is:

A. A physical circuit
B. A network protocol
C. A packet with header and trailer
D. A wireless signal
Answer: C. A packet with header and trailer
2. Framing is primarily handled at which OSI layer?
A. Network
B. Transport
C. Data Link
D. Physical
Answer: C. Data Link

3. Which method of framing uses special characters to indicate frame boundaries?

A. Bit stuffing
B. Character count
C. Byte stuffing
D. Header compression
Answer: C. Byte stuffing

4. Bit stuffing helps to:

A. Compress the frame
B. Maintain clock synchronization
C. Differentiate frame content from delimiters
D. Increase frame size
Answer: C. Differentiate frame content from delimiters

5. In bit-oriented protocols, framing is achieved using:

A. Flag bytes and bit stuffing
B. Checksums
C. MAC addresses
D. Port numbers
Answer: A. Flag bytes and bit stuffing

6. The main issue with using character count for framing is:
A. CPU overhead
B. Complexity of implementation
C. Vulnerability to count field corruption
D. Large memory usage
Answer: C. Vulnerability to count field corruption

7. Which of the following is not a common framing method?

A. Bit stuffing
B. Character count
C. IP encapsulation
D. Byte stuffing
Answer: C. IP encapsulation

8. The HDLC protocol uses which framing technique?

A. Character counting
B. Bit stuffing with flags
C. Timeout-based framing
D. Length-prefixed headers
Answer: B. Bit stuffing with flags

9. A key function of framing is:

A. Encrypting data
B. Providing reliable delivery
C. Error detection and boundary identification
D. Managing DNS queries
Answer: C. Error detection and boundary identification

10. Byte stuffing uses a special escape byte to:

A. Compress frame
B. Identify destination
C. Insert address
D. Prevent confusion with control bytes
Answer: D. Prevent confusion with control bytes

11. Which field is typically included in the frame trailer?

A. Destination address
B. Port number
C. CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check)
D. Data payload
Answer: C. CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check)

12. A flag in framing refers to:

A. A type of error
B. A control frame
C. A pattern indicating frame start/end
D. A protocol name
Answer: C. A pattern indicating frame start/end
13. Which framing method is most resistant to framing errors?
A. Character count
B. Bit stuffing
C. Byte stuffing
D. Fixed-size framing
Answer: B. Bit stuffing

14. What does CRC help detect?

A. Routing loops
B. Frame boundaries
C. Bit-level errors
D. Synchronization loss
Answer: C. Bit-level errors

15. Framing allows the receiver to:

A. Route packets
B. Decode encryption
C. Recognize and extract complete data units
D. Compress frames
Answer: C. Recognize and extract complete data units

16. What happens when the receiver detects a corrupted frame?

A. It stores the frame
B. It forwards the frame
C. It discards the frame
D. It encrypts the frame
Answer: C. It discards the frame

17. Timeout-based framing assumes:

A. Constant data rate
B. Preamble presence
C. End of frame after idle time
D. Unique flag sequences
Answer: C. End of frame after idle time

18. In fixed-size framing, the boundary is determined by:

A. Header length field
B. Timing signals
C. Known constant length
D. Special flag sequence
Answer: C. Known constant length

19. What is the function of a frame header?

A. Store audio
B. Carry destination info and control flags
C. Contain only user data
D. Protect the trailer
Answer: B. Carry destination info and control flags

20. Which technique is used in byte-oriented protocols to avoid misinterpretation of control

bytes?
A. Padding
B. Encoding
C. Byte stuffing
D. Bit stuffing
Answer: C. Byte stuffing

📘 Topic 1: Error Detection – 20 MCQs with Answers

1. What is the main purpose of error detection?

A. Compress data
B. Detect corrupted data
C. Improve speed
D. Allocate bandwidth
Answer: B. Detect corrupted data

2. Which of the following is not an error detection technique?

A. Parity
B. CRC
C. Checksum
D. Encryption
Answer: D. Encryption

3. A parity bit is typically used to:

A. Correct errors
B. Detect single-bit errors
C. Increase throughput
D. Assign IP addresses
Answer: B. Detect single-bit errors

4. Even parity means:

A. Even number of 1s in data
B. Odd number of 1s
C. All bits are 0
D. First bit must be 0
Answer: A. Even number of 1s in data

5. Which of the following is more powerful for error detection?

A. Parity
B. LRC
C. CRC
D. VRC
Answer: C. CRC

6. CRC stands for:

A. Code Retry Count
B. Cyclic Redundancy Check
C. Checksum Relay Counter
D. Circular Rate Code
Answer: B. Cyclic Redundancy Check

7. A major benefit of CRC is:

A. Detects all errors
B. Detects burst errors effectively
C. Very low cost
D. Works only on wireless
Answer: B. Detects burst errors effectively

8. In checksum calculation, data is processed as:

A. ASCII characters
B. Integers
C. Binary strings
D. Hex values
Answer: B. Integers
9. The XOR operation is commonly used in:
A. Modulation
B. Parity and CRC
C. Addressing
D. Encryption
Answer: B. Parity and CRC

10. Which method is most suitable for detecting burst errors?

A. VRC
B. LRC
C. CRC
D. Parity
Answer: C. CRC

11. A limitation of parity check is:

A. Cannot detect any errors
B. Detects only even-numbered errors
C. Cannot detect even-bit errors
D. Requires 16-bit words
Answer: C. Cannot detect even-bit errors

12. What’s the role of a generator polynomial in CRC?

A. Determines parity
B. Defines error pattern
C. Helps divide data to calculate CRC bits
D. Compresses data
Answer: C. Helps divide data to calculate CRC bits

13. What happens if the receiver calculates a different CRC value?

A. It accepts the frame
B. It retransmits the frame
C. It discards the frame
D. It compresses the frame
Answer: C. It discards the frame

