PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. Velocity of a particle depend on time t according to

This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4
equation :-
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions
c
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, V= √ ab + bt +
d+t
marks will be awarded as follows: The a, b, c and d represents the following quantities
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. in order :-
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. (A) Distance, distance, acceleration, time
1. Which of the following is not a unit of time? (B) Acceleration, distance, time, distance
(A) microsecond
(C) Acceleration, distance, distance, time
(B) leap year
(D) Distance, acceleration, distance, time
(C) lunar month
5. The atmospheric pressure in SI units is 1.01 × 105
(D) light year
Pascal. Its value in CGS units is :
2. If K represents kinetic energy, V represents velocity and T
represents time, and these are chosen as the fundamental (A) 1.01 × 104 dyne/cm2
units then, the dimensional formula of surface tension is (B) 1.01 × 105 dyne/cm2
(Given : surface tension is force per unit length) :- (C) 1.01 × 106 dyne/cm
(A) [KV – 2T – 2] (B) [KV – 1T – 2] (D) 1.01 × 106 dyne/cm2
(C) [K2V – 1T – 3] (D) [KV – 2T – 1]
6. If the speed v of a particle of mass m as function of
3. Assertion (A) : Unit vector has a unit though its
magnitude is one. k
time t is given by v = ω A sin [(
√
) t] .
m
Reason (R) : Unit vector is obtained by dividing a
vector by its own magnitude. Where A has dimension of length.
(A) Assertion is true, Reason is true and Reason is k
correct explanation for Assertion. (A) √
t must be a dimensionless quantity
m
(B) Assertion is true, Reason is true and Reason is (B) Dimensional formula of ω is LT – 1
NOT the correct explanation for Assertion. (C) Dimensional formula of k is MLT – 2
(C) Assertion is true, Reason is false. k
(D) Dimensional formula of √
is T
(D) Assertion is false, Reason is true. m

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7. In a certain system of units, 1 unit of time is 20 sec, 10. A man moves 60 m towards north then 80 m
1 unit of mass is 20 kg and 1 unit of length is 20 m. towards east and finally 100 m towards 53° west of
In this system, one unit of power will correspond to south. His displacement from origin is :-
(A) 20 watts (A) 50√2 m
1 (B) 0 m
(B) watts
20
(C) 400 watts (C) 10 m

(D) 1 watts (D) 120 m

→ = 3i^ + 4j^ and B
→ = 6i^ + 8j^. Which of the 11. For shown situation, what will be the magnitude of
8. Given A
minimum force in newton that can be applied in
following statements is INCORRECT ? any direction so that the resultant force is along
(A) → ⋅B
A → = 50 north direction?
∣ →∣
A
∣ ∣ 1
(B) =
∣ →∣
B 2
∣ ∣

(C) →∣
∣A
∣ ∣=5
(D) → ⋅B
A → = 48

9. List-I contains dimensional formula and list-II (A) 15 (B) 6

contains physical quantities, match them correctly.
(C) 5 (D) 8
List-I List-II
(P) [ML2T – 2] (1) Energy 12. Given that 0.2i^ + 0.6j^ + ak^ is a unit vector. What is
the value of a ?
(Q) [ML2T – 3] (2) Force
(A) √ 0.3 (B) √ 0.4
(R) [M0L0T – 1] (3) Power
(C) √ 0.6 (D) √ 0.8
(S) [MLT – 2] (4) Frequency
13. The resultant of which pair cannot have a
(5) Torque
magnitude of 4N ?
(A) (P) - (1,5) ; (Q) - (3) ; (R) - (4) ; (S) - (2) (A) 2N and 3N
(B) (P) - (2) ; (Q) - (4) ; (R) - (3) ; (S) - (1) (B) 3N and 3N
(C) (P) - (1) ; (Q) - (4) ; (R) - (2) ; (S) - (3) (C) 2N and 6N
(D) (P) - (3) ; (Q) - (2) ; (R) - (1) ; (S) - (4) (D) 3N and 8N

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14. If PR = RQ, then: 17. Which among the following is correct graphical
representation of a vector?

