Developmental

Psychology
Chapter 01 Introduction to Lifespan 9. Changes in
Development emotion, self-perception, and interpersonal
relationships with families, peers, and
1.Developmental psychology is also called: friends are part of the domain.
A. Lifespan development A. Physical
B. Human development B. Cognitive
C.Both A and B

2. The scientific study of ways in which people

change, as well as stay the same, from
conception to death, is called:
A. Lifespan development
B. Human development
C.Developmental psychology
D. All of the above

3. At earlier points in the history of the

field, it was believed that development was
essentially completed around age:
A. 13
B. 25
C.40
D. 65

4. Developmental psychology both influences

and is influenced by other fields of study,
such as biology and cognitive psychology.
A. True
B. False

5. The researcher who first articulated key

underlying principles of lifespan
development is:
A. Erik Erikson
B. Sigmund Freud
C.Paul Baltes
D. James Mark Baldwin

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the

key underlying principles of lifespan
development?
A. Development has a definite end point
B. Development is multidirectional
C.Development is plastic
D. Development is multidimensional

7. Development always involves

improvement, growth, or progression of skills
or functioning.
A. True
B. False

8.Which of the following is NOT one of the three

primary domains in which development
occurs?
A. Physical
B. Cognitive
C.Contextual
D. Psychosocial

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C.Contextual Psychology C.Crowd
D. Psychosocial D. Consort

10. Changes in 17. According to your book, someone who was

intelligence, wisdom, perception, born in 1937 is part of which generation?
problem-solving, memory, and language are A. Baby Boomers
part of the B. Millennial
domain.
A. Physical
B. Cognitive
C.Contextual
D. Psychosocial

11.Changes in height and weight, sensory

capabilities, the nervous system, and the
propensity for disease and illness are part of
the domain.
A. Physical
B. Cognitive
C.Contextual
D. Psychosocial

12. When we say that development is

characterized by “plasticity”, we mean
that:
A. It always occurs in a way that we can see and
touch
B. It is created by chemicals
C.We are capable of change, and many
of our characteristics are malleable
D. It has many possible uses

13. Beginning kindergarten or going through

puberty is an example of a:
A. Normative history-graded influence
B. Normative age-graded influence
C.Non-normative life influence
D. Normative culture-determined influence

14.The idea that the time period in which we

were born shapes our experiences is
consistent with which term?
A. Normative history-graded influence
B. Normative age-graded influence
C.Non-normative life influence
D. Normative culture-determined influence

15. Experiencing a life event that’s not

typical for our age group, such as losing a
parent during our childhood, is an example
of a:
A. Normative history-graded influence
B. Normative age-graded influence
C.Non-normative life influence
D. Normative culture-determined influence

16. A group of people who were born at

roughly the same time in a particular
society is called a:
A. Cohort
B. Clique
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C.Silent
D. Psychosocial 25. The culture we grow up in shapes our ideas
about:
18. According to your book, the aging A. Right and wrong
of the B. What to strive for
is one reason why
developmental psychology has begun to
focus more on the study of adult
development.
A. Baby Boomers
B. Millennial
C.Silent
D. Generation X

19. is a way to identify

families and households based on their
shared levels of education, income, and
occupation.
A. Culture
B. Cohort
C.Socioeconomic status
D. Biostatistics

20. How does socioeconomic status

influence development?
A. It affects our health and life expectancy
B. It influences the degree of control we feel over
our lives
C.It affects the resources available to us
and the environment we live in
D. All of the above

21. Living in poverty is associated with:

A. Greater fears about losing housing
B. Less access to health care
C.Working in more dangerous
occupations D, All of the above

22. Poverty is determined by a set of

thresholds based on family income and:
A. The size of the family
B. The ages of the people in the family
C.The relationships between the people in the family
D. The number of children in the family

23. The collective term for the shared

language, knowledge, material objects, and
behavior of a group of people is called:
A. Race
B. Ethnicity
C.Culture
D. All of the above, because all of these terms
mean the same thing

24. The belief that our own culture is

superior to other cultures is called:
A. Nationalism
B. Ethnocentrism
C.Patriotism
D. Narcissism
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C.What kind of emotions are called for in certain C.Psychological age
situations D. Social age
D. All of the above
35.The social norms of our culture and the
26. We only learn about our culture from our expectations our culture has for people of our
parents. age group determine our:
A. True A. Chronological age
B. False

27. Our culture only affects us during our

childhood.
A. True
B. False

28.Appreciating cultural differences and

understanding that cultural practices are
best understood from the standpoint of
that particular culture is called:
A. Ethnodiversity
B. Multiculturalism
C.Cultural relativity
D. Universalism

29. The length of time a species can exist

under the most optimal conditions is called:
A. Lifespan
B. Life expectancy

30. The predicted number of years a person

born in a particular time period can
reasonably expect to live is called:
A. Lifespan
B. Life expectancy

31. The longest reported lifespan for a human

is about:
A. 20 years
B. 50 years
C.120 years
D. 150 years

32. The number of years since your birth is

your:
A. Chronological age
B. Biological age
C.Psychological age
D. Social age

33. How quickly the body is aging, including

how good our physical functioning is, is
called our:
A. Chronological age
B. Biological age
C.Psychological age
D. Social age

34. Our cognitive capacity, adaptability, and

emotional beliefs about aging are part of
our:
A. Chronological age
B. Biological age
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B. Biological age
C.Psychological age 43.The question of how much we change over
D. Social age time (and in what ways) is the debate called:
A. Continuity vs. discontinuity
36.Although there are several different ways B. Nature vs. nurture
to think of age, chronological age is the
most accurate and complete way of
describing someone’s functioning and current
state.
A. True
B. False

37. We don’t need to consider different age

groups in the general categories of
childhood and adulthood, because
everyone classified as a child or adult will
function the same way.
A. True
B. False

38. The transitional time between the end

of adolescence and before individuals
acquire all the benchmarks of adulthood is
called:
A. Post-pubescence
B. Early adulthood
C.Emerging adulthood
D. Senescence

39. Someone who is 70 years old would be

classified as:
A. Young-old
B. Middle aged
C.Oldest-old
D. Emerging

40.The question of whether biological or

environmental factors are stronger influences
on our development is the debate called:
A. Continuity vs. discontinuity
B. Nature vs. nurture
C. Active vs. passive
D. Stability vs. change

41. The question of whether development

involves a slow, gradual process or distinct
stages is the debate called:
A. Continuity vs. discontinuity
B. Nature vs. nurture
C. Active vs. passive
D. Stability vs. change

42.The question of whether humans play an

active role in shaping their development or
are at the mercy of uncontrollable forces is
the debate called:
A. Continuity vs. discontinuity
B. Nature vs. nurture
C. Active vs. passive
D. Stability vs. change
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C. Active vs. passive Psychology D. Bandura
D. Stability vs. change
51. Using the term “tabula rasa” (your
44. In the nature vs. nurture debate, the book spells it wrong) to refer to a child’s
side emphasizes the importance of mind means that the child comes into the
genetic and biological factors in shaping our world like a(n):
development. A. Empty vessel
A. Nature B. Little voice
B. Nurture

45. In the nature vs. nurture debate, the

side emphasizes the importance of
environmental factors in shaping our
development.
A. Nature
B. Nurture

46. Stage theories of development are also

called:
A. Continuous
B. Discontinuous

47.When a caterpillar becomes a butterfly, it

both looks and, more importantly, functions
differently than it did before (i.e., a butterfly
isn’t just a big caterpillar). This is an
example of development.
A. Discontinuous
B. Continuous
C.Stable
D. Quantitative

48. According to your book, Vygotsky

believed that adults didn’t possess new
skills, but instead had skills that were
already present in children, just better
developed. This is an example of
development.
A. Discontinuous
B. Continuous
C.Stable
D. Qualitative

49. The belief that a tiny, fully formed

human is implanted in the sperm or egg at
conception and then grows in size until birth
is called:
A. Predeterminism
B. Preformationism
C.Predestination
D. Preternaturalism

50. According to your book, the first

theory of development to state that the
environment was the primary force in
shaping behavior and development was
proposed by:
A. Locke
B. Pavlov
C.Skinner

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C.Unchained melody C.Systematic rewards and punishments would help
D. Blank slate children learn better
D.Children came into the world as blank slates and
52. Why did Locke consider the needed lots of instruction to help them learn
environment to be a particularly strong
influence during our early life? 57) According to Freud, we come into the
A. Because that’s when we have the most contact world as
with our parents beings but have to learn to
B. Because we will automatically behave the way become
our early experiences tell us to beings during childhood.
C.Because that’s when the mind is most pliable
D.Trick question! Locke considered the environment
to have the same amount of influence throughout
our life

53. What is the most important way that

Locke’s theory differs from preformationism
and the theories of Rousseau and Gesell?
A.Locke’s theory places more importance on
environmental influences as opposed to
predetermined
biological factors
B. Locke’s theory is a lifespan theory, but the
others just focus on childhood
C. Locke’s theory laid the groundwork for other
theories of development, but the others don’t
D.Locke performed many scientific experiments to
test his theory, but the others weren’t tested this
way

54. used the term “maturation” to

describe a genetically activated process of
development.
A. Rousseau
B. Gesell
C.Piaget
D. Montessori

55. How would Gesell most likely feel about

things like trying to teach infants to read
using flash cards?
A. He’d support it because he thought the brain
was most receptive to new information in infancy
B. He’d support it because he believed in pushing
infants and young children to achieve milestones
as early as possible
C. He’d disapprove of it because he thought it best
to wait until children’s nervous systems had
sufficiently matured and not try to teach them things
ahead of schedule
D. He’d disapprove of it because he didn’t think
children needed formal instruction in reading

56. Rousseau believed that when it came to

education:
A. Adults should push children to achieve
educational milestones as soon as possible
B.Children should not be taught “the right way to
think”, and that their inner biological timetable
would help them learn naturally
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A. Social, biological Psychology C.Industry vs. inferiority
B. Social, cognitive D. Intimacy vs. isolation
C.Biological, cognitive
D. Biological, social

58. Which of the following statements

about Freud’s theory of development is
FALSE?
A. He believed that early experiences were
important for shaping our personality
B. It has been thoroughly tested scientifically and
found to be valid
C. He believed that an important part of
development was learning how to transform
biological instincts into socially appropriate
behaviors
D. He believed that interactions with parents
and other caregivers had long-lasting effects on
children’s emotional states

59. Erikson proposed that each period of

life has a unique challenge that the person
who reaches it must face. This task is called
a(n):
A. Psychosocial crisis
B. Psychogenic fugue
C.Psychosexual crisis
D. Nonnormative life event

60. How is Erikson’s theory of development

different from Freud’s?
A.Less emphasis on sexuality and more emphasis
on social interactions
B. More emphasis on lifespan development
instead of just focusing on childhood
C.Less controversial
D. All of the above

61. According to Erikson’s theory,

successful development involves:
A. Dealing with and resolving the goals and
demands of psychosocial crises in a positive way
B. Transforming biological instincts into socially
appropriate behaviors
C. Allowing our genetically preprogrammed
timetable to unfold naturally
D. Learning to reason logically

62. According to Erikson’s theory, how we

resolve one crisis has no effect on how we
resolve other crises in the future.
A. True
B. False

63.According to Erikson’s theory, we learn to

do things well or correctly according to
others’ standards while resolving which
crisis?
A. Initiative vs. guilt
B. Identity vs. role confusion

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64. According to Erikson’s theory, B. Generativity vs. stagnation
someone who develops an interest in C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
guiding the development of the next D. Ego integrity vs. despair
generation has successfully resolved the crisis
of: 71. Learning theory is also called:
A. Intimacy vs. isolation A. Behaviorism
B. Generativity vs. stagnation B. Psychodynamic theory
C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt C.Information-processing theory
D. Ego integrity vs. despair

65. According to Erikson’s theory, during our

first year and a half after birth we must
resolve the crisis of:
A. Trust vs. mistrust
B. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
C.Ego integrity vs. despair
D. Identity vs. role confusion

66. According to Erikson’s theory,

someone who becomes independent by
exploring, manipulating, and taking action
has successfully resolved the crisis of:
A. Industry vs. inferiority
B. Ego integrity vs. despair
C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
D. Initiative vs. guilt

67.According to Erikson’s theory, we develop

the ability to give and receive love and
make long-term commitments while
resolving which crisis?
A. Generativity vs. stagnation
B. Identity vs. role confusion
C.Trust vs. mistrust
D. Intimacy vs. isolation

68. According to Erikson’s theory,

someone who develops an acceptance of
their life as it was lived has successfully
resolved the crisis of:
A. Intimacy vs. isolation
B. Generativity vs. stagnation
C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
D. Ego integrity vs. despair

69. According to Erikson’s theory,

developing a well-defined and positive
sense of self in relation to others is the
main task of which crisis?
A. Initiative vs. guilt
B. Identity vs. role confusion
C.Industry vs. inferiority
D. Intimacy vs. isolation

70. According to Erikson’s theory,

someone who develops a sense of free will
and an understanding of what they can and
can’t control has successfully resolved the
crisis of:
A. Intimacy vs. isolation
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D. Evolutionary psychology Psychology B. Abstract logic
C.Object permanence
72. A key idea of behaviorism is that D. Theory of mind
because
can’t be objectively studied, 80. During Piaget’s concrete operational
psychologists should limit their attention to stage, the primary skill obtained by the child
the study of observable behavior. is:
A. The occurrence of life events
B. The mind
C.Genetic changes
D. All of the above

73. Skinner used the principles of behaviorism

to:
A. Train animals
B. Develop theories about how best to teach
children
C. Develop theories about how to create
peaceful, productive societies
D. All of the above

74. The idea that we learn by watching others

is called:
A. Behaviorism
B. Psychoanalytic theory
C.Social learning theory
D. Naturalistic observation

75.The concept of reciprocal determinism

states that we influence our environment
and vice versa.
A. True
B. False

76. Bandura’s studies with the “Bobo doll”

indicated that:
A. Children will imitate aggressive behavior they
see on TV
B. After observing aggressive behavior in another
person, children will display new aggressive acts
not initially shown by the model
C. Children will imitate aggressive behaviors they
see other people perform
D. All of the above

77. According to Piaget, children of

different ages interpret the world in
different ways.
A. True
B. False

78.During Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, the

primary skill obtained by the infant is:
A. Conservation
B. Abstract logic
C.Object permanence
D. Theory of mind

79. During Piaget’s preoperational stage,

the primary skill obtained by the child is:
A. Conservation
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A. Conservation
B. Abstract logic 86. Piaget believed that intellectual
C.Object permanence development happens due to maturation, not
D. Theory of mind training.
A. True
81.During Piaget’s formal operational stage, the B. False
primary skill obtained by the child is:
A. Conservation
B. Abstract logic
C.Object permanence
D. Theory of mind

82.During Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, the

infant learns to:
A. Understand others’ perspectives and use
language and mental imagery to internally
experience the world
B. Experience the world through senses like
tasting and hearing
C.Think systematically and reason about abstract
concepts like ethics
D. Think logically and perform operations on
real-world objects and concepts

83. During Piaget’s preoperational stage, the

primary skill obtained by the child is:
A. Understand others’ perspectives and use
language and mental imagery to internally
experience the world
B. Experience the world through senses like
tasting and hearing
C.Think systematically and reason about abstract
concepts like ethics
D. Think logically and perform operations on
real-world objects and concepts

84. During Piaget’s concrete operational

stage, the primary skill obtained by the child
is:
A. Understand others’ perspectives and use
language and mental imagery to internally
experience the world
B. Experience the world through senses like
tasting and hearing
C.Think systematically and reason about abstract
concepts like ethics
D. Think logically and perform operations on
real-world objects and concepts

85.During Piaget’s formal operational stage, the

primary skill obtained by the child is:
A. Understand others’ perspectives and use
language and mental imagery to internally
experience the world
B. Experience the world through senses like
tasting and hearing
C.Think systematically and reason about abstract
concepts like ethics
D. Think logically and perform operations on
real-world objects and concepts
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87. Vygotsky’s Psychology
theory 94.What is the term we use for the set of
emphasizes the importance of culture and assumptions, rules, and procedures
interaction in the development of cognitive scientists use to conduct research?
abilities. A. Scientific method
A. Biopsychosocial
B. Dualistic
C.Sociocultural
D. Psychodynamic

88. The approach is a set of

theories studying how individuals perceive,
analyze, manipulate, use, and remember
information.
A. Information processing
B. Problem solving
C.Cognitive behavioral
D. Schematic

89. In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems

theory, the individual’s immediate
environment, including the setting they’re
in and the people they’re with, constitute the:
A. Macrosystem
B. Microsystem
C.Mesosystem
D. Exosystem

90. In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological

systems theory, cultural elements such as
economic conditions constitute the:
A. Macrosystem
B. Microsystem
C.Mesosystem
D. Exosystem

91. In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological

systems theory, larger organizational
structures such as schools and religion
constitute the:
A. Macrosystem
B. Microsystem
C.Mesosystem
D. Exosystem

92. In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological

systems theory, larger community contexts
such as values and history constitute the:
A. Macrosystem
B. Microsystem
C.Mesosystem
D. Exosystem

93. In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems

theory, the chronosystem represents the:
A. Age of the child
B. Historical context in which our experiences
occur
C.Milestones achieved by the individual
D. Time of day when we function in different
environments

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B. Experimental psychology B. Naturalistic observation
C.Radical empiricism C.Laboratory observation
D. Epistemology D. Psychophysiological assessment

95. A(n) is the general term

for the specific method a researcher uses to
collect, analyze, and interpret data.
A. Scientific method
B. Operational definition
C.Research design
D. Experiment

96. Research that describes what is

occurring at a particular point in time is
called:
A. Descriptive
B. Correlational
C.Experimental
D. All of the above, because all of these terms
mean the same thing

97.Research designed to discover relationships

among variables and to allow the prediction
of future events from present knowledge is
called:
A. Descriptive
B. Correlational
C.Experimental
D. All of the above, because all of these terms
mean the same thing

98. Research in which a researcher

manipulates one or more variables to see
their effects is called:
A. Descriptive
B. Correlational
C.Experimental
D. All of the above, because all of these terms
mean the same thing

99. Descriptive records of one or a small

group of individuals’ experiences and
behavior are called:
A. Case studies
B. Surveys
C.Naturalistic observations
D. Experiments

100. An important limitation of case studies is

that:
A. The data they produce cannot always be
generalized to other people
B. They’re time-consuming to do
C.They’re expensive to do
D. All of the above

101.When using , psychologists observe

and record behavior that occurs in everyday
settings.
A. Case studies
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102.When using , Psychology
psychologists rate, hormone levels, or brain activity
observe and record behavior conducted in a
setting created by the researcher. 107. The people chosen to participate in the
A. Case studies research are called the:
B. Naturalistic observation A. Population
C.Laboratory observation B. Sample
D. Psychophysiological assessment

103. When a researcher uses a survey,

they are collecting data by using:
A.A measure administered through either a verbal
or written questionnaire to get a picture of the
beliefs or behaviors of a sample of people of
interest
B. Questions asked directly by the researcher
C.Information that has already been collected or
examining documents or media to uncover
attitudes, practices or preferences
D. Measures of bodily processes such as heart
rate, hormone levels, or brain activity

104. When a researcher uses

psychophysiological assessment, they are
collecting data by using:
A.A measure administered through either a verbal
or written questionnaire to get a picture of the
beliefs or behaviors of a sample of people of
interest
B. Questions asked directly by the researcher
C.Information that has already been collected or
examining documents or media to uncover
attitudes, practices or preferences
D. Measures of bodily processes such as heart
rate, hormone levels, or brain activity

105. When a researcher uses an interview,

they are collecting data by using:
A.A measure administered through either a verbal
or written questionnaire to get a picture of the
beliefs or behaviors of a sample of people of
interest
B. Questions asked directly by the researcher
C.Information that has already been collected or
examining documents or media to uncover
attitudes, practices or preferences
D. Measures of bodily processes such as heart
rate, hormone levels, or brain activity

106. When a researcher uses

secondary/content analysis, they are
collecting data by using:
A.A measure administered through either a verbal
or written questionnaire to get a picture of the
beliefs or behaviors of a sample of people of
interest
B. Questions asked directly by the researcher
C.Information that has already been collected or
examining documents or media to uncover
attitudes, practices or preferences
D. Measures of bodily processes such as heart

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C.Both A and B, because these terms mean the same 114. Which of the following correlation
thing coefficients represents the strongest
relationship?
108. The group of all the people that the A. -.84
researcher wishes to know about is called B. -.33
the: C..21
A. Population D. .66
B. Sample
C.Both A and B, because these terms mean the same
thing

109.When selecting a group of people to

participate in research, it’s important that
your sample includes the same percentages of
males, females, age groups, ethnic groups,
and socio-economic groups as the larger
population you’re trying to draw conclusions
about. This type of sample is called:
A. Proportionate
B. Distributive
C.Representative
D. Bivariate

110. A problem with surveys and interviews

is that respondents may lie because they
want to present themselves in the most
favorable light. For example, someone might
claim that they exercise more often than they
do, because they don’t want the researcher to
think poorly of them. This is known as:
A. Malingering
B. Internal validity
C.External validity
D. Social desirability

111. The , symbolized by

the letter r, is the most common statistical
measure of the strength of linear
relationships among variables.
A. Spearman’s rho
B. Pearson correlation coefficient
C.Kendall rank correlation
D. Point-biserial correlation coefficient

112. The value of the Pearson correlation

coefficient ranges from:
A. 0 to 1.00
B. -1.0 to 0
C.-1.0 to 1.0
D. -.54 to .37

113. The strength of the correlational

relationship is shown by:
A. Whether it’s positive or negative
B. The distance of the correlation coefficient from
zero
C.The absolute value of the correlation coefficient
D. Both B and C, because these refer to the same
thing

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115. Which of the following correlation Psychology Instead, this association is explained by
coefficients represents the weakest population size, which affects both crime
relationship? rates and the number of churches. In this case,
A. -.84 population size is best called a(n):
B. -.33 A. Third variable
C..21 B. Discrete variable
D. .66 C.Collider variable
D. Indicator variable
116. A positive correlation coefficient indicates
that:
A. Individuals who have high values for one
variable also tend to have high values for the
other variable
B. The results are statistically significant
C. The variables change in a way that
supports the researcher’s hypothesis
D. The results point to a good outcome or
phenomenon

117. A positive correlation coefficient indicates

that:
A. The results point to a bad outcome or
phenomenon
B. The variables change in a way that doesn’t
support the researcher’s hypothesis
C.The results are not statistically significant
D.Individuals who have high values for one
variable tend to have low values for the other
variable

118. An important limitation of correlational

research is that:
A. It is subject to social desirability
B. It can’t be used to draw conclusions about
the causal relationships among the measured
variables
C.It is expensive and time-consuming to do
D. It does not use representative samples

