Developmental Psychology

C. Contextual
Chapter 01 ⏐ Introduction to Lifespan Development
D. Psychosocial

1. Developmental psychology is also called: 10.Changes in intelligence, wisdom, perception,

A. Lifespan development problem-solving, memory, and language are part of the
B. Human development ________ domain.
C. Both A and B A. Physical
B. Cognitive
2. The scientific study of ways in which people change, C. Contextual
as well as stay the same, from conception to death, is D. Psychosocial
called:
A. Lifespan development 11. Changes in height and weight, sensory capabilities,
B. Human development the nervous system, and the propensity for disease and
C. Developmental psychology illness are part of the ___________ domain.
D. All of the above A. Physical
B. Cognitive
3. At earlier points in the history of the field, it was C. Contextual
believed that development was essentially completed D. Psychosocial
around age:
A. 13 12. When we say that development is characterized by
B. 25 “plasticity”, we mean that:
C. 40 A. It always occurs in a way that we can see and touch
D. 65 B. It is created by chemicals
C. We are capable of change, and many of our
4. Developmental psychology both influences and is characteristics are malleable
influenced by other fields of study, such as biology and D. It has many possible uses
cognitive psychology.
A. True 13. Beginning kindergarten or going through puberty is
B. False an example of a:
A. Normative history-graded influence
5. The researcher who first articulated key underlying B. Normative age-graded influence
principles of lifespan development is: C. Non-normative life influence
A. Erik Erikson D. Normative culture-determined influence
B. Sigmund Freud
C. Paul Baltes 14. The idea that the time period in which we were born
D. James Mark Baldwin shapes our experiences is consistent with which term?
A. Normative history-graded influence
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the key B. Normative age-graded influence
underlying principles of lifespan development? C. Non-normative life influence
A. Development has a definite end point D. Normative culture-determined influence
B. Development is multidirectional
C. Development is plastic 15. Experiencing a life event that’s not typical for our
D. Development is multidimensional age group, such as losing a parent during our
childhood, is an example of a:
7. Development always involves improvement, growth, A. Normative history-graded influence
or progression of skills or functioning. B. Normative age-graded influence
A. True C. Non-normative life influence
B. False D. Normative culture-determined influence

8. Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary 16. A group of people who were born at roughly the
domains in which development occurs? same time in a particular society is called a:
A. Physical A. Cohort
B. Cognitive B. Clique
C. Contextual C. Crowd
D. Psychosocial D. Consort

9.Changes in emotion, self-perception, and 17. According to your book, someone who was born in
interpersonal relationships with families, peers, and 1937 is part of which generation?
friends are part of the __________ domain. A. Baby Boomers
A. Physical B. Millennial
B. Cognitive
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 Developmental Psychology
C. Silent C. What kind of emotions are called for in certain situations
D. Generation X D. All of the above

18. According to your book, the aging of the 26. We only learn about our culture from our parents.
____________ is one reason why developmental A. True
psychology has begun to focus more on the study of B. False
adult development.
A. Baby Boomers 27. Our culture only affects us during our childhood.
B. Millennial A. True
C. Silent B. False
D. Generation X
28. Appreciating cultural differences and understanding
19. _________ is a way to identify families and that cultural practices are best understood from the
households based on their shared levels of education, standpoint of that particular culture is called:
income, and occupation. A. Ethnodiversity
A. Culture B. Multiculturalism
B. Cohort C. Cultural relativity
C. Socioeconomic status D. Universalism
D. Biostatistics
29. The length of time a species can exist under the
20. How does socioeconomic status influence most optimal conditions is called:
development? A. Lifespan
A. It affects our health and life expectancy B. Life expectancy
B. It influences the degree of control we feel over our lives
C. It affects the resources available to us and the 30. The predicted number of years a person born in a
environment we live in particular time period can reasonably expect to live is
D. All of the above called:
A. Lifespan
21. Living in poverty is associated with: B. Life expectancy
A. Greater fears about losing housing
B. Less access to health care 31. The longest reported lifespan for a human is about:
C. Working in more dangerous occupations A. 20 years
D, All of the above B. 50 years
C. 120 years
22. Poverty is determined by a set of thresholds based D. 150 years
on family income and:
A. The size of the family 32. The number of years since your birth is your:
B. The ages of the people in the family A. Chronological age
C. The relationships between the people in the family B. Biological age
D. The number of children in the family C. Psychological age
D. Social age
23. The collective term for the shared language,
knowledge, material objects, and behavior of a group of 33. How quickly the body is aging, including how good
people is called: our physical functioning is, is called our:
A. Race A. Chronological age
B. Ethnicity B. Biological age
C. Culture C. Psychological age
D. All of the above, because all of these terms mean the D. Social age
same thing
34. Our cognitive capacity, adaptability, and emotional
24. The belief that our own culture is superior to other beliefs about aging are part of our:
cultures is called: A. Chronological age
A. Nationalism B. Biological age
B. Ethnocentrism C. Psychological age
C. Patriotism D. Social age
D. Narcissism
35. The social norms of our culture and the expectations
25. The culture we grow up in shapes our ideas about: our culture has for people of our age group determine
A. Right and wrong our:
B. What to strive for A. Chronological age

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B. Biological age C. Active vs. passive
C. Psychological age D. Stability vs. change
D. Social age
44. In the nature vs. nurture debate, the ________ side
36. Although there are several different ways to think of emphasizes the importance of genetic and biological
age, chronological age is the most accurate and factors in shaping our development.
complete way of describing someone’s functioning and A. Nature
current state. B. Nurture
A. True
B. False 45. In the nature vs. nurture debate, the ________ side
emphasizes the importance of environmental factors in
37. We don’t need to consider different age groups in shaping our development.
the general categories of childhood and adulthood, A. Nature
because everyone classified as a child or adult will B. Nurture
function the same way.
A. True 46. Stage theories of development are also called:
B. False A. Continuous
B. Discontinuous
38. The transitional time between the end of
adolescence and before individuals acquire all the 47. When a caterpillar becomes a butterfly, it both looks
benchmarks of adulthood is called: and, more importantly, functions differently than it did
A. Post-pubescence before (i.e., a butterfly isn’t just a big caterpillar). This is
B. Early adulthood an example of _________ development.
C. Emerging adulthood A. Discontinuous
D. Senescence B. Continuous
C. Stable
39. Someone who is 70 years old would be classified as: D. Quantitative
A. Young-old
B. Middle aged 48. According to your book, Vygotsky believed that
C. Oldest-old adults didn’t possess new skills, but instead had skills
D. Emerging that were already present in children, just better
developed. This is an example of _________
40. The question of whether biological or environmental development.
factors are stronger influences on our development is A. Discontinuous
the debate called: B. Continuous
A. Continuity vs. discontinuity C. Stable
B. Nature vs. nurture D. Qualitative
C. Active vs. passive
D. Stability vs. change 49. The belief that a tiny, fully formed human is
implanted in the sperm or egg at conception and then
41. The question of whether development involves a grows in size until birth is called:
slow, gradual process or distinct stages is the debate A. Predeterminism
called: B. Preformationism
A. Continuity vs. discontinuity C. Predestination
B. Nature vs. nurture D. Preternaturalism
C. Active vs. passive
D. Stability vs. change 50. According to your book, the first theory of
development to state that the environment was the
42. The question of whether humans play an active role primary force in shaping behavior and development was
in shaping their development or are at the mercy of proposed by:
uncontrollable forces is the debate called: A. Locke
A. Continuity vs. discontinuity B. Pavlov
B. Nature vs. nurture C. Skinner
C. Active vs. passive D. Bandura
D. Stability vs. change
51. Using the term “tabula rasa” (your book spells it
43. The question of how much we change over time (and wrong) to refer to a child’s mind means that the child
in what ways) is the debate called: comes into the world like a(n):
A. Continuity vs. discontinuity A. Empty vessel
B. Nature vs. nurture B. Little voice

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C. Unchained melody A. Social, biological
D. Blank slate B. Social, cognitive
C. Biological, cognitive
52. Why did Locke consider the environment to be a D. Biological, social
particularly strong influence during our early life?
A. Because that’s when we have the most contact with our 58. Which of the following statements about Freud’s
parents theory of development is FALSE?
B. Because we will automatically behave the way our early A. He believed that early experiences were important for
experiences tell us to shaping our personality
C. Because that’s when the mind is most pliable B. It has been thoroughly tested scientifically and found to be
D. Trick question! Locke considered the environment to have valid
the same amount of influence throughout our life C. He believed that an important part of development was
learning how to transform biological instincts into socially
53. What is the most important way that Locke’s theory appropriate behaviors
differs from preformationism and the theories of D. He believed that interactions with parents and other
Rousseau and Gesell? caregivers had long-lasting effects on children’s emotional
A. Locke’s theory places more importance on environmental states
influences as opposed to predetermined
biological factors 59. Erikson proposed that each period of life has a
B. Locke’s theory is a lifespan theory, but the others just unique challenge that the person who reaches it must
focus on childhood face. This task is called a(n):
C. Locke’s theory laid the groundwork for other theories of A. Psychosocial crisis
development, but the others don’t B. Psychogenic fugue
D. Locke performed many scientific experiments to test his C. Psychosexual crisis
theory, but the others weren’t tested this way D. Nonnormative life event

54. ________ used the term “maturation” to describe a 60. How is Erikson’s theory of development different
genetically activated process of development. from Freud’s?
A. Rousseau A. Less emphasis on sexuality and more emphasis on social
B. Gesell interactions
C. Piaget B. More emphasis on lifespan development instead of just
D. Montessori focusing on childhood
C. Less controversial
55. How would Gesell most likely feel about things like D. All of the above
trying to teach infants to read using flash cards?
A. He’d support it because he thought the brain was most 61. According to Erikson’s theory, successful
receptive to new information in infancy development involves:
B. He’d support it because he believed in pushing infants A. Dealing with and resolving the goals and demands of
and young children to achieve milestones as early as psychosocial crises in a positive way
possible B. Transforming biological instincts into socially appropriate
C. He’d disapprove of it because he thought it best to wait behaviors
until children’s nervous systems had sufficiently matured and C. Allowing our genetically preprogrammed timetable to
not try to teach them things ahead of schedule unfold naturally
D. He’d disapprove of it because he didn’t think children D. Learning to reason logically
needed formal instruction in reading
62. According to Erikson’s theory, how we resolve one
56. Rousseau believed that when it came to education: crisis has no effect on how we resolve other crises in
A. Adults should push children to achieve educational the future.
milestones as soon as possible A. True
B. Children should not be taught “the right way to think”, and B. False
that their inner biological timetable would help them learn
naturally 63. According to Erikson’s theory, we learn to do things
C. Systematic rewards and punishments would help children well or correctly according to others’ standards while
learn better resolving which crisis?
D. Children came into the world as blank slates and needed A. Initiative vs. guilt
lots of instruction to help them learn B. Identity vs. role confusion
C. Industry vs. inferiority
57) According to Freud, we come into the world as D. Intimacy vs. isolation
__________ beings but have to learn to become
___________ beings during childhood.

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 Developmental Psychology
64. According to Erikson’s theory, someone who D. Evolutionary psychology
develops an interest in guiding the development of the
next generation has successfully resolved the crisis of: 72. A key idea of behaviorism is that because
A. Intimacy vs. isolation _____________ can’t be objectively studied,
B. Generativity vs. stagnation psychologists should limit their attention to the study of
C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt observable behavior.
D. Ego integrity vs. despair A. The occurrence of life events
B. The mind
65. According to Erikson’s theory, during our first year C. Genetic changes
and a half after birth we must resolve the crisis of: D. All of the above
A. Trust vs. mistrust
B. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt 73. Skinner used the principles of behaviorism to:
C. Ego integrity vs. despair A. Train animals
D. Identity vs. role confusion B. Develop theories about how best to teach children
C.Develop theories about how to create peaceful, productive
66. According to Erikson’s theory, someone who societies
becomes independent by exploring, manipulating, and D. All of the above
taking action has successfully resolved the crisis of:
A. Industry vs. inferiority 74. The idea that we learn by watching others is called:
B. Ego integrity vs. despair A. Behaviorism
C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt B. Psychoanalytic theory
D. Initiative vs. guilt C. Social learning theory
D. Naturalistic observation
67. According to Erikson’s theory, we develop the ability
to give and receive love and make long-term 75. The concept of reciprocal determinism states that we
commitments while resolving which crisis? influence our environment and vice versa.
A. Generativity vs. stagnation A. True
B. Identity vs. role confusion B. False
C. Trust vs. mistrust
D. Intimacy vs. isolation 76. Bandura’s studies with the “Bobo doll” indicated
that:
68. According to Erikson’s theory, someone who A. Children will imitate aggressive behavior they see on TV
develops an acceptance of their life as it was lived has B. After observing aggressive behavior in another person,
successfully resolved the crisis of: children will display new aggressive acts not initially shown
A. Intimacy vs. isolation by the model
B. Generativity vs. stagnation C. Children will imitate aggressive behaviors they see other
C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt people perform
D. Ego integrity vs. despair D. All of the above

69. According to Erikson’s theory, developing a 77. According to Piaget, children of different ages
well-defined and positive sense of self in relation to interpret the world in different ways.
others is the main task of which crisis? A. True
A. Initiative vs. guilt B. False
B. Identity vs. role confusion
C. Industry vs. inferiority 78. During Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, the primary skill
D. Intimacy vs. isolation obtained by the infant is:
A. Conservation
70. According to Erikson’s theory, someone who B. Abstract logic
develops a sense of free will and an understanding of C. Object permanence
what they can and can’t control has successfully D. Theory of mind
resolved the crisis of:
A. Intimacy vs. isolation 79. During Piaget’s preoperational stage, the primary
B. Generativity vs. stagnation skill obtained by the child is:
C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt A. Conservation
D. Ego integrity vs. despair B. Abstract logic
C. Object permanence
71. Learning theory is also called: D. Theory of mind
A. Behaviorism
B. Psychodynamic theory 80. During Piaget’s concrete operational stage, the
C. Information-processing theory primary skill obtained by the child is:

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 Developmental Psychology
A. Conservation 87. Vygotsky’s _____________ theory emphasizes the
B. Abstract logic importance of culture and interaction in the
C. Object permanence development of cognitive abilities.
D. Theory of mind A. Biopsychosocial
B. Dualistic
81. During Piaget’s formal operational stage, the primary C. Sociocultural
skill obtained by the child is: D. Psychodynamic
A. Conservation
B. Abstract logic 88. The ___________ approach is a set of theories
C. Object permanence studying how individuals perceive, analyze, manipulate,
D. Theory of mind use, and remember information.
A. Information processing
82. During Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, the infant learns B. Problem solving
to: C. Cognitive behavioral
A. Understand others’ perspectives and use language and D. Schematic
mental imagery to internally experience the world
B. Experience the world through senses like tasting and 89. In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory, the
hearing individual’s immediate environment, including the
C. Think systematically and reason about abstract concepts setting they’re in and the people they’re with, constitute
like ethics the:
D. Think logically and perform operations on real-world A. Macrosystem
objects and concepts B. Microsystem
C. Mesosystem
83. During Piaget’s preoperational stage, the primary D. Exosystem
skill obtained by the child is:
A. Understand others’ perspectives and use language and 90. In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory,
mental imagery to internally experience the world cultural elements such as economic conditions
B. Experience the world through senses like tasting and constitute the:
hearing A. Macrosystem
C. Think systematically and reason about abstract concepts B. Microsystem
like ethics C. Mesosystem
D. Think logically and perform operations on real-world D. Exosystem
objects and concepts
91. In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory,
84. During Piaget’s concrete operational stage, the larger organizational structures such as schools and
primary skill obtained by the child is: religion constitute the:
A. Understand others’ perspectives and use language and A. Macrosystem
mental imagery to internally experience the world B. Microsystem
B. Experience the world through senses like tasting and C. Mesosystem
hearing D. Exosystem
C. Think systematically and reason about abstract concepts
like ethics 92. In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory,
D. Think logically and perform operations on real-world larger community contexts such as values and history
objects and concepts constitute the:
A. Macrosystem
85. During Piaget’s formal operational stage, the primary B. Microsystem
skill obtained by the child is: C. Mesosystem
A. Understand others’ perspectives and use language and D. Exosystem
mental imagery to internally experience the world
B. Experience the world through senses like tasting and 93. In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory, the
hearing chronosystem represents the:
C. Think systematically and reason about abstract concepts A. Age of the child
like ethics B. Historical context in which our experiences occur
D. Think logically and perform operations on real-world C. Milestones achieved by the individual
objects and concepts D. Time of day when we function in different environments

86. Piaget believed that intellectual development 94. What is the term we use for the set of assumptions,
happens due to maturation, not training. rules, and procedures scientists use to conduct
A. True research?
B. False A. Scientific method

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 Developmental Psychology
B. Experimental psychology 102. When using ________, psychologists observe and
C. Radical empiricism record behavior conducted in a setting created by the
D. Epistemology researcher.
A. Case studies
95. A(n) ______________ is the general term for the B. Naturalistic observation
specific method a researcher uses to collect, analyze, C. Laboratory observation
and interpret data. D. Psychophysiological assessment
A. Scientific method
B. Operational definition 103. When a researcher uses a survey, they are
C. Research design collecting data by using:
D. Experiment A. A measure administered through either a verbal or written
questionnaire to get a picture of the beliefs or behaviors of a
96. Research that describes what is occurring at a sample of people of interest
particular point in time is called: B. Questions asked directly by the researcher
A. Descriptive C. Information that has already been collected or examining
B. Correlational documents or media to uncover attitudes, practices or
C. Experimental preferences
D. All of the above, because all of these terms mean the D. Measures of bodily processes such as heart rate,
same thing hormone levels, or brain activity

97. Research designed to discover relationships among 104. When a researcher uses psychophysiological
variables and to allow the prediction of future events assessment, they are collecting data by using:
from present knowledge is called: A. A measure administered through either a verbal or written
A. Descriptive questionnaire to get a picture of the beliefs or behaviors of a
B. Correlational sample of people of interest
C. Experimental B. Questions asked directly by the researcher
D. All of the above, because all of these terms mean the C. Information that has already been collected or examining
same thing documents or media to uncover attitudes, practices or
preferences
98. Research in which a researcher manipulates one or D. Measures of bodily processes such as heart rate,
more variables to see their effects is called: hormone levels, or brain activity
A. Descriptive
B. Correlational 105. When a researcher uses an interview, they are
C. Experimental collecting data by using:
D. All of the above, because all of these terms mean the A. A measure administered through either a verbal or written
same thing questionnaire to get a picture of the beliefs or behaviors of a
sample of people of interest
99. Descriptive records of one or a small group of B. Questions asked directly by the researcher
individuals’ experiences and behavior are called: C. Information that has already been collected or examining
A. Case studies documents or media to uncover attitudes, practices or
B. Surveys preferences
C. Naturalistic observations D. Measures of bodily processes such as heart rate,
D. Experiments hormone levels, or brain activity

100. An important limitation of case studies is that: 106. When a researcher uses secondary/content
A. The data they produce cannot always be generalized to analysis, they are collecting data by using:
other people A. A measure administered through either a verbal or written
B. They’re time-consuming to do questionnaire to get a picture of the beliefs or behaviors of a
C. They’re expensive to do sample of people of interest
D. All of the above B. Questions asked directly by the researcher
C. Information that has already been collected or examining
101. When using ________, psychologists observe and documents or media to uncover attitudes, practices or
record behavior that occurs in everyday settings. preferences
A. Case studies D. Measures of bodily processes such as heart rate,
B. Naturalistic observation hormone levels, or brain activity
C. Laboratory observation
D. Psychophysiological assessment 107. The people chosen to participate in the research are
called the:
A. Population
B. Sample

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 Developmental Psychology
C. Both A and B, because these terms mean the same thing 115. Which of the following correlation coefficients
represents the weakest relationship?
108. The group of all the people that the researcher A. -.84
wishes to know about is called the: B. -.33
A. Population C. .21
B. Sample D. .66
C. Both A and B, because these terms mean the same thing
116. A positive correlation coefficient indicates that:
109. When selecting a group of people to participate in A. Individuals who have high values for one variable also
research, it’s important that your sample includes the tend to have high values for the other variable
same percentages of males, females, age groups, ethnic B. The results are statistically significant
groups, and socio-economic groups as the larger C. The variables change in a way that supports the
population you’re trying to draw conclusions about. This researcher’s hypothesis
type of sample is called: D. The results point to a good outcome or phenomenon
A. Proportionate
B. Distributive 117. A positive correlation coefficient indicates that:
C. Representative A. The results point to a bad outcome or phenomenon
D. Bivariate B. The variables change in a way that doesn’t support the
researcher’s hypothesis
110. A problem with surveys and interviews is that C. The results are not statistically significant
respondents may lie because they want to present D. Individuals who have high values for one variable tend to
themselves in the most favorable light. For example, have low values for the other variable
someone might claim that they exercise more often than
they do, because they don’t want the researcher to think 118. An important limitation of correlational research is
poorly of them. This is known as: that:
A. Malingering A. It is subject to social desirability
B. Internal validity B. It can’t be used to draw conclusions about the causal
C. External validity relationships among the measured variables
D. Social desirability C. It is expensive and time-consuming to do
D. It does not use representative samples
111. The __________, symbolized by the letter r, is the
most common statistical measure of the strength of 119. An advantage of correlational research is that:
linear relationships among variables. A. It can be used when experimental research is not possible
A. Spearman’s rho for logistical or ethical reasons
B. Pearson correlation coefficient B. It allows the researcher to study behavior as it occurs in
C. Kendall rank correlation everyday life
D. Point-biserial correlation coefficient C. It can be used to make predictions
D. All of the above
112. The value of the Pearson correlation coefficient
ranges from: 120. A variable that is not part of the research
A. 0 to 1.00 hypothesis but produces the observed correlation
B. -1.0 to 0 between them is called a(n):
C. -1.0 to 1.0 A. Categorical variable
D. -.54 to .37 B. Continuous variable
C. Third variable
113. The strength of the correlational relationship is D. Dummy variable
shown by:
A. Whether it’s positive or negative 121. Cities with lots of churches have a higher crime rate
B. The distance of the correlation coefficient from zero than cities with fewer churches. However, the churches
C. The absolute value of the correlation coefficient don’t cause the crime, and the crime doesn’t cause the
D. Both B and C, because these refer to the same thing churches. Instead, this association is explained by
population size, which affects both crime rates and the
114. Which of the following correlation coefficients number of churches. In this case, population size is best
represents the strongest relationship? called a(n):
A. -.84 A. Third variable
B. -.33 B. Discrete variable
C. .21 C. Collider variable
D. .66 D. Indicator variable

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 Developmental Psychology
122. Children from lower socioeconomic status A. A measured variable that is expected to be influenced by
backgrounds tend to perform worse in school. This is an the experimental manipulation
example of a: B. Not part of the research hypothesis but produces the
A. Positive correlation, because both variables change in the observed correlation between them
same direction C. A variable that can only take on a certain number of
B. Positive correlation, because this makes sense values
C. Negative correlation, because the variables change in the D. The causing variable that is created or manipulated by the
opposite direction experimenter
D. Negative correlation, because this produces a bad
outcome for the kids 129. Dr. Smartypants designs a research study to
examine whether or not taking probiotic supplements
123. As the amount of time children spend on social causes children to perform better in school. In her study,
media increases, their rates of depression and anxiety what is the independent variable?
also increase. This is an example of a: A. The age of the children
A. Positive correlation, because both variables change in the B. Whether or not they take probiotic supplements
same direction C. The grades children earn in school
B. Positive correlation, because this makes sense D. The family’s socioeconomic status
C. Negative correlation, because the variables change in the
opposite direction 130. Dr. Smartypants designs a research study to
D. Negative correlation, because this produces a bad examine whether or not taking probiotic supplements
outcome for the kids causes children to perform better in school. In her study,
what is the dependent variable?
124. As the amount of time children spend on social A. The age of the children
media increases, their school grades decrease. This is B. Whether or not they take probiotic supplements
an example of a: C. The grades children earn in school
A. Positive correlation, because both variables change in the D. The family’s socioeconomic status
same direction
B. Positive correlation, because this makes sense 131. Dr. Smartypants designs a research study to
C. Negative correlation, because the variables change in the examine whether or not taking probiotic supplements
opposite direction causes children to perform better in school. She assigns
D. Negative correlation, because this produces a bad one group of children to take probiotic supplements
outcome for the kids daily, and assigns another group of children to take
Vitamin C every day. In her study, the group of children
125. The goal of the _________ is to provide definitive taking probiotic supplements is called the:
conclusions about the causal relationships among the A. Experimental group
variables in a research hypothesis. B. Representative group
A. Correlational method C. Control group
B. Case study method D. Validation group
C. Experimental method
D. Descriptive method 132. Dr. Smartypants designs a research study to
examine whether or not taking probiotic supplements
126. __________ are specific statements about the causes children to perform better in school. She assigns
relationship between variables. one group of children to take probiotic supplements
A. Theories daily, and assigns another group of children to take
B. Hypotheses Vitamin C every day. In her study, the group of children
C. Schemas taking Vitamin C is called the:
D. Operational definitions A. Experimental group
B. Representative group
127. In an experiment, the independent variable is: C. Control group
A. A measured variable that is expected to be influenced by D. Validation group
the experimental manipulation
B. Not part of the research hypothesis but produces the 133. In research, a variable is something that:
observed correlation between them A. Is unknown
C. A variable that can only take on a certain number of B. Causes something else to happen
values C. Can be tested
D. The causing variable that is created or manipulated by the D. Changes in value
experimenter
134. Variables that are not part of the experiment that
128. In an experiment, the dependent variable is: could inadvertently effect either the experimental or
control group, thus distorting the results, are called:

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 Developmental Psychology
A. Dummy variables 142. ____________ occurs when participants fail to
B. Extraneous variables complete all portions of a study.
C. Qualitative variables A. Practice effect
D. Quantitative variables B. Attrition
C. Cohort effect
135. In an experiment, the group that receives the D. Social desirability
treatment being studied is called the:
A. Control group 143. Longitudinal research designs are optimal for
B. Covariate group studying stability and change over time because:
C. Explanatory group A. They examine individual differences in development
D. Experimental group B. They can be conducted over short or long periods of time
C. They assess people’s functioning repeatedly over time
136. In an experiment, the group that does not receive D. All of the above
the treatment being studied is called the:
A. Control group 144. Which of the following is NOT a problem with
B. Covariate group longitudinal research?
C. Explanatory group A. It is expensive and time-consuming to do
D. Experimental group B. It is difficult to keep up with participants
C. Participant’s performance may improve due to practice
137. An important limitation of experimental designs is effects
that: D. It is unethical to study people over time
A. They can be expensive and time-consuming
B. They may be impossible to do for ethical reasons 145. __________ occurs when participants become
C. Their findings may not generalize well to real-world better at a task over time because they have done it
settings again and again.
D. All of the above A. Attrition
B. Cohort effect
138. Research that studies different age groups at a C. Practice effect
single time point, such as the one shown in Figure 1.16 D. Social desirability
on page 28 of the textbook, is called:
A. Longitudinal 146. _______________ includes elements of both
B. Cross-sectional longitudinal and cross-sectional research designs.
C. Sequential A. Correlational research
D. Time-lag B. Sequential research
C. Experimental research
139. A disadvantage of cross-sectional research is that: D. Case study research
A. It does not allow us to investigate the impact of being born
in a certain time period 147. Dr. Smartypants designs a research study in which
B. It is expensive and time-consuming to do she recruits a group of 60-year-olds, a group of
C. Participant’s performance may improve due to practice 70-year-olds, and a group of 80-year-olds and interviews
effects them about their health status. What kind of study has
D. It is difficult to keep up with participants she done?
A. Longitudinal
140. Being born in a certain time period, such as during B. Cross-sectional
the Great Depression, may affect our views, behaviors, C. Sequential
and development in a way that can’t be easily predicted D. Time-lag
from chronological age. This is called a:
A. Flynn effect 148. Dr. Smartypants designs a research study in which
B. Doppler effect she recruits a group of 60-year-olds and then interviews
C. Cohort effect them repeatedly about their health status every 5 years.
D. Practice effect What kind of study has she done?
A. Longitudinal
141. __________ research involves studying one group B. Cross-sectional
of people who are the same age, and measuring them C. Sequential
repeatedly over a period of time. D. Time-lag
A. Longitudinal
B. Cross-sectional 149. Dr. Smartypants designs a research study in which
C. Sequential she recruits a group of 60-year-olds, a group of
D. Time-lag 70-year-olds, and a group of 80-year-olds and interviews

10
 Developmental Psychology
them about their health status every 5 years over time.
Chapter 02 ⏐ Heredity, Prenatal Development, and Birth
What kind of study has she done?
A. Longitudinal
B. Cross-sectional 1. ___________ are recipes for making proteins.
C. Sequential A. Chromosomes
D. Time-lag B. Genes
C Neurofibrillary tangles
150. To conduct ethical research, researchers must D. Golgi bodies
obtain informed consent, which involves:
A. Protecting the privacy of the research participants’ 2. Human cells carry ______ chromosomes in the
responses by not using names or other information that nucleus of each cell.
could identify the participants A. 2
B. Explaining the research and removing any harmful B. 23
aftereffects of participation after the research study is over C. 46
C. Preventing harm to the research participants D. 20,500
D. Explaining as much as possible about the true nature of
the study, particularly everything that might be expected to 3. _________ is defined as the cell’s nucleus making an
influence willingness to participate exact copy of all the chromosomes and splitting into two
new cells.
151. ________ occurs whenever research participants A. Mitosis
are not completely and fully informed about the nature B. Meiosis
of the research project before participating in it. C. Incomplete dominance
A. Debriefing D. Eukaryogenesis
B. Informed consent
C. Deception 4. Most of the cells in the human body are created by the
D. Confidentiality process of:
A. Mitosis
152. Which of the following occurs at the end of the B Meiosis
research study? C. Incomplete dominance
A. Debriefing D. Eukaryogenesis
B. Informed consent
C. Deception 5. During _________, the gamete’s chromosomes
D. Confidentiality duplicate and then divide twice, resulting in four cells
containing only half the genetic material of the original
153. Explaining the research and removing any harmful gamete.
aftereffects of participation after the research study is A. Mitosis
over is called: B. Meiosis
A. Debriefing C. Incomplete dominance
B. Informed consent D. Eukaryogenesis
C. Deception
D. Confidentiality 6. The sexual reproduction cells in the body (the sperm
and egg) are created by the process of:
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Eukaryogenesis