(A) (B)
(A) →a + →b = 2→c

(B) →a − →b = →c (C) (D)

(C) →a − →b = 2→c
18. The dimensional formula for which of the
(D) →a + →b = →c following pair is not the same :-
15. Statement 1 : Method of dimensions cannot tell (A) impulse and momentum
whether an equation is correct.
Statement 2 : A dimensionally incorrect equation (B) torque and work
may be correct. (C) stress and pressure
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and (D) momentum and angular momentum
statement-2 is correct explanation for 19. Which of the following is perpendicular to ^i − ^j − k^ ?
statement-1.
^ ^
(A) i + ^j + k
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
^ ^ ^
statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation (B) −i + j + k
for statement-1. ^ ^ ^
(C) i +j −k
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) none of these
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
20. The approximate value of x where
16. → +B
A → is perpendicular to A → and it is given that x = sin 1° cos 1°, is
∣→ ∣ → +B
→ ∣ than angle between A
→ and B
→ will be :-
B = 2 ∣∣A
∣ ∣ ∣ (A) π
90
(A) 30°
(B) 2
(B) 150°
(C) π
(C) 120° 180
(D) π
(D) 0° 45

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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) 5. A car is traveling at 20 m/s. The driver applies the
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to brakes, and the car slows with 4.0 m/s2. The
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 stopping distance(in m) is x0. The value of x0/10 is
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted 6. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the
questions will be evaluated. ground. It crosses a point at a height 25 m twice at
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value. an interval of 4 sec. Find the initial velocity of ball
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case (g = 10 m/s2)
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to
the nearest Integer). 7. If ¯a1 and ¯a2 are two non-collinear unit vectors and
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to if |a¯1 + ¯a2 | = 3, then the value of (a¯1 − ¯a2 ).
√

the following marking scheme: (2a¯1 + ¯a2 ) is 1 . Find the value of x.

x
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered. → = 2i + j + k^ and B
^ ^ → = ^i + 2j^ + 2k^ , find the
8. If A
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
magnitude of component of A → +B→ along B
( )
→.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.
1. A particle is thrown vertically upward. Its velocity 9. A normal human eye can see an object making an
at half of the maximum height is 10 m/s, then the angle of 1.8° at the eye. What is the height (in cm)
maximum height attained by it is ‘h’ m. Fill ‘h/2’ in in nearest integer of object which can be seen by an
the OMR sheet. (g = 10 m/s2) eye placed at a distance of 1 m from the object.
2. A motor cyclist accelerates from rest with
acceleration of 2 m/s2 for a time of 10 sec. Then he
moves with a constant velocity for 20 sec and then
finally comes to rest with an deceleration of 1 m/s2. 10. Assume that the largest stone of mass 'm' that can
Average speed for complete journey is 2a m/s. be moved by a flowing river depends upon the
Then find the value of a. velocity of flow v, the density d & the acceleration
3. A particle starts with 10 m/s under acceleration of due to gravity g . If 'm' varies as the Kth power of
2 m/s2 on straight line. The displacement in third the velocity of flow, then find the value of K .
second is 5 α meter then find the value of α .
4. A ball is projected from ground such that maximum
height achieved by ball is 20 m. Find the time of
flight of the ball (in sec).

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 PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. Which electronic configuration represents correct