119. An advantage of correlational research is

that:
A. It can be used when experimental research is
not possible for logistical or ethical reasons
B. It allows the researcher to study behavior as it
occurs in everyday life
C.It can be used to make predictions
D. All of the above

120. A variable that is not part of the

research hypothesis but produces the
observed correlation between them is
called a(n):
A. Categorical variable
B. Continuous variable
C.Third variable
D. Dummy variable

121. Cities with lots of churches have a higher

crime rate than cities with fewer churches.
However, the churches don’t cause crime,
and the crime doesn’t cause the churches.
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122. Children from lower socioeconomic
status backgrounds tend to perform worse in 128. In an experiment, the dependent variable
school. This is an example of a: is:
A.Positive correlation, because both variables change
in the same direction
B. Positive correlation, because this makes sense
C.Negative correlation, because the variables change
in the opposite direction
D. Negative correlation, because this produces
a bad outcome for the kids

123.As the amount of time children spend

on social media increases, their rates of
depression and anxiety also increase. This is
an example of a:
A.Positive correlation, because both variables change
in the same direction
B. Positive correlation, because this makes sense
C.Negative correlation, because the variables change
in the opposite direction
D. Negative correlation, because this produces
a bad outcome for the kids

124.As the amount of time children spend

on social media increases, their school
grades decrease. This is an example of a:
A.Positive correlation, because both variables change
in the same direction
B. Positive correlation, because this makes sense
C.Negative correlation, because the variables change
in the opposite direction
D. Negative correlation, because this produces
a bad outcome for the kids

125.The goal of the is to provide

definitive conclusions about the causal
relationships among the variables in a
research hypothesis.
A. Correlational method
B. Case study method
C.Experimental method
D. Descriptive method

126. are specific statements

about the relationship between variables.
A. Theories
B. Hypotheses
C.Schemas
D. Operational definitions

127. In an experiment, the independent

variable is:
A.A measured variable that is expected to be
influenced by the experimental manipulation
B. Not part of the research hypothesis but
produces the observed correlation between them
C. A variable that can only take on a certain
number of values
D. The causing variable that is created or
manipulated by the experimenter
17
 Developmental
Psychology
A.A measured variable that is expected to be D. Changes in value
influenced by the experimental manipulation
B. Not part of the research hypothesis but 134.Variables that are not part of the
produces the observed correlation between them experiment that could inadvertently effect
C. A variable that can only take on a certain either the experimental or control group,
number of values thus distorting the results, are called:
D. The causing variable that is created or
manipulated by the experimenter

129. Dr. Smartypants designs a research

study to examine whether or not taking
probiotic supplements causes children to
perform better in school. In her study, what is
the independent variable?
A. The age of the children
B. Whether or not they take probiotic supplements
C.The grades children earn in school
D. The family’s socioeconomic status

130. Dr. Smartypants designs a research

study to examine whether or not taking
probiotic supplements causes children to
perform better in school. In her study, what is
the dependent variable?
A. The age of the children
B. Whether or not they take probiotic supplements
C.The grades children earn in school
D. The family’s socioeconomic status

131. Dr. Smartypants designs a research

study to examine whether or not taking
probiotic supplements causes children to
perform better in school. She assigns one
group of children to take probiotic
supplements daily, and assigns another
group of children to take Vitamin C every
day. In her study, the group of children
taking probiotic supplements is called the:
A. Experimental group
B. Representative group
C.Control group
D. Validation group

132. Dr. Smarty pants designs a research

study to examine whether or not taking
probiotic supplements causes children to
perform better in school. She assigns one
group of children to take probiotic
supplements daily and assigns another
group of children to take Vitamin C every
day. In her study, the group of children
taking Vitamin C is called the:
A. Experimental group
B. Representative group
C.Control group
D. Validation group

133. In research, a variable is something that:

A. Is unknown
B. Causes something else to happen
C.Can be tested
18
 Developmental
Psychology
A. Dummy variables measuring them repeatedly over a period of
B. Extraneous variables time.
C.Qualitative variables A. Longitudinal
D. Quantitative variables B. Cross-sectional
C.Sequential
135. In an experiment, the group that D. Time-lag
receives the treatment being studied is
called the:
A. Control group
B. Covariate group
C.Explanatory group
D. Experimental group

136.In an experiment, the group that does

not receive the treatment being studied is
called the:
A. Control group
B. Covariate group
C.Explanatory group
D. Experimental group

137.An important limitation of experimental

designs is that:
A. They can be expensive and time-consuming
B. They may be impossible to do for ethical
reasons
C. Their findings may not generalize well to
real-world settings
D. All of the above

138. Research that studies different age

groups at a single time point, such as the
one shown in Figure 1.16 on page 28 of the
textbook, is called:
A. Longitudinal
B. Cross-sectional
C.Sequential
D. Time-lag

139. A disadvantage of cross-sectional research

is that:
A. It does not allow us to investigate the impact of
being born in a certain time period
B. It is expensive and time-consuming to do
C. Participant’s performance may improve due to
practice effects
D. It is difficult to keep up with participants

140. Being born in a certain time period,

such as during the Great Depression, may
affect our views, behaviors, and development
in a way that can’t be easily predicted from
chronological age. This is called a:
A. Flynn effect
B. Doppler effect
C.Cohort effect
D. Practice effect

141. research involves studying one

group of people who are the same age, and
19
 Developmental
142. occurs when participantsPsychology C.Sequential
fail to complete all portions of a study. D. Time-lag
A. Practice effect
B. Attrition 149. Dr. Smartypants designs a research
C.Cohort effect study in which she recruits a group of 60-
D. Social desirability year-olds, a group of 70-year-olds, and a
group of 80-year-olds and interviews
143. Longitudinal research designs are
optimal for studying stability and change
over time because:
A. They examine individual differences in
development
B. They can be conducted over short or long
periods of time
C.They assess people’s functioning repeatedly over
time
D. All of the above

144. Which of the following is NOT a

problem with longitudinal research?
A. It is expensive and time-consuming to do
B. It is difficult to keep up with participants
C. Participant’s performance may improve due to
practice effects
D. It is unethical to study people over time

145. occurs when participants

become better at a task over time
because they have done it again and
again.
A. Attrition
B. Cohort effect
C.Practice effect
D. Social desirability

146. includes elements of

both longitudinal and cross-sectional
research designs.
A. Correlational research
B. Sequential research
C.Experimental research
D. Case study research

147. Dr. Smartypants designs a research

study in which she recruits a group of
60-year-olds, a group of 70-year-olds, and
a group of 80-year-olds and interviews them
about their health status. What kind of
study has she done?
A. Longitudinal
B. Cross-sectional
C.Sequential
D. Time-lag

148. Dr. Smartypants designs a research

study in which she recruits a group of 60-
year-olds and then interviews them
repeatedly about their health status every 5
years. What kind of study has she done?
A. Longitudinal
B. Cross-sectional
20
 Developmental
Psychology
them about their health status every 5 years
over time. What kind of study has she done? Chapter 02Heredity, Prenatal Development, and
A. Longitudinal Birth
B. Cross-sectional
C.Sequential 1. are recipes for making proteins.
D. Time-lag A. Chromosomes
B. Genes
150. To conduct ethical research, C Neurofibrillary tangles
researchers must obtain informed consent, D. Golgi bodies
which involves:
A. Protecting the privacy of the research 2.Human cells carry chromosomes in
participants’ responses by not using names or the nucleus of each cell.
other information that could identify the A. 2
participants B. 23
B. Explaining the research and removing any C.46
harmful aftereffects of participation after the D. 20,500
research study is over
C.Preventing harm to the research participants 3. is defined as the cell’s nucleus
D.Explaining as much as possible about the true making an exact copy of all the chromosomes
nature of the study, particularly everything that and splitting into two new cells.
might be expected to influence willingness to A. Mitosis
participate B. Meiosis
C.Incomplete dominance
151. occurs whenever research D. Eukaryogenesis
participants are not completely and fully
informed about the nature of the research 4.Most of the cells in the human body are
project before participating in it. created by the process of:
A. Debriefing A. Mi
B. Informed consent tosis B
C.Deception Meiosis
D. Confidentiality C.Incomplete dominance
D. Eukaryogenesis
152. Which of the following occurs at the
end of the research study? 5. During , the gamete’s
A. Debriefing chromosomes duplicate and then divide
B. Informed consent twice, resulting in four cells containing only
C.Deception half the genetic material of the original
D. Confidentiality gamete.
A. Mitosis
153.Explaining the research and removing any B. Meiosis
harmful aftereffects of participation after the C.Incomplete dominance
research study is over is called: D. Eukaryogenesis
A. Debriefing
B. Informed consent 6.The sexual reproduction cells in the body
C.Deception (the sperm and egg) are created by the
D. Confidentiality process of:
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C.Incomplete dominance
D. Eukaryogenesis

7.The cells used in sexual reproduction are

called:
A. Autosomes
B. Ribosomes
C.Gametes
D. Gonads

8.The first 22 pairs of chromosomes are

similar in length and are called:
21
 Developmental
A. Autosomes Psychology
B. Ribosomes
C.Gametes
D. Gonads

22
 Developmental
Psychology
9. Whether we are genetically male or female
depends on: 16. Genes that express themselves in the
A. The number of autosomes we have phenotype express themselves only when
B. Dominant genes paired with a similar version of that gene are
C.Recessive genes called:
D. The sex chromosomes we inherit from our A. Prokaryotic
parents B. Dominant

10. The sum total of all the genes a person

inherits is that person’s:
A. Phenotype
B. Karyotype
C.Prototype
D. Genotype

11.Although we inherit all of our genetic

material from our parents, not all of the
possible features are expressed. The
features that are actually expressed
constitutes that person’s:
A. Phenotype
B. Karyotype
C.Prototype
D. Genotype

12. Different versions of a gene are called:

A. Autosomes
B. Ribosomes
C. Alleles
D. Solenoids

13. A person who is homozygous for a

particular characteristic:
A. Inherited different versions of the
gene for that characteristic from each
parent
B. Inherited the same version of the
gene for that characteristic from each
parent
C.Has a very extreme form of that characteristic
D. Has a very mild form of that characteristic

14. A person who is heterozygous for a

particular characteristic:
A. Inherited different versions of the
gene for that characteristic from each
parent
B. Inherited the same version of the
gene for that characteristic from each
parent
C.Has a very extreme form of that characteristic
D. Has a very mild form of that characteristic

15. Genes that express themselves in the

phenotype even when paired with a different
version of the gene are called:
A. Prokaryotic
B. Dominant
C.Eukaryotic
D. Recessive
23
 Developmental
C.Eukaryotic Psychology B. Dominant
D. Recessive

17.Characteristics that are influenced by

several genes are called:
A. Polygenic
B. Iatrogenic
C.Neurogenic
D. Pangenic

18. Sometimes the dominant gene does not

completely suppress the recessive gene;
this is called:
A. Gene targeting
B. Variable expressivity
C.Incomplete dominance
D. Pseudogenetic transmission

19. People who have inherited only one

recessive gene are called:
A. Autosomes
B. Carriers
C.Imprints
D. Mosaics

20. Monozygotic twins are also called:

A. Fraternal twins
B. Phenotypic twins
C.Identical twins
D. Genotypic twins

21. Dizygotic twins are also called:

A. Fraternal twins
B. Phenotypic twins
C.Identical twins
D. Genotypic twins

22. Monozygotic twins are formed when:

A. A segment of one chromosome breaks off and
attaches to another chromosome
B. Two eggs or ova are released and
fertilized by two separate sperm
C. A fertilized egg splits apart during the first two
weeks of development
D. A section of DNA on a chromosome is
replaced by another similar sequence

23. Dizygotic twins are formed when:

A. A segment of one chromosome breaks off and
attaches to another chromosome
B. Two eggs or ova are released and fertilized
by two separate sperm
C. A fertilized egg splits apart during the first two
weeks of development
D. A section of DNA on a chromosome is
replaced by another similar sequence

24. M
ost genetic disorders are associated with
genes.
A. Prokaryotic
24
 Developmental
Psychology
C.Eukaryotic development, and early death.
D. Recessive A. Achondroplasia
B. Tay-Sachs disease
25. Some genetic disorders involve a C.Huntington’s disease
defective gene on the X-chromosome. These D. Phenylketonuria
disorders are called:
A. Imprinted
B. Heritable
C.Sex-linked
D. Recombinated

26.Who is at greater risk for sex-linked

disorders due to a recessive gene?
A. Males because they have only one X
chromosome
B. Males because they are more affected by
recessive genes in general
C.Females because they are more affected by
recessive genes in general
D. Females because they have two X
chromosomes

27. A occurs when a child

inherits too many or two few chromosomes.
A. Polymorphism
B. Chromosomal abnormality
C.Methylation
D. Mutation

28. The most common cause of

chromosomal abnormalities is:
A. The age of the mother
B. The age of the father
C.Environmental conditions such as chemicals and
other toxins
D. Consuming undercooked meat or shellfish

29. In the human body, chromosomes are

arranged in pairs. When a person has three
of a certain chromosome instead of two, this
causes problems. A person with three of
chromosome 21 has:
A. Down syndrome
B. Trisomy 21
C.Both A and B, because these terms mean the same
thing

30. A sex-linked chromosomal abnormality

occurs when the chromosomal abnormality
occurs on:
A. The 13th pair
B. The 18th pair
C.The 21st pair
D. The 23rd pair

31. is caused by enzyme deficiency

resulting in the accumulation of lipids in the
nerve cells of the brain. This accumulation
results in progressive damage to the cells, a
decrease in cognitive and physical
25
 Developmental
32. Psychology
is a weakening of the
muscles resulting in an inability to move, 39. genotype-environment correlation
wasting away, and possible death. occurs when children passively inherit the
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy genes and the environments their family
B. Huntington’s disease provides.
C.Sickle cell disease A. Active
D. Fragile X syndrome

33. is a condition that affects

breathing and digestion due to thick
mucus building up in the body, especially
the lungs and digestive system.
A. Achondroplasia
B. Phenylketonuria
C.Cystic fibrosis
D. Tay-Sachs disease

34. occurs when part or all of one

of the X chromosomes is lost and the resulting
zygote has an XO composition.
A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Gonadal dysgenesis
C.Mosaicism
D. Turner syndrome

35. results when an extra X

chromosome is present in the cells of a male
and the resulting zygote has an XXY
composition.
A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Gonadal dysgenesis
C.Mosaicism
D. Turner syndrome

36. Common reasons for seeking genetic

counseling are:
A. Family history of a genetic condition
B. Learning about the chances of having a
baby with a genetic condition if the mother is
older
C.To get information regarding the results of
genetic testing, including blood tests,
amniocentesis, or ultrasounds
D. All of the above

37. The scientific study of the interplay

between the genetic and environmental
contributions to behavior is called:
A. Genetic counseling
B. Behavioral genetics
C.Genomic imprinting
D. Independent assortment

38. The processes by which genetic factors

contribute to variations in the environment
are called:
A. Homologous recombinations
B. Polymerase chain reaction
C.Genotype-environment correlations
D. Reproductive fitness

26
 Developmental
Psychology
B. Passive behavior differ based on genotype. For
C.Evocative example, stressful environments appear to
D. Epigenetic affect genetically at-risk children more than
they affect children not genetically at risk. This
40. genotype-environment correlation is called a(n):
occurs when the social environment reacts to A. Epigenetic variation
individuals based on their inherited B. Transmogrification
characteristics.
A. Active
B. Passive
C.Evocative
D. Epigenetic

41. genotype-environment correlation

occurs when individuals seek out
environments that support their genetic
tendencies.
A. A
ctive
B.Passiv
e
C.Evocative
D. Epigenetic

42. An active genotype-environment

correlation is also known as:
A. Parental imprinting
B. Genomic imprinting
C.Polymorphism
D. Niche picking

43.Jess is naturally athletically inclined and

thus seeks out opportunities to participate
in sports. This is an example of a(n)
genotype-environment correlation.
A. Active
B. Passive
C.Evocative
D. Epigenetic

44. Josh’s parents really enjoy music and are

talented at it, so they expose Josh to a lot of
music in hopes that he turns out the same
way. This is an example of a(n)
genotype-environment correlation.
A. Active
B. Passive
C.Evocative
D. Epigenetic

45.Tiffany is discriminated against at work

because she is female. This is an example
of a(n)
genotype-environment correlation.
A. Active
B. Passive
C.Evocative
D. Epigenetic

46. Sometimes environmental effects on

27
 Developmental
C.Mendelian trait Psychology D. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Genotype-environment interaction
54. The outer layer of the blastocyst is called
47.Environmental factors, such as nutrition, the:
stress, and teratogens, are thought to A. Trophoblast
change gene expression by switching genes
on and off. These gene changes can then be
inherited by daughter cells and affect
genetic expression as people age. The study
of these changes is called:
A. Epigenetics
B. Evolutionary psychology
C.Behavioral genetics
D. Gene targeting

48. The period of prenatal

development lasts about 14 days.
A. Germinal
B. Embryonic
C.Fetal
D. All of the above

49. The period of prenatal

development begins at conception and ends
when the fertilized egg implants in the lining
of the uterus.
A. Germinal
B. Embryonic
C.Fetal
D. All of the above

50. A zygote:
A. Contains the combined genetic
information from both parents
B. Implants in the lining of the uterus during
the germinal period
C.Is formed when the sperm fertilizes the egg
D. All of the above

51. Fewer than one half of all zygotes

survive beyond the first two weeks. Why?
A. The egg and sperm do not join properly, so
their genetic material does not combine
B. There is too little or damaged genetic material
C.The blastocyst does not implant into the uterine
wall
D. All of the above are possible reasons

52.After about five days of mitosis, the

zygote contains about 100 cells and is called
a(n):
A. Embryo
B. Blastocyst
C.Trophoblast
D. Fetus

53. The inner layer of the blastocyst is called

the:
A. Trophoblast
B. Paramecium
C.Embryonic disk
28
 Developmental
Psychology
B. Paramecium C.Homeostasis
C.Embryonic disk D. Heritability
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
62. From the ninth week post-conception
55. When the blastocyst has implanted in until birth, the organism is referred to as a(n):
the uterine wall at the end of the germinal A. Embryo
period, it’s now called a(n): B. Zygote
A. Trophoblast
B. Embryo
C.Fetus
D. Zygote

56. The is a structure connected to the

uterus that provides nourishment and oxygen
from the mother to the developing embryo
via the umbilical cord.
A. Trophoblast
B. Embryonic disk
C.Blastocyst
D. Placenta

57. development occurs from head to

tail.
A. Proximodistal
B. Iatrogenic
C.Cephalocaudal
D. Nosocomial

58.The embryo’s head is larger than the rest of

its body. This is an example of
development.
A. Proximodistal
B. Iatrogenic
C.Cephalocaudal
D. Nosocomial

59. development occurs from the

middle outward.
A. Proximo
distal
B.Iatrogenic
C.Cephalocaud
al
D. Nosocomial

60. The embryo’s internal organs develop

before its fingers do. This is an
example of
development.
A. Proximodistal
B. Iatrogenic
C.Cephalocaudal
D. Nosocomial

61. The first chance of survival outside the

womb, known as the age of , is reached
at about 24
weeks gestational age.
A. Epistasis
B. Viability
29
 Developmental
C.Blastocyst Psychology B. Important for the efficiency of neural
D. Fetus transmission
C. A covering on the axons of our neurons
63.By weeks gestational age, all of the D. All of the above
fetus’s organ systems are developed
enough that it could survive outside the
mother’s uterus without many of the risks
associated with premature birth.
A. 9
B. 24
C.37
D. 40

64. Prenatal brain development begins in

the third gestational week with the
differentiation of stem
cells, which are located in the :
A. Neural plate
B. Alpha motor neurons
C.Mammillary bodies
D. Tectum

65.Neurogenesis, or the formation of neurons,

is largely completed after of
gestation.
A. Two months
B. Five months
C.Seven months
D. Nine months

66. According to your textbook, which part of

the brain continues to develop neurons
throughout life?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Thalamus
C.Cerebellum
D. Hippocampus

67. The formation of neurons is called:

A. Apoptosis
B. Neurogenesis
C.Spondylo
sis D.Praxis

68.Regions of the brain that contain the cell

bodies are referred to as the:
A. Gray matter
B. White matter
C.Dark matter
D. Dura mater

69.Regions of the brain that contain the axons

that form the neural pathways are referred
to as the:
A. Gray matter
B. White matter
C.Dark matter
D. Dura mater

70. Myelin is:

A. fatty substance that is white in appearance
30
 Developmental
Psychology
71. are environmental factors D. All of the above
that can contribute to birth defects.
A. Prions
B. Antigens
C.Teratogens
D. Neurogens

72. A factor influencing the effect that

teratogens have on prenatal development is:
A. Amount of exposure
B. Being male or female
C.Timing of exposure
D. All of the above

73. The effects of fetal alcohol spectrum

disorders include:
A. Lower IQ scores
B. Small heads
C.Poor impulse control
D. All of the above

74. The primary way that smoking tobacco

affects prenatal development is by:
A. Producing cancer cells in the lungs of the fetus
B. Reducing the amount of oxygen available to
the fetus
C.Exposing the fetus to high levels of radiation
D. Affecting the absorption of vitamins and other
nutrients available to the fetus

75. is a complication of
pregnancy in which the fertilized egg
implants itself outside of the uterus.
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Preterm birth
C.Placenta previa
D. Placenta abruption

76. is a complication of
pregnancy in which placenta lies low in the
uterus and covers all or part of the cervix.
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Preterm birth
C.Placenta previa
D. Placenta abruption

77. is a complication of
pregnancy in which the placenta separates
prematurely from the uterine wall.
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Preterm birth
C.Placenta previa
D. Placenta abruption

78. Possible effects of smoking during

pregnancy include:
A. Problems with the health and functioning of the
placenta
B. Fetal growth restriction
C.Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
31
 Developmental
Psychology
79.All prescription and over-the-counter can cause problems during prenatal
drugs are safe to take during pregnancy. development?
A. True A. HIV
B. False B. Syphilis
C.Influenza
80. If a baby’s mother used an addictive D. German measles
drug during pregnancy, that baby can get
addicted to the drug before birth and go
through drug withdrawal after birth. This is
called:
A. Neonatal abstinence syndrome
B. Delirium tremens
C.Spongiform encephalopathy
D. Pseudobulbar effect

81. Why is it difficult to determine the

effects of illicit drugs on prenatal
development?
A.Because women who use drugs may use more
than one drug
B.Because women who use drugs may be exposed
to other teratogens such as alcohol and tobacco
smoke
C. Because women who smoke may have other
unhealthy habits such as poor nutrition
D. All of the above

81. Possible effects of exposure to illicit

drugs during pregnancy include:
A. Premature birth
B. Heart defects
C.Brain defects
D. All of the above