7. The cells used in sexual reproduction are called:

A. Autosomes
B. Ribosomes
C. Gametes
D. Gonads

8. The first 22 pairs of chromosomes are similar in

length and are called:
A. Autosomes
B. Ribosomes
C. Gametes
D. Gonads

11
 Developmental Psychology
9. Whether we are genetically male or female depends C. Eukaryotic
on: D. Recessive
A. The number of autosomes we have
B. Dominant genes 17. Characteristics that are influenced by several genes
C. Recessive genes are called:
D. The sex chromosomes we inherit from our parents A. Polygenic
B. Iatrogenic
10. The sum total of all the genes a person inherits is C. Neurogenic
that person’s: D. Pangenic
A. Phenotype
B. Karyotype 18. Sometimes the dominant gene does not completely
C. Prototype suppress the recessive gene; this is called:
D. Genotype A. Gene targeting
B. Variable expressivity
11. Although we inherit all of our genetic material from C. Incomplete dominance
our parents, not all of the possible features are D. Pseudogenetic transmission
expressed. The features that are actually expressed
constitutes that person’s: 19. People who have inherited only one recessive gene
A. Phenotype are called:
B. Karyotype A. Autosomes
C. Prototype B. Carriers
D. Genotype C. Imprints
D. Mosaics
12. Different versions of a gene are called:
A. Autosomes 20. Monozygotic twins are also called:
B. Ribosomes A. Fraternal twins
C. Alleles B. Phenotypic twins
D. Solenoids C. Identical twins
D. Genotypic twins
13. A person who is homozygous for a particular
characteristic: 21. Dizygotic twins are also called:
A. Inherited different versions of the gene for that A. Fraternal twins
characteristic from each parent B. Phenotypic twins
B. Inherited the same version of the gene for that C. Identical twins
characteristic from each parent D. Genotypic twins
C. Has a very extreme form of that characteristic
D. Has a very mild form of that characteristic 22. Monozygotic twins are formed when:
A. A segment of one chromosome breaks off and attaches to
14. A person who is heterozygous for a particular another chromosome
characteristic: B. Two eggs or ova are released and fertilized by two
A. Inherited different versions of the gene for that separate sperm
characteristic from each parent C. A fertilized egg splits apart during the first two weeks of
B. Inherited the same version of the gene for that development
characteristic from each parent D. A section of DNA on a chromosome is replaced by
C. Has a very extreme form of that characteristic another similar sequence
D. Has a very mild form of that characteristic
23. Dizygotic twins are formed when:
15. Genes that express themselves in the phenotype A. A segment of one chromosome breaks off and attaches to
even when paired with a different version of the gene are another chromosome
called: B. Two eggs or ova are released and fertilized by two
A. Prokaryotic separate sperm
B. Dominant C. A fertilized egg splits apart during the first two weeks of
C. Eukaryotic development
D. Recessive D. A section of DNA on a chromosome is replaced by
another similar sequence
16. Genes that express themselves in the phenotype
express themselves only when paired with a similar 24. Most genetic disorders are associated with ________
version of that gene are called: genes.
A. Prokaryotic A. Prokaryotic
B. Dominant B. Dominant

12
 Developmental Psychology
C. Eukaryotic 32. ____________ is a weakening of the muscles
D. Recessive resulting in an inability to move, wasting away, and
possible death.
25. Some genetic disorders involve a defective gene on A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
the X-chromosome. These disorders are called: B. Huntington’s disease
A. Imprinted C. Sickle cell disease
B. Heritable D. Fragile X syndrome
C. Sex-linked
D. Recombinated 33. _____________ is a condition that affects breathing
and digestion due to thick mucus building up in the
26. Who is at greater risk for sex-linked disorders due to body, especially the lungs and digestive system.
a recessive gene? A. Achondroplasia
A. Males because they have only one X chromosome B. Phenylketonuria
B. Males because they are more affected by recessive C. Cystic fibrosis
genes in general D. Tay-Sachs disease
C. Females because they are more affected by recessive
genes in general 34. ___________ occurs when part or all of one of the X
D. Females because they have two X chromosomes chromosomes is lost and the resulting zygote has an XO
composition.
27. A ___________ occurs when a child inherits too A. Klinefelter syndrome
many or two few chromosomes. B. Gonadal dysgenesis
A. Polymorphism C. Mosaicism
B. Chromosomal abnormality D. Turner syndrome
C. Methylation
D. Mutation 35. ___________ results when an extra X chromosome is
present in the cells of a male and the resulting zygote
28. The most common cause of chromosomal has an XXY composition.
abnormalities is: A. Klinefelter syndrome
A. The age of the mother B. Gonadal dysgenesis
B. The age of the father C. Mosaicism
C. Environmental conditions such as chemicals and other D. Turner syndrome
toxins
D. Consuming undercooked meat or shellfish 36. Common reasons for seeking genetic counseling
are:
29. In the human body, chromosomes are arranged in A. Family history of a genetic condition
pairs. When a person has three of a certain B. Learning about the chances of having a baby with a
chromosome instead of two, this causes problems. A genetic condition if the mother is older
person with three of chromosome 21 has: C. To get information regarding the results of genetic testing,
A. Down syndrome including blood tests, amniocentesis, or ultrasounds
B. Trisomy 21 D. All of the above
C. Both A and B, because these terms mean the same thing
37. The scientific study of the interplay between the
30. A sex-linked chromosomal abnormality occurs when genetic and environmental contributions to behavior is
the chromosomal abnormality occurs on: called:
A. The 13th pair A. Genetic counseling
B. The 18th pair B. Behavioral genetics
C. The 21st pair C. Genomic imprinting
D. The 23rd pair D. Independent assortment

31. _________ is caused by enzyme deficiency resulting 38. The processes by which genetic factors contribute to
in the accumulation of lipids in the nerve cells of the variations in the environment are called:
brain. This accumulation results in progressive damage A. Homologous recombinations
to the cells, a decrease in cognitive and physical B. Polymerase chain reaction
development, and early death. C. Genotype-environment correlations
A. Achondroplasia D. Reproductive fitness
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. Huntington’s disease 39. _________ genotype-environment correlation occurs
D. Phenylketonuria when children passively inherit the genes and the
environments their family provides.
A. Active

13
 Developmental Psychology
B. Passive C. Mendelian trait
C. Evocative D. Genotype-environment interaction
D. Epigenetic
47. Environmental factors, such as nutrition, stress, and
40. _________ genotype-environment correlation occurs teratogens, are thought to change gene expression by
when the social environment reacts to individuals based switching genes on and off. These gene changes can
on their inherited characteristics. then be inherited by daughter cells and affect genetic
A. Active expression as people age. The study of these changes
B. Passive is called:
C. Evocative A. Epigenetics
D. Epigenetic B. Evolutionary psychology
C. Behavioral genetics
41. _________ genotype-environment correlation occurs D. Gene targeting
when individuals seek out environments that support
their genetic tendencies. 48. The __________ period of prenatal development lasts
A. Active about 14 days.
B.Passive A. Germinal
C. Evocative B. Embryonic
D. Epigenetic C. Fetal
D. All of the above
42. An active genotype-environment correlation is also
known as: 49. The __________ period of prenatal development
A. Parental imprinting begins at conception and ends when the fertilized egg
B. Genomic imprinting implants in the lining of the uterus.
C. Polymorphism A. Germinal
D. Niche picking B. Embryonic
C. Fetal
43. Jess is naturally athletically inclined and thus seeks D. All of the above
out opportunities to participate in sports. This is an
example of a(n) ___________ genotype-environment 50. A zygote:
correlation. A. Contains the combined genetic information from both
A. Active parents
B. Passive B. Implants in the lining of the uterus during the germinal
C. Evocative period
D. Epigenetic C. Is formed when the sperm fertilizes the egg
D. All of the above
44. Josh’s parents really enjoy music and are talented at
it, so they expose Josh to a lot of music in hopes that he 51. Fewer than one half of all zygotes survive beyond
turns out the same way. This is an example of a(n) the first two weeks. Why?
___________ genotype-environment correlation. A. The egg and sperm do not join properly, so their genetic
A. Active material does not combine
B. Passive B. There is too little or damaged genetic material
C. Evocative C. The blastocyst does not implant into the uterine wall
D. Epigenetic D. All of the above are possible reasons

45. Tiffany is discriminated against at work because she 52. After about five days of mitosis, the zygote contains
is female. This is an example of a(n) ___________ about 100 cells and is called a(n):
genotype-environment correlation. A. Embryo
A. Active B. Blastocyst
B. Passive C. Trophoblast
C. Evocative D. Fetus
D. Epigenetic
53. The inner layer of the blastocyst is called the:
46. Sometimes environmental effects on behavior differ A.Trophoblast
based on genotype. For example, stressful B. Paramecium
environments appear to affect genetically at-risk C. Embryonic disk
children more than they affect children not genetically at D. Endoplasmic reticulum
risk. This is called a(n):
A. Epigenetic variation 54. The outer layer of the blastocyst is called the:
B. Transmogrification A. Trophoblast

14
 Developmental Psychology
B. Paramecium C. Blastocyst
C. Embryonic disk D. Fetus
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
63. By ________ weeks gestational age, all of the fetus’s
55. When the blastocyst has implanted in the uterine organ systems are developed enough that it could
wall at the end of the germinal period, it’s now called survive outside the mother’s uterus without many of the
a(n): risks associated with premature birth.
A. Trophoblast A. 9
B. Embryo B. 24
C. Fetus C. 37
D. Zygote D. 40

56. The _______ is a structure connected to the uterus 64. Prenatal brain development begins in the third
that provides nourishment and oxygen from the mother gestational week with the differentiation of stem
to the developing embryo via the umbilical cord. cells, which are located in the :
A. Trophoblast A. Neural plate
B. Embryonic disk B. Alpha motor neurons
C. Blastocyst C. Mammillary bodies
D. Placenta D. Tectum

57. __________ development occurs from head to tail. 65. Neurogenesis, or the formation of neurons, is largely
A.Proximodistal completed after ________ of gestation.
B. Iatrogenic A. Two months
C. Cephalocaudal B. Five months
D. Nosocomial C. Seven months
D. Nine months
58. The embryo’s head is larger than the rest of its body.
This is an example of _________ development. 66. According to your textbook, which part of the brain
A. Proximodistal continues to develop neurons throughout life?
B. Iatrogenic A. Hypothalamus
C. Cephalocaudal B. Thalamus
D. Nosocomial C. Cerebellum
D. Hippocampus
59. __________ development occurs from the middle
outward. 67. The formation of neurons is called:
A. Proximodistal A. Apoptosis
B.Iatrogenic B. Neurogenesis
C.Cephalocaudal C. Spondylosis
D. Nosocomial D.Praxis

60. The embryo’s internal organs develop before its 68. Regions of the brain that contain the cell bodies are
fingers do. This is an example of _________ referred to as the:
development. A. Gray matter
A. Proximodistal B. White matter
B. Iatrogenic C. Dark matter
C. Cephalocaudal D. Dura mater
D. Nosocomial
69. Regions of the brain that contain the axons that form
61. The first chance of survival outside the womb, the neural pathways are referred to as the:
known as the age of ___________, is reached at about 24 A. Gray matter
weeks gestational age. B. White matter
A. Epistasis C. Dark matter
B. Viability D. Dura mater
C. Homeostasis
D. Heritability 70. Myelin is:
A. fatty substance that is white in appearance
62.From the ninth week post-conception until birth, the B. Important for the efficiency of neural transmission
organism is referred to as a(n): C. A covering on the axons of our neurons
A. Embryo D. All of the above
B. Zygote

15
 Developmental Psychology
71. __________ are environmental factors that can 79. All prescription and over-the-counter drugs are safe
contribute to birth defects. to take during pregnancy.
A. Prions A. True
B. Antigens B. False
C. Teratogens
D. Neurogens 80. If a baby’s mother used an addictive drug during
pregnancy, that baby can get addicted to the drug before
72. A factor influencing the effect that teratogens have birth and go through drug withdrawal after birth. This is
on prenatal development is: called:
A. Amount of exposure A. Neonatal abstinence syndrome
B. Being male or female B. Delirium tremens
C. Timing of exposure C. Spongiform encephalopathy
D. All of the above D. Pseudobulbar effect

73. The effects of fetal alcohol spectrum disorders 81. Why is it difficult to determine the effects of illicit
include: drugs on prenatal development?
A. Lower IQ scores A. Because women who use drugs may use more than one
B. Small heads drug
C. Poor impulse control B. Because women who use drugs may be exposed to other
D. All of the above teratogens such as alcohol and tobacco smoke
C. Because women who smoke may have other unhealthy
74. The primary way that smoking tobacco affects habits such as poor nutrition
prenatal development is by: D. All of the above
A. Producing cancer cells in the lungs of the fetus
B. Reducing the amount of oxygen available to the fetus 81. Possible effects of exposure to illicit drugs during
C. Exposing the fetus to high levels of radiation pregnancy include:
D. Affecting the absorption of vitamins and other nutrients A. Premature birth
available to the fetus B. Heart defects
C. Brain defects
75. ___________ is a complication of pregnancy in D. All of the above
which the fertilized egg implants itself outside of the
uterus. 82. Possible effects of exposure to illicit drugs during
A. Ectopic pregnancy pregnancy include:
B.Preterm birth A. Premature birth
C. Placenta previa B. Heart defects
D. Placenta abruption C. Brain defects
D. All of the above
76. ___________ is a complication of pregnancy in which
placenta lies low in the uterus and covers all or part of 83. Which of the following chemicals appears to have
the cervix. negative effects on prenatal development?
A. Ectopic pregnancy A. Lead
B. Preterm birth B. Mercury
C. Placenta previa C. Bisphenol A
D. Placenta abruption D. All of the above

77. ___________ is a complication of pregnancy in which 84. ______________ is a parasite found in cat feces, dirt,
the placenta separates prematurely from the uterine and uncooked meats and can cause problems during
wall. prenatal development.
A. Ectopic pregnancy A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Preterm birth B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Placenta previa C. Balatidium coli
D. Placenta abruption D. Cystoisospora belli

78. Possible effects of smoking during pregnancy 85. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in your
include: book as an illness that can cause problems during
A. Problems with the health and functioning of the placenta prenatal development?
B. Fetal growth restriction A. HIV
C. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome B. Syphilis
D. All of the above C. Influenza
D. German measles

16
 Developmental Psychology
C. Alpha-fetoprotein test
86. Being an older parent is associated with more D. Chorionic villus sampling
medical risks, but there are also possible positive
consequences, such as increased stability and better 96. The ___________ is a test in which a needle is used
income. to withdraw a small amount of amniotic fluid and cells
A. True from the sac surrounding the fetus and later tested.
B. False A. Amniocentesis
B. Ultrasound
87. The increased risk of medical and genetic C. Alpha-fetoprotein test
complications starts when women turn age: D. Chorionic villus sampling
A. 15
B. 35 97. The ___________ is a test in which a small sample of
C. 21 cells is taken from the placenta and tested.
D. 60 A. Amniocentesis
B. Ultrasound
88. Both mothers under age 15 and over age 35 are at C. Alpha-fetoprotein test
increased risk of having premature babies. D. Chorionic villus sampling
A. True
B. False 98. Which procedure involves implanting both sperm
and ova into the fallopian tube and allowing fertilization
89. Babies born to women with gestational diabetes will to occur naturally?
be diabetic themselves. a) In vitro fertilization
A. True b) Intrauterine insemination
B. False *c) Gamete intra-fallopian tube transfer
d) Zygote intra-fallopian tube transfer
90. Women who develop diabetes during pregnancy will
be permanently diabetic after giving birth. 99. __________ is characterized by a sharp rise in blood
A. True pressure, a leakage of protein into the urine as a result
B. False of kidney problems, and swelling of the hands, feet, and
face during the third trimester of pregnancy.
91. Rh disease is: A. Eclampsia
A. A sexually transmitted disease B. Preeclampsia
B. Caused by developing diabetes during pregnancy C. Toxemia
C. A form of anemia D. Both B and C, because they mean the same thing
D. Caused by developing hypertension during pregnancy
100. The emphasis of the __________ method is on
92. All women should gain the same amount of weight teaching the woman to be in control in the process of
during pregnancy, regardless of their pre-pregnancy delivery by encouraging things like muscle relaxation
weight. and breathing through contractions.
A. True A.Ferber
B. False B. Fletcher
C.Lamaze
93. During pregnancy, most women do not need to D. Braxton-Hicks
double their caloric intake, but simply add a few
hundred extra calories to their diet. 101. The first stage of labor involves:
A. True A. Uterine contractions that increase in duration and
B. False frequency
B. Braxton-Hicks contractions
94. Which of the following emotional states is NOT C. Passage of the baby through the birth canal
mentioned in your book as a cause of problems during D. Delivery of the placenta
prenatal development?
A. Depression 102. The second stage of labor involves:
B. Stress A. Uterine contractions that increase in duration and
C. Schizophrenia frequency
D. Trick question! All of these are mentioned B. Braxton-Hicks contractions
C. Passage of the baby through the birth canal
95. The ___________ is a test in which sound waves are D. Delivery of the placenta
used to examine the fetus.
A. Amniocentesis
B. Ultrasound

17
 Developmental Psychology
103. The third stage of labor involves: 111. In the Apgar assessment, the P stands for:
A. Uterine contractions that increase in duration and A. Proprioception
frequency B. Pulse
B. Braxton-Hicks contractions C. Position
C. Passage of the baby through the birth canal D. Pregnancy
D. Delivery of the placenta
112. The Apgar assessment is used to assess
104. The longest stage of labor is typically the ________ functioning:
stage. A. During labor and delivery
A. First B. During prenatal development
B. Second C. At one and five minutes after birth
C. Third D. One day after birth
D. Trick question! All three stages of labor usually last the
same amount of time 113. In addition to the Apgar assessment, we can also
assess newborn functioning using the:
105. _________ contractions are also called “false A. Differential Ability Scales
labor”. B. Bayley Scales of Infant Development
A. Ehlers-Danlos C. Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale
B. Machado-Joseph D. Denver Developmental Screening Questionnaire
C. Braxton-Hicks
D. Aarskog-Scott 114. __________ is a temporary lack of oxygen to the
brain that can result in brain damage or, in severe cases,
106. A(n) ____________ is an incision made in the tissue death.
between the vaginal opening and anus to prevent A. Ataxia
vaginal tearing. B. Apraxia
A. Cesarean section C. Agnosia
B. Episiotomy D. Anoxia
C. Laparotomy
D. Vaginoplasty 115. A baby is considered to be of “low birth weight” if
they weigh less than _______ at birth.
107. A(n) ___________ is a regional analgesic that can A. 7 pounds
be used during labor and alleviates most pain in the B. 5 pounds, 8 ounces
lower body without slowing labor. C. 3 pounds, 5 ounces
A. Auscultation D. 2 pounds
B. Politzerization
C. Nocebo 116. A baby is considered to be preterm if they are born
D. Epidural block before _______ weeks gestational age.
108. A(n) _________ is surgery to deliver the baby by A. 9
being removed through the mother's abdomen. B. 24
A. Cesarean section C. 37
B. Episiotomy D. 40
C. Laparotomy
D. Vaginoplasty 117. Infants who weigh less than 90% of all babies of the
same gestational age are referred to as:
109. Cesarean sections and induced labor are A. Preterm
sometimes used when complications, such as medical B. Low birth weight
problems in the mother, arise. C. Small-for-date
A. True D. All of the above, because all of these terms mean the
B. False same thing

110. When we say that a birth is “induced”, we mean 118. A baby may be full term but still be considered
that: small-for-date.
A. The baby is born prematurely A. True
B. The baby was conceived using some kind of fertility B. False
treatment
C. The baby was delivered before labor begins
D. The baby needed resuscitation immediately after birth

18
 Developmental Psychology
B. Myelin sheath
Chapter 03 ⏐ Infancy and Toddlerhood
C. Synapse
D. Dendrite
1. The average newborn in the United States weighs
about _______ pounds. 10. The electrical signal traveling down the axon is
A. 5.5 called the:
B. 7.5 A. Afferent impulse
C. 10 B. Efferent impulse
D. 3.5 C. Action potential
d) H-reflex
2. Newborns typically lose weight in the first few days
after birth. 11. The process through which neural connections are
A. True reduced, thereby making those that are used much
B. False stronger, is called:
A. Heterotopia
3. The average American baby will _________ their birth B. Synaptic pruning
weight by the time they turn 1 year old. C. Watershed infarct
A. Double D. Oligemia
B. Triple
C. Quadruple 12. Which of the following statements about synaptic
D. Trick question! Babies don’t gain any weight between pruning is FALSE?
birth and 1 year of age A. It is the result of some kind of illness or injury to the brain
B. It helps the brain work more efficiently
4. As we progress from infancy into adulthood, our head C. It is affected by experience
makes up ________ of our body length. D. It continues into childhood and adolescence
A. The same amount
B. More 13. Myelin is:
C. Less A. A chemical that is released by the synapse
B A build-up of fatty deposits in our cerebral arteries
5. We are born with most of the neurons we will ever C. A loss of pain sensation
have. D. A coating of fatty tissues around the axon of the neuron
A. True
B. False 14. Which of the following is a function of myelin?
A. Speed the rate of transmission of impulses from one cell
6. ________ are branching extensions that collect to another
information from other neurons. B. Improve coordination and control of movement and
A. Axons thought processes
B. Myelin sheaths C. Insulate the nerve cell
C. Synapses D. All of the above
D. Dendrites
15. The cortex is:
7. The formation of connections between neurons is A. The thin outer covering of the brain involved in voluntary
called: activity and thinking
A. Neurogenesis B. The structure at the back of the brain that coordinates
B. Neural migration movement
C. Synaptogenesis C. The part of the brain that produces cerebrospinal fluid
D. Predictive wiring D. A collection of fluid-filled chambers inside the brain

8. The term “synaptic blooming” refers to: 16. The _________ lobe is responsible primarily for
A. The improvement in cognitive and motor skills as a result thinking, planning, memory, and judgment.
of synapse formation A. Temporal
B. The period of rapid neural growth in infancy and B. Frontal
toddlerhood C. Parietal
C. The time period in the late 20th century when scientists D. Occipital
learned a lot about how the brain works
D. The improvement in sensory functions as a result of 17. The _________ lobe is responsible primarily for
synapse formation processing information about touch.
A. Temporal
9. Which part of the neuron passes messages away from B. Frontal
the cell body and on to other neurons? C. Parietal
A. Axon
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 Developmental Psychology
D. Occipital 25. Rates of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome began to
decline significantly in the mid-1990s after the American
18. The _________ lobe processes visual information. Academy of Pediatrics recommended that:
A. Temporal A. Mothers breastfeed
B. Frontal B. Parents avoid co-sleeping with their infants
C. Parietal C. Babies be put to bed on their backs
D. Occipital D. Adults not smoke in houses where babies lived

19. The _________ lobe is responsible for hearing and 26. __________ are involuntary movements in response
language. to stimulation.
A. Temporal A. Action potentials
B. Frontal B. Reflexes
C. Parietal C. Gross motor skills
D. Occipital D. Fine motor skills

20. ____________ is the process in which different 27. The _________ reflex involves turning the head when
functions become localized primarily on one side of the the cheek is touched.
brain. A. Babinski
A. Transmogrification B. Moro
B. Lateralization C. Tonic neck
C. Myelination D. Rooting
D. Synaptogenesis
28. The _________ reflex involves the toes fanning out
21. Which term refers to the brain’s ability to change, and curling when the sole of the foot is stroked from
both physically and chemically, to enhance its heel to toe.
adaptability to environmental change and compensate A. Babinski
for injury? B. Moro
A. Double simultaneous stimulation C. Tonic neck
B. Abulia D. Rooting
C. Neuroplasticity
D. Skew deviation 29. Within the first few months after birth, some of our
reflexes disappear.
22. When we refer to infant sleep as “polyphasic”, we A. True
mean that: B. False
A. Infants go through several different stages of sleep
B. Infants spend more time in REM sleep than adults do 30. Reflexes are useful because they:
C. The amount of sleep infants need changes as they get A. Offer pediatricians insight into the maturation and health
older of the nervous system
D. Infants sleep in several periods throughout the day B. Are important to feeding (such as the rooting and sucking
instead of just one long time period at night reflexes)
C. Are primitive forms of voluntary behaviors (such as
23. Approximately how much time does a newborn sleep grasping and stepping)
during a 24-hour period? D. All of the above
A. 16 hours
B. 24 hours 31. __________ development occurs from head to tail.
C. 8 hours A. Proximodistal
D. 10 hours B. Iatrogenic
C. Cephalocaudal
24. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is identified D. Nosocomial
when:
A. An infant is stillborn 32. Babies learn to hold their heads up before they learn
B. The death of a healthy infant occurs suddenly and to walk. This is an example of _________ development.
unexpectedly, and medical and forensic investigation A. Proximodistal
findings (including an autopsy) are inconclusive B. Iatrogenic
C. An infant accidentally suffocates from bedding, stuffed C. Cephalocaudal
animals, or another person obstructing their breathing D. Nosocomial
D. All of the above
33. __________ development occurs from the middle
outward.
A. Proximodistal

20
 Developmental Psychology
B. Iatrogenic
C. Cephalocaudal 42. Grasping an object using the hand and fingers, but
D. Nosocomial not the thumb, is called the:
A. Limbic grasp
34. All babies should achieve developmental milestones, B. Infantile grasp
such as being able to walk, at exactly the same age or C. Pincer grasp
this indicates a serious problem. D. Palmer grasp
A. True
B. False 43. Which of the following senses appears to be least
developed at birth?
35. Which term refers to our ability to move our bodies A. Hearing
and manipulate objects? B. Touch
A. Praxis C. Vision
B. Asterixis D. Smell
C. Neuralgia
D. Motor skills 44. A newborns’ visual acuity is about:
A. 20/20
36. _______ motor skills focus on the muscles in our B. 20/400
fingers, toes, and eyes, and enable coordination of small C. 20/15
actions. D. 20/25
A. Gross
B. Fine 45. Infants will best be able to see things that:
C. Hypertonic A. Are close to their faces (instead of far away)
D. Hypotonic B. Have big patterns (instead of small ones)
C. Contain high contrast colors like black and white (instead
37. Using a spoon is an example of a ________ motor of pastels)
skill. D. All of the above
A. Gross
B. Fine 46. Typically, infants can perceive depth in both real life
C. Hypertonic and pictures by:
D. Hypotonic A. 1 month of age
B. 4 months of age
38. _______ motor skills focus on large muscle groups C. 6 months of age
that control our head, torso, arms and legs and involve D. 1 year of age
larger movements.
A. Gross 47. Infants typically prefer to look at:
B. Fine A. Faces instead of other patterns
C. Hypertonic B. Patterns instead of solid colors
D. Hypotonic C. Unusual images instead of familiar ones
D. All of the above
39. Running and jumping are examples of _________
motor skills. 48. Infants appear to be able to hear even before they’re
A. Gross born.
B. Fine A. True
C. Hypertonic B. False
D. Hypotonic
49. Infants are innately ready to respond to the sounds
40. Which typically develops first in infants, the palmer of any language, but some of this ability will be lost by 7
grasp or the pincer grasp? or 8 months as the infant becomes familiar with the
A. Palmer sounds of a particular language and less sensitive to
B. Pincer sounds that are part of an unfamiliar language. This is
C. Trick question! Infants never develop either one consistent with the concept of:
D. Trick question! They usually develop at the same time A. Heterotopia
B. Synaptic pruning
41. Grasping an object using the forefinger and thumb is C. Watershed infarct
called the: D. Oligemia
A. Limbic grasp
B. Infantile grasp 50. Infants can distinguish familiar from unfamiliar
C. Pincer grasp voices by the time they’re 1 month old.
D. Palmer grasp A. True

21
 Developmental Psychology
B. False C. Reduced risk of developing Type 2 diabetes
D. All of the above
51. Newborns prefer to hear ______ voice over other
voices. 60. Breastfed and bottle-fed infants seem to be equally
A. Their father’s emotionally healthy.
B. Their own A. True
C. Their mother’s B. False
D. An Autotuned
61. According to your textbook, which of the following is
52. _________ is the surgical removal of the foreskin of NOT a sign that an infant is ready for solid foods?
the penis. A. Can sit up without needing support
A. Castration B. Is able to move foods from the front to the back of the
B. Circumcision mouth
C. Cathererization C. Has developed at least four teeth
D. Cauterization D. Shows interest in foods others are eating

53. Babies appear to be sensitive to pain, as measured 62. Which of the following statements about introducing
by responses such as increases in heart rate, blood solid foods to babies is FALSE?
pressure, and stress hormones. A. New foods should be introduced one at a time to check for
A. True allergies and allow the baby to adjust
B. False B. Honey is a safe natural sweetener for babies
C. Foods that are sticky, cut into large chunks, and firm and
54. Newborns can distinguish between sour, bitter, round should be avoided as they are a choking hazard
sweet, and salty flavors and show a preference D. Iron-fortified infant cereals mixed with breast milk or
for_________ flavors. formula are usually the best first options
A. Salty
B. Sour 63. _________ refers to starvation due to a lack of
C. Bitter calories and protein.
D. Sweet A. Phenylketonuria
B. Kwashiorkor
55. Newborns prefer their mother’s smell over the smell C. Infantile marasmus
of other mothers. D. Sectoranopia
A. True
B. False 64. Children with _________ have diets deficient in
protein, usually because another baby has been born
56. Decreased responsiveness to a stimulus after and taken over breastfeeding.
repeated presentations is called: A. Phenylketonuria
A. Entrenchment B. Kwashiorkor
B. Proprioception C. Infantile marasmus
C. Habituation D. Sectoranopia
D. Reticular formation
65. According to figures from the World Health
57. The speed or efficiency with which infants show Organization and UNICEF, 1 child in every 13 children in
habituation has been shown to predict outcomes in the world suffers from some form of wasting disease.
behaviors such as language acquisition and verbal and A. True
nonverbal intelligence. B. False
A. True
B. False 66. Early malnutrition is associated with:
A. Attention problems
B. Behavioral issues at school
58. In general, babies who are fed breast milk have: C. Lower IQ scores
A. Fewer instances of diarrhea and upset stomachs D. All of the above
B. Lower rates of asthma, diabetes, and SIDS
C. Lower rates of ear and respiratory infections 67. In Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, a
D. All of the above framework for organizing information is referred to as
a(n):
59. In general, women who breastfeed have: A. Prototype
A. Lower rates of breast and ovarian cancer B. Exemplar
B. Uterine contractions that help the uterus regain its normal C. Schema
size D. Stereotype

