31-07-2025

1902CMD303021250017 MD

PHYSICS

1) An electron moving with velocity v along the +ve x-axis approaches a circular current carrying
loop as shown in the figure. The magnitude of magnetic force on electron at this instant is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

2) A loop carrying current i lies in the xy-plane as shown in the figure. The unit vector is coming
out of the plane of the paper. The magnetic moment of the current loop is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A thin circular wire carrying a current i has a magnetic moment M. The shape of the wire is
change to a sqaure and it carries the same current. It will have a magnetic moment :
(1) M

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A wire of length L is shaped into a circle and then folded as shown. Magnetic moment of the

frame when a current i is passed through it is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Electron is moving parallel to wire. What is force on electron ?

(1) μ0evi/4πd
(2) μ0evi/2πd
(3) μ0ev/4πd
(4) μ0evi/2d

6) A charged particle is projected in a magnetic field . The acceleration of the

particle is found to be . The value of x will be:

(1) 2
(2) −2
(3) 4
(4) −4

7) If a charge of mass m & charge Q is moving in region (i) with speed v0 as shown as uniform
magnetic field exists in region (ii), then which option is correct?

(1)
If ; then charge will enter (iii)

(2)
If ; then charge will come in (i) again

(3)
If ; then charge will not enter (iii)
(4) Both (b) and (c)

8) A particle of charge Q moving with kinetic energy K enters a zone of uniform magnetic field B

along normal to A1 B1 as shown satisfying the condition where v is the velocity of

the particle. What will be the angle of deflection in crossing the field at the centre of the curve
followed by the particle in the field, if K = QuBb? (b = radius of the circle in which the particle

rotates).

(1) π/4
(2) π/3
(3) π/6
(4) π/2

9) A wire PQ of mass 10g is at rest on two parallel metal rails. The separation between the rails is
4.9 cm. A magnetic field of 1T is applied perpendicular to the plane of the rails, directed downwards.
The resistance of the circuit is slowly decreased. When the resistance decreases to below 20Ω, the
wire PQ begins to slide on the rails. Calculate the coefficient of friction between the wire and the

rails.

(1) μ = 0.50
(2) μ = 0.25
(3) μ = 0.75
(4) None

10) The magnetic field existing in a region is given by, . A square loop of edge L
carrying a current i in anticlockwise direction is placed with its edges parallel to the X and Y-axes.
Find the net magnetic force experienced by the loop.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None

11) A conducting rod of length ℓ and mass m is moving down a smooth inclined plane of inclination θ
with constant velocity v. A current i is flowing in the conductor in a direction perpendicular to paper
inwards. A vertically upwards magnetic field exists in space. Then magnitude of magnetic field

is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) A straight rod of mass m and length L is suspended from the identical springs as shown in figure.

The spring is stretched a distance x due to weight of the wire. The

circuit has total resistance R. When the magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of paper inwards
is switched on, then springs are observed to extend further by the same distance. The magnetic field
strength is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A circular loop of radius a having current i is placed in a two-dimensional magnetic field. The
centre of the loop coincides with the centre of the field (figure). The strength of the magnetic field at

the periphery of the loop is B. Find the magnetic force on the wire.

(1) Вi(πa), downward

(2) Вi(πa), upward
(3) Bi(2πa), downward
(4) Вi(2πa), upward

14) A uniform current carrying ring of mass m and radius R is connected by a massless string as
shown. A uniform magnetic field B0 exist in the region to keep the ring in horizontal position, then

the current in the ring is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A square coil of edge L having n turns carries a current i. It is kept on a smooth horizontal plate.
A uniform magnetic field B exists in a direction parallel to an edge. The total mass of the coil is M.
What should be the minimum value of B for which the coil will start tipping over?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A conducting ring of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is placed on a smooth horizontal plane. The ring
carries a current i = 4A. A horizontal magnetic field B = 10T is switched on at time t = 0 as shown in

figure. The initial angular acceleration of the ring will be:

(1) 40π rad s−2

(2) 20π rad s−2
(3) 5π rad s−2
(4) 15π rad s−2

17) A square loop OABCO of side ℓ carries a current i. It is placed as shown in figure. The magnetic
moment of the loop will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) An insulating rod of length ℓ carries a charge q uniformly distributed on it. The rod is pivoted at
one of its ends and is rotated at a frequency ƒ about a fixed perpendicular axis. The magnetic
moment of the rod is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A conducting wire bent in the form of a parabola y2 = 2x carries a current i = 2 A as shown in
figure. This wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field tesla. The magnetic force on the wire

is (in newton) :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) A uniform magnetic field exists in region of space. A semicircular wire of radius 1
m carrying current 1 A having its centre at (2, 2, 0) is placed in xy-plane as shown in figure. The

force on semicircular wire will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A particle of specific charge projected from the origin towards positive x-axis with a
velocity of 10 m/s in a inform magentic field . The velocity of a particle after
time s will be (in m/s):

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A ring of radius 5 m is lying in the x-y plane and is carrying current of 1 A in anti-clockwise
sense. If a uniform magnetic field is switched on, then the co-ordinates of point about
which the loop will lift up is:

(1) (3, 4)
(2) (4, 3)
(3) (3, 0)
(4) (0, 3)

23) A current carrying rod AB is placed perpendicular to an infinitely long current carrying wire as
shown in the figure. The point at which the conductor should be hinged so that it will not rotate.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) Somewhere between A and C

24) Two charged particles 1 and 2 ( of masses m1 and m2; and charges Q1 and Q2 respectively)are
travelling in circular orbits with the same speed in a region of uniform and constant magnetic field
that is directed into the page, as shown. The magnitude of the charge on each particle is identical.
Then which option below is correct (neglect the interaction between charged particles):
 Mass Sign of Sign of
Option
(relationship) charge Q1 charge Q2

(a) m1 = m2 + −

(b) m1 > m2 − +

(c) m1 < m2 − +

(d) m1 > m2 + −
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Two charges +q and -q are attached to the two ends of a light rod of length L, as shown in
figure. The system is given a velocity perpendicular to magnetic field . The magnetic force on
the system of charges and magnitude of force on one charge by the rod, are respectively :