82. Possible effects of exposure to illicit

drugs during pregnancy include:
A. Premature birth
B. Heart defects
C.Brain defects
D. All of the above

83. Which of the following chemicals

appears to have negative effects on
prenatal development?
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C.Bisphenol A
D. All of the above

84. is a parasite found in cat

feces, dirt, and uncooked meats and can
cause problems during prenatal
development.
A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Toxoplasma gondii
C.Balatidium coli
D. Cystoisospora belli

85. Which of the following is NOT

mentioned in your book as an illness that

32
 Developmental
Psychology D. Trick question! All of these are mentioned
86. Being an older parent is associated
with more medical risks, but there are also 95.The is a test in which sound
possible positive consequences, such as waves are used to examine the fetus.
increased stability and better income. A. Amniocentesis
A. True B. Ultrasound
B. False

87. The increased risk of medical and

genetic complications starts when women
turn age:
A. 15
B. 35
C.21
D. 60

88. Both mothers under age 15 and over age

35 are at increased risk of having premature
babies.
A. True
B. False

89.Babies born to women with gestational

diabetes will be diabetic themselves.
A. True
B. False

90.Women who develop diabetes during

pregnancy will be permanently diabetic after
giving birth.
A. True
B. False

91. Rh disease is:

A. A sexually transmitted disease
B. Caused by developing diabetes during
pregnancy
C. A form of anemia
D. Caused by developing hypertension during
pregnancy

92. All women should gain the same amount

of weight during pregnancy, regardless of
their pre-pregnancy weight.
A. True
B. False

93. During pregnancy, most women do not

need to double their caloric intake, but
simply add a few hundred extra calories to
their diet.
A. True
B. False

94. Which of the following emotional states

is NOT mentioned in your book as a cause of
problems during prenatal development?
A. Depression
B. Stress
C.Schizophrenia

33
 Developmental
C. Alpha-fetoprotein test Psychology A. Uterine contractions that increase in
D. Chorionic villus sampling duration and frequency
B. Braxton-Hicks contractions
96.The is a test in which a needle C.Passage of the baby through the birth canal
is used to withdraw a small amount of D. Delivery of the placenta
amniotic fluid and cells from the sac
surrounding the fetus and later tested.
A. Amniocentesis
B. Ultrasound
C. Alpha-fetoprotein test
D. Chorionic villus sampling

97.The is a test in which a small

sample of cells is taken from the placenta
and tested.
A. Amniocentesis
B. Ultrasound
C. Alpha-fetoprotein test
D. Chorionic villus sampling

98. Which procedure involves implanting

both sperm and ova into the fallopian tube
and allowing fertilization to occur
naturally?
a) In vitro fertilization
b) Intrauterine insemination
*c) Gamete intra-fallopian tube transfer
d) Zygote intra-fallopian tube transfer

99. is characterized by a sharp rise

in blood pressure, a leakage of protein into
the urine as a result of kidney problems, and
swelling of the hands, feet, and face during
the third trimester of pregnancy.
A. Eclampsia
B. Preeclampsia
C.Toxemia
D. Both B and C, because they mean the same
thing

100. The emphasis of the method

is on teaching the woman to be in control in
the process of delivery by encouraging
things like muscle relaxation and breathing
through contractions.
A. Ferber
B. Fl
etcher
C.Lama
ze
D. Braxton-Hicks

101. The first stage of labor involves:

A. Uterine contractions that increase in
duration and frequency
B. Braxton-Hicks contractions
C.Passage of the baby through the birth canal
D. Delivery of the placenta

102. The second stage of labor involves:

34
 Developmental
Psychology
103. The third stage of labor involves: D. The baby needed resuscitation immediately after
A. Uterine contractions that increase in birth
duration and frequency
B. Braxton-Hicks contractions
C.Passage of the baby through the birth canal
D. Delivery of the placenta

104. T
he longest stage of labor is typically the
stage.
A. First
B. Second
C.Third
D.Trick question! All three stages of labor usually
last the same amount of time

105. contractions are also called

“false labor”.
A. Ehlers-Danlos
B. Machado-Joseph
C.Braxton-Hicks
D. Aarskog-Scott

106. A(n) is an incision made

in the tissue between the vaginal opening
and anus to prevent vaginal tearing.
A. Cesarean section
B. Episiotomy
C.Laparotomy
D. Vaginoplasty

107.A(n) is a regional analgesic

that can be used during labor and
alleviates most pain in the lower body
without slowing labor.
A. Auscultation
B. Politzerization
C.Nocebo
D. Epidural block
108.A(n) is surgery to deliver the
baby by being removed through the mother's
abdomen.
A. Cesarean section
B. Episiotomy
C.Laparotomy
D. Vaginoplasty

109. Cesarean sections and induced labor

are sometimes used when complications,
such as medical problems in the mother,
arise.
A. True
B. False

110. When we say that a birth is “induced”,

we mean that:
A. The baby is born prematurely
B. The baby was conceived using some kind of
fertility treatment
C.The baby was delivered before labor begins
35
 Developmental
Psychology
111. In the Apgar assessment, the P stands for:
A. Proprioception
B. Pulse
C.Position
D. Pregnancy

112. The Apgar assessment is used to

assess functioning:
A. During labor and delivery
B. During prenatal development
C. At one and five minutes after birth
D. One day after birth

113. In addition to the Apgar assessment,

we can also assess newborn functioning
using the:
A. Differential Ability Scales
B. Bayley Scales of Infant Development
C.Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale
D. Denver Developmental Screening Questionnaire

114. is a temporary lack of

oxygen to the brain that can result in brain
damage or, in severe cases, death.
A. Ataxia
B. Apraxia
C. Agnosia
D. Anoxia

115. A baby is
considered to be of “low birth weight” if
they weigh less than at birth.
A. 7 pounds
B. 5 pounds, 8 ounces
C.3 pounds, 5 ounces
D. 2 pounds

116. A baby is considered to be

preterm if they are born before weeks
gestational age.
A. 9
B. 24
C.37
D. 40

117. Infants who weigh less than 90% of all

babies of the same gestational age are
referred to as:
A. Preterm
B. Low birth weight
C.Small-for-date
D. All of the above, because all of these terms
mean the same thing

118. A baby may be full term but still be

considered small-for-date.
A. True
B. False

36
 Developmental
Psychology D. The improvement in sensory functions as a
Chapter 03Infancy and Toddlerhood result of synapse formation

1. The average newborn in the 9. Which part of the neuron passes messages
United States weighs about pounds. away from the cell body and on to other
A. 5.5 neurons?
B. 7.5 A. Axon
C.10
D. 3.5

2. Newborns typically lose weight in the

first few days after birth.
A. True
B. False

3. The
average American baby will their
birth weight by the time they turn 1 year
old.
A. Double
B. Triple
C.Quadruple
D. Trick question! Babies don’t gain any
weight between birth and 1 year of age

4. As we progress from infancy

into adulthood, our head makes up of our
body length.
A. The same amount
B. More
C.Less

5. We are born with most of the neurons

we will ever have.
A. True
B. False

6. are branching extensions

that collect information from other
neurons.
A. Axons
B. Myelin sheaths
C.Synapses
D. Dendrites

7. The formation of connections between

neurons is called:
A. Neurogenesis
B. Neural migration
C.Synaptogenesis
D. Predictive wiring

8. The term “synaptic blooming” refers to:

A. The improvement in cognitive and motor skills
as a result of synapse formation
B. The period of rapid neural growth in
infancy and toddlerhood
C.The time period in the late 20th century when
scientists learned a lot about how the brain
works

37
 Developmental
B. Myelin sheath Psychology
C.Synapse 17. The lobe is
D. Dendrite responsible primarily for processing
information about touch.
10. The electrical signal traveling down A. Temporal
the axon is called the: B. Frontal
A. Afferent impulse C.Parietal
B. Efferent impulse
C. Action potential
d) H-reflex

11. The process through which neural

connections are reduced, thereby making
those that are used much stronger, is
called:
A. Heterotopia
B. Synaptic pruning
C.Watershed infarct
D. Oligemia

12. Which of the following statements

about synaptic pruning is FALSE?
A. It is the result of some kind of illness or injury
to the brain
B. It helps the brain work more efficiently
C.It is affected by experience
D. It continues into childhood and adolescence

13. Myelin is:

A. A chemical that is released by the synapse
B A build-up of fatty deposits in our cerebral arteries
C. A loss of pain sensation
D. A coating of fatty tissues around the axon of
the neuron

14. Which of the following is a function of

myelin?
A. Speed the rate of transmission of impulses
from one cell to another
B. Improve coordination and control of
movement and thought processes
C.Insulate the nerve cell
D. All of the above

15. The cortex is:

A. The thin outer covering of the brain involved
in voluntary activity and thinking
B. The structure at the back of the brain that
coordinates movement
C.The part of the brain that produces cerebrospinal
fluid
D. A collection of fluid-filled chambers inside the
brain

16. The lobe is

responsible primarily for thinking,
planning, memory, and judgment.
A. Temporal
B. Frontal
C.Parietal
D. Occipital
38
 Developmental
Psychology
D. Occipital C. An infant accidentally suffocates from
bedding, stuffed animals, or another person
18. The lobe processes obstructing their breathing
visual information. D. All of the above
A. Temporal
B. Frontal
C.Parietal
D. Occipital

19. The lobe is responsible

for hearing and language.
A. Temporal
B. Frontal
C.Parietal
D. Occipital

20. is the process in which

different functions become localized primarily
on one side of the brain.
A. Transmogrification
B. Lateralization
C.Myelination
D. Synaptogenesis

21. Which term refers to the brain’s

ability to change, both physically and
chemically, to enhance its adaptability to
environmental change and compensate for
injury?
A. Double simultaneous stimulation
B. Abulia
C.Neuroplasticity
D. Skew deviation

22. When we refer to infant sleep as

“polyphasic”, we mean that:
A. Infants go through several different stages of
sleep
B. Infants spend more time in REM sleep than
adults do
C.The amount of sleep infants need changes as
they get older
D. Infants sleep in several periods
throughout the day instead of just one long
time period at night

23. Approximately how much time does a

newborn sleep during a 24-hour period?
A. 16 hours
B. 24 hours
C.8 hours
D. 10 hours

24. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is

identified when:
A. An infant is stillborn
B. The death of a healthy infant occurs
suddenly and unexpectedly, and medical and
forensic investigation findings (including an
autopsy) are inconclusive
39
 Developmental
25. Rates of Sudden Infant Death Psychology D. Nosocomial
Syndrome began to decline significantly in
the mid-1990s after the American Academy 33. development occurs
of Pediatrics recommended that: from the middle outward.
A. Mothers breastfeed A. Proximodistal
B. Parents avoid co-sleeping with their infants
C.Babies be put to bed on their backs
D. Adults not smoke in houses where babies lived

26. are involuntary

movements in response to stimulation.
A. Action potentials
B. Reflexes
C.Gross motor skills
D. Fine motor skills

27. The reflex involves

turning the head when the cheek is
touched.
A. Babinski
B. Moro
C.Tonic neck
D. Rooting

28. The reflex involves

the toes fanning out and curling when the
sole of the foot is stroked from heel to
toe.
A. Babinski
B. Moro
C.Tonic neck
D. Rooting

29. Within the first few months after birth,

some of our reflexes disappear.
A. True
B. False

30. Reflexes are useful because they:

A. Offer pediatricians insight into the
maturation and health of the nervous system
B. Are important to feeding (such as the rooting
and sucking reflexes)
C. Are primitive forms of voluntary
behaviors (such as grasping and stepping)
D. All of the above

31. development occurs from

head to tail.
A. Proximodistal
B. Iatrogenic
C.Cephalocaudal
D. Nosocomial

32. Babies
learn to hold their heads up before they learn
to walk. This is an example of
development.
A. Proximodistal
B. Iatrogenic
C.Cephalocaudal
40
 Developmental
Psychology
B. Iatrogenic A. Limbic grasp
C.Cephalocaudal B. Infantile grasp
D. Nosocomial C.Pincer grasp
D. Palmer grasp
34. All babies should achieve developmental
milestones, such as being able to walk, at
exactly the same age or this indicates a
serious problem.
A. True
B. False

35. Which term refers to our ability to move

our bodies and manipulate objects?
A. Praxis
B. Asterixis
C.Neuralgia
D. Motor skills

36. motor skills focus on the muscles

in our fingers, toes, and eyes, and enable
coordination of small actions.
A. Gross
B. Fine
C.Hypertonic
D. Hypotonic

37. Usin
g a spoon is an example of a
motor skill.
A. Gross
B. Fine
C.Hypertonic
D. Hypotonic

38. motor skills focus on large muscle

groups that control our head, torso, arms and
legs and involve larger movements.
A. Gross
B. Fine
C.Hypertonic
D. Hypotonic

39. Ru
nning and jumping are examples of
motor skills.
A. Gross
B. Fine
C.Hypertonic
D. Hypotonic

40. Which typically develops first in infants,

the palmer grasp or the pincer grasp?
A. Palmer
B. Pincer
C.Trick question! Infants never develop either one
D. Trick question! They usually develop at the
same time

41. Grasping an object using the forefinger

and thumb is called the:
41
 Developmental
Psychology from unfamiliar voices by the time
42. Grasping an object using the hand and they’re 1 month old.
fingers, but not the thumb, is called the: A. True
A. Limbic grasp
B. Infantile grasp
C.Pincer grasp
D. Palmer grasp

43. Which of the following senses appears

to be least developed at birth?
A. Hearing
B. Touch
C.Vision
D. Smell

44. A newborns’ visual acuity is about:

A. 20/20
B. 20/400
C.20/15
D. 20/25

45. Infants will best be able to see things

that:
A. Are close to their faces (instead of far away)
B. Have big patterns (instead of small ones)
C.Contain high contrast colors like black and white
(instead of pastels)
D. All of the above

46. Typically, infants can perceive depth in

both real life and pictures by:
A. 1 month of age
B. 4 months of age
C.6 months of age
D. 1 year of age

47. Infants typically prefer to look at:

A. Faces instead of other patterns
B. Patterns instead of solid colors
C.Unusual images instead of familiar ones
D. All of the above

48. Infants appear to be able to hear even

before they’re born.
A. True
B. False

49. Infants are innately ready to respond

to the sounds of any language, but some of
this ability will be lost by 7 or 8 months as
the infant becomes familiar with the
sounds of a particular language and less
sensitive to sounds that are part of an
unfamiliar language. This is consistent with
the concept of:
A. Heterotopia
B. Synaptic pruning
C.Watershed infarct
D. Oligemia

50. Infants can distinguish familiar

42
 Developmental
Psychology
B. False C.Lower rates of ear and respiratory infections
D. All of the above
51. Newborns
prefer to hear voice over 59. In general, women who breastfeed have:
other voices. A. Lower rates of breast and ovarian cancer
A. Their father’s B. Uterine contractions that help the uterus regain
B. Their own its normal size
C.Their mother’s
D. An Autotuned

52. is the surgical removal of the

foreskin of the penis.
A. Castration
B. Circumcision
C.Cathererization
D. Cauterization

53. Babies appear to be sensitive to pain, as

measured by responses such as increases in
heart rate, blood pressure, and stress
hormones.
A. True
B. False

54. Newborns can distinguish between

sour, bitter, sweet, and salty flavors and
show a preference
for flavors.
A. Salty
B. Sour
C.Bitter
D. Sweet

55. Newborns prefer their mother’s smell

over the smell of other mothers.
A. True
B. False

56. Decreased responsiveness to a

stimulus after repeated presentations is
called:
A. Entrenchment
B. Proprioception
C.Habituation
D. Reticular formation

57. The speed or efficiency with which

infants show habituation has been shown to
predict outcomes in behaviors such as
language acquisition and verbal and
nonverbal intelligence.
A. True
B. False

58. In general, babies who are fed breast

milk have:
A. Fewer instances of diarrhea and upset
stomachs
B. Lower rates of asthma, diabetes, and SIDS
43
 Developmental
C.Reduced risk of developing Type 2 diabetesPsychology development, a framework for organizing
D. All of the above information is referred to as a(n):
A. Prototype
60. Breastfed and bottle-fed infants seem B. Exemplar
to be equally emotionally healthy. C.Schema
A. True D. Stereotype
B. False

61. According to your textbook, which of the

following is NOT a sign that an infant is
ready for solid foods?
A. Can sit up without needing support
B. Is able to move foods from the front to
the back of the mouth
C.Has developed at least four teeth
D. Shows interest in foods others are eating

62. Which of the following statements

about introducing solid foods to babies is
FALSE?
A. New foods should be introduced one at a time
to check for allergies and allow the baby to adjust
B. Honey is a safe natural sweetener for babies
C.Foods that are sticky, cut into large chunks, and
firm and round should be avoided as they are a
choking hazard
D. Iron-fortified infant cereals mixed with
breast milk or formula are usually the best
first options

63. refers to starvation due to

a lack of calories and protein.
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Kwashiorkor
C.Infantile marasmus
D. Sectoranopia

64. Children with

have diets deficient in protein,
usually because another baby has been
born and taken over breastfeeding.
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Kwashiorkor
C.Infantile marasmus
D. Sectoranopia

65. According to figures from the World

Health Organization and UNICEF, 1 child in
every 13 children in the world suffers from
some form of wasting disease.
A. True
B. False

66. Early malnutrition is associated with:

A. Attention problems
B. Behavioral issues at school
C.Lower IQ scores
D. All of the above

67. In Piaget’s theory of cognitive

44
 Developmental
Psychology D. Primary circular reactions
68. The process of fitting new
information into an existing schema is 75. Hiromi sees a toy car under the kitchen
called: table and then crawls, reaches, and grabs
A. Accommodation the toy. Which of Piaget’s substages is she
B. Assimilation illustrating here?
C. Attribution
D. Affiliation

69. Malik has a dog at home and so is familiar

with what a dog is. He sees a bear for the
first time and says “Doggie!” What process
is he using?
A. Accommodation
B. Assimilation
C. Attribution
D. Affiliation

70. The process of expanding the

framework of knowledge to accommodate the
new situation is called:
A. Accommodation
B. Assimilation
C. Attribution
D. Affiliation

71. Carmen has a dog at home and so is

familiar with what a dog is. She sees a bear
for the first time and says “Doggie!” Her
sister says “No, that’s a bear”, and Carmen
now has separate schemas for dogs and bears.
What process is being described here?
A. Accommodation
B. Assimilation
C. Attribution
D. Affiliation

72. The first stage of cognitive development

in Piaget’s theory is the:
A. Concrete operational period
B. Preoperational period
C.Sensorimotor period
D. Formal operational period

73. Piaget’s sensorimotor period has six

substages. In which substage does the infant
begin to actively involve their own body in
some form of repeated activity?
A. Coordination of secondary circular reactions
B. Beginning of representational thought
C.Secondary circular reactions
D. Primary circular reactions

74. Piaget’s sensorimotor period has six

substages. In which substage does the
infant begin to interact with objects in the
environment, first accidentally and then
deliberately?
A. Coordination of secondary circular reactions
B. Beginning of representational thought
C.Secondary circular reactions
45
 Developmental
A. Psychology
Coordination of secondary circular reactions
B. Reflexes 83. The smallest unit of sound that makes a
C.Secondary circular reactions meaningful difference in a language is called
D. Tertiary circular reactions a:
A. Morpheme
76. The “little scientist” substage B. Grapheme
of Piaget’s sensorimotor period is
also called:
A. Secondary circular reactions
B. Coordination of secondary circular reactions
C.Beginning of representational thought
D. Tertiary circular reactions

77. Rahul has a basic understanding that

objects can be used as symbols and can solve
problems using mental strategies, remember
and repeat something heard days before,
and engage in pretend play. Which of
Piaget’s substages is he in?
A. Tertiary circular reactions
B. Beginning of representational thought
C.Secondary circular reactions
D. Primary circular reactions

78. is the
understanding that even if something
is out of sight, it still exists.
A. Object permanence
B. Categorical schema
C.Doppler effect
D. Pareidolia

79. Although some of Piaget’s ideas

appear to be accurate, he also appeared to
underestimate the abilities of infants.
A. True
B. False

80. The inability to recall memories from

the first few years of life is called:
A. Proactive amnesia)
B. Source amnesia
C.Infantile amnesia
D. Retroactive amnesia

81. Which of the following is NOT

mentioned in your book as a likely cause
of infantile amnesia?
A. Immaturity of the infant brain
B. Lack of linguistic skills, which limits the
ability to mentally represent events and encode
memory
C.Lack of understanding of “self”
D. Repression of traumatic experiences

82. Deferred imitation is:

A. Imitation of actions in order to get a reward
B. Imitation of actions after a time delay
C.Imitation of actions of an authority figure
D. Imitation of actions in order to avoid
punishment
46
 Developmental
Psychology
C.Phoneme meaning and comprise a consonant-vowel
D. Lexeme repeated sequence
B. A one-syllable combination of a consonant and
84. Your book defines “language” as: a vowel sound
A. A communicative ability present in all animals C.The infant understanding more than they can say
B. A system of communication that uses symbols
in a regular way to create meaning
C.The system of communication used by a
particular community or country
D. The expression of ideas by means of
speech-sounds combined into words

85. A string of one or more phonemes that

makes up the smallest units of meaning in a
language is called a:
A. Morpheme
B. Grapheme
C.Phoneme
D. Lexeme

86. The set of rules we use to obtain

meaning from morphemes is called:
A. Pragmatics
B. Semantics
C.Syntax
D. Morphology

87. The set of rules of a language by which we

construct sentencesis called:
A. Pragmatics
B. Semantics
C.Syntax
D. Morphology

88. How we communicate effectively and

appropriately with others is called:
A. Pragmatics
B. Semantics
C.Syntax
D. Morphology

89. We use contextual information, the

information surrounding language, to help us
interpret it. Examples of contextual
information include:
A. Our own knowledge
B. Facial expressions
C.Gestures
D. All of the above

90. Crying, gestures, and facial

expressions are all forms of communication
that babies use before they develop
language.
A. True
B. False

91. According to your textbook, cooing is

defined as:
A. Intentional vocalizations that lack specific
47
 Developmental
D. One-word expressions Psychology A. Holophrases
B. Babbling
92. According to your textbook, babbling is C.Telegraphic speech
defined as: D. Jargon
A. Intentional vocalizations that lack specific
meaning and comprise a consonant-vowel 99. Infant-directed speech is also called:
repeated sequence
B. A one-syllable combination of a consonant
and a vowel sound
C.The infant understanding more than they can say
D. One-word expressions

93. According to your textbook, receptive

language is defined as:
A. Intentional vocalizations that lack specific
meaning and comprise a consonant-vowel
repeated sequence
B. A one-syllable combination of a consonant
and a vowel sound
C.The infant understanding more than they can say
D. One-word expressions

