Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO/MT-XV PRELIMS & NICL AO PHASE-I MT - 15

IBPS PO/MT-XIV PRELIMS

NICL AO PHASE-I MODEL TEST - 15

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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Direction (1–5): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given. Certain words have been given in bold denoted by A, B, C, D, E, F, G & H to
help you locate them while answering the questions.
During the pandemic, many companies had to pivot (A) their business models
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to survive. Restaurants, for instance, began offering online deliveries, and tech
firms moved to remote operations. This adaptation (B) not only kept them afloat
but also revealed the resilience (C) of modern enterprises. However, not all

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businesses were able to withstand (D) the economic strain. Those that relied
heavily on physical footfall experienced plummeting (E) revenues and faced
closures. Governments responded by offering stimulus (F) packages, though critics
d
argued these were inadequate (G) or poorly targeted. In the aftermath, economists
are calling for more robust (H) crisis-management strategies in the future.
1. Which of the following CAN REPLACE the word denoted by (A) both grammatically
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and meaningfully in the passage?

1) abandon 2) repeat 3) change 4) reverse 5) resist
2.
C
Which of the following pairs denotes words that are SAME in meaning as used in
the passage?
1) B–C 2) D–F 3) C–H 4) E–G 5) A–D
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3. Which of the following word(s) is/are INCORRECTLY used in the passage in terms
of grammar, spelling, or usage?
1) Only E 2) Only B & F 3) Only G 4) Only C 5) None
4. Which of the following CANNOT REPLACE the word denoted by (F) in the passage
both grammatically and meaningfully?
1) aid 2) support 3) push 4) burden 5) relief
C
5. Which of the following pairs denotes words that are OPPOSITE in meaning as
used in the passage?
1) A–E 2) F–G 3) E–H 4) D–A 5) G–H
Direction (6–8): In this question, a sentence is given in bold and italics. Determine
the correct form of the sentence from the options, which is grammatically correct
and conveys the same meaning as the sentence given. Mark your answer
accordingly.
6. Though the policy was introduced to boost domestic production, its unintended
effects hurt the local manufacturers.
1) The local manufacturers were hurt by the effects of a policy intended to support
them.
2) The policy failed to help the local manufacturers as it was only meant for
domestic production.
3) Despite helping local producers, the policy hurt the global traders.
4) Domestic production was hurt because the policy intended to help local
manufacturers was delayed. 5) None of the above

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO/MT-XV PRELIMS & NICL AO PHASE-I MT - 15

7. Had the team worked more cohesively, they could have won the championship
without much difficulty.
1) The team’s lack of coordination led to an easy win in the championship.
2) With better teamwork, the championship could have been theirs.
3) The championship was won because of cohesive team effort.
4) Without working as a team, they would still win the championship.
5) None of the above
8. Despite being warned multiple times, he continued to violate the safety
regulations.

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1) He continued to violate safety rules although he had been warned many times.
2) He was not warned about safety rules, yet he violated them many times.
3) The violation of safety rules happened as he was never warned.
4) After being warned, he ensured to stop violating the safety regulations.
5) None of the above
Directions (9-12): In this question, four sentences (A), (B), (C) & (D) are given.
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Decide which sentences is/are CORRECT/INCORRECT with regard to grammar,
meaning and usage and mark your answer accordingly
9. (A) She worked hardly to meet the project deadline.