(1) zero, zero

(2) zero, qvB
(3) 2 qvB, 0
(4) 2 qvB, qvB
26) In the given diagram, time spent by charge q of mass m in region of uniform and perpendicular

magnetic field B will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A block of mass m & charge q is released on a long smooth inclined plane magnetic field B is
constant, uniform, horizontal and parallel to surface as shown. Find the time from start when block

loses contact with the surface.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

28) As shown in the figure, the uniform magnetic field between the two identical plates, is B. There
is hole in a plate. If through this hole a particle of charge q, mass m and energy E enter in the
magnetic field, then particle will not strike with the upper plate provided:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A proton, a deuteron and an α-particle with the same KE enter a region of uniform magnetic
field, moving at right angle to B. What is the ratio of the radii of their circular paths?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) A rigid circular loop of radius R and mass m lies in the x-y plane on a flat table and has a current
i flowing in it. At this particular place the earth's magnetic field is . The value of i, so
that the loop starts tilting is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a0 towards
West. When it is projected towards North with a speed v0, it moves with an initial acceleration 3a
towards West. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) In a region of space uniform electric field is present as and uniform magnetic field is
present as . An electron is released from rest at origin. Which of the following best
represents the path followed by electron after release :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
33) What is the net force on the rectangular coil?

(1) 25 x 10−7 N towards wire

(2) 25 × 10−7 N away from wire
(3) 35 10−7 N towards wire
(4) 35 10−7 N away from wire

34) The current flows in the wire from B to C in clockwise direction. The net force on ABCD :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) BiR

35) Figure shows an equilateral triangle ABC of side ℓ carrying currents, placed in uniform magnetic

field B. The magnitude of magnetic force on triangle is :-

(1) iℓB
(2) 2iℓB
(3) 3iℓB
(4) zero

36) In the figure a charged small sphere of mass m and the charge q starts sliding from rest on a
vertical fixed circular smooth track of radius R from the position A shown. There exist a uniform
magnetic field of B. Find the maximum force exerted by track on the sphere during its motion.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

37) Singly ionized helium (x), ionized deuteron (y), alpha particle (z) are projected into a uniform
magnetic field 30 x 10−4 tesla with velocities 105 m/s, 0.4 ×104 m/s and 2 × 103 m/s respectively. The
correct relation between the ratio of the angular momentum to the magnetic moment of the particles
is.

(1) x < y < z

(2) x > y > z
(3) x < z < y
(4) x > y = z

38) A particle of charge q and mass m enters in magnetic field from origin with velocity
. Then its radius and pitch are respectively.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Charge 'q' given to hollow sphere of conducting nature of radius is 'R' if it is rotated about
its geometrical axis with constant angular speed 'ω' then its magnetic moment is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

40) A conductor (shown in the figure) carrying constant current I is kept in the x-y plane in a
uniform magnetic field B. If F is the magnitude of the total magnetic force acting on the conductor,
then the incorrect statement is

(1) If is along , F ∝ (L + R)
(2) If is along , F = 0
(3) If is along , F ∝ (L + R)
(4) If is along , F = 0

41) Two particles of charges +Q and −Q are projected from the same point with a velocity v in a
region of uniform magnetic field B such that the velocity vector makes an angle θ with the magnetic
field. Their masses are M and 2M, respectively. Then, they will meet again for the first time at a
point whose distance from the point of projection is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) In a certain region static electric and magnetic fields exist. The magnetic field is given by

. If a test charge moving with a velocity experiences no

force in that region, then the electric field in the region, in SI units, is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
43) A particle of mass m and charge q has an initial velocity . If an electric field ,
and magnetic field act on the particle, its speed will double after a time:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A charged particle going around in a circle can be considered to be a current loop. A particle of
mass m carrying charge q is moving in a plane with speed v under the influence of magnetic field .

The magnetic moment of this moving particle :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Conductor ABC consist of two quarter circular path of radius R lies in X-Y plane and carries
current I as shown. A uniform magnetic field is switched on in the region that exert force
 on conductor ABC. can be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (B) and (C)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following on enolisation give aromatic compound?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) In which of the following pairs (I) has more enol content than (II)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

The acidity of the protons H in each of the following is :-

(i) (ii) (iii)

(1) i > ii > iii
(2) iii > ii > i
(3) i > iii > ii
(4) iii > i > ii

4) Which of the following is/are aromatic :-

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Only a
(2) b, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) All

5) Strongest base among the following is -

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

6) Which comparison is not correct as indicated?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Find the correct order of ka of following compounds.

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(V)

(1) I < II < III < IV < V

(2) IV < I < III < II < V
(3) III < II < I < IV < V
(4) II < I < III < IV < V

8) Assertion : The dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride.
Reason : In chlorobenzene due to +M effect of chlorine, C-Cl bond length and polarity of
bond both are reduced.

(1) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason correctly explain the assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason does not correctly explain the assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Reason is correct but assertion is incorrect.

9) Most stable carbocation among following is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Correct stability order of :-

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > I > II
(3) III > II > I
(4) II > I > III

11) Least basic compound among the following is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Order of Resonance Energy

(a) (b)
(c) (d)

(1) d > c > b > a

(2) b > a > c > d
(3) b > c > a > d
(4) c > a > b > d

13) Which of the following statements is correct for an electron having azimuthal quantum number ℓ
=2?

(1) The electron may be in the lowest energy shell

(2) the electron is in a spherical orbital

(3)
The electron must have spin
(4) The electron may have a magnetic quantum number = –1

14) The correct statement(s) is/are :

I. The shape of the orbitals is given by magnetic quantum number.
II. In an atom, all electrons have the same charge.
III. If the value of m = 0, the electron distribution is spherical.
IV. Orbital angular momentum of 1s, 2s, 3s electrons are equal.
Choose the correct option

(1) II and IV
(2) I and III
(3) I and II
(4) III and IV

15) Which of the following ion has magnetic moment 3.87 B.M. ?