14. Which field in a frame contains error detection bits?

A. Header
B. Payload
C. Trailer
D. Preamble
Answer: C. Trailer

15. Which protocol uses checksum for error detection?

A. Ethernet
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. Both B and C
Answer: D. Both B and C

16. Burst errors are:

A. Single-bit errors
B. Multiple bits corrupted in sequence
C. Always correctable
D. Caused by DNS
Answer: B. Multiple bits corrupted in sequence

17. Error detection mechanisms are used at which layer?

A. Physical
B. Network
C. Data Link
D. Presentation
Answer: C. Data Link

18. Which of the following statements about CRC is true?

A. It's a type of encryption
B. It can fix errors
C. It uses polynomial division
D. It requires ACKs
Answer: C. It uses polynomial division

19. Checksum errors are common in:

A. Optical networks
B. Streaming media
C. IP packets
D. Secure VPNs
Answer: C. IP packets
20. Error detection techniques are typically used:
A. Before routing
B. After encryption
C. Before data is accepted by the upper layer
D. Only in LANs
Answer: C. Before data is accepted by the upper layer

📗 Topic 2: Reliable Transmission – 20 MCQs with

Answers

1. Reliable transmission ensures:

A. High speed
B. Low bandwidth
C. Correct and in-order data delivery
D. Network security
Answer: C. Correct and in-order data delivery

2. Which protocol provides reliable transmission in the TCP/IP suite?

A. UDP
B. TCP
C. IP
D. ARP
Answer: B. TCP

3. ACK stands for:

A. Automatic Keepalive
B. Acknowledge
C. Active Kernel
D. Access Key
Answer: B. Acknowledge

4. What is the purpose of sequence numbers in reliable protocols?

A. Identify the application
B. Authenticate sender
C. Detect loss and reorder data
D. Count errors
Answer: C. Detect loss and reorder data
5. A NAK (Negative Acknowledgment) is used to:
A. Resend ACK
B. Notify of successful delivery
C. Request retransmission
D. Set up encryption
Answer: C. Request retransmission

6. Which technique is used to avoid flooding the network with retransmissions?

A. CRC
B. Checksum
C. Flow control
D. Framing
Answer: C. Flow control

7. TCP uses which flow control mechanism?

A. Go-Back-N
B. Stop-and-Wait
C. Sliding Window
D. Checksum
Answer: C. Sliding Window

8. Stop-and-Wait ARQ has:

A. High throughput
B. One outstanding frame at a time
C. No ACKs
D. Simultaneous multiple frames
Answer: B. One outstanding frame at a time

9. Go-Back-N ARQ can:

A. Only send one frame
B. Acknowledge every alternate frame
C. Send multiple frames before ACK
D. Send frames without numbering
Answer: C. Send multiple frames before ACK

10. Which of the following can recover from packet loss?

A. IP
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. Ethernet
Answer: C. TCP

11. The sender resends a frame if:

A. Timeout occurs
B. Frame size exceeds MTU
C. Data is not encrypted
D. Link is idle
Answer: A. Timeout occurs

12. The maximum number of outstanding frames in Go-Back-N is:

A. 1
B. N
C. 2N
D. Infinite
Answer: B. N

13. Which ARQ protocol requires retransmission of only the erroneous frame?
A. Stop-and-Wait
B. Go-Back-N
C. Selective Repeat
D. TCP Fast Retransmit
Answer: C. Selective Repeat

14. Selective Repeat improves:

A. Error detection
B. Transmission speed
C. Bandwidth usage
D. Throughput in high-delay networks
Answer: D. Throughput in high-delay networks

15. The timeout mechanism is based on:

A. Frame size
B. Round Trip Time (RTT)
C. MAC address
D. Encryption strength
Answer: B. Round Trip Time (RTT)
16. Which protocol operates on top of IP and adds reliability?
A. HTTP
B. TCP
C. DNS
D. ARP
Answer: B. TCP

17. Which of the following does not ensure reliability?

A. Acknowledgment
B. Checksum
C. ARQ
D. DNS
Answer: D. DNS

18. TCP achieves reliability via:

A. DNS resolution
B. Header compression
C. Sliding window and retransmission
D. ICMP echo
Answer: C. Sliding window and retransmission

19. If ACK is not received in Stop-and-Wait, the sender will:

A. Terminate connection
B. Wait indefinitely
C. Resend the frame
D. Ask for a new IP
Answer: C. Resend the frame

20. Reliable transmission is critical for:

A. Video streaming
B. File transfers
C. VoIP
D. Broadcast TV
Answer: B. File transfers

📘 Topic 1: Ethernet – 20 MCQs with Answers

1. Ethernet operates mainly at which layers of the OSI model?
A. Network & Transport
B. Data Link & Physical
C. Application & Network
D. Transport & Session
Answer: B. Data Link & Physical

2. Which topology is most commonly associated with traditional Ethernet?

A. Ring
B. Mesh
C. Star
D. Bus
Answer: D. Bus

3. Modern Ethernet networks typically use which physical topology?

A. Mesh
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Tree
Answer: C. Star

4. What is the function of a MAC address in Ethernet?

A. Identifies the IP location
B. Assigns encryption keys
C. Uniquely identifies network interfaces
D. Routes traffic between subnets
Answer: C. Uniquely identifies network interfaces

5. Which media access control method is used in traditional Ethernet?

A. Token passing
B. ALOHA
C. CSMA/CD
D. FDMA
Answer: C. CSMA/CD

6. What does CSMA/CD stand for?

A. Carrier Service Management Architecture / Collision Domain
B. Code Secure Media Access / Collision Detection
C. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection
D. Common Sense Multiple Access / Controlled Data
Answer: C. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection

7. What is the standard frame size for Ethernet (without jumbo frames)?
A. 512 bytes
B. 1024 bytes
C. 1500 bytes
D. 64 bytes
Answer: C. 1500 bytes

