11th JEE Main

AJAM1/01 Test- 01
DURATION : 180 Minutes DATE : 14/09/2025 M.MARKS : 300

Topics Covered
Physics: Mathematical Tools, Units and Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line
Chemistry: Structure of Atom, Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in
Properties
Mathematics: Basic Maths, Sets, Trigonometric Functions

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are of
Objective Type and Last 5 questions are integers type and all 25 questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response among 4 alternate choices provided for each objective type question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
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[1]
 IMPORTANT CONSTANTS

Speed of light in free space, : 3.00 × 108 ms–1

Permeability of free space, : 4 × 10–7 Hm–1
Permittivity of free space, : 8.85 × 10–12 Fm–1
The Planck constant, : 6.63 × 10–34 Js
Rest mass of electron, : 9.1 × 10–31 kg
Rest mass of proton, : 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Molar gas constant, : 8.31 JK–1 mol–1
The Avogadro constant, : 6.02 × 1023 mol–1
The Boltzmann constant, : 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1
Gravitational constant, : 6.67 × 10–11 N m2kg–2
Acceleration of free fall : 9.8 ms–2
Rydberg Constant : 1.097 × 107 m–1
Atomic mass unit : 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Charge on proton : 1.6 × 10–19 C

IMPORTANT VALUES

2 = 1.414 ln 10 = 2.303
3 = 1.732 log102 = 0.3010
5 = 2.236 log103= 0.4770
 = 3.142 log107 = 0.845
e (Euler’s constant) = 2.718

* Use above values unless otherwise specified in a question.

❑❑❑

[2]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions meter for length, and 5 minute for time. The value
1. Along the positive x-axis, the acceleration of a of 9000 Jeet is
small stone changes with its position as illustrated. (1) 10 N (2) 0.9 N
At x = 10 cm, the stone’s speed is measured to be (3) 1 N (4) 9 N
1 m/s. What will be its speed upon reaching x = 50
cm? 5. If Planck’s constant h, the speed of light c, and
gravitational constant G are combined to form a
quantity with dimensions of length (Planck
length), its value is proportional to (Given
hc Gm1m2
Energy, E = , and F = where λ is
 r2
wavelength of light and other symbols have usual
meaning)
hG h
(1) 3
(2)
c Gc 3
h 2G hG 2
(3) (4)
c5 c7
(1) 1.5 m/s (2) 2 m/s
(3) 2.5 m/s (4) 3 m/s 6. Drops of water fall steadily from a tap at a rate of m
drops per second. Derive an expression for the
2. In an experiment it is well known that pressure P separation x between two consecutive drops, where t
depends on F and l only. A student writes the is the time elapsed since the trailing drop began
F falling.
formula for pressure as P = k , where F is force,
l3 g gt g
l is a certain length and k is a known (1) 2
+ (2)
2m m 2m 2
dimensionless constant. Which statement is
g t 1
correct? (3) (4) +
2 2m 2m 2
(1) The expression is dimensionally correct. m
(2) For expression to be dimensionally correct
the power of l should be 2, not 3.  
(3) For expression to be dimensionally correct 7. For the equation z = P sin  − Ry  , where y and
the power of l should be –2, not 3. Q 
(4) For expression to be dimensionally correct z denote displacement and τ represents time,
the power of l should be –1, not 3. assuming the dimensional consistency of the
terms,
3. Match the following. It is known that electric (1) The dimensions of Q match those of R.
potential is work done per unit charge, (2) The dimensions of R match those of P.
(3) The product QR shares dimensions with yτ.
capacitance is charge per unit electric potential (4) The product PQR shares dimensions with τ.
and [inductance] [current]2 = [work done].
Column- I Column-II 8. A particle starts moving at t = 0 along a straight
line such that its position is given by
A Electric potential P [ML2T–2A–2]
x(t) = 2t3 – 9t 2 + 12t + 5 (where x is in meters and
B Resistance Q [ML2T–3A–1] t is in seconds). The particle momentarily comes
to rest at:
C Capacitance R [ML2T–3A–2] (1) t = 1s and t = 2s (2) t = 2s and t = 3s
D Inductance S [M–1L–2T 4A2] (3) t = 1s and t = 3s (4) t = 0s and t = 2s