94. According to your textbook,

holophrasic speech is defined as:
A. Intentional vocalizations that lack specific
meaning and comprise a consonant-vowel
repeated sequence
B. A one-syllable combination of a consonant
and a vowel sound
C.The infant understanding more than they can say
D. One-word expressions

95. Thinking that a word can be used

for only that particular object, such as
thinking that “Mama” refers only to your
own mother and no one else, is called:
A. Overregularization
B. Underregularization
C.Underextension
D. Overextension

96. Thinking that a label applies to all

objects that are similar to the original
object, such as thinking that “Mama”
applies to every woman regardless of her
relation to you, is called:
A. Overregularization
B. Underregularization
C.Underextension
D. Overextension

97. The first word of English-speaking

children tend to be:
A. Nouns
B. Verbs
C. Adjectives
D. Adverbs

98. Utterances such as “Mommy go” or

“Daddy shoe” are examples of:

48
 Developmental
Psychology
A. Telegraphic speech 107.In Chomsky’s terms, how an idea is
B. Baby talk expressed in any one language is called the:
C.Text message speech A. Manifest content
D. Jargon

100.Infant-directed speech involves:

A. Using a high-pitched voice
B. Exaggerating the vowel and consonant sounds
C.Using facial expressions
D. All of the above

101. Our ability to use language is influenced by

both nature and nurture.
A. True
B. False

102.Which of the following research findings

supports the idea that language is not solely
learned from our environment?
A. Children say things (such as errors like
“eated”) that they have never heard other people
say
B. Children may learn languages better than they
ever hear them
C.Children learn words too fast for them to be
learned through reinforcement
D. All of the above

103. believed we learn language

through association and reinforcement.
A. Skinner
B. Bandura
C.Chomsky
D. Lennenberg

104. believed we learn language

through observation and imitation.
A. Skinner
B. Bandura
C.Chomsky
D. Lennenberg

105. believed we learn language

due to a hardwired knowledge of the rules
of language that is part of our biological
makeup.
A. Skinner
B. Bandura
C.Chomsky
D. Lennenberg

106.In Chomsky’s terms, how an idea is

represented in the fundamental universal
grammar that is common to all languages is
called the:
A. Manifest content
B. Latent content
C.Surface structure
D. Deep structure

49
 Developmental
B. Latent content Psychology B. Easy
C.Surface structure C.Slow to warm up
D. Deep structure D. Undifferentiated

108. , an area in front of 114. In Chess and

the left hemisphere near the motor Thomas’ system for classifying infant
cortex, is responsible for language temperaments, a(n) infant is
production. described as
A. Wernicke’s area
B. Broca’s area
C.Cerebellum
D. Hippocampus

109. , an area of the brain

next to the auditory cortex, is
responsible for language
comprehension.
A. Wernicke’s area
B. Broca’s area
C.Cerebellum
D. Hippocampus

110. The term refers

to the innate characteristics of the
infant, including mood, activity level, and
emotional reactivity, noticeable soon after
birth.
A. Personality
B. Equilibrium
C.Temperament
D. Habituation

111.In Chess and Thomas’ system for

classifying infant temperaments, which
type is most common?
A. Difficult
B. Easy
C.Slow to warm up
D. Trick question! These types all appear
to be equally common

112. In Chess and

Thomas’ system for classifying infant
temperaments, a(n) infant is
described as being able to quickly adapt
to routine and new situations, remains
calm, is easy to soothe, and usually is in a
positive mood.
A. Difficult
B. Easy
C.Slow to warm up
D. Undifferentiated

113. In Chess and

Thomas’ system for classifying infant
temperaments, a(n) infant is
described as being one who reacts
negatively to new situations, has trouble
adapting to routine, is usually negative in
mood, and cries frequently.
A. Difficult
50
 Developmental
Psychology
being one who has a low activity level, adjusts D. Emotional self-regulation
slowly to new situations and is often
negative in mood. 122.The process whereby we use strategies to
A. Difficult control our emotional states so that we can
B. Easy attain goals is called:
C.Slow to warm up A. Separation anxiety
D. Undifferentiated

115. The term refers to

how well the interaction styles and
communication patterns between infants and
their parents match.
A. Habituation
B. Personality
C.Stephosymbolia
D. Goodness of fit

116. The term refers to

an individual’s consistent pattern of
feeling, thinking, and behaving.
A. Personality
B. Equilibrium
C.Temperament
D. Habituation

117.Personality can best be thought

of as an elaboration and extension of
infant temperament.
A. True
B. False

118.Infants begin to smile at other people

who engage their positive attention at
around:
A. Two months of age
B. Four months of age
C.Six months of age
D. One year of age

119.Fear in response to the presence of a

stranger is called:
A. Separation anxiety
B. Stranger wariness
C.Social referencing
D. Emotional self-regulation

120.Fear in response to the departure of

significant others is called:
A. Separation anxiety
B. Stranger wariness
C.Social referencing
D. Emotional self-regulation

121.The process whereby infants seek out

information from others to clarify a situation
and then use that information to act is
called:
A. Separation anxiety
B. Stranger wariness
C.Social referencing
51
 Developmental
B. Stranger wariness Psychology A. He was weird
C.Social referencing B. He believed that infants gained pleasure from
D. Emotional self-regulation sucking and mouthing objects, so the person who
fed them would become their source of security
123.Which of the following is NOT a basic and comfort
emotion?
A. Shame
B. Sadness
C. Anger
D. Fear

124.Which of the following is NOT a self-

conscious emotion?
A. Doubt
B. Envy
C.Disgust
D. Pride

125.The ability to experience emotions

such as shame and pride requires the
development of:
A. Secure attachment
B. Language skills
C.Fine motor skills
D. A self-concept

126.The realization that you are separate

from others is called:
A. Self-concept
B. Self-awareness
C.Self-esteem
D. Self-serving bias

127. is the close bond with

a caregiver from which the infant
derives a sense of security.
A. Attachment
B. Couvade
C.Secure base
D. Contact comfort

128.The infant's need for physical

closeness and touching is referred to
as
A. Att
achment
B
Couvade
C.Secure base
D. Contact comfort

129. is a parental presence

that gives the child a sense of safety as
the child explores the surroundings.
A. Attachment
B. Couvade
C.Secure base
D. Contact comfort

130.Freud believed that infants became

attached to their mothers because:
52
 Developmental
Psychology
C.He did several experiments with monkeys in disorganized attachment will typically:
laboratory settings that demonstrated this A. Explore the environment, be upset when the
D. He observed babies interact in different caregiver leaves, and calm down when the
settings and drew conclusions from naturalistic caregiver returns
observation B. Cling to the caregiver, be upset when the
caregiver leaves, but remain upset when the
131.According to Bowlby, which of the caregiver returns
following is NOT required in order for infants to C. Avoid or ignore the mother and show little
form healthy attachments with their parents? reaction when separated or reunited
A. The caregiver must be responsive to the
child’s physical, social, and emotional needs
B The infant must successfully resolve the crisis of
Trust vs. Mistrust
C.The caregiver and child must engage in
mutually enjoyable interactions
D. Trick question! Bowlby believed that all of
these things were required for healthy
attachment

132.According to Erikson, which of the

following is required in order for infants to
successfully resolve the crisis of Trust vs.
Mistrust?
A. The caregiver must be consistently
responsive to the child’s needs
B. The caregiver must co-sleep with the infant
C.The caregiver must set firm limits on the infant
D. All of the above

133.Which of the following is NOT part of

the Strange Situation?
A. Unfamiliar environment
B. Presence of stranger
C. Absence of caregiver
D. All the furniture is nailed to the ceiling

134.Which of the following situations could

result in the infant failing to successfully
resolve the crisis of Trust vs. Mistrust?
A. A caregiver is unavailable, either emotionally or
physically
B. A child is born prematurely or has medical
problems
C. A caregiver is ill-prepared to care for a child
D. All of the above

135.In the Strange Situation, a child with

a secure attachment will typically:
A. Explore the environment, be upset when the
caregiver leaves, and calm down when the
caregiver returns
B. Cling to the caregiver, be upset when the
caregiver leaves, but remain upset when the
caregiver returns
C. Avoid or ignore the mother and show little
reaction when separated or reunited
D. Behave in inconsistent ways, such as
approaching the mother and then freezing

136.In the Strange Situation, a child with a

53
 Developmental
D. Behave in inconsistent ways, such as Psychology seems disoriented in the environment, is
approaching the mother and then freezing upset when his mother leaves, but ignores
her when she returns. His attachment style
137.In the Strange Situation, a child with can best be described as:
an avoidant attachment will typically: A. Secure
A. Explore the environment, be upset when B. Ambivalent
the caregiver leaves, and calm down when the C. Avoidant
caregiver returns D. Disorganized
B. Cling to the caregiver, be upset when
the caregiver leaves, but remain upset
when the caregiver returns
C. Avoid or ignore the mother and show little
reaction when separated or reunited
D. Behave in inconsistent ways, such as
approaching the mother and then freezing

138.In the Strange Situation, a child with an

ambivalent attachment will typically:
A. Explore the environment, be upset when
the caregiver leaves, and calm down when the
caregiver returns
B. Cling to the caregiver, be upset when
the caregiver leaves, but remain upset
when the caregiver returns
C. Avoid or ignore the mother and show little
reaction when separated or reunited
D. Behave in inconsistent ways, such as
approaching the mother and then freezing

139.During the Strange Situation, Chaska

explores the environment, is upset when
his mother leaves, and is comforted when
she returns. His attachment style can best
be described as:
A. Secure
B. Ambivalent
C. Avoidant
D. Disorganized

140.During the Strange Situation, Mei

pays little attention to her mother and
doesn’t seem to care whether or not she’s
present. Her attachment style can best be
described as:
A. Secure
B. Ambivalent
C. Avoidant
D. Disorganized

141.During the Strange Situation, Nnenne

clings to her mother, is upset when her
mother leaves, but does not calm down her
mother returns. Her attachment style can
best be described as:
A. Secure
B. Ambivalent
C. Avoidant
D. Disorganized

142.During the Strange Situation, Iyad

54
 Developmental
Psychology 150.Which of the following is associated with
reactive attachment disorder?
143.In the United States, the most common
attachment style appears to be:
A. Secure
B. Ambivalent
C. Avoidant
D. Disorganized

144.A measurement technique in which a

large number of behaviors are recorded on
cards and the observer sorts the cards in a
way that reflects the type of behavior that
occurs within the situation is called:
A. Factor analysis
B. Q-sort
C. Analysis of covariation
D. Multiple regression

145. A(n) attachment

develops when there is consistent contact
from one or more caregivers who meet the
physical and emotional needs of the child in a
responsive and appropriate manner.
A. Secure
B. Ambivalent
C. Avoidant
D. Disorganized

146. A(n) attachment

occurs when the caregiver does not provide
care and cannot be relied upon for
comfort.
A. Secure
B. Ambivalent
C. Avoidant
D. Disorganized

147. A(n) attachment occurs

when the parent is insensitive and responds
inconsistently to the child’s needs.
A. Secure
B. Ambivalent
C. Avoidant
D. Disorganized

148. A(n) attachment is often

seen in children who have been abused.
A. Secure
B. Ambivalent
C. Avoidant
D. Disorganized

149.The diagnosis for an infant who does

not grow, develop, or gain weight on
schedule is:
A. Non-organic failure to thrive
B. Postpartum depression
C.Reactive attachment disorder
D. Disorganized attachment

55
 Developmental
A. Psychology
Developmentally inappropriate attachment
behavior, such as being inhibited and withdrawn
B. Limited positive affect
C.Minimal social and emotional responsiveness to
others
D. All of the above

151.Children are at risk for

developing reactive attachment
disorder if they:
A. Repeatedly change primary caregivers
B. Experience social neglect or deprivation
C. Are reared in institutional settings
D. All of the above

152.Being able to overcome

challenges and successfully adapt
is called:
A. Hardiness
B. Grit
C.Resiliency
D. Moxie

153.According to Erikson, if a caregiver

is overly anxious about the toddler’s
actions for fear that the child will get
hurt or violate others’ expectations, the
toddler may fail to successfully achieve:
A. Trust
B. Autonomy
C.Industry
D. Initiative

154.According to Erikson, toddlers should be

allowed to explore their environment as
freely as safety allows.
A. True
B. False

155.Which of the following is NOT one of

the domains measured by the Bayley Scales
of Infant Development?
A. Language
B. Adaptive behavior
C.Mathematics
D. Motor

56
 Developmental
Psychology
Chapter 04Early Childhood
8)The hemisphere of the brain is
1)Children between the ages of two and six heavily involved in language tasks.
years tend to grow about in height A. L
each year. eft
A. 3 inches B..Right
B. 33 inches
C.6 inches
D. 44 inches

2)Children between the ages of two and six

years tend to gain about in weight each
year.
A. 8 to 10 pounds
B. 3 to 5 pounds
C.23 to 28 pounds
D. 40 to 50 pounds

3)Growth during childhood occurs in spurts

instead of a steady continual progression.
A. True
B. False

4)Children between the ages of two and

six years sometimes show a decrease in
appetite.
A. T
rue
B.Fals
e

5)Greater development in the prefrontal cortex,

the area of the brain behind the forehead,
helps us to:
A. Understand how to play games, especially
ones that involve strategy and planning
B. Control attention
C.Inhibit emotional outbursts
D. All of the above

6)The human brain reaches 95% of its adult

weight by the time a child is:
A.1 year old
B. 3 years old
C. 6 years old
D. 10 years old

7)Changes in the human brain that occur

between ages three and six years include:
A. Development of dendrites
B. Myelination
C.Growth of the corpus callosum
D. All of the above
57
 Developmental
Psychology D. Can run with some coordination
9)The hemisphere of the brain is
heavily involved in spatial tasks. 16) Which of the following gross motor skills
A. Left could be seen in a 4-year-old, but not a 3-
B. Right year-old?
A. Can pedal a tricycle
10) The is a dense B. Throws a ball overhand with coordination
band of fibers that connects the two
hemispheres of the brain.
A. Longitudinal fissure
B. Limbic system
C.Corpus callosum
D. Reticular formation

11) The term refers to

the brain’s ability to change its structure
and function in response to experience or
damage.
A. Neuroplasticity
B. Anisocoria
C.Red desaturation
D. Sectoranopia

12) Which of the following fine motor

skills could be seen in a 3-year-old, but
not a 2-year-old?
A. Can turn a doorknob
B. Can look through a book turning one page at a
time
C.Drawing a person with 3 parts
D. Building a tower of 6-7 cubes

13) Which of the following fine motor

skills could be seen in a 4-year-old, but
not a 3-year-old?
A. Can copy a circle
B. Can cut out a picture using scissors
C.Builds tower of 9 blocks
D. Feeding self easily

14) Which of the following fine motor

skills could be seen in a 5-year-old, but
not a 4-year-old?
A. Drawing a square
B. Managing a spoon and fork neatly while eating
C.Putting on clothes properly
D. Using a knife to spread soft foods

15) Which of the following gross motor

skills could be seen in a 3-year-old, but not
a 2-year-old?
A. Can kick a ball without losing balance
B. Can pick up objects while standing, without
losing balance
C.Can pedal a tricycle
58
 Developmental
Psychology
C.Can briefly balance and hop on one foot 22) Minah can pedal a tricycle.
D. May walk up stairs with alternating feet Assuming that her motor skill development is on
(without holding the rail) track, this tells us that she must be at least
years old.
17) Which of the following gross motor skills A. 2
could be seen in a 5-year-old, but not a 4- B. 3
year-old? C. 4
A. Stays balanced while standing on one foot D. 5
with eyes closed
B. Hops on 1 foot without losing balance
C.Throws a ball overhand with coordination
D. Using a knife to spread soft foods

18) N
yawira can build a block tower of more than
9 cubes. Assuming that her motor skill
development is on track, this tells us that
she must be at least
years old.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

19) Bowie is
able to put on simple clothes without help.
Assuming that his motor skill development is
on track, this tells us that he must be at least
years old.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

20) Josh can copy a triangle.

Assuming that his motor skill development is
on track, this tells us that he must be at
least years old.
A. 2
B. 3
C.4
D.5

21) Jessic
a can cut out a picture using scissors.
Assuming that her motor skill development is
on track, this tells us that she must be at
least years
old.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

59
 Developmental
Psychology D. Coprolalia
23) Aaron can stay balanced while
standing on one foot with eyes closed. 29) is the repeated passage of
Assuming that his motor skill development feces into inappropriate places, whether
is on track, this tells us that he must be at deliberate or accidental.
least years old. A. Encopresis
A. 2 B. Enuresis
B. 3 C.Scotoma
C. 4
D. 5

24) Cato
ri can kick a ball without losing balance.
Assuming that her motor skill development is
on track, this tells us that she must be at
least
years old.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

25) Peter
can throw a ball overhand with
coordination. Assuming that his motor skill
development is on track, this tells us that
he must be at least years
old.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

26) Children’s early drawings of people

are described using which term?
A. Tadpoles
B. Chicks
C.Embryos
D. Efts

27) A sign that a child is ready for toilet

training is that they:
A. Stay dry for periods of two hours or longer
during the day
B. Can understand and follow basic directions
C.Complains about wet or dirty diapers
D. All of the above

28) is the repeated voiding

of urine into bed or clothes, whether
deliberate or accidental.
A. Encopresis
B. Enuresis
D. Scotoma

60
 Developmental
Psychology
D. Coprolalia
37) The substage of the
30) All children need the same amount of preoperational stage is characterized by the
sleep each night, regardless of age. child being able to mentally represent an
A. True object that is not present and a dependence
B. False on perception in problem solving.

31) The National Sleep

Foundation recommends that toddlers get
of sleep per night.
A. 14-17 hours
B. 12-15 hours
C.11-14
D. 8-10

32) Sexual behavior such as

masturbation is not unusual in young
children.
A. True
B. False

33) Young children who grow accustomed

to high fat, very sweet and salty flavors may
have trouble eating foods that have subtler
flavors such as fruits and vegetables.
A. True
B. False

34) Which of the following is NOT

recommended for encouraging the
development of healthy eating habits in
children?
A. Try to keep a positive atmosphere at mealtime
B. Limit choices
C.Use dessert as a way to get children to eat healthy
foods
D. Prepare the same meal for everyone

35) In Piaget’s
stage of development, children use
symbols to represent words, images, and
ideas.
A. Sensorimotor
B. Concrete operational
C.Formal operational
D. Preoperational

36) In Piaget’s theory of cognitive

development, the term “operational” refers
to:
A. Understanding cause and effect
B. Being able to engage in deferred imitation
C.Logical manipulation of information
D. Being able to use symbols to convey meaning
61
 Developmental
A. Animistic Psychology
B. Symbolic function
C.Egocentric
D. Intuitive thought

38) The substage of the

preoperational stage is marked by greater
dependence on intuitive thinking rather
than just perception.
A. Animistic
B. Symbolic function
C.Egocentric
D. Intuitive thought

39) Piaget believed that children’s pretend

play:
A. Was pointless and a waste of time
B. Helped children solidify new
schemata they were developing
C.Helped children learn
D. Both b) and c)

40) is the tendency of

young children not to be able to take the
perspective of others, and instead the child
thinks that everyone sees, thinks, and feels
just as they do.
A. Animism
B. Egocentrism
C.Centration
D. Conservation

41) is the behavior of

attributing life-like qualities to objects.
A. Animism
B. Egocentrism
C.Centration
D. Conservation

42) is the tendency of young

children to focus on only one characteristic
of an object to the exclusion of others.
A. Animism
B. Egocentrism
C.Centration
D. Conservation

43) refers to the ability to

recognize that moving or rearranging matter
does not change the quantity.
A. Animism
B. Egocentrism
C.Centration
D. Conservation

62
 Developmental
Psychology
44) When we refer to a child as egocentric, we A. Inductive
mean that child has an excessively inflated B. Deductive
sense of self-esteem and thinks they are C.Transductive
superior to others. D. Inconclusive
A. True
B. False

45) Alex has a scoop of ice cream in a small

bowl. Daniel has the same amount of ice
cream, but in a larger bowl, so the ice cream
takes up less space in the bowl. Daniel is upset
because he thinks Alex has more ice cream.
Daniel is having a problem with:
A. Animism
B. Egocentrism
C.Scaffolding
D. Conservation

46) Alex has a scoop of ice cream in a small

bowl. Daniel has the same amount of ice
cream, but in a larger bowl, so it takes up
less space in the bowl. Daniel is upset
because he thinks Alex has more ice cream,
and he cannot understand that he needs to
consider both the size of the bowl and the
amount of ice cream when figuring out who
has more. The best term to describe this is:
A. Animism
B. Egocentrism
C.Centration
D. Scaffolding

47) When Juan plays hide-and-seek, he

“hides” by covering his eyes, because he
believes that if he can’t see someone else,
they must not be able to see him either.
The best term to describe this is:
A. Animism
B. Egocentrism
C.Centration
D. Conservation

48) Laylah doesn’t want hot chocolate put

in her Doc McStuffins cup because she’s
worried the hot liquid will burn Doc McStuffins.
The best term to describe this is:
A. Animism
B. Egocentrism
C.Scaffolding
D. Conservation

49) reasoning involves

making faulty inferences from one
specific example to another.
63
 Developmental
50) Vygotsky believed that children’s Psychology B. Selective attention
cognitive skills improved as a result of: C.Divided attention
A. Social interactions with more learned peers D. Prodromal attention
B. Language, writings, and concepts arising from
the culture
C.Social interactions with adults
D. All of the above

51) A child is in the zone of proximal

development when:
A. They can perform a task independently
B. They are unable to perform a task
C.They can almost perform a task, but not quite
on their own without assistance
D. They are almost ready to start learning to
perform a task

52) is the temporary support

that parents or teachers give a child to do a
task.
A. Scaffolding
B. Proximal development
C.Facilitated communication
D. Centration

53) Piaget believed that children talked to

themselves because:
A. They were learning to solve problems or clarify
thoughts
B. They were egocentric
C.They had insecure attachments
D. They were resolving the crisis of Autonomy
vs. Shame and doubt

54) Vygotsky believed that children talked

to themselves because:
A. They were learning to solve problems or clarify
thoughts
B. They were egocentric
C.They had insecure attachments
D. They were resolving the crisis of Autonomy
vs. Shame and doubt

55) The ability to switch our focus

between tasks or external stimuli is
called:
A. Sustained attention
B. Selective attention
C.Divided attention
D. Prodromal attention

56) The ability to focus on a single task

or stimulus while ignoring distracting
information is called:
A. Sustained attention
64
 Developmental
Psychology
57) The ability to stay on task for long C.Thalamus
periods of time is called: D. Prefrontal cortex
A. Sustained attention
B. Selective attention
C.Divided attention
D. Prodromal attention