8. What is the minimum Ethernet frame size?

A. 64 bytes
B. 128 bytes
C. 512 bytes
D. 46 bytes
Answer: A. 64 bytes

9. What happens if an Ethernet frame is smaller than the minimum size?

A. It is dropped by the switch
B. It is padded
C. It is fragmented
D. It is encrypted
Answer: B. It is padded

10. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

A. Store MAC addresses
B. Indicate start of frame
C. Encrypt the payload
D. Manage addressing
Answer: B. Indicate start of frame

11. A collision domain is:

A. A subnet
B. The area in which Ethernet collisions can occur
C. A backup server
D. A secure data zone
Answer: B. The area in which Ethernet collisions can occur
12. Full-duplex Ethernet eliminates:
A. Bandwidth limitations
B. CRC checking
C. Collisions
D. ARP requests
Answer: C. Collisions

13. The field used in Ethernet for error checking is:

A. MAC address
B. Payload
C. CRC (Frame Check Sequence)
D. TTL
Answer: C. CRC (Frame Check Sequence)

14. What does the Ethernet address FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF represent?

A. Broadcast address
B. Loopback
C. Multicast
D. Invalid frame
Answer: A. Broadcast address

15. What device connects multiple Ethernet devices and reduces collision domains?
A. Hub
B. Repeater
C. Switch
D. Router
Answer: C. Switch

16. Which IEEE standard defines Ethernet?

A. 802.5
B. 802.11
C. 802.3
D. 802.15
Answer: C. 802.3

17. What is the data rate of standard Fast Ethernet?

A. 10 Mbps
B. 100 Mbps
C. 1 Gbps
D. 10 Gbps
Answer: B. 100 Mbps

18. What is the interframe gap in Ethernet?

A. Delay before ARP
B. Time between consecutive frames
C. Buffer size
D. Collision window
Answer: B. Time between consecutive frames

19. What is the MAC address length in Ethernet?

A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 48 bits
Answer: D. 48 bits

20. Ethernet uses which access control technique in modern switched networks?
A. CSMA/CA
B. Polling
C. None (full-duplex)
D. Token passing
Answer: C. None (full-duplex)

📗 Topic 2: Token Ring – 20 MCQs with Answers

1. Token Ring networks use which access method?

A. CSMA/CD
B. Polling
C. Token passing
D. FDMA
Answer: C. Token passing

2. In Token Ring, the "token" is:

A. A special bit pattern used for access control
B. An error-detecting code
C. A broadcast message
D. A type of cable
Answer: A. A special bit pattern used for access control

3. The IEEE standard for Token Ring is:

A. 802.3
B. 802.5
C. 802.11
D. 802.15
Answer: B. 802.5

4. Token Ring networks use which topology?

A. Star
B. Bus
C. Ring (logical)
D. Mesh
Answer: C. Ring (logical)

5. In Token Ring, when can a station transmit data?

A. Anytime
B. After a collision
C. When it has the token
D. After a timer expires
Answer: C. When it has the token

6. What ensures no collisions in Token Ring?

A. CSMA/CD
B. Timers
C. Token passing
D. Switch buffering
Answer: C. Token passing

7. The maximum time a station can hold the token is determined by:
A. Priority setting
B. Token holding time
C. Packet size
D. Ring delay
Answer: B. Token holding time
8. In Token Ring, the frame is removed from the ring by:
A. Destination
B. Switch
C. Source
D. Hub
Answer: C. Source

9. Which of the following is not true about Token Ring?

A. Deterministic access
B. Collision-free
C. High delay in large rings
D. Uses CSMA/CD
Answer: D. Uses CSMA/CD

10. What happens if the token is lost?

A. Network shuts down
B. A new token is regenerated
C. All stations reset
D. Data is resent
Answer: B. A new token is regenerated

11. Token Ring frame includes:

A. Destination address
B. Source address
C. Token indicator
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above

12. Token Ring usually runs at what standard speeds?

A. 10 Mbps and 100 Mbps
B. 4 Mbps and 16 Mbps
C. 1 Gbps and 10 Gbps
D. 2 Mbps and 20 Mbps
Answer: B. 4 Mbps and 16 Mbps

13. Token Ring networks are more efficient under:

A. High load
B. Low load
C. Mobile networks
D. Broadcast traffic
Answer: A. High load

14. Which device acts as a central hub in a physical Token Ring network?
A. Switch
B. Router
C. MAU (Multistation Access Unit)
D. NIC
Answer: C. MAU (Multistation Access Unit)

15. Logical ring topology is achieved in Token Ring by:

A. Hubs
B. Cables
C. Token control
D. Software mapping
Answer: C. Token control

16. Token Ring uses which method for error detection?

A. CRC
B. Parity
C. Checksum
D. None
Answer: A. CRC

17. Priority levels in Token Ring are controlled by:

A. Token priority field
B. Source MAC
C. IP header
D. Switch
Answer: A. Token priority field

18. What happens if a station fails in a Token Ring network?

A. Ring breaks completely
B. MAU bypasses it
C. Token is corrupted
D. Frame loss occurs
Answer: B. MAU bypasses it
19. Token Ring allows deterministic access by:
A. Polling every node
B. Managing priority queues
C. Regulating access via the token
D. Scheduling based on MAC address
Answer: C. Regulating access via the token

20. Token Ring was largely replaced by Ethernet because:

A. Higher cost and complexity
B. No physical devices
C. Poor broadcast support
D. Lack of token integrity
Answer: A. Higher cost and complexity

Topic 1: Wireless Network Adapters – 20 MCQs with

Answers

1. What is the primary function of a wireless network adapter?

A. Encrypt network data
B. Connect devices to wired networks
C. Enable wireless communication with a network
D. Control bandwidth allocation
Answer: C. Enable wireless communication with a network