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(B) The patient had to undergo several tests before the operation.
(C) This is one of the most inspiring speeches that I have ever heard.
(D) If I was you, I wouldn’t take the risk.
d
1) Only B & C are correct 2) Only A & D are incorrect 3) Only C is correct
4) Only A is incorrect 5) All are correct
10. (A) Many peoples are unaware of the environmental issues.
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(B) The team was able to complete the task before the deadline.
(C) He returned back to the village after five years.
(D) The data collected needs to be verified thoroughly.
C
1) Only B & D are correct 2) Only A & C are correct 3) All are correct
4) Only D is correct 5) Only A, B & D are correct
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11. (A) She has been working here since five years.
(B) It is high time we took a firm decision.
(C) He behaves as if he owns the place.
(D) I don’t know why is she so upset.
1) Only B & C are correct 2) Only A is incorrect 3) All are correct
4) Only A & D are incorrect 5) Only D is correct
C
12. (A) Despite having good qualifications, he was not selected.
(B) No sooner the bell rang than the students rushed out.
(C) We must adapt ourselves to the changing circumstances.
(D) The jury has announced their verdict after much deliberation.
1) Only A & C are correct 2) Only B is incorrect 3) All are correct
4) Only D is incorrect 5) Only A, C & D are correct
Direction (13–15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the question
given. Based on the passage, which of the following idioms/phrases CANNOT be
used to describe the person(s) mentioned?
13. Rakesh always volunteers to take on extra work, never complains, and motivates
others. His colleagues rely on him during every deadline.
Which idiom/phrase CANNOT be used to describe Rakesh?
1) Go-getter 2) Team player 3) Backbone of the group
4) Slacker 5) None of the above
14. Meena often pretends to be interested in others’ lives just to spread gossip later.
She’s known for twisting facts and starting rumors.
Which idiom/phrase CANNOT be used to describe Meena?
1) Pot stirrer 2) Gossipmonger 3) Straight shooter

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO/MT-XV PRELIMS & NICL AO PHASE-I MT - 15

4) Drama queen 5) None of the above

15. Jatin always questions decisions and plays devil’s advocate during meetings, even
if everyone else agrees.
Which idiom/phrase CANNOT be used to describe Jatin?
1) Devil’s advocate 2) Critical thinker 3) Yes-man
4) Contrarian 5) None of the above
Directions (16-17): Three sentences are given denoted by (A), (B) and (C) followed
by five options. In each of the sentences, a word is given in bold. Identify the word
from the given options, which itself or its form can be a SYNONYM of all the three
words given in bold, as used in the sentence.

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16. (A) She took great care while handling the newborn.
(B) The artist painted with extreme attention to detail.
(C) His driving showed a lot of caution.
1) Love 2) Alertness 3) Prudence 4) Diligence 5) Mindfulness
17. (A) He gave a brief glimpse of his upcoming project.
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(B) The clouds parted just enough to give a peek of the moon.
(C) The spy took a look around the corner quickly.
1) View 2) Scan 3) Glance 4) Watch 5) Stare

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Directions (18-20): In this question, a word is given in bold followed by three
sentences (A), (B) and (C) in which the said word/form of the word has been
used. Read the given sentences carefully and decide in which of the given
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sentences the word/form of the word given in bold has been correctly used making
the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.
18. MARVEL
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(A) Children marvel at the tricks performed by the magician.

(B) The new museum is a marvel of modern architecture.
C
(C) He marveled the ancient ruins during his visit.
1) Only A 2) Only A & B 3) Only B & C 4) All A, B & C 5) Only C
19. STARK
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(A) The room was stark and empty, with only a chair in the corner.
(B) There was a stark difference in their opinions on climate change.
(C) Her stark eyes made everyone uncomfortable.
1) Only A 2) Only A & B 3) Only B & C 4) All A, B & C 5) Only C
20. YIELD
(A) The land yielded a rich harvest after the rains.
C
(B) He refused to yield his seat to the elderly woman.
(C) The company showed a poor yield due to inflation.
1) Only A & C 2) Only B & C 3) All A, B & C 4) Only A 5) Only C
Directions (21–22): Each question has two paragraphs (A) and (C), with a blank
paragraph (B) in between. Choose the most appropriate sentence from the options
that fits in the blank (B), maintaining logical flow and consistency. If none fit,
choose option (5) None of these.
21. (A) The tourism industry has taken a major hit due to the prolonged effects of the
pandemic.
(B) __________
(C) Many governments are now promoting domestic tourism and offering incentives
to revive the sector.
1) People now prefer to travel abroad for leisure.
2) The hospitality sector has remained unaffected by global crises.
3) Travel restrictions, fear of contagion, and lockdowns reduced footfall in tourist
destinations.

