Questions for BINDT VA Level 2

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

The Time allowed for this examination is 3.0 hours to answer 100
questions. The required pass grade is 75% (75 correct answers)

This paper is a closed book multiple-choice examination and should

be completed in black ink.

You should answer by circling the appropriate a) b) c) or d) that you

consider to be correct.

Any wrong choices/answers should be clearly marked with an X

(cross) over the circle.

Any candidates discussing the paper during the examination will be

disqualified.

Ensure you fully understand what is required before starting the

exam.

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

1) If a machine running at 600 rpm exhibits a 1 x vibration of

4mm/s rms, what (approximately) is the peak to peak
displacement?

a) 36um pk-pk
b) 300um pk-pk
c) 360um pk-pk
d) 180um pk-pk

2) If a machine running at 3000 rpm exhibits a 1 x vibration of

100um pk-pk, what (approximately) is the rms velocity?

a) 10mm/s rms
b) 11mm/s rms
c) 12mm/s rms
d) 13mm/s rms

3) If a machine running at3000 rpm exhibits a 1 x vibration of

7.1mm/s rms, what (approximately) is the peak to peak
displacement?

a) 45um pk-pk
b) 55um pk-pk
c) 65um pk-pk
d) 75um pk-pk

4) The 1 x vibration from a selection of neighbouring

measurement points on a large steam turbine undergoes an
instantaneous discrete step change when the machine is
running under constant conditions. The behaviour does not
reset following the subsequent run down and run up. The
transient data also shows a significant 1 x vector change.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a) Bearing failure
b) Oil whirl
c) Loss of mass
d) Rub

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

5) If a zero based FFT is set up to have 800 lines of resolution at

0.1Hz spacing. What is FMax?

a) 80Hz
b) 8000Hz
c) 800Hz
d) 2000Hz

6) How many lines of resolution are required in a 0-2000Hz FFT

to give a frequency resolution of 0.5Hz?

a) 8000
b) 4000
c) 2000
d) 1000

7) Which of the following is correct expression of the maximum

frequency of interest (FMax)? (N is number of lines, R is
frequency resolution, T is time to collect the record)

a) Fmax = N/R
b) Fmax = B/N
c) Fmax = N/T
d) Fmax = NxT

8) If a machine is re-designed to be made from a lighter

material, such as that a 20% reduction in mass occurs, but
with negligible change to the stiffness or damping, what would
be expected to happen to the natural frequency?

a) Stay the same

b) Increase by approximately 20%
c) Decrease by approximately 20%
d) Increase by approximately 12%

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

9) A machine is found to have multiple harmonics of running

speed present in the frequency spectrum. The energy levels
of vibration are high and increasing gradually, a pedestal
survey identifies a sudden drop in levels across an interface at
one corner of the pedestal. What is the likely cause?

a) Looseness in the holding down arrangements

b) Structural resonance
c) Misalignment
d) Oil contamination

10) When carrying out in-situ balancing, what is the purpose of

adding weights?

a) To make the distribution of mass along the rotor shaft

perfectly even
b) To generate a vibrational force equal and opposite to
that caused by the residual unbalance of a rotor
c) To change the natural frequency of the rotor
d) To increase the moment of inertia of the fan about its
axis

11) Which of the following would not be expected to alleviate oil

whirl?

a) Change oil temperature

b) Adjust machine alignment
c) Change machine operating conditions (e.g. load)
d) Change machinery mounting system

12) On a large steam turbine generator, which of the following

parameters could be expected to affect machine vibration?

a) Condenser Vacuum
b) Generator rotor current
c) Ambient pressure
d) Oil pressure

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

13) On a large gas turbine generator, which of the following

parameters would not be expected to affect machine
vibration?

a) Ambient temperature
b) Combustion reference temperature
c) Generated load
d) Inlet guide vane position

14) What is the sampling rate for Fourier analysis?