2. Wireless network adapters operate mainly at which OSI layers?

A. Physical & Data Link
B. Network & Transport
C. Session & Presentation
D. Application & Network
Answer: A. Physical & Data Link

3. What standard do most wireless adapters comply with?

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.5
D. IEEE 802.15
Answer: B. IEEE 802.11

4. A wireless adapter must be compatible with which device to connect to a network?

A. Switch
B. Access Point
C. Router
D. Server
Answer: B. Access Point

5. Which of the following is typically built into modern wireless network adapters?
A. Web browser
B. TCP/IP stack
C. Radio transceiver
D. ARP resolver
Answer: C. Radio transceiver

6. The MAC address in a wireless adapter is used for:

A. Encryption
B. Routing
C. Unique hardware identification
D. DNS resolution
Answer: C. Unique hardware identification

7. Wireless adapters convert:

A. Binary to analog signals
B. Radio signals to digital signals
C. Optical signals to binary
D. Voice to IP packets
Answer: B. Radio signals to digital signals

8. Which antenna types are often used in wireless adapters?

A. Satellite
B. Omnidirectional
C. Laser-based
D. Unidirectional
Answer: B. Omnidirectional

9. Which encryption protocol might a wireless adapter support for secure

communication?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. WPA2
D. NAT
Answer: C. WPA2
10. What happens if a wireless adapter does not support the access point's frequency
band?
A. Reduced speed
B. No connection
C. Lower encryption
D. Static IP required
Answer: B. No connection

11. Wireless adapters typically use which frequency bands?

A. 2.4 GHz & 5 GHz
B. 1 GHz & 3 GHz
C. 100 MHz & 400 MHz
D. 5 MHz & 10 MHz
Answer: A. 2.4 GHz & 5 GHz

12. Which protocol helps wireless adapters acquire IP addresses?

A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. ARP
D. SNMP
Answer: B. DHCP

13. Wireless adapters are configured in which mode to connect to a Wi-Fi router?
A. Infrastructure mode
B. Ad hoc mode
C. Bridge mode
D. Monitor mode
Answer: A. Infrastructure mode

14. What is ad hoc mode in wireless networking?

A. Connects directly to a server
B. Devices communicate without access points
C. Wired mode fallback
D. Authentication bypass
Answer: B. Devices communicate without access points

15. What does RSSI indicate in wireless adapters?

A. Signal strength
B. Packet delay
C. IP conflict
D. Channel interference
Answer: A. Signal strength

16. Which tool can help test wireless adapter performance?

A. Wireshark
B. Disk Cleanup
C. NetStat
D. Task Scheduler
Answer: A. Wireshark

17. Which of the following may interfere with wireless adapters?

A. Power supply
B. Microwave ovens
C. Ethernet cables
D. Hard drives
Answer: B. Microwave ovens

18. How do wireless adapters handle congestion on a shared channel?

A. Time division
B. CSMA/CA
C. Token passing
D. Polling
Answer: B. CSMA/CA

19. What is the role of the SSID for wireless adapters?

A. Security encryption key
B. Name of the wireless network
C. Signal modulation type
D. Device password
Answer: B. Name of the wireless network

20. Which address does a wireless adapter use to identify its access point?
A. IP address
B. Broadcast ID
C. MAC address
D. SSID
Answer: C. MAC address
📗 Topic 2: Packet Switching – 20 MCQs with Answers

1. What is packet switching?

A. Sending data in large continuous streams
B. Breaking data into packets for transmission
C. A method of wireless encryption
D. Assigning IP addresses dynamically
Answer: B. Breaking data into packets for transmission

2. Packet switching occurs at which OSI layer primarily?

A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Application
Answer: C. Network

3. Which protocol uses packet switching?

A. FTP
B. TCP/IP
C. Circuit switching
D. DNS
Answer: B. TCP/IP

4. What is a key advantage of packet switching?

A. Fixed bandwidth allocation
B. Low initial cost
C. Efficient use of bandwidth
D. Guaranteed delivery time
Answer: C. Efficient use of bandwidth

5. In packet-switched networks, each packet may:

A. Follow the same path
B. Take different paths to destination
C. Be broadcast to all nodes
D. Be encrypted by routers
Answer: B. Take different paths to destination
6. What information is included in each packet?
A. Physical path
B. Entire session data
C. Header with destination address
D. DNS records
Answer: C. Header with destination address

7. Which is not a type of packet switching?

A. Datagram
B. Virtual circuit
C. Message switching
D. Circuit switching
Answer: D. Circuit switching

8. Datagram packet switching is:

A. Connection-oriented
B. Connectionless
C. Requires setup before sending
D. Used only in LANs
Answer: B. Connectionless

9. Virtual circuit packet switching involves:

A. Random routing
B. Predefined path setup
C. Out-of-order delivery
D. No error control
Answer: B. Predefined path setup

10. What happens to packets if congestion occurs?

A. They are held indefinitely
B. They are dropped
C. They are merged
D. They are encrypted
Answer: B. They are dropped

11. Which type of switching is more efficient for bursty data traffic?
A. Circuit switching
B. Packet switching
C. Time division
D. Frequency division
Answer: B. Packet switching

12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of packet switching?