A B C D 9. In order to estimate the visibility distance x of a

(1) P R Q S light in mist, a researcher concludes that it
(2) Q R P S depends on mist’s mass density ρ, light intensity S
(3) P Q R S (Power per Area), and frequency f. Given that x is
(4) Q R S P proportional to f a, the value of a is
(1) 1 (2) – 1
4. PW proposed a new system of units in which unit (3) –3 (4) 3
of force is Jeet. This system defines its
fundamental units as 100 grams for mass, 100
[3]
10. A Metro covers a distance x between two stops in (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
time T, first accelerating uniformly at a1 and then true.
immediately decelerating uniformly at a2. The (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
correct relation among these variables is:
15. A small block moves with uniform acceleration,
1 1 T2 1 1 T2 traversing distances a, b, and c in the pth, qth, and
(1) − = (2) + =
a1 a2 x a1 a2 x rth seconds, respectively. The correct relationship
is:
1 1 T2 1 1 T2
(3) + = (4) − = (1) a (q – r) + b (r – p) + c (p – q) = 0
a1 a2 2 x a1 a2 2 x (2) a (q + r) + b (r + p) + c (p + r) = 0
(3) a (q – r) – b (r – p) – c (p – r) = 0
11. A thin wire’s mass is recorded as (2 ± 0.04) kg, (4) b (q – r) + c (r – p) + a (p – q) = 0
radius as (0.6 ± 0.003) cm, and length as (0.7 ±
0.007) m. The highest possible percentage error in 16. When a potential difference of V = (10 ± 0.1) V
is applied across a resistor R, a current of I = (4 ±
calculating its density is:
0.2) A flows in the resistor. The value of
(1) 2% (2) 4%
resistance R is:
(3) 3.5% (4) 3% (1) (2.5 ± 0.05) 
(2) (2.5 ± 0.10) 
12. From the velocity-time graph provided, compute (3) (2.5 ± 0.20) 
the ratio of displacements during intervals OP and (4) (2.5 ± 0.15) 
PQ.
17. Starting from rest, a car undergoes acceleration as
depicted. Determine its speed after covering
distance x = 30 m.

3 1
(1) (2)
2 2
1 (1) 80 m/s
(3) (4) 1
3
(2) 60 m/s
13. A bus moves at a steady speed u. The driver (3) 50 m/s
notices another bus ahead, moving at speed (4) 90 m/s
v (< u) in the same direction, separated by
distance x. The least deceleration required to 18. A particle starts from rest at t = 0 and moves with
prevent collision is: acceleration a = (4 – 2t) m/s2 (where t is in
(u + v ) 2 (u − v)2 seconds). The maximum positive valued velocity
(1) (2) attained by the particle during its motion is:
x x
(1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(u + v ) 2 (u − v)2 (3) 6 m/s (4) 8 m/s
(3) (4)
2x 2x
19. Once propulsion is disengaged, a marine vessel
14. Given below are two statements: experiences a deceleration described by the
Statement-I: Area under acceleration time graph dv
relation = −bv 2 , where b is a fixed parameter.
from time 0 to time t gives the final velocity at time t. dt
Statement-II: Slope of displacement-time graph If the velocity at the instant of engine shutdown is
at any time t gives the average velocity from time u, the expression for its speed as a function of
elapsed time t is
0 to time t.
u u
In the light of given statements, choose the correct (1) (2)
2 1 + ubt
answer from the options given below. 1 + 2u bt
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true. u
(3) ue–bt (4)
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 2u 2bt + 1
false.
[4]
20. A particle moves along a straight line such that its
velocity v at position x is given by v² = 4x³ + 16.
Find the acceleration of the particle when it
reaches x = 3 m. (All units in SI)
(1) 18 m/s² (2) 36 m/s²
(3) 54 m/s² (4) 72 m/s²

Integer Type Questions

21. A small object begins at rest at the origin at t = 0
and moves along the positive x-axis. Its
24. Pressure (P), depends on two physical quantities A
acceleration has magnitude of 4 m/s2, but its
direction reverses every 2 seconds. At t = 13 s, the e – Af / kT
and B as per a relation P = , where kT
 100  B
magnitude of object’s position is x =   m.
 n  represents a portion of thermal kinetic energy
Find n. exhibited by a gas molecule. If f is frequency then
order of dimension of length in dimensional
22. A ship starts from rest with a constant acceleration formula of B is____.
of 0.25 ms–2 and then finally comes to rest with a
deceleration of 0.5 ms–2. The minimal time needed 25. A stone is dropped from the top of a multi-storey
to travel 8 km between two stops is t minutes and building. It passes a window of height H meters in
10 seconds. Determine t (to the nearest integer). T seconds. If the stone starts from rest and the top
of the window is at a depth h from the top of the
23. A radiant emitter S lies 100 meters away from a building, and the acceleration due to gravity is
vertically aligned detection plane AB. A pole of g = 10 m/s2, what is the numerical value of H (in
height 7 meters is made to travel directly toward meters) if T = 1 s and the speed of the stone as it
the screen from the source at a constant rate of
enters the window is 10 m/s?
18 m/s as shown. At the moment it is situated 30
meters from the source, determine the magnitude
of the velocity at which the top boundary of its
shadow traces the display surface.
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions (1) 20 (2) 30
26. For He+ ion in 1st excited state, select the correct (3) 40 (4) 60
statement(s):
(P) P.E. in 1st excited state is – 13.6 eV 28. Average atomic mass of a mixture containing
(Q) K.E. in 1st excited state is 13.6 eV two elements having successive atomic masses
(R) Total energy in 1st excited state is – 13.6 eV differing by 1 u and equal mole fractions is 10,
(1) P, Q, R (2) P, Q only then atomic mass of elements respectively (in
(3) Q, R only (4) P only amu).
(1) 8.5, 9.5 (2) 9.5, 10.5
27. Consider the following graph between the (3) 9, 10 (4) 8, 9
number of N-atoms in a compound vs weight of
the compound. 29. Ln, z = orbit angular momentum for nth orbit of
hydrogen and hydrogen like species then
L 2,2
calculate ratio of
L3,3
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 3