58) is the first stage of the

memory system and stores sensory input in
its raw form for a very brief duration, just
long enough for the brain to register and
start processing the information.
A. Sensory memory
B. Working memory
C.Long-term memory
D. Eidetic memory

59) is the component of

memory in which current conscious mental
activity occurs.
A. Sensory memory
B. Working memory
C.Long-term memory
D. Eidetic memory

60) According to your book, short-term

memory is most similar to:
A. Sensory memory
B. Working memory
C.Long-term memory
D. Eidetic memory

61) is thought to be
permanent.
A. Sensory memory
B. Working memory
C.Long-term memory
D. Short-term memory

62) Self-regulatory processes, such as the

ability to inhibit a behavior or cognitive
flexibility, that enable adaptive responses
to new situations or to reach a specific
goal are called:
A. Executive function
B. Inductive logic
C.Deductive logic
D. Mnemonic devices

63) Which part of the brain appears to be

particularly important for the development of
executive function?
A. Cerebellum
B. Hypothalamus
65
 Developmental
64) Rehearsing previous material Psychology D. It is highly automated and does not require
while adding in additional information conscious recollection
is called:
A. Rote rehearsal
B. Method of loci
C.Clustering rehearsal
D. Mental mapping

65) The memory of older children is

generally better than that of young children
due to improvements in:
A. Attention
B. Executive functions
C.Brain maturation
D. All of the above

66) Declarative memories are also called:

A. Implicit
B. Explicit
C.Working
D. Eidetic

67) Non-declarative memories are also called:

A. Implicit
B. Explicit
C.Working
D. Eidetic

68) When we say that a memory is

“declarative” or “explicit”, we mean
that:
A. It is tied to a timeline
B. It is not tied to a timeline
C.It is a memory for facts or events that we can
consciously recollect
D. It is highly automated and does not
require conscious recollection

69) When we say that a memory is “non-

declarative” or “implicit”, we mean that:
A. It is tied to a timeline
B. It is not tied to a timeline
C.It is a memory for facts or events that we can
consciously recollect
D. It is highly automated and does not
require conscious recollection

70) The factor that distinguishes a

semantic memory from an episodic
memory is that:
A. It is tied to a timeline
B. It is not tied to a timeline
C.It is a memory for facts or events that we can
consciously recollect
66
 Developmental
Psychology
71) The factor that distinguishes an D. Scaffolding
episodic memory from a semantic memory
is that:
A. It is tied to a timeline
B. It is not tied to a timeline
C.It is a memory for facts or events that we can
consciously recollect
D. It is highly automated and does not require
conscious recollection

72) Remembering the definition of

“declarative memory” is an example of:
A. Autobiographical memory
B. Non-declarative memory
C.Episodic memory
D. Semantic memory

73) Remembering the definition of

“declarative memory” is an example of:
A. Autobiographical memory
B. Non-declarative memory
C.Episodic memory
D. Declarative memory

74) Our “personal narrative” is our:

A. Autobiographical memory
B. Non-declarative memory
C.Episodic memory
D. Declarative memory

75) The primary way that Neo-Piagetian

theories differ from Piaget’s original
theories is that they:
A. Assume cognitive development can be
separated into different stages with qualitatively
different characteristics
B. Advocate that children’s thinking becomes
more complex in advanced stages
C. Believe that aspects of information processing,
not logic, change the complexity of each stage
D. Believe in constructivism

76) The tendency of children to generate

theories to explain everything they
encounter is called: A.Theory of mind
B. Theory-theory
C. Fast mapping
D.Scaffolding

77) The ability to think about other people’s

thoughts is called:
A. Theory of mind
B. Theory-theory
C.Fast mapping
67
 Developmental
78) Learning new words by making Psychology B. 10-20
connections between new words and C.50-100
concepts already known is called: D. 200-10,000
A. Theory of mind
B. Theory-theory
C.Fast mapping
D. Scaffolding

79) In the false belief task, a child must

think logically about a situation from the
perspective of someone who knows
something different than they do. In order
to reason correctly about this situation,
the child must have:
A. Theory of mind
B. Theory-theory
C. Fast mapping
D. Scaffolding

80) In order to correctly pass the false belief

task, a child must:
A. Distinguish between what they once thought
was true and what they now know to be true
B. Understand that what guides people’s
actions and responses are what they “believe”
rather than what is reality
C.Separate what they “know” to be true from what
someone else might “think” is true
D. All of the above

81) Children understand all of the different

components of theory of mind at the same
age.
A. True
B. False

82) Understanding that two people may

have different desires regarding the same
object is called:
A. Hidden emotion
B. Knowledge access
C.Diverse-beliefs
D. Diverse-desires

83) Children of all cultures understand all of

the different components of theory of mind
at the same age.
A. True
B. False

84) During the “vocabulary spurt”, children

learn about
new words per week.
A. 1-2

68
 Developmental
Psychology
85) Karen has learned that adding “-ed” D. Trick question! According to your book, none
to the end of verbs is the standard way to of these things have been found to cause autism
make them past tense, so she adds “-ed” to
all verbs, producing words like “swimmed” 91) To produce a healthy resolution of the
and “sleeped”. This process is called: Initiative vs. Guilt crisis, caregivers should:
A. Overgeneralization A. Provide consistent, affectionate care
B. Undergeneralization B. Offer praise for the child’s efforts and avoid
C.Overregularization being critical of messes or mistakes
D. Underregularization

86) Which of the following is NOT one of the

criteria for a high-quality preschool as
described in your textbook?
A. Establishes and maintains collaborative
relationships with families
B. Uses teaching approaches that are
developmentally, culturally and linguistically
appropriate
C.Promotes children’s health and nutrition
D. The majority of children who go there come
from a high socioeconomic status

87) Why has it been difficult to

evaluate the effectiveness of the
Head Start program?
A. Head Start programs vary in several ways
(such as teacher qualifications) depending on
the location
B. Testing young children is difficult
C.Ethical concerns make it difficult to use an
experimental design to measure cause and effect
D. All of the above

88) Which of the following is NOT one of the

criteria for being diagnosed with Autism
Spectrum Disorder?
A. Below-average scores on IQ tests
B. Deficits in communication
C.Deficits in social interaction
D. Repetitive patterns of behavior or interests

89) There is a lot of variation in the range and

severity of Autism Spectrum Disorder
symptoms.
A. True
B. False

90) Accordi
ng to your book, have
been found to cause autism.
A. Cold, unaffectionate parenting
B. Vaccines
C.Nutritional deficiencies

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 Developmental
C. Allow the child to try new things and Psychology A. The ability to stop a behavior that has already
explore their expanding self-concept begun
D. Model initiative-taking behavior of their own

92) Our self-description according to various

categories is called our:
A. Self-esteem
B. Categorical self
C. Self-concept
D. All of the above, because these terms
mean the same thing

93) Our evaluative judgment about who we

are is called our:
A. Self-esteem
B. Categorical self
C.Self-concept
D. All of the above, because these terms
mean the same thing

94) Our focus on external qualities when

describing ourselves is called our:
A. Self-esteem
B. Categorical self
C.Self-concept
D. All of the above, because these terms
mean the same thing

95) Why do young children tend to

have a positive self-image?
A. Because their parents praise them for
everything
B. Because they are genuinely good at everything
C.Because they lack a basis for comparison
D. All of the above

96) Response initiation involves:

A. The ability to stop a behavior that has already
begun
B. The ability to hold out for a larger reward
by forgoing a smaller immediate reward
C.The ability to not initiate a behavior before
you have evaluated all of the information
D. The ability to take action to solve problems

97) Response inhibition involves:

A. The ability to stop a behavior that has already
begun
B. The ability to hold out for a larger reward
by forgoing a smaller immediate reward
C.The ability to not initiate a behavior before
you have evaluated all of the information
D. The ability to take action to solve problems

98) Delayed gratification involves:

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 Developmental
Psychology
B. The ability to hold out for a larger reward by from their children. They do not make demands
forgoing a smaller immediate reward on their children and are non-responsive.
C.The ability to not initiate a behavior before A. Authoritarian
you have evaluated all of the information
D. The ability to take action to solve problems

99) Self-identification based on a continuum

from male to female is known as:
A. Gender schema
B. Gender role
C.Gender dysphoria
D. Gender identity

100) The expectations associated with

being male or female are known as:
A. Gender schemas
B. Gender roles
C.Gender dysphoria
D. Gender identity

101) The distress accompanying a mismatch

between one’s gender identity and biological
sex is known as:
A. Gender schema
B. Gender roles
C.Gender dysphoria
D. Gender identity

102) Children develop their own

conceptions of the attributes associated
with maleness or femaleness. These
conceptions are known as:
A. Gender schemas
B. Gender roles
C.Gender dysphoria
D. Gender identity

103) Gender role expectations appear to

develop largely as a result of the expectations
and experiences parents and cultures place on
children.
A. True
B. False

104) parents are supportive

and show interest in their kids’ activities, but
are not overbearing and allow them to make
constructive mistakes.
A. Authoritarian
B. Authoritative
C.Permissive
D. Uninvolved

105) parents are disengaged

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 Developmental
B. Authoritative Psychology A. Authoritarian
C.Permissive B. Authoritative
D. Uninvolved C.Permissive
D. Uninvolved
106) parenting is the
traditional model of parenting in which
parents make the rules and children are
expected to be obedient.
A. Authoritarian
B. Authoritative
C.Permissive
D. Uninvolved

107) parenting involves

holding expectations of children that are
below what could be reasonably expected
from them.
A. Authoritarian
B. Authoritative
C.Permissive
D. Uninvolved

108) Children of
parents tend to have greater self-
confidence and competence as a result of
their parents’ high but reasonable
expectations.
A. Authoritarian
B. Authoritative
C.Permissive
D. Uninvolved

109) Children of
parents are likely to do poorly in
school and have poor relationships with
peers.
A. Authoritarian
B. Authoritative
C.Permissive
D. Uninvolved

110) Children of
parents may fear rather than respect
their parents and may become aggressive
toward peers.
A. Authoritarian
B. Authoritative
C.Permissive
D. Uninvolved

111) Children of
parents often fail to learn self-discipline
and may feel somewhat insecure because
they do not know the limits.
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 Developmental
Psychology
112) Baumrind’s parenting styles C.Unoccupied play
vary on the dimensions of: D. Associative play
A. Expectations and warmth
B. Control and responsiveness 120) Too much television is thought to
C.Both a) and b) negatively affect child development because it:
A. Reduces focus on active, hands-on play
113) The specific parenting styles and child
behaviors that are viewed as ideal vary
across cultures.
A. True
B. False

114) Socioeconomic status may influence

parenting style by affecting the qualities that
parents emphasize as being most important
for success and survival.
A. True
B. False

115) Spanking children appears to be

associated with:
A. Lower vocabulary scores
B. More aggressive behavior in children
C.Higher scores on a measure of rule-breaking
D. All of the above

116) The quality of sibling interactions is

often difficult to tease out from the effect of
the parent-child relationship.
A. True
B. False

117) Sibling interactions can help the

development of:
A. Empathy
B. Sharing
C.Social skills
D. All of the above

118) I
n Parten’s play classification system,
refers to random behavior without a specific
goal.
A. Parallel play
B. Solitary play
C.Unoccupied play
D. Associative play

119) I
n Parten’s play classification system,
occurs when children interact with each other
and share toys, but are not working toward a
common goal.
A. Parallel play
B. Cooperative play
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 Developmental
B. Is linked to attention problems Psychology
C.May negatively affect cognitive and
language development
D. All of the above

121) In general, children cared for by their

mothers do not develop differently than
those who were cared for by others, such as
day care workers.
A. True
B. False

122) Parents and family characteristics, such

as income and the amount of cognitive
enrichment in the home, are stronger
predictors of child development than
whether or not a child goes to day care.
A. True
B. False

123) Which of the following is NOT one of

the four main types of child maltreatment?
A. Psychological maltreatment
B. Financial exploitation
C.Neglect
D. Physical abuse

124) How does stress negatively affect the

developing child?
A. Stress hormones can also reduce immunity to
disease
B. Exposure to long periods of severe stress
can make the child hypersensitive to stress in
the future
C.Stress hormones can reduce the size of the
hippocampus and affect the child's memory
abilities
D. All of the above

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 Developmental
Psychology
Chapter 05Middle and Late Childhood
9. The relationship of height to weight is
1. Rates of growth generally slow down expressed in a measure called the:
between early childhood and adolescence. A. Set point
A. True B. Body mass index
B. False C.Homeostatic equilibrium
D. Golden ratio
2. The beginning of the growth spurt, which
occurs prior to puberty, begins two years
earlier for girls than boys.
A. True
B. False

3. Brain development that occurs in

middle and late child involves:
A. Myelination in the areas of the brain
where sensory, motor, and intellectual
functioning connect
B. Myelination of the hippocampus
C.Development of the frontal lobes
D. All of the above

4. A heavy emphasis on competition and

athletic skill in children’s sports tends to
increase children’s desire to continue playing
those sports.
A. True
B. False

5. Children’s participation in sports has been

linked to:
A. Better academic performance
B. Higher levels of satisfaction with family and
overall quality of life in children
C.Improved physical and emotional development
D. All of the above

6. involves watching other play

video games.
A. Naturalistic observation
B. Bystander effect
C.E-sports
D. Redshirting

7. According to your textbook, what is the

most common reason why children drop out of
sports?
A. Injuries or health problems
B. Wanting to focus more on school or other
activities
C.It was no longer fun
D. Conflicts with coaches or team members

8. may limit children’s ability to

participate in sports.
A. Gender
B. Poverty
C.Location
D. All of the above
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 Developmental
Psychology A. Abstract
10. According to the Centers for Disease B. Tied to their own experience
Control and Prevention (CDC), children whose C.Hypothetical
BMI is at or above the 85th percentile for D. All of the above
their age are considered:
A. Overweight 18. During the concrete operational
B. Obese stage, children develop the ability to build
C.Both A and B, because these terms mean the same schemata and organize objects in many
thing different ways. This is called:
A. Identity
11. According to the Centers for Disease B. Classification
Control and Prevention (CDC), children whose
BMI is at or above the 95th percentile for
their age are considered:
A Overweight
B. Obese
C. Both A and B, because these terms mean the same
thing

12. In children, excess weight is associated

with:
A. High blood pressure
B. Deficits in executive functioning
C.Poor decision making
D. All of the above

13. In children, excess weight is associated

with:
A. Insulin resistance
B. Deficits in working memory
C.Depression
D. All of the above

14. Risks of being overweight as a child

include:
A. Being teased, bullied, or rejected by peers
B. Increased incidence of heart attack or stroke in
adulthood
C.Orthopedic problems like knee injuries
D. All of the above

15. In Piaget’s concrete operational

stage, the word “concrete” refers to
things that:
A. Can be touched, seen, or experienced directly
B. Have organic compounds
C.Have only one possible solution
D. Have been taught to us by more experienced
learners

16. is a logical process in

which multiple premises believed to be
true are combined to obtain a specific
conclusion.
A. Inductive reasoning
B. Deductive reasoning
C.Transdeductive reasoning
D. Conductive reasoning

17. A child in the concrete operational stage

will best be able to solve problems that are:
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 Developmental
Psychology
C.Seriation 25. Children may not always
D. Decentration benefit from memory strategies. A
deficiency occurs when the child does not
19. During the concrete operational stage, spontaneously use a memory strategy, and has
children develop the ability to arrange items to be prompted to do so.
along a quantitative dimension, such as A. Mediation
length or weight, in a methodical way. This B. Production
is called:
A. Identity
B. Classification
C.Seriation
D. Decentration

20. During the concrete operational stage,

children develop the understanding that
objects have qualities that do not change
even if the object is altered in some way.
This is called:
A. Identity
B. Classification
C.Seriation
D. Decentration

21. During the concrete operational stage,

children no longer focus on only one
dimension of any object and instead consider
the changes in other dimensions too. This is
called:
A. Identity
B. Classific
ation
C.Seriation
D. Decentration

22. Which of the following skills is NOT

required for solving conservation tasks?
A. Decentration
B. Seriation
C.Reversibility
D. Identity

23. Changing one quality (such as the height

of water in a container) can be compensated
for by changes in another quality (such as the
width of the container). The ability to
understand this is called:
A. Seriation
B. Decentration
C.Conservation
D. Reversibility

24. The capacity of working memory

increases in childhood due to:
A. Changes in myelination and synaptic pruning in
the cortex
B. The ability to inhibit irrelevant information
from entering memory
C.Increased processing speed
D. All of the above

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 Developmental
C.Generalization Psychology 33. disorders affect the
D. Utilization ability to produce speech sounds with
appropriate pitch and loudness.
26. Children may not always A. Articulation
benefit from memory strategies. A B. Voice
deficiency occurs when the child uses an C.Fluency
appropriate strategy, but it fails to aid their D. Lexemic
performance.
A. Mediation
B. Production
C.Generalization
D. Utilization

27. Children may not always

benefit from memory strategies. A
deficiency occurs when the child does not
understand the strategy being taught, and
thus, does not benefit from its use.
A. Mediation
B. Production
C.Generalization
D. Utilization

28. The knowledge we have about our own

thinking and our ability to use this
awareness to regulate our own cognitive
processes is called:
A. Introspection
B. Critical thinking
C.Metacognition
D. Growth mindset

29. The detailed examination of beliefs,

courses of action, and evidence is
called:
A. Introspection
B. Critical thinking
C.Metacognition
D. Growth mindset

30. According to your book, the majority

of children around the world are
bilingual.
A. True
B. False

31. disorders affect the rate of

speech.
A. Articulation
B. Voice
C.Fluency
D. Lexemic

32. disorders affect the

ability to correctly produce speech
sounds.
A. Articulation
B. Voice
C.Fluency
D. Lexemic

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 Developmental
Psychology
34. The most common fluency disorder is: 42. In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of
A. Central auditory processing disorder intelligence, the ability to solve academic
B. Cluttering problems and perform calculations is
C.Stuttering called:
D. Substitution

35. The first intelligence test was developed

in:
A. Germany
B. The United States
C.Mexico
D. France

36. The goal of the first intelligence test was

to:
A. Identify children who were classified as gifted
B. Identify children who would not be
successful with the regular school curriculum
C.Produce data for writing individualized
education programs for children
D. Separate children with low IQ scores from
children with learning disabilities

37. was the first to propose that

intelligence was a single construct that
underlies all cognitive abilities and skills.
A. Sternberg
B. Gardner
C.Spearman
D. Thurstone

38. The general intelligence factor involves

the ability to:
A. Benefit from instruction and experience
B. Adapt to novel situations
C.Reason abstractly
D. All of the above

39. There is evidence for both a general

intelligence factor and specific intelligence
in certain domains.
A. True
B. False

40. In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of

intelligence, the ability to adapt to new
situations and create new ideas is called:
A. Practical intelligence
B. Creative intelligence
C.Structural intelligence
D. Analytical intelligence

41. In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of

intelligence, the ability to demonstrate
common sense and “street smarts” is
called:
A. Practical intelligence
B. Creative intelligence
C.Structural intelligence
D. Analytical intelligence
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 Developmental
A. Practical intelligence Psychology 50. Gardner’s theory of multiple
B. Creative intelligence intelligences is based on:
C.Structural intelligence A. Research involving people who had
D. Analytical intelligence strokes that compromised some capacities,
but not others
43. Sternberg believes that traditional
intelligence overemphasize the
measurement of:
A. Practical intelligence
B. Creative intelligence
C.Structural intelligence
D. Analytical intelligence

44. Thinking that is directed toward

finding the correct answer to a given
problem is called:
A. Subvergent
B. Divergent
C.Convergent
D. Transvergent

45. Thinking that involves the ability to

generate many different ideas or solutions to
a single problem is called:
A. Subvergent
B. Divergent
C.Convergent
D. Transvergent

46. C
reativity is more strongly associated with
thinking.
A. Subvergent
B. Divergent
C.Convergent
D. Transvergent

47. Taking on projects for interest instead

of money is called
A. Expertise
B. Risk taking
C.Intrinsic interest
D. Imaginative thinking

48. Viewing problems in new and

different ways is called:
A. Expertise
B. Risk taking
C.Intrinsic interest
D. Imaginative thinking

49. Accor
ding to your textbook, are
people who score low on intelligence tests
overall but who nevertheless may have
exceptional skills in a given domain.
A. Autistic savants
B. Experts
C.Convergent thinkers
D. Divergent thinkers

80
 Developmental
Psychology
B. The idea that it would be evolutionarily the one before it, the Flynn effect is
functional for different people to have different potentially explained by:
talents and skills a) More familiarity with multiple-choice tests
C.The existence of eight (or possibly nine) b) Better nutrition
intelligences that can be differentiated from each c) Increased access to information
other *d) All of the above
D. All of the above
57. The
51. In Gardner’s theory of multiple age at which a person is performing
intelligences, intellectually is called that person’s
intelligence is described as the age.
ability to move the body in sports, dance, or A. Cognitive
other physical activities. B. Psychological
A. Interpersonal
B. Intrapersonal
C.Kinesthetic
D. Existential

52. A test that is

provides consistent results over
time.
A. Valid
B. Reliable
C.Standardized
D. Both A and B, because they mean the same
thing

53. A test that is

actually measures what it is supposed to
measure (for example, a test designed to
measure intelligence actually measures
intelligence and not socioeconomic status).
A. Valid
B. Reliable
C.Standardized
D. Both A and B, because they mean the same
thing

54. An
intelligence test that is has
been given to a large number of people at
different ages and each age level’s average
score on the test has been computed to see
how these people typically perform.
A. Valid
B. Reliable
C.Standardized
D. Both A and B, because they mean the same
thing

55. Scores on intelligence tests worldwide

have increased substantially over the past
decades. This is known as the:
A. Yerkes-Dotson law
B. Flynn effect
C.Young-Helmholtz theory
D. Dunning-Kruger effect

56. In addition to the possibility that each

generation of people is actually smarter than
81
 Developmental
C.Mental Psychology B. The age at which the intellectual disability is
D. Socioemotional diagnosed
C.How well the person handles everyday life tasks
58. The formula of “mental age ÷ D. The cause of the intellectual disability
chronological age × 100” is one way to
calculate someone’s: 66. Someone with an IQ score below 70 is
A. IQ score likely to be diagnosed with:
B. Zone of proximal development
C.Reaction range
D. Action potential

59. Your textbook defines “intelligence

quotient” (IQ) as:
A. A person’s mental age
B. A measure of intelligence that is adjusted for
age
C.The discrepancy between a person’s ability
and their actual performance
D. The highest level of intellectual performance
a person can achieve

60. What is considered “smart” may vary

according to culture.
A. True
B. False

61. Intelligence tests and definitions of

intelligence have been criticized for:
A. Failing to account for changes caused by
experience
B. Inadequately measuring non-
academic types of intelligence or talent
C.Being biased in favor of Anglo-American,
middle-class respondents
D. All of the above