a) 0.5 the Nyquist frequency

b) 2.5 times the highest frequency of interest in signal
c) 10 times the highest frequency of interest in signal
d) 5 times the Nyquist frequency

15) Describe the main purpose of the low-pass filter?

a) The low-pass filter passes only the signal frequencies

that are less than the Nyquist frequency and more than
the highest frequency of interest in signal
b) The low-pass filter passes only the low frequency
signals, and blocks out all of the others
c) The low-pass filter passes only the signal frequencies
that are less than the sampling frequency and more
than the Nyquist frequency
d) The low-pass filter passes only the signal frequencies
with amplitudes which are less than a threshold

16) Describe the main procedure performed by the band-pass

filter?

a) The band-pass filter passes only the signal frequencies

that are outside the transition band of the filter
b) The band-pass filter passes only the signal frequencies
that are within the selected bandwidth
c) The band-pass filter passes only the signal frequencies
that are more than the Nyquist frequency and less than
the highest frequency of interest in signal
d) The band-pass filter passes only the signal frequencies
with amplitudes which within the selected threshold
range

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

17) What is the main purpose of the anti-aliasing filter?

a) To remove all frequency components in signal above the

sampling frequency
b) To remove all frequency components in signal above
40% of the highest frequency of interest in signal
c) To remove all frequency components in signal above
40% of the sampling frequency
d) To remove all frequency components in signal below
40% of the sampling frequency

18) Describe the aliasing phenomenon?

a) The aliasing is a phenomenon causing signal leakage

(i.e. appearance of side-lobes in the power spectral
density of signal)
b) Aliasing is a phenomenon causing alias frequencies of
discrete-time sinusoids
c) Aliasing is a phenomenon causing low frequency
components to appear at high frequencies
d) Aliasing is a phenomenon causing high frequency
components to appear at low frequencies

19) If a time domain waveform is clipped top and bottom, even

thought the amplitude is well within the range set on the
vibration monitoring equipment, what does this indicate?

a) Variable speed operation

b) The presence of a rub
c) Imbalance
d) Misalignment

20) When should synchronous sampling be used?

a) When the signal is overloaded

b) When the machine runs at a wide variety of loads
c) To improve the accuracy of data at all frequencies of
vibration
d) When a speed signal is not available

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

21) When is a Zoom FFT useful?

a) When a rapid analysis is required

b) When low phase need to be analysed
c) When a broad frequency range needs to be analysed
d) When a small portion of the frequency range needs to
be analysed in greater detail

22) Which of the following faults could be detected more easily

using a zoom spectrum?

a) Bearing defect
b) Mass unbalance
c) Misalignment
d) Looseness

23) When are axial vibration measurements on the casings mainly

uses?

a) For monitoring radial movement of the shaft

b) For monitoring fluid bearings on turbines or in large
industrial fans
c) For monitoring bearings which have a thrust, such as
rolling element bearings and bearings in gearboxes
d) For monitoring the expansions of the shaft relative to
the casings

24) What is the most commonly used parameter for casing

readings?

a) G 0-pk
b) Acceleration
c) Displacement
d) Velocity

25) When monitoring the relative position of rotating parts, what

is the appropriate parameter to measure?

a) Displacement
b) Acceleration
c) Jerk
d) Velocity

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

26) For early detection of rolling element bearings what is the

appropriate parameter to measure?

a) Displacement
b) Acceleration
c) Jerk
d) Velocity

27) How should the vibration parameter to be measured be

ascertained?

a) By measurement – trial and error

b) By cost of instrumentation
c) By likely frequency range of fault symptoms
d) By criticality of plant

28) When carrying out vibration monitoring on gears what is the

appropriate parameter to measure?

a) Displacement
b) Acceleration
c) Jerk
d) Velocity

29) The following can all be analysed using a waterfall plot, but
one of them would not normally require that level of detail.
Which one?

a) Machine critical speeds

b) Onset of oil whirl/whip
c) Structural resonance
d) Mass unbalance

30) What vibration characteristic will be caused by a change of the

rotor balance?