If the number of "N" atoms per formula unit of 30. A sample of carbon contains C12 and C14
the compound is 3, the formula weight of the isotopes. If the average number of neutrons per
substance will be atom is 6.08, the mole percentage of C14 isotope is
[Given : NA = 6 × 1023] (1) 2.5% (2) 3%
(3) 4% (4) 5%
[5]
31. Find [VD]mix of a gaseous mixture of O3 and O2. The above graph is correct for which group of
Molar ratio of O3 to O2 is 2 : 3 periodic table.
208 96 (1) Group : 1 (2) Group : 14
(1) (2)
5 5 (3) Group : 13 (4) Group : 15
104 192
(3) (4)
5 5
38. 2 litre of CO & CO2 is taken. The mixture is
32. Total number of nodes in 4px orbital is passed through red hot charcoal. The volume
(1) 2 (2) 3 now becomes 2.6 litre (All the volumes are
(3) 1 (4) 4 measured under same conditions). The
percentage of CO2 in mixture is
y q
33. xA & pB are isobars, while mCn is isotone with xAy (1) 30% (2) 60%
Select the correct option
(1) y = (n – m) (2) n = q – x + m (3) 40% (4) 50%
(3) x = p (4) (y – x) = (q – p)
39. Maximum number of electrons in a shell having
34. Match the following 1
Column-I Column-II ms = + will be: (ms = Spin quantum number)
2
A 4 P Number of nodes in 3s (1) 2 + 1 (2) 2n2
B 5 Q Number of sub-shells in third (3) n2 (4) 2(2 + 1)
energy level
C 3 R Number of unpaired electron in 40. Which of the following set of elements have
Fe2+
most negative electron gain enthalpy in their
D 2 S Number of electrons with n = 3 respective groups. (Check till 5th period)
in an atom of phosphorus. (1) (S, Na, F) (2) (S, Cl, Ne)
A B C D (3) (S, Sb, Cl) (4) (F, P, Se)
(1) R S Q P
(2) S Q P R 41. "X" mL of a 50% alcohol by weight (d = 0.6
(3) P Q S R
gm/mL) must be completely used to prepare 200
(4) R S P Q
ml of 24% alcohol by weight (d = 0.8 gm/mL).
35. In an experiment, 13.35 g of AlCl3 was produced Then the value of "X" will be :
and 0.35 g Al remained unreacted. How many (1) 60 (2) 64
moles of Al and Cl2, respectively, were taken (3) 88 (4) 128
originally (Al = 27, Cl = 35.5) ?
(1) 0.1; 0.1 (2) 0.155; 0.155
(3) 0.113; 0.15 (4) 0.155; 0.1 42. 300 gm, 40% (w/w) NaOH solution is mixed
with 500 gm 30% (w/w) NaOH solution. The
36. Which of the following order is CORRECT for resulting solution has the percentage (w/v) of
indicate property ? NaOH of 67.5% The density of the final solution
(1) C > Si > Ge > Sn > Pb (Ionization energy) is
(2) S > O > Se > Te (Electron gain enthalpy)
(1) 1 gm/mL
(3) SiO2 > Al2O3 > MgO (Basic character)
(4) Cl2O7 > N2O5 > P4O10 (acidic character) (2) 2 gm/mL
(3) 2.5 gm/mL
37. Carefully observe the following graph. (4) 3 gm/mL

43. Which of the following element does not show

variable covalency?
(1) Fluorine (F)
(2) Sulphur (S)
(3) Iodine (I)
(A,B,C,D,E are elements of one group)
(4) Phosphorus (P)

[6]
44. Which of the following can be CORRECT set 47. How many of the following are exothermic
of quantum numbers for the last electron enters changes?
in ꞌS' (sulphur atom). (A) N ( g ) + e− → N ( g )
−

1
(1) n = 4; l = 0; m = 0; s = + (B) Li(g) + e– → Li(g)–
2
(C) Be(g) + e– → Be(g)–
1
(2) n = 3; l = 1; m = 0; s = + (D) Mg(g) + e– → Mg(g)–
2
(E) B(g) + e– → B(g)–
1
(3) n = 3; ł =2; m = –1; s= + − 2−
2 (F) Be ( g ) + e− → Be ( g )
1 (H) P(g) + e– → P(g)–
(4) n = 3; l = 2; m = –3; s = +
2
48. If ratio of molarity and molality for 40%, (w/w)
45. How many of the following have aqueous solution of NaOH having density 2
electronegativity less than oxygen gm/cc is x : 1, then find out value of 5x/3:
F, C, N, Be, B, Na, Mg
(1) 1 (2) 6 49. In aqueous solution, how many of the following
(3) 2 (4) 3 oxides can change colour of red litmus paper ?
BaO, Cl2O7, SO2, SrO, Rb2O, P4O10, SiO2
Integer Type Questions
46. If the difference in the atomic numbers of Fe and
50. How many orbitals can have energies between
Al is ‘n’, then ‘2n’ is________.
those of 8s and 8p sub-shells according to
Aufbau principle?

SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 54. The complete solution set of the inequality ||x –
51. The complete set of values of k for which the 3| – 4|  12 is
equation |3x + 2| + |3x – 2| + |x + 1| + |x – 1| = k (1) x  [–4, 3] (2) x  [–19, 13]
has exactly two solution is
(3) x  [–3, 4] (4) x  [–13, 19]
(1) [4, ) (2) (4, )
(3) (6, ) (4) [6, ) 55. Consider the following statements:
S1 : log x 3  log x 2 is true for all values of
 x x  (0, 1)  (1, )
52. The number of solutions of sin   + 2018 x =
2
S2 : x − 2 = log x3 x12 , then x is 6, –2.
2 2
x + (1009) + π must be
4
(1) 1 (2) 2 S3 : log 25 (2 + tan 2 ) = 0.5, then  may be or
3
(3) 3 (4) 0
2
3
53. Consider the statements on sets A, B and C
State, in order, whether S1 , S2 , S3 are true(T) or
S-1: A − B = ( ( A  B ) − ( B − A) ) − ( A  B)
false (F)
S-2: A = ( A  B)  ( A − B) (1) FFT (2) FTT
S-3: A − ( A  B  C ) = ( A − B)  ( A − C ) (3) TFT (4) FTF
Which of following correct?
(1) S-1 and S-3 only 56. The value of expression
(2) S-2 only (1 + tan16º )(1 + cot 61º )(1 + cot 45º )
(3) S-2 and S-3 only (1 + cot 63º )(1 + tan18º )
(4) S-1 and S-2 only (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8

[7]
57. If P(X) represents the power-set of set X, then 64. If x2 + y2 = 9 then maximum value of 4x + 3y is
n(P(P(P(P(P(ϕ)))))) (where  represents the null (1) 25 (2) 5
set) is (3) 9 (4) 15
(1) 4 (2) 24
(3) 216 (4) 28 65. Match the following columns and choose correct
option
58. The maximum value of 8sin2x + 6sinx cosx – Column-I Column-II
4cos2x + 1 is A  2  P 1
2log 2  
(1) 11 (2) 13  5
(3) 3 ( )
5 −1 (4) 3 ( )
5 +1 (log220) + (log25)2 is
equal to
B If x = a is solution of the Q 4
  cos     sin   equation log6(2x+3) –
59. If sin   − cos   = 0 then the value
 2   2  log6(3x – 2) = x then the
of θ in the interval (0, π) is value of 9a is
  C log 36 4 + 24log 6 2  R 8
(1) (2)
2 4 3
log 6 3 + log 6 9 is equal
 
(3) (4) to
6 3 D If a, b, c  R and S 16
2 2
4a + 9b + c + 4a –
2
60. Number of negative real roots of the equation x +
6b – 4c + 6 = 0 then 4a +
1 – 2 log2(2x + 3) + log2(10 – 2–x) = 0 is 3b + c is equal to
(1) 0 (2) 1 T 27
(3) 2 (4) 3 A B C D
(1) Q S R P
61. Let the number N = 8 7 a 2 7 9 3 1 b, where a, b (2) Q T T S
are single digit whole numbers. (3) R S S T
If N is divisible by 12 but not divisible by 8 then (4) Q T T P
(1) least value of a is 0
(2) Number of values of a is 7 cos5º cos55º cos 65º
(3) least value of a is 2 66. If = a 3 + b then value of
sin 5º sin 55º sin 65º
(4) Number of values of a is 6 a + b is
(1) –1 (2) 2
62. Let A1, A2, …., A100 are sets such that
1
n(Ai) = n(Ai – 1) + 1, A1  A2  A3 ...  A100 . If A1 (3) 3 (4)
3
100
is a singleton set and Ai = A, then number of
i =3 67. An club awarded 48 prizes in dance, 25 in golf
proper subsets of A is and 18 in drama. If these prizes went to total 60
(1) 8 (2) 3 members and only five members got prizes in all
(3) 7 (4) 15 three events then how many received prizes in
atleast two of three events.
4 (1) 15 (2) 10
63. Let x = then
( 3 +1 )( 4
3 +1)( 8 3 + 1)(16 3 + 1) (3) 36 (4) 26

32
x  68. Let A and B be two sets such that n(A) = 30, n(B)
 + 1 equals = 35 and U be the universal set such that n (U) =
2 
(1) 3 (2) 6 55. If n (A  B) = 8 then n (A  B) is
(3) 9 (4) 4 (1) 57 (2) 55
(3) 65 (4) Data inappropriate
[8]
 1 72. The total number of positive integral solutions of
69. If sin   cos , cos   − and 0    2, then
2 x2 – y2 = 20250914 is.
 