(1) Ti3+
(2) Sc+
(3) Ti+
(4) Mn+5

16) Which of the following statements concerning the quantum numbers arc correct ?
(i) Angular momentum quantum number determines the three-dimensional shape of the orbital.
(ii) The principal quantum number determines the orientation and energy of the orbital.
(iii) Magnetic quantum number determines the size of the orbital.
(iv) Spin quantum number of an electron determines the orientation of the spin of electron relative
to the chosen axis.
The correct set of option is

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

17) If n and are respectively the principal and azimuthal quantum numbers, then the expression for
calculating the total number of electrons in any energy level is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) For n = 3 and l = 2, the number of maximum electrons in the orbital is :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 10

19) When the value of (n + ℓ) is not more than 3 which of the following subshells is not possible to
exist ?

(1) 2s
(2) 3s
(3) 3p
(4) 2p

20) Which of the following statements is not correct for an electron that has the quantum numbers n
= 4 and m = 2 :–

The electron may have the quantum number s = +

(1)

(2) The electron may have the quantum number l = 2.

(3) The electron may have the quantum number l = 3.
(4) The electron may have the quantum number l = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4.

21) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Total values of m in a shell (P) 0,1,2...(n–1)

 (B) Values of ℓ in a shell (Q) n – ℓ – 1

(C) Possible values of m in a subshell (R) +ℓ...+2,+1,0,–1,–2..–ℓ

(D) Number of radial nodes (S) n2

The correct relationship is :
(1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(2) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
(3) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
(4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S

22)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) The energies of orbitals of H-atom are in the order

(1) 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d < 4p

(2) 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s < 4p
(3) 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s = 4p
(4) 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s < 4p

24) In Niobium (Z = 41) the number of electrons with m = –1 will be :-

(1) 2 or 3
(2) 8 or 9
(3) 1 or 0
(4) 6 or 7

25) For n + ℓ = 4, Find total number electrons.

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 32

26) The correct order of acid character of the following compounds is :

(1) III > II > I > IV
(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) I > II > III > IV
(4) II > III > IV > I

27) The correct order of acid strength of the following carboxylic acids is -

(1) I > III > II > IV

(2) III > II > I > IV
(3) II > I > IV > III
(4) I > II > III > IV

28) Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of C–OH bond length :
methanol, phenol, p-ethoxyphenol

(1) phenol < methanol < p-ethoxyphenol

(2) phenol < p-ethoxyphenol < methanol
(3) methanol < p-ethoxyphenol < phenol
(4) methanol < phenol < p-ethoxyphenol

29) Which one of the following compounds possesses the most acidic hydrogen ?

(1)

(2) H3C–C≡C–H

(3)

(4)

30) Arrange the following amines in the decreasing order of basicity:

(1) I > II > III
(2) III > II > I
(3) I > III > II
(4) III > I > II

31) Which of the following carbocation will undergo favourable rearrangement ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32)
Arrange the (C–H) bonds x, y and z in decreasing order of their bond dissociation energies in
homolysis

(1) y > x > z > w

(2) z > x > w > y
(3) w > x > z > y
(4) y > z > w > x

33) Among the following which is more reactive toward AgNO3 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Among the following four aromatic compounds, which one will have the lowest melting point ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

35) In which of the following pairs, 1st is more stable than 2nd ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) The correct leaving group ability has been mentioned in the option

(1)

Θ Θ
(2) CF3SO3 > CCl3SO3
(3) IΘ < ΘCN
Θ Θ
(4) NH2 > OH
37)
Which Cl will eliminate with fastest rate in form of ClΘ to form AgCl ?

(1) Cl(c)
(2) Cl(b)
(3) Cl(a)
(4) Cl(d)

38) Arrange them in increasing bond dissociation energy of C–H bond:

(1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4

(2) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
(3) 4 > 1 > 3 > 2
(4) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4

39) Compare acidic strength

(i) CHCl3 (ii) CHF3 (iii) CH3–CH3

(1) i > ii > iii

(2) ii > i > iii
(3) iii > i > ii
(4) ii > iii > i
40)
The least stable canonical structure among these is :

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) all are equally stable

41) The increasing basicity order of the following compounds is :

(A) CH3CH2NH2 (B)

(C) (D)

(1) (D) < (C) < (A) < (B)

(2) (A) < (B) < (D) < (C)
(3) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D)
(4) (D) < (C) < (B) < (A)

42) The correct decreasing order for acid strength is :-

(1) NO2CH2COOH > NCCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > CICH2COOH

(2) FCH2COOH > NCCH2COOH > NO2CHCOOH > CICH2COOH
(3) NO2CH2COOH > FCH2COOH > CNCH2COOH > CICH2COOH
(4) CNCH2COOH > O2NCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > CICH2COOH

43) The increasing order of the pKb of the following compound is :

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

(1) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B)

(2) (B) < (D) < (A) < (C)
(3) (C) < (A) < (D) < (B)
(4) (B) < (D) < (C) < (A)

44) In which pair second ion is less stable than first ?

(I) (II) (III)

(1) (I) and (II)

(2) (II) and (III)
(3) only (II)
(4) only (III)

45) In which of the following, all C—O bonds are not of equal length ?

(1)

–
(2) CH3–COO
(3)
(4)

BIOLOGY

1)

The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix. This provides :-

(1) Antiparallel nature to DNA double helix

(2) Uniform length in all DNA
(3) Uniform width throughout DNA
(4) Additional stability to DNA

2)

Nucleosome is :-

(1) Intron interrupted DNA

(2) Double helix DNA
(3) Negatively charged DNA wrapped around positively charged histone octamer
(4) Satellite DNAs

3)

Choose the correct symbols :

RNA DNA DNA mRNA
Polypeptide

a = Replication, b = Transcription,
(1)
c = Translation, d = Transduction
a = Reverse transcription, b = Translation,
(2)
c = Transcription, d = Replication
a = Replication, b = Transformation,
(3)
c = Transcription, d = Translation
a = Reverse transcription, b = Replication,
(4)
c = Transcription, d = Translation

4)

Mendel's law of segregation in applicable to :-

(1) Dihybrid cross only

(2) Both dihybrid and monohybrid crosses
(3) Monohybrid cross only
(4) Dihybrid but not monohybrid cross

5) If there are 120 adenine molecules in a B-DNA double helical structure showing 20 coils, what is
the number of pyrimidine nucleotides forming three H-bond in it :-

(1) 80
(2) 100
(3) 120
(4) 140

6) DNA is a long, polymer of nucleotides. If in a d.s DNA, 4000 base pairs are found, then what will
be number of nucleotides, sugar molecules, phosphate molecules and ester bond ?