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4) Tourism is only important for the hotel industry. 5) None of these

22. (A) Water scarcity is emerging as a global crisis with implications for food security,
health, and ecosystems.
(B) __________
(C) Countries are exploring rainwater harvesting, water recycling, and efficient
irrigation to combat the crisis.
1) Water can be stored in plastic tanks.
2) Mismanagement, over-extraction, and climate change have accelerated this
problem.
3) People should use bottled water to stay safe.
4) India has abundant groundwater reserves. 5) None of these

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Directions (23-30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below.
India’s digital banking transformation has been nothing short of revolutionary.
With the advent of UPI (Unified Payments Interface), mobile wallets, and app-
based banking, millions have transitioned from cash-based transactions to digital
payments. The sheer volume of UPI transactions—over 11 billion monthly in 2024—
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reflects this massive behavioral shift. What was once limited to urban tech-savvy
users has now percolated into rural and semi-urban India.
However, this rapid expansion is not without its concerns. Digital banking

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infrastructure, while robust in metro cities, struggles in remote regions. Issues
such as poor internet connectivity, digital illiteracy, and frequent fraud reports
have raised questions about the inclusivity and safety of the system. Moreover,
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while banks celebrate reduced operational costs, customer grievances related to
failed transactions and delayed refunds remain unresolved in many cases.
Experts argue that while fintech innovations have deepened financial
penetration, the human touch in banking has significantly declined. Elderly
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citizens and first-time users often find app navigation confusing, leading to
dependency or exclusion. The push towards a “Digital-First” banking model has
led to reduced bank branches and ATM services in rural belts, leaving a gap in
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physical infrastructure.
That said, digital banking offers undeniable benefits—efficiency, transparency,
real-time tracking, and convenience. What India needs is not a rollback but a
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hybrid model—one that combines digital innovation with accessible physical support.
Until then, digital banking remains a powerful yet imperfect tool in India’s financial
inclusion story.
23. What is the main concern raised about the rapid expansion of digital banking in
rural areas?
1) People are too addicted to mobile apps
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2) Banks are losing money due to digitization
3) Infrastructure and user readiness remain inadequate
4) UPI systems are being phased out
5) Branches are opening in unregulated areas
24. Which of the following best captures the tone of the author toward digital banking?
1) Overly optimistic 2) Balanced and analytical 3) Mocking and ironic
4) Apathetic and dry 5) Aggressive and alarmist
25. What would be the most suitable title for this passage?
1) Why ATMs Are Dying Out
2) UPI: The Silent Killer of Traditional Banking
3) Digital Banking in India: Boon, Bane, or Both?
4) Financial Fraud: The New Normal
5) The Decline of Cash Transactions in India
26. Which of the following statements, if true, would most weaken the concerns
raised in the passage?
1) Internet penetration in rural areas doubled in the last two years
2) UPI apps have increased fraud cases by 300%
3) Most elderly users avoid smartphones
4) Banks are shutting down village branches

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5) India still relies on cash for 60% of retail trade

27. Which of the following would most strengthen the author’s recommendation for a
hybrid model?
1) Digital-only banks have higher customer churn
2) QR-code payments are now accepted in villages
3) Most young users prefer internet banking
4) Urban bank branches are still crowded
5) Customers are switching from apps to cash again
28. According to the passage, what is one negative effect of the “Digital-First” model?
1) More ATMs are being installed

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2) Banking staff are getting overtrained
3) Reduced physical infrastructure is hurting access in rural areas
4) India’s credit system is collapsing 5) People are saving more money
29. What is meant by the phrase “human touch in banking”?
1) Physical currency handling 2) App-based financial planning
3) Face-to-face interaction with banking staff

30.
4) Robotic call centers
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What is implied about digital illiteracy in the passage?
1) It affects only senior citizens

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2) It limits the ability of users to utilize digital banking tools
3) It has no impact in the era of smart apps
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4) It only exists in tribal regions 5) It is a government conspiracy
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction(Q.No:31-36) : Study the Instructions and table carefully to answer the
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given question : Note

(1) Few data are missing (indicated by_) in the table and you are
expected to calculate them from the available data if required.
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(2) There are in total 8 destinations (I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII and VIII). If a car has to
go from one destination to another destination it will have to travel through in
between destinations. For ex. If car A travels from destination I to IV, it will have
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to travel through destinations II and III