A. Efficient resource use
B. Higher latency than circuit switching
C. Real-time guarantee
D. Dynamic routing
Answer: C. Real-time guarantee

13. Which protocol is commonly associated with packet routing?

A. ARP
B. IP
C. DHCP
D. DNS
Answer: B. IP

14. Packet switching can cause:

A. Network segmentation
B. Packet reordering
C. Predictable delays
D. Fixed bandwidth
Answer: B. Packet reordering

15. In a packet-switched network, routing decisions are made by:

A. Client software
B. Switches
C. Routers
D. Firewalls
Answer: C. Routers

16. Which device is most important in packet-switched networks?

A. Hub
B. Router
C. Modem
D. Repeater
Answer: B. Router
17. If a packet arrives out of order, which layer is responsible for reordering it?
A. Data Link
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application
Answer: C. Transport

18. What ensures end-to-end reliability in a packet-switched network?

A. IP
B. TCP
C. Ethernet
D. HTTP
Answer: B. TCP

19. The primary disadvantage of packet switching is:

A. Wasted bandwidth
B. Complex routing
C. Guaranteed delay
D. Cost
Answer: B. Complex routing

20. Packet switching is ideal for:

A. Constant bit-rate traffic
B. Real-time video calls
C. Web browsing and emails
D. Traditional telephony
Answer: C. Web browsing and emails

Topic 1: Internetworking – 20 MCQs with Answers

1. Internetworking refers to:

A. Installing fiber cables
B. Connecting similar networks
C. Connecting multiple heterogeneous networks
D. Setting up firewalls
Answer: C. Connecting multiple heterogeneous networks
2. What device is essential for internetworking different networks?
A. Switch
B. Router
C. Hub
D. Modem
Answer: B. Router

3. The primary protocol for internetworking in the Internet is:

A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. ARP
Answer: C. IP

4. A datagram is:
A. A continuous data stream
B. A self-contained message with header and payload
C. A wireless broadcast
D. A virtual circuit
Answer: B. A self-contained message with header and payload

5. The main job of IP is to:

A. Ensure reliable transmission
B. Provide end-to-end security
C. Route packets across networks
D. Translate hostnames
Answer: C. Route packets across networks

6. IP is a:
A. Connection-oriented protocol
B. Connectionless protocol
C. Reliable protocol
D. Streaming protocol
Answer: B. Connectionless protocol

7. What is fragmentation in internetworking?

A. Splitting an IP address
B. Dividing a datagram into smaller packets
C. Encrypting payloads
D. Creating backup routes
Answer: B. Dividing a datagram into smaller packets

8. What does TTL stand for in IP headers?

A. Transmission Transfer Limit
B. Time To Live
C. Token Transmission Length
D. Traffic Timing Line
Answer: B. Time To Live

9. A subnet mask is used to:

A. Encrypt data
B. Identify network and host parts of an IP address
C. Route UDP packets
D. Detect collisions
Answer: B. Identify network and host parts of an IP address

10. What protocol is used to map IP addresses to MAC addresses?

A. DNS
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. TCP
Answer: B. ARP

11. Which protocol is used to send error messages and diagnostics?

A. UDP
B. ICMP
C. FTP
D. DHCP
Answer: B. ICMP

12. An IP address is composed of how many bits in IPv4?

A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 16 bits
Answer: A. 32 bits
13. The process of combining networks into one logical network is called:
A. Subnetting
B. Tunneling
C. Internetworking
D. Supernetting
Answer: C. Internetworking

14. What does MTU stand for?

A. Maximum Transport Unit
B. Maximum Transmission Unit
C. Multiple Transmission Usage
D. Medium Type Utilization
Answer: B. Maximum Transmission Unit

15. A router uses which of the following to forward packets?

A. MAC address
B. Port number
C. Routing table
D. IPX protocol
Answer: C. Routing table

16. Which of these is not a routing algorithm?

A. Distance vector
B. Link state
C. Flooding
D. DNS lookup
Answer: D. DNS lookup

17. Which version of IP provides 128-bit addresses?

A. IPv2
B. IPv4
C. IPv6
D. IPX
Answer: C. IPv6

18. Which protocol supports dynamic address assignment?

A. ARP
B. TCP
C. DHCP
D. FTP
Answer: C. DHCP

19. Tunneling is used to:

A. Encrypt traffic
B. Send IPv6 over IPv4 networks
C. Find MAC addresses
D. Filter traffic
Answer: B. Send IPv6 over IPv4 networks

20. Which protocol is used when one router needs to notify another about unreachable
networks?
A. UDP
B. ICMP
C. ARP
D. SMTP
Answer: B. ICMP

📗 Topic 2: End-to-End Protocols (UDP, TCP, RPC) – 20

MCQs with Answers

1. End-to-end protocols operate at which OSI layer?

A. Network
B. Transport
C. Session
D. Data Link
Answer: B. Transport

2. TCP is a:
A. Connectionless protocol
B. Connection-oriented protocol
C. Routing protocol
D. Link-layer protocol
Answer: B. Connection-oriented protocol

3. UDP is suitable for:

A. Reliable file transfer
B. Real-time applications
C. Secure email
D. Network routing
Answer: B. Real-time applications

4. What does TCP use to ensure reliable delivery?

A. Token passing
B. Retransmissions and acknowledgments
C. Broadcast messages
D. Checksum only
Answer: B. Retransmissions and acknowledgments

5. Which of the following does UDP not support?

A. Error detection
B. Connection setup
C. Port numbers
D. Multiplexing
Answer: B. Connection setup

6. Which field in a TCP header ensures in-order delivery?

A. Source port
B. Checksum
C. Sequence number
D. Window size
Answer: C. Sequence number

7. What is the typical use of RPC (Remote Procedure Call)?

A. Remote file access
B. Execute procedures on remote hosts
C. Stream video content
D. DNS resolution
Answer: B. Execute procedures on remote hosts

8. RPC is built on top of:

A. MAC layer
B. Transport layer protocols like TCP or UDP
C. IP only
D. ARP
Answer: B. Transport layer protocols like TCP or UDP
9. Which is not a common issue with RPC?
A. Message loss
B. Duplicate requests
C. Transparent execution
D. Secure encryption by default
Answer: D. Secure encryption by default