(1) 8000, 4000, 4000, 2

(2) 4000, 4000, 8000, 2
(3) 4000, 8000, 4000, 2
(4) 8000, 8000, 8000, 2

7) In the genome of bacteriophage lambda :-

(1) Glycosidic linkage and phosphodiester bonds are similar in number

(2) Glycosidic linkage are less than phospho diester bonds
(3) Deoxyribose sugar molecule and glycosidic linkage are simillar in number
(4) 48502 bases are present

8)

A : In Turner’s syndrome, females lack secondary sexual characters.

R : They have less number of autosomes than normal female.

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion,
(1)
then mark (1)
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion, then mark (2)
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (3)
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (4)

9) Two DNAs (A) and (B) are kept at high temp. DNA (A) requires high temp. for denaturation and
DNA (B) requires low temp. for denaturation. DNA (A) and (B) may be:-

(1) DNA (A) is prokaryotic, while DNA (B) is eukaryotic.

(2) (A) DNA is eukaryotic and DNA (B) is prokaryotic.
(3) DNA (A) and (B) both are prokaryotic.
(4) DNA (A) and (B) both are eukaryotic.

10) The number of nucleotide pairs in a complete pitch of z-DNA is :-

(1) 10
(2) 24
(3) 12
(4) 6

11) In a nucleotide H3PO4 binds to which carbon atom of pentose sugar :-

(1) Only Ist carbon

(2) Only 3rd carbon
(3) Only 5th carbon
(4) Both 3rd and 5th carbon

12) DNA packaging in eukaryotes is carried out with the help of histone. The unit of compaction is
nucleosome. Which option is correct about nucleosome ?
(1) Octamer of nucleosome consists of 2 copies of each H2A, H2B, H3 and H1
(2) In a typical nucleosome 200 bp are found
(3) Linker DNA is attached to H4 histone protein
The nucleosome in chromatin are seen as beads on string structure when viewed under light
(4)
microscope

13) Which of the following is incorrect according to Griffith experiments ?

(A) S-Strain → Inject into mice → mice live
(B) R-Strain → Inject into mice → mice live
(C) Heat-killed S-Strain → Inject into mice → mice live
(D) Heat killed S-Strain + R-Strain → Inject into mice → mice die
Option :

(1) A and D
(2) Only A
(3) B and C
(4) Only B

14) The condition in which chromosome numbers are in multiple of genome is called:-

(1) Aneuploidy
(2) Polyploidy
(3) Euploidy
(4) Chromosomal Abberation

15)

(2n-1-1) condition of chromosome is called :

(1) Tetrasomy
(2) Trisomy
(3) Monosomy
(4) Double Monosomy

16)

Sickle cell anaemia is an example of :

(1) Frame shift mutation

(2) Inversion
(3) Deletion
(4) Gene mutation

17)

In an organism DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The
percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are :-
(1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
(2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%

18) In the structure of DNA molecule at each step of ascent, the strand turns :-

(1) 36°
(2) 20°
(3) 40°
(4) 75°

19) Base ratio of a DNA is 0.03 and the amount of A–T contents is 30000, than what is the amount of
G–C contents in this DNA

(1) 1000
(2) 10000
(3) 100000
(4) 1000000

20) Read the following statements (A-D).

(A) DNA is an acidic substance
(B) The two chains of DNA have antiparallel polarity
(C) 5-Methyl uracil is another chemical name of thymine
(D) The two chains of B-DNA are coiled in a right handed fashion How many of above statements are
correct ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

21) In Griffith's experiment living bacterium takes up DNA from surrounding environment through
which process

(1) Conjugation
(2) Transduction
(3) Transformation
(4) Binary fission

22) The sugar present in ATP is :-

(1) Ribose
(2) Hexose
(3) Glucose
(4) Sucrose
23) The molecule represented is ?

(1) Uridine and it is a pyrimidine

(2) Uridylic acid and it is a nucleoside
(3) Uridine and it is a nucleoside
(4) Uridylic acid and it is a nucleotide

24) Which positions in a purine ring are occupied by nitrogen ?

(1) 1st, 3rd, 8th and 9th

(2) 2nd, 5th, 7th and 9th
(3) 1st, 3rd, 7th and 9th
(4) 3rd, 5th, 7th and 9th

25)

(1) A - ds DNA, B - ss RNA

(2) A - RNA, B - ds DNA
(3) A - ds DNA B - ds DNA
(4) A - ds RNA B - ds DNA

26) How many phosphodiester bonds are present in 10 bp circular plasmid DNA ?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 100

27) 5-methyl uracil is :-

(1) Double ring N-base

(2) Single ring N-base
(3) Present in RNA
(4) Both (2) & (3)

28) On hydrolysis, a nucleoside would not yield

(1) Purine
(2) Pyrimidine
(3) Pentose sugar
(4) Phosphoric acid

29) Deoxy guanosine monophosphate has :-

(1) Deoxyribose + Guanylic acid + Phosphate

(2) Deoxyribose + Guanine
(3) Deoxyribose + Guanine + Phosphate
(4) Guanine + Phosphate

30) Length of a DNA molecule is 680Å then how many phosphodiester bonds will be present in this
DNA ?

(1) 199
(2) 398
(3) 400
(4) 399

31) DNA and RNA molecules differ from each other with respect to ?

(1) A purine base

(2) A pyrimidine base
(3) Pentose sugar
(4) Both (2) & (3)

32) Cytidine is :-

(1) Ribose + Cytosine + Phosphate

(2) Cytosine mono phosphate
(3) Ribose + Cytosine
(4) Nucleotide

33)

Given that a nucleic acid has 30% A, 20% G, 18 % T, and 32% C, this nucleic acid is

(1) double stranded DNA

(2) single stranded DNA
(3) double stranded RNA
(4) single stranded RNA

34) The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material by Hershey and chase. They worked with
-
(1) Viruses
(2) Bacteria
(3) Fungi
(4) Mouse

35) Consider the following structure of B-DNA and choose the correct statement with respect to K,

L, M and N :-

(1) The component of "M" is sugar and phosphate which forms steps of ds DNA
(2) The "N" is helix length, which is 0.34 nm in length
(3) The component of "L" is sugar which is never be a 5 methyl uracil
(4) The "K" is the diameter of DNA which is remain almost constant throuout the DNA

36) Match the following regarding DNA structure

Column-1 Column-2
A. 0.34nm (i) diameter
B. 10bp (ii) pitch
C. 3.4nm (iii) complete turn
D. 2.0nm (iv) distance between bp

(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

37) Transcriptionally inactive chromatin is -

(1) Euchromatin
(2) Heterochromatin
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2

38) Genetic disorders determined by alternation or mutation in single are known as

(1) Curomosomal disorders

(2) Mendelian disorder
(3) Non-inheritable disorders
(4) All above

39) For which of the following segments of given DNA sequence, the melting of DNA must be
highest ?