maximum value of 2cos   +  is
 3 73. Number of integral values of x satisfying the
inequality
(1) – 2 (2) 3
 x2 − 5x + 6 
1 (e x −  x )log 2  31
 ( x − 8) ( x − 5)
5
(3) − (4) 1  2 
2 0
3 8 6
( x + 2) ( x − x + x 4 − x 2 + 1)
70. Statement-1 : Minimum value of |x – 2| + |x – 5|
+ |x + 3| is 8. 74. The product of value(s) of x satisfying the
equations 27 3 ( ) − 2 ln x − 5ln x + 6 = 0 is
( )
log ln x 2
Statement-2 : If a < b < c, then the minimum
value of |x – a| + |x – b| + |x – c| is |b – a| + |b – c|. λ. Then lnλ is equal to
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
75. If set of all real values of x satisfying x 2 − 3x − 1
Statement1.
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;  3x 2 + 2 x + 1 + 2 x 2 + 5 x + 2 , x 2 − 3x − 1  0 is
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(−, − a)  (−b, ), then find the value of
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False a + loga ab is equal to
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Integer Type Questions

 4 2 
 tan  9  − 33tan  9  + 27 
   
71. The value of   is

cosec 2   − 1
9

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[9]
 11th JEE Main

AJAM1/01 Test- 01
DURATION : 180 Minutes DATE : 14/09/2025 M.MARKS : 300

ANSWER KEY
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
1. (2) 26. (3) 51. (3)
2. (2) 27. (4) 52. (4)
3. (4) 28. (2) 53. (1)
4. (3) 29. (4) 54. (4)
5. (1) 30. (3) 55. (1)
6. (1) 31. (2) 56. (1)
7. (4) 32. (2) 57. (3)
8. (1) 33. (2) 58. (4)
9. (2) 34. (1) 59. (1)
10. (3) 35. (3) 60. (2)
11. (2) 36. (4) 61. (3)
12. (3) 37. (3) 62. (3)
13. (4) 38. (1) 63. (3)
14. (4) 39. (3) 64. (4)
15. (1) 40. (3) 65. (1)
16. (4) 41. (4) 66. (3)
17. (2) 42. (2) 67. (4)
18. (2) 43. (1) 68. (4)
19. (2) 44. (2) 69. (4)
20. (3) 45. (2) 70. (1)
21. (2) 46. (26) 71. (3)
22. (5) 47. (3) 72. (0)
23. (14) 48. (2) 73. (8)
24. (3) 49. (3) 74. (4)
25. (15) 50. (21) 75. (2)

[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
1. (2) 6. (1)
Using:
1 2
 s = ut + gt
v 2
 v2  f
   = Area under a – x curve Initially u = 0
 2  v Distance x1 from the faucet of any drop
i
1
2
(
1 2 2
) 1 1
v − 1 = −30  0.1 −  30  0.1 +  60  0.2
2 2
 x1 = gt 2
2
= 1.5 1
m drops in 1 second, so 1 drop takes second.
 v2 = 3 + 1 m
 v = 2 m/s Distance x2 from the faucet of the drop ahead,
2
1  1 1
2. (2)  x2 = g  t +  because as it is only
2  m m
P = kFalb
seconds ahead of the previous one.
MLT −2 a So, displacement,
 2
= k  MLT −2 
   L b
L  s = x2 – x1
 ML–1T–2 = kMa La + b T–2a 1  1 t  1
= g  t 2 + 2 + 2  − gt 2
 a = 1, a + b = –1 2  m m  2
 b = –2 g gt
= 2
+
kF 2m m
P= 2
l
7. (4)
3. (4) As input of trigonometrical function is
dimensionless
Energy ML2T −2
A. V= = = ML2T −3 A−1 
Charge AT So − Ry has no dimension
Q
v ML2T −3 A−1
B. R= = = ML2T −3 A−2 
i A So   = [ Ry ] = no dimension
Q 
Q AT
C. C= = = M −1L−2T 4 A2 
V ML2T −3 A−1 So [QR] =   = TL−1
W ML2T −2  y
D. L= 2
= 2
= ML2T −2 A−2 As trigonometrical functions are dimensionless
i A
So dimension of P = dimension of z
So dimension of PQR = T
4. (3)
9000 Jeet = 9000 M LT –2 8. (1)
= 9000  0.1 M  100 L  (300 T)–2 Given: x(t) = 2t3 – 9t2 + 12t + 5
9000  0.1  100 For the particle to come to rest momentarily,
= MLT − 2
300  300 velocity v = 0
=1N dx
v= = 6t 2 − 18t + 12
dt
5. (1) Setting v = 0: 6t2 – 18t + 12 = 0
l  hx cy Gz t2 – 3t + 2 = 0 (t – 1)(t – 2) = 0
[L]  [ML2T –1]x [LT –1]y [M –1L3T –2]z Therefore, t = 1 s and t = 2 s
 x – z = 0, 2x + y + 3z = 1, –x – y – 2z = 0
9. (2)
1 −3 1
 x = , y = ,z = Let formula for x is given by
2 2 2 x = k ρaSbf c …(1),
 l  h1/2c −3/2G1/2 Here k is dimensionless constant and f is
hG frequency
 l
c3