a) Change in principal vibration frequency

b) Change in 1/rev vector
c) Increased broad band vibration levels
d) Change in 2/rev vibration level

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

31) A pump has shown a significant change in vibration behaviour

between successive vibration measurements; however flow
conditions were significantly different. Levels are well within
guideline values. What action should be recommended?

a) Shut the machine down immediately

b) Carry out an exhaustive investigation of the relationship
between pump flow and vibration behaviour
c) All bearings should be changed at a convenient
opportunity
d) A repeat measurement should be made when the
process allows ‘normal’ flow conditions to be resumed

32) On a bearing housing, at what position should vibration

measurements be taken, if they are to be compared with
guideline values from the ISO10816 series?

a) Vertical, Transverse and Axial at the top of the bearing

housing
b) Vertical and Transverse in line with the bearing
centreline, Axially at the half-joint
c) Vertical, Transverse and Axial at the half joint
d) Vertical and Transverse in line with the bearing
centreline, Axially at top of the bearing housing

33) Which of the following statements refers to aliasing?

a) If a sine wave is filtered its frequency will change

b) If a sine wave is sampled too slowly it will appear to be
a lower frequency
c) If a sine wave is filtered its frequency will appear higher
d) If a sine wave is sampled too rapidly its frequency will
appear higher

34) What portion of the signal should anti-aliasing filters remove?

a) All frequencies above 50% of the sampling rate

b) All frequencies above 50% of the maximum frequency
of interest
c) All frequencies below the bandwidth
d) All amplitudes greater than 50% of the overall value

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

35) In signal processing technology what is synchronous

sampling?

a) Taking measurements at the same time every week

b) Taking measurements simultaneously from several
locations using multiple transducers
c) Measurements based on the rated running speed of the
machine
d) Sampling at a rate determined by an external signal
(e.g. a 1/rev pulse from a shaft)

36) What is meant by averaging?

a) An average amplitude taken across the entire FFT

b) An average compiled from a number of FFTs acquired
during a single measurement, with no weighting applied
c) An average of the last three measurements made at a
particular location
d) An average, giving most weight to the most recently
acquire spectrum.

37) What is a cascade (or waterfall) diagram?

a) A measurement of machine critical speed

b) A complex analysis of multiple frequency analyses giving
a single Figure of Merit as an output
c) A simple comparison of several frequency in a 3-
dimensional form
d) A trend of vibration data across multiple measurement
points

38) With reference to machine tools, what condition monitoring

technique can be used to monitor the cutting process that is
termed “Torque controlled machining” or TCM?

a) AE
b) IRT
c) LA
d) Laser Shearography/X-Ray

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

39) Which of the following is the least preferred method of

mounting an accelerometer?

a) Beeswax
b) Double sided tape
c) Stud Mounted
d) Magnet

40) When using stud mounting to secure an accelerometer, which

of the following do not apply?

a) Surface shall be clean, flat and smooth

b) The accelerometer shall be firmly secured by adhesive
c) A thin film of oil or grease shall be applied to the
surfaces to achieve good contact
d) The stud shall not bottom in the mounting holes

41) A gas turbine generating set has been put back into service
after an overhaul and you discover a change in the baseline
values. When deciding what value to set the alarm level at,
which of the following would you not take into consideration?

a) That new bearings have been fitted

b) Differences in dynamic load
c) The mechanical integrity of the machine
d) Bearing support stiffness

42) When considering balancing the crankshaft/drives of a large

diesel engine with a piston velocity of less than 9m/s, which of
the following components would you not consider?

a) Flywheel
b) Vibration damper
c) Clutch
d) Connecting rod

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

43) In a test facility if a significant support resonance is present

during acceptance testing and it cannot be eliminated, the
vibration acceptance tests may have to be carried out

a) On the machine when running at a speed lower than its

normal design speed
b) On the fully installed machine in-situ
c) On the machine when running at a speed above its
normal design speed
d) On the machine when it is running down