(3) Time required column depicts time required by a car mentioned in the same
row to cover the distance between destinations mentioned in the same row.
Name of the Car Speed of Distance between Time
the Car (In destinations (In Km) Required (In
C
Kmph) hours)
A 77 Between I and II = 188 --
B -- Between II and III = 254 5 12/23
C -- Between III and IV = 228 5 1/3
D -- Between IV and V = 162 6
E 36 Between V and VI = -- 8 2/3
F 22 Between VI and VII = -- 6 7/11
G 42 Between VII and VIII = -- 4 1/3
31. What is the respective ratio of the distance between destinations IV and VII and
the distance between destinations V and VIII ?
1) 19 : 22 2) 29 : 34 3) 33 : 38 4) 31 : 32 5) 29 : 30
32. Car H covered distance between destination IV and V at a speed of 20.25 kmph
and the distance between destination V and VI at a speed of 58.5 kmph. What
was its average speed in the journey ? (in kmph)

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO/MT-XV PRELIMS & NICL AO PHASE-I MT - 15

4 7 13 9 11
1) 33 5 2) 32 10 3) 31 4) 36 5) 35 20
20 10
33. Car A started from Destination I towards Destination V at 5:00 am. Car D started
from Destination V towards Destination I at the same time At what time will they
meet ?
1) 11 am 2) 1 pm 3) 1.45 pm 4) 10.30 am 5) 12.30 am
34. How much time will Car B take to cover the distance between destinations I and
VIII ? (in hours)
1) 35 2) 37 3) 26 4) 32 5) 28

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35. Car C and F started from the same point towards opposite directions. Car C is
travelling towards north and Car F is travelling towards south Car C started at 7
am and Car F started at 9 am At what time will they be 474 km apart ?
1) 4 pm 2) 2.30 pm 3) 3 pm 4) 1.30 pm 5) 2.45 pm
1 ha
36. Speed of a train is 3 3 times of the average speed of Cars A, B, D and E together If
the train can cross an electric post in 9 seconds, what is the length of the train ?
(in m)
1) 392.5 2) 387.5 3) 376.5 4) 345.5

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5) 414.5
Direction(37-41) : Study the following graph carefully to answer the given question.
d
Amount (in hundred Rs) spent by Ranveer on different items over the months

Transport Entertainment Household

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60
C
Amount spent in hundred Rs.

50
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40

30

20
C
10

0
January
April February
May March
June July
Month
37. What is the ratio between total expenditure on all three items together in March
and May respectively ?
1) 38 : 57 2) 36 : 57 3) 35 : 56 4) 36 : 55 5) 38 : 55
38. What is the difference between total expenditure on transport for all the given
months and the total expenditure on entertainment for all the given months ?
1) Rs.6,600 2) Rs.7,000 3) Rs.7,600 4) Rs.7,800 5) Rs.6,400
39. During which month the percent rise/ fall in expenditure on household from the
previous month was the highest ?
1) March 2) May 3) June 4) April 5) July
40. What approximately is the average expenditure per month on entertainment ?
1) Rs.2,855 2) Rs.2,990 3) Rs.2,745 4) Rs.2,780 5) Rs.2,685

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO/MT-XV PRELIMS & NICL AO PHASE-I MT - 15

41. What is the percent rise in expenditure on transport and entertainment together
from March to April ?
1) 30 2) 35 3) 26 4) 28 5) 38
42. The perimeter of a square is twice that of a rectangle. The respective ratio between
the side of the square and the breadth of the rectangle is 4:1. What is the respective
ratio between the area of the square and the area of the rectangle ?
1) 14:5 2) 12:5 3) 16:5 4) 14:3 5) 16:3
43. Average of twelve observations is 30. Out of those twelve observations, average of
first ten of them was 28. If the ratio between the remaining two observations is
7:9, what is the value of larger of the two observations ?