22
 Developmental Psychology
A. Coordination of secondary circular reactions
68. The process of fitting new information into an B. Reflexes
existing schema is called: C. Secondary circular reactions
A. Accommodation D. Tertiary circular reactions
B. Assimilation
C. Attribution 76. The “little scientist” substage of Piaget’s
D. Affiliation sensorimotor period is also called:
A. Secondary circular reactions
69. Malik has a dog at home and so is familiar with what B. Coordination of secondary circular reactions
a dog is. He sees a bear for the first time and says C. Beginning of representational thought
“Doggie!” What process is he using? D. Tertiary circular reactions
A. Accommodation
B. Assimilation 77. Rahul has a basic understanding that objects can be
C. Attribution used as symbols and can solve problems using mental
D. Affiliation strategies, remember and repeat something heard days
before, and engage in pretend play. Which of Piaget’s
70. The process of expanding the framework of substages is he in?
knowledge to accommodate the new situation is called: A. Tertiary circular reactions
A. Accommodation B. Beginning of representational thought
B. Assimilation C. Secondary circular reactions
C. Attribution D. Primary circular reactions
D. Affiliation
78. __________ is the understanding that even if
71. Carmen has a dog at home and so is familiar with something is out of sight, it still exists.
what a dog is. She sees a bear for the first time and A. Object permanence
says “Doggie!” Her sister says “No, that’s a bear”, and B. Categorical schema
Carmen now has separate schemas for dogs and bears. C. Doppler effect
What process is being described here? D. Pareidolia
A. Accommodation
B. Assimilation 79. Although some of Piaget’s ideas appear to be
C. Attribution accurate, he also appeared to underestimate the abilities
D. Affiliation of infants.
A. True
72. The first stage of cognitive development in Piaget’s B. False
theory is the:
A. Concrete operational period 80. The inability to recall memories from the first few
B. Preoperational period years of life is called:
C. Sensorimotor period A. Proactive amnesia)
D. Formal operational period B. Source amnesia
C. Infantile amnesia
73. Piaget’s sensorimotor period has six substages. In D. Retroactive amnesia
which substage does the infant begin to actively involve
their own body in some form of repeated activity? 81. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in your
A. Coordination of secondary circular reactions book as a likely cause of infantile amnesia?
B. Beginning of representational thought A. Immaturity of the infant brain
C. Secondary circular reactions B. Lack of linguistic skills, which limits the ability to mentally
D. Primary circular reactions represent events and encode memory
C. Lack of understanding of “self”
74. Piaget’s sensorimotor period has six substages. In D. Repression of traumatic experiences
which substage does the infant begin to interact with
objects in the environment, first accidentally and then 82. Deferred imitation is:
deliberately? A. Imitation of actions in order to get a reward
A. Coordination of secondary circular reactions B. Imitation of actions after a time delay
B. Beginning of representational thought C. Imitation of actions of an authority figure
C. Secondary circular reactions D. Imitation of actions in order to avoid punishment
D. Primary circular reactions
83. The smallest unit of sound that makes a meaningful
75. Hiromi sees a toy car under the kitchen table and difference in a language is called a:
then crawls, reaches, and grabs the toy. Which of A. Morpheme
Piaget’s substages is she illustrating here? B. Grapheme

23
 Developmental Psychology
C. Phoneme D. One-word expressions
D. Lexeme
92. According to your textbook, babbling is defined as:
84. Your book defines “language” as: A. Intentional vocalizations that lack specific meaning and
A. A communicative ability present in all animals comprise a consonant-vowel repeated sequence
B. A system of communication that uses symbols in a regular B. A one-syllable combination of a consonant and a vowel
way to create meaning sound
C. The system of communication used by a particular C. The infant understanding more than they can say
community or country D. One-word expressions
D. The expression of ideas by means of speech-sounds
combined into words 93. According to your textbook, receptive language is
defined as:
85. A string of one or more phonemes that makes up the A. Intentional vocalizations that lack specific meaning and
smallest units of meaning in a language is called a: comprise a consonant-vowel repeated sequence
A. Morpheme B. A one-syllable combination of a consonant and a vowel
B. Grapheme sound
C. Phoneme C. The infant understanding more than they can say
D. Lexeme D. One-word expressions

86. The set of rules we use to obtain meaning from 94. According to your textbook, holophrasic speech is
morphemes is called: defined as:
A. Pragmatics A. Intentional vocalizations that lack specific meaning and
B. Semantics comprise a consonant-vowel repeated sequence
C. Syntax B. A one-syllable combination of a consonant and a vowel
D. Morphology sound
C. The infant understanding more than they can say
87. The set of rules of a language by which we construct D. One-word expressions
sentencesis called:
A. Pragmatics 95. Thinking that a word can be used for only that
B. Semantics particular object, such as thinking that “Mama” refers
C. Syntax only to your own mother and no one else, is called:
D. Morphology A. Overregularization
B. Underregularization
88. How we communicate effectively and appropriately C. Underextension
with others is called: D. Overextension
A. Pragmatics
B. Semantics 96. Thinking that a label applies to all objects that are
C. Syntax similar to the original object, such as thinking that
D. Morphology “Mama” applies to every woman regardless of her
relation to you, is called:
89. We use contextual information, the information A. Overregularization
surrounding language, to help us interpret it. Examples B. Underregularization
of contextual information include: C. Underextension
A. Our own knowledge D. Overextension
B. Facial expressions
C. Gestures 97. The first word of English-speaking children tend to
D. All of the above be:
A. Nouns
90. Crying, gestures, and facial expressions are all B. Verbs
forms of communication that babies use before they C. Adjectives
develop language. D. Adverbs
A. True
B. False 98. Utterances such as “Mommy go” or “Daddy shoe”
are examples of:
91. According to your textbook, cooing is defined as: A. Holophrases
A. Intentional vocalizations that lack specific meaning and B. Babbling
comprise a consonant-vowel repeated sequence C. Telegraphic speech
B. A one-syllable combination of a consonant and a vowel D. Jargon
sound
C. The infant understanding more than they can say 99. Infant-directed speech is also called:

24
 Developmental Psychology
A. Telegraphic speech B. Latent content
B. Baby talk C. Surface structure
C. Text message speech D. Deep structure
D. Jargon
108. ____________, an area in front of the left
100. Infant-directed speech involves: hemisphere near the motor cortex, is responsible for
A. Using a high-pitched voice language production.
B. Exaggerating the vowel and consonant sounds A. Wernicke’s area
C. Using facial expressions B. Broca’s area
D. All of the above C. Cerebellum
D. Hippocampus
101. Our ability to use language is influenced by both nature
and nurture. 109. ____________, an area of the brain next to the
A. True auditory cortex, is responsible for language
B. False comprehension.
A. Wernicke’s area
102. Which of the following research findings supports B. Broca’s area
the idea that language is not solely learned from our C. Cerebellum
environment? D. Hippocampus
A. Children say things (such as errors like “eated”) that they
have never heard other people say 110. The term __________ refers to the innate
B. Children may learn languages better than they ever hear characteristics of the infant, including mood, activity
them level, and emotional reactivity, noticeable soon after
C. Children learn words too fast for them to be learned birth.
through reinforcement A. Personality
D. All of the above B. Equilibrium
C. Temperament
103. ________ believed we learn language through D. Habituation
association and reinforcement.
A. Skinner 111. In Chess and Thomas’ system for classifying infant
B. Bandura temperaments, which type is most common?
C. Chomsky A. Difficult
D. Lennenberg B. Easy
C. Slow to warm up
104. ________ believed we learn language through D. Trick question! These types all appear to be equally
observation and imitation. common
A. Skinner
B. Bandura 112. In Chess and Thomas’ system for classifying infant
C. Chomsky temperaments, a(n) __________ infant is described as
D. Lennenberg being able to quickly adapt to routine and new
situations, remains calm, is easy to soothe, and usually
105. ________ believed we learn language due to a is in a positive mood.
hardwired knowledge of the rules of language that is A. Difficult
part of our biological makeup. B. Easy
A. Skinner C. Slow to warm up
B. Bandura D. Undifferentiated
C. Chomsky
D. Lennenberg 113. In Chess and Thomas’ system for classifying infant
temperaments, a(n) __________ infant is described as
106. In Chomsky’s terms, how an idea is represented in being one who reacts negatively to new situations, has
the fundamental universal grammar that is common to trouble adapting to routine, is usually negative in mood,
all languages is called the: and cries frequently.
A. Manifest content A. Difficult
B. Latent content B. Easy
C. Surface structure C. Slow to warm up
D. Deep structure D. Undifferentiated

107. In Chomsky’s terms, how an idea is expressed in 114. In Chess and Thomas’ system for classifying infant
any one language is called the: temperaments, a(n) __________ infant is described as
A. Manifest content

25
 Developmental Psychology
being one who has a low activity level, adjusts slowly to B. Stranger wariness
new situations and is often negative in mood. C. Social referencing
A. Difficult D. Emotional self-regulation
B. Easy
C. Slow to warm up 123. Which of the following is NOT a basic emotion?
D. Undifferentiated A. Shame
B. Sadness
115. The term _________ refers to how well the C. Anger
interaction styles and communication patterns between D. Fear
infants and their parents match.
A. Habituation 124. Which of the following is NOT a self-conscious
B. Personality emotion?
C. Stephosymbolia A. Doubt
D. Goodness of fit B. Envy
C. Disgust
116. The term __________ refers to an individual’s D. Pride
consistent pattern of feeling, thinking, and behaving.
A. Personality 125. The ability to experience emotions such as shame
B. Equilibrium and pride requires the development of:
C. Temperament A. Secure attachment
D. Habituation B. Language skills
C. Fine motor skills
117. Personality can best be thought of as an D. A self-concept
elaboration and extension of infant temperament.
A. True 126. The realization that you are separate from others is
B. False called:
A. Self-concept
118. Infants begin to smile at other people who engage B. Self-awareness
their positive attention at around: C. Self-esteem
A. Two months of age D. Self-serving bias
B. Four months of age
C. Six months of age 127. ___________ is the close bond with a caregiver
D. One year of age from which the infant derives a sense of security.
A. Attachment
119. Fear in response to the presence of a stranger is B. Couvade
called: C. Secure base
A. Separation anxiety D. Contact comfort
B. Stranger wariness
C. Social referencing 128. The infant's need for physical closeness and
D. Emotional self-regulation touching is referred to as
A. Attachment
120. Fear in response to the departure of significant B Couvade
others is called: C. Secure base
A. Separation anxiety D. Contact comfort
B. Stranger wariness
C. Social referencing 129. ___________ is a parental presence that gives the
D. Emotional self-regulation child a sense of safety as the child explores the
surroundings.
121. The process whereby infants seek out information A. Attachment
from others to clarify a situation and then use that B. Couvade
information to act is called: C. Secure base
A. Separation anxiety D. Contact comfort
B. Stranger wariness
C. Social referencing 130. Freud believed that infants became attached to their
D. Emotional self-regulation mothers because:
A. He was weird
122. The process whereby we use strategies to control B. He believed that infants gained pleasure from sucking and
our emotional states so that we can attain goals is mouthing objects, so the person who fed them would
called: become their source of security and comfort
A. Separation anxiety

26
 Developmental Psychology
C. He did several experiments with monkeys in laboratory D. Behave in inconsistent ways, such as approaching the
settings that demonstrated this mother and then freezing
D. He observed babies interact in different settings and drew
conclusions from naturalistic observation 137. In the Strange Situation, a child with an avoidant
attachment will typically:
131. According to Bowlby, which of the following is NOT A. Explore the environment, be upset when the caregiver
required in order for infants to form healthy attachments leaves, and calm down when the caregiver returns
with their parents? B. Cling to the caregiver, be upset when the caregiver
A. The caregiver must be responsive to the child’s physical, leaves, but remain upset when the caregiver returns
social, and emotional needs C. Avoid or ignore the mother and show little reaction when
B The infant must successfully resolve the crisis of Trust vs. separated or reunited
Mistrust D. Behave in inconsistent ways, such as approaching the
C. The caregiver and child must engage in mutually mother and then freezing
enjoyable interactions
D. Trick question! Bowlby believed that all of these things 138. In the Strange Situation, a child with an ambivalent
were required for healthy attachment attachment will typically:
A. Explore the environment, be upset when the caregiver
132. According to Erikson, which of the following is leaves, and calm down when the caregiver returns
required in order for infants to successfully resolve the B. Cling to the caregiver, be upset when the caregiver
crisis of Trust vs. Mistrust? leaves, but remain upset when the caregiver returns
A. The caregiver must be consistently responsive to the C. Avoid or ignore the mother and show little reaction when
child’s needs separated or reunited
B. The caregiver must co-sleep with the infant D. Behave in inconsistent ways, such as approaching the
C. The caregiver must set firm limits on the infant mother and then freezing
D. All of the above
139. During the Strange Situation, Chaska explores the
133. Which of the following is NOT part of the Strange environment, is upset when his mother leaves, and is
Situation? comforted when she returns. His attachment style can
A. Unfamiliar environment best be described as:
B. Presence of stranger A. Secure
C. Absence of caregiver B. Ambivalent
D. All the furniture is nailed to the ceiling C. Avoidant
D. Disorganized
134. Which of the following situations could result in the
infant failing to successfully resolve the crisis of Trust 140. During the Strange Situation, Mei pays little
vs. Mistrust? attention to her mother and doesn’t seem to care
A. A caregiver is unavailable, either emotionally or physically whether or not she’s present. Her attachment style can
B. A child is born prematurely or has medical problems best be described as:
C. A caregiver is ill-prepared to care for a child A. Secure
D. All of the above B. Ambivalent
C. Avoidant
135. In the Strange Situation, a child with a secure D. Disorganized
attachment will typically:
A. Explore the environment, be upset when the caregiver 141. During the Strange Situation, Nnenne clings to her
leaves, and calm down when the caregiver returns mother, is upset when her mother leaves, but does not
B. Cling to the caregiver, be upset when the caregiver calm down her mother returns. Her attachment style
leaves, but remain upset when the caregiver returns can best be described as:
C. Avoid or ignore the mother and show little reaction when A. Secure
separated or reunited B. Ambivalent
D. Behave in inconsistent ways, such as approaching the C. Avoidant
mother and then freezing D. Disorganized

136. In the Strange Situation, a child with a disorganized 142. During the Strange Situation, Iyad seems
attachment will typically: disoriented in the environment, is upset when his
A. Explore the environment, be upset when the caregiver mother leaves, but ignores her when she returns. His
leaves, and calm down when the caregiver returns attachment style can best be described as:
B. Cling to the caregiver, be upset when the caregiver A. Secure
leaves, but remain upset when the caregiver returns B. Ambivalent
C. Avoid or ignore the mother and show little reaction when C. Avoidant
separated or reunited D. Disorganized

27
 Developmental Psychology
A. Developmentally inappropriate attachment behavior, such
as being inhibited and withdrawn
143. In the United States, the most common attachment B. Limited positive affect
style appears to be: C. Minimal social and emotional responsiveness to others
A. Secure D. All of the above
B. Ambivalent
C. Avoidant 151. Children are at risk for developing reactive
D. Disorganized attachment disorder if they:
A. Repeatedly change primary caregivers
144. A measurement technique in which a large number B. Experience social neglect or deprivation
of behaviors are recorded on cards and the observer C. Are reared in institutional settings
sorts the cards in a way that reflects the type of D. All of the above
behavior that occurs within the situation is called:
A. Factor analysis 152. Being able to overcome challenges and
B. Q-sort successfully adapt is called:
C. Analysis of covariation A. Hardiness
D. Multiple regression B. Grit
C. Resiliency
145. A(n) _________ attachment develops when there is D. Moxie
consistent contact from one or more caregivers who
meet the physical and emotional needs of the child in a 153. According to Erikson, if a caregiver is overly
responsive and appropriate manner. anxious about the toddler’s actions for fear that the
A. Secure child will get hurt or violate others’ expectations, the
B. Ambivalent toddler may fail to successfully achieve:
C. Avoidant A. Trust
D. Disorganized B. Autonomy
C. Industry
146. A(n) _________ attachment occurs when the D. Initiative
caregiver does not provide care and cannot be relied
upon for comfort. 154. According to Erikson, toddlers should be allowed to
A. Secure explore their environment as freely as safety allows.
B. Ambivalent A. True
C. Avoidant B. False
D. Disorganized
155. Which of the following is NOT one of the domains
147. A(n) ___________ attachment occurs when the measured by the Bayley Scales of Infant Development?
parent is insensitive and responds inconsistently to the A. Language
child’s needs. B. Adaptive behavior
A. Secure C. Mathematics
B. Ambivalent D. Motor
C. Avoidant
D. Disorganized

148. A(n) _________ attachment is often seen in children

who have been abused.
A. Secure
B. Ambivalent
C. Avoidant
D. Disorganized

149. The diagnosis for an infant who does not grow,

develop, or gain weight on schedule is:
A. Non-organic failure to thrive
B. Postpartum depression
C. Reactive attachment disorder
D. Disorganized attachment

150. Which of the following is associated with reactive

attachment disorder?

28
 Developmental Psychology

Chapter 04 ⏐ Early Childhood

9) The ______ hemisphere of the brain is heavily
involved in spatial tasks.
1) Children between the ages of two and six years tend
A. Left
to grow about _____ in height each year.
B. Right
A. 3 inches
B. 33 inches
10) The __________ is a dense band of fibers that
C. 6 inches
connects the two hemispheres of the brain.
D. 44 inches
A. Longitudinal fissure
B. Limbic system
2) Children between the ages of two and six years tend
C. Corpus callosum
to gain about ________in weight each year.
D. Reticular formation
A. 8 to 10 pounds
B. 3 to 5 pounds
11) The term __________ refers to the brain’s ability to
C. 23 to 28 pounds
change its structure and function in response to
D. 40 to 50 pounds
experience or damage.
A.Neuroplasticity
3) Growth during childhood occurs in spurts instead of a
B. Anisocoria
steady continual progression.
C. Red desaturation
A. True
D. Sectoranopia
B. False

12) Which of the following fine motor skills could be

4) Children between the ages of two and six years
seen in a 3-year-old, but not a 2-year-old?
sometimes show a decrease in appetite.
A. Can turn a doorknob
A.True
B. Can look through a book turning one page at a time
B.False
C. Drawing a person with 3 parts
D. Building a tower of 6-7 cubes
5) Greater development in the prefrontal cortex, the area
of the brain behind the forehead, helps us to:
13) Which of the following fine motor skills could be
A. Understand how to play games, especially ones that
seen in a 4-year-old, but not a 3-year-old?
involve strategy and planning
A. Can copy a circle
B. Control attention
B. Can cut out a picture using scissors
C. Inhibit emotional outbursts
C. Builds tower of 9 blocks
D. All of the above
D. Feeding self easily
6) The human brain reaches 95% of its adult weight by
14) Which of the following fine motor skills could be
the time a child is:
seen in a 5-year-old, but not a 4-year-old?
A.1 year old
A. Drawing a square
B. 3 years old
B. Managing a spoon and fork neatly while eating
C. 6 years old
C. Putting on clothes properly
D. 10 years old
D. Using a knife to spread soft foods
7) Changes in the human brain that occur between ages
15) Which of the following gross motor skills could be
three and six years include:
seen in a 3-year-old, but not a 2-year-old?
A. Development of dendrites
A. Can kick a ball without losing balance
B. Myelination
B. Can pick up objects while standing, without losing balance
C. Growth of the corpus callosum
C. Can pedal a tricycle
D. All of the above
D.Can run with some coordination
8) The _______ hemisphere of the brain is heavily
16) Which of the following gross motor skills could be
involved in language tasks.
seen in a 4-year-old, but not a 3-year-old?
A. Left
A. Can pedal a tricycle
B..Right
B. Throws a ball overhand with coordination
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 Developmental Psychology
C. Can briefly balance and hop on one foot
D. May walk up stairs with alternating feet (without holding 23) Aaron can stay balanced while standing on one foot
the rail) with eyes closed. Assuming that his motor skill
development is on track, this tells us that he must be at
17) Which of the following gross motor skills could be least ________ years old.
seen in a 5-year-old, but not a 4-year-old? A. 2
A. Stays balanced while standing on one foot with eyes B. 3
closed C. 4
B. Hops on 1 foot without losing balance D. 5
C. Throws a ball overhand with coordination
D. Using a knife to spread soft foods 24) Catori can kick a ball without losing balance.
Assuming that her motor skill development is on track,
18) Nyawira can build a block tower of more than 9 this tells us that she must be at least ________ years
cubes. Assuming that her motor skill development is on old.
track, this tells us that she must be at least ________ A. 2
years old. B. 3
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5
C. 4
D. 5 25) Peter can throw a ball overhand with coordination.
Assuming that his motor skill development is on track,
19) Bowie is able to put on simple clothes without help. this tells us that he must be at least ________ years old.
Assuming that his motor skill development is on track, A. 2
this tells us that he must be at least ________ years old. B. 3
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5
C. 4
D. 5 26) Children’s early drawings of people are described
using which term?
20) Josh can copy a triangle. Assuming that his motor A. Tadpoles
skill development is on track, this tells us that he must B. Chicks
be at least ________ years old. C. Embryos
A. 2 D. Efts
B. 3
C.4 27) A sign that a child is ready for toilet training is that
D.5 they:
A. Stay dry for periods of two hours or longer during the day
21) Jessica can cut out a picture using scissors. B. Can understand and follow basic directions
Assuming that her motor skill development is on track, C. Complains about wet or dirty diapers
this tells us that she must be at least ________ years D. All of the above
old.
A. 2 28) ____________ is the repeated voiding of urine into
B. 3 bed or clothes, whether deliberate or accidental.
C. 4 A. Encopresis
D. 5 B. Enuresis
D. Scotoma
22) Minah can pedal a tricycle. Assuming that her motor D. Coprolalia
skill development is on track, this tells us that she must
be at least ________ years old. 29) ____________ is the repeated passage of feces into
A. 2 inappropriate places, whether deliberate or accidental.
B. 3 A. Encopresis
C. 4 B. Enuresis
D. 5 C. Scotoma
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 Developmental Psychology
D. Coprolalia A. Animistic
B. Symbolic function
30) All children need the same amount of sleep each C. Egocentric
night, regardless of age. D. Intuitive thought
A. True
B. False 38) The _________ substage of the preoperational stage
is marked by greater dependence on intuitive thinking
31) The National Sleep Foundation recommends that rather than just perception.
toddlers get _________ of sleep per night. A. Animistic
A. 14-17 hours B. Symbolic function
B. 12-15 hours C. Egocentric
C. 11-14 D. Intuitive thought
D. 8-10
39) Piaget believed that children’s pretend play:
32) Sexual behavior such as masturbation is not A. Was pointless and a waste of time
unusual in young children. B. Helped children solidify new schemata they were
A. True developing
B. False C. Helped children learn
D.Both b) and c)
33) Young children who grow accustomed to high fat,
very sweet and salty flavors may have trouble eating 40) ______________ is the tendency of young children
foods that have subtler flavors such as fruits and not to be able to take the perspective of others, and
vegetables. instead the child thinks that everyone sees, thinks, and
A. True feels just as they do.
B. False A. Animism
B. Egocentrism
34) Which of the following is NOT recommended for C. Centration
encouraging the development of healthy eating habits in D. Conservation
children?
A. Try to keep a positive atmosphere at mealtime 41) ______________ is the behavior of attributing life-like
B. Limit choices qualities to objects.
C. Use dessert as a way to get children to eat healthy foods A. Animism
D. Prepare the same meal for everyone B. Egocentrism
C. Centration
35) In Piaget’s ___________ stage of development, D. Conservation
children use symbols to represent words, images, and
ideas. 42) ______________ is the tendency of young children to
A. Sensorimotor focus on only one characteristic of an object to the
B. Concrete operational exclusion of others.
C. Formal operational A. Animism
D. Preoperational B. Egocentrism
C. Centration
36) In Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, the term D. Conservation
“operational” refers to:
A. Understanding cause and effect 43) ______________ refers to the ability to recognize that
B. Being able to engage in deferred imitation moving or rearranging matter does not change the
C. Logical manipulation of information quantity.
D. Being able to use symbols to convey meaning A. Animism
B. Egocentrism
37) The _________ substage of the preoperational stage C. Centration
is characterized by the child being able to mentally D. Conservation
represent an object that is not present and a
dependence on perception in problem solving.
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 Developmental Psychology
44) When we refer to a child as egocentric, we mean that 50) Vygotsky believed that children’s cognitive skills
child has an excessively inflated sense of self-esteem improved as a result of:
and thinks they are superior to others. A. Social interactions with more learned peers
A. True B. Language, writings, and concepts arising from the culture
B. False C. Social interactions with adults
D. All of the above
45) Alex has a scoop of ice cream in a small bowl. Daniel
has the same amount of ice cream, but in a larger bowl, 51) A child is in the zone of proximal development when:
so the ice cream takes up less space in the bowl. Daniel A. They can perform a task independently
is upset because he thinks Alex has more ice cream. B. They are unable to perform a task
Daniel is having a problem with: C. They can almost perform a task, but not quite on their
A. Animism own without assistance
B. Egocentrism D. They are almost ready to start learning to perform a task
C. Scaffolding
D. Conservation 52) __________ is the temporary support that parents or
teachers give a child to do a task.
46) Alex has a scoop of ice cream in a small bowl. Daniel A. Scaffolding
has the same amount of ice cream, but in a larger bowl, B. Proximal development
so it takes up less space in the bowl. Daniel is upset C. Facilitated communication
because he thinks Alex has more ice cream, and he D. Centration
cannot understand that he needs to consider both the
size of the bowl and the amount of ice cream when 53) Piaget believed that children talked to themselves
figuring out who has more. The best term to describe because:
this is: A. They were learning to solve problems or clarify thoughts
A. Animism B. They were egocentric
B. Egocentrism C. They had insecure attachments
C. Centration D. They were resolving the crisis of Autonomy vs. Shame
D. Scaffolding and doubt

47) When Juan plays hide-and-seek, he “hides” by 54) Vygotsky believed that children talked to themselves
covering his eyes, because he believes that if he can’t because:
see someone else, they must not be able to see him A. They were learning to solve problems or clarify thoughts
either. The best term to describe this is: B. They were egocentric
A. Animism C. They had insecure attachments
B. Egocentrism D. They were resolving the crisis of Autonomy vs. Shame
C. Centration and doubt
D. Conservation
55) The ability to switch our focus between tasks or
48) Laylah doesn’t want hot chocolate put in her Doc external stimuli is called:
McStuffins cup because she’s worried the hot liquid will A. Sustained attention
burn Doc McStuffins. The best term to describe this is: B. Selective attention
A. Animism C. Divided attention
B. Egocentrism D. Prodromal attention
C. Scaffolding
D. Conservation 56) The ability to focus on a single task or stimulus
while ignoring distracting information is called:
49) __________ reasoning involves making faulty A. Sustained attention
inferences from one specific example to another. B. Selective attention
A. Inductive C. Divided attention
B. Deductive D. Prodromal attention
C. Transductive
D. Inconclusive

32
 Developmental Psychology
57) The ability to stay on task for long periods of time is 64) Rehearsing previous material while adding in
called: additional information is called:
A. Sustained attention A. Rote rehearsal
B. Selective attention B. Method of loci
C. Divided attention C. Clustering rehearsal
D. Prodromal attention D. Mental mapping

58) ___________ is the first stage of the memory system 65) The memory of older children is generally better than
and stores sensory input in its raw form for a very brief that of young children due to improvements in:
duration, just long enough for the brain to register and A. Attention
start processing the information. B. Executive functions
A. Sensory memory C. Brain maturation
B. Working memory D. All of the above
C. Long-term memory
D. Eidetic memory 66) Declarative memories are also called:
A. Implicit
59) ___________ is the component of memory in which B. Explicit
current conscious mental activity occurs. C. Working
A. Sensory memory D. Eidetic
B. Working memory
C. Long-term memory 67) Non-declarative memories are also called:
D. Eidetic memory A. Implicit
B. Explicit
60) According to your book, short-term memory is most C. Working
similar to: D. Eidetic
A. Sensory memory
B. Working memory 68) When we say that a memory is “declarative” or
C. Long-term memory “explicit”, we mean that:
D. Eidetic memory A. It is tied to a timeline
B. It is not tied to a timeline
61) ___________ is thought to be permanent. C. It is a memory for facts or events that we can consciously
A. Sensory memory recollect
B. Working memory D. It is highly automated and does not require conscious
C. Long-term memory recollection
D. Short-term memory
69) When we say that a memory is “non-declarative” or
62) Self-regulatory processes, such as the ability to “implicit”, we mean that:
inhibit a behavior or cognitive flexibility, that enable A. It is tied to a timeline
adaptive responses to new situations or to reach a B. It is not tied to a timeline
specific goal are called: C. It is a memory for facts or events that we can consciously
A. Executive function recollect
B. Inductive logic D. It is highly automated and does not require conscious
C. Deductive logic recollection
D. Mnemonic devices
70) The factor that distinguishes a semantic memory
63) Which part of the brain appears to be particularly from an episodic memory is that:
important for the development of executive function? A. It is tied to a timeline
A. Cerebellum B. It is not tied to a timeline
B. Hypothalamus C. It is a memory for facts or events that we can consciously
C. Thalamus recollect
D. Prefrontal cortex D. It is highly automated and does not require conscious
recollection