10. In TCP, flow control is managed by:

A. Port numbers
B. Checksum
C. Sliding window protocol
D. CRC
Answer: C. Sliding window protocol

11. Which protocol is faster but less reliable?

A. TCP
B. UDP
C. ICMP
D. FTP
Answer: B. UDP

12. Which protocol ensures congestion control?

A. UDP
B. TCP
C. IP
D. RPC
Answer: B. TCP

13. Port numbers in TCP/UDP headers are used for:

A. Routing
B. Host addressing
C. Multiplexing application data
D. Setting TTL
Answer: C. Multiplexing application data

14. Which of the following applications uses UDP?

A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. DNS
D. SSH
Answer: C. DNS

15. TCP guarantees:

A. No delay
B. Fixed bandwidth
C. Reliable and in-order delivery
D. Broadcast transmission
Answer: C. Reliable and in-order delivery

16. In RPC, the client:

A. Only sends raw data
B. Calls a procedure as if it were local
C. Uses DNS to resolve names
D. Directly manipulates server memory
Answer: B. Calls a procedure as if it were local

17. A major benefit of using RPC is:

A. Port blocking
B. Load balancing
C. Transparency in remote communication
D. Static routing
Answer: C. Transparency in remote communication

18. TCP uses the 3-way handshake for:

A. Connection establishment
B. Encryption
C. DNS resolution
D. Time synchronization
Answer: A. Connection establishment

19. Which protocol handles duplicate suppression?

A. UDP
B. TCP
C. IP
D. ARP
Answer: B. TCP
20. Which protocol is stateless?
A. TCP
B. RPC
C. UDP
D. FTP
Answer: C. UDP

📘 Topic 1: Congestion Control and Resource Allocation –

20 MCQs with Answers

1. What is network congestion?

A. When too many packets arrive at a router causing delay or loss
B. When there is an attack on the network
C. When network devices are powered off
D. When data is encrypted
Answer: A. When too many packets arrive at a router causing delay or loss

2. Which layer typically implements congestion control?

A. Physical
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application
Answer: C. Transport

3. Which algorithm is used by TCP for congestion control?

A. Slotted ALOHA
B. Exponential backoff
C. Slow start
D. Token passing
Answer: C. Slow start

4. What does the term "resource allocation" refer to in networking?

A. Assigning IP addresses
B. Assigning bandwidth and buffers to flows
C. Enabling encryption
D. Scheduling user requests
Answer: B. Assigning bandwidth and buffers to flows
5. Which of the following is a congestion avoidance technique?
A. Random Early Detection (RED)
B. Stop-and-wait
C. Sliding window
D. Static routing
Answer: A. Random Early Detection (RED)

6. TCP uses which mechanism to detect congestion?

A. Loss of ACK
B. High CPU usage
C. Router notification
D. DNS failure
Answer: A. Loss of ACK

7. What happens during TCP congestion avoidance phase?

A. Window size increases exponentially
B. Window size increases linearly
C. Window size stays constant
D. Window size decreases to zero
Answer: B. Window size increases linearly

8. Which method detects congestion by monitoring router queue lengths?

A. FIFO
B. RED
C. Token bucket
D. Stop-and-wait
Answer: B. RED

9. What is the purpose of the additive increase, multiplicative decrease (AIMD)

algorithm?
A. Allocate IP addresses
B. Control congestion window size in TCP
C. Assign MAC addresses
D. Encrypt data
Answer: B. Control congestion window size in TCP

10. Which of the following is NOT a resource allocation method?

A. Fixed allocation
B. Priority queuing
C. Flow control
D. Packet fragmentation
Answer: D. Packet fragmentation

11. In packet switching networks, congestion control is necessary because:

A. Links are very slow
B. Packets compete for limited buffer and bandwidth
C. All packets are broadcasted
D. Security is weak
Answer: B. Packets compete for limited buffer and bandwidth

12. Which of these is an example of implicit congestion notification?

A. Explicit Congestion Notification (ECN)
B. Packet loss detected by timeout
C. Router sends congestion message
D. User manually reduces data rate
Answer: B. Packet loss detected by timeout

13. Flow control differs from congestion control because:

A. Flow control manages sender-receiver rate, congestion control manages network load
B. Flow control is a network layer function
C. Congestion control only happens at physical layer
D. They are the same
Answer: A. Flow control manages sender-receiver rate, congestion control manages network
load

14. Which of the following is a drawback of using stop-and-wait protocol for congestion
control?
A. Requires buffering
B. Low throughput due to waiting for ACKs
C. Complex to implement
D. Requires encryption
Answer: B. Low throughput due to waiting for ACKs

15. What is the impact of congestion on network performance?

A. Higher throughput
B. Increased delay and packet loss
C. Reduced security
D. Lower jitter
Answer: B. Increased delay and packet loss
16. How does the token bucket algorithm help in resource allocation?
A. By providing a fixed amount of tokens representing bandwidth units
B. By encrypting data packets
C. By compressing packet size
D. By routing packets dynamically
Answer: A. By providing a fixed amount of tokens representing bandwidth units

17. Which queue discipline is considered fair in resource allocation?

A. FIFO
B. Round Robin
C. Priority queuing
D. Random early discard
Answer: B. Round Robin

18. What is the primary signal to the sender to slow down in TCP?
A. Duplicate ACKs
B. New connection request
C. Port closure
D. Packet fragmentation
Answer: A. Duplicate ACKs

19. Which of these is a proactive congestion control mechanism?

A. Packet retransmission
B. Random Early Detection (RED)
C. Timeout retransmission
D. Packet buffering
Answer: B. Random Early Detection (RED)

20. What is the main goal of congestion control algorithms?

A. To maximize packet loss
B. To maintain network stability and fairness
C. To reduce IP addressing
D. To slow network speed
Answer: B. To maintain network stability and fairness

📗 Topic 2: Data Compression – 20 MCQs with Answers

1. What is the primary goal of data compression?
A. To encrypt data
B. To reduce the size of data for storage or transmission
C. To increase redundancy
D. To detect errors
Answer: B. To reduce the size of data for storage or transmission