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1) 54 2) 36 3) 90 4) 45 5) 27
44. Ratio between the present ages of A and B is 3 : 5 respectively. B’s present age is
5 years less than twice her age 15 years ago. What was A’s age six years ago ?
1) 9 years 2) 15 years 3) 33 years 4) 12 years 5) 21 years
45. There are 8 red balls and 2 yellow balls in a bag. Three balls are simultaneously
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drawn at random. What is the probability that two balls are red and one ball is
yellow in colour ?
13 7 8 5 17

46.
1)
30
2)
15
3)
15

E 4)
12
5)
30
A boat can travel 13.2 km downstream in 33 minutes. If the respective ratio of the
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speed of the water current and speed of the boat in still water is 1:5, how much
time (in min) will the boat take to travel 9.6 km upstream ?
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1) 36 2) 32 3) 40 4) 42 5) 46
47. The interest earned on Rs. P when invested for three years at R% p.a. simple
2
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interest is 5 th of the interest earned on Rs. P + 2000 when invested for five
years for R% p.a. simple interest. What is the value of P ?
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1) 8000 2) 2400 3) 4000 4) 4200 5) 2000

48. There are 3 consecutive odd numbers and 3 consecutive even numbers. The
smallest even number is 5 more than the largest odd number. If the difference
between square of the average of three odd numbers and square of the average of
three even numbers is 459, what is the smallest odd number ?
1) 17 2) 15 3) 23 4) 19 5) 21
C
49. Cost price of article B is Rs. 150 more than cost price of article A. Article A was
sold at 10% profit and article B was sold at 20% loss. If the selling price of both
the articles are equal, what will be the selling price of article A if it is sold at 30%
profit?
1) Rs. 250 2) Rs. 400 3) Rs. 390 4) Rs. 650 5) Rs. 520
50. In an organization 30% of total number of employees are females and the rest are
males. 10% of the number of female employees and 20% of the male employees
are MBA’s. If the total number of MBA’s in the organization is 306, how many
employees (both male andfemale) work in the organization ?
1) 3200 2) 1800 3) 2400 4) 2200 5) 3000
51. Rs. 6,100 was partly invested in Scheme A at 10% p.a compound interest
(compounded annually) for 2 years and partly in Scheme B at 10% p.a. simple
interest for 4 years. Both the schemes earn equal interests. How much was
invested in Scheme A ?
1) Rs. 5,000 2) Rs. 4,500 3) Rs. 3,750 4) Rs. 4,000 5) Rs. 3,250
52. 18 litres of pure water was added to a vessel containing 80 litres of pure milk. 49
litres of the resultant mixture was then sold and some more quantity of pure milk
and pure water was added to the vessel in the respective ratio of 2 : 1. If the

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO/MT-XV PRELIMS & NICL AO PHASE-I MT - 15

resultant respective ratio of milk and water in the vessel was 4 : 1, what was the
quantity of pure milk added in the vessel ?(in litres)
1) 8 2) 2 3) 4 4) 12 5) 10
Direction(53-57) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given
number series ?
53. 6 ? 3 4.5 9 22.5
1) 2 2) 5 3) 4 4) 3 5) 3.5
54. 400 416 380 444 ? 488
1) 344 2) 498 3) 502 4) 495 5) 352
55. 10 17 38 101 ? 857

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1) 184 2) 256 3) 240 4) 285 5) 290
56. 5 4 7 20 79 ?
1) 263 2) 388 3) 319 4) 274 5) 394
57. 220 108 52 24 ? 3
1) 14 2) 8 3) 12 4) 15 5) 10
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Direction (58-60) : In the given question two quantities are given, one as Quantity
I and another as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship between two
Quantities and choose the appropriate option.

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58. Quantity I. Value of p, when 3p + = 11
p
d
Quantity II. Value of q, when 6q2 - 13 q + 5 = 0
1) Quantity I > Quantity II
2) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established from the
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information that is given.

3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I < Quantity II
5) Quantity I  Quantity II
C
59. In a month, out of his monthly income Harshad spends Rs. 3500 on bills and Rs.
8000 on rent and deposits the remaining in a bank. The amount he deposited in
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the bank in a year was Rs. 2,04,000 more than that spent on bills and rent
together
Quantity I : 5 times of the amount spent by Harshad on rent in a month
Quantity II : Harsh ad’s monthly income
1) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established from the
information that is given.
C
2) Quantity I  Quantity II 3) Quantity I > Quantity II
4) Quantity I  Quantity II 5) Quantity I < Quantity II
60. Inlet A can fill an empty tank in 36 hours. There was a leak in the tank due to
which A could fill only one-sixth of the empty tank in 9 hours.
Quantity I : The time taken by the leak to empty the full tank when A is closed (in
hours)
Quantity II : 110 hours
1) Quantity I  Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I > Quantity II
4) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established from the
information that is given.
5) Quantity I  Quantity II
Direction(61-65) : What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact
value)
61. 69.94 % of 359.9  18.06 = 55.98 - ?