44) In a test facility when carrying out vibration acceptance

testing every attempt should be made to ensure the natural
frequency of the test rig/arrangement

a) Does not coincide with a rotational frequency or related

harmonics
b) Does coincide with a rotational frequency only
c) Does coincide with a rotation harmonic frequency only
d) Does not coincide with a rotational frequency but with a
related rotational harmonic frequency

45) When acceptance tests are carried out in-situ, valid

comparisons of vibration for machines of the same type but
on different foundations or sub-foundations can only be made
if

a) Measurements are taken on foundation only

b) The foundations concerned have dissimilar dynamic
characteristics
c) The foundations concerned have similar dynamic
characteristics
d) Measurements are taken on both foundation and
machine

46) What does the term RCA mean

a) Root Calculation Analysis

b) Root Cause Analysis
c) RMS Calculation Analysis
d) RMS Collector Analysis

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

47) To give greater definition of rolling element bearing-related

frequencies in cases where high background vibration exists, a
useful processing technique would be spectral analysis of:

a) Broad-band RMS velocity signal

b) Broad-band Pk-Pk displacement signal
c) Time synchronous averaged acceleration signal
d) Envelope waveform signal

48) Sideband analysis is a useful technique to aid the analysis and

diagnosis of a:

a) Dynamic imbalance problem

b) Rolling element bearing problem
c) Sleeve/journal bearing problem
d) Offset misalignment problem

49) Sideband analysis can be defined as the analysis of spectral

data in terms of the:

a) Synchronous harmonic frequencies

b) Non-synchronous harmonic frequencies
c) Sum and difference frequencies
d) Synchronous averaged frequencies

50) Spectral analysis of envelope waveforms are generated by:

a) A non-filtered signal integrated from acceleration to

velocity
b) A non-filtered signal integrated from velocity to
acceleration
c) Rectifying and smoothing of low-pass filtered vibration
signals
d) Rectifying and smoothing of high-pass or bandpass
filtered vibration signals

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

51) In terms of vibration set-up, the integrity of a rolling element

bearing versus a fluid film bearing running at the same
speeds, should be assessed with:

a) Equal measurement range for both bearing types

b) Higher frequency range for a fluid film element bearing
assessment
c) Higher frequency range for a rolling element bearing
assessment
d) High pass filter applied to the fluid film bearing

52) Within what range is the normal resonance frequency of the

shock pulse method?

a) 30-40 KHz
b) 10-20 KHz
c) 1-10 KHz
d) 12-28 KHz

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

53) ISO 10816 provides broadband vibration evaluation criteria

for various machine classifications based upon machine rating
and foundation arrangements. Which of one of the following
best illustrates these guideline machine classifications?

a) Class I = up to 15kw
Class II = 15 to 75kw without special foundations (up
to 300kw on special foundations)
Class III = Large prime-movers mounted on rigid and
heavy foundations
Class IV = Large prime-movers mounted on
foundations which are relatively soft

b) Class I = Large prime-movers mounted on rigid and

heavy foundations
Class II = Large prime movers mounted on
foundations which are relatively soft
Class III = 15 to 75kw with special foundations (up to
300kw on special foundations)
Class IV = unto 15kw

c) Class I = up to 15kw
Class II = up to 15 to 75kw without special
foundations (up to 300kw on special
foundations)
Class III = Large prime-movers mounted on
foundations which are relatively soft
Class IV = Large prim-movers mounted on rigid and
heavy foundations

d) Class I = Large prime-movers mounted on

foundations which are relatively soft
Class II = Large prime-movers mounted on rigid and
heavy foundations
Class III = 15 to 75kw with special foundations (up to
300kw on special foundations)
Class IV = up to 15kw

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

54) How would you best describe vibration Phase?

a) An indicator of the vibration severity at a particular

location
b) A measure of the vibration amplitude at a particular
angle
c) A measure of the relative damage between two parts of
a machine
d) An indicator of the machines performance