(1) 5'–ACTAAGTTATGA–3' 3'–TGATTCAATACT–5'

(2) 5'–AACTGTCATCTA–3' 3'–TTGACAGTAGAT–5'
(3) 5'–AGTTACGTAGAA–3' 3'–TCAATGCATCTT–5'
(4) 5'–TACGACCTAGCG–3' 3'–ATGCTGGATCGC–5'

40) A molecule that can act as genetic material must not have following properties -

(1) It should be chemically and structurally highly active

(2) It should be able to generate its replica
(3) It should provide the scope for slow changes
(4) It should be structurally more stable

41) Bonding between deoxyribose and base in purine nucleoside molecule is:-

(1) 1' – 1' glycosidic linkage

(2) 1'– 6' glycosidic linkage
(3) 1'– 4' glycosidic linkage
(4) 1'– 9' glycosidic linkage

42) Ribose, Guanine, Adenine, Uracil, Phosphate, Cytosine, Thymine

How many components in the above list are common for DNA and RNA:-

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Two
(4) One

43) In the DNA double helix, purine always paired with pyrimidine base through H-bonds that lead
to :-

(1) The antiparallel nature

(2) Unifrom length in all DNA
(3) Uniform width throughout DNA
(4) The semiconservative nature

44) Person developed from the zygote, which is formed by fusion of female gamete (22 + XX) with
androsperm, shows which of the following characters?

(1) Gynaecomastia
(2) Furrowed tongue
(3) Criminal syndrome
(4) More than one option is correct

45) Which is incorrect about thalassemia ?

 This blood disease is transmitted from parents to the offspring when both the partners are
(1)
unaffected carrier for the gene (or heterozygous).
The defect is due to either mutation or deletion which ultimately results in reduced rate of
(2)
synthesis of one of the globin chains that make up haemoglobin.
This causes the formation of abnormal haemoglobin molecule resulting into anaemia which is
(3)
characteristic of the disease.
Thalassemia differs from sickle cell anaemia in that the former is a qualitative problem of
(4) synthesising an incorrectly functionning globin while the latter is a quantitative problem of
synthesising too few globin molecules.

46) Alfred Wallace, a naturalist worked on which island ?

(1) Srilanka
(2) Galapagos
(3) South America
(4) Malay Archepelago

47) Theory of spontaneous generation says that :

(1) Life originated from the decaying and rotting matters life straw, mud etc.
(2) Life came on the earth from outer space
(3) Life comes from pre-existing life only
(4) Life started with replication of self replicating metabolic capsules

48) Which of the following option is correct :

(1) Example of homologous organ is eye of octopus and eye of human.

(2) Biochemical similarities never point to the same shared ancestry.
(3) Similarity in blood proteins of human and monkey indicates common ancestry.
(4) Diverse organisms does not have similarity in either of their genes.

49) Assertion (A) : Wings of butterfly and of birds are an example of analogy.
Reason (R) : Analogous organs have different origin but perform similar functions.

(1) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.

50) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Darwin's Finches (I) Convergent evolution

(B) Forelimbs of mammals (II) Adaptive radiation

(C) Industrial melanism (III) Divergent evolution

 (D) Wings of butterfly and birds (IV) Natural selection
Choose the correct answer :
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-II

51)

Homologous (i) Sweet potato and potato.

(A) (ii) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita.
organs
(iii) Eye of octopus and mammals.
(iv) Flippers of penguins and dolphins.
Analogous (v) Forelimbs of humans and wings of bat.
(B)
organs (vi) Vertebrate heart or brain
(1) (A)-(i), (v), (ii) ; B-(iii), (iv), (vi)
(2) (A)-(ii), (v), (vi) ; B-(iii), (i), (iv)
(3) (A)-(ii), (v), (i) ; B-(iii), (iv), (vi)
(4) (A)-(vi), (v), (vi) ; B-(i), (ii), (iii)

52) Given below are statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : In South America, Mammals resembling horse, Hippopotamus, Bear, rabbit etc were
present.
Reason (R) : Due to continental drift, when South America joined north America, these animals
were over ridden by North America fauna.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Assertion and Reason is not the correct Explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason is the correct Explanation of Assertion.

53) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) First cellular form of life appeared 2 billion years ago.

(2) Sea weeds were existed probably around 330 mya.
(3) The first organisms that invaded land were plants
(4) Pelycosauras and therapsids were early ancestors of mammals.

54) Which of the following is correctly matched column ?

Column-I Column-II

(1) Weismann Germplasm theory

(2) Hugo de Vries Theory of Pangenesis

 (3) Darwin Mutation theory

(4) Lamarck Branching descent

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

55) Which of the following statement is not correct :-

(1) Gill slits are functional organ only in fish and not found in any other adult vertebrates.
(2) Certain features during embryonic stage common to all vertebrates that are present in adult
(3) Von Bear disapproved embryological support for evolution.
(4) Human embryo develop a row of vestigial gill slits just behind the head.

56) Read the following statements carefully:

(A) Homology indicates common ancestory.
(B) Homology is based on divergent evolution.
(C) Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution.
(D) same structure developed along different directions due to adaptation of different needs is
divergent evolution.

(1) Statements A, B are correct and C, D are incorrect.

(2) Statements A, B, C are correct and D is incorrect.
(3) Statements A, C, D are correct and B is incorrect.
(4) All statements are correct.

57) Assertion : Proposal for embryological support for evolution was disapproved by Von Baer.
Reason : Von Baer noted that embryos never pass through adult stages of other animals.