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO/MT-XV PRELIMS & NICL AO PHASE-I MT - 15

1) 34 2) 42 3) 28 4) 20 5) 54
62. 27.922 - 12.012 + ? = 28.982
1) 242 2) 150 3) 200 4) 131 5) 98
63. (785.15 + 1764.8)  29.98 = ?
1) 85 2) 95 3) 75 4) 70 5) 65
64. 1224  4.99 10.992  ?
1) 892 2) 825 3) 761 4) 793 5) 847
65. 949.95 + 1875.12 - 1349.8  1.99 = ?
1) 2400 2) 2225 3) 2150 4) 2525 5) 2250

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REASONING
Direction (66-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Nine persons KAMALA, KARTHIK, KESAVA, KOMALI, KOUSIK, KARNA,
KAVITHA, KIRAN, KAVYA are sitting in a triangle, in that women are Kamala,
Komali, Kavitha and Kavya. Two of them are sitting in each side of the triangle.
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Persons who are sitting at corners are facing the same direction but two persons
who are sitting at sides are not facing the same direction. Three persons who are
same genders are not sitting each other. No women are sitting at corner of the

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triangle. Compare to the persons who are facing to the center are less than the
persons who are facing away from the center.
Kamala is neither immediate to Karthik nor facing towards the center. Kesava
d
is sitting immediate right of both Kavitha and Karna. Komali is sitting third to the
right of Kavitha and both of them are not facing the same direction and one of
them is sitting immediate neighbour of Kavya, who is sitting immediate neighbour
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of Karthik. Kousik is sitting second to the right of one who is sitting immediate
left of Karthik and one of them sitting at sides. Kousik and Karthik are facing
same direction but opposite direction to Kiran.
66. Who is sitting third to the right of Karthik?
C
1) Kousik 2) Kavya 3) Kiran 4) Karna 5) Kavitha
67. Who is sitting between Kavitha and Karna (right of Karna)?
1) Kiran 2) Kesava 3) Kavya 4) Karthik 5) Kamala
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68. How many of them sitting between Kiran and Karthik to right of karthik?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five 5) More than five
69. Who are sitting each other?
1) Kavitha, Karhik 2) Kiran, Kesava
3) Kamala, Kousik 4) Kamaka, Karna 5) Karthik, Komali
70. Find the odd one out.
C
1) Karthik 2) Kavya 3) Karna 4) Kesava 5) Kousik
Direction (71-73): In the questions below contains three statements followed by
two conclusions I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
71. Statements: Some Books are Bottles. Only a few Bottles are Balls.
All Balls are Chairs.
Conclusion I: Some Bottles are not Balls.
Conclusion II: Some Chairs are Bottles.
1) Only conclusion I follow 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows
4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 5) Both conclusions I and II follow
72. Statements: Some Apples are Kiwis. All Kiwis are Grapes.
Only a few Grapes are Mangoes.
Conclusion I: Some Apples are Mangoes.
Conclusion II: Some Apples are not Mangoes.
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows
4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 5) Both conclusions I and II follow

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO/MT-XV PRELIMS & NICL AO PHASE-I MT - 15

73. Statements: All Kiwis are Grapes. Only a few Grapes are Apples.
All Apples are Mangoes.
Conclusion I: Some Kiwis are Mangoes.
Conclusion II: All Grapes are Apples.
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows
4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 5) Both conclusions I and II follow
Direction (74-78): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Nine students get different ranks in a competition from 1st to 9th and they
are studying either 7 th or 8 th . They all like different colours viz. Brown, Blue,

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Orange, Pink, Purple, White, Gray, Green and Yellow but not necessarily in the
same order.
Only three persons get rank between N and one who likes Green. P is studying
in 7th class. N’s class and rank is same. The one who likes Gray is get the best
rank than all. The persons who get the second and third best rank study the
same class but not with N. P get the odd rank but not worst rank than N. S likes
ha
neither Yellow nor Brown. The one who gets just better rank than N is studying
in 8 th class. B gets the middle rank between P and N. Four persons get ranks
between B and L. G likes Blue colour and get the least rank than N but not