This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 ground state electronic configuration :
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions (A) 1s2 , 2s1 , 2p6 , 3s1 (B) 1s2 , 2s2 , 3s2 , 3p2
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question,
marks will be awarded as follows: (C) (D)
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
5. The percentage of orbitals occupied by electron out
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. of total orbitals present upto the outer most filled
shell of Fe atom
1 (A) 50% (B) 70%
1. An electron has a spin quantum number + and
2
magnetic quantum number – 1. It can not be present in : (C) 25% (D) 35%
(A) d-orbital (B) ƒ-orbital 6. Select the order of size which are correct ?
(C) p-orbital (D) s-orbital (A) O > O¯ > O2 – (B) B > Be > Li
2. The electrons, identified by quantum number n and ℓ : (C) Mg > Mg+ > Mg2+ (D) Sc < Zn
(i) n = 3 ; ℓ = 0 7. Suppose an orbital may accommodate three electrons,
(ii) n = 5 ; ℓ = 2 then estimate the number of elements in 2nd period
(iii) n = 2 ; ℓ = 1 (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12
(iv) n = 4 ; ℓ = 3 8. Correct statement among the following is/are
can be placed in order of increasing energy from the (i) IE1 of Tl is less than that of In due to its larger
lowest to highest as : atomic size
(A) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) (ii) 4dyz and 4pz have at least one common nodal plane
(iii) Diagonal relationship is shown by all elements of
(B) (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (ii)
3rd and 4th period.
(C) (ii) < (iii) < (iv) < (i) (iv) F has highest ionisation potential in halogen group
(D) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii) (v) I.P1 of Ga > I.P1 of A ℓ
3. Correct order of Ist ionization potential are : (A) (ii), (iv), (v) (B) (i), (iv), (v)
(I) O < N < F (II) He > Ne > Ar (C) (iii), (iv), (v) (D) All are correct
(III) Ge < Si < C
9. Total number of subshells possible for n + ℓ = 7
(A) I, II (B) II, III are -
(C) I, II & III (D) III only (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 2

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10. 2py , 3py and 4py have same 16. In which of the following pairs of elements, the
(P) (n + ℓ ) (Q) shape size of Ist element is higher as compare to IInd ?
(R) size (S) nodal plane (A) Sc, Zn (B) Sc, La
(T) Energy (C) Cu, Ag (D) Hf, La
(A) P, Q, S (B) Q, S, T 17. The difference in number of electrons present in
(C) Q, S (D) P, Q, S, T spherical symmetrical orbital in Pd (Z = 46) and
11. The type of block, period number and group number Pt (Z = 78) is.
of the element having atomic number Z = 85 are (A) 2 (B) 4
respectively (C) 1 (D) 3
(A) d-block, 6, 12 (B) p-block, 6, 5 18. Assertion (A) : In lithium atom the valence electron
(C) ƒ-block, 6, 3 (D) p-block, 6, 17 experience a net positive charge which is less than
12. Which of the following can hold maximum 2 electron the actual charge of +3.
Reason (R) : 2s electron in lithium is shielded from
(A) 4dx2 – y2 orbital (B) K-shell
the nucleus by the inner core of 1s electrons.
(C) 3px orbital (D) All are correct (A) A is false but R is true.
13. Which of the following is correct order of Zeff : (B) A is true but R is false.
–
(A) I > I > I+ (B) Mg2+ > Na+ > F – (C) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(C) P5+ < P3+ (D) Li > Be >B explanation of A.
14. The correct order of atomic size of C, N, P, S (D) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
follows the order: correct explanation of A.
(A) N < C < P < S (B) C < N < S < P 19. Statement-I : The first ionization enthalpy of boron
(C) N < C < S < P (D) C < N < P > S (Z = 5) is slightly less than that of beryllium (Z = 4)
Statement-II : The penetration of a 2s-electron to the
15. If ' ℓ ' (azimuthal quantum number) assumes value nucleus is more than that of a 2p-electron.
1 1
from 0 to (n+1) and ms = ( − , 0, ) and electrons (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3 3
are filled shell after shell instead of obeying Aufbau (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
principle, then element with atomic number 27 will incorrect.
lie in (rest all rules are valid) (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(A) s-block (B) p-block incorrect.
(C) d-block (D) f-block (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Space for Rough Work Page 7/12

20. Match the List. 1. Number of orbitals with n = 5 with m ℓ = – 2 is :-
List-II 2. How many d-electrons in Cu+ can have the spin
List-I (Related period number & 1
quantum number ( − ) ?
2
(Atomic Number) group number according
to long form of periodic table) 3. What is the value of isotopic excess for 80
36 Kr ?