55) The forces generated by unbalance:

a) Are not affected by the running speed of the machine

(RPM)
b) Increase proportional to the square of machine RPM
c) Generally decrease at higher speeds
d) Remain constant across all machine speeds

56) Vibration due to unbalance:

a) Can cause any number of vibration frequencies to be

present on the spectrum at the same time
b) Can sometimes cause a vibration at a frequency of 2 x
RPM and will be highest in the axial direction
c) Is usually highest in the radial (horizontal and vertical)
directions, and occurs only at a frequency equal to 1 x
RPM
d) Look similar to the vibrations caused by mechanical
looseness as there are multiple harmonics across the
spectrum

57) How would you best describe ‘sidebands’?

a) Sidebands are produced when a defect frequency

excites the machine running speed
b) Sidebands are produced when one resonance excites
another
c) Sidebands only appear in Displacement readings
d) Sidebands are produced when one frequency modulates
another or when one amplitude modulates another

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

58) A resonance condition:

a) Can only occur at a frequency of 1 x RPM

b) Will only occur in the radial direction
c) Can be excited by any exciting force frequency
d) Can not be corrected

59) The only unbalance problem that can be corrected by making

weight corrections in a single reference plane is:

a) Couple unbalance
b) Static unbalance
c) Dynamic unbalance
d) Mass unbalance

60) What is the conversion factor for calculating Peak amplitudes

from RMS amplitudes?

a) 0.707 x RMS
b) 1.414 x RMS
c) 2.000 x RMS
d) 2.828 x RMS

61) What are the main FFT functions?

a) Fast analysis of non-stationary signals

b) Fast analysis of discontinuous signals
c) Fast furrier transfer of spectral analysis
d) Fast demodulation

62) What is the main limited factor for the dynamic range
in analogue systems?

a) Electrical noise
b) Analogue filters
c) Analogue amplifiers
d) Signal/noise ratio of analogue signal

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

63) Describe the main procedures of the synchronous time

domain averaging?

a) Amplitudes of the corresponding time domain samples

are algebraically added for each record, and then
divided by the number of records
b) Amplitudes of time domain samples are algebraically
added within each record, and then dived by the
number of samples in record
c) The square amplitudes of the time domain samples are
algebraically added within each record, and then divided
by the number of samples in record
d) The square amplitudes of the corresponding time
domain samples are algebraically added for each record

64) What is the bandwidth of bandpass filter?

a) The spacing between frequencies at which a bandpass

filter attenuates the signal by 3 dB
b) The transition band of a bandpass filter
c) The spacing between 0 Hz and centre frequency of a
bandpass filter
d) The spacing between the centre frequency of the filter
and the centre frequency of the nearest neighbouring
filter

65) With reference to Vibration and Shock, what is meant by

White Noise?

a) A noise the magnitude of which cannot be precisely

predicted for any given instant of time.
b) A noise that has equal energy for any frequency band of
constant width (or per unit bandwidth) over the
spectrum of interest.
c) Noise generally of a random nature, the spectrum of
which does not exhibit clearly defined frequency
components.
d) A noise that has a constant energy within a bandwidth
proportional to the centre frequency of the band.

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

66) With reference to Vibration and Shock what is the definition of

random noise

a) Noise generally of a random nature, the spectrum of

which does not exhibit clearly defined frequency
components.
b) A noise that has equal energy for any frequency band of
constant width (or per unit bandwidth) over the
spectrum of interest.
c) A noise the magnitude of which cannot be precisely
predicted for any given instant of time.
d) A noise that has a constant energy within a bandwidth
proportional to the centre frequency of the band.

67) With reference to Vibration and Shock, what is the definition

of Pink Noise?

a) A noise that has equal energy for any frequency band of

constant width (or per unit bandwidth) over the
spectrum of interest.
b) A noise that has a constant energy within a bandwidth
proportional to the centre frequency of the band.
c) Noise generally of a random nature, the spectrum of
which does not exhibit clearly defined frequency
components.
d) A noise the magnitude of which cannot be precisely
predicted for any given instant of time.