[2]
 2 -3
 Power  ML T (u − v)2
We know [ S ] =   = = MT 3 Minimum retardation =
 Area  L2 2x
So from (1)
[x] = [ρa] [Sb] [f c] 14. (4)
[L] = [ML–3]a [MT–3]b [T–1]c Area under acceleration-time graph gives the
L = Ma + b L–3a T–3b – c
change in velocity. Slope of displacement-time
So a + b = 0
graph at any time t gives the instantaneous
1
−3a = 1  a = − velocity at that time t.
3
and –3b – c = 0
1 15. (1)
 b = −a =
3 q
a = u + (2 p − p )
 c = –3b = –1 2
q
b=u+ (2q − p )
10. (3) 2
v2 v2 v2  1 1  q
s= + =  +  c = u + (2r − p )
2a 2b 2  a b  2
v v  ab  Solving the above equation we get
Again t = +  v = t 
a b a+b a (q – r) + b (r – p) + c (p – q) = 0
t2 1 1
s=  +  16. (4)
1 1 a b
2 +   V 10
a b R= = = 2.5 
I 4
t2 1 1
 = + R V I
2s a b = +
R V I
11. (2) R 0.1 0.2
 = +
The volume of the wire is given by, V = πr2L 2.5 10 4
m  R = 0.15 
Thus density of the wire, ρ = 2
r L  R = (2.5  0.15) 
Taking log and then differentiate:
 m r L 17. (2)
  100 =  100 + 2  100 +  100
 m r L dv
a= v
 0.04 0.003 ds
  100 =  100 + 2  100
 2 0.6 s v v2 − u 2
  a . ds =  v . dv =
0.007 0 u 2
+  100 = 4%
0.7
v2 − u 2
 Percentage error in density is 4%.  Area under a ~ s curve =
2
12. (3) 1 1 v2
  90  1.2 −  60  0.8 =
1 2 2 2
s1  PR  OP
Area OPR 2
= =  v = 60 m/s
s2 Area PQR 1  PR  PQ
2
s1 PR cot 60 1 18. (2)
 = = Given: a = 4 – 2t m/s2
s2 PR cot 30 3
For maximum velocity, acceleration becomes
zero: 4 – 2t = 0  t = 2 s
13. (4)
Velocity as a function of time:
Here relative velocity of the bus w.r.t other bus is
t
u – v. Hence, 0 – (u – v) = 2ax
v =  ( 4 − 2t ) dt = 4t − t 2
(u − v)2 0
or a = −
2x At t = 2 s: vmax = 4(2) – (2)2 = 8 – 4 = 4 m/s
[3]
19. (2) 23. (14)
v t
dv
 v2 = −b  dt
u 0

1 1
 − = bt
v u
1 1
 = + bt
v u
u Let S is origin and SA is x-axis
 v=
1 + but Let y co-ordinate of upper edge of shadow is y
using similar ΔSPQ and ΔSAR
20. (3) x 100
=
Given: v² = 4x³ + 16 7 y
Differentiating: 2v(dv/dx) = 12x² 700
y=
Therefore: a = v(dv/dx) = 6x² x
Acceleration = 6(3)² = 54 m/s² dy  1 dx 
Now, = 700  − 2 
dt  x dt 
21. (2) Here V0 is velocity of object
Let xt represent displacement during 0 to t sec and So for x = 30,
Velocity of upper edge of shadow,
vt is velocity of particle at time t
dy −700
In first 2 sec, velocity increases by 2 × 4 = 8 m/s =  18 = −14 m/s
dt (30)2
so in next 2 sec velocity decreases by 2 × 4 = 8
Here negative sign means velocity direction is
m/s and this pattern of increase and decrease will
towards BA .
continue.
So v0 = 0, v4 = 0, v8 = 0, v12 = 0 and v2 = 8 m/s, 24. (3)
v6 = 8 m/s, v10 = 0, v14 = 0  Af 
1  kT  = L
So, x2 =  4  22 = 8m  
2
[ A]T –1
1 = L
x4 = x2 + 0 −  (− 4)  22 = 16 m ML2 T –2
2
[A] = [ML2T–1]
From above pattern we can say
[ ML2 T –1
] +1
Displacement during 0 to 4 = Displacement [ B] = –1 –2
= [ L3 T ]
[ ML T ]
during 4 to 8
= Displacement during 8 to 12
25. (15)
So displacement during 0 to 12, Let v1 be the speed of the stone as it enters the
x12 = 16 + 16 + 16 = 48 m window (top of the window). Given v1 = 10 m/s.
Now Displacement during 12 to 13 sec The height of the window is H. The time taken to
1 pass the window is T = 1 s.
= 0 +  4  12 = 2 m Using the equation of motion for the window
2
1
So Displacement during 0 to 13 sec = 50 m section: H = v1T + gT 2 .
2
Given g = 10 m/s2.
22. (5) 1
H = (10 )(1) + (10 )(1)
2
1/2 1/2
 2( + )l   2l  2
tmin =   vmax =  
    + H = 10 + 5
H = 15 m
(0.25 + 0.5)8  103  2
tmin = = 310s = 5min10s
0.25  0.5
[4]
 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
 y=q …(i)
26. (3) n y
m C &x A are isotone
+ 22 PE n
For He ion En = –13.6 × = –KE =  (n – m) = (y – x) …(2)
n2 2
From eq. (1) & (2)
For n = 2, E2 = –13.6 eV
n–m=q–x
P.E. = – 27.6 eV
n=m+q–x
K.E = 13.6 eV
34. (1)
27. (4) no. of nodes = n – 1
No. of Atoms
wt. of substance × N A  atomicity of "N" 35. (3)
=
m.w. 3
Al + Cl2 → AlCl3
 N  Atomicity of "N"  2
y = x A 
 m.w.  0.1 0.15 0.1
23
6  10  3
3  1022 =
MF 36. (4)
MF = 60 Conceptual