4. Find total number of electrons in Cr(Z = 24) which

(P) Z = 14 (1) 4, 3
do not have : (n + ℓ ) = 0
(Q) Z = 21 (2) 3, 14
5. How many of following matter are classified as
(R) Z = 31 (3) 6, 13 compounds :
(S) Z = 81 (4) 4, 13 (i) O2 (ii) CH4 (iii) Gold
(iv) NH3 (v) air (vi) Brass
The correct option is :- (vii) Tap water
(A) P→2 ; Q→1 ; R→3 ; S→4 6. If Zeff for (as Slater's rule)
(B) P→1 ; Q→2 ; R→4 ; S→3 3d electron of Fe is x, then value of (x – 0.25) will
be :
(C) P→2 ; Q→1 ; R→4 ; S→3
7. Among number of elements having IE1 more than
(D) P→4 ; Q→3 ; R→1 ; S→2
C are :-
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) Li, Be, B, N, O, A ℓ , Mg, Na, Ne, He
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to 8. Uub is the symbol for the element with atomic
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 number
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted 9. If electron are filled in element not by (n + ℓ ) rule
questions will be evaluated. but as 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 3d, 4s.... and one period
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value. will start as usual while completes on completion
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case of respective shell, then predict the period of
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to element having atomic number 59.
the nearest Integer). 10. In lother meyer curve, if number of elements
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to occupying ascending part of curve from the given
the following marking scheme: list is equal to x and number of elements occupying
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered. the descending part of curve from the given list are
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered. y, then calculate 2 × x – y.
Li, Be, Na, Br, Cs, Ca, Cl, Mg, I, Ba, Rb, Sr
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.

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 PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. If A = {a, b, {c, d}, e} then correct statement is
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 (A) {c} ∈ A (B) {c, d} ∈ A
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions
(C) {c, d} ⊂ A (D) {d} ∈ A
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question,
marks will be awarded as follows: 5. If p > q > 0 are two real numbers, then the value of
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
√ pq + (p − q)√pq + (p − q)√pq + (p − q)√pq+. . . . . . .
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. is -
1. If A = {2, 4} and B = {1, 2, 5}, then (A ∪ B) × (A ∩ B) (A) independent of q
is (B) independent of p
(A) {(2,1), (2,2), (2,4), (2,5)} (C) independent of both p and q
(B) {(1,2), (2,2), (2,4), (5,2)} (D) dependent on both p and q.
(C) {(1,2), (2,2), (4,2), (5,2)} 6. The numbers 221, 315, 59,69,116 are arranged from
(D) None of these smallest to largest. The number which will be in the
2. A survey shows that 61% of Indian like cheese middle is -
where as 72% like mangoes. If µ% of the Indian
like both cheese and mangoes then (A) 221 (B) 315
(A) µ < 61 (B) µ < 33 (C) 59 (D) 116
(C) µ > 61 (D) 33 ≤ µ ≤ 61 7. 2n (A∖B) = n (B∖A) and 5n (A ∩ B) = n (A) + 3n (B)

3. Assertion (A) : If 2a
=
c 1
= , then
3b − 7d
= 5. where P\Q = P ∩ QC. If n (A ∪ B) ⩽ 10, then the
3b d 5 2a − 7c
a c a−b c−d n (A) . n (B) . n (A ∩ B)
Reason (R) : If = = k, then = =k value of is -
b d a+b c+d 8
(A) A is correct but R is not correct (A) 63 (B) 72
(B) A is not correct but R is correct (C) 90 (D) 70
(C) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the 8. Sets A and B have 4 and 9 elements each. What can
correct explanation of A be the minimum number of elements in A ∪ B ?
(D) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct (A) 4 (B) 13
explanation of A (C) 5 (D) 9

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9. List-I List-II 12. If x and y are positive real numbers such that
x3 + 8y3 + 24xy = 64, then the value of (x + 2y) is
If x2 – 3x + 2 is a factor of
(A) 8 (B) 4
(A) x4 – ax2 + b then the value of a + b (I) 6
(C) 2 (D) 1
is
13. 1 1 1
If x2 – x – 1 = 0 then the value of Let T= − +
(B) (II) 47 3 − √8 √ 8 − √7 √ 7 − √6
1 1 1
x8 + is equal to − + then
x8 √ 6 − √5 √ 5+2
The expression (A) T < 1 (B) T = 1
3 √
(C) [ 7 + 4 √3 + √ 7 − 4 √3 ] (III) 9 (C) 1 < T < 2 (D) T < 2
2
simplifies to 14. Number of values of x satisfying the equation
x2 −4 5
Two finite sets have m and n (x − 3) = (x − 3) is/are :-