(1) Both assertion and reason correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Only assertion is correct
(4) Both assertion and reason incorrect

58) Give the answers of following by choosing suitable option-

(i) Eye of octopus and mammals are ___A___.
(ii) Vertebrate hearts are ___B___.
(iii) Coccyx and vermiform appendix are ___C___.
(iv) Sedimentary rocks contains ___D___.

A B C D

Homologous Analogous Vestigeal

(1) Fossils
organs organs organs

Vestigeal Analogous Homologous

(2) Fossils
organs organs organs
 Analogous Homologous Vestigeal
(3) Fossils
organs organs organs

Homologous Vestigeal Analogous

(4) Fossils
organs organs organs
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

59) Which of the following option is correct :

(1) Pelycosaur is ancestor of modern day reptiles.

(2) Thecodonts are ancestor of crocodile, dinosaurs and birds
(3) Sauropsids are ancestor of mammals
(4) Therapsids are ancestor of birds and mammals

60) Which of the following option consists of group of Australian marsupials showing adaptive
radiation :-

(1) Lemur, Marsupial mole, Tasmanian tiger cat

(2) Flying squirrel, Bobcat, Anteater
(3) Mole, Tasmanian wolf, Wolf
(4) Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger, Wombat

61) Which of following pair of time and related event is incorrectly matched :

(1) 4 billion years ago (approximate) - Origin of life

(2) 3 billon years ago (approximate) - First non-cellular forms of life.
(3) 2 billion years ago (approximate) - First cellular forms of life appeared.
(4) 1.5 million years ago (approximate) - Origin of first eukaryotes.

62) Which of the following statements are correct w.r.t the structures A and B shown in the diagram

? (A) A and B are homologous structures

(B) A and B are analogous structures
(C) A and B exemplify divergent evolution

(1) A & C
(2) B & C
(3) A, B & C
(4) Only B

63) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : In artificial selection characters selected are not of human use.
Statement-II : In artificial selection role of nature is taken over by man.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

64) Identify the correct option w.r.t. sweet potato and potato :
(A) Represent analogous structures
(B) Exemplify divergent evolution
(C) Belong to the different genus

(1) A & C
(2) B & C
(3) A, B & C
(4) Only C

65) Statement I : T rex was the biggest dinosaur.

Statement II : T rex had huge fearsome dagger like teeth.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

66) Which of the following is/are incorrect about the Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus?
(A) They were existing about 15 mya
(B) They were hairy and walked like Gorillas and Chimpanzees
(C) Ramapithecus was more ape like while Dryopithecus was more man like.

(1) C only
(2) B only
(3) A only
(4) A & B

67) Which of the following features are correct for Homo erectus?
A. Had a large brian capacity around 900cc.
B. Probable ate meat
C. Appeared about 1.5 mya.
D. Evolved from Homo sapiens

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) Only B and C
(4) A, B, C and D

68) Which of following is/are correct about Neanderthal man

A. They had brain capacity around 900cc.
B. They lived near east and central asia between 10,00,000-40,000 year back
C. They used animal hides to protect their body and burried their dead.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) Only C
(4) Only A

69) Which of the following is an example of embryological evidence?

(1) The tadpole larva of amphibians resembles with fishes.

(2) Finches of galapagos islands.
(3) Forelimbs of man & Cheetah
(4) All of the above

70) Select the correct option by reading the following statements.

Statement-1 : Stegosaurus were ancestors of tyranosaurus.
Statement-2 : Psilophyton were direct ancestors of Ginkos and Gnetales.

(1) If both statements are correct.

(2) If both statements are incorrect.
(3) If statement-1 is incorrect, statement-2 is correct.
(4) If statement-1 is correct, statement-2 is incorrect.

71) Select the correct statement with respect to Cladograms.

(1) Mammals are developed from sauropsids.

(2) Birds are developed from thecodont.
(3) Zosterophyllum were developed from Psilophyton.
(4) Bryophytes were developed from Rhynia type plants.

72) 200 million year ago some reptiles went back into water to evolve into fish like reptiles. These
were probably:

(1) Icthyosaurus
(2) Tyrannosaurus
(3) Pteranodon
(4) Stegosaurus

73) Identify A, B, C, D :-

(1) A-Pelycosaurs, B-Thecodent, C-Dinosaurs, D-Mammals

(2) A-Therapsid, B-Sauropsid, C-Synapsid, D-Mammals
(3) A-Therapsid, B-Synapsid, C-Sauropsid, D-Mammals
(4) A-Pelycosaurs, B-Synapsid, C-Sauropsid, D-Birds

74) Select the incorrect match

Disapproved theory
(1) Louis Pasteur -
of abiogenesis

Experimentally proved
(2) Stanley Miller -
chemical evolution

Disapproved embryological
(3) Von Baer - support proposed by Heckel
for evolution

Explained origin of
(4) Alfred Wallace - Universe along with
Charles Darwin
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75) Therapsids were evolved into

(1) Tuataras
(2) Crocodiles
(3) Mammals
(4) Birds
76) Statement-I :- Similarities in proteins and genes performing a given function among diverse
organisms given due to common ancestory.
Statement-II :- Composition and structure of protoplasm enzymes, hormones, DNA, blood in
chordates is also almost same.

(1) Only Statement-I is correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are correct.
(3) Only Statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.

77) Population is said to be non-evolving if all the following features exist, except

(1) No gene flow1

(2) Population size is large
(3) Non-random mating
(4) No mutation

78) Statement-I :- In allopatric speciation a species split into two or more Geographically isolated
population and these population finally from a new species.
Statement-II :- Darwin finches are the example of allopatric speciation.

(1) Only Statement-I is correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I and II both are correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

79) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events on the origin of life
I. Formation of protobionts
II. Synthesis of organic monomers
III. Synthesis of organic polymers
IV. Formation of DNA based genetic systems.

(1) II, III, I, IV

(2) I, III, II, IV
(3) III, II, I, IV
(4) II, I, II, IV

80) Which of the following used hides to protect their body and buried their dead?