62. In statistics, the pattern of scores

usually observed in a variable that clusters
around its average is called a:
A. Positively skewed distribution
B. Negatively skewed distribution
C.Normal distribution
D. Bimodal distribution

63. Compared to girls, boys are more likely

to fall in the extreme ends of the
distribution of IQ scores.
A. True
B. False

64. is a chromosomal
disorder caused by the presence of all or
part of an extra 21st chromosome.
A. Turner syndrome
B. Williams syndrome
C.Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
D. Down syndrome

65. The severity of intellectual disability

is determined by:
A. A person’s IQ score
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 Developmental
Psychology
A. Down syndrome
B. Intellectual disability 73. are used to measure what a
C. Autism spectrum disorder child has already learned and are often the
D. A learning disability basis for measuring school quality for
initiatives like the No Child Left Behind Act.
67. People with an IQ of 130 or higher are A. Aptitude tests
classified as: B. Achievement tests
A. Average C.Diagnostic tests
B. Super genius D. Intelligence tests
C.Intellectually disabled
D. Gifted

68. Parents who have

higher levels of income, occupational
status, and other qualities favored in
society have , which is a form of power
that can be used to improve a child's
education.
A. Family capital
B. Problem-focused coping
C.Resilience
D. Intersectionality

69. Lewis Terman’s longitudinal study of

gifted children revealed that they had
significant mental health problems
compared to children who were not gifted.
A. True
B. False

70. Teachers tend to be most receptive

to support, praise and agreement coming
from parents who are most similar to them
in race and social class.
A. True
B. False

71. Cultural
differences in can affect
how children are perceived by their teachers
and peers, and ultimately how successful
they are in school.
A. Preference for activities that are cooperative
rather than competitive
B. Social distance
C.Eye contact
D. All of the above

72. Cultural
differences in can affect
how children are perceived by their teachers
and peers, and ultimately how successful
they are in school.
A. Whether or not it’s okay to speak without
first being spoken to
B. Instructional methods such as teachers
asking the students questions the teacher already
knows the answer to
C.Wait time following questions
D. All of the above
83
 Developmental
74. is a specific Psychology genetic aberration that affects their brain’s
impairment of academic learning that use of:
interferes with a specific aspect of A. Serotonin
schoolwork and reduces a student's B. Norepinephrine
academic performance significantly. C.Dopamine
A. Down syndrome D. Acetylcholine
B. Intellectual disability
C. Autism spectrum disorder
D. A learning disability

75. A student cannot be diagnosed as

having a learning disability if their
academic difficulties are caused by:
A. The challenges of learning English as a second
language
B. Physical, sensory, or motor handicaps
C.Generalized intellectual impairment
D. All of the above

76. , a type of learning

disability, involves having difficulty in the
area of reading.
A. Dyslexia
B. Dyspraxia
C.Dyscalculia
D. Dysgraphia

77. , a type of learning

disability, involves having difficulty in the
area of mathematics.
A. Dyslexia
B. Dyspraxia
C.Dyscalculia
D. Dysgraphia

78. , a type of learning

disability, involves having difficulty with
writing.
A. Dyslexia
B. Dyspraxia
C.Dyscalculia
D. Dysgraphia

79. Children with ADHD may show behavior

that is:
A. Inattentive
B. Hyperactive
C.Impulsive
D. All of the above

80. ADHD only affects people during

childhood, not as adults.
A. True
B. False

81. Sugar has been conclusively found to

cause ADHD.
A. True
B. False

82. Children with ADHD may have a

84
 Developmental
Psychology
83. This law required that individuals with C.Self-efficacy
disabilities be accommodated in any program D. Self-fulfilling prophecy
or activity that receives federal funding.
A. Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Section 504
B. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
C.Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 1975
D. Every Student Succeeds Act of 2015

84. This law prohibited discrimination on

the basis of disability and applied to all
employment and public places, not just
ones that received federal funding.
A. Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Section 504
B. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
C.Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 1975
D. Every Student Succeeds Act of 2015

85. This law requires public schools to

provide a free and appropriate education for
anyone with a disability from birth to age
21.
A. Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Section 504
B. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
C.Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 1975
D. Every Student Succeeds Act of 2015

86. Which of the following is part of the

Individuals with Disabilities Education Act?
A. Due process for resolving disputes
B. Education in the “least restrictive environment”
C.Fair evaluation of performance in spite of disability
D. All of the above

87. A is a tendency to act

in such a way as to make what you predict will
happen actually come true.
A. Self-fulfilling prophecy
B. Self-serving bias
C.Confirmation bias
D. Problem-focused coping strategy

88. Our beliefs about our general personal

identity are our:
A. Self-esteem
B. Self-concept
C.Self-efficacy
D. Self-fulfilling prophecy

89. Compared to young children, children in

middle and late childhood differ in their self-
concept in that they:
A. Are able to include other peoples’ appraisals of
them into their self-concept
B. Have a more realistic sense of self
C.Better understand their strengths and weaknesses
D. All of the above

90. Our evaluation of our own identity is our:

A. Self-esteem
B. Self-concept
85
 Developmental
91. is the belief that you are Psychology and returns it because she knows the person
capable of carrying out a specific task or of who lost it will want it back, and she doesn’t
reaching a specific goal. want them to be inconvenienced. She is
A. Self-esteem using morality.
B. Self-concept A. Preconventional
C.Self-efficacy B. Conventional
D. Self-fulfilling prophecy C.Postconventional
D. Unconventional
92. Our beliefs about self-efficacy can create
a 98. Charles feels that it’s unfair that women
self-fulfilling prophecy in that children who get paid less than men do, so he participates in
believe they can achieve something are a protest march to try
likely to attempt it, and children who
believe they will be unsuccessful are
unlikely to attempt it.
A. True
B. False

93. In Kohlberg’s theory of

morality, a person who reasons about
right and wrong based on self-interest
(such as getting rewards and avoiding
punishment) is using morality.
A. Preconventional
B. Conventional
C.Postconventional
D. Unconventional

94. In
Kohlberg’s theory of morality, a person
whose moral reasoning is based on care for
others and being a good member of
society is using
morality.
A. Preconventional
B. Conventional
C.Postconventional
D. Unconventional

95. In
Kohlberg’s theory of morality, a person
who reasons about right and wrong based
on higher, universal ethical principles of
conduct that may or may not be reflected
in the law is using
morality.
A. Preconventional
B. Conventional
C.Postconventional
D. Unconventional

96. Simon obeys his parents’ rules because

he is afraid he will be punished if he
doesn’t. He is using
morality.
A. Preconventional
B. Conventional
C.Postconventional
D. Unconventional

97. Nina finds someone’s wallet

86
 Developmental
Psychology
to encourage lawmakers to pass equal pay D. Expansion
standards. He is using morality.
A. Preconventional 105. Bigelow and
B. Conventional La Gaipa described three stages in children’s
C.Postconventional friendships. In the stage,
D. Unconventional friendship focuses on commitment and sharing
intimate information.
99. Kohlberg’s theory of morality has been
criticized on the grounds that it:
A. May not adequately account for gender
differences in moral reasoning
B. May not adequately account for cultural
differences in moral reasoning
C.Does not always show a connection between
reasoning and behavior
D. All of the above

100.During middle and late childhood,

peers play an increasingly important role
in children’s lives.
A. True
B. False

101. Bigelow
and La Gaipa described three stages in
children’s friendships. In the stage,
friendship focuses on mutual activities.
A. Reward-cost
B. Normative expectation
C.Empathy and understanding
D. Expansion

102. Bigelow
and La Gaipa described three stages in
children’s friendships. In the stage,
children emphasize similar interests as the
main characteristics of a good friend.
A. Reward-cost
B. Normative expectation
C.Empathy and understanding
D. Expansion

103. Bigelow
and La Gaipa described three stages in
children’s friendships. In the stage,
friendship focuses on conventional
morality.
A. Reward-cost
B. Normative expectation
C.Empathy and understanding
D. Expansion

104. Bigelow
and La Gaipa described three stages in
children’s friendships. In the stage,
children describe a friend as someone who is
kind and shares with you.
A. Reward-cost
B. Normative expectation
C.Empathy and understanding
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 Developmental
A. Reward-cost Psychology 111.Selman outlines five stages of friendship
B. Normative expectation from early childhood through to adulthood. In
C.Empathy and understanding stage 4, called “autonomous
D. Expansion interdependence”, a friend is:
A. Someone who you are playing with at this point
106. Bigelow in time
and La Gaipa described three stages in B. Someone who you can tell things you would
children’s friendships. In the stage, tell no one else
children describe friends as people who are C.Someone who accepts you and that you accept
loyal, committed to the relationship, and as they are
share intimate information.
A. Reward-cost
B. Normative expectation
C.Empathy and understanding
D. Expansion

107.Selman outlines five stages of

friendship from early childhood through to
adulthood. In stage 0, called “momentary
physical interaction”, a friend is:
A. Someone who you are playing with at this
point in time
B. Someone who returns a favor
C.Someone who accepts you and that you accept
as they are
D. Someone who does nice things for you

108.Selman outlines five stages of

friendship from early childhood through to
adulthood. In stage 1, called
“one-way assistance”, a friend is:
A. Someone who you are playing with at this
point in time
B. Someone who you can tell things you
would tell no one else
C.Someone who accepts you and that you accept
as they are
D. Someone who does nice things for you

109. Selman outlines five stages of

friendship from early childhood through to
adulthood. In stage 2, called
“fair-weather cooperation”, a friend is:
A. Someone who you are playing with at this
point in time
B. Someone who returns a favor
C.Someone who accepts you and that you accept
as they are
D. Someone who does nice things for you

110.Selman outlines five stages of

friendship from early childhood through to
adulthood. In stage 3, called “intimate and
mutual sharing”, a friend is:
A. Someone who you can tell things you
would tell no one else
B. Someone who returns a favor
C.Someone who accepts you and that you accept
as they are
D. Someone who does nice things for you

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D. Someone who does nice things for you C.Popular
D. Neglected
112.Popularity, or attraction between
members of a group, is often measured 118. Popular children can be
using a technique called: subcategorized into two types. Popular-
A. Naturalistic observation children are nice and have
B. Time sampling
C.Sociometric assessment
D. Longitudinal design

113.Sociometric assessment techniques for

measuring popularity ask children to name
peers they like and peers they don’t like.
Children who receive many votes in the “like”
category, and very few in the “do not like”
category would be classified as:
A. Average
B. Popular
C.Controversial
D. Neglected

114.Sociometric assessment techniques for

measuring popularity ask children to name
peers they like and peers they don’t like.
Children who are mentioned frequently in
each category would be classified as:
A. Rejected
B. Average
C.Controversial
D. Neglected

115.Sociometric assessment techniques for

measuring popularity ask children to name
peers they like and peers they don’t like.
Children who receive more unfavorable
votes and few favorable ones would be
classified as:
A. Rejected
B. Neglected
C.Popular
D. Average

116.Sociometric assessment techniques for

measuring popularity ask children to name
peers they like and peers they don’t like.
Children who receive a few positive votes
with very few negative ones would be
classified as:
A. Controversial
B. Average
C.Neglected
D. Popular

117.Sociometric assessment techniques for

measuring popularity ask children to name
peers they like and peers they don’t like.
Children who receive very few votes in
either category would be classified as:
A. Average
B. Controversial
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good social skills, and they are generallyPsychology B. Children who are overweight
cooperative and do well in school. C.Children with disabilities
A. Antisocial D. All of the above
B. Prosocial
C.Withdrawn 125. Although bullies are commonly portrayed
D. Aggressive as having low self-esteem, many bullies
actually have high
119. Popular children can self-esteem, and bully because they lack
be subcategorized into two types. empathy and like to dominate others.
Popular- children may gain
popularity by acting tough or spreading
rumors about others.
A. Antisocial
B. Prosocial
C.Withdrawn
D. Aggressive

120. Rejected children

can be subcategorized into two types.
Rejected- children are
ostracized because they are
antagonistic, loud, and confrontational,
possibly as a way of acting out
insecurities.
A. Antisocial
B. Prosocial
C.Withdrawn
D. Aggressive

121. Rejected children

can be subcategorized into two types.
Rejected- children are shy
and withdrawn and are easy targets for
bullies because they are unlikely to
retaliate.
A. Antisocial
B. Prosocial
C.Withdrawn
D. Aggressive

122.Unwanted, aggressive behavior that

involves a real or perceived power
imbalance is called:
A. Bullying
B. Power assertion
C.Induction
D. Hazing

123) Cyberbullying is particularly difficult to

address because it:
A. May be difficult to trace or delete
B. Can occur any time of day and without
being in the presence of others
C.Can be posted anonymously and distributed
quickly
D. All of the above

124. are at particular

risk for being bullied.
A. Lesbian, gay, bisexual, or transgendered
(LGBT) youth
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A. True
B. False Chapter 06Adolescence
1.During adolescence, growth proceeds
126. A good home environment is one in from the extremities toward the torso.
which: This is referred to as:
A. The family enjoys a high socioeconomic status A. Distalproximal development
B. The parents are happily married B. Mass-to-specific development
C.The child's physical, cognitive, emotional, and C.Rostral-causal development
social needs are adequately met D. Pubertial-sequential development
D. There are many extended family members
close by 2.Your textbook defines puberty as:
A. The time in life when our physical abilities peak
127. Children of lesbian and gay couples B. A period of rapid growth and sexual maturation
appear to be nearly identical to children of C.The brain’s process of removing unnecessary
heterosexual couples on measures of sexual synapses
orientation, gender identity, appropriate D. The myelination of the axons in our frontal lobes
behavior, and emotional adjustment.
A. True 3.Puberty begins about two years earlier in
B. False girls than in boys.
A. True
128. Which of the following situations B. False
might a child experience following their
parents’ divorce? 4. sexual characteristics are changes
A. Reduced financial resources in the reproductive organs.
B. Changing school or residence A. Auxiliary
C.Parental unavailability due to work or stress B. Tertiary
D. All of the above C.Primary
D. Secondary
129. Although they may experience more
problems than children from non-divorced 5. sexual characteristics are visible
families, most children of divorce lead physical changes not directly linked to
happy, well-adjusted lives. reproduction, but signal sexual maturity.
A. True A. Auxiliary
B. False B. Tertiary
C.Primary
130. Children whose parents get D. Secondary
divorced are themselves more likely
to divorce as adults. 6.The term “menarche” refers to:
A. True A. The age gap between when girls and boys
B. False experience puberty
B. The height/weight growth patterns in puberty
131. A primary factor influencing the way C.The first menstrual period
that children adjust to divorce appears to be D. Racial and ethnic differences in average
the way the custodial parent adjusts to the height and weight
divorce.
A. True 7.The term “spermarche” refers to:
B. False A. The age gap between when girls and boys
experience puberty
B. The increased muscle mass typically
experienced by boys during puberty
C.The first ejaculation of semen
D. The tendency for boys to be taller and heavier
than girls

8.Women are born with all of their eggs

already produced, although not all of
them will mature.
A. True
B. False

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9.Males produce their sperm on a cycle.Psychology
A. True
B. False

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Psychology
10. The skin condition caused by overactive A. Regulates emotion and reward
sebaceous glands is: B. Assists with planning and decision making
A. Eczema C.Transfers information from short-term to long-
B. Psoriasis term memory
C.Keratosis pilaris D. Coordinates sensory information from all different
D. Acne parts of the body

11. According to your book, boys are more

likely than girls to develop acne because
of:
A Poorer hygiene
B. Poorer eating habits
C. Higher levels of testosterone
D. All of the above

12. In general, girls today are experiencing

puberty at younger ages than in previous
generations.
A. True
B. False

13. The age at which girls experience

puberty is the same across racial, ethnic,
and cultural groups.
A. True
B. False

14. For girls, early puberty is associated

with:
A. Mental health issues such as depression,
substance use, and eating disorders
B. Early sexual behavior
C.More anxiety and less confidence in their
relationships with family and friends
D. All of the above

15. Boys who mature early are likely to

experience difficulty in peer relationships,
but this is not the case for boys who
mature late.
A. True
B. False

16. Brain maturation during adolescence

involves:
A. Synaptic pruning in the gray matter of the
brain
B. Increased myelination
C.Increased connectivity of neurons
D. All of the above

17. The changes that occur in adolescents’

brains allow the brain to:
A. Work more efficiently
B. Better integrate memory and
experiences into decision-making
C.Consolidate skills already learned, like language
D. All of the above

18. The limbic system:

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 Developmental
19. The Psychology
is involved in their circadian rhythms change. The effect
the control of impulses, organization, of this change is that:
planning, and making good decisions. A. Adolescents stay awake later
A. Hippocampus B. Adolescents have more difficulty getting up in
B. Corpus callosum the morning
C.Limbic system C.Both A and B
D. Thalamus

20. The prefrontal cortex does not fully

develop until our mid-20s.
A. True
B. False

21. The mismatch between the development

of the
can result in risky
behavior, poor decision making, and weak
emotional control for the adolescent.
A. Thalamus and hypothalamus
B. Reticular formation and suprachiasmatic
nucleus
C.Limbic system and prefrontal cortex
D. Occipital lobe and cerebellum

22. In decision-making, adolescents tend to

focus more on rewards than on risks.
A. True
B. False

23. is a naturally
occurring chemical involved in reward
circuits.
A. Ghrelin
B. Serotonin
C.Dopamine
D. Oxytocin

24. is a naturally occurring

chemical which facilitates bonding and
makes social connections more rewarding.
A. Ghrelin
B. Serotonin
C.Dopamine
D. Oxytocin

25. In general, it appears that most

adolescents do not get enough sleep.
A. True
B. False

26. To support adolescents’ later sleeping

schedule, the Centers for Disease Control
and Prevention released recommendations
that school not begin any earlier than:
A. 7:30 a.m.
B. 8:30 a.m.
C.8:00 a.m.
D. 9:00 a.m.

27. As adolescents go through puberty,

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 Developmental
Psychology distorted thinking patterns and changing
28. Teenage birth rates in the United States inaccurate beliefs.
are higher than most developed countries. A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
A. True B. Maudsley
B. False C.Psychoanalytic

29. Parental involvement and guidance

appears to be a key factor in preventing
teen pregnancy.
A. True
B. False

30. Adolescent mothers are:

A. More likely to live in poverty
B. Less likely to finish high school
C.More likely to have children who don’t
complete high school
D. All of the above

31. Eating disorders do not appear to have a

biological or genetic component.
A. True
B. False

32. Aaliyah has recurrent episodes of

binge eating followed by a “purge” using
laxatives. Based on this description, she
most likely has:
A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Binge eating disorder
C.Bulimia nervosa
D. Orthorexia

33. Thomas severely restricts his food

intake because he has an intense fear of
gaining weight and believes himself to weigh
much more than he does. Based on this
description, he most likely has:
A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Binge eating disorder
C.Bulimia nervosa
D. Orthorexia

34. Health consequences of eating disorders

include:
A. Heart problems
B. Osteoporosis
C.Esophageal rupture
D. All of the above

35. The approach has

parents of adolescents with anorexia nervosa
be actively involved their child’s treatment.
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
B. Maudsley
C.Psychoanalytic
D. Baddeley

36. The approach helps

people with eating disorders (and other
mental health issues) by identifying
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 Developmental
D. Baddeley Psychology B. Unique invulnerability
C.Self-fulfilling prophecy
37. When we use the word “abstract” to D. Invisible audience
refer to principles such as freedom and
morality, we mean that:
A. They can only be understood by adults
B. They can be tested experimentally
C.They have no physical reference
D. They are composed of several other principles

38. Developing hypotheses based on

what might logically occur is called:
A. Seriation
B. Hypothetical-deductive reasoning
C.Inductive reasoning
D. Post hoc, ergo propter hoc reasoning

39. Adolescents demonstrate

hypothetical-deductive reasoning
instead of solving problems through
, which younger children tend to
do.
A. Trial and error
B. Heuristics
C. Algorithms
D. Transitivity

40. If A > B and B > C, then A > C. This

relationship is called:
A. Seriation
B. Heuristic
C. Algorithm
D. Transitivity

41. Which of the following illustrates

the principle of transitivity?
A. If A +B = C, then B + A = C
B. If A > B and B > C, then A > C
C.If A – B = C, then B – A = C
D. If A (B+ C) = D, then AB + AC = D

42. Piaget appears to have been

incorrect in believing that everyone
eventually attained the ability to use
formal operations.
A. True
B. False

43. The heightened self-focus that many

adolescents experience is called:
A. Self-concept
B. Self-serving bias
C.Egocentrism
D. Egotism

44. The adolescent’s belief that those

around them are as concerned and focused
on their appearance as they themselves
are is called the:
A. Personal fable

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 Developmental
Psychology
45. The adolescent’s belief that belief that C.Using specific observations, or specific comments
one is unique and special is called: from those in authority, to draw general
A. Personal fable conclusions
B. Unique invulnerability D. Proposing specific conclusions based on a
C.Self-fulfilling prophecy general overarching principle
D. Invisible audience

46. Thinking about one’s thoughts and

feelings is called:
A. Idealism
B. Introspection
C.Pseudostupidity
D. Hypocrisy

47. Approaching problems at a level that is

too complex and failing because the tasks
are too simple is called:
A. Idealism
B. Introspection
C.Pseudostupidity
D. Hypocrisy

48. When people pretend to be what they are

not, this is called:
A. Idealism
B. Introspection
C.Pseudostupidity
D. Hypocrisy

49. Insisting upon high standards of behavior

is called:
A. Idealism
B. Introspection
C.Pseudostupidity
D. Hypocrisy

50. Self-regulation, or the ability to control

impulses, is especially likely to fail when:
A. There is not a clear relationship between
behavior and outcomes
B. There is high stress or high demand on mental
functions
C.Previously learned information has not been
adequately stored in long-term memory
D. The environment is unstimulating

51. Inductive reasoning can be defined as:

A. Successfully transferring information from
short-term to long-term memory
B. Thinking in novel, divergent ways
C.Using specific observations, or specific
comments from those in authority, to draw
general conclusions
D. Proposing specific conclusions based on a
general overarching principle

52. Deductive reasoning can be defined as:

A. Successfully transferring information from
short-term to long-term memory
B. Thinking in novel, divergent ways

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 Developmental
53. Which is more likely to produce Psychology highest high school dropout rate?
accurate results, inductive reasoning or A. Black
deductive reasoning? B. White
A. Inductive, because it is based on what C.Hispanic
authority figures tell us D. The dropout rate is equal for all of these groups
B. Inductive, because our experiences always
accurately represent the way the world works
C.Deductive, assuming that the premises on
which it is based are accurate
D. Deductive, because it involves using
novelty and divergent thinking