elements. The number of subsets of (A) 2 (B) 3

(D) the first set is 112 more than that of (IV) 11 (C) 0 (D) 1
the second set. The value of (m + n)
15. Statement-1 : If 3x + 2y + z ≠ 0 & (2x + y)3 +
is equal to
(x + 2z)3 + (y – z)3 – 3(2x + y) (x + 2z) (y – z) = 0,
(A) (A) – III ; (B) – I ; (C) – II ; (D) – IV then 2x + y = x + 2z = y – z
(B) (A) – IV ; (B) – I ; (C) – II ; (D) – III and
(C) (A) – IV ; (B) – II ; (C) – I ; (D) – III Statement-2 : a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = 0 ⇒ a = b = c

(D) (A) – III ; (B) – II ; (C) – I ; (D) – IV (A) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
1 1 1 (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
10. If r 4 + = 3 then value of (r2 + ) is
1
r4 r2 (C) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
(A) 3541 (B) 2481 (D) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
(C) 3121 (D) 2207 √ a. a−2/3 a−5/6
16. + is equal to -
11. The least value of 6
√ a 5 3
√ a . a−1/2
2

x2 + 4y2 + 3z2 – 2x – 12y – 6z + 14, is (A) 2 (B) 2a

a
(A) 0 (B) 2
4
(C) 3a1/2 (D)
(C) 3 (D) 1 a1/2

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17. In a certain town, 25% families own a cell phone, 1. Let A = {n ∈ N | n2 ≤ n + 10,000}, B = {3k +1 | k ∈ N}
15% families own a scooter and 65% families own and C = {2k | k ∈ N}, then the sum of all the elements of
neither a cell phone nor a scooter. If 500 families M
the set A ⋂(B – C) is equal to M, then the value of .
own both a cell phone and a scooter, then the total 104
number of families in the town is 2. Let P(x) be a polynomial such that when P(x) is
(A) 10000 (B) 20000 divided by (x – 11), then the remainder is 53 and
when P(x) is divided by (x – 99), then the remainder
(C) 30000 (D) 40000
is – 35. If r(x) is the remainder when P(x) is divided
18. If √
3 + √3 + √2 + √3 + √7 + √48 = √x + √y, x, by (x – 11) (x – 99) then r(63) is equal to
y ∈ R then the value of x + y is 3. The number of possible ordered pairs (x,y) (where x
and y are integers) which satisfy xy – 2x – y – 4 = 0
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4
is (are)
19. If x, y, z are real positive number then minimum
4. Let P(x) = a0 + a1x + ...anxn be a polynomial with
1 4 8 2 √
value of (x + ) (y + ) (z + − 2) is integer coefficients and ai ∈ {0,1} for all i = 0,
4 x y z
1,2,...n
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16
Given P 2 = 13 + 19 2, then P(1) =
(√ ) √

20. If x, y satisfy the equation, yx = xy and x = 2y, then

x2 + y2 = 5. If A = 4 +
( √ 15)
1/3
+ (4 − √15)
1/3
, then A3 – 3A
is equal to
(A) 10 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 20
6. The five digit number a679b is multiple of 72,
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) where a, b are single digit whole numbers. Then the
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to value of a + 2b is :
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted 7. If a + b + c = 1, ab + bc + ca = 2 and abc = 3, then
questions will be evaluated. the value of a4 + b4 + c4 is equal to _________
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value. 8. Find sum of solution which satisfy the equation
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case ( 4 + √15)
x2 −4
+ (4 − √15)
x2 −4
=8
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to
the nearest Integer). 9. Two numbers x and y are such that when divided
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to by 6 they leave the remainders 4 and 5 respectively.
the following marking scheme: Find the remainder when (x2 + y2) is divided by 6
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered. 1 32
k

Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered. 10. If (3 +1)(32 + 1)(34 + 1) ... (3128 + 1) + = ,
2 2
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered. then k is

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 Space for Rough Work

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