33
 Developmental Psychology
71) The factor that distinguishes an episodic memory 78) Learning new words by making connections
from a semantic memory is that: between new words and concepts already known is
A. It is tied to a timeline called:
B. It is not tied to a timeline A. Theory of mind
C. It is a memory for facts or events that we can consciously B. Theory-theory
recollect C. Fast mapping
D. It is highly automated and does not require conscious D. Scaffolding
recollection
79) In the false belief task, a child must think logically
72) Remembering the definition of “declarative memory” about a situation from the perspective of someone who
is an example of: knows something different than they do. In order to
A. Autobiographical memory reason correctly about this situation, the child must
B. Non-declarative memory have:
C. Episodic memory A. Theory of mind
D. Semantic memory B. Theory-theory
C. Fast mapping
73) Remembering the definition of “declarative memory” D. Scaffolding
is an example of:
A. Autobiographical memory 80) In order to correctly pass the false belief task, a child
B. Non-declarative memory must:
C. Episodic memory A. Distinguish between what they once thought was true and
D. Declarative memory what they now know to be true
B. Understand that what guides people’s actions and
74) Our “personal narrative” is our: responses are what they “believe” rather than what is reality
A. Autobiographical memory C. Separate what they “know” to be true from what someone
B. Non-declarative memory else might “think” is true
C. Episodic memory D. All of the above
D. Declarative memory
81) Children understand all of the different components
75) The primary way that Neo-Piagetian theories differ of theory of mind at the same age.
from Piaget’s original theories is that they: A. True
A. Assume cognitive development can be separated into B. False
different stages with qualitatively different characteristics
B. Advocate that children’s thinking becomes more complex 82) Understanding that two people may have different
in advanced stages desires regarding the same object is called:
C. Believe that aspects of information processing, not logic, A. Hidden emotion
change the complexity of each stage B. Knowledge access
D. Believe in constructivism C. Diverse-beliefs
D. Diverse-desires
76) The tendency of children to generate theories to
explain everything they encounter is called: 83) Children of all cultures understand all of the different
A.Theory of mind components of theory of mind at the same age.
B. Theory-theory A. True
C. Fast mapping B. False
D.Scaffolding
84) During the “vocabulary spurt”, children learn about
77) The ability to think about other people’s thoughts is __________ new words per week.
called: A. 1-2
A. Theory of mind B. 10-20
B. Theory-theory C. 50-100
C. Fast mapping D. 200-10,000
D. Scaffolding

34
 Developmental Psychology
85) Karen has learned that adding “-ed” to the end of C. Allow the child to try new things and explore their
verbs is the standard way to make them past tense, so expanding self-concept
she adds “-ed” to all verbs, producing words like D. Model initiative-taking behavior of their own
“swimmed” and “sleeped”. This process is called:
A. Overgeneralization 92) Our self-description according to various categories
B. Undergeneralization is called our:
C. Overregularization A. Self-esteem
D. Underregularization B. Categorical self
C. Self-concept
86) Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria for a D. All of the above, because these terms mean the same
high-quality preschool as described in your textbook? thing
A. Establishes and maintains collaborative relationships with
families 93) Our evaluative judgment about who we are is called
B.Uses teaching approaches that are developmentally, our:
culturally and linguistically appropriate A. Self-esteem
C. Promotes children’s health and nutrition B. Categorical self
D. The majority of children who go there come from a high C. Self-concept
socioeconomic status D. All of the above, because these terms mean the same
thing
87) Why has it been difficult to evaluate the
effectiveness of the Head Start program? 94) Our focus on external qualities when describing
A. Head Start programs vary in several ways (such as ourselves is called our:
teacher qualifications) depending on the location A. Self-esteem
B. Testing young children is difficult B. Categorical self
C. Ethical concerns make it difficult to use an experimental C. Self-concept
design to measure cause and effect D. All of the above, because these terms mean the same
D. All of the above thing

88) Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria for 95) Why do young children tend to have a positive
being diagnosed with Autism Spectrum Disorder? self-image?
A. Below-average scores on IQ tests A. Because their parents praise them for everything
B. Deficits in communication B. Because they are genuinely good at everything
C. Deficits in social interaction C. Because they lack a basis for comparison
D. Repetitive patterns of behavior or interests D. All of the above

89) There is a lot of variation in the range and severity of 96) Response initiation involves:
Autism Spectrum Disorder symptoms. A. The ability to stop a behavior that has already begun
A. True B. The ability to hold out for a larger reward by forgoing a
B. False smaller immediate reward
C. The ability to not initiate a behavior before you have
90) According to your book, __________ have been evaluated all of the information
found to cause autism. D. The ability to take action to solve problems
A. Cold, unaffectionate parenting
B. Vaccines 97) Response inhibition involves:
C. Nutritional deficiencies A. The ability to stop a behavior that has already begun
D. Trick question! According to your book, none of these B. The ability to hold out for a larger reward by forgoing a
things have been found to cause autism smaller immediate reward
C. The ability to not initiate a behavior before you have
91) To produce a healthy resolution of the Initiative vs. evaluated all of the information
Guilt crisis, caregivers should: D. The ability to take action to solve problems
A. Provide consistent, affectionate care
B. Offer praise for the child’s efforts and avoid being critical 98) Delayed gratification involves:
of messes or mistakes A. The ability to stop a behavior that has already begun
35
 Developmental Psychology
B. The ability to hold out for a larger reward by forgoing a B. Authoritative
smaller immediate reward C. Permissive
C. The ability to not initiate a behavior before you have D. Uninvolved
evaluated all of the information
D. The ability to take action to solve problems 106) ___________ parenting is the traditional model of
parenting in which parents make the rules and children
99) Self-identification based on a continuum from male are expected to be obedient.
to female is known as: A. Authoritarian
A. Gender schema B. Authoritative
B. Gender role C. Permissive
C. Gender dysphoria D. Uninvolved
D. Gender identity
107) ___________ parenting involves holding
100) The expectations associated with being male or expectations of children that are below what could be
female are known as: reasonably expected from them.
A. Gender schemas A. Authoritarian
B. Gender roles B. Authoritative
C. Gender dysphoria C. Permissive
D. Gender identity D. Uninvolved

101) The distress accompanying a mismatch between 108) Children of ___________ parents tend to have
one’s gender identity and biological sex is known as: greater self-confidence and competence as a result of
A. Gender schema their parents’ high but reasonable expectations.
B. Gender roles A. Authoritarian
C. Gender dysphoria B. Authoritative
D. Gender identity C. Permissive
D. Uninvolved
102) Children develop their own conceptions of the
attributes associated with maleness or femaleness. 109) Children of ___________ parents are likely to do
These conceptions are known as: poorly in school and have poor relationships with peers.
A. Gender schemas A. Authoritarian
B. Gender roles B. Authoritative
C. Gender dysphoria C. Permissive
D. Gender identity D. Uninvolved

103) Gender role expectations appear to develop largely 110) Children of ___________ parents may fear rather
as a result of the expectations and experiences parents than respect their parents and may become aggressive
and cultures place on children. toward peers.
A.True A. Authoritarian
B. False B. Authoritative
C. Permissive
104) ___________ parents are supportive and show D. Uninvolved
interest in their kids’ activities, but are not overbearing
and allow them to make constructive mistakes. 111) Children of ___________ parents often fail to learn
A. Authoritarian self-discipline and may feel somewhat insecure because
B. Authoritative they do not know the limits.
C. Permissive A. Authoritarian
D. Uninvolved B. Authoritative
C. Permissive
105) ___________ parents are disengaged from their D. Uninvolved
children. They do not make demands on their children
and are non-responsive.
A. Authoritarian
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 Developmental Psychology
112) Baumrind’s parenting styles vary on the B. Is linked to attention problems
dimensions of: C. May negatively affect cognitive and language
A. Expectations and warmth development
B. Control and responsiveness D. All of the above
C. Both a) and b)
121) In general, children cared for by their mothers do
113) The specific parenting styles and child behaviors not develop differently than those who were cared for by
that are viewed as ideal vary across cultures. others, such as day care workers.
A. True A. True
B. False B. False

114) Socioeconomic status may influence parenting 122) Parents and family characteristics, such as income
style by affecting the qualities that parents emphasize and the amount of cognitive enrichment in the home, are
as being most important for success and survival. stronger predictors of child development than whether
A. True or not a child goes to day care.
B. False A. True
B. False
115) Spanking children appears to be associated with:
A. Lower vocabulary scores 123) Which of the following is NOT one of the four main
B. More aggressive behavior in children types of child maltreatment?
C. Higher scores on a measure of rule-breaking A. Psychological maltreatment
D. All of the above B. Financial exploitation
C. Neglect
116) The quality of sibling interactions is often difficult D. Physical abuse
to tease out from the effect of the parent-child
relationship. 124) How does stress negatively affect the developing
A. True child?
B. False A.Stress hormones can also reduce immunity to disease
B. Exposure to long periods of severe stress can make the
117) Sibling interactions can help the development of: child hypersensitive to stress in the future
A. Empathy C. Stress hormones can reduce the size of the hippocampus
B. Sharing and affect the child's memory abilities
C. Social skills D. All of the above
D. All of the above

118) In Parten’s play classification system, __________

refers to random behavior without a specific goal.
A. Parallel play
B. Solitary play
C. Unoccupied play
D. Associative play

119) In Parten’s play classification system, __________

occurs when children interact with each other and share
toys, but are not working toward a common goal.
A. Parallel play
B. Cooperative play
C. Unoccupied play
D. Associative play

120) Too much television is thought to negatively affect

child development because it:
A. Reduces focus on active, hands-on play
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 Developmental Psychology

Chapter 05 ⏐ Middle and Late Childhood

10. According to the Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention (CDC), children whose BMI is at or above the
1. Rates of growth generally slow down between early 85th percentile for their age are considered:
childhood and adolescence. A. Overweight
A. True B. Obese
B. False C. Both A and B, because these terms mean the same thing

2. The beginning of the growth spurt, which occurs prior 11. According to the Centers for Disease Control and
to puberty, begins two years earlier for girls than boys. Prevention (CDC), children whose BMI is at or above the
A. True 95th percentile for their age are considered:
B. False A Overweight
B. Obese
3. Brain development that occurs in middle and late C. Both A and B, because these terms mean the same thing
child involves:
A. Myelination in the areas of the brain where sensory, 12. In children, excess weight is associated with:
motor, and intellectual functioning connect A. High blood pressure
B. Myelination of the hippocampus B. Deficits in executive functioning
C. Development of the frontal lobes C. Poor decision making
D. All of the above D. All of the above

4. A heavy emphasis on competition and athletic skill in 13. In children, excess weight is associated with:
children’s sports tends to increase children’s desire to A. Insulin resistance
continue playing those sports. B. Deficits in working memory
A. True C. Depression
B. False D. All of the above

5. Children’s participation in sports has been linked to: 14. Risks of being overweight as a child include:
A.Better academic performance A. Being teased, bullied, or rejected by peers
B. Higher levels of satisfaction with family and overall quality B. Increased incidence of heart attack or stroke in adulthood
of life in children C. Orthopedic problems like knee injuries
C. Improved physical and emotional development D. All of the above
D. All of the above
15. In Piaget’s concrete operational stage, the word
6. __________ involves watching other play video “concrete” refers to things that:
games. A. Can be touched, seen, or experienced directly
A. Naturalistic observation B. Have organic compounds
B. Bystander effect C. Have only one possible solution
C. E-sports D. Have been taught to us by more experienced learners
D. Redshirting
16. __________ is a logical process in which multiple
7. According to your textbook, what is the most common premises believed to be true are combined to obtain a
reason why children drop out of sports? specific conclusion.
A. Injuries or health problems A. Inductive reasoning
B. Wanting to focus more on school or other activities B. Deductive reasoning
C. It was no longer fun C. Transdeductive reasoning
D. Conflicts with coaches or team members D. Conductive reasoning

8. _________ may limit children’s ability to participate in 17. A child in the concrete operational stage will best be
sports. able to solve problems that are:
A. Gender A. Abstract
B. Poverty B. Tied to their own experience
C. Location C. Hypothetical
D. All of the above D. All of the above

9. The relationship of height to weight is expressed in a 18. During the concrete operational stage, children
measure called the: develop the ability to build schemata and organize
A. Set point objects in many different ways. This is called:
B. Body mass index A. Identity
C. Homeostatic equilibrium B. Classification
D. Golden ratio
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 Developmental Psychology
C. Seriation C. Generalization
D. Decentration D. Utilization

19. During the concrete operational stage, children 26. Children may not always benefit from memory
develop the ability to arrange items along a quantitative strategies. A ________ deficiency occurs when the child
dimension, such as length or weight, in a methodical uses an appropriate strategy, but it fails to aid their
way. This is called: performance.
A. Identity A. Mediation
B. Classification B. Production
C. Seriation C. Generalization
D. Decentration D. Utilization

20. During the concrete operational stage, children 27. Children may not always benefit from memory
develop the understanding that objects have qualities strategies. A ________ deficiency occurs when the child
that do not change even if the object is altered in some does not understand the strategy being taught, and
way. This is called: thus, does not benefit from its use.
A. Identity A. Mediation
B. Classification B. Production
C. Seriation C. Generalization
D. Decentration D. Utilization

21. During the concrete operational stage, children no 28. The knowledge we have about our own thinking and
longer focus on only one dimension of any object and our ability to use this awareness to regulate our own
instead consider the changes in other dimensions too. cognitive processes is called:
This is called: A. Introspection
A. Identity B. Critical thinking
B. Classification C. Metacognition
C.Seriation D. Growth mindset
D. Decentration
29. The detailed examination of beliefs, courses of
22. Which of the following skills is NOT required for action, and evidence is called:
solving conservation tasks? A. Introspection
A. Decentration B. Critical thinking
B. Seriation C. Metacognition
C. Reversibility D. Growth mindset
D. Identity
30. According to your book, the majority of children
23. Changing one quality (such as the height of water in around the world are bilingual.
a container) can be compensated for by changes in A. True
another quality (such as the width of the container). The B. False
ability to understand this is called:
A. Seriation 31. __________ disorders affect the rate of speech.
B. Decentration A. Articulation
C. Conservation B. Voice
D. Reversibility C. Fluency
D. Lexemic
24. The capacity of working memory increases in
childhood due to: 32. __________ disorders affect the ability to correctly
A. Changes in myelination and synaptic pruning in the cortex produce speech sounds.
B. The ability to inhibit irrelevant information from entering A. Articulation
memory B. Voice
C. Increased processing speed C. Fluency
D. All of the above D. Lexemic

25. Children may not always benefit from memory 33. __________ disorders affect the ability to produce
strategies. A ________ deficiency occurs when the child speech sounds with appropriate pitch and loudness.
does not spontaneously use a memory strategy, and has A. Articulation
to be prompted to do so. B. Voice
A. Mediation C. Fluency
B. Production D. Lexemic

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 Developmental Psychology
A. Practical intelligence
34. The most common fluency disorder is: B. Creative intelligence
A. Central auditory processing disorder C. Structural intelligence
B. Cluttering D. Analytical intelligence
C. Stuttering
D. Substitution 43. Sternberg believes that traditional intelligence
overemphasize the measurement of:
35. The first intelligence test was developed in: A. Practical intelligence
A. Germany B. Creative intelligence
B. The United States C. Structural intelligence
C. Mexico D. Analytical intelligence
D. France
44. Thinking that is directed toward finding the correct
36. The goal of the first intelligence test was to: answer to a given problem is called:
A. Identify children who were classified as gifted A. Subvergent
B. Identify children who would not be successful with the B. Divergent
regular school curriculum C. Convergent
C. Produce data for writing individualized education D. Transvergent
programs for children
D. Separate children with low IQ scores from children with 45. Thinking that involves the ability to generate many
learning disabilities different ideas or solutions to a single problem is called:
A. Subvergent
37. ________ was the first to propose that intelligence B. Divergent
was a single construct that underlies all cognitive C. Convergent
abilities and skills. D. Transvergent
A. Sternberg
B. Gardner 46. Creativity is more strongly associated with ________
C. Spearman thinking.
D. Thurstone A. Subvergent
B. Divergent
38. The general intelligence factor involves the ability to: C. Convergent
A. Benefit from instruction and experience D. Transvergent
B. Adapt to novel situations
C. Reason abstractly 47. Taking on projects for interest instead of money is
D. All of the above called
A. Expertise
39. There is evidence for both a general intelligence B. Risk taking
factor and specific intelligence in certain domains. C. Intrinsic interest
A. True D. Imaginative thinking
B. False
48. Viewing problems in new and different ways is
40. In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence, the called:
ability to adapt to new situations and create new ideas is A. Expertise
called: B. Risk taking
A. Practical intelligence C. Intrinsic interest
B. Creative intelligence D. Imaginative thinking
C. Structural intelligence
D. Analytical intelligence 49. According to your textbook, __________ are people
who score low on intelligence tests overall but who
41. In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence, the nevertheless may have exceptional skills in a given
ability to demonstrate common sense and “street domain.
smarts” is called: A. Autistic savants
A. Practical intelligence B. Experts
B. Creative intelligence C. Convergent thinkers
C. Structural intelligence D. Divergent thinkers
D. Analytical intelligence
50. Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences is based
42. In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence, the on:
ability to solve academic problems and perform A. Research involving people who had strokes that
calculations is called: compromised some capacities, but not others

40
 Developmental Psychology
B. The idea that it would be evolutionarily functional for C. Mental
different people to have different talents and skills D. Socioemotional
C. The existence of eight (or possibly nine) intelligences that
can be differentiated from each other 58. The formula of “mental age ÷ chronological age ×
D. All of the above 100” is one way to calculate someone’s:
A. IQ score
51. In Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences, B. Zone of proximal development
______________ intelligence is described as the ability C. Reaction range
to move the body in sports, dance, or other physical D. Action potential
activities.
A. Interpersonal 59. Your textbook defines “intelligence quotient” (IQ) as:
B. Intrapersonal A. A person’s mental age
C. Kinesthetic B. A measure of intelligence that is adjusted for age
D. Existential C. The discrepancy between a person’s ability and their
actual performance
52. A test that is ___________ provides consistent D. The highest level of intellectual performance a person can
results over time. achieve
A. Valid
B. Reliable 60. What is considered “smart” may vary according to
C. Standardized culture.
D. Both A and B, because they mean the same thing A. True
B. False
53. A test that is ___________ actually measures what it
is supposed to measure (for example, a test designed to 61. Intelligence tests and definitions of intelligence have
measure intelligence actually measures intelligence and been criticized for:
not socioeconomic status). A. Failing to account for changes caused by experience
A. Valid B. Inadequately measuring non-academic types of
B. Reliable intelligence or talent
C. Standardized C. Being biased in favor of Anglo-American, middle-class
D. Both A and B, because they mean the same thing respondents
D. All of the above
54. An intelligence test that is ___________ has been
given to a large number of people at different ages and 62. In statistics, the pattern of scores usually observed
each age level’s average score on the test has been in a variable that clusters around its average is called a:
computed to see how these people typically perform. A. Positively skewed distribution
A. Valid B. Negatively skewed distribution
B. Reliable C. Normal distribution
C. Standardized D. Bimodal distribution
D. Both A and B, because they mean the same thing
63. Compared to girls, boys are more likely to fall in the
55. Scores on intelligence tests worldwide have extreme ends of the distribution of IQ scores.
increased substantially over the past decades. This is A. True
known as the: B. False
A. Yerkes-Dotson law
B. Flynn effect 64. __________ is a chromosomal disorder caused by
C. Young-Helmholtz theory the presence of all or part of an extra 21st chromosome.
D. Dunning-Kruger effect A. Turner syndrome
B. Williams syndrome
56. In addition to the possibility that each generation of C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
people is actually smarter than the one before it, the D. Down syndrome
Flynn effect is potentially explained by:
a) More familiarity with multiple-choice tests 65. The severity of intellectual disability is determined
b) Better nutrition by:
c) Increased access to information A. A person’s IQ score
*d) All of the above B. The age at which the intellectual disability is diagnosed
C. How well the person handles everyday life tasks
57. The age at which a person is performing D. The cause of the intellectual disability
intellectually is called that person’s ________ age.
A. Cognitive 66. Someone with an IQ score below 70 is likely to be
B. Psychological diagnosed with:

41
 Developmental Psychology
A. Down syndrome 74. __________ is a specific impairment of academic
B. Intellectual disability learning that interferes with a specific aspect of
C. Autism spectrum disorder schoolwork and reduces a student's academic
D. A learning disability performance significantly.
A. Down syndrome
67. People with an IQ of 130 or higher are classified as: B. Intellectual disability
A. Average C. Autism spectrum disorder
B. Super genius D. A learning disability
C. Intellectually disabled
D. Gifted 75. A student cannot be diagnosed as having a learning
disability if their academic difficulties are caused by:
68. Parents who have higher levels of income, A. The challenges of learning English as a second language
occupational status, and other qualities favored in B. Physical, sensory, or motor handicaps
society have __________, which is a form of power that C. Generalized intellectual impairment
can be used to improve a child's education. D. All of the above
A. Family capital
B. Problem-focused coping 76. __________, a type of learning disability, involves
C. Resilience having difficulty in the area of reading.
D. Intersectionality A. Dyslexia
B. Dyspraxia
69. Lewis Terman’s longitudinal study of gifted children C. Dyscalculia
revealed that they had significant mental health D. Dysgraphia
problems compared to children who were not gifted.
A. True 77. __________, a type of learning disability, involves
B. False having difficulty in the area of mathematics.
A. Dyslexia
70. Teachers tend to be most receptive to support, B. Dyspraxia
praise and agreement coming from parents who are C. Dyscalculia
most similar to them in race and social class. D. Dysgraphia
A. True
B. False 78. __________, a type of learning disability, involves
having difficulty with writing.
71. Cultural differences in __________ can affect how A. Dyslexia
children are perceived by their teachers and peers, and B. Dyspraxia
ultimately how successful they are in school. C. Dyscalculia
A. Preference for activities that are cooperative rather than D. Dysgraphia
competitive
B. Social distance 79. Children with ADHD may show behavior that is:
C. Eye contact A. Inattentive
D. All of the above B. Hyperactive
C. Impulsive
72. Cultural differences in __________ can affect how D. All of the above
children are perceived by their teachers and peers, and
ultimately how successful they are in school. 80. ADHD only affects people during childhood, not as
A. Whether or not it’s okay to speak without first being adults.
spoken to A. True
B. Instructional methods such as teachers asking the B. False
students questions the teacher already knows the answer to
C. Wait time following questions 81. Sugar has been conclusively found to cause ADHD.
D. All of the above A. True
B. False
73. ____________ are used to measure what a child has
already learned and are often the basis for measuring 82. Children with ADHD may have a genetic aberration
school quality for initiatives like the No Child Left that affects their brain’s use of:
Behind Act. A. Serotonin
A. Aptitude tests B. Norepinephrine
B. Achievement tests C. Dopamine
C. Diagnostic tests D. Acetylcholine
D. Intelligence tests

42
 Developmental Psychology
83. This law required that individuals with disabilities be 91. ______ is the belief that you are capable of carrying
accommodated in any program or activity that receives out a specific task or of reaching a specific goal.
federal funding. A. Self-esteem
A. Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Section 504 B. Self-concept
B. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 C. Self-efficacy
C. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 1975 D. Self-fulfilling prophecy
D. Every Student Succeeds Act of 2015
92. Our beliefs about self-efficacy can create a
84. This law prohibited discrimination on the basis of self-fulfilling prophecy in that children who believe they
disability and applied to all employment and public can achieve something are likely to attempt it, and
places, not just ones that received federal funding. children who believe they will be unsuccessful are
A. Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Section 504 unlikely to attempt it.
B. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 A. True
C. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 1975 B. False
D. Every Student Succeeds Act of 2015
93. In Kohlberg’s theory of morality, a person who
85. This law requires public schools to provide a free reasons about right and wrong based on self-interest
and appropriate education for anyone with a disability (such as getting rewards and avoiding punishment) is
from birth to age 21. using __________ morality.
A. Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Section 504 A. Preconventional
B. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 B. Conventional
C. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 1975 C. Postconventional
D. Every Student Succeeds Act of 2015 D. Unconventional

86. Which of the following is part of the Individuals with 94. In Kohlberg’s theory of morality, a person whose
Disabilities Education Act? moral reasoning is based on care for others and being a
A. Due process for resolving disputes good member of society is using __________ morality.
B. Education in the “least restrictive environment” A. Preconventional
C. Fair evaluation of performance in spite of disability B. Conventional
D. All of the above C. Postconventional
D. Unconventional
87. A _____________ is a tendency to act in such a way
as to make what you predict will happen actually come 95. In Kohlberg’s theory of morality, a person who
true. reasons about right and wrong based on higher,
A. Self-fulfilling prophecy universal ethical principles of conduct that may or may
B. Self-serving bias not be reflected in the law is using __________ morality.
C. Confirmation bias A. Preconventional
D. Problem-focused coping strategy B. Conventional
C. Postconventional
88. Our beliefs about our general personal identity are D. Unconventional
our:
A. Self-esteem 96. Simon obeys his parents’ rules because he is afraid
B. Self-concept he will be punished if he doesn’t. He is using
C. Self-efficacy __________ morality.
D. Self-fulfilling prophecy A. Preconventional
B. Conventional
89. Compared to young children, children in middle and C. Postconventional
late childhood differ in their self-concept in that they: D. Unconventional
A. Are able to include other peoples’ appraisals of them into
their self-concept 97. Nina finds someone’s wallet and returns it because
B. Have a more realistic sense of self she knows the person who lost it will want it back, and
C. Better understand their strengths and weaknesses she doesn’t want them to be inconvenienced. She is
D. All of the above using __________ morality.
A. Preconventional
90. Our evaluation of our own identity is our: B. Conventional
A. Self-esteem C. Postconventional
B. Self-concept D. Unconventional
C. Self-efficacy
D. Self-fulfilling prophecy 98. Charles feels that it’s unfair that women get paid less
than men do, so he participates in a protest march to try

43
 Developmental Psychology
to encourage lawmakers to pass equal pay standards. A. Reward-cost
He is using _________ morality. B. Normative expectation
A. Preconventional C. Empathy and understanding
B. Conventional D. Expansion
C. Postconventional
D. Unconventional 106. Bigelow and La Gaipa described three stages in
children’s friendships. In the _________ stage, children
99. Kohlberg’s theory of morality has been criticized on describe friends as people who are loyal, committed to
the grounds that it: the relationship, and share intimate information.
A. May not adequately account for gender differences in A. Reward-cost
moral reasoning B. Normative expectation
B. May not adequately account for cultural differences in C. Empathy and understanding
moral reasoning D. Expansion
C. Does not always show a connection between reasoning
and behavior 107. Selman outlines five stages of friendship from early
D. All of the above childhood through to adulthood. In stage 0, called
“momentary physical interaction”, a friend is:
100. During middle and late childhood, peers play an A. Someone who you are playing with at this point in time
increasingly important role in children’s lives. B. Someone who returns a favor
A. True C. Someone who accepts you and that you accept as they
B. False are
D. Someone who does nice things for you
101. Bigelow and La Gaipa described three stages in
children’s friendships. In the _________ stage, 108. Selman outlines five stages of friendship from early
friendship focuses on mutual activities. childhood through to adulthood. In stage 1, called
A. Reward-cost “one-way assistance”, a friend is:
B. Normative expectation A. Someone who you are playing with at this point in time
C. Empathy and understanding B. Someone who you can tell things you would tell no one
D. Expansion else
C. Someone who accepts you and that you accept as they
102. Bigelow and La Gaipa described three stages in are
children’s friendships. In the _________ stage, children D. Someone who does nice things for you
emphasize similar interests as the main characteristics
of a good friend. 109. Selman outlines five stages of friendship from early
A. Reward-cost childhood through to adulthood. In stage 2, called
B. Normative expectation “fair-weather cooperation”, a friend is:
C. Empathy and understanding A. Someone who you are playing with at this point in time
D. Expansion B. Someone who returns a favor
C. Someone who accepts you and that you accept as they
103. Bigelow and La Gaipa described three stages in are
children’s friendships. In the _________ stage, D. Someone who does nice things for you
friendship focuses on conventional morality.
A. Reward-cost 110. Selman outlines five stages of friendship from early
B. Normative expectation childhood through to adulthood. In stage 3, called
C. Empathy and understanding “intimate and mutual sharing”, a friend is:
D. Expansion A. Someone who you can tell things you would tell no one
else
104. Bigelow and La Gaipa described three stages in B. Someone who returns a favor
children’s friendships. In the _________ stage, children C. Someone who accepts you and that you accept as they
describe a friend as someone who is kind and shares are
with you. D. Someone who does nice things for you
A. Reward-cost
B. Normative expectation 111. Selman outlines five stages of friendship from early
C. Empathy and understanding childhood through to adulthood. In stage 4, called
D. Expansion “autonomous interdependence”, a friend is:
A. Someone who you are playing with at this point in time
105. Bigelow and La Gaipa described three stages in B. Someone who you can tell things you would tell no one
children’s friendships. In the _________ stage, else
friendship focuses on commitment and sharing intimate C. Someone who accepts you and that you accept as they
information. are

44
 Developmental Psychology
D. Someone who does nice things for you good social skills, and they are generally cooperative
and do well in school.
112. Popularity, or attraction between members of a A. Antisocial
group, is often measured using a technique called: B. Prosocial
A. Naturalistic observation C. Withdrawn
B. Time sampling D. Aggressive
C. Sociometric assessment
D. Longitudinal design 119. Popular children can be subcategorized into two
types. Popular-_________ children may gain popularity
113. Sociometric assessment techniques for measuring by acting tough or spreading rumors about others.
popularity ask children to name peers they like and A. Antisocial
peers they don’t like. Children who receive many votes B. Prosocial
in the “like” category, and very few in the “do not like” C. Withdrawn
category would be classified as: D. Aggressive
A. Average
B. Popular 120. Rejected children can be subcategorized into two
C. Controversial types. Rejected-_________ children are ostracized
D. Neglected because they are antagonistic, loud, and
confrontational, possibly as a way of acting out
114. Sociometric assessment techniques for measuring insecurities.
popularity ask children to name peers they like and A. Antisocial
peers they don’t like. Children who are mentioned B. Prosocial
frequently in each category would be classified as: C. Withdrawn
A. Rejected D. Aggressive
B. Average
C. Controversial 121. Rejected children can be subcategorized into two
D. Neglected types. Rejected-_________ children are shy and
withdrawn and are easy targets for bullies because they
115. Sociometric assessment techniques for measuring are unlikely to retaliate.
popularity ask children to name peers they like and A. Antisocial
peers they don’t like. Children who receive more B. Prosocial
unfavorable votes and few favorable ones would be C. Withdrawn
classified as: D. Aggressive
A. Rejected
B. Neglected 122. Unwanted, aggressive behavior that involves a real
C. Popular or perceived power imbalance is called:
D. Average A. Bullying
B. Power assertion
116. Sociometric assessment techniques for measuring C. Induction
popularity ask children to name peers they like and D. Hazing
peers they don’t like. Children who receive a few
positive votes with very few negative ones would be 123) Cyberbullying is particularly difficult to address
classified as: because it:
A. Controversial A. May be difficult to trace or delete
B. Average B. Can occur any time of day and without being in the
C. Neglected presence of others
D. Popular C. Can be posted anonymously and distributed quickly
D. All of the above
117. Sociometric assessment techniques for measuring
popularity ask children to name peers they like and 124. ____________ are at particular risk for being
peers they don’t like. Children who receive very few bullied.
votes in either category would be classified as: A. Lesbian, gay, bisexual, or transgendered (LGBT) youth
A. Average B. Children who are overweight
B. Controversial C. Children with disabilities
C. Popular D. All of the above
D. Neglected
125. Although bullies are commonly portrayed as having
118. Popular children can be subcategorized into two low self-esteem, many bullies actually have high
types. Popular-_________ children are nice and have self-esteem, and bully because they lack empathy and
like to dominate others.