(1) Neanderthal man

(2) Homo erectus
(3) Homo habillis
(4) Ramapithecus

81) Find out the incorrect matching regards innate immunity :-

(1) Physiological barrier-epithelium lining respiratory, G.I.T, urogenital tract

(2) Cytokines- Interferons
(3) Cellular - natural killer
(4) Physical - skin, mucosa

82)

Column-I Column-II

A. Typhoid (i) Cyanosis

B. Pneumonia (ii) Lock jaw

C. Diptheira (iii) Constipation

Difficulty in
D. Tetanus (iv)
breathing

Options :-
(1) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(i), D–(iv)
(2) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(ii), D–(iv)
(3) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(iv), D–(ii)
(4) A–(ii), B–(iv), C–(i), D–(iii)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83)

Which of the following statement is correct about typhoid ?

(A) It is caused by Salmonella typhi
(B) It could be confirmed by Widal test
(C) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases

(D) Mary Mallon was a doctor by profession and she was a typhoid patient
(1) A,C,D
(2) B,C,D
(3) A,B,C
(4) All are correct

84) Which one of the following sets include all the viral diseases ?

(1) Ringworm, AIDS, Common cold

(2) Typhoid, Tuberculosis, Dengue
(3) Dengue, AIDS, Common cold
(4) Dysentery, AIDS, Leprosy

85) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) Rhino virus infect the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs
(B) The lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour in severe cases of typhoid
(C) Streptococcus pneumoniae infects the alveoli of the lungs.
(D) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

86) Choose the correct option for which DPT vaccine is given :-

(1) Diarrhoea, Plague, Tuberculossis

(2) Diptheria, Pertussis, Tetanus
(3) Diptheria, Pneumonia, Tetanus
(4) Dengue, Pertussis, Tuberculossis

87) In tetanus vaccination, body is introduced with:-

(1) Killed bacteria

(2) Harmless virus
(3) Harmless bacteria
(4) Inactivated toxin

88) The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated diseases
is

(1) insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics

(2) inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
(3) decreased efficiency of the immune system
(4) the development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics

89) Pneumonia is characterised by –

(a) Alveoli filled with fluid
(b) Fever with chills
(c) Cough and headache
(d)Bluish lips and nails is severe cases

(1) a,c
(2) b,c
(3) a,c,d
(4) a,b,c,d

90) Which of the following is correct?

(1) B -cells provide CMI

(2) Interferons prevent the neighbouring cells from further viral infection
(3) As the age increases, thymosin increases
(4) T-cells produces antibodies
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 4 2 2 2 4 3 2 3 2 2 3 1 2 1 3 4 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 4 2 2 2 3 2 1 2 2 3 1 1 1 2 4 4 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 3 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 2 4 2 2 4 1 3 2 3 2 4 1 3 2 4 1 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 3 2 3 4 4 2 4 4 2 3 2 1 4 2 1 4 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 2 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 4 2 1 4 3 3 1 3 3 2 2 2 4 4 2 1 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 3 3 1 2 2 4 3 2 4 3 2 1 4 3 2 2 4 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 3 1 4 4 1 3 1 3 2 1 2 1 2 4 1 3 2 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 3 1 4 1 1 3 1 3 2 1 3 4 3 2 3 3 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 3 3 3 2 4 4 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Correct Answer is D

2) Correct Answer is B

3) Correct Answer is D

4) Correct Answer is B

5) Correct Answer is B

6) Correct Answer is B

7) Correct Answer is D

8) Correct Answer is C

9) Correct Answer is B

10) Correct Answer is C

11) Correct Answer is B

12) Correct Answer is B

13) Correct Answer is C

14) Correct Answer is A

15) Correct Answer is B

16) Correct Answer is A

17) Correct Answer is C

18) Correct Answer is D

19) Correct Answer is B

20) Correct Answer is B

21) Correct Answer is B

22) Correct Answer is A

23) Correct Answer is D

24)

Correct Answer is B

25) Correct Answer is B

26) Correct Answer is B

27) Correct Answer is C

28) Correct Answer is B

29) Correct Answer is A

30) Correct Answer is B

31) Correct Answer is B

32) Correct Answer is C

34) Correct Answer is A

35) Correct Answer is A

36) Correct Answer is B

37) Correct Answer is D

 38) Correct Answer is D

39) Correct Answer is A

40) Correct Answer is D

41) Correct Answer is D

42) Correct Answer is A

43) Correct Answer is C

44) Correct Answer is D

45) Correct Answer is D

CHEMISTRY

46)

48)
III > II > I
(Only +I effect +I order –T > – D > – H)

52)

Check ortho effect then –M & –I effect.

54) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about Most stable carbocation

Concept :- Stability of carbocation

∝ + M effect
∝ Resonance
∝ Number of ∝–H
∝ + I effect

Soln / Explanation :-

Here carbocation is stablized by +M effect of and 5 ∝ – H

Hence it is most stable carbocation.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

56)

Solution/Explanation:

A. Question: The question asks which of the following is least basic compound (Kb↓).

B. Given Data: Options are:

1 2 3 4

C. Concept:

A. Basic strength of nitrogeneous compound depends upon the hybridised state of nitrogen.

A. If %s-character is same than Kb = localised lone pair > delocalised lone pair

The -NH2 group is attached directly to the conjugated system or benzene ring. It results in the
unshared electron pair on nitrogen atom to be in conjugation with the conjugated system or
benzene ring and thus making it less available for protonation and decreases basic strength.

A. Amidines and guanidine’s are strongest nitrogenous base. Kb = Amidines < guanidine’s

D. Explanation:

E. Final Answer: 3
57)

Resonance energy ∝ Stability ∝ number of alternate π-bond

58)

For ℓ = 2 the values of m = –2, –1, 0, +1, +2.

NCERT Page No. # 50

65)

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Problem Statement: The question asks which statement is incorrect about an electron
characterized by the quantum numbers n = 4 and m = 2. It tests understanding of the possible
values for the quantum numbers l (azimuthal) and s (spin) given specific values of n (principal)
and m (magnetic).