68) What information is defined by a Bode plot?

a) Acceleration and amplitude

b) Displacement and phase
c) Phase shift
d) Amplitude and phase

69) In relation to vibration, what is the meaning of Crest Factor?

a) The ratio of the peak value to the r.m.s. value.

b) The ratio of the r.m.s. value to the mean value for one-
half cycle between two successive zero crossings.
c) The maximum value that is of greatest magnitude when
a function contains more than one maximum value
within a given interval of the independent variable.
d) The velocity of a succession of a limited number of
waves, usually near periodic, travelling at the same (or
nearly the same) velocity.
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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

70) What is the definition of Fast Fourier Transform (FFT)?

a) A process where velocity is computed from acceleration

b) A process where displacement is integrated from
acceleration.
c) A process where the computing times of complex
multiplications/additions are greatly reduced
d) A process where the computing times of complex
multiplications/additions are greatly increased.

71) In relation to vibration and shock, define compliance.

a) To comply with an ISO Standard

b) The reciprocal of stiffness
c) The ratio of change of force (or torque) to the
corresponding change in translation (or rotational)
displacement of an elastic element.
d) For a normal distribution of measured points, the range
within which one value will lie with a given degree of
probability.

72) When considering radial vibration in a machine, a change in

unbalance will result in increased vibration at?

a) Once per revolution

b) Twice per revolution
c) Three per revolution
d) Four per revolution

73) What could be the likely cause of excessive vibration at 4800

CPM on a section of pipework connecting a compressor to the
ring main. It is a four stage reciprocating compressor
running at 1200 RPM.

a) Pipework vibration caused by looseness

b) Pipework vibration caused by misalignment
c) Pipework resonance excited by a compressor harmonic
d) Pipework vibration caused by unbalance.

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

74) Which fault frequency is most likely to indicate gear

misalignment?

a) Twice rotational speed of gear teeth.

b) Rotational speed of gear teeth
c) Number of teeth on gear
d) Rotational speed of gear x number of teeth

75) An electric motor with a 200mm pulley is connected by a V-

belt to a centrifugal pump with a pulley 250mm diameter.
How is the pump speed related to the motor speed?

a) The pump is running at 80% of the speed of the motor.

b) The pump is running at 125% of the speed of the
motor.
c) The pump is running at the same rotational speed of the
motor.
d) The pump is running at 50% of the speed of the motor.

76) When taking readings on one of ten exhaust fans, you notice
that the fan vibration seems unusually low. You can see from
the cooling fan on the motor that the motor is running, what
should you do?

a) Lubricate bearings.
b) Nothing in particular.
c) Re-take the reading.
d) Check the transducer and cable, check if the drive belts
have failed.

77) Which of the following is most likely to change the effect of a

resonance?

a) Lubrication of bearings
b) In-situ balancing
c) Add isolation (coil spring, rubber pad, cork pad)
d) Alignment check

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

78) Which of the following single faults could you detect most
easily with overall acceleration measurements?

a) Rolling element bearing damage.

b) Unbalance
c) Misalignment
d) Looseness

79) Which of the following is a standard type of rotor unbalance?

a) Singular
b) Perpendicular
c) Couple
d) Random

80) Which of the below defines a time-wave form?

a) Amplitude against time spectra.

b) Amplitude against phase spectra
c) An instantaneous vibration versus time strip chart or
oscillograph.
d) An instantaneous displacement versus frequency chart
or oscillograph

81) Which of the following standards defines the mounting

convention for proximity probes?

a) API 760
b) ISO 18436
c) ISO 13373-2
d) API 670

82) Proximity probes are mounted in pairs at how many degrees

apart from each other?

a) 45 degrees
b) 70 degrees
c) 90 degrees
d) 180 degrees

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

83) What is the function of a trigger?