2. Lossless compression means:

A. Some data is lost permanently
B. Original data can be perfectly reconstructed
C. Data is compressed without using algorithms
D. Data is compressed with error correction
Answer: B. Original data can be perfectly reconstructed

3. Which of the following is a lossless compression algorithm?

A. JPEG
B. MP3
C. Huffman coding
D. MPEG
Answer: C. Huffman coding

4. Which is a lossy compression technique?

A. Run-length encoding
B. Huffman coding
C. JPEG
D. Lempel-Ziv-Welch (LZW)
Answer: C. JPEG

5. What does entropy in data compression refer to?

A. Amount of randomness or unpredictability in data
B. Size of compressed data
C. Compression ratio
D. Speed of compression
Answer: A. Amount of randomness or unpredictability in data

6. Run-Length Encoding (RLE) works best on:

A. Highly redundant data
B. Encrypted data
C. Random data
D. Audio files
Answer: A. Highly redundant data

7. What is a prefix code?

A. Code where no codeword is a prefix of any other codeword
B. Code used only in prefix networks
C. Compression of IP addresses
D. Code that compresses prefixes only
Answer: A. Code where no codeword is a prefix of any other codeword

8. Huffman coding produces:

A. Variable-length prefix codes
B. Fixed-length codes
C. Random codes
D. Error-correcting codes
Answer: A. Variable-length prefix codes

9. Lempel-Ziv-Welch (LZW) is a:
A. Lossy compression algorithm
B. Dictionary-based lossless compression algorithm
C. Encryption algorithm
D. Packet routing algorithm
Answer: B. Dictionary-based lossless compression algorithm

10. Which of the following improves compression ratio?

A. Adding redundancy
B. Removing redundancy
C. Increasing entropy
D. Fragmenting data
Answer: B. Removing redundancy

11. What is the output of a compression algorithm?

A. Original data
B. Compressed data and decompression instructions
C. Data packets
D. IP addresses
Answer: B. Compressed data and decompression instructions
12. Which of these is NOT a common data compression metric?
A. Compression ratio
B. Speed of compression
C. Error rate
D. Latency
Answer: C. Error rate

13. Lossy compression is commonly used in:

A. Text files
B. Images and audio
C. Executable files
D. Source code
Answer: B. Images and audio

14. The main drawback of lossy compression is:

A. Slower compression
B. Loss of original data fidelity
C. Larger output files
D. Complex decompression
Answer: B. Loss of original data fidelity

15. Which compression technique is adaptive and builds a dictionary on the fly?
A. Huffman coding
B. LZW
C. RLE
D. JPEG
Answer: B. LZW

16. Data compression can help reduce:

A. Network congestion
B. Security vulnerabilities
C. IP addressing conflicts
D. Power consumption
Answer: A. Network congestion

17. Which of the following is a step in most compression algorithms?

A. Encryption
B. Redundancy removal
C. IP address translation
D. Routing
Answer: B. Redundancy removal

18. In Huffman coding, symbols with higher frequency get:

A. Longer codes
B. Shorter codes
C. Random codes
D. Same length codes
Answer: B. Shorter codes

19. Compression increases:

A. Storage space
B. Data redundancy
C. Transmission efficiency
D. Processing time always
Answer: C. Transmission efficiency

20. Which compression algorithm is widely used in ZIP files?

A. JPEG
B. LZW
C. Huffman coding combined with LZ77 or LZ78
D. MP3
Answer: C. Huffman coding combined with LZ77 or LZ78

Topic 1: Network Security – 20 MCQs with Answers

1. What is the primary goal of network security?

A. Increase bandwidth
B. Protect data confidentiality, integrity, and availability
C. Reduce latency
D. Increase IP address space
Answer: B. Protect data confidentiality, integrity, and availability

2. Which of the following is an example of a passive attack?

A. Eavesdropping
B. Denial of Service
C. Man-in-the-middle attack
D. Virus infection
Answer: A. Eavesdropping

3. What does encryption provide?

A. Data compression
B. Data confidentiality
C. Data fragmentation
D. Error correction
Answer: B. Data confidentiality

4. A firewall typically operates at which layers of the OSI model?

A. Physical and Data Link
B. Network and Transport
C. Application and Presentation
D. Session and Transport
Answer: B. Network and Transport

5. What is a common method for authenticating users in network security?

A. Encryption only
B. Passwords and digital certificates
C. IP addressing
D. Routing protocols
Answer: B. Passwords and digital certificates

6. Which of the following attacks involves intercepting and altering communication

between two parties?
A. Replay attack
B. Man-in-the-middle attack
C. Phishing
D. Port scanning
Answer: B. Man-in-the-middle attack

7. What is a Digital Signature used for?

A. Encrypt data only
B. Verify message integrity and authenticity
C. Compress data
D. Route packets
Answer: B. Verify message integrity and authenticity
8. What protocol is widely used for secure communication over the Internet?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS (HTTP over SSL/TLS)
D. SMTP
Answer: C. HTTPS (HTTP over SSL/TLS)

9. Which of the following is NOT a type of firewall?

A. Packet-filtering firewall
B. Stateful inspection firewall
C. Proxy firewall
D. Router firewall
Answer: D. Router firewall

10. Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) are designed to:

A. Detect and alert on suspicious activity
B. Encrypt network traffic
C. Route packets efficiently
D. Manage IP addresses
Answer: A. Detect and alert on suspicious activity

11. What is the principle of least privilege?

A. Users have minimum access necessary to perform their jobs
B. Everyone has full access
C. No access is given to anyone
D. Access is granted randomly
Answer: A. Users have minimum access necessary to perform their jobs