Underlying Concept: In quantum mechanics, electrons in atoms are described by four

quantum numbers: n (principal), l (azimuthal), m (magnetic), and s (spin). The principal
quantum number n defines the energy level and shell. For each n, the azimuthal quantum
number l can take integer values from 0 up to n-1. The magnetic quantum number m depends
on l and ranges from -l to +l in integer steps. The spin quantum number s can be either +½
or -½. The problem focuses on the allowable combinations of these quantum numbers
respecting these rules.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Given n = 4, possible values for l are 0, 1, 2, 3 (since l ranges

from 0 to n-1). 2. Given m = 2, l must be at least 2 because m ranges from -l to +l, so l ≥ 2.
3. Therefore, l can be 2 or 3 to accommodate m = 2. 4. Spin s can be +½ or -½ regardless
of n, l, or m. 5. The statement claiming l = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 is incorrect because l cannot be equal
to n (4 here). It must be less than n.

Tips and Tricks: Always verify the allowed values for l and m based on n, and recall that spin
is independent of these. A quick check: l ranges from 0 to n-1, and m ranges from -l to +l.

Common Mistakes: Assuming l can equal n (which it cannot). Confusing the ranges of
quantum numbers, especially mixing m and l limits. Forgetting spin can be either +½ or -½.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: - Statement that s = +½ is incorrect: It's correct since
spin can be +½ or -½. - Statement that l = 2 is incorrect: This is allowed because 2 ≤ 3
(n-1), and m = 2 is possible. - Statement that l = 3 is incorrect: This is allowed for the same
reason. - Statement that l = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 is incorrect because l cannot be 4; it must be less than
n = 4.

68) As 'H' have 1 electron

Orbitals are not degenerated
70)

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Problem Statement: The question asks us to find the total number of electrons present in all
orbitals where the sum of the principal quantum number (n) and the azimuthal quantum
number (l) equals 4.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves quantum numbers in atomic physics and
chemistry. Each electron in an atom is described by quantum numbers n (principal quantum
number) and l (azimuthal quantum number). For fixed n and l, the number of orbitals is given
by (2l + 1), and each orbital can hold 2 electrons, according to the Pauli exclusion principle.

Relevant Formulas: Number of orbitals for given l:

Each orbital holds 2 electrons, so electrons per (n, l) set:

Where: n = principal quantum number (n ≥ 1) l = azimuthal quantum number (0 ≤ l
≤ n-1)

The problem condition is:

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Find all valid integer pairs (n, l) with , , and
.
2. Check possible pairs: - (valid because )- (valid because
)
3. Calculate electrons for each pair: - For : number of orbitals = ,
electrons = - For : number of orbitals = , electrons =

4. Total electrons = 6 + 2 = 8

Tips and Tricks: For problems involving quantum numbers, systematically list possible (n, l)
pairs under given constraints. Use the formula to quickly find the electrons for each
(n, l) pair.

Common Mistakes: One might incorrectly assume all (n, l) pairs that sum to 4 are valid
without checking the condition . Another common error is forgetting that each orbital
holds 2 electrons, not just 1.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options like 2 or 6 only count electrons for a single (n,
l) pair instead of both pairs that satisfy the condition. 32 electrons is too large and might arise
from mistakenly including orbitals with invalid quantum numbers.
71)
2>3>4>1

72) I > II > III > IV

73) H3C – OH (100% single bond)

Ans.

74)
Due to presence of 3 (–R) groups
 75) Order of basic strength :

79) M.P. of Napthalene ≃ 80°C

86)

87) EWG increase acidic strength

NO2CH2COOH > NCCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > CICH2COOH

88) B < D < A < C

Basicity

BIOLOGY

107)

Correct Answer: (2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%

Explanation: In double-stranded DNA, the percentage of guanine (G) equals cytosine (C), and
adenine (A) equals thymine (T). Given 17% cytosine, guanine is also 17%. The remaining 66%
is equally divided between adenine and thymine (33% each).

110) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 97, para 2,3,5

111)

In Griffith's experiment (1928), the process by which a living bacterium takes up DNA from the
surrounding environment is called transformation.
Griffith showed that harmless (R-strain) bacteria could be transformed into harmful (S-strain)
bacteria by taking up genetic material from dead S-strain bacteria.
This experiment provided evidence that DNA carries genetic information and is capable of
transforming bacteria.

113)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 81

114)

The correct answer is:

3. 1st, 3rd, 7th, and 9th

121)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 152

122) NCERT-XI Pg. # 144, last para

126)

XII-NCERT Pg.97,98

127) XII-NCERT Pg.100

128) NCERT Pg. No. # 80(5.6.1)

130) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 103

133)

The correct answer is:

3. Uniform width throughout DNA

134)

Ncert Pg No:92, 2021 - 2022

135) NCERT_12_2021-22_91

136)

NCERT : PAGE 129

137) NCERT XII Pg # 111 (E), para 6.1
122 (H)

138) NCERT XII Pg # 115

139) NCERT Page No. 114-115

140) NCERT Pg. # 114, 115, 116

141) NCERT Page No. 114-115

142) NCERT Pg. # 124

143) NCERT Pg. # 121

144) NCERT Pg. # 118-119

145) NCERT XII Pg # 113

146) NCERT Page No. 114-115

147) NCERT XII Pg # 113

148) NCERT Page No. 113-114

149) NCERT XII Pg # 123

150) NCERT XII Pg # 118

152)

The correct answer is Option 1 : A & C

In the diagram, structure A represents the thorn of Bougainvillea and structure B represents
the tendril of Cucurbita.
A and B are homologous structures. Both are modified stems that have evolved from a common
ancestral structure.
Homologous structures are those that have a common evolutionary origin, even if they may
have different functions. They share a similar underlying structure due to shared ancestry.
Divergent evolution is the process where closely related species evolve different traits to adapt
to different environmental pressures. In the case of thorns and tendrils, the same ancestral
stem structure has diverged into structures with different functions (protection in thorns,
 support in tendrils) due to different selective pressures.

155) The correct answer is 4. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
Statement I: T-rex was the biggest dinosaur.

A. This statement is correct. While T-Rex was a massive predator, it was the biggest dinosaur.

Statement II: T-rex had huge fearsome dagger-like teeth.

A. This statement is correct. T-Rex is famous for its massive, powerful jaws and teeth, which were
designed for crushing bones and tearing flesh.

163) The correct answer is 3. A - Therapsid, B - Synapsid, C - Sauropsid, D - Mammals

166) NCERT Pg. # 115

171) NCERT XII, Page # 150, 3rd para

174) Allen module

177) Module-1, Pg # 154