28. (2) 37. (3)

Due to poor screening the I.E. increases
A B
%mole 50% 50%
38. (1)
atomic mass M (M + 1) Let volume of CO2 is x litre
Total mass  CO2 + C → 2CO
M Avg =
Total mole Total volume = 2 + x = 2.6
50  M + 50(M + 1) x = 0.6
10 =
100 % CO2 = 30
M = 9.5
39. (3)
29. (4) Total number of electron in a shell = 2n2
nh Number of electron in a shell having
L n,z = (ms = + 1/2) = n2
2

40. (3)
30. (3)
Factual
Navg = 6  (1 − x ) + 8  x = 6.08
x = 0.04 41. (4)
50 24
X  0.6  = 200  0.8 
31. (2) 100 100
O3 O 2 X = 128 mL
Mole ratio : 2 3
M avg 96 + 96 192 96 42. (2)
[VD]mix = = = = 40
2 25 25 5 W1NaOH =  300 = 120
100
32. (2) 30
W2 NaOH =  500 = 150
Number of Nodal surfaces = n – 1 100
Wt NaOH = 120 + 150 = 270g
Wt (Soln) = 300 + 500 = 800g
33. (2)
67.5  800
y q D= =2
x A &p B are isobar 270  100
[5]
43. (1) 48. (2)
Fluorine does not show variable covalency 40 gm NaOH present in 100 gm of solution
100gm
Volume of solution =  ml = 50 ml
44. (2) 2gm
Conceptual
40 / 40
M= = 20M
50 / 100
45. (2)
1 50
Except F, all the given have electro-negativity m=  1000 = m
(100 − 40) 3
less than oxygen

46. (26) 49. (3)

Fe = 26 Theory Base
Al = 13
n = 26 – 13 =13 50. (21)
2n = 26 7d, 6f, 5g

47. (3)
Li, B and P
SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
51. (3) S2 : x − 2 = 4
Sketch of |3x + 2| + |3x – 2| and k – |x – 1| – |x +
 x = 6 only
1|
S3 : log 25 (2 + tan 2 ) = 0.5
Overlap at k = 6
 for k > 6 both graphs intersects exactly 1 1
 log 5(2 + tan 2 ) =
twice. 2 2
 2 + tan 2  = 5
52. (4)  tan 2  = 3  tan  =  3
 x 2 4
sin   + 2018x = x 2 + (1009)2 + 
2   may takes values or
3 3
 x
 sin   =  x 2 − 2018x + (1009)2  + 
2 56. (1)
 x 
 sin   = ( x − 1009) 2 +  If A + B = then (1 + tan A)(1 + tan B) = 2
2 4
Since LHS cannot be greater than 1 2 2
 =2
The number of solution is zero 2

57. (3)
53. (1)
Number of element in P(x) = n(x)2n(x)
Using venn diagrams
number of elements in P() = 1
A – B = ((A  B) – (A  B)) – (B – A) is correct number of elements in P(P()) = 21 = 2
A = ( A  B)  ( A − B) is incorrect number of elements in P(P(P())) = 22 = 4
Similarly (3) is also true number of elements in P(P(P(P()))) = 24 = 16
number of elements in P(P(P(P(P(ϕ))))) = 216
54. (4)
58. (4)
–12  |x – 3| – 4  12
 – 8  |x – 3|  16
 1 − cos 2 x   1 + cos 2 x 
 |x – 3|  16 8  + 3 ( 2sin x cos x ) − 4   +1
 2   2 
 –16  (x – 3)  16
 –13  x  19  4 – 4cos2x + 3 sin2x – 2 – 2cos2x + 1
 3 + 3sin2x – 6cos2x = λ (say)
55. (1)    3 − 45,3 + 45 
S1 : log x 3  log x 2  x  1

[6]
59. (1)  Number of proper subsets = 23 – 1 = 7
  cos      sin  
sin   = sin    63. (3)
 2  2 2 
  cos      sin  
 =   x=
(
4 31/16 − 1 ) = 2.31/6 − 2
 2  2 2  3 −1
  x
(cos   sin ) =  + 1 = 31/16
2 2 2
cos  = 1  sin   cos   sin  = 1 x 
32