45
 Developmental Psychology
A. True
Chapter 06 ⏐ Adolescence
B. False
1. During adolescence, growth proceeds from the
126. A good home environment is one in which: extremities toward the torso. This is referred to as:
A. The family enjoys a high socioeconomic status A. Distalproximal development
B. The parents are happily married B. Mass-to-specific development
C. The child's physical, cognitive, emotional, and social C. Rostral-causal development
needs are adequately met D. Pubertial-sequential development
D. There are many extended family members close by
2. Your textbook defines puberty as:
127. Children of lesbian and gay couples appear to be A. The time in life when our physical abilities peak
nearly identical to children of heterosexual couples on B. A period of rapid growth and sexual maturation
measures of sexual orientation, gender identity, C. The brain’s process of removing unnecessary synapses
appropriate behavior, and emotional adjustment. D. The myelination of the axons in our frontal lobes
A. True
B. False 3. Puberty begins about two years earlier in girls than in
boys.
128. Which of the following situations might a child A. True
experience following their parents’ divorce? B. False
A. Reduced financial resources
B. Changing school or residence 4. __________ sexual characteristics are changes in the
C. Parental unavailability due to work or stress reproductive organs.
D. All of the above A. Auxiliary
B. Tertiary
129. Although they may experience more problems than C. Primary
children from non-divorced families, most children of D. Secondary
divorce lead happy, well-adjusted lives.
A. True 5. __________ sexual characteristics are visible physical
B. False changes not directly linked to reproduction, but signal
sexual maturity.
130. Children whose parents get divorced are A. Auxiliary
themselves more likely to divorce as adults. B. Tertiary
A. True C. Primary
B. False D. Secondary

131. A primary factor influencing the way that children 6. The term “menarche” refers to:
adjust to divorce appears to be the way the custodial A. The age gap between when girls and boys experience
parent adjusts to the divorce. puberty
A. True B. The height/weight growth patterns in puberty
B. False C. The first menstrual period
D. Racial and ethnic differences in average height and
weight

7. The term “spermarche” refers to:

A. The age gap between when girls and boys experience
puberty
B. The increased muscle mass typically experienced by boys
during puberty
C. The first ejaculation of semen
D. The tendency for boys to be taller and heavier than girls

8. Women are born with all of their eggs already

produced, although not all of them will mature.
A. True
B. False

9. Males produce their sperm on a cycle.

A. True
B. False

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 Developmental Psychology
10. The skin condition caused by overactive sebaceous 19. The ___________ is involved in the control of
glands is: impulses, organization, planning, and making good
A. Eczema decisions.
B. Psoriasis A. Hippocampus
C. Keratosis pilaris B. Corpus callosum
D. Acne C. Limbic system
D. Thalamus
11. According to your book, boys are more likely than
girls to develop acne because of: 20. The prefrontal cortex does not fully develop until our
A Poorer hygiene mid-20s.
B. Poorer eating habits A. True
C. Higher levels of testosterone B. False
D. All of the above
21. The mismatch between the development of the
12. In general, girls today are experiencing puberty at _____________ can result in risky behavior, poor
younger ages than in previous generations. decision making, and weak emotional control for the
A. True adolescent.
B. False A. Thalamus and hypothalamus
B. Reticular formation and suprachiasmatic nucleus
13. The age at which girls experience puberty is the C. Limbic system and prefrontal cortex
same across racial, ethnic, and cultural groups. D. Occipital lobe and cerebellum
A. True
B. False 22. In decision-making, adolescents tend to focus more
on rewards than on risks.
14. For girls, early puberty is associated with: A. True
A. Mental health issues such as depression, substance use, B. False
and eating disorders
B. Early sexual behavior 23. _____________ is a naturally occurring chemical
C. More anxiety and less confidence in their relationships involved in reward circuits.
with family and friends A. Ghrelin
D. All of the above B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
15. Boys who mature early are likely to experience D. Oxytocin
difficulty in peer relationships, but this is not the case
for boys who mature late. 24. _____________ is a naturally occurring chemical
A. True which facilitates bonding and makes social connections
B. False more rewarding.
A. Ghrelin
16. Brain maturation during adolescence involves: B. Serotonin
A. Synaptic pruning in the gray matter of the brain C. Dopamine
B. Increased myelination D. Oxytocin
C. Increased connectivity of neurons
D. All of the above 25. In general, it appears that most adolescents do not
get enough sleep.
17. The changes that occur in adolescents’ brains allow A. True
the brain to: B. False
A. Work more efficiently
B. Better integrate memory and experiences into 26. To support adolescents’ later sleeping schedule, the
decision-making Centers for Disease Control and Prevention released
C. Consolidate skills already learned, like language recommendations that school not begin any earlier than:
D. All of the above A. 7:30 a.m.
B. 8:30 a.m.
18. The limbic system: C. 8:00 a.m.
A. Regulates emotion and reward D. 9:00 a.m.
B. Assists with planning and decision making
C. Transfers information from short-term to long-term 27. As adolescents go through puberty, their circadian
memory rhythms change. The effect of this change is that:
D. Coordinates sensory information from all different parts of A. Adolescents stay awake later
the body B. Adolescents have more difficulty getting up in the morning
C. Both A and B

47
 Developmental Psychology
D. Baddeley
28. Teenage birth rates in the United States are higher
than most developed countries. 37. When we use the word “abstract” to refer to
A. True principles such as freedom and morality, we mean that:
B. False A. They can only be understood by adults
B. They can be tested experimentally
29. Parental involvement and guidance appears to be a C. They have no physical reference
key factor in preventing teen pregnancy. D. They are composed of several other principles
A. True
B. False 38. Developing hypotheses based on what might
logically occur is called:
30. Adolescent mothers are: A. Seriation
A. More likely to live in poverty B. Hypothetical-deductive reasoning
B. Less likely to finish high school C. Inductive reasoning
C. More likely to have children who don’t complete high D. Post hoc, ergo propter hoc reasoning
school
D. All of the above 39. Adolescents demonstrate hypothetical-deductive
reasoning instead of solving problems through
31. Eating disorders do not appear to have a biological ___________, which younger children tend to do.
or genetic component. A. Trial and error
A. True B. Heuristics
B. False C. Algorithms
D. Transitivity
32. Aaliyah has recurrent episodes of binge eating
followed by a “purge” using laxatives. Based on this 40. If A > B and B > C, then A > C. This relationship is
description, she most likely has: called:
A. Anorexia nervosa A. Seriation
B. Binge eating disorder B. Heuristic
C. Bulimia nervosa C. Algorithm
D. Orthorexia D. Transitivity

33. Thomas severely restricts his food intake because 41. Which of the following illustrates the principle of
he has an intense fear of gaining weight and believes transitivity?
himself to weigh much more than he does. Based on A. If A +B = C, then B + A = C
this description, he most likely has: B. If A > B and B > C, then A > C
A. Anorexia nervosa C. If A – B = C, then B – A = C
B. Binge eating disorder D. If A (B+ C) = D, then AB + AC = D
C. Bulimia nervosa
D. Orthorexia 42. Piaget appears to have been incorrect in believing
that everyone eventually attained the ability to use
34. Health consequences of eating disorders include: formal operations.
A. Heart problems A. True
B. Osteoporosis B. False
C. Esophageal rupture
D. All of the above 43. The heightened self-focus that many adolescents
experience is called:
35. The ____________ approach has parents of A. Self-concept
adolescents with anorexia nervosa be actively involved B. Self-serving bias
their child’s treatment. C. Egocentrism
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy D. Egotism
B. Maudsley
C. Psychoanalytic 44. The adolescent’s belief that those around them are
D. Baddeley as concerned and focused on their appearance as they
themselves are is called the:
36. The ____________ approach helps people with A. Personal fable
eating disorders (and other mental health issues) by B. Unique invulnerability
identifying distorted thinking patterns and changing C. Self-fulfilling prophecy
inaccurate beliefs. D. Invisible audience
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
B. Maudsley
C. Psychoanalytic
48
 Developmental Psychology
45. The adolescent’s belief that belief that one is unique 53. Which is more likely to produce accurate results,
and special is called: inductive reasoning or deductive reasoning?
A. Personal fable A. Inductive, because it is based on what authority figures
B. Unique invulnerability tell us
C. Self-fulfilling prophecy B. Inductive, because our experiences always accurately
D. Invisible audience represent the way the world works
C. Deductive, assuming that the premises on which it is
46. Thinking about one’s thoughts and feelings is called: based are accurate
A. Idealism D. Deductive, because it involves using novelty and
B. Introspection divergent thinking
C. Pseudostupidity
D. Hypocrisy 54. The notion that humans have two distinct networks
(intuitive and analytic) for processing information is
47. Approaching problems at a level that is too complex called the ________ model.
and failing because the tasks are too simple is called: A. Biserial
A. Idealism B. Dual-process
B. Introspection C. Bimodal
C. Pseudostupidity D. Dual-core
D. Hypocrisy
55. In the dual-process model, ___________ is
48. When people pretend to be what they are not, this is automatic, unconscious, and fast, as well as more
called: experiential and emotional.
A. Idealism A. Intuitive
B. Introspection B. Emotive
C. Pseudostupidity C. Intentional
D. Hypocrisy D. Analytic

49. Insisting upon high standards of behavior is called: 56. In the dual-process model, ___________ is
A. Idealism deliberate, conscious, and rational.
B. Introspection A. Intuitive
C. Pseudostupidity B. Emotive
D. Hypocrisy C. Intentional
D. Analytic
50. Self-regulation, or the ability to control impulses, is
especially likely to fail when: 57. The percentage of 16- to 24-year-olds who are not
A. There is not a clear relationship between behavior and enrolled in school and do not have high school
outcomes credentials such as a diploma or GED certificate is
B. There is high stress or high demand on mental functions referred to as the:
C. Previously learned information has not been adequately A. Recidivism rate
stored in long-term memory B. Retention rate
D. The environment is unstimulating C. Status dropout rate
D. Achievement index
51. Inductive reasoning can be defined as:
A. Successfully transferring information from short-term to 58. According to the U.S. Department of Education, the
long-term memory dropout rate among high school students was ________
B. Thinking in novel, divergent ways in 2013.
C. Using specific observations, or specific comments from A. 15%
those in authority, to draw general conclusions B. 7%
D. Proposing specific conclusions based on a general C. 12%
overarching principle D. 10%

52. Deductive reasoning can be defined as: 59. According to Figure 6.13 on page 215, which of the
A. Successfully transferring information from short-term to following groups has the highest high school dropout
long-term memory rate?
B. Thinking in novel, divergent ways A. Black
C. Using specific observations, or specific comments from B. White
those in authority, to draw general conclusions C. Hispanic
D. Proposing specific conclusions based on a general D. The dropout rate is equal for all of these groups
overarching principle

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 Developmental Psychology
60. Research has indicated that teenagers who work 67. According to Marcia’s theory of identity formation,
more than 20 hours a week are at risk for: identity achievement is a status that characterizes those
A. Increased substance abuse who:
B. Declining grades A. Have made a commitment to an identity without having
C. Earlier sexual behavior explored the options
D. All of the above B, Are actively exploring in an attempt to establish an
identity, but have yet to make any commitment
61. Which of the following statistics about teenage C. Have neither explored the options, nor made a
drivers is FALSE? commitment to an identity
A. In 2014, almost 9% of all drivers involved in fatal crashes D. After exploration have made a commitment
that year were young drivers
B Fatal crashes involving alcohol use are higher among 68. According to Marcia’s theory of identity formation,
young women than young men identity moratorium is a status that characterizes those
C. In single-vehicle accidents, driving too fast for weather who:
and road conditions was the main factor in the majority of A. Have made a commitment to an identity without having
crashes involving teens explored the options
D. The highest percentage of distracted drivers involved in B. Are actively exploring in an attempt to establish an
fatal crashes is in the age group of 15 to 19 years identity, but have yet to make any commitment
C. Have neither explored the options, nor made a
62. Although teenagers’ self-concept increases during commitment to an identity
adolescence, the teen’s understanding of self is often D. After exploration have made a commitment
full of contradictions.
A. True 69. According to Marcia’s theory of identity formation,
B. False identity foreclosure is a status that characterizes those
who:
63. Feeling competent in several areas is associated A. Have made a commitment to an identity without having
with high self-esteem in adolescence. Which of the explored the options
following is NOT one of those areas? B. Are actively exploring in an attempt to establish an
A. Academic performance identity, but have yet to make any commitment
B. Peer relationships C. Have neither explored the options, nor made a
C. Athletic abilities commitment to an identity
D. Appearance D. After exploration have made a commitment

64. The term “psychological moratorium” means that: 70. Arjun has taken several different introductory-level
A. Teenagers do not develop new cognitive skills during core classes in college and has settled on a major based
adolescence on his enjoyment of one of those subject areas and its
B. Teenagers adhere to very rigid ways of thinking during fit with his career interests. This best represents:
adolescence A. Identity achievement
C. Adolescence is a time of continued brain development B. Identity moratorium
D. Teenagers put on hold commitment to an identity while C. Identity foreclosure
exploring the options D. Identity diffusion

65. Erikson believed that the primary psychosocial task 71. Ammon doesn’t pay much attention to political
of adolescence was: issues and hasn’t made any efforts to find a political
A. Doing well in school party or candidate to support. He probably won’t vote in
B. Establishing an identity the next election. This best represents:
C. Forming close relationships with peers A. Identity achievement
D. Internalizing parents’ rules and morals B. Identity moratorium
C. Identity foreclosure
66. According to Marcia’s theory of identity formation, D. Identity diffusion
identity diffusion is a status that characterizes those
who: 72. Rhiannon has many different career interests and
A. Have made a commitment to an identity without having has taken high school classes representing several
explored the options different career paths. However, she hasn’t yet found
B Are actively exploring in an attempt to establish an identity, one she really identifies with. This best represents:
but have yet to make any commitment A. Identity achievement
C. Have neither explored the options, nor made a B. Identity moratorium
commitment to an identity C. Identity foreclosure
D. After exploration have made a commitment D. Identity diffusion

50
 Developmental Psychology
73. Wei plans to vote the same way her parents do and 80. Most conflicts between teenagers and their parents
support the same candidates and political party they appear to center around issues of control.
support. She hasn’t thought about her own beliefs, but A. True
rather is just doing the same thing her parents do. This B. False
best represents:
A. Identity achievement 81. Adolescents who are similar to one another choose
B. Identity moratorium to spend time together in a “birds of a feather flock
C. Identity foreclosure together” way. This is called:
D. Identity diffusion A. Deviant peer contagion
B. Sensation seeking
74. Determining our own ethnic identity involves: C. Homophily
A. Identifying and resolving positive and negative feelings D. Assimilation
and attitudes about our own and other ethnic groups
B. Being aware of the customs and values of the dominant 82. Sometimes peers reinforce problem behavior by
culture laughing or showing other signs of approval that then
C. Identifying our place in relation to our own and other increase the likelihood of future problem behavior. This
ethnic groups is called:
D. All of the above A Deviant peer contagion
B. Sensation seeking
75. In Phinney’s model of ethnic identity formation, C. Homophily
someone who has given little thought to their ethnic D. Assimilation
heritage and possibly adopted the ethnicity of their
parents and other family members with little thought is 83. Cliques are:
in the stage of: A. Reciprocal dyadic relationships
A. Unexamined ethnic identity B. Groups of individuals who interact frequently
B. Achieved ethnic identity C. Groups characterized more by shared reputations or
C. Ethnic identity search images than actual interactions
D. Ethnic identity moratorium D. Deviant peer groups that engage in aggressive or criminal
behaviors
76. In Phinney’s model of ethnic identity formation,
someone who has immersed themselves in their ethnic 84. Cliques are:
culture is in the stage of: A. Reciprocal dyadic relationships
A. Unexamined ethnic identity B. Groups of individuals who interact frequently
B. Achieved ethnic identity C. Groups characterized more by shared reputations or
C. Ethnic identity search images than actual interactions
D. Ethnic identity moratorium D. Deviant peer groups that engage in aggressive or criminal
behaviors
77. The term “MAMA cycling” refers to:
A. The tendency of teenagers to go through cycles of 85. Dating serves many purposes for teens, including:
wanting to be close to and also rejecting their parents A. Status
B. The tendency of heterosexual boys to seek out romantic B. Companionship
partners similar to their mother C. Partner selection for those in late adolescence
C. The tendency of girls to adopt their mothers’ habits and D. All of the above
values as they get older
D. Moving back and forth between moratorium and 86. In early adolescence, the same-sex peer groups that
achievement during identity formation were common during childhood expand into mixed-sex
peer groups, and romantic relationships often form in
78. Seeing ourselves as part of both the ethnic minority the context of these mixed-sex peer groups.
group and the larger society is called: A. True
A. Bicultural identity B. False
B. Autonomy
C. Cultural assimilation
D. Multicultural accommodation

79. In general, parents tend to be more controlling of

sons than daughters.
A.True
B. False

51
 Developmental Psychology
Chapter 07 ⏐ Emerging and Early Adulthood
8) Compared to many other regions, emerging
1) The period between the late teens and early twenties adulthood seems to be particularly prolonged in Europe.
(roughly ages 18-25) is called: Why?
a) Prepubescence a) Relaxed parenting practices
b) Senescence b) Poor economic conditions
c) Emerging adulthood c) Long-standing philosophical views about what constitutes
d) Early adulthood adulthood
d) Widely available government support for things like
2) Emerging adults change jobs, relationships, and education and housing
residences more frequently than other age groups. This
is an example of why Arnett refers to emerging 9) Compared to people from other backgrounds,
adulthood as the age of: emerging adults with an Asian background are more
a) Identity exploration likely to emphasize __________ as an important criterion
b) Instability for attaining adult status.
c) Feeling in-between a) Being able to financially support their parents
d) Possibilities b) Having a clear career direction
c) Being able to financially support themselves
3) Emerging adulthood is often a time of optimism d) Finishing their education
because many of our dreams have yet to be tested. This
is an example of why Arnett refers to emerging 10) Compared to Europe, Asian cultures traditionally
adulthood as the age of: place a heavier emphasis on __________, which
a) Self-focus influences the experience of emerging adulthood in
b) Instability these cultures.
c) Identity exploration a) Individualism
d) Possibilities b) Collectivism
c) Hedonism
4) Emerging adults are likely to answer “yes and no” to d) Solipsism
the question of whether or not they fully feel like adults.
This is an example of why Arnett refers to emerging 11) Due to changes in economic and social conditions,
adulthood as the age of: marriage and parenthood are no longer universally
a) Feeling in-between considered as the important markers of adulthood in
b) Possibilities Western cultures.
c) Identity exploration a) True
d) Self-focus b) False

5) Emerging adults often realize that they have few 12) According to your textbook, who are more likely to
obligations to others and that this is the time where they live with their parents, young men or young women?
can do what they want with their life. This is an example a) Young women
of why Arnett refers to emerging adulthood as the age b) Young men
of: c) They are equally likely to live with their parents
a) Self-focus
b) Instability 13) According to Figure 7.5 on page 234, the rates of
c) Identity exploration men living at home versus with a partner were
d) Feeling in-between approximately similar to each other until after what
year?
6) Emerging adults often spend a lot of time thinking a) 1910
about their career choices and ideas about intimate b) 2010
relationships, setting the foundation for adulthood. This c) 1940
is an example of why Arnett refers to emerging d) 1960
adulthood as the age of:
a) Instability 14) According to Figure 7.5 on page 234, the largest
b) Possibilities discrepancy in rates of young adults (regardless of
c) Identity exploration gender) living at home versus with a partner occurred in
d) Self-focus what year?
a) 1910
7) Emerging adulthood looks the same in all countries, b) 2010
regardless of culture. c) 1940
a) True d) 1960
b) False

52
 Developmental Psychology
15) By 2014, more adults were living in their parents’ 23) According to the statistics on page 236, _______
homes than were living with a spouse or partner in their more American adults were classified as obese in 2015
own household (32.1% and 31.6% respectively), a than in 2003-2004.
significant shift from 1960. Which of the following a) 37.9%
explains this trend? b) 70.7%
a) Lack of employment and lower wages c) 5.9%
b) Postponing or avoiding marriage d) 6.4%
c) Increased college enrollments
d) All of the above 24) Obesity most likely results from complex
interactions among the environment and multiple genes.
16) People in their mid-twenties to mid-forties are a) True
considered to be in: b) False
a) Prepubescence
b) Senescence 25) Which of the following is NOT one of the top five
c) Emerging adulthood causes of death in young adults?
d) Early adulthood a) Cancer
b) Diabetes
17) Many adults in their early twenties are at the peak of c) Heart disease
their physiological development in terms of muscle d) Non-intentional injury, like car accidents
strength, reaction time, sensory abilities, and cardiac
functioning. 26) In 2014, alcohol-impaired driving fatalities accounted
a) True for ________ of overall driving fatalities.
b) False a) 17%
b) 58%
18) Many changes that we associate with the aging c) 31%
process begin around age: d) 66%
a) 20
b) 30 27) The National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and
c) 40 Alcoholism defines binge drinking as having a blood
d) 50 alcohol concentration level of at least:
a) 0.05 g/dL
19) Aging-related changes that begin in our 30s b) 1.0 g/dL
commonly include: c) 0.10 g/dL
a) Wrinkles and drier skin d) 0.08 g/dL
b) Vision changes, particularly related to the ability to focus
on close objects 28) College students aged 18-22 are significantly more
c) Declines in reproductive capacity likely to have consumed alcohol within the previous
d) All of the above month than 18-22-year-olds who are not in college.
a) True
20) Aging-related changes that begin in our 30s b) False
commonly include:
a) Decreased sensitivity to sound 29) Consequences of college drinking are likely to
b) Declines in immune system functioning include:
c) Declines in response time a) Academic difficulties
d) All of the above b) Assaulting others
c) Unintentional death or injury, such as car accidents
21) ___________ is expressed as weight in kilograms d) All of the above
divided by height in meters squared.
a) Oxygen saturation 30) College students view perpetrators who were
b) Insulin resistance drinking as less responsible, and victims who were
c) Body mass index drinking as more responsible for the assaults.
d) Blood pressure a) True
b) False
22) A person with a body mass index (BMI) of 30.0-39.9
will be classified as: 31) Factors that affect college students’ consumption of
a) Overweight alcohol include:
b) Obese a) Attending a college with an active Greek system
c) Extremely obese b) Inconsistent enforcement of underage drinking laws
d) Normal weight c) Expectations when entering college
d) All of the above

53
 Developmental Psychology
c) Trick question! Neither of these things varies greatly
32) In terms of college students’ involvement with between societies
alcohol, the first _________ of freshman year are an d) Trick question! Both of these things vary greatly between
especially susceptible time for students. societies
a) 2 weeks
b) 6 weeks 40) __________ is a person's sense of self as a member
c) 3 months of a particular gender.
d) 6 months a) Gender schema
b) Gender identity
33) Emerging adults (18 to 25) are the largest abusers of c) Gender role
prescription opioid pain relievers, anti-anxiety d) Gender concept
medications, and Attention Deficit Hyperactivity
Disorder medication. 41) Individuals who identify with a role that corresponds
a) True to the sex assigned to them at birth are:
b) False a) Transgender
b) Androgynous
34) In 2014, more than 1700 emerging adults died from a c) Cisgender
prescription drug overdose, _______ times the number d) Undifferentiated
who did in 1999.
a) Two 42) Individuals who identify with a role that is different
b) Three from their biological sex are:
c) Four a) Transgender
d) Five b) Androgynous
c) Cisgender
35) College students tend to smoke less (both marijuana d) Undifferentiated
and tobacco) than same-age peers who are not in
college. 43) Which culture sometimes uses the term “two-spirit”
a) True to describe gender-variant individuals in their
b) False communities?
a) Cuban
36) The term ______ refers to physical or physiological b) Armenian
differences between males, females, and intersex c) Japanese
persons, including both their primary and secondary sex d) indigenous North American
characteristics.
a) Gender 44) A transvestite is a person who dresses and acts in a
b) Sex style or manner traditionally associated with another
c) Both a) and b), because they mean the same thing sex, but does not identify with that role.
a) True
37) The term ________ refers to social or cultural b) False
distinctions associated with physical or physiological
differences between males, females, and intersex 45) The term __________ refers to society's concept of
persons. how men and women are expected to act and behave.
a) Gender a) Gender schema
b) Sex b) Gender identity
c) Both a) and b), because they mean the same thing c) Gender role
d) Gender concept
38) Scholars generally regard gender as a ________,
meaning that it does not exist naturally, but is instead a 46) Sexual motivation, often referred to as ________, is a
concept that is created by cultural and societal norms. person's overall sexual drive or desire for sexual
a) Secondary reinforcer activity.
b) Heuristic a) Sexual orientation
c) Mediating variable b) Libido
d) Social construct c) Sexism
d) Hypergamy
39) Characteristics of _______ will not vary significantly
between different human societies, but characteristics 47) In Kinsey’s model of the sexual response cycle, the
of ________ may vary greatly between different _______ phase is the phase in which the intrinsic (inner)
societies. motivation to pursue sex arises.
a) Sex, gender a) Excitement
b) Gender, sex b) Plateau

54
 Developmental Psychology
c) Orgasm 55) The hormone vasopressin:
d) Resolution a) Is released during sexual intercourse when an orgasm is
achieved
48) In Kinsey’s model of the sexual response cycle, the b) Is responsible for ovulation in females and stimulates
_______ phase is the phase in which sexual excitement sperm production in males
occurs with increased heart rate and circulation. c) Is involved in the male arousal phase
a) Excitement d) Triggers the release of a mature egg in females during the
b) Plateau process of ovulation
c) Orgasm
d) Resolution 56) The luteinizing hormone:
a) Is released during sexual intercourse when an orgasm is
49) In Kinsey’s model of the sexual response cycle, the achieved
_______ phase is the phase in which there is the release b) Is responsible for ovulation in females and stimulates
of tension. sperm production in males
a) Excitement c) Is involved in the male arousal phase
b) Plateau d) Triggers the release of a mature egg in females during the
c) Orgasm process of ovulation
d) Resolution
57) In women, estrogen tends to ________ the
50) In Kinsey’s model of the sexual response cycle, the motivation to engage in sexual behavior.
_______ period is the unaroused state before the cycle a) Increase
begins again. b) Decrease
a) Excitement c) Stabilize
b) Plateau
c) Orgasm 58) In women, progesterone tends to ________ the
d) Resolution motivation to engage in sexual behavior.
a) Increase
51) The __________ is the small area at the base of the b) Decrease
brain consisting of several groups of nerve-cell bodies c) Stabilize
that receives input from the limbic system.
a) Thyroid 59) Women and men tend to reach their sexual peak at
b) Hypothalamus different ages.
c) Pineal gland a) True
d) Pituitary gland b) False

52) Which of the following structures synthesizes and 60) The most effective way to prevent transmission of
secretes the hormone melatonin? sexually transmitted infections is to practice safe sex
a) Thyroid and avoid direct contact of skin or fluids which can lead
b) Hypothalamus to transfer with an infected partner.
c) Pineal gland a) True
d) Pituitary gland b) False

53) The hormone oxytocin: 61) Media portrayals of sexuality, particularly female
a) Is released during sexual intercourse when an orgasm is sexuality, can be both empowering and problematic.
achieved a) True
b) Is responsible for ovulation in females and stimulates b) False
sperm production in males
c) Is involved in the male arousal phase 62) A person's __________ is their emotional and sexual
d) Triggers the release of a mature egg in females during the attraction to a particular sex or gender.
process of ovulation a) Gender identity
b) Sexual schema
54) Follicle-stimulating hormone: c) Sexual orientation
a) Is released during sexual intercourse when an orgasm is d) All of the above, because these terms all mean the same
achieved thing
b) Is responsible for ovulation in females and stimulates
sperm production in males 63) Sexual orientation appears to occur along a
c) Is involved in the male arousal phase continuum rather than being a dichotomous variable.
d) Triggers the release of a mature egg in females during the a) True
process of ovulation b) False

55
 Developmental Psychology
64) People who are pansexual are: a) Learning to base decisions on what is realistic and
a) Attracted to individuals of their own sex or gender practical, not idealistic
b) Attracted to individuals older than they are b) Making adaptive choices
c) Not attracted to any sex or gender c) Being less influenced by what others think
d) Attracted to all sexes and genders d) All of the above

65) A society that supports heterosexuality as the norm 73) Which of the following statements about postformal
is called: thought is FALSE?
a) Homophobic a) Formal operational thought is influenced by experience
b) Heterogeneous and education
c) Heteronormative b) People who can reason abstractly in one area may not be
d) Heteronymic able to do it in other areas
c) Everyone develops the ability to reason abstractly
66) Internalized homophobia occurs when: d) Abstract reasoning in a particular field requires a
a) Societies enact policies or enable discrimination against knowledge base that we might not have in all areas
people with same-sex attractions
b) People with same-sex attractions internalize, or believe, 74) Approximately half of 18-to-24-year-olds are enrolled
society's negative views and/or hatred of themselves in college.
c) A society assumes that heterosexuality is “the norm” for all a) True
its members b) False
d) All of the above
75) The rate of college attainment has grown more
67) More research needs to be done to examine the slowly in the United States than in a number of other
experiences of LGBT individuals who are nonwhite. nations in recent years. What does your textbook cite
a) True as a possible reason for this?
b) False a) The high cost of college education
b) A high teen pregnancy rate
68) LGBT people who are nonwhite may face c) The changing job market
homophobic attitudes and behaviors from people in d) High rates of substance abuse problems in emerging
their racial/ethnic group as well as racist attitudes and adults
behaviors from white people in the LGBT community.
a) True 76) College education appears to be associated with:
b) False a) Increased likelihood of volunteering
b) Increased social competence
69) Research has shown that gay, lesbian, and bisexual c) Increased feelings of control over one’s life
teenagers are at a higher risk of depression and suicide d) All of the above
due to:
a) Exclusion from social groups 77) According to your textbook, children are likely to
b) Rejection from peers and family select careers based on:
c) Negative media portrayals of homosexuals a) Educational requirements
d) All of the above b) What appears glamorous or exciting
c) Experiences
70) Adolescents tend to think in ________, meaning that d) Earning potential
things are assumed to be solely one way or another
(such as either good or bad), and there is no middle 78) Compared to earlier generations, Millennials are
ground. more likely to report wanting a career that:
a) Algorithims a) Makes a lot of money
b) Dichotomies b) Has long-term stability
c) Heuristics c) Gives them a sense of purpose and engages them
d) Schemas d) Has good health insurance and retirement benefits