12. Which attack involves flooding a network with traffic to make services unavailable?
A. Phishing
B. Denial of Service (DoS)
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. Eavesdropping
Answer: B. Denial of Service (DoS)

13. What is a VPN?

A. Virtual Private Network providing secure communication over a public network
B. Virus Protection Network
C. Very Private Node
D. Variable Packet Network
Answer: A. Virtual Private Network providing secure communication over a public network

14. Symmetric key cryptography uses:

A. Different keys for encryption and decryption
B. The same key for encryption and decryption
C. Public key only
D. No keys at all
Answer: B. The same key for encryption and decryption

15. Asymmetric key cryptography involves:

A. Single key for encryption and decryption
B. Two different but related keys (public and private)
C. No keys, just passwords
D. IP address encryption
Answer: B. Two different but related keys (public and private)

16. Which protocol is used for secure email transmission?

A. SMTP
B. IMAP
C. PGP (Pretty Good Privacy)
D. HTTP
Answer: C. PGP (Pretty Good Privacy)

17. What is phishing?

A. Scanning open ports on a network
B. Fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive information by masquerading as a trustworthy entity
C. Encrypting data illegally
D. Network congestion attack
Answer: B. Fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive information by masquerading as a
trustworthy entity

18. What is a honeypot in network security?

A. A router configuration tool
B. A decoy system to attract attackers and study their behavior
C. A firewall feature
D. Encryption protocol
Answer: B. A decoy system to attract attackers and study their behavior
19. SSL/TLS protocols primarily provide:
A. Routing and addressing
B. Encryption and secure communication over TCP/IP
C. Compression
D. Data fragmentation
Answer: B. Encryption and secure communication over TCP/IP

20. What is a zero-day vulnerability?

A. A vulnerability known and patched immediately
B. A previously unknown vulnerability exploited before a patch is available
C. A vulnerability in hardware only
D. A type of encryption
Answer: B. A previously unknown vulnerability exploited before a patch is available

📗 Topic 2: Applications (Name Service, Traditional

Applications, Multimedia Applications, Overlay
Networks), Network Monitoring and Management – 20
MCQs with Answers

1. What is the purpose of a name service in networking?

A. To assign IP addresses
B. To map human-readable names to IP addresses
C. To encrypt traffic
D. To monitor network usage
Answer: B. To map human-readable names to IP addresses

2. The Domain Name System (DNS) is an example of:

A. A name service
B. A routing protocol
C. A firewall
D. An intrusion detection system
Answer: A. A name service

3. Which of these is a traditional network application?

A. Email
B. Video conferencing
C. VoIP
D. Peer-to-peer file sharing
Answer: A. Email
4. Multimedia applications typically require:
A. High bandwidth and low latency
B. Large storage only
C. Encrypted traffic only
D. Slow transmission speeds
Answer: A. High bandwidth and low latency

5. Which protocol is commonly used for streaming multimedia content?

A. FTP
B. RTP (Real-time Transport Protocol)
C. SMTP
D. TCP
Answer: B. RTP (Real-time Transport Protocol)

6. What is an overlay network?

A. A network built on top of another network to provide additional services
B. A physical network cable
C. A subnet mask
D. A firewall configuration
Answer: A. A network built on top of another network to provide additional services

7. Which application uses overlay networks?

A. DNS
B. BitTorrent
C. SMTP
D. FTP
Answer: B. BitTorrent

8. Network management primarily involves:

A. Designing IP addressing schemes
B. Monitoring, controlling, and configuring network devices and performance
C. Encrypting data packets
D. Establishing VPN tunnels
Answer: B. Monitoring, controlling, and configuring network devices and performance

9. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used for:

A. Network security
B. Managing and monitoring network devices
C. Routing packets
D. Encrypting communications
Answer: B. Managing and monitoring network devices

10. What is a Management Information Base (MIB)?

A. A database used by SNMP for managing devices
B. A firewall configuration file
C. A type of router
D. A routing protocol
Answer: A. A database used by SNMP for managing devices

11. Which of the following is NOT a feature of network monitoring?

A. Detecting faults
B. Analyzing traffic patterns
C. Assigning IP addresses
D. Performance measurement
Answer: C. Assigning IP addresses

12. Traditional applications rely mostly on:

A. Reliable, connection-oriented protocols
B. Real-time streaming protocols
C. Broadcast services
D. Overlay networks
Answer: A. Reliable, connection-oriented protocols

13. The primary function of the FTP protocol is:

A. Email transfer
B. File transfer
C. Video streaming
D. DNS resolution
Answer: B. File transfer

14. Multimedia applications must handle:

A. Loss-tolerant data transmission
B. Data encryption only
C. Packet retransmission only
D. Static routing
Answer: A. Loss-tolerant data transmission
15. Overlay networks are useful because:
A. They replace the underlying network hardware
B. They can provide services not available in the underlying network
C. They reduce IP address size
D. They increase packet loss
Answer: B. They can provide services not available in the underlying network

16. Network monitoring tools help administrators:

A. Detect bottlenecks and failures
B. Encrypt user data
C. Assign domain names
D. Establish VPN connections
Answer: A. Detect bottlenecks and failures

17. What is the role of multicast in multimedia applications?

A. To send the same data to multiple receivers efficiently
B. To encrypt data
C. To compress video files
D. To route packets randomly
Answer: A. To send the same data to multiple receivers efficiently

18. Which traditional application uses SMTP?

A. Web browsing
B. Email sending
C. File transfer
D. Streaming video
Answer: B. Email sending

19. Which multimedia application protocol works with RTSP?

A. TCP
B. RTP
C. FTP
D. DHCP
Answer: B. RTP

20. What is the main function of the Network Time Protocol (NTP)?
A. Synchronize clocks across network devices
B. Assign IP addresses
C. Monitor traffic load
D. Encrypt data
Answer: A. Synchronize clocks across network devices