 sin2θ = 0   + 1 = 32 = 9
2 
 2θ = 0, π, 2π
 64. (4)
 θ=
2 x = 3cosθ, y = 3sinθ
 4x + 3y = 3(4cosθ + 3sinθ)
60. (2)  (4x + 3y)max = 3  5 = 15
x + 1 − 2log 2 (2 x + 3) + log 2 (10 − 2− x ) = 0 …(1)
65. (1)
Put 2 x = t  x = log 2 t 4
(A) log 2  log 2 20 + (log 2 5) 2
10t − 1  5
log 2 t + 1 − 2log 2 (t + 3) + log 2  =0
 t  = (2 − log 2 5)(2 + log 2 5) + (log 2 5) 2
1 + log 2 t − log 2 (t + 3) 2 + log 2 (10t − 1) − log 2 t = 0 = 4 − (log 2 5) 2 + (log 2 5) 2 = 4
 10t − 1  2 x +3
log 2  2 
= −1 (B) log 6 =x
 (t + 3)  3x − 2
10t − 1 1  8.2 x = 6 x  (3x − 2)
 =
(t + 3) 2 2  8 = (3x ) 2 − 2.3x
20t − 2 = (t + 3) 2  (3x − 4)(3x + 2) = 0
t 2 − 14t + 11 = 0 …(2)  3x = 4  x = log 3 4 = a
 2 x = 7  38  9log3 4 = 16
 One positive and one negative root (C) log 36 4 + 6log 6 4  log 6 9 + log 36 9
= (log 6 4 + log 6 9)3 = 23 = 8
61. (3)
(D) (2a + 1) 2 + (3b − 1) 2 + (c − 2) 2 = 0
N is divisible by 12, if N is divisible by 3 as well
as by 4 for divisibility by 4, we have 1 1
a=− ,b= ,c=2
b = 2, 6 2 3
For divisibility by 3, we have  4a + 3b + c = −2 + 1 + 2 = 1
8 + 7 + a + 2 + 7 + 9 + 3 + 1 + b = a + b + 37 is
divisible by 3 66. (3)
i.e. a + b + 1 is divisible by 3 1
cos5º cos55º cos 65º = cos15º
(i) when b = 2, N is divisible by 3 if a = 0, 3, 6, 9 4
(ii) when b = 6, N is divisible by 3 if a = 2, 5, 8 1 3 +1 3 +1
=  =
But as N is not divisible by 8 4 2 2 8 2
case (i) is discarded 1
Similarly sin5° sin55°sin65° = sin15
4
62. (3)
We have n( Ai ) = i + 1 67. (4)
 n( A1 ) = 1, n( A2 ) = 2, n( A3 ) = 3 n( A  B  C ) = n( A) − n( A  B) + n( A  B  C )
Similarly n( A100 ) = 100 n( A  B) = 36
Given A1  A2  A3 ...  A100
68. (4)
As A3 is a subset of all the successive sets n (A  B) = n (A) + n (B) – n (A  B)
 A3  A4  A5  A100 = A3 = 30 + 35 – 8 = 57
 A3 = A But n (A  B) > n ()
 n( A) = n( A3 ) = 3  Data inappropriate

[7]
69. (4) 73. (8)
1 x8 − x 6 + x 4 − x 2 + 1  0  x  R
sin   cos , cos   − in (0, 2)
2  x2 − 5x + 6 
5 4 (e x −  x )  log 2  ( x − 8)( x − 5)
   2 
4 3 0
( x + 2)
19  5
+   x2 − 5x + 6 
12 3 3 ( x − e x )  log 2  ( x − 5)( x − 8)
  2 
 0
 2cos   +  =1 ( x + 2)
 3 max

70. (1)
When x < a graph of y = f(x) will decrease x  (−2, 0]   [1, 2)  (3, 4]  [5, 8]
when a  x < b, then also y = f(x) will decrease So 8 integral values satisfy the inequality.
when b  x < c, then y = f(x) will increase and
74. (4)
when x  c, then also y = f(x) will increase
(ln x) 2 − 1 + ln 3 x − 3ln 2 x − 5ln x + 7 = 0
71. (3) Put ln x = t
t 3 − 2t 2 − 5t + 6 = 0
3tan  − tan 3 
tan 3 = (t − 1)(t − 3)(t + 2) = 0
1 − 3tan 2 
1
 x = e, x = e3 , x = 2
Put  = & tan  = t e
9 Hence two values of x are possible
3t − t 3 1
 3= x = 2 is rejected.
1 − 3t 2 e
Squaring we get
3 (1 – 3t2)2 = (3t – t3)2 75. (2)
 3 – 18t2 + 27t4 = 9t2 + t6 – 6t4 x 2 − 3x − 1  3x 2 + 2 x + 1 + 2 x 2 + 5 x + 2 ,
 t6 – 33t4 + 27t2 = 3
x 2 − 3x − 1  0
72. (0)  (3x 2 + 2 x + 1) − (2 x 2 + 5 x + 2)
Since R.H.S. is an even integer  3x 2 + 2 x + 1 + 2 x 2 + 5 x + 2 ,
Hence x2 – y2 is also an even integer
 x & y are both even or both odd and x 2 − 3x − 1  0
x2 – y2 = (x + y) (x – y) The inequality holds if and only if
Since x & y are both even or both odd (3 x 2 + 2 x + 1)(2 x 2 + 5 x + 2)  0
Hence all (x + y), (x – y), are even i.e. 2 x 2 + 5 x + 2  0
 x2 – y2 is divisible by 4 but R.H.S. is not i.e. (2 x + 1)( x + 2)  0
divisible by 4. i.e. x  (−, − 2)  (−1/2, )
1
 a = 2 and b =  a + log ab = 2
2

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[8]