71) ____________ is the ability to bring together salient 79) The term “NEET” refers to someone who:
aspects of two opposing viewpoints or positions. a) Needs extra education and training
a) Deductive reasoning b) Negatively evaluates employment tasks
b) Inductive reasoning c) Is not effectively educating themselves
c) Dialectical thought d) Is not in education, employment, or training
d) Wisdom
80) According to Table 7.2 on page 253, in the United
72) According to your book, postformal thought States, NEETs are more likely to be:
involves: a) Women rather than men

56
 Developmental Psychology
b) Between the ages of 25-29 instead of younger 88) ________ is defined as a person’s characteristic
c) High school graduates who have not attended college manner of thinking, feeling, behaving, and relating to
d) All of the above others.
a) Personality
81) Jobs that have been traditionally held by women b) Temperament
tend to have lower: c) Self-control
a) Pay and benefits d) Self-regulation
b) Job security
c) Status 89) Which of the following traits in the Five-Factor Model
d) All of the above of personality is associated with curiosity and an
appreciation for a variety of experiences?
82) Sexism or gender discrimination is prejudice or a) Agreeableness
discrimination based on a person's sex or gender. b) Conscientiousness
Extreme sexism may foster: c) Openness to experience
a) Rape d) Extraversion
b) Sexual harassment
c) Fewer hiring and promotion opportunities 90) Which of the following traits in the Five-Factor Model
d) All of the above of personality is associated with a tendency to show
self-discipline, act dutifully, and aim for achievement?
83) _____________ involves discriminatory practices, a) Neuroticism
statements, or actions, based on a person's sex, that b) Conscientiousness
occur in the workplace. c) Openness to experience
a) Occupational sexism d) Agreeableness
b) Sexual harassment
c) The glass ceiling 91) Which of the following traits in the Five-Factor Model
d) Gender pay inequity of personality is associated with a tendency to be
compassionate and cooperative?
84) The Council of Economic Advisors (2015) found that a) Extraversion
women are paid approximately ________ of what men b) Openness to experience
earn. c) Neuroticism
a) 25% d) Agreeableness
b) 50%
c) 75% 92) Which of the following traits in the Five-Factor Model
d) 90% of personality is associated with a tendency to
experience negative emotions?
85) In general, people identified as having an easy a) Conscientiousness
temperament in infancy grow up to be well-adjusted b) Extraversion
adults. c) Neuroticism
a) True d) Openness to experience
b) False
93) Which of the following traits in the Five-Factor Model
86) ____________ is defined as the innate characteristics of personality is associated with a tendency to seek out
of the infant, including mood, activity level, and emotional stimulation and the company of others?
reactivity, noticeable soon after birth. a) Openness to experience
a) Personality b) Extraversion
b) Temperament c) Neuroticism
c) Self-control d) Conscientiousness
d) Self-regulation
94) According to your book, which of the following
87) The term “epigenesis” refers to: personality traits tends to increase with age?
a) How environmental factors are thought to change gene a) Conscientiousness
expression by switching genes on and off b) Extraversion
b) The stronger influence of nature in determining our c) Neuroticism
characteristics d) Agreeableness
c) The stronger influence of nurture in determining our
characteristics 95) The extent to which an adult worries about whether
d) The way that genetic factors affect the environments and their partner really loves them is called:
experiences we’re exposed to a) Attachment-related avoidance
b) Attachment-related ambivalence
c) Attachment-related anxiety

57
 Developmental Psychology
d) Attachment-related achievement d) Anxious-ambivalent

96) The extent to which an adult an adult feels they can 103) Bai is in a relationship but does not fully trust her
open up to, trust, and depend on others is called: partner and thus does not share her dreams, goals, and
a) Attachment-related avoidance fears with them. In Hazan and Shaver’s description of
b) Attachment-related ambivalence adult attachment styles, Bai would be classified as:
c) Attachment-related anxiety a) Secure
d) Attachment-related achievement b) Avoidant
c) Disorganized
97) Maggie is trusting of her partner and does not feel d) Anxious-ambivalent
that she has to worry about the status of their
relationship. In Bartholomew’s description of adult 104) Larry is worries that his partner does not love him
attachment styles, Maggie would be classified as: as much as he loves his partner and has had failed
a) Secure relationships because he wants to “merge completely”
b) Preoccupied with someone, and this puts people off. In Hazan and
c) Fearful-avoidant Shaver’s description of adult attachment styles, Larry
d) Dismissing-avoidant would be classified as:
a) Secure
98) Bai is in a relationship but does not fully trust her b) Avoidant
partner and thus does not share her dreams, goals, and c) Disorganized
fears with them. In Bartholomew’s description of adult d) Anxious-ambivalent
attachment styles, Bai would be classified as:
a) Secure 105) The dimensions of attachment in Bartholomew’s
b) Preoccupied theory are:
c) Fearful-avoidant a) Positive and negative
d) Dismissing-avoidant b) Control and warmth
c) Avoidance and anxiety
99) Larry is very jealous and worries that his partner d) Expectations and responsiveness
does not love him as much as he loves his partner. In
Bartholomew’s description of adult attachment styles, 106) Adults with secure attachment styles tend to attract
Larry would be classified as: romantic partners who also have secure attachment
a) Secure styles. According to your textbook, which of the
b) Preoccupied following explanations for this tendency has the most
c) Fearful-avoidant research support?
d) Dismissing-avoidant a) Secure people are more likely to be attracted to other
secure people
100) Raul wants close relationships, but does not feel b) Secure people are likely to create security in their partners
comfortable getting emotionally close to others and over time
does not trust his own ability to be in successful c) People’s attachment styles mutually shape one another
relationships. In Bartholomew’s description of adult d) People with insecure attachment styles find their needs
attachment styles, Raul would be classified as: unmet with secure people
a) Secure
b) Preoccupied 107) Early attachment styles with parents appear to
c) Fearful-avoidant influence the attachment styles people develop as
d) Dismissing-avoidant adults.
a) True
101) Which of the following is NOT one of the adult b) False
attachment styles in Hazan and Shaver’s model?
a) Secure 108) Both sibling and parent relationships must often be
b) Avoidant reappraised in adulthood.
c) Disorganized a) True
d) Anxious-ambivalent b) False

102) Maggie is trusting of her partner and does not feel 109) According to Erikson’s theory of development,
that she has to worry about the status of their intimate relationships are more difficult if one is still
relationship. In Hazan and Shaver’s description of adult struggling with identity.
attachment styles, Maggie would be classified as: a) True
a) Secure b) False
b) Avoidant
c) Disorganized

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 Developmental Psychology
110) Your book defines “attraction” as: d) Proximity
a) Having others like and believe in the same things we do,
which makes us feel validated in our beliefs 118) In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of love, the
b) The extent to which people are physically near us conscious decision to stay together is called:
c) The tendency to prefer stimuli (including, but not limited to a) Commitment
people) that we have seen more frequently b) Passion
d) What makes people like, and even love, each other c) Intimacy
d) Proximity
111) Your book defines “proximity” as:
a) Having others like and believe in the same things we do, 119) In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of love, the intense,
which makes us feel validated in our beliefs physical attraction partners feel toward one another is
b) The extent to which people are physically near us called:
c) The tendency to prefer stimuli (including, but not limited to a) Commitment
people) that we have seen more frequently b) Passion
d) What makes people like, and even love, each other c) Intimacy
d) Proximity
112) Your book defines “consensual validation” as:
a) Having others like and believe in the same things we do, 120) Victor had an immediate, intense physical attraction
which makes us feel validated in our beliefs to Claire when he met her, although they don’t have a
b) The extent to which people are physically near us relationship and don’t know each other well. Which of
c) The tendency to prefer stimuli (including, but not limited to Sternberg’s types of love does this most closely
people) that we have seen more frequently correspond to?
d) What makes people like, and even love, each other a) Fatuous love
b) Companionate love
113) Your book defines “mere exposure” as: c) Infatuation
a) Having others like and believe in the same things we do, d) Empty love
which makes us feel validated in our beliefs
b) The extent to which people are physically near us 121) Casey and Ashton spend a lot of time together, are
c) The tendency to prefer stimuli (including, but not limited to physically attracted to one another, and enjoy their
people) that we have seen more frequently closeness, but have not made plans to continue their
d) What makes people like, and even love, each other relationship long-term. Which of Sternberg’s types of
love does this most closely correspond to?
114) The tendency to communicate frequently, without a) Consummate love
fear of reprisal, and in an accepting and empathetic b) Romantic love
manner, is called: c) Fatuous love
a) Extraversion d) Liking
b) Self-disclosure
c) Locus of control 122) Larry has a strong attraction to Renee and wants to
d) Interpersonal intelligence be in a committed relationship with her despite not
knowing her well, so his commitment is premature.
115) The kinds of friendships shared by women, and the Which of Sternberg’s types of love does this most
topics of the interactions that occur in those closely correspond to?
friendships, tend to differ from those shared by men. a) Fatuous love
a) True b) Romantic love
b) False c) Infatuation
d) Consummate love
116) Which of the following is NOT one of the three main
components of love described in Sternberg’s triarchic 123) Elizabeth and Stephanie share a lot of personal
theory of love? information with each other, but are not physically
a) Commitment attracted to each other and do not see their relationship
b) Passion as a long-term deal. Which of Sternberg’s types of love
c) Intimacy does this most closely correspond to?
d) Proximity a) Romantic love
b) Liking
117) In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of love, the ability to c) Companionate love
share feelings, personal thoughts and psychological d) Fatuous love
closeness with the other is called:
a) Commitment 124) Alan and Louis have been together for over 20
b) Passion years. They share details of their lives with each other
c) Intimacy and are still attracted to each other after all this time.

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 Developmental Psychology
Which of Sternberg’s types of love does this most 132) According to a 2016 research study conducted by
closely correspond to? Smith and Anderson, _______ of adults reported using
a) Infatuation online dating.
b) Fatuous love a) 49%
c) Consummate love b) 27%
d) Romantic love c) 5%
d) 34%
125) Ramesh and Gita are in a committed relationship
and love and respect each other, but there is no physical 133) Online dating sites and social network sites:
attraction. Which of Sternberg’s types of love does this a) Reduce issues of proximity, as individuals do not have to
most closely correspond to? be close in proximity to meet
a) Infatuation b) Provide a medium in which individuals can communicate
b) Romantic love with others
c) Empty love c) Help people find others with similar personality, hobbies,
d) Companionate love and interests
d) All of the above
126) Leonard and Brenda are married, but the physical
attraction is long gone, they don’t communicate with 134) Compared to in-person communication, online
each other, and they’re only staying together for the communication:
sake of the children. Which of Sternberg’s types of love a) May increase the potential for people to be tricked about
does this most closely correspond to? who someone is
a) Infatuation b) Places less emphasis on physical attributes and more on
b) Romantic love written communication
c) Empty love c) Enables people to disclose more intimate details about
d) Companionate love themselves more quickly
d) All of the above
127) According to your book, young adults are likely to
stay single due to: 135) The rise of cohabitation in Western cultures has
a) Financial instability been attributed to:
b) Greater tendency to raise children out of wedlock a) A competition between marriage and pursuing
c) Having other priorities, such as education post-secondary education
d) All of the above b) Increase in individualism and secularism, and the resulting
decline in religious observance
128) There is some evidence that traditional forms of c) Greater gender equality and sexual freedom, particularly
dating have shifted to more casual _______ that involve for women
uncommitted sexual encounters. d) All of the above
a) Cohabitations
b) Hookups 136) Worldwide, marriage has declined during the last
c) “Friends with benefits” relationships several decades, with the biggest drops in marriage
d) Endogamous mostly in poorer countries.
a) True
129) Relationships that involve friends having casual b) False
sex without commitment are known as:
a) Cohabitations 137) Rules of ________indicate the groups we should
b) Hookups marry within and those we should not marry in.
c) Friends with benefits a) Homogamy
d) Endogamous b) Polygamy
c) Endogamy
130) In general, men demonstrate a greater d) Monogamy
permissiveness regarding casual sex than women do.
a) True 138) Marriage between people who share social
b) False characteristics is called:
a) Homogamy
131) Potential negative consequences of hookups b) Polygamy
include: c) Endogamy
a) Lower self-esteem d) Monogamy
b) Feelings of being used or using someone else
c) Regret and depression 139) Around the world, more and more young couples
d) All of the above are choosing their partners, even in nations where
arranged marriages are still the norm.

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 Developmental Psychology
a) True
b) False 148) Parenting behaviors and beliefs may be influenced
by:
140) In his research, Gottman identified four predictors a) The characteristics of the child
of marital harmony. Which of the following is NOT one b) Sociocultural factors
of them? c) The characteristics of the parent
a) Contempt d) All of the above
b) Defensiveness
c) Fidelity
d) Stonewalling

141) According to your book, which of Gottman’s four

predictors of marital harmony is the strongest sign that
a relationship is destined to fail?
a) Contempt
b) Defensiveness
c) Criticism
d) Stonewalling

142) When the relationship is generally positive, this can

help the overall relationship in times of conflict. This is
sometimes called:
a) Approach-avoidance conflict
b) External locus of control
c) Accumulated positive deposits
d) Top-down processing

143) Roughly _________ women have been severely

physically abused by an intimate partner.
a) 1 in 5
b) 1 in 4
c) 1 in 6
d) 1 in 2

144) Women who experience intimate partner violence

often are subjected to different patterns of violence than
men who experience intimate partner violence.
a) True
b) False

145) Although they are less likely than women to

experience these things, men may still experience forms
of intimate partner abuse such as stalking, physical
violence, and rape.
a) True
b) False

146) Compared to previous generations, today’s parents

are more likely to be:
a) Older
b) Unmarried
c) Having fewer children
d) All of the above

147) Not only do parents affect their children, children

influence their parents. The term for this relationship is:
a) Biopsychosocial
b) Homogamous
c) Bidirectional
d) Epigenetic

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 Developmental Psychology
9. _________ is/are little spots or “cobwebs” that float
Chapter 08 ⏐ Middle Adulthood
around the field of vision and that occur when the
vitreous, a gel-like substance in the interior of the eye,
1. Aging caused by biological factors, such as slowly shrinks.
molecular and cellular changes, is called: A. Floaters
A. Primary aging B. Presbyopia
B. Secondary aging C. Scotopic sensitivity
C. Tertiary aging D. Dry eye syndrome
D. Physical agin
10. _________ is/are the ability to see in dimmer light,
2. Aging caused by potentially controllable factors, an ability that declines during midlife.
such as an unhealthy lifestyle, is called: A. Floaters
A. Primary aging B. Presbyopia
B. Secondary aging C. Scotopic sensitivity
C. Tertiary aging D. Dry eye syndrome
D. Physical aging

3. Gray hair is caused by lower production of ________, 11. _________ occur(s. when the eye does not produce
the pigment that produces hair color. tears properly, or when the tears evaporate too quickly
A. Melatonin because they are not the correct consistency.
B. Melanoma A. Floaters
C. Melanin B. Presbyopia
D. Melanite C. Scotopic sensitivity
D. Dry eye syndrome
4. Male pattern baldness is related to:
A. Estrogen 12. According to Figure 8.4 on page 288 of your
B. Progesterone textbook, the biggest increase in the number of adults
C. Insulin with hearing impairments occurs:
D. Testosterone A. From ages 40-44 to 45-49
B. From ages 60-64 to 65-69
5. The term “sarcopenia” refers to: C. From ages 50-54 to 55-59
A. A form of skin cancer caused by repeated sun exposure D. From ages 55-59 to 60-64
B. Bone growths that make it painful to walk
C. The loss of muscle mass and strength that occurs with 13. Hearing loss appears to be either caused or
aging exacerbated by:
D. Changes in skin appearance and texture with aging A. Cigarette smoking
B. High blood pressure
6. The muscle-to-fat ratio for both men and women C. Exposure to noisy environments
changes throughout middle adulthood, with an D. All of the above
accumulation of fat in the:
A. Buttocks 14. The number one cause of death for adults, both in
B. Stomach the U.S. and worldwide, is:
C. Neck A. Diabetes
D. Hip B. Alzheimer’s disease
C. Heart disease
7. Experiencing shortness of breath and feeling tired D. Cancer
are likely results of:
A. Declines in lung capacity 15. ____________, or a buildup of fatty plaque in the
B. Decreased testosterone production arteries, is the most common cause of cardiovascular
C. Menopause disease.
D. Reduced melanin production A. Hypertension
B. Atherosclerosis
8. _________ is/are caused by a loss of elasticity in the C. Atrial fibrillation
lens of the eye that makes it harder for the eye to focus D. Bradycardia
on objects that are closer to the person.
A. Floaters 16. ____________ occurs when the blood flows with a
B. Presbyopia greater force than normal.
C. Scotopic sensitivity A. Hypertension
D. Dry eye syndrome B. Atherosclerosis
C. Atrial fibrillation

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 Developmental Psychology
D. Bradycardia D. Cancer

17. Blood pressure is represented by two numbers, such 24. Cancer can be life-threatening because:
as 110/70 (which, when said aloud, would be “110 over A. Malignant tumors can invade neighboring body parts
70”.. In blood pressure, the “top” number is called the B. Cancer cells can metastasize, which means they can
_________ pressure. travel through the lymph system or blood to form new tumors
A. Hyperbolic in other parts of the body
B. Diastolic C. Even benign tumors, particularly in the brain, can interfere
C. Prolific with the functioning of organs
D. Systolic D. All of the above

18. Blood pressure is represented by two numbers, such 25. According to Table 8.2 on page 292 of your book, the
as 110/70 (which, when said aloud, would be “110 over most common type of cancer is ________ cancer, but
70”.. In blood pressure, the “bottom” number is called the one with the highest number of deaths per year is
the _________ pressure. _________ cancer.
A. Hyperbolic A. Liver, pancreatic
B. Diastolic B. Breast, lung
C. Prolific C. Colorectal, ovarian
D. Systolic D. Prostate, kidney

19. The systolic pressure represents: 26. ______________ is a waxy fatty substance carried by
A. The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart beats lipoprotein molecules in the blooD.
B. The time it takes for blood pressure to return to normal A. Triglyceride
after a stressful event B. Plasma
C. The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at C. Cholesterol
rest D. Visceral fat
D. The number of heartbeats per minute
27. Why is low-density lipoprotein (LDL. referred to as
20. The diastolic pressure represents: “bad cholesterol”?
A. The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart beats A. It can form plaque in the arteries, leading to heart attack
B. The time it takes for blood pressure to return to normal and stroke
after a stressful event B. It interferes with insulin regulation
C. The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at C. It interferes with normal digestive processes, leading to
rest malnutrition
D. The number of heartbeats per minute D. It is associated with the development of cancer

28. Mike had his cholesterol measured and learned that

his high-density lipoprotein (LDL. level is 25 mg/dl.
21. According to your textbook, someone with a Should he be concerned?
systolic pressure of 130 would likely be diagnosed as: A. Yes
A. Having normal blood pressure B. No
B. Having prehypertension
C. Having hypertension 29. __________ is a disease in which the body does not
D. Being at immediate risk for death from cardiovascular control the amount of glucose in the blooD.
disease A. Insulin resistance
B. Glucagon intolerance
22. Risk factors for hypertension include: C. Diabetes
A. Diet that is too high in sodium, which is often found in D. Neuropathy
processed foods, and too low in potassium
B. Sedentary lifestyle 30. Type 2 diabetes often starts with __________, a
C. Nicotine use disorder in which the cells in the muscles, liver, and fat
D. All of the above tissue do not use insulin properly.
A. Insulin resistance
23. __________ is the name given to a collection of B. Glucagon intolerance
related diseases in which the body’s cells begin to C. Ketoacidosis
divide without stopping and spread into surrounding D. Adiposity
tissues.
A. Diabetes
B. Alzheimer’s disease 31. Rates of diabetes are equal across gender, ethnic,
C. Heart disease racial groups.

63
 Developmental Psychology
A. True
B. False 40. Heartburn is caused by:
A. Insufficient stomach acid
32. The number of people living with diabetes increases B. The stomach failing to digest food as quickly as it should
dramatically: C. Stomach acid backing up into the esophagus
A. During the ages of 20-29 D. The digestive system failing to properly absorb nutrients
B. After the age of 65
C. After the age of 45 41. Prolonged problems w/ heartburn can lead to
D. Before the age of 20 esophageal cancer.
A. True
33. Diabetic ___________ is damage to the small blood B. False
vessels in the retina that may lead to loss of vision.
A. Presbyopia 42. The National Sleep Foundation recommends that
B. Retinopathy middle-aged adults get __________ hours of sleep per
C. Glaucoma night.
D. Macular degeneration A. Less than 6
B. More than 10
34. Risk factors for diabetes include: C. 7-9
A. Diet D. Trick question! The National Sleep Foundation does not
B. Physical inactivity make sleep recommendations for adults
C. Obesity 43. Sleep disturbances (including poor sleep quality and
D. All of the above insufficient sleep. are associated with which of the
following consequences?
35. People with diabetes are at an increased risk of: A. Hypertension
A. Heart attack B. Insulin resistance
B. Kidney failure C. Memory impairment
C. Limb amputations D. All of the above
D. All of the above
44. Which of the following is a benefit of exercise?
36. ____________ is a cluster of several cardiometabolic A. Stress reduction
risk factors, including large waist circumference, high B. Better blood sugar control
blood pressure, and elevated triglycerides, LDL, and C. Increased bone density
blood glucose levels, which can lead to diabetes and D. All of the above
heart disease.
A. General adaptation syndrome 45. The Office of Disease Prevention and Health
B. Angelman syndrome Promotion’s 2008 guidelines for exercise in adults
C. Metabolic syndrome contain several recommendations. Which of the
D. Waardenburg syndrome following is NOT one of them?
A. It is better to have one day of vigorous exercise than to
37. _____________ is an inflammatory disease that spread out the exercise over several days
causes pain, swelling, stiffness, and loss of function in B. Adults should engage in at least 150 minutes per week of
the joints. moderate intensity exercise
A. Lupus C. Adults should participate in muscle-strengthening
B. Rheumatoid arthritis activities in addition to aerobic activity
C. Sickle cell anemia D. Any activity will result in some health benefits
D. Neurofibromatosis
46. Calorie needs tend to increase in midlife.
38. Rheumatoid arthritis appears to develop as a result A. True
of a genetic susceptibility combined with an unidentified B. False
environmental trigger.
A. True 47. According to dietary guidelines, an adult’s diet
B. False should contain less than:
A. 2,300mg (1 teaspoon. per day of sodium
39. _______________ are hard particles, including fatty B. 10 percent of calories per day from added sugars
materials, bile pigments, and calcium deposits, that can C. 10 percent of calories per day from saturated fats
develop in the gallbladder. D. All of the above
A. Gallstones
B. Gallbladder polyps 48. __________ is the process by which the body
C. Gallbladder acalculi converts food and drink into energy.
D. Gallbladder abscesses A. Ketosis

64
 Developmental Psychology
B. Mitosis
C. Metabolism 57. Intermittent erectile dysfunction affects as many as
D. Protein synthesis ______ of men between the ages of 40 and 70.
A. 4%
49. The term “climacteric” refers to: B. 50%
A. A period of transition in which a woman's ovaries stop C. 17%
releasing eggs and the level of estrogen and progesterone D. 70%
production decreases
B. The midlife transition when fertility declines 58. Although age-related physical changes can affect
C. A span of 12 months without menstruation sexual functioning and desire, interest in sex does not
D. A surge of adrenaline caused by hormonal changes automatically disappear at a certain age.
A. True
50. The term “perimenopause” refers to: B. False
A. A period of transition in which a woman's ovaries stop
releasing eggs and the level of estrogen and progesterone 59. The risk of contracting a sexually transmitted
production decreases infection does not disappear just because a person
B. The midlife transition when fertility declines reaches a certain age.
C. A span of 12 months without menstruation A. True
D. A surge of adrenaline caused by hormonal changes B. False

51. The term “menopause” refers to: 60. Which of the following statements about cognitive
A. A period of transition in which a woman's ovaries stop development in midlife is FALSE?
releasing eggs and the level of estrogen and progesterone A. Older adults use more of their brains than younger adults
production decreases B. Brain plasticity has stopped before midlife
B. The midlife transition when fertility declines C. Adults in middle adulthood make better financial decisions
C. A span of 12 months without menstruation D. Some individuals in middle age actually have improved
D. A surge of adrenaline caused by hormonal changes cognitive functioning

52. The term “hot flash” refers to: 61. The capacity to learn new ways of solving problems
A. A period of transition in which a woman's ovaries stop and performing activities quickly and abstractly is
releasing eggs and the level of estrogen and progesterone called:
production decreases A. Acquired intelligence
B. The midlife transition when fertility declines B. Crystallized intelligence
C. A span of 12 months without menstruation C. Fluid intelligence
D. A surge of adrenaline caused by hormonal changes D. Experiential intelligence

53. Depression, mood swings are more common during 62. The accumulated knowledge of the world we have
menopause, but only for women who have prior acquired throughout our lives is called:
histories of these conditions. A. Acquired intelligence
A. True B. Crystallized intelligence
B. False C. Fluid intelligence
54. Hormone replacement therapy to relieve unpleasant D. Experiential intelligence
symptoms of menopause has been associated with an
increased risk of: 63. _________ tends to increase with age, while
A. Breast cancer _________ tends to decrease with age.
B. Stroke A. Fluid, crystallized
C. The development of blood clots B. Crystallized, fluid
D. All of the above
64. According to Figure 8.17 on page 308 of your book,
55. How women feel about menopause depends on the Seattle Longitudinal Study showed that all of the
cultural influences as well as how they individually feel following skills improve in middle adulthood EXCEPT:
about fertility and the aging process. A. Inductive reasoning
A. True B. Spatial orientation
B. False C. Perceptual speed
D. Verbal memory
56. Most cases of erectile dysfunction are caused by
other medical conditions, such as diabetes and
atherosclerosis.
A. True 65. ________ is the mental state of being completely
B. False present and fully absorbed in a task.