a) An event that can be used as a timing reference

b) An event that can be used as a vibration reference
c) An event that can be used as an alarm
d) An event that can be used as an LM reference

84) On proximity probes, which voltage is used to record the gap

between probe and shaft?

a) AC
b) DC
c) Mains
d) Milli amps

85) Which International Standard defines the requirements for

the BINDT exam?

a) ISO 18463
b) ISO 18634
c) ISO 18364
d) ISO 18436

86) “Windowing” is defined as mathematically calculating the

vibration amplitude and frequency components in a data set.
This requires that the beginning and ending amplitudes of the
wave form be?

a) Equal values
b) Zero values
c) Opposite values
d) Consistent values

87) Which of the four condition monitoring techniques would be

least suitable for routine monitoring on a
compressor/pneumatic machine?

a) AE
b) IRT
c) LM
d) VA

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

88) In a machine with journal bearings, how could you distinguish

between sub-synchronous vibration due to a rub, and sub
synchronous vibration due to oil whirl?

a) Amplitude of the sub-synchronous component.

b) A sub-synchronous component related to rubbing will be
an exact factor of running speed (1/2, 1/3, 2/3 etc.).
c) There will be no change in the 1x component as a result
of a rub.
d) The phase of the sub-syncronous component.

89) What does RCM stand for?

a) Reliable Centre maintenance

b) Reliability Centre Maintenance
c) Reliability Centered Maintenance
d) Reality Centred Maintenance

90) Successful completion of the BINDT VA exam will give you a

certificate. How long is that certificate valid for?

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 5 years
d) 10 years

91) What is the Nyquist frequency?

a) When the sampling rate is set exactly at 1 times the

maximum expected frequency
b) When the sampling rate is set exactly at 2 times the
maximum expected frequency
c) When the sampling rate is set exactly at 2.5 times the
maximum expected frequency
d) When the sampling rate is set exactly at 3.5 times the
maximum expected frequency

92) On proximity probes, which voltage is used to record the

Vibration between probe and shaft?

e) AC
f) DC
g) Mains
h) Milli amps

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

93) For a sinusoidal single frequency vibration of 10 mm/s peak-

to-peak, which is likely to be the peak amplitude?

a) 5 mm/s pk
a) 20 mm/s pk
b) 15 mm/s pk
c) 10 mm/s pk

94) What is meant by “rms”?

a) Reference mm/s
b) Root-sum-squared
c) Average value
d) Root-mean-square

95) Which term best describes vibration velocity?

a) Measurement of acceleration of a machine

b) Measurement of position of a machine
c) Measurement of rate of change of displacement
d) Measurement of rate of change of velocity of a machine

96) What will be the effect of changing your measurement

instrument setting from “mm/s rms” to “mm/s peak” if
measuring a constant vibration frequency and amplitude
source?

a) Decrease in amplitude reading

b) No change in amplitude reading
c) Change in frequency
d) Increase in amplitude reading

97) While taking a measurement on a variable speed machine

you hear the note change. The resulting spectrum contains a
very broad peak in the running range. What do you do?

a) Report a defective bearing

b) Trip the machine
c) Download the data to the PC
d) Repeat the measurement

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 SKF-RS DEI ISO 18436 Level 2 Questions

98) What base units are used to express vibration displacement?

a) m
b) mm/s
c) m/s2
d) g

99) Which is the most important factor when taking

measurements for vibration condition monitoring?

a) Measurement of units
b) Repeatability of measurements
c) Accuracy
b) Instrumentation

100) A vibration reading has been taken on an electric motor

driven enclosed fan. There are no speed details on the motor
tag. A 400 line spectra 0-60,000 CPM/0-1,000 Hz range
shows a large peak at about 1800 CPM/30 Hz. What is the
most likely machine speed?

a) 2950 rev/min
b) 1470 rev/min
c) 1780 rev/min
b) 1975 rev/min

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