54. The notion that humans

have two distinct networks (intuitive and
analytic) for processing information is
called the model.
A. Biserial
B. Dual-process
C.Bimodal
D. Dual-core

55. In
the dual-process model, is
automatic, unconscious, and fast, as well
as more experiential and emotional.
A. Intuitive
B. Emotive
C.Intentional
D. Analytic

56.
dual-process model,
deliberate, conscious, and rational.
A. Intuitive
B. Emotive
C.Intentional
D. Analytic

57. The percentage of 16- to 24-year-olds

who are not enrolled in school and do not
have high school credentials such as a
diploma or GED certificate is referred to
as the:
A. Recidivism rate
B. Retention rate
C.Status dropout rate
D. Achievement index

58.
ccording to the U.S. Department of
Education, the dropout rate among high
school students was
in 2013.
A. 15%
B. 7%
C.12%
D. 10%

59. According to Figure 6.13 on page 215,

which of the following groups has the

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 Developmental
Psychology
60. Research has indicated that teenagers B Are actively exploring in an attempt to establish an
who work more than 20 hours a week are identity, but have yet to make any commitment
at risk for: C.Have neither explored the options, nor
A. Increased substance abuse made a commitment to an identity
B. Declining grades D. After exploration have made a commitment
C.Earlier sexual behavior
D. All of the above

61. Which of the following statistics

about teenage drivers is FALSE?
A. In 2014, almost 9% of all drivers involved in
fatal crashes that year were young drivers
B Fatal crashes involving alcohol use are higher
among young women than young men
C.In single-vehicle accidents, driving too fast for
weather and road conditions was the main factor in
the majority of crashes involving teens
D. The highest percentage of distracted drivers
involved in fatal crashes is in the age group of 15
to 19 years

62. Although teenagers’ self-concept

increases during adolescence, the teen’s
understanding of self is often full of
contradictions.
A. True
B. False

63. Feeling competent in several areas is

associated with high self-esteem in
adolescence. Which of the following is
NOT one of those areas?
A. Academic performance
B. Peer relationships
C. Athletic abilities
D. Appearance

64. The term “psychological moratorium”

means that:
A. Teenagers do not develop new cognitive
skills during adolescence
B. Teenagers adhere to very rigid ways of
thinking during adolescence
C. Adolescence is a time of continued brain
development
D. Teenagers put on hold commitment to an
identity while exploring the options

65. Erikson believed that the primary

psychosocial task of adolescence was:
A. Doing well in school
B. Establishing an identity
C.Forming close relationships with peers
D. Internalizing parents’ rules and morals

66. According to Marcia’s theory of identity

formation, identity diffusion is a status that
characterizes those who:
A. Have made a commitment to an identity
without having explored the options
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 Developmental
67. According to Marcia’s theory of Psychology career paths. However, she hasn’t yet found
identity formation, identity achievement is a one she really identifies with. This best
status that characterizes those who: represents:
A. Have made a commitment to an identity A. Identity achievement
without having explored the options B. Identity moratorium
B, Are actively exploring in an attempt to establish C.Identity foreclosure
an identity, but have yet to make any D. Identity diffusion
commitment
C.Have neither explored the options, nor
made a commitment to an identity
D. After exploration have made a commitment

68. According to Marcia’s theory of

identity formation, identity moratorium is a
status that characterizes those who:
A. Have made a commitment to an identity
without having explored the options
B. Are actively exploring in an attempt to
establish an identity, but have yet to make
any commitment
C.Have neither explored the options, nor
made a commitment to an identity
D. After exploration have made a commitment

69. According to Marcia’s theory of

identity formation, identity foreclosure is a
status that characterizes those who:
A. Have made a commitment to an identity
without having explored the options
B. Are actively exploring in an attempt to
establish an identity, but have yet to make
any commitment
C.Have neither explored the options, nor
made a commitment to an identity
D. After exploration have made a commitment

70. Arjun has taken several different

introductory-level core classes in college and
has settled on a major based on his
enjoyment of one of those subject areas
and its fit with his career interests. This
best represents:
A. Identity achievement
B. Identity moratorium
C.Identity foreclosure
D. Identity diffusion

71. Ammon doesn’t pay much attention to

political issues and hasn’t made any efforts
to find a political party or candidate to
support. He probably won’t vote in the next
election. This best represents:
A. Identity achievement
B. Identity moratorium
C.Identity foreclosure
D. Identity diffusion

72. Rhiannon has many different career

interests and has taken high school
classes representing several different

10
0
 Developmental
Psychology
73. Wei plans to vote the same way her D. Multicultural accommodation
parents do and support the same candidates
and political party they support. She hasn’t 79. In general, parents tend to be more
thought about her own beliefs, but rather is controlling of sons than daughters.
just doing the same thing her parents do. This A. True
best represents: B. False
A. Identity achievement
B. Identity moratorium
C.Identity foreclosure
D. Identity diffusion

74. Determining our own ethnic identity

involves:
A. Identifying and resolving positive and
negative feelings and attitudes about our own
and other ethnic groups
B. Being aware of the customs and values of the
dominant culture
C.Identifying our place in relation to our own
and other ethnic groups
D. All of the above

75. In Phinney’s model of ethnic identity

formation, someone who has given little
thought to their ethnic heritage and
possibly adopted the ethnicity of their
parents and other family members with little
thought is in the stage of:
A. Unexamined ethnic identity
B. Achieved ethnic identity
C.Ethnic identity search
D. Ethnic identity moratorium

76. In Phinney’s model of ethnic identity

formation, someone who has immersed
themselves in their ethnic culture is in the
stage of:
A. Unexamined ethnic identity
B. Achieved ethnic identity
C.Ethnic identity search
D. Ethnic identity moratorium

77. The term “MAMA cycling” refers to:

A. The tendency of teenagers to go through
cycles of wanting to be close to and also
rejecting their parents
B. The tendency of heterosexual boys to seek
out romantic partners similar to their mother
C.The tendency of girls to adopt their mothers’
habits and values as they get older
D. Moving back and forth between
moratorium and achievement during
identity formation

78. Seeing ourselves as part of both the

ethnic minority group and the larger society
is called:
A. Bicultural identity
B. Autonomy
C.Cultural assimilation
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Psychology
80. Most conflicts between teenagers and
their parents appear to center around
issues of control.
A. True
B. False

81. Adolescents who are similar to one

another choose to spend time together in
a “birds of a feather flock together” way.
This is called:
A. Deviant peer contagion
B. Sensation seeking
C.Homophily
D. Assimilation

82. Sometimes peers reinforce problem

behavior by laughing or showing other
signs of approval that then increase the
likelihood of future problem behavior. This
is called:
A Deviant peer contagion
B. Sensation seeking
C. Homophily
D. Assimilation

83. Cliques are:

A. Reciprocal dyadic relationships
B. Groups of individuals who interact frequently
C.Groups characterized more by shared
reputations or images than actual
interactions
D. Deviant peer groups that engage in
aggressive or criminal behaviors

84. Cliques are:

A. Reciprocal dyadic relationships
B. Groups of individuals who interact frequently
C.Groups characterized more by shared
reputations or images than actual
interactions
D. Deviant peer groups that engage in
aggressive or criminal behaviors

85. Dating serves many purposes for teens,

including:
A. Status
B. Companionship
C.Partner selection for those in late adolescence
D. All of the above

86. In early adolescence, the same-sex

peer groups that were common during
childhood expand into mixed-sex peer
groups, and romantic relationships often
form in the context of these mixed-sex
peer groups.
A. True
B. False

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Chapter 07 ⏐ Emerging and Early Adulthood
Psychology
7) Emerging adulthood looks the same in all
1) The period between the late teens and early countries, regardless of culture.
twenties (roughly ages 18-25) is called: a) True
a) Prepubescence b) False
b) Senescence
c) Emerging adulthood
d) Early adulthood

2) Emerging adults change jobs,

relationships, and residences more frequently
than other age groups. This is an example of
why Arnett refers to emerging adulthood
as the age of:
a) Identity exploration
b) Instability
c) Feeling in-between
d) Possibilities

3) Emerging adulthood is often a time of

optimism because many of our dreams have
yet to be tested. This is an example of why
Arnett refers to emerging adulthood as the
age of:
a) Self-focus
b) Instability
c) Identity exploration
d) Possibilities

4) Emerging adults are likely to answer “yes

and no” to the question of whether or not
they fully feel like adults. This is an example
of why Arnett refers to emerging
adulthood as the age of:
a) Feeling in-between
b) Possibilities
c) Identity exploration
d) Self-focus

5) Emerging adults often realize that they

have few obligations to others and that this is
the time where they can do what they want
with their life. This is an example of why
Arnett refers to emerging adulthood as the
age of:
a) Self-focus
b) Instability
c) Identity exploration
d) Feeling in-between

6) Emerging adults often spend a lot of

time thinking about their career choices
and ideas about intimate relationships,
setting the foundation for adulthood. This is an
example of why Arnett refers to emerging
adulthood as the age of:
a) Instability
b) Possibilities
c) Identity exploration
d) Self-focus
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Psychology b) 2010
8) Compared to many other regions, c) 1940
emerging adulthood seems to be particularly d) 1960
prolonged in Europe. Why?
a) Relaxed parenting practices
b) Poor economic conditions
c)Long-standing philosophical views about what
constitutes adulthood
d) Widely available government support for
things like education and housing

9) Compared to people from other

backgrounds, emerging adults with an
Asian background are more likely to
emphasize as an important
criterion for attaining adult status.
a) Being able to financially support their parents
b) Having a clear career direction
c) Being able to financially support themselves
d) Finishing their education

10) Compared to Europe, Asian cultures

traditionally place a heavier emphasis
on ,
which influences the experience of
emerging adulthood in these cultures.
a) Individualism
b) Collectivism
c) Hedonism
d) Solipsism

11)Due to changes in economic and social

conditions, marriage and parenthood are
no longer universally considered as the
important markers of adulthood in
Western cultures.
a) True
b) False

12)According to your textbook, who are

more likely to live with their parents, young
men or young women?
a) Young women
b) Young men
c) They are equally likely to live with their parents

13) According to Figure 7.5 on page 234,

the rates of men living at home versus
with a partner were approximately similar
to each other until after what year?
a) 1910
b) 2010
c) 1940
d) 1960

14) According to Figure 7.5 on page 234,

the largest discrepancy in rates of young
adults (regardless of gender) living at home
versus with a partner occurred in what year?
a) 1910

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15) By 2014, more adults were living in their d) Normal weight
parents’ homes than were living with a spouse
or partner in their own household (32.1%
and 31.6% respectively), a significant shift
from 1960. Which of the following explains
this trend?
a) Lack of employment and lower wages
b) Postponing or avoiding marriage
c) Increased college enrollments
d) All of the above

16) People in their mid-twenties to mid-

forties are considered to be in:
a) Prepubescence
b) Senescence
c) Emerging adulthood
d) Early adulthood

17)Many adults in their early twenties are at

the peak of their physiological development
in terms of muscle strength, reaction time,
sensory abilities, and cardiac functioning.
a) True
b) False

18) Many changes that we associate with

the aging process begin around age:
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50

19) Aging-related changes that begin in

our 30s commonly include:
a) Wrinkles and drier skin
b)Vision changes, particularly related to the ability
to focus on close objects
c) Declines in reproductive capacity
d) All of the above

20) Aging-related changes that begin in

our 30s commonly include:
a) Decreased sensitivity to sound
b) Declines in immune system functioning
c) Declines in response time
d) All of the above

21) is expressed as weight in

kilograms divided by height in meters
squared.
a) Oxygen saturation
b) Insulin resistance
c) Body mass index
d) Blood pressure

22)A person with a body mass index (BMI) of

30.0-39.9 will be classified as:
a) Overweight
b) Obese
c) Extremely obese
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23) According to the statistics onPsychology
page b) False
236,
more American adults were classified as 31)Factors that affect college students’
obese in 2015 than in 2003-2004. consumption of alcohol include:
a) 37.9% a) Attending a college with an active Greek system
b) 70.7% b) Inconsistent enforcement of underage drinking
c) 5.9% laws
d) 6.4% c) Expectations when entering college
d) All of the above
24) Obesity most likely results from
complex interactions among the environment
and multiple genes.
a) True
b) False

25) Which of the following is NOT one of

the top five causes of death in young
adults?
a) Cancer
b) Diabetes
c) Heart disease
d) Non-intentional injury, like car accidents

26)In 2014, alcohol-impaired driving fatalities

accounted for of overall driving
fatalities.
a) 17%
b) 58%
c) 31%
d) 66%

27) The National Institute on Alcohol

Abuse and Alcoholism defines binge
drinking as having a blood alcohol
concentration level of at least:
a) 0.05 g/dL
b) 1.0 g/dL
c) 0.10 g/dL
d) 0.08 g/dL

28)College students aged 18-22 are

significantly more likely to have consumed
alcohol within the previous month than
18-22-year-olds who are not in college.
a) True
b) False

29) Consequences of college drinking are

likely to include:
a) Academic difficulties
b) Assaulting others
c) Unintentional death or injury, such as car
accidents
d) All of the above

30) College students view perpetrators

who were drinking as less responsible,
and victims who were drinking as more
responsible for the assaults.
a) True

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 Developmental
Psychology 39)Characteristics of will not vary
32) In terms of college students’ significantly between different human
involvement with alcohol, the first of societies, but characteristics of may
freshman year are an especially susceptible vary greatly between different societies.
time for students. a) Sex, gender
a) 2 weeks b) Gender, sex
b) 6 weeks
c) 3 months
d) 6 months

33)Emerging adults (18 to 25) are the largest

abusers of prescription opioid pain
relievers, anti-anxiety medications, and
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
medication.
a) True
b) False

34)In 2014, more than 1700 emerging adults

died from a prescription drug overdose,
times the number who did in 1999.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five

35)College students tend to smoke less (both

marijuana and tobacco) than same-age
peers who are not in college.
a) True
b) False

36)The term refers to physical or

physiological differences between males,
females, and intersex persons, including both
their primary and secondary sex
characteristics.
a) Gender
b) Sex
c) Both a) and b), because they mean the same
thing

37) The term refers to social or

cultural distinctions associated with physical
or physiological differences between males,
females, and intersex persons.
a) Gender
b) Sex
c) Both a) and b), because they mean the same
thing

38) Scholars generally regard gender as

a , meaning that it does not exist naturally,
but is instead a concept that is created by
cultural and societal norms.
a) Secondary reinforcer
b) Heuristic
c) Mediating variable
d) Social construct

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c) Trick question! Neither of these things Psychology phase is the phase in which the intrinsic
varies greatly between societies (inner) motivation to pursue sex arises.
d) Trick question! Both of these things vary a) Excitement
greatly between societies b) Plateau

40) is a person's sense of self as a

member of a particular gender.
a) Gender schema
b) Gender identity
c) Gender role
d) Gender concept

41)Individuals who identify with a role that

corresponds to the sex assigned to them at
birth are:
a) Transgender
b) Androgynous
c) Cisgender
d) Undifferentiated

42)Individuals who identify with a role that

is different from their biological sex are:
a) Transgender
b) Androgynous
c) Cisgender
d) Undifferentiated

43)Which culture sometimes uses the term

“two-spirit” to describe gender-variant
individuals in their communities?
a) Cuban
b) Armenian
c) Japanese
d) indigenous North American

44)A transvestite is a person who dresses and

acts in a style or manner traditionally
associated with another sex, but does not
identify with that role.
a) True
b) False

45)The term refers to society's

concept of how men and women are
expected to act and behave.
a) Gender schema
b) Gender identity
c) Gender role
d) Gender concept

46)Sexual motivation, often referred to as

, is a person's overall sexual drive or
desire for sexual activity.
a) Sexual orientation
b) Libido
c) Sexism
d) Hypergamy

47)In Kinsey’s model of the sexual response

cycle, the

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Psychology
c) Orgasm b) Is responsible for ovulation in females and
d) Resolution stimulates sperm production in males
c) Is involved in the male arousal phase
48)In Kinsey’s model of the sexual response d) Triggers the release of a mature egg in females
cycle, the during the process of ovulation
phase is the phase in which sexual
excitement occurs with increased heart rate
and circulation.
a) Excitement
b) Plateau
c) Orgasm
d) Resolution

49)In Kinsey’s model of the sexual response

cycle, the
phase is the phase in which there is the
release of tension.
a) Excitement
b) Plateau
c) Orgasm
d) Resolution

50)In Kinsey’s model of the sexual response

cycle, the
period is the unaroused state before
the cycle begins again.
a) Excitement
b) Plateau
c) Orgasm
d) Resolution

51)The is the small area at the base

of the brain consisting of several groups of
nerve-cell bodies that receives input from the
limbic system.
a) Thyroid
b) Hypothalamus
c) Pineal gland
d) Pituitary gland

52) Which of the following structures

synthesizes and secretes the hormone
melatonin?
a) Thyroid
b) Hypothalamus
c) Pineal gland
d) Pituitary gland

53) The hormone oxytocin:

a)Is released during sexual intercourse when an
orgasm is achieved
b) Is responsible for ovulation in females and
stimulates sperm production in males
c) Is involved in the male arousal phase
d) Triggers the release of a mature egg in females
during the process of ovulation

54) Follicle-stimulating hormone:

a)Is released during sexual intercourse when an
orgasm is achieved
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55) The hormone vasopressin: Psychology 63) Sexual orientation appears to occur
a)Is released during sexual intercourse when an along a continuum rather than being a
orgasm is achieved dichotomous variable.
b) Is responsible for ovulation in females and a) True
stimulates sperm production in males b) False
c) Is involved in the male arousal phase
d) Triggers the release of a mature egg in
females during the process of ovulation

56) The luteinizing hormone:

a)Is released during sexual intercourse when an
orgasm is achieved
b) Is responsible for ovulation in females and
stimulates sperm production in males
c) Is involved in the male arousal phase
d) Triggers the release of a mature egg in
females during the process of ovulation

57) In women, estrogen tends to

the motivation to engage in sexual
behavior.
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Stabilize

58) In women, progesterone tends to

the motivation to engage in sexual
behavior.
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Stabilize

59)Women and men tend to reach their

sexual peak at different ages.
a) True
b) False

60) The most effective way to prevent

transmission of sexually transmitted
infections is to practice safe sex and avoid
direct contact of skin or fluids which can lead
to transfer with an infected partner.
a) True
b) False

61) Media portrayals of sexuality,

particularly female sexuality, can be both
empowering and problematic.
a) True
b) False

62)A person's is their emotional and

sexual attraction to a particular sex or
gender.
a) Gender identity
b) Sexual schema
c) Sexual orientation
d) All of the above, because these terms all
mean the same thing

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64) People who are pansexual are: c) Dialectical thought
a) Attracted to individuals of their own sex or d) Wisdom
gender
b) Attracted to individuals older than they are 72) According to your book, postformal
c) Not attracted to any sex or gender thought involves:
d) Attracted to all sexes and genders

65)A society that supports heterosexuality as

the norm is called:
a) Homophobic
b) Heterogeneous
c) Heteronormative
d) Heteronymic

66) Internalized homophobia occurs when:

a)Societies enact policies or enable discrimination
against people with same-sex attractions
b)People with same-sex attractions internalize, or
believe, society's negative views and/or hatred of
themselves
c) A society assumes that heterosexuality is “the
norm” for all its members
d) All of the above

67) More research needs to be done to

examine the experiences of LGBT individuals
who are nonwhite.
a) True
b) False

68) LGBT people who are nonwhite may

face homophobic attitudes and behaviors
from people in their racial/ethnic group as
well as racist attitudes and behaviors from
white people in the LGBT community.
a) True
b) False

69)Research has shown that gay, lesbian, and

bisexual teenagers are at a higher risk of
depression and suicide due to:
a) Exclusion from social groups
b) Rejection from peers and family
c) Negative media portrayals of homosexuals
d) All of the above

70)Adolescents tend to think in , meaning

that things are assumed to be solely one
way or another (such as either good or
bad), and there is no middle ground.
a) Algorithims
b) Dichotomies
c) Heuristics
d) Schemas

71) is the ability to bring together

salient aspects of two opposing viewpoints or
positions.
a) Deductive reasoning
b) Inductive reasoning
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a) Learning to base decisions on what isPsychology c) Is not effectively educating themselves
realistic and practical, not idealistic d) Is not in education, employment, or training
b) Making adaptive choices
c) Being less influenced by what others think 80) According to Table 7.2 on page 253, in
d) All of the above the United States, NEETs are more likely to
be:
73)Which of the following statements about a) Women rather than men
postformal thought is FALSE?
a) Formal operational thought is influenced by
experience and education
b) People who can reason abstractly in one area
may not be able to do it in other areas
c) Everyone develops the ability to reason
abstractly
d) Abstract reasoning in a particular field
requires a knowledge base that we might not
have in all areas

74)Approximately half of 18-to-24-year-olds

are enrolled in college.
a) True
b) False

75) The rate of college attainment has

grown more slowly in the United States
than in a number of other nations in
recent years. What does your textbook cite
as a possible reason for this?
a) The high cost of college education
b) A high teen pregnancy rate
c) The changing job market
d) High rates of substance abuse problems in
emerging adults

76) College education appears to be

associated with:
a) Increased likelihood of volunteering
b) Increased social competence
c) Increased feelings of control over one’s life
d) All of the above

77) According to your textbook, children

are likely to select careers based on:
a) Educational requirements
b) What appears glamorous or exciting
c) Experiences
d) Earning potential

78) Compared to earlier generations,

Millennials are more likely to report
wanting a career that:
a) Makes a lot of money
b) Has long-term stability
c) Gives them a sense of purpose and engages
them
d) Has good health insurance and retirement
benefits

79) The term “NEET” refers to someone who:

a) Needs extra education and training
b) Negatively evaluates employment tasks
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b) Between the ages of 25-29 instead of younger d) The way that genetic factors affect the
c) High school graduates who have not attended environments and experiences we’re exposed to
college
d) All of the above

81) Jobs that have been traditionally held

by women tend to have lower:
a) Pay and benefits
b) Job security
c) Status
d) All of the above

82) Sexism or gender discrimination is

prejudice or discrimination based on a
person's sex or gender. Extreme sexism
may foster:
a) Rape
b) Sexual harassment
c) Fewer hiring and promotion opportunities
d) All of the above

83) involves discriminatory

practices, statements, or actions, based on
a person's sex, that occur in the workplace.
a) Occupational sexism
b) Sexual harassment
c) The glass ceiling
d) Gender pay inequity

84)The Council of Economic Advisors (2015)

found that women are paid approximately
of what men earn.
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 90%

85) In general, people identified as having

an easy temperament in infancy grow up
to be well-adjusted adults.
a) True
b) False

86) is defined as the innate

characteristics of the infant, including mood,
activity level, and emotional reactivity, noticeable
soon after birth.
a) Personality
b) Temperament
c) Self-control
d) Self-regulation