65
 Developmental Psychology
A. Sustained attention 73. Expert thought often involves calling upon
B. Flow knowledge and past experience instead of relying on
C. Productive concentration rules (such as a person who doesn’t need to follow a
D. Information processing recipe because they have so much cooking exp.. For
this reason, expert thought is sometimes described as:
66. __________ is knowledge that is pragmatic or A. Intuitive
practical and learned through experience rather than B. Automatic
explicitly taught. C. Strategic
A. Expertise D. Flexible
B. Wisdom
C. Flow 74. Expert thinkers often process information faster and
D. Tacit knowledge more effectively than novices, and their reactions often
appear instinctive (such as a trauma nurse who barely
67. Which of the following general statements about has to think about what to do because they’ve done their
people in a flow state is FALSE? job for so long.. For this reason, expert thought is
A. They are achieving great joy or intellectual satisfaction sometimes described as:
from the activity and accomplishing a goal A. Intuitive
B. They are not concerned with extrinsic rewards B. Automatic
C. They are engaged in vigorous physical activity C. Strategic
D. They are able to block outside distractions D. Flexible
75. Expert thinkers can generate hypotheses better than
68. By the year 2020, students over age 35 are expected novices, and are also better at ignoring irrelevant
to account for ________ of all college and graduate information to make effective decisions (such as an
students. experienced college student who can identify which
A. 6% information on the PowerPoints is important and doesn’t
B. 19% have to write down everything.. For this reason, expert
C. 27% thought is sometimes described as:
D. 33% A. Intuitive
B. Automatic
69. Compared to younger students, older students are C. Strategic
more likely to: D. Flexible
A. Use higher order cognitive skills to enhance memory
B. Look for relevance and meaning when learning 76. Expert thinkers are more curious and creative; they
information enjoy a challenge and experiment with new ideas or
C. Learn information more slowly but retain it longer procedures (such as a painter who explores other
D. All of the above artistic mediums such as sculpture.. For this reason,
expert thought is sometimes described as:
70. The program that assists community colleges in A. Intuitive
creating or expanding options that focus on workforce B. Automatic
training and new careers for the plus-50 population is C. Strategic
called: D. Flexible
A. Golden Opportunities
B. Slow and Steady Wins the Race 77. Job satisfaction tends to peak in early adulthood and
C. Plus 50 Initiative decline in middle adulthooD.
A. True
71. A __________ is someone who has limited B. False
experiences with a particular task.
A. Novice 78. In terms of the U.S. work force, adults in which age
B. Trainee group are the only population of adults that will shrink in
C. Newbie size over the next few years?
D. Greenhorn A. 16-24
B. 35-45
72. Specialized skills and knowledge that pertain to a C. 55-64
particular topic or activity are collectively called: D. 65 and up
A. Tacit knowledge
B. Crystallized intelligence 79. Which term refers to organizational discrimination in
C. Wisdom the workplace that limits the career advancement of
D. Expertise women?
A. Sexual harassment
B. Family responsibilities discrimination

66
 Developmental Psychology
C. Glass ceiling B. False
D. Title VII violation
88. Levinson concluded from his research that a midlife
80. Someone is experiencing job burnout when they: crisis was a normal part of development. However, his
A. Have reached the peak of their earning potential research has been criticized and questioned for:
B. Feel disillusioned and frustrated at work A. Using a cross-sectional instead of a longitudinal design
C. Have advanced as far as they can go in terms of B. Not operationally defining his variables
promotions and responsibilities C. Using the wrong statistical tests during data analysis
D. Are trying to balance their employment and family D. Using invalid measures to assess development
responsibilities
89. The word ________ refers to a pattern of physical
81. According to Figure 8.19 on page 313 of your book, and psychological responses in an organism after it
the average number of annual hours worked by perceives a threatening event that disturbs its
American workers is higher than the number for all of homeostasis and taxes its abilities to cope with the
the following countries EXCEPT: event.
A. Australia A. Jittering
B. Denmark B. Ululation
C. Mexico C. Stress
D. Germany D. Damping

82. Middle aged adults who find themselves unemployed 90. In Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome, there are
are likely to remain unemployed longer than those in three phases. Which of the following is NOT one of
early adulthooD. them?
A. True A. Mobilization of physiological resources
B. False B. Coping
C. Exhaustion
83. Around the world, the most common leisure activity D. Recuperation
in both early and middle adulthood is:
A. Reading 91. Stress can be caused by:
B. Participating in exercise or sports A. Traumatic events, like a natural disaster
C. Creative pursuits such as cooking and art B. Daily hassles, like getting stuck behind a slow driver when
D. Watching television you’re late
C. Chronically difficult situations, such as an unhappy
84. In general, who spends more time in leisure marriage
activities, men or women? D. All of the above
A. Men
B. Women 92. The behavior pattern that involves being competitive,
C. Men and women spend equal amounts of time in leisure impatient, hostile, and time urgent is called:
activities A. Type A
B. Type B
85. Why do so many American workers fail to use all of C. Type C
their available vacation time? D. Type D
A. Lack of encouragement from bosses and coworkers
B. Concerns about coming back to a big mountain of work to 93. Which behavior pattern is associated with a high risk
do of heart disease?
C. Not wanting to seem replaceable A. Type A
D. All of the above B. Type B
C. Type C
86. According to Levinson’s theory of adult D. Type D
development, the midlife transition (ages 40-45. was a
time of: 94. Your book uses the term _________ to describe to
A. Attaining career success and prestige describe the number of social roles a person has.
B. Reevaluating previous commitments and making changes A. Social facilitation
as necessary B. Sociability
C. Disengaging from society C. Social integration
D. Thinking of life in terms of how many years are left D. Social ascendancy

87. The majority of middle-aged adults in the United

States experience a midlife crisis.
A. True

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 Developmental Psychology
D. Wisdom
95. Caregiving is associated with several negative
outcomes for the caregiver, including: 103. Generative adults often have other positive
A. Depression qualities. Which of the following traits is NOT
B. Physical health problems mentioned in your book as one of these positive
C. Anxiety qualities?
D. All of the above A. Good cultural knowledge
B. Better cognitive functioning
96. Women are more likely than men to be: C. Agreeableness
A. Caregivers D. Wisdom
B. Care recipients
C. Both caregivers and care recipients 104. The term “sandwich generation” refers to:
D. Neither caregivers nor care recipients A. Children who rely on school-provided lunches for most of
their nutrition
97. In general, women acting as caregivers experience B. Adults who have not learned to cook because their
more burden than men in that role. parents served prepared foods so often
A. True C. Adults with elderly parents and are either raising their or
B. False supporting their own children
D. Children who are extremely picky eaters
98. __________ is a technique where the individual is 105. The majority of the sandwich generation is:
shown bodily information that is not normally available A. 40-59 years old
to them and then taught strategies to alter this signal. B. 60 or older
A. Sensory integration therapy C. 20-39 years old
B. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation D. Under 20 years old
C. Biofeedback
D. Paired-associates learning 106. Parents whose children are grown up and have left
home are sometimes called:
99. Esther is very stressed by her caregiving A. Fictive kin
responsibilities and is dealing with it by attempting to B. Kinkeepers
hire some home health care. Esther is using: C. Family watchdogs
A. Emotion-focused coping D. Empty nesters
B. Problem-focused coping
C. Self-focused coping 107. Great emotional distress experienced by parents,
D. Other-focused coping typically mothers, after children have left home is called:
A. Postpartum depression
100. Demitri is very stressed by his caregiving B. Empty nest syndrome
responsibilities and is dealing with it by reminding C. Child-centered coping
himself that his mother’s disruptive behaviors are part D. Prosopagnosia
of her Alzheimer’s disease and she’s not doing these
things on purpose. Demetri is using: 108. Empty nest syndrome is consistent with the idea of:
A. Emotion-focused coping A. The role loss hypothesis
B. Problem-focused coping B. The Zeigarnik effect
C. Self-focused coping C. The law of filial regression
D. Other-focused coping D. The law of proximity

101. As Erikson uses it, ________ refers to procreativity, 109. In general, research has demonstrated that raising
productivity, and creativity in midlife, with the goal of children has a negative impact on the quality of martial
leaving a positive legacy. relationships.
A. Generosity A. True
B. Gainsharing B. False
C. Generativity
D. Gemellology 110. How parents react to their children growing up and
leaving home appears to be affected by cultural factors.
102. Erikson identified “virtues” for each of his eight A. True
stages, and they refer to what the individual achieves B. False
when the stage is successfully reconcileD. The virtue
emerging when one achieves generativity is: 111. Boomerang kids are:
A. Purpose A. Young adults who go from job to job without steadily
B. Care committing to anything
C. Love

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 Developmental Psychology
B. Young adults who help their aging relatives on a A. These parents limit their ex-spouse’s contact with their
temporary, as-needed basis children
C. Young adults who are returning after having lived B. These parents regulate the flow of information about their
independently outside the home new romantic partner to their children
D. Young adults who are still forming their identity C. These parents do not discuss their ex-spouse with their
children
112. The notion that people in important relationships, D. These parents want to be very involved in their children’s
such as children and parents, mutually influence each romantic lives to prevent them from making the same
other’s developmental pathways is called: mistakes they did
A. Intersectionality
B. Linked lives 119. Which of the following statements about remarriage
C. Equipotentiality is TRUE?
D. Generation effect A. Remarriage rates have declined in recent years
B. More women than men remarry
113. According to DePaulo, studies that simply compare C. Rates of remarriage are similar across racial and ethnic
married people to single people may be flawed because: groups
A. They use cross-sectional and not longitudinal designs D. The divorce rate in remarriage is less than in first
B. They are not experimental studies marriages
C. They do not use valid measures to assess adjustment
D. They do not differentiate between adults who have always 120. Adult-focused parents:
been single and adults who are single due to divorce or A. Tend to have less rapport with their children
widowhood B. Tend to prioritize their partner’s needs over their children’s
needs
114. The most common relationship status for C. Spend less time in joint activities with their children
middle-aged adults in the United States is: D. All of the above
A. Divorced
B. Never married 121. The degree that grandparents are involved in their
C. Married grandchildren’s lives depends on:
D. Widowed A. The proximity of the grandparents’ home to the
grandchild’s home
115. According to your book, which of the following B. The availability of technology such as FaceTime and
statements about divorce is TRUE? Skype
A. Most divorces are initiated by men C. Cultural factors such as how common multigenerational
B. Most divorces take place within the first 5 to 10 years of households are
marriage D. All of the above
C. Since the 1990s, the divorce rate among those 50 and
older has declined significantly 122. Cherlin and Furstenberg identified three styles of
D. Compared to divorce at younger ages, midlife divorces grandparents. Remote grandparents:
tend to be more angry and conflictual A. Rarely see their grandchildren, either due to geographic
or emotional distance
116. The subgroup of divorcees called “enhancers”: B. Have frequent contact with and authority over the
A. Use the experience to better themselves and seek more grandchild
productive intimate relationships C. Do things with the grandchild but have little authority or
B. Look for other relationships immediately after their divorce control over them
C. Use their divorce experience to grow emotionally, but D. Emphasize the importance of discipline over affection,
choose to stay single much like authoritarian parents
D. Maintain positive relationships with their ex-spouses
123. Cherlin and Furstenberg identified three styles of
117. The subgroup of divorcees called “competent grandparents. Companionate grandparents:
loners”: A. Rarely see their grandchildren, either due to geographic
A. Use the experience to better themselves and seek more or emotional distance
productive intimate relationships B. Have frequent contact with and authority over the
B. Look for other relationships immediately after their divorce grandchild
C. Use their divorce experience to grow emotionally, but C. Do things with the grandchild but have little authority or
choose to stay single control over them
D. Maintain positive relationships with their ex-spouses D. Emphasize the importance of discipline over affection,
much like authoritarian parents
118. In the context of divorced parents’ interactions with
their children, the word “gatekeeping” means: 124. Cherlin and Furstenberg identified three styles of
grandparents. Involved grandparents:

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 Developmental Psychology
A. Rarely see their grandchildren, either due to geographic A. Age
or emotional distance B. Gender
B. Have frequent contact with and authority over the C. Religious denomination
grandchild D. All of the above
C. Do things with the grandchild but have little authority or
control over them Chapter 09 ⏐ Late Adulthood
D. Emphasize the importance of discipline over affection,
much like authoritarian parents 1. The fastest growing age division of the United States
population consists of:
125. Lacking close friendships in adulthood is A. Children under 18
associated with: B. Adults 19-39 years old
A. Increased depression and anxiety C. Adults 40-64 years old
B. Premature mortality D. Adults over 65 years old
C. Poorer reactions to stress
D. All of the above 2. According to Table 9.2 on page 350 of your textbook,
in 2030, the United States is predicted to have the lowest
126. Midlife social interactions are predicted by the percentage of living adults over 65 except for which
______ of social interactions at age 20 and the country?
__________ of social interaction at age 30. A. Russia
A. Quantity, quality B. Japan
B. Quality, quantity C. Canada
C. Quality, quality D. Germany
D. Quantity, quantity
3. The number of older people in less developed
127. Internet relationships are inferior to real-life countries is projected to increase more than in
relationships. developed countries.
A. True A. True
B. False B. False

128. Attitudes about women’s aging vary by: 4. The greatest age reached by any member of a given
A. Sexual orientation population (or species) is called:
B. Race A. Life expectancy
C. Culture B. Life span
D. All of the above C. Life course
D. All of the above, because all of these terms mean the
129. The term __________ refers to an individual’s same thing
intrapsychic sense of connection with something
transcendent (that which exists apart from and not 5. The average number of years that members of a
limited by the material universe. and the subsequent population (or species) live is called:
feelings of awe, gratitude, compassion, and forgiveness. A. Life expectancy
A. Religiosity B. Life span
B. Spirituality C. Life course
C. Transcendentalism D. All of the above, because all of these terms mean the
D. Predestination same thing

130. The term __________ refers to engaging with a 6. Which is longer, life span or life expectancy?
formal religious group’s doctrines, values, traditions, A. Life expectancy
and co-members. B. Life span
A. Religiosity C. They are equal in length
B. Spirituality
C. Transcendentalism 7. Worldwide, who lives longer on average, men or
D. Predestination women?
A. Men
131. It appears that formal religious participation and B. Women
spirituality relate differently to an individual’s overall C. They live the same amount of time
psychological well-being.
A. True 8. When looking at large populations, the World Health
B. False Organization (2016) measures how many equivalent
years of full health on average a newborn baby is
132. Religious beliefs and practices appear to vary by: expected to have. This age takes into account current

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 Developmental Psychology
age-specific mortality, morbidity, and disability risks and D. Centenarian
is referred to as the:
A. Adjusted Life Span 16. Older adults above the age of 100 comprise the
B. Prorated Life Expectancy ________ category.
C. Healthy Life Expectancy A. Young-old
D. Corrected Life Span B. Old-old
C. Oldest-old
9. According to the Centers for Disease Control data D. Centenarian
collected in 2006-2007, which of the following
statements about Health Life Expectancy (HLE) in the 17. When compared to adults over 85, the young-old
U.S. is TRUE? tend to have better functioning in:
A. The highest HLE was observed in Wisconsin A. Health
B. HLE was equal across racial and ethnic groups in most B. Social engagement
states C. Cognitive skills
C. Females had a lower HLE than males at age 65 years D. All of the above
D. Overall, the lowest HLE was among southern states
18. The term “fourth age” is sometimes used to describe
10. Children born in the United States today may be the people in the ___________ age group.
first generation to have a shorter life span than their A. Young-old
parents. B. Old-old
A. True C. Oldest-old
B. False D. Centenarian

11. Children born in the United States today may be the 19. Which age group accounts for only 2% of the U. S.
first generation to have a shorter life span than their population, but 9% of all hospitalizations?
parents due to increasing rates of: A. Young-old
A. Obesity B. Old-old
B. Unhealthy eating habits C. Oldest-old
C. Physical inactivity D. Centenarian
D. All of the above
20. According to your book, which of the following is
12. In terms of developmental biology, women are the NOT one of the most common reasons for
“default” sex. The term “default” means that: hospitalization for the oldest-old?
A. Women outlive men A. Congestive heart failure
B. Males are heterogametic (XY), whereas females are B. Influenza
homogametic (XX) C. Urinary tract infections
C. The creation of a male individual requires a sequence of D. Hip fractures
events at a molecular level
D. Women are, on average, at lower risk of certain 21. Although those 85 and older are more likely to
conditions than men require long-term care and to be in nursing homes than
the youngest-old, most still live in the community rather
13. Reasons why women tend to live longer than men than a nursing home.
include: A. True
A. The protective effect of estrogen B. False
B. Men tend to have more dangerous jobs
C. Men are more susceptible to bacterial and viral infections 22. In general, centenarians are likely to be in
D. All of the above __________ health compared to many other adults.
A. Worse
14. Older adults between the ages of 65 and 84 comprise B. Better
the ________ category. C. The same quality
A. Young-old
B. Old-old 23. Theories of aging that follow a biological timetable,
C. Oldest-old possibly a continuation of childhood development, are
D. Centenarian called _________ theories.
A. Sensorineural
15. Older adults between the ages of 85 and 99 comprise B. Longitudinal
the ________ category. C. Programmed
A. Young-old D. Damage
B. Old-old
C. Oldest-old

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 Developmental Psychology
24. Theories of aging emphasizing environmental 31. Research has conclusively demonstrated that adding
factors that cause cumulative damage in organisms are antioxidants to our diets reduces the effects of free
called _________ theories. radical damage.
A. Sensorineural A. True
B. Longitudinal B. False
C. Programmed
D. Damage 32. The life sustaining activities of the body are called:
A. Eustress
25. At the end of each chromosomal strand is a B. Acute stress
sequence of DNA that does not code for any particular C. Chronic stress
protein, but protects the rest of the chromosome. This D. Metabolic stress
sequence of DNA is called a:
A. Telecaster 33. The innate immune system is composed of the:
B. Telodendron A. Skin, mucous membranes, cough reflex, stomach acid,
C. Telomere and specialized cells that alert the body of an impending
D. Teleplasm threat
B. Cellular changes that occur following immunization or
26. As our cells replicate, what happens to our exposure to bacteria or viruses that results in the body
telomeres? developing immunity
A. They get stronger C. Tonsils, spleen, bone marrow, thymus, circulatory system
B. They get shorter and the lymphatic system that work to produce and transport
C. They take on new functions T cells
D. They create new cells of their own D. Antibodies that are produced in a body other than our
own, such as the antibodies transferred from mother to infant
27. When the telomeres get too short, one of three through the placenta
things can happen. When “cellular senescence” occurs:
A. A cell ceases to replicate by turning itself off 34. The adaptive immune system is composed of the:
B. A cell takes on new functions A. Skin, mucous membranes, cough reflex, stomach acid,
C. A cell continues to divide and becomes abnormal and specialized cells that alert the body of an impending
D. A cell ceases to replicate by dying threat
B. Cellular changes that occur following immunization or
28. When the telomeres get too short, one of three exposure to bacteria or viruses that results in the body
things can happen. When “apoptosis” occurs: developing immunity
A. A cell ceases to replicate by turning itself off C. Tonsils, spleen, bone marrow, thymus, circulatory system
B. A cell takes on new functions and the lymphatic system that work to produce and transport
C. A cell continues to divide and becomes abnormal T cells
D. A cell ceases to replicate by dying D. Antibodies that are produced in a body other than our
own, such as the antibodies transferred from mother to infant
29. The mitochondria is: through the placenta
A. The finely branched terminal of an axon
B. A cell organelle that uses oxygen to produce energy from 35. Hormonal Stress Theory suggests that as we age,
food the ability of the ____________to regulate hormones in
C. A molecule that is missing an electron and creates the body begins to decline, leading to metabolic
instability in surrounding molecules by taking electrons from problems.
them A. Thyroid gland
D. A chemical compound that counteracts the deterioration B. Pineal gland
of stored food products C. Pituitary gland
D. Hypothalamus
30. A free radical is:
A. The finely branched terminal of an axon 36. After age 30, people tend to lose _______ tissue and
B. A cell organelle that uses oxygen to produce energy from gain _________ tissue.
food A. Lean, fat
C. A molecule that is missing an electron and creates B. Fat, lean
instability in surrounding molecules by taking electrons from
them 37. Years exposed to the sun may lead to:
D. A chemical compound that counteracts the deterioration A. Cancer
of stored food products B. Wrinkles
C. Age spots
D. All of the above

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 Developmental Psychology
38. Common skin changes in older adults include: 47. Tinnitus is:
A. Skin tags, especially in women A. A ringing, hissing, or roaring sound in the ears
B. More frequent bruising B. The experience of dizziness caused by fluid problems in
C. Longer healing time for cuts and scratches the inner ear
D. All of the above C. A common form of hearing loss in late adulthood that
results in a gradual loss of hearing
39. The loss of muscle tissue as a natural part of aging D. An injury to the ear caused by changes in air or water
is called: pressure
A. Sarcomeria
B. Sarcopenia 48. Presbycusis is:
C. Sarcoma A. A ringing, hissing, or roaring sound in the ears
D. Sarcoidosis B. The experience of dizziness caused by fluid problems in
the inner ear
40. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in your C. A common form of hearing loss in late adulthood that
book as a factor contributing to sarcopenia? results in a gradual loss of hearing
A. Reduction in nerve cells responsible for sending signals to D. An injury to the ear caused by changes in air or water
the muscles from the brain to begin moving pressure
B. Decrease in the ability to turn protein into energy
C. Exposure to environmental toxins 49. Smell loss due to aging is called:
D. Not receiving enough calories or protein to sustain A. Anosmia
adequate muscle mass B. Dysosmia
C. Presbyosmia
41. People tend to get shorter as they move into old age. D. Phantosmia
A. True
B. False 50. Older adults often show increasing insensitivity to
pressure, temperature, or pain, putting them at risk for
42. _________ is/are a clouding of the lens of the eye. injury.
A. Macular degeneration A. True
B. Glaucoma B. False
C. Presbyopia
D. Cataracts 51. Chronic pain can lead to other problems such as:
A. Decline in physical activity
43. In nations in which medical care is limited, cataracts B. Sleep and mood disorders
are a leading cause of blindness. C. Greater disability
A. True D. All of the above
B. False
52. Total loss of smell is called:
44. _________ is/are a loss of clarity in the center field of A. Anosmia
vision, due to the deterioration of the macula, the center B. Dysosmia
of the retina. C. Presbyosmia
A. Macular degeneration D. Phantosmia
B. /Glaucoma
C. Presbyopia 53. The “MyPlate for Older Adults” guide from Tufts
D. Cataracts University suggests that 50% of an older adult’s diet
should consist of:
45. ___________ is/are the loss of peripheral vision, A. Lean meats
frequently due to a buildup of fluid in eye that damages B. Whole grains
the optic nerve. C. Fruits and vegetables
A. Macular degeneration D. Fats and sugars
B. Glaucoma
C. Presbyopia 54. According to Table 9.6 on page 368 of your book, the
D. Cataracts most common chronic condition is:
A. Diabetes
46. According to your book, the most common cause of B. Osteoporosis
blindness in the United States is: C. Stroke
A. Macular degeneration D. High cholesterol
B. Glaucoma
C. Diabetic retinopathy 55. Treating cancer in older adults is challenging
D. Cataracts because:

73
 Developmental Psychology
A. Chemotherapy may exacerbate dementia and elderly D. Shingles can produce blindness if a person experiences
cognitive declines blisters near their eye
B. Aging is associated with a decline in multiple organ
systems that can adversely affect the ability of medications 63. The brain decreases in weight as we age. Which of
to treat the cancer the following is NOT mentioned in your book as a
C. Older adults are likely to have other medical conditions reason for this decrease?
that can complicate treatment A. Shrinkage of neurons
D. All of the above B. Lower number of synapses
C. Loss of myelin
56. Atherosclerosis is an unavoidable part of normal D. Shorter length of axons
aging.
A. True 64. The theory that the brain adapts to neural atrophy
B. False (dying of brain cells) by building alternative connections
is called the:
57. As bones weaken in the spine, adults gradually lose A. Dopamine hypothesis
height and their posture becomes hunched over, which B. Scaffolding theory of aging and cognition
is called: C. Neural proliferation hypothesis
A. Osteoporosis D. Role stress relief hypothesis
B. Scoliosis
C. Kyphosis 65. Cognitive training programs for older adults:
D. Hyperhydrosis A. Have been shown to delay or slow the progression of
Alzheimer’s disease
58. The disease that thins and weakens bones to the B. Are more effective at maintaining cognitive functioning
point that they become fragile and break easily is called: than physical exercise, learning new skills, and socializing
A. Osteoporosis C. Have been found to improve generalization of cognitive
B. Scoliosis skills to other tasks
C. Kyphosis D. None of the above
D. Hyperhydrosis
66. ________ is a disease characterized by motor
59. __________ is a progressive lung disease in which tremors, loss of balance, poor coordination, rigidity, and
the airways become damaged, making it difficult to difficulty moving.
breathe. A. Huntington’s disease
A. Tuberculosis B. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Asthma C. Parkinson’s disease
C. Pneumonia D. Meniere’s disease
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
67. Treatment for Parkinson’s disease often involves
60. Shingles is a disease that affects your nerves, medication that affects which neurotransmitter?
caused by the same virus that causes: A. Serotonin
A. Measles B. Dopamine
B. Influenza C. Epinephrine
C. Chicken pox D. Norepinephrine
D. Mumps
68. Which of the following appears to significantly
61. ___________ is a disease in which the liver becomes increase a person’s risk of developing Parkinson’s
scarred and does not function properly. disease?
A. Diverticulosis A. Brain injury that results in loss of consciousness
B. Cirrhosis B. Exposure to radiation
C. Cellulosis C. A high-sodium diet
D. Halitosis D. Being born prematurely

62. Which of the following statements about shingles is 69. The term “advanced sleep phase syndrome” means
FALSE? that:
A. People who had the chicken pox when they were younger A. Older adults need less sleep than adults of other ages
do not have to worry about getting shingles B. Older adults are more likely to experience insomnia than
B. A person can catch the chicken pox from someone with other sleep problems
shingles C. Older adults tend to go to sleep earlier and get up earlier
C. Shingles can produce a lasting pain condition that impairs than younger adults
daily functioning D. All of the above

74
 Developmental Psychology
70. People who have repeated short pauses in breathing 79. If there is a decline in sexual activity for a
that can lead to reduced oxygen in the blood are said to heterosexual couple, it is typically due to a decline in the
have: male’s physical health.
A. Periodic limb movement disorder A. True
B. Sleep apnea B. False
C. Restless legs syndrome
D. Rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder 80. Working memory is composed of three major
systems. The one that oversees working memory,
71. People who jerk and kick their legs every 20 to 40 allocating resources where needed and monitoring
seconds during sleep are said to have: whether cognitive strategies are being effective, is the:
A. Periodic limb movement disorder A. Central executive
B. Sleep apnea B. Visuospatial sketchpad
C. Restless legs syndrome C. Phonological loop
D. Rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder D. Auditory processor

72. People who feel tingling, crawling, or pins and 81. Working memory is composed of three major
needles sensations in one or both legs that worsens at systems. Which one appears to be most negatively
night are said to have: impacted by age?
A. Periodic limb movement disorder A. Central executive
B. Sleep apnea B. Visuospatial sketchpad
C. Restless legs syndrome C. Phonological loop
D. Rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder D. Auditory processor

73. People whose muscles move during REM sleep and 82. Working memory is composed of three major
therefore disrupt their sleep are said to have: systems. The one that maintains information about
A. Periodic limb movement disorder visual stimuli is the:
B. Sleep apnea A. Central executive
C. Restless legs syndrome B. Visuospatial sketchpad
D. Rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder C. Phonological loop
D. Auditory processor
74. Exercise appears to improve sleep quality.
A. True 83. Working memory is composed of three major
B. False systems. The one that maintains information about
auditory stimuli is the:
75. Sleep problems in older adults are associated with: A. Central executive
A. Increased risk of falls B. Visuospatial sketchpad
B. Reduced immune function C. Phonological loop
C. Cognitive decline D. Auditory processor
D. All of the above
84. Which type of long-term memory shows the greatest
76. According to the National Survey of Sexual Health, declines with aging?
20%-30% of individuals remain sexually active: A. Semantic
A. Until they reach their 50s B. Episodic
B. Until they reach their 60s C. Implicit
C. Until they reach their 70s D. Trick question! All of them show equal decline with aging
D. Well into their 80s
85. The “tip-of-the-tongue” phenomenon involves:
77. Results from the National Social Life Health, and A. Declines in oral-motor skills with aging
Aging Project indicated that ______ of men and aged 52 B. Declines in taste sensitivity with aging
to 72 reported being sexually active. C. A “block” at retrieving information that we know
A. 45% D. Improvements in vocabulary with aging
B. 72%
C. 30% 86. If you were shown pictures of food and asked to rate
D. 20% their appearance and then later were asked to complete
words such as s_ _ p, you may be more likely to write
78. A change in marital status is more likely to affect the soup than soap, or ship. This is an example of:
sexual behavior of older women than older men. A. Semantic memory enhancement
A. True B. Central processing disorder
B. False C. Facilitated communication
D. Priming

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 Developmental Psychology

87. Prospective memory involves: 95. Possible non-cognitive explanations for cognitive
A. Remembering things we need to do in the future differences between younger and older adults include:
B. Using executive functions to track multiple tasks A. Decreased sensory function in older adults
simultaneously B. Older adults’ greater need for cognitive tasks to be
C. Using previously learned information to make decisions meaningful
about new information C. An overreliance on cross-sectional versus longitudinal
D. Recognizing information previously presented research
D. All of the above
88. Having to remember to do something at a future time
is called _______-based prospective memory. 96. Cultural exposure to facts and procedures is called
A. Future the ____________ of intelligence.
B. Time A. Mechanics
C. Proactive B. Pragmatics
D. Event C. Informatics
D. Automatics
89. Having to remember to do something when a certain
event occurs is called _______-based prospective 97. The pragmatics of intelligence ___________ with age.
memory. A. Are maintained
A. Future B. Decline
B. Time
C. Proactive 98. The pragmatics of intelligence are similar to the
D. Event concept of ___________ intelligence.
A. Interpersonal
90. Recognition tasks are usually easier because they B. Intrapersonal
require less cognitive energy. C. Fluid
A. True D. Crystallized
B. False
99. Aspects of intelligence that are dependent on brain
91. Older adults show larger declines in _________ functioning are called the ____________ of intelligence.
memory compared to younger adults. A. Mechanics
A. Recall B. Pragmatics
B. Recognition C. Informatics
C. Procedural D. Automatics
D. All of the above
100. The mechanics of intelligence ___________ with
92. In terms of attention changes in late adulthood, older age.
adults: A. Are maintained
A. Are less able to selectively focus on information while B. Decline
ignoring distractors
B. Require more time to perform at young adult levels 101. The mechanics of intelligence are similar to the
C. Have greater difficulty shifting their attention between concept of ___________ intelligence.
objects or locations A. Interpersonal
D. All of the above B. Intrapersonal
C. Fluid
93. The idea that our ability to process information D. Crystallized
declines as the nervous system slows with advanced
age is called: 102. The ability to use the accumulated knowledge about
A. Inhibition theory practical matters that allows for sound judgment and
B. Directed forgetting decision making is called:
C. Processing speed theory A. Common sense
D. Accommodation theory B. Implicit memory
C. Procedural memory
94. The idea that older adults have difficulty focusing on D. Wisdom
certain information while suppressing attention to less
pertinent information tasks is called: 103. Research suggests that life experiences, rather
A. Inhibition theory than just age, are stronger predictors of wisdom.
B. Directed forgetting A. True
C. Processing speed theory B. False
D. Accommodation theory

76
 Developmental Psychology
104. A significant cognitive decline from a previous level A. A general loss of neurons
of performance in one or more cognitive domains and B. Microscopic protein deposits in neurons
interferes with independent functioning is called a C. A blockage of cerebral blood vessels that usually affects
_______ neurocognitive disorder. only one part of the brain
A. Major D. Tremors and slowing of movement in addition to cognitive
B. Minor decline
C. Primary
D. Secondary 113. Neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies is
associated with:
105. A modest cognitive decline from a previous level of A. A general loss of neurons
performance in one of more cognitive domains and does B. Microscopic protein deposits in neurons
not interfere with independent functioning is called a C. A blockage of cerebral blood vessels that usually affects
_______ neurocognitive disorder. only one part of the brain
A. Major D. Overuse of certain types of medications
B. Minor
C. Primary 114. ____________ involves both cognitive and motor
D. Secondary symptoms, similar to Parkinson’s disease.
A. Vascular neurocognitive disorder
106. At this time, among the top 10 causes of death in B. Pick’s disease
America, Alzheimer's disease is the only one that cannot C. Neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies
be prevented or cured. D. Alzheimer’s disease
A. True
B. False 115. People who get another job after being fully retired
but work in a different field from the one in which they
107. Alzheimer’s disease involves changes in: retired are said to have:
A. Personality A. Encore careers
B. Cognitive functioning B. Recidivism
C. Physical coordination C. Bridge jobs
D. All of the above D. Adjunct positions

108. The greatest risk factor for developing Alzheimer’s 116. People who get part-time jobs as a transition
disease is: between a career and full retirement are said to have:
A. Exposure to aluminum A. Encore careers
B. Lack of physical activity B. Recidivism
C. Age C. Bridge jobs
D. Premature birth D. Adjunct positions

109. _____ is an important protein that helps maintain 117. According to your book, the average age of
the brain’s transport system. retirement is currently:
A. Alpha A. 70 years
B. Sigma B. 65 years
C. Tau C. 63 years
D. Beta D. 60 years

110. Neurons in the ___________ are among the first to 118. Which of the following laws and regulations can
be damaged in Alzheimer’s disease. influence a person’s decision to retire?
A. Cerebellum A. Eligibility for Medicare
B. Thalamus B. Eligibility for Social Security benefits
C. Reticular formation C. Specific occupations have mandatory retirement ages
D. Hippocampus D. All of the above