E
immediate below and both study in the same class. The one who likes Purple is
get the just better rank than the one who likes white colour. Neither P nor N
likes purple colour. J gets the fourth better rank and likes Pink colour. S gets the
d
least rank than J. E likes neither Yellow nor Green. E and V are studying in
same class. The sum of J’s rank and class is 11. L and J are studying in same
class but not with S.
ee

74. Which colour does S like?

1) Brown 2) Pink 3) Green 4) Orange 5) Yellow
75. Who amongst the following likes Yellow colour?
1) P
C
2) N 3) J 4) S 5) V
76. Which of the following rank does V get?
1) Seventh 2) Sixth 3) Third 4) Fourth 5) Fifth
Sr

77. How many persons studying in 8th class?

1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six 5) Seven
78. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) E- Brown 2) J- Pink 3) B- Purple 4) S- Orange 5) L- Gray
Direction (79-81): In this question relationship between different elements is
C
shown in the statement/s. The statement/s is/are followed by two conclusions.
Study the given conclusions based on the given statement/s and select the
appropriate option as your answer.
79. Statement: D > R = L  A < P  U = S > T  W = Q  M < X = V
Conclusion I: V = W Conclusion II: Q < P
1) Only Conclusion I is true 2) Only Conclusion II is true
3) Either Conclusion I or II is true
4) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 5) Both Conclusions I and II are true
80. Statement: A > B  L = X < E = S  T < Z = D  Q > G = Y  W > R = O > V < C
Conclusion I: V < Z Conclusion II: Z = Q
1) Only Conclusion I is true 2) Only Conclusion II is true
3) Either Conclusion I or II is true
4) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 5) Both Conclusions I and II are true
81. Statement: A > S  D = F  J > K = L  H < G  Q= W > E < R > P = U  Y  T = B < N = V > C
Conclusion I: S > E Conclusion II: V > P
1) Only Conclusion I is true 2) Only Conclusion II is true
3) Either Conclusion I or II is true 4) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
5) Both Conclusions I and II are true

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO/MT-XV PRELIMS & NICL AO PHASE-I MT - 15

82. How many such pairs of digits are there in the given number “8125639” each of
which has as many digits between them in the given number (in both forward and
backward directions) as they have between them in the arithmetic numerical
order?
1) Seven 2) Five 3) Eight 4) Four 5) Six
Direction (83-87): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Eight boxes - E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are kept one above the other and all
boxes contain different number of coins viz. 13, 15, 16, 18, 20, 22, 25 and 32.
Three boxes are kept between box F and the box which contains 15 coins.

r’s
Box F is kept on either top or bottom. Box K contains more coins than Box L. The
box which contains 22 coins is kept two boxes above box J. Box J is kept below the
box which contains 15 coins but not an immediate below. Two boxes are kept
between the box which contains 22 coins and box H. Three boxes are kept between
the box which contains 25 coins and box G. Box G is kept below the box which
contains 25 coins. Neither box F nor box H contains 25 coins. The difference
ha
between the coins of the immediate boxes of H is 5. Box H doesn’t contain 32
coins. Box I is kept immediate below the box which contains 32 coins. More than
one box kept between 32 and 18 coins boxes. Two boxes are kept between box E

E
and box J. Box E contains more coins than J.
83. How many boxes are kept between box K and box L?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three
d
84. The box which is kept at the bottom contains how many coins?
1) 18 2) 15 3) 13 4) 16 5) 20
85. Which of the following box is kept immediately above box I?
ee

1) Box F 2) Box H 3) Box K 4) Box E 5) Box L

86. Which box is kept immediately below the box which contains 16 coins?
1) Box K 2) Box L 3) Which box contains 20 coins
C
4) Which box contains 25 coins 5) Both (1) and (3)
87. How many coins does box F contain?
Sr