111. Beta-amyloid plaques appear to: 119. The main reason that people choose to delay
A. Replicate rapidly and encourage the formation of new retirement is:
plaques A. They are not emotionally ready to think of themselves as
B. Block cell communication in the brain old enough to retire
C. Strip axons of myelin B. They have not yet developed hobbies to keep them busy
D. All of the above C. They may not have the financial resources
D. They enjoy working so much that they can’t imagine
112. Vascular neurocognitive disorder is associated making changes
with:

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 Developmental Psychology
120. Atchley (1994) identified several phases that 127. People who live in cultures with negative
individuals ago through when they retire. In which stereotypes about aging, and who believe those
phase do people establish concrete plans for negative stereotypes, are likely to:
retirement? A. Experience declines in memory and other cognitive skills
A. Immediate pre-retirement phase B. Have more difficulty recovering from illnesses
B. Remote pre-retirement phase C. Experience more stress and anxiety
C. Reorientation phase D. All of the above
D. Honeymoon phase
128. The term “triple jeopardy” is used to describe a
121. Atchley (1994) identified several phases that situation in which:
individuals ago through when they retire. In which A. People do not have at least three sources of social
phase do people experience an emotional let-down? support
A. Remote pre-retirement phase B. Older minority women face a combination of ageism,
B. Actual retirement racism, and sexism
C. Disenchantment phase C. A person has at least three life-threatening illnesses
D. Honeymoon phase D. A person has at least three factors that increase their
suicide risk
122. Atchley (1994) identified several phases that
individuals ago through when they retire. In which 129. The poverty rate for older adults is consistent
phase do people attempt to adjust to retirement by across gender, marital status, race, and age.
making less hectic plans and getting into a regular A. True
routine? B. False
A. Honeymoon phase
B. Reorientation phase 130. Which of the following groups is MOST likely to live
C. Immediate pre-retirement phase in poverty?
D. Disenchantment phase A. Caucasian older men
B. African American older men
123. _____________ is a program that provides C. Hispanic women
educational opportunities and travel experiences for D. African American older women
older adults.
A. Senioritis 131. 2014 statistics indicate that men 65 years of age
B. Age of Enlightenment and older are most likely to live:
C. Golden Road Experiences A. In a nursing home
D. Road Scholar B. With their spouse
C. With adult children or other family members
124. When the belief in one’s ability results in actions D. Alone
that make it come true, this is called a:
A. Self-serving bias 132. In general, women 65 years of age and older are
B. Positive reinforcer least likely to live:
C. Self-fulfilling prophecy A. With non-relatives such as friends
D. Stereotype threat B. With their spouse
C. With adult children or other family members
125. Being the target of stereotypes can adversely affect D. Alone
individuals’ performance on tasks because they worry
they will confirm the cultural stereotypes. This is called 133. Which group is least likely to live in
a: multigenerational households?
A. Self-serving bias A. Asian
B. Positive reinforcer B. Hispanic
C. Self-fulfilling prophecy C. African American
D. Stereotype threat D. Caucasian

126. People who live in cultures with negative 134. According to the United States Department of
stereotypes about aging, and who believe those Health and Human Services, in 2015 _________ of older
negative stereotypes, are likely to experience declines in adults lived in a nursing home.
memory and other cognitive skills. A. 3.2%
A. True B. 1.9%
B. False C. 10.4%
D. 7.4%

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 Developmental Psychology
135. According to Erber and Szuchman (2015), the
majority of older adults do not move to a different 142. Approximately _________ of grandparents raising
residence after retirement. their grandchildren are at least 65 years old.
A. True A. 5%
B. False B. 18%
C. 25%
136. According to Erikson, the stage in life in which we D. 46%
make a retrospective accounting of our life to date and
evaluate how much one embraces life as having been 143. The idea that the social connections that people
well lived, as opposed to regretting missed accumulate differ in levels of closeness and are held
opportunities, is the stage of: together by exchanges in social support is called:
A. Initiative versus guilt A. Socioemotional selectivity theory
B. Generativity versus stagnation B. Selective optimization with compensation
C. Ego integrity versus despair C. Activity theory
D. Intimacy versus isolation D. Convoy model of social relations

137. Successfully resolving the crisis of Ego integrity 144. The idea that as we age, we change our motivation
versus Despair requires: for actively seeking social contact with others is called:
A. Finding meaning in one’s life and accepting one’s A. Socioemotional selectivity theory
accomplishments B. Selective optimization with compensation
B. Acknowledging what in life has not gone as hoped C. Activity theory
C. Feeling a sense of contentment and accepting others’ D. Convoy model of social relations
deficiencies, including those of one’s parents
D. All of the above 145. Socioemotional selectivity theory is supported by
research indicating that:
138. According to Erikson, successfully resolving the A. Older adults have smaller networks compared to young
crisis of Ego integrity versus Despair is necessary in adults
order to achieve: B. Older partners show more affectionate behavior during
A. Closure conflict discussions than do middle-aged partners
B. Wisdom C. Compared to younger adults, older adults often avoid
C. Postformal thinking negative interactions
D. Fluid intelligence D. All of the above

139. More positive views on aging and greater health are 146. Older parents of adult children who provided
noted with those who keep active than those who isolate _______ support tended to report greater life
themselves and disengage with others. This is satisfaction, but older adults whose children provided
consistent with: ________ support reported less life satisfaction.
A. Socioemotional selectivity theory A. Emotional, informational
B. Selective optimization with compensation B. Financial, emotional
C. Activity theory C. Informational, emotional
D. Convoy model of social relations D. Informational, financial

140. Which of the following statements about 147. Having a friend as a confidante appears to provide
volunteering in later life is FALSE? more health-related benefits to recent widows than
A. The number of hours older adults volunteer declines having a family member as a confidante.
significantly in their early 70s A. True
B. About 40% of older adults engage in volunteerism B. False
C. Religious organizations, hospitals, and environmental
groups are common volunteer outlets for older adults 148. Your book uses the term __________ to describe
D. Volunteering is associated with positive factors such as the discrepancy between the social contact a person
better health and life satisfaction has and the contacts a person wants.
A. Solitude
141. When grandparents take over the task of raising B. Social isolation
their grandchildren, they may face challenges because: C. Loneliness
A. Older adults have far less energy D. Autonomy
B. Traumatic events are usually the reason behind them
taking over this task 149. The Social Readjustment Rating Scale rates
C. They face financial, health, education, and housing ___________ as the most significant possible stressor in
challenges that often derail their retirement plans a person’s life.
D. All of the above A. Being diagnosed with a terminal illness

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 Developmental Psychology
B. The death of a spouse
C. The death of a child 158. A 2010 research study indicated that ______ of
D. Being incarcerated adults 50 and over who were single or had a new sexual
partner reported using a condom the last time they had
150. Older adults are more likely to adjust better to the sex.
death of a spouse if they: A. 10%
A. Are more extroverted B. 25%
B. Have higher self-efficacy C. 40%
C. Get positive support from adult children D. 60%
D. All of the above
159. Older adults who remarry often find that their
151. The context of a spouse’s death, such as whether remarriages are less stable than those of younger
or not the death occurred after a lengthy illness, is an adults.
important factor in how people may react. A. True
A. True B. False
B. False
160. When compared to heterosexual elders, lesbian and
152. There is a higher risk of death after the death of a gay elders have less support from others as they are:
spouse. This is called the: A. More likely to live alone
A. Comorbidity effect B. Less likely to have adult children
B. Widowhood mortality effect C. Likely to be discriminated against
C. Terminal drop D. All of the above
D. Thanatoptic syndrome
161. Cross-sectional research may not be appropriate
153. Which of the following statements about divorce for examining the experiences of LGBT elders because:
and older adults is TRUE? A. There are ethical issues with recruiting participants
A. Adults age 65 and over are more likely to divorce than B. The sample size will not be large enough to draw valid
middle-aged and young adults conclusions
B. Men who divorce are more likely to experience financial C. Today’s cohort of LGBT elders grew up in times when
difficulties social attitudes about homosexuality were different than they
C. Women who divorce are more likely to remain single are now
D. Adult children of divorced parents offer more support and D. People cannot be randomly assigned to groups based on
care to their fathers than their mothers sexual orientation or gender identity

154. The online dating patterns of older adults are 162. Which of the following statements about elder
similar to those of young and middle-aged adults. abuse is TRUE?
A. True A. Cognitive impairment is the greatest risk factor for elder
B. False abuse
B. Approximately 4.3 million older Americans are affected by
155. Opportunities to develop close relationships often at least one form of elder abuse per year
diminish in later life as social networks decrease C. Elders between 60 and 69 years of age are more
because of: susceptible to elder abuse than those older
A. Retirement D. All of the above
B. Relocation
C. The death of friends and loved ones 163. The most common form of elder abuse is
D. All of the above __________ abuse.
A. Financial
156. Reasons commonly cited by older women for not B. Emotional
wanting to remarry include: C. Physical
A. Wanting to maintain their autonomy D. Sexual
B. Not wanting to merge their finances with someone else
C. Not wanting to care for an ill partner 164. Perpetrators of elder abuse are more likely to be
D. All of the above family members than paid workers such as home health
aides or nursing home staff.
157. Nearly _____ of people living with HIV/AIDS in the A. True
United States are 50 or older. B. False
A. 10%
B. 25% 165. Although there do not seem to be racial or ethnic
C. 40% group differences in elder abuse prevalence, cultural
D. 60%

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 Developmental Psychology
norms regarding what constitutes abuse do differ based A. Cannabis appears to relieve some of the symptoms of
on ethnicity. Parkinson’s disease and chronic pain
A. True B. Adults aged 65-79 were more likely to use cannabis than
B. False older adults
C. Among Baby Boomers, married men were most likely to
166. Which of the following statistics about substance use cannabis
abuse in older adults is TRUE? D. All of the above
A. Nearly 50 percent of nursing home residents have alcohol
related problems
Chapter 10 ⏐ Death and Dying
B. 14 percent of elderly emergency room admissions are a
result of alcohol or drug problems
C. Older adults are hospitalized as often for alcoholic related 1. The Uniform Determination of Death Act defines
problems as for heart attacks death as occurring when there has been irreversible
D. All of the above cessation of function in:
A. The circulatory system
167. Which of the following factors can make it difficult B. The brain, including the brain stem
to identify substance abuse problems in older adults? C. The respiratory system
A. Stereotypes of older adults can result in a diagnosis of D. Any of the above
cognitive impairment instead of a substance use disorder
B. Stigma and shame about use may keep older adults from 2. According to your book, which of the following does
seeking assistance NOT typically happen in the weeks before passing?
C. Older adults may participate in fewer activities (such as A. Reaching in air or picking at covers
jobs) where substance abuse would be easily noticed B. Restlessness or disorientation
D. All of the above C. Increase in the need for sleep
D. Incontinence of bladder and/or bowel
168. Family physicians may be more likely prescribe
benzodiazepines and opioids to older adults to deal with 3. According to your book, which of the following does
psychosocial and pain problems rather than prescribe NOT typically happen in the days before passing?
alternatives such as therapy. A. Murmuring to people others cannot see
A. True B. Inability to swallow
B. False C. Minimal appetite; prefer easily digested foods
D. Decreased level of consciousness
169. Why might older adults be especially sensitive to
the effects of drugs and alcohol? 4. According to your book, which of the following does
A. The age-related decrease in the ratio between lean body NOT typically happen in the days to hours before
mass and fat makes them more susceptible to the effects of passing?
drugs and alcohol A. Pauses in breathing
B. Older adults are likely to be taking other medications, B. Decreased urine volume and urine color darkens
which can result in unpredictable interactions C. Knees, feet, and/or hand discoloring to purplish hue
C. Liver enzymes that metabolize alcohol become less D. Decreased urine volume and urine color darkens
efficient with age
D. All of the above 5. ____________ occurs when others begin to
dehumanize and withdraw from someone who is
170. When an elder makes adjustments, as needed, in terminally ill or has been diagnosed with a terminal
order to continue living as independently and actively as illness.
possible, this is called: A. Psychological death
A. Socioemotional selectivity theory B. Emotional death
B. Selective optimization with compensation C. Social death
C. Activity theory D. Adaptational death
D. Convoy model of social relations
6. Why do people sometimes dehumanize and
171. In general, successful aging involves: withdraw from someone who is terminally ill?
A. Relative avoidance of disease, disability, and risk factors, A. Health professionals, trained to heal, may feel
like high blood pressure, smoking, or obesity inadequate and uncomfortable facing decline and
B. Maintenance of high physical and cognitive functioning death
C. Active engagement in social and productive activities B. Friends and family members may feel that they do
D. All of the above not know what to say or that they can offer no
solutions to relieve suffering
172. Which of the following statements about cannabis C. Psychologically, it keeps the well person from
use in older adults is TRUE? thinking of themselves as becoming ill or in need of
assistance
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 Developmental Psychology
D. All of the above 15. Infants typically show no reaction to being
separated from a parent who has died.
7. In 1900, the most common causes of death in the A. True
U.S. were: B. False
A. Different forms of cardiovascular disease
B. Accidents 16. Until the age of 9, children are likely to:
C. Different forms of cancer A. Feel guilty and responsible for the death of a loved
D. Infectious diseases one
B. Believe that through their thoughts they can bring
8. According to Figure 10.2 on page 414 in your someone back to life
textbook, currently, the most common cause of C. Assume that death is temporary or reversible
death in the U.S. comes from: D. All of the above
A. Different forms of cardiovascular disease
B. Accidents 17. Despite a preoccupation with thoughts of death, the
C. Diabetes __________ of adolescence causes them to feel
D. Infectious diseases immune to death and may lead to risky behavior.
A. Imaginary audience
9. From age 1 until age 44, the most common cause of B. Personal fable
death in the U.S. is: C. Formal operational thinking
A. Malignant neoplasms D. Maturation of the frontal lobes
B. Unintentional injury
C. Congenital abnormalities 18. Those in ______ adulthood report the most fear of
D. Suicide death.
A. Early
10. For adults over age 65, currently, the most common B. Middle
cause of death in the U.S. comes from: C. Late
A. Different forms of cardiovascular disease D. Trick question! Adults in all age groups report equal
B. Accidents fear of death
C. Diabetes
D. Infectious diseases 19. Why do adults in late adulthood have the least fear
of death?
11. In high-income countries, the most deaths occur in A. Older adults have fewer caregiving responsibilities
which age group? and are not worried about leaving family members
A. Under 15 years on their own
B. 70 years and older B. They have had more time to complete activities
C. 25-39 years they had planned in their lives
D. 40-60 years C. They have less anxiety because they have already
experienced the death of loved ones
12. In low-income countries, the most deaths occur in D. All of the above
which age group?
A. Under 15 years 20. It is not death itself that concerns those in late
B. 70 years and older adulthood; rather, it is having control over how they
C. 25-39 years die.
D. 40-60 years A. True
B. False
13. In low-income countries, the most deaths occur
from which cause? 21. __________ care is designed to overcome disease
A. Different forms of cardiovascular disease and illness.
B. Accidents A. Restorative
C. Diabetes B. Curative
D. Infectious diseases C. Palliative
D. Hospice
14. In the United States, more Americans die in
_________ than in any other settings. 22. __________ care focuses on providing comfort and
A. Their own homes relief from physical and emotional pain to patients
B. Nursing homes throughout their illness, even while being treated.
C. Hospitals A. Restorative
D. Hospice facilities B. Curative
C. Palliative
D. Hospice

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 Developmental Psychology
31. A living will is a:
23. __________ care provides terminally ill patients with A. Written or video statement that outlines the health
medical, psychological, and spiritual support, along care initiates the person wishes under certain
with support for their families. circumstances
A. Restorative B. Document that names the person who should make
B. Curative health care decisions in the event that the patient is
C. Palliative incapacitated
D. Hospice C. Document that specifies what a person wants done
with their possessions after they die
24. Hospice care was first developed in: D. Document that a medical professional writes on
A. Japan behalf of a seriously ill patient
B. The United States
C. The United Kingdom 32. A durable power of attorney for health care
D. Saudi Arabia agreement is a:
A. Written or video statement that outlines the health
25. Which of the following is NOT a typical part of care initiates the person wishes under certain
hospice care? circumstances
A. Pain and symptom management for the patient B. Document that names the person who should make
B. Bereavement counseling for the family up to one health care decisions in the event that the patient is
year after the patient’s death incapacitated
C. Coordination of all medical services C. Document that specifies what a person wants done
D. Trick question! These are all typical parts of hospice with their possessions after they die
care D. Document that a medical professional writes on
behalf of a seriously ill patient
26. Most hospice patients are people with:
A. Alzheimer’s disease 33. A medical order is a:
B. Cancer A. Written or video statement that outlines the health
C. Heart disease care initiates the person wishes under certain
D. AIDS circumstances
B. Document that names the person who should make
27. All ethnic groups and cultures have the same health care decisions in the event that the patient is
amount of enthusiasm about hospice care. incapacitated
A. True C. Document that specifies what a person wants done
B. False with their possessions after they die
D. Document that a medical professional writes on
28. Family caregiving can be difficult because: behalf of a seriously ill patient
A. Caregiving may be physically demanding
B. Caregiving may interfere with other obligations, 34. Documents like living wills and durable power of
such as work and child care attorney agreements are collectively referred to as:
C. Family caregivers often receive little training or A. Long-term care insurance
guidance B. Last rites
D. All of the above C. Conservatorships
D. Advance directives
29. According to Table 10.3 on page 420 of your book,
the annual cost of lost productivity due to family 35. Cultural factors strongly influence how doctors,
caregivers’ absenteeism from working due to other health care providers, and family members
providing care is: communicate bad news to patients, the
A. $3 billion expectations regarding who makes the health care
B. $60 million decisions, and attitudes about end-of-life care.
C. $25.2 billion A. True
D. $34.3 million B. False

30. The term “advance care planning” refers to: 36. Not all cultures view the patient as being the
A. Arrangements made for hospice care when primary decision-maker for health care issues.
someone is terminally ill A. True
B. All documents that pertain to end-of-life care B. False
C. Pre-paying funeral arrangements to save costs
down the road 37. __________ are more likely than other groups to
D. Purchasing long-term care insurance in middle age prefer to have treatment stopped if they have a
terminal illness.

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 Developmental Psychology
A. Hispanic people participating in traditional funeral rites (e.g., if a
B. African American people person is missing and presumed dead or a family
C. Asian people member is unable to attend a funeral ceremony).
D. Caucasian people A. True
B. False
38. ____________ is defined as intentionally ending
one’s life when suffering from a terminal illness or 46. The ____________ funeral rites are heavily based in
severe disability. this culture’s belief in reincarnation.
A. Thanatopsis A. Roman Catholic
B. Parricide B. Muslim
C. Euthanasia C. Hindu
D. End-of-life care D. Orthodox Jewish

39. Which of the following states does NOT currently 47. The ____________ funeral rites have three parts: A
allow physician-assisted suicide? wake, a funeral mass, and a graveside ceremony.
A. Oregon A. Roman Catholic
B. Montana B. Muslim
C. Wisconsin C. Hindu
D. Colorado D. Orthodox Jewish

40. Intentionally ending the life of a terminally ill person, 48. The ____________ funeral rites involve placing the
such as through an overdose of medication, is deceased person’s body on their right side, facing
called: Mecca.
A. Passive euthanasia A. Roman Catholic
B. Hospice care B. Muslim
C. Active euthanasia C. Hindu
D. Physician-assisted suicide D. Orthodox Jewish

41. When a physician prescribes the means by which a 49. The ____________ funeral rites include the
person can die, this is called: deceased person’s family receiving visitors in their
A. Passive euthanasia home after the burial, a practice known as “sitting
B. Hospice care shiva”.
C. Active euthanasia A. Roman Catholic
D. Physician-assisted suicide B. Muslim
C. Hindu
42. When life-sustaining support is withdrawn, this is D. Orthodox Jewish
called:
A. Passive euthanasia 50. The emotional process of reacting to a loss is
B. Hospice care called:
C. Active euthanasia A. Grief
D. Physician-assisted suicide B. Mourning
C. Bereavement
43. A person seeking physician-assisted suicide in the D. All of the above, because all of these terms mean
U.S. must: the same thing
A. Be at least 18 years of age
B. Have six or less months until expected death 51. The process by which people adapt to a loss,
C. Obtain both oral and written requests from a greatly influenced by cultural beliefs, practices, and
physician rituals, is called:
D. All of the above A. Grief
B. Mourning
44. Which of the following is the only country that (with C. Bereavement
significant restrictions) allows physician-assisted D. All of the above, because all of these terms mean
suicide for people under 18? the same thing
A. Netherlands
B. Belgium 52. The period after a loss during which grief and
C. Luxembourg mourning occurs is called:
D. Switzerland A. Grief
B. Mourning
45. People can find it difficult to grieve effectively and C. Bereavement
learn to live with loss if they are prevented from

84
 Developmental Psychology
D. All of the above, because all of these terms mean 59. In Kubler-Ross’ five stages of grief, _________ may
the same thing involve feeling the full weight of loss, crying, and
losing interest in the outside world.
53. Since her husband died, Linda feels unable to move A. Depression
on, is preoccupied with distressing memories, and B. Acceptance
feels a sense of disbelief that he’s really gone. Linda C. Anger
is most likely experiencing: D. Denial
A. Complicated grief
B. Disenfranchised grief 60. In Kubler-Ross’ five stages of grief, _________
C. Anticipatory grief involves trying to think of ways to negotiate a longer
D. Culturally-sanctioned grief life, such as promising to be a better person.
A. Anger
54. When Simon’s partner died, the partner’s family B. Denial
refused to acknowledge Simon as a legitimate C. Depression
mourner, deliberately changing aspects of the D. Bargaining
funeral service without telling him and excluding
him from family gatherings. Simon is likely to 61. Kübler-Ross believes that the one stage that all
experience: those who are dying go through is:
A. Complicated grief A. Depression
B. Disenfranchised grief B. Denial
C. Anticipatory grief C. Anger
D. Culturally-sanctioned grief D. Bargaining

55. Satomi’s mother had Alzheimer’s disease for many 62. Research examining the validity of Kubler-Ross’
years. When she died, Satomi was sad, but she had stages of grief has indicated that:
had time to prepare for the death and had a sense of A. People grieve the same way, regardless of the type
relief that her mother’s struggle was now over. of loss they experience
Satomi’s experience most closely describes: B. All the stages in her model are beneficial parts of
A. Complicated grief the grieving process
B. Disenfranchised grief C. Kubler-Ross was correct in describing the order of
C. Anticipatory grief stages in the grieving process
D. Culturally-sanctioned grief D. None of the above

56. In Kubler-Ross’ five stages of grief, the experience 63. The dual-process model of grieving proposes that,
of disbelief or shock is called: when grieving:
A. Depression A. People alternate between moments of sadness and
B. Denial moments of happiness
C. Bargaining B. People alternate between looking back and looking
D. Anger forward
C. People separate their cognitive understanding of
57. In Kubler-Ross’ five stages of grief, the process of death from their emotional feelings about death
facing death and making appropriate end-of-life D. People adjust their grieving processes depending
arrangements is called: on their social setting and the people they’re with
A. Acceptance
B. Bargaining 64. In the dual-process model of grieving, the grieving
C. Denial individual reestablishing roles and activities they
D. Depression had prior to the death of their loved one is called
_________ orientation.
58. In Kubler-Ross’ five stages of grief, _________ may A. Loss
help people temporarily believe that they have a B. Assimilation
sense of control over their future and to feel that C. Restoration
they have at least expressed their rage about how D. Accommodation
unfair life can be.
A. Depression 65. In the dual-process model of grieving, the grieving
B. Acceptance individual yearning for their loved one is called
C. Anger _________ orientation.
D. Bargaining A. Loss
B. Assimilation
C. Restoration
D. Accommodation

85
 Developmental Psychology
B. Connect individuals with others who have similar
66. In societies in which childhood deaths are experiences
statistically infrequent, parents are often C. Offer those grieving a place to share their pain and
unprepared for the loss of their daughter or son and learn new ways of coping
suffer high levels of grief. D. All of the above
A. True
B. False

67. Parkes and Prigerson (2010) describe _______ as

“the most distressing and long-lasting of all griefs”.
A. The loss of a spouse
B. The loss of a parent
C. The loss of a child
D. Being diagnosed with a terminal illness

68. Adjusting to the loss of a parent in adulthood

appears to depend on:
A. The adult child’s marital status
B. The gender of both the parent and the adult child
C. Whether or not the adult child lived with the parent,
particularly for men
D. All of the above

69. People who experience a parent’s death during their

childhood are at increased risk for:
A. Substance abuse
B. Depression
C. School underachievement
D. All of the above

70. Which of the following is NOT one of the “red flags”

that could indicate that a grieving child may need
professional assistance like counseling?
A. Persistent difficulty in talking about the dead person
B. Crying when recalling memories of the deceased
person or thinking about the future
C. Somatic complaints like stomachaches and
headaches
D. Persistent self-blame or guilt

71. When explaining death to children, it is important to

use euphemisms, such as “left us” or “gone to
sleep”, because words like “died” will just confuse
them.
A. True
B. False

72. Which of the following is NOT one of Worden’s four

tasks of mourning?
A. Maintaining everyday routines as closely as
possible to what was in place before the person’s
death
B. Adjusting to life without the deceased
C. Starting a new life while still maintaining a
connection with the deceased
D. Acceptance that the loss has occurred

73. Support groups can be beneficial because they:

A. Reduce isolation

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 Developmental Psychology

ANSWER KEY 41-50 CDCBD CDABA 111-120 CCBCA BDBAD 71-80 ADABC DBACB
51-60 CBADA CADDA 121-131 CADDA CADAAA 81-90 CADAD BBACD
CHAPTER 1 61-70 CBCBA DBBBA 91-100 DAACD CACBA
1-10 CDBAC ABCDB 71-80 ACDCA DBAAC CHAPTER 6 101-110 CBDCA DBAAA
11-20 ACBAC ACACD 81-90 DBCBA BCADA 1-10 ABACD CCAAD 111-120 CBDCB ACBAD
21-30 DACBD BBCAB 91-100 BACDC DACBD 11-20 CAADB DDABA 121-130 DACBD ABDBA
31-40 CABCD BBCAB 101-110 ADABC DCBAC 21-30 CACDA BCAAD 131-132 AD
41-50 ACDAB BABBA 111-120 BBACD AAABA 31-40 BCADB ACBAD
51-60 DCABC BDBAD 121-130 CDACD BADCB 41-50 BACDA BCDAB CHAPTER 9
61-70 ABCBA DDDBC 131-140 BADAD DCBAC 51-60 CDCBA DCBCD 1-10 DAABA BBCDA
71-80 ABDCA DACDA 141-150 BDABA CBDAD 61-70 BAADB CDBAA 11-20 DCDAC DDCCB
81-90 BBADC ACABA 151-155 DCBAC 71-80 DBCDA CDABA 21-30 ABCDC BADBC
91-100 CDBAC ABCAD 81-86 CABCDA 31-40 BDACD ADDBC
101-110 BCADB CBACD CHAPTER 4 41-50 ADAAB BACCA
111-120 BCDAC ADBDC 1-10 ABAAD CDABC CHAPTER 7 51-60 DACDD BCADC
121-130 AAACC BDABC 11-20 ACBDC BABAD 1-10 CBDAA CBDAB 61-70 BACBD CBACB
131-140 ACDBD ADBAC 21-30 CBDAC ADBAB 11-20 ABCDD DABDD 71-80 ACDAD DBAAA
141-153 ABDDCB BACDC AA 31-40 CAACD CBDDB 21-30 CBCAB CDADA 81-90 ABCBC DABDA
41-50 ACDBD CBACD 31-40 DBACA BADAB 91-100 ADCAD BADAB
CHAPTER 2 51-60 CABAC BAABB 41-50 CADAC BABCD 101-110 CDAAB ADCCD
1-10 BCAAB BCADD 61-70 CADCD BACDB 51-60 BCABC DABAA 111-120 BCBCA CBDDA
11-20 ACBAB DACBC 71-80 ADDAC BACAD 61-70 ACADC BAADB 121-130 CBDCD ADBBC
21-30 ACBBC ABACD 81-90 BDABC DDAAD 71-80 CDCBA DBCDD 131-140 BBDAA CDBCA
31-40 BACDA DBCBC 91-100 BCABC CABDB 81-90 DDACA BAACB 141-150 DCDAD AACBD
41-50 ADABC DAAAD 101-110 CAABD ACBDA 91-100 DCBAC AADBC 151-160 ABCAD DBBBD
51-60 DBCAB DCCAA 111-124 CCAAD ADCDD AABD 101-110 CABDC AAAAD 161-172 CDBAA DDADBDA
61-70 BDCAB DBABD 111-120 BACBA DCABC
71-80 CDDBA CDDBA CHAPTER 5 121-130 BABCD CDBCA CHAPTER 10
81-90 DDDBC ABABB 1-10 AADBD CCDBA 131-140 DBDDD BCAAC 1-10 DABCC DDABA
91-100 CBACB ADCDC 11-20 BDDDA BBBCA 141- 148 DCBAA DCD 11-20 BADCB DBBDA
101-110 ACDAC BDAAC 21-30 DBCDB DACBA 21-30 BCDCD BBDCB
111-118 BCCDB CDA 31-40 CABCD BCDAB CHAPTER 8 31-40 ABDDA ADCCC
41-50 ADDCB BCDAD 1-10 ABCDC BABAC 41-50 DADBA CABDA
51-60 CBACB DCABA 11-20 DBDCB ADBAC 51-60 BCABC BACAD
CHAPTER 3 61-70 DCADC BDABA 21-30 BDDDB CAACA 61-73 CDBCAAC DDBBAD
1-10 BABCA DCBAC 71-80 DDBDD ACDDB 31-40 BCBDD CBAAC
11-20 BADDA BCDAB 81-90 BCABC DABDA 41-50 ACDDA BDCBA
21-30 CDABC BDAAD 91-100 CAABC ABCDA 51-60 CDADA ABAAB
31-40 CCABD BBAAA 101-110 AABBC CADBA 61-70 CBBCB DCBDC

CONTRIBUTORS ✨
@nicolestudies_ @cl0udxchaser

@bona_rpm2023 @bapbap0918

@araltayobeh @sikeroppiya_

@Frissonace @veralense

@kasjoberg @sikeolohija

Padayon future RPm’s! II BLEPP 2023

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