1) 25 coins 2) 16 coins 3) 32 coins 4) 18 coins 5) 13 coins

Direction (88-90): Study the given information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Point E is 6m South of Point F. Point F is 12m West of Point G, which is 8m
West of Point K. Point L is 12m South of Point M. Point L is 8m South of Point N.
Point N is 2m North of Point G.
C
88. What is the shortest distance between Point M and Point K?
1) 13m 2) 9m 3) 11m 4) 10m 5) 8m
89. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) F, M 2) L, K 3) E, K 4) F, N 5) F, K
90. What is the distance between Point M and Point G?
1) 8m 2) 6m 3) 11m 4) 9m 5) 5m
91. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) BEV 2) KNM 3) SVE 4) GIR 5) WZA
Direction (92-96): Study the following information and answer the given questions:
Eight People – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live in eight different floors of
building. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that
is numbered two, and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight. Each one of
them also owns a different brand of cars viz. Porsche, Maserati, Bentley, Subaru,
Chrysler, Mazda, Audi and Buick but not necessarily in the same order.

11
Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO/MT-XV PRELIMS & NICL AO PHASE-I MT - 15

Only three people live between D and the one who owns Mazda. C lives on
one of the odd numbered floors above the one who owns Mazda. The one who owns
Audi lives immediately above G. G owns neither Mazda nor Porsche. E does not
own Audi. Only three people live between G and A. Only one person lives between
B and the one who owns Chrysler. F lives an odd numbered floor above the floor
numbered four. Only one person lives between the one who owns Buick and H.
Only two people live between C and the one who owns Porsche. The one who owns
Buick lives immediately above the one who owns Maserati, but not on the topmost
floor. Only one person lives between F and the one who owns Bentley. The number
of people living above F is same as the number of people living between F and D.

r’s
92. Who lives in first floor?
1) C 2) F 3) G 4) A 5) D
93. Who lives in the floor immediately above B floor?
1) C 2) F ha 3) G 4) A 5) No one
94. Who lives exactly between the floor in which floors, persons who owns Audi and
Mazda lives?
1) Porsche 2) Bentley 3) Chrysler 4) Maserati 5) Subaru

E
95. On which of the following floor does E live?
1) Second 2) Fourth 3) First 4) Third 5) Sixth
d
96. Find the odd one out.
1) B 2) C 3) D 4) F 5) E
Direction (97-99): Study the given information carefully and answer the given
ee

questions.
A family of three generations consists of eight people and three married
couples. M is the only son of R. S is mother of N. P is brother-in-law of M. Q is
C
nephew of M. R is grandfather of U. T is daughter-in-law of S. T is mother of U.
97. How is M related to U?
Sr

1) Aunt 2) Mother 3) Daughter 4) Father 5) Sister

98. How is N related to Q?
1) Mother 2) Sister 3) Spouse 4) Cousin 5) Aunt
99. How many female people are there in the family?
1) Two 2) Three 3) One 4) Four 5) Can’t be determined
C
100. Which word can be formed with the first, the third, the fourth and the eight
letters of the word “OUTCOMES” using each letter only once, If only one word is
formed then what is the third letter of the word. If no word is formed ‘X’ is the
answer and more than one word is formed ‘Z’ is the answer?
1) S 2) T 3) O 4) X 5) Z

KEY
1.3 2.3 3.5 4.4 5.5 6.1 7.2 8.1 9.1 10.1 SCAN QR FOR
11.4 12.2 13.4 14.3 15.3 16.5 17.3 18.2 19.2 20.3 OUR RESULTS
21.3 22.2 23.3 24.2 25.3 26.1 27.1 28.3 29.3 30.2
31.4 32.5 33.2 34.4 35.3 36.2 37.5 38.2 39.3 40.1
41.2 42.5 43.4 44.2 45.2 46.1 47.3 48.3 49.5 50.2
51.4 52.3 53.4 54.1 55.5 56.5 57.5 58.5 59.3 60.2
61.2 62.3 63.1 64.5 65.3 66.4 67.2 68.5 69.3 70.2
71.5 72.3 73.4 74.4 75.1 76.3 77.2 78.5 79.2 80.1
81.2 82.2 83.3 84.3 85.1 86.5 87.3 88.4 89.5 90.2
91.4 92.5 93.5 94.3 95.4 96.1 97.4 98.1 99.5 100.4

12