87) The term “epigenesis” refers to:

a) How environmental factors are thought to
change gene expression by switching genes on and
off
b) The stronger influence of nature in
determining our characteristics
c) The stronger influence of nurture in
determining our characteristics
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88) Psychology
is defined as a person’s 95)The extent to which an adult worries
characteristic manner of thinking, feeling, about whether their partner really loves them
behaving, and relating to others. is called:
a) Personality a) Attachment-related avoidance
b) Temperament b) Attachment-related ambivalence
c) Self-control c) Attachment-related anxiety
d) Self-regulation

89)Which of the following traits in the Five-

Factor Model of personality is associated
with curiosity and an appreciation for a
variety of experiences?
a) Agreeableness
b) Conscientiousness
c) Openness to experience
d) Extraversion

90)Which of the following traits in the Five-

Factor Model of personality is associated
with a tendency to show self-discipline, act
dutifully, and aim for achievement?
a) Neuroticism
b) Conscientiousness
c) Openness to experience
d) Agreeableness

91)Which of the following traits in the Five-

Factor Model of personality is associated
with a tendency to be compassionate and
cooperative?
a) Extraversion
b) Openness to experience
c) Neuroticism
d) Agreeableness

92)Which of the following traits in the Five-

Factor Model of personality is associated
with a tendency to experience negative
emotions?
a) Conscientiousness
b) Extraversion
c) Neuroticism
d) Openness to experience

93)Which of the following traits in the Five-

Factor Model of personality is associated
with a tendency to seek out stimulation and
the company of others?
a) Openness to experience
b) Extraversion
c) Neuroticism
d) Conscientiousness

94) According to your book, which of the

following personality traits tends to
increase with age?
a) Conscientiousness
b) Extraversion
c) Neuroticism
d) Agreeableness

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d) Attachment-related achievement
102) Maggie is trusting of her partner and
96)The extent to which an adult an adult does not feel that she has to worry about the
feels they can open up to, trust, and depend status of their relationship. In Hazan and
on others is called: Shaver’s description of adult attachment
a) Attachment-related avoidance styles, Maggie would be classified as:
b) Attachment-related ambivalence a) Secure
c) Attachment-related anxiety b) Avoidant
d) Attachment-related achievement c) Disorganized

97)Maggie is trusting of her partner and does

not feel that she has to worry about the
status of their relationship. In
Bartholomew’s description of adult
attachment styles, Maggie would be
classified as:
a) Secure
b) Preoccupied
c) Fearful-avoidant
d) Dismissing-avoidant

98)Bai is in a relationship but does not fully

trust her partner and thus does not share her
dreams, goals, and fears with them. In
Bartholomew’s description of adult
attachment styles, Bai would be classified as:
a) Secure
b) Preoccupied
c) Fearful-avoidant
d) Dismissing-avoidant

99) Larry is very jealous and worries that

his partner does not love him as much as he
loves his partner. In Bartholomew’s
description of adult attachment styles, Larry
would be classified as:
a) Secure
b) Preoccupied
c) Fearful-avoidant
d) Dismissing-avoidant

100)Raul wants close relationships, but does

not feel comfortable getting emotionally
close to others and does not trust his own
ability to be in successful relationships. In
Bartholomew’s description of adult
attachment styles, Raul would be classified
as:
a) Secure
b) Preoccupied
c) Fearful-avoidant
d) Dismissing-avoidant

101) Which of the following is NOT one of

the adult attachment styles in Hazan and
Shaver’s model?
a) Secure
b) Avoidant
c) Disorganized
d) Anxious-ambivalent
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d) Anxious-ambivalent Psychology development, intimate relationships are
more difficult if one is still struggling with
103) Bai is in a relationship but does not identity.
fully trust her partner and thus does not a) True
share her dreams, goals, and fears with b) False
them. In Hazan and Shaver’s description of
adult attachment styles, Bai would be
classified as:
a) Secure
b) Avoidant
c) Disorganized
d) Anxious-ambivalent

104) Larry is worries that his partner does

not love him as much as he loves his
partner and has had failed relationships
because he wants to “merge completely”
with someone, and this puts people off. In
Hazan and Shaver’s description of adult
attachment styles, Larry would be
classified as:
a) Secure
b) Avoidant
c) Disorganized
d) Anxious-ambivalent

105) The dimensions of attachment in

Bartholomew’s theory are:
a) Positive and negative
b) Control and warmth
c) Avoidance and anxiety
d) Expectations and responsiveness

106) Adults with secure attachment styles

tend to attract romantic partners who also
have secure attachment styles.
According to your textbook, which of the
following explanations for this tendency has
the most research support?
a) Secure people are more likely to be attracted
to other secure people
b) Secure people are likely to create security in
their partners over time
c) People’s attachment styles mutually shape one
another
d) People with insecure attachment styles find
their needs unmet with secure people

107) Early attachment styles with parents

appear to influence the attachment styles
people develop as adults.
a) True
b) False

108) Both sibling and parent relationships

must often be reappraised in adulthood.
a) True
b) False

109) According to Erikson’s theory of

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110) Your book defines “attraction” as: that occur in those friendships, tend to differ
a)Having others like and believe in the same from those shared by men.
things we do, which makes us feel validated in our a) True
beliefs b) False
b) The extent to which people are physically near
us 116) Which of the following is NOT one of the
c)The tendency to prefer stimuli (including, but not three main components of love described in
limited to people) that we have seen more Sternberg’s triarchic theory of love?
frequently a) Commitment
d) What makes people like, and even love, each b) Passion
other c) Intimacy
d) Proximity
111) Your book defines “proximity” as:
a)Having others like and believe in the same 117) In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of love,
things we do, which makes us feel validated in our the ability to share feelings, personal
beliefs thoughts and psychological closeness with
b) The extent to which people are physically near the other is called:
us a) Commitment
c)The tendency to prefer stimuli (including, but not b) Passion
limited to people) that we have seen more c) Intimacy
frequently
d) What makes people like, and even love, each
other

112) Your book defines “consensual validation”

as:
a)Having others like and believe in the same
things we do, which makes us feel validated in our
beliefs
b) The extent to which people are physically near
us
c)The tendency to prefer stimuli (including, but not
limited to people) that we have seen more
frequently
d) What makes people like, and even love, each
other

113) Your book defines “mere exposure” as:

a)Having others like and believe in the same
things we do, which makes us feel validated in our
beliefs
b) The extent to which people are physically near
us
c)The tendency to prefer stimuli (including, but not
limited to people) that we have seen more
frequently
d) What makes people like, and even love, each
other

114)The tendency to communicate

frequently, without fear of reprisal, and in
an accepting and empathetic manner, is
called:
a) Extraversion
b) Self-disclosure
c) Locus of control
d) Interpersonal intelligence

115) The kinds of friendships shared by

women, and the topics of the interactions
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d) Proximity Psychology b) Liking
c) Companionate love
118) In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of d) Fatuous love
love, the conscious decision to stay
together is called: 124) Alan and Louis have been together for
a) Commitment over 20 years. They share details of their
b) Passion lives with each other and are still attracted
c) Intimacy to each other after all this time.
d) Proximity

119) In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of love,

the intense, physical attraction partners
feel toward one another is called:
a) Commitment
b) Passion
c) Intimacy
d) Proximity

120) Victor had an immediate, intense

physical attraction to Claire when he met
her, although they don’t have a relationship
and don’t know each other well. Which of
Sternberg’s types of love does this most
closely correspond to?
a) Fatuous love
b) Companionate love
c) Infatuation
d) Empty love

121) Casey and Ashton spend a lot of time

together, are physically attracted to one
another, and enjoy their closeness, but
have not made plans to continue their
relationship long-term. Which of
Sternberg’s types of love does this most
closely correspond to?
a) Consummate love
b) Romantic love
c) Fatuous love
d) Liking

122) Larry has a strong attraction to Renee

and wants to be in a committed
relationship with her despite not knowing
her well, so his commitment is
premature. Which of Sternberg’s types of
love does this most closely correspond to?
a) Fatuous love
b) Romantic love
c) Infatuation
d) Consummate love

123) Elizabeth and Stephanie share a lot

of personal information with each other,
but are not physically attracted to each
other and do not see their relationship as a
long-term deal. Which of Sternberg’s types
of love does this most closely correspond
to?
a) Romantic love

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Which of Sternberg’s types of love does hookups include:
this most closely correspond to? a) Lower self-esteem
a) Infatuation b) Feelings of being used or using someone else
b) Fatuous love c) Regret and depression
c) Consummate love d) All of the above
d) Romantic love

125)Ramesh and Gita are in a committed

relationship and love and respect each other,
but there is no physical attraction. Which of
Sternberg’s types of love does this most
closely correspond to?
a) Infatuation
b) Romantic love
c) Empty love
d) Companionate love

126) Leonard and Brenda are married, but

the physical attraction is long gone, they
don’t communicate with each other, and
they’re only staying together for the sake
of the children. Which of Sternberg’s types of
love does this most closely correspond to?
a) Infatuation
b) Romantic love
c) Empty love
d) Companionate love

127) According to your book, young adults

are likely to stay single due to:
a) Financial instability
b) Greater tendency to raise children out of
wedlock
c) Having other priorities, such as education
d) All of the above

128)There is some evidence that traditional

forms of dating have shifted to more
casual that
involve uncommitted sexual encounters.
a) Cohabitations
b) Hookups
c) “Friends with benefits” relationships
d) Endogamous

129) Relationships that involve friends having

casual sex without commitment are known
as:
a) Cohabitations
b) Hookups
c) Friends with benefits
d) Endogamous

130) In general, men demonstrate a

greater permissiveness regarding casual sex
than women do.
a) True
b) False

131) Potential negative consequences of

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132) According Psychology
to a
2016 research study conducted by Smith 139) Around the world, more and more young
and Anderson, of adults reported couples are choosing their partners, even
using online dating. in nations where arranged marriages are
a) 49% still the norm.
b) 27%
c) 5%
d) 34%

133) Online dating sites and social network

sites:
a)Reduce issues of proximity, as individuals do
not have to be close in proximity to meet
b)Provide a medium in which individuals can
communicate with others
c) Help people find others with similar personality,
hobbies, and interests
d) All of the above

134) Compared to in-person

communication, online communication:
a)May increase the potential for people to be
tricked about who someone is
b) Places less emphasis on physical attributes
and more on written communication
c) Enables people to disclose more intimate
details about themselves more quickly
d) All of the above

135)The rise of cohabitation in Western

cultures has been attributed to:
a) A competition between marriage
and pursuing post-secondary education
b) Increase in individualism and secularism, and
the resulting decline in religious observance
c) Greater gender equality and sexual freedom,
particularly for women
d) All of the above

136)Worldwide, marriage has declined

during the last several decades, with the
biggest drops in marriage mostly in poorer
countries.
a) True
b) False

137)Rules of indicate the groups we

should marry within and those we should
not marry in.
a) Homogamy
b) Polygamy
c) Endogamy
d) Monogamy

138) Marriage between people who share

social characteristics is called:
a) Homogamy
b) Polygamy
c) Endogamy
d) Monogamy

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a) True children, children influence their parents. The
b) False term for this relationship is:
a) Biopsychosocial
140) In his research, Gottman identified four b) Homogamous
predictors of marital harmony. Which of the c) Bidirectional
following is NOT one of them? d) Epigenetic
a) Contempt
b) Defensiveness
c) Fidelity
d) Stonewalling

141)According to your book, which of

Gottman’s four predictors of marital harmony
is the strongest sign that a relationship is
destined to fail?
a) Contempt
b) Defensiveness
c) Criticism
d) Stonewalling

142) When the relationship is generally

positive, this can help the overall relationship
in times of conflict. This is sometimes
called:
a) Approach-avoidance conflict
b) External locus of control
c) Accumulated positive deposits
d) Top-down processing

143) Roughly women have been

severely physically abused by an intimate
partner.
a) 1 in 5
b) 1 in 4
c) 1 in 6
d) 1 in 2

144)Women who experience intimate partner

violence often are subjected to different
patterns of violence than men who experience
intimate partner violence.
a) True
b) False

145) Although they are less likely than

women to experience these things, men may
still experience forms of intimate partner
abuse such as stalking, physical violence,
and rape.
a) True
b) False

146) Compared to previous generations,

today’s parents are more likely to be:
a) Older
b) Unmarried
c) Having fewer children
d) All of the above

147) Not only do parents affect their

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148) Parenting behaviors and beliefs may be
influenced by:
a) The characteristics of the child
b) Sociocultural factors
c) The characteristics of the parent
d) All of the above

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 Developmental
Psychology are closer to the person.
Chapter 08Middle Adulthood A. Floaters
B. Presbyopia
1. Aging caused by biological factors, such C.Scotopic sensitivity
as molecular and cellular changes, is called: D. Dry eye syndrome
A. Primary aging
B. Secondary aging
C.Tertiary aging
D. Physical agin

2. Aging caused by potentially controllable

factors, such as an unhealthy lifestyle, is
called:
A. Primary aging
B. Secondary aging
C.Tertiary aging
D. Physical aging

3. Gray hair is caused by lower production

of
, the pigment that produces hair color.
A. Melatonin
B. Melanoma
C.Melanin
D. Melanite

4. Male pattern baldness is related to:

A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C.Insulin
D. Testosterone

5. The term “sarcopenia” refers to:

A. A form of skin cancer caused by repeated sun
exposure
B. Bone growths that make it painful to walk
C. The loss of muscle mass and strength that
occurs with aging
D. Changes in skin appearance and texture with
aging

6. The muscle-to-fat ratio for both men and

women changes throughout middle
adulthood, with an accumulation of fat in
the:
A. Buttocks
B. Stomach
C.Neck
D. Hip

7. Experiencing shortness of breath and

feeling tired are likely results of:
A. Declines in lung capacity
B. Decreased testosterone production
C.Menopause
D. Reduced melanin production

8. is/are caused by a loss of

elasticity in the lens of the eye that makes it
harder for the eye to focus on objects that

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 Developmental
9. Psychology
is/are little spots or “cobwebs” A. Hypertension
that float around the field of vision and B. Atherosclerosis
that occur when the vitreous, a gel-like C. Atrial fibrillation
substance in the interior of the eye, slowly
shrinks.
A. Floaters
B. Presbyopia
C.Scotopic sensitivity
D. Dry eye syndrome

10. is/are the ability to see in

dimmer light, an ability that declines during
midlife.
A. Floaters
B. Presbyopia
C.Scotopic sensitivity
D. Dry eye syndrome

11. occur(s. when the eye does not

produce tears properly, or when the tears
evaporate too quickly because they are not
the correct consistency.
A. Floaters
B. Presbyopia
C.Scotopic sensitivity
D. Dry eye syndrome

12. According to Figure 8.4 on page 288

of your textbook, the biggest increase in
the number of adults with hearing
impairments occurs:
A. From ages 40-44 to 45-49
B. From ages 60-64 to 65-69
C.From ages 50-54 to 55-59
D. From ages 55-59 to 60-64

13. Hearing loss appears to be either

caused or exacerbated by:
A. Cigarette smoking
B. High blood pressure
C.Exposure to noisy environments
D. All of the above

14. The number one cause of death for

adults, both in the U.S. and worldwide, is:
A. Diabetes
B. Alzheimer’s disease
C.Heart disease
D. Cancer

15. , or a buildup of fatty

plaque in the arteries, is the most common
cause of cardiovascular disease.
A. Hypertension
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Bradycardia

16. occurs when the blood flows

with a greater force than normal.
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 Developmental
Psychology
D. Bradycardia body’s cells begin to divide without stopping
and spread into surrounding tissues.
17.Blood pressure is represented by two A. Diabetes
numbers, such as 110/70 (which, when said B. Alzheimer’s disease
aloud, would be “110 over 70”.. In blood C.Heart disease
pressure, the “top” number is called the
pressure.
A. Hyperbolic
B. Diastolic
C.Prolific
D. Systolic

18.Blood pressure is represented by two

numbers, such as 110/70 (which, when said
aloud, would be “110 over 70”.. In blood
pressure, the “bottom” number is called the
pressure.
A. Hyperbolic
B. Diastolic
C.Prolific
D. Systolic

19. The systolic pressure represents:

A. The pressure in the blood vessels when the
heart beats
B. The time it takes for blood pressure to return to
normal after a stressful event
C. The pressure in the blood vessels when the
heart is at rest
D. The number of heartbeats per minute

20. The diastolic pressure represents:

A. The pressure in the blood vessels when the
heart beats
B. The time it takes for blood pressure to return to
normal after a stressful event
C. The pressure in the blood vessels when the
heart is at rest
D. The number of heartbeats per minute

21. According to your textbook, someone

with a systolic pressure of 130 would likely
be diagnosed as:
A. Having normal blood pressure
B. Having prehypertension
C.Having hypertension
D. Being at immediate risk for death from
cardiovascular disease

22. Risk factors for hypertension include:

A. Diet that is too high in sodium, which is often
found in processed foods, and too low in potassium
B. Sedentary lifestyle
C.Nicotine use
D. All of the above

23. is the name given to a

collection of related diseases in which the
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 Developmental
D. Cancer Psychology C.Ketoacidosis
D. Adiposity
24. Cancer can be life-threatening because:
A. Malignant tumors can invade neighboring body
parts 31. Rates of diabetes are equal across
B. Cancer cells can metastasize, which means gender, ethnic, racial groups.
they can travel through the lymph system or blood
to form new tumors in other parts of the body
C.Even benign tumors, particularly in the brain, can
interfere with the functioning of organs
D. All of the above

25.According to Table 8.2 on page 292 of your

book, the most common type of cancer is
cancer, but the one with the highest
number of deaths per year is
cancer.
A. Liver, pancreatic
B. Breast, lung
C.Colorectal, ovarian
D. Prostate, kidney

26. is a waxy fatty substance

carried by lipoprotein molecules in the
blooD.
A. Triglyceride
B. Plasma
C.Cholesterol
D. Visceral fat

27. Why is low-density lipoprotein (LDL.

referred to as “bad cholesterol”?
A. It can form plaque in the arteries, leading to
heart attack and stroke
B. It interferes with insulin regulation
C. It interferes with normal digestive processes,
leading to malnutrition
D. It is associated with the development of cancer

28. Mike had his cholesterol measured and

learned that his high-density lipoprotein
(LDL. level is 25 mg/dl. Should he be
concerned?
A. Yes
B. No

29. is a disease in which the body

does not control the amount of glucose in
the blooD.
A. Insulin resistance
B. Glucagon intolerance
C.Diabetes
D. Neuropathy

30. Type 2 diabetes often starts with ,

a disorder in which the cells in the muscles,
liver, and fat tissue do not use insulin
properly.
A. Insulin resistance
B. Glucagon intolerance

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Psychology
A. True A. Gallstones
B. False B. Gallbladder polyps
C.Gallbladder acalculi
32.The number of people living with diabetes D. Gallbladder abscesses
increases dramatically:
A. During the ages of 20-29
B. After the age of 65
C. After the age of 45
D. Before the age of 20

33. Diabetic is damage to the small

blood vessels in the retina that may lead to
loss of vision.
A. Presbyopia
B. Retinopathy
C.Glaucoma
D. Macular degeneration

34. Risk factors for diabetes include:

A. Diet
B. Physical inactivity
C.Obesity
D. All of the above

35. People with diabetes are at an increased

risk of:
A. Heart attack
B. Kidney failure
C.Limb amputations
D. All of the above

36. is a cluster of several

cardiometabolic risk factors, including large
waist circumference, high blood pressure,
and elevated triglycerides, LDL, and blood
glucose levels, which can lead to diabetes
and heart disease.
A. General adaptation syndrome
B. Angelman syndrome
C.Metabolic syndrome
D. Waardenburg syndrome

37. is an inflammatory disease

that causes pain, swelling, stiffness, and loss
of function in the joints.
A. Lupus
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C.Sickle cell anemia
D. Neurofibromatosis

38. Rheumatoid arthritis appears to develop

as a result of a genetic susceptibility combined
with an unidentified environmental trigger.
A. True
B. False

39. are hard particles,

including fatty materials, bile pigments, and
calcium deposits, that can develop in the
gallbladder.
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Psychology sugars
40. Heartburn is caused by: C.10 percent of calories per day from saturated fats
A. Insufficient stomach acid D. All of the above
B. The stomach failing to digest food as quickly as
it should 48. is the process by which the
C.Stomach acid backing up into the esophagus body converts food and drink into energy.
D. The digestive system failing to properly absorb A. Ketosis
nutrients

41. Prolonged problems w/ heartburn can

lead to esophageal cancer.
A. True
B. False

42. The National Sleep Foundation

recommends that middle-aged adults get
hours of sleep per night.
A. Less than 6
B. More than 10
C.7-9
D.Trick question! The National Sleep Foundation
does not make sleep recommendations for adults
43.Sleep disturbances (including poor sleep
quality and insufficient sleep. are
associated with which of the following
consequences?
A. Hypertension
B. Insulin resistance
C.Memory impairment
D. All of the above

44. Which of the following is a benefit of

exercise?
A. Stress reduction
B. Better blood sugar control
C.Increased bone density
D. All of the above

45. The Office of Disease Prevention and

Health Promotion’s 2008 guidelines for
exercise in adults contain several
recommendations. Which of the following
is NOT one of them?
A. It is better to have one day of vigorous
exercise than to spread out the exercise over
several days
B.Adults should engage in at least 150 minutes per
week of moderate intensity exercise
C. Adults should participate in muscle-
strengthening activities in addition to aerobic
activity
D. Any activity will result in some health benefits

46. Calorie needs tend to increase in midlife.

A. True
B. False

47. According to dietary guidelines, an

adult’s diet should contain less than:
A. 2,300mg (1 teaspoon. per day of sodium
B. 10 percent of calories per day from added
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Psychology
B. Mitosis 56. Most cases of erectile dysfunction are
C.Metabolism caused by other medical conditions, such as
D. Protein synthesis diabetes and atherosclerosis.
A. True
49. The term “climacteric” refers to: B. False
A. A period of transition in which a woman's
ovaries stop releasing eggs and the level of
estrogen and progesterone production decreases
B. The midlife transition when fertility declines
C. A span of 12 months without menstruation
D. A surge of adrenaline caused by hormonal
changes

50. The term “perimenopause” refers to:

A. A period of transition in which a woman's
ovaries stop releasing eggs and the level of
estrogen and progesterone production decreases
B. The midlife transition when fertility declines
C. A span of 12 months without menstruation
D. A surge of adrenaline caused by hormonal
changes

51. The term “menopause” refers to:

A. A period of transition in which a woman's
ovaries stop releasing eggs and the level of
estrogen and progesterone production decreases
B. The midlife transition when fertility declines
C. A span of 12 months without menstruation
D. A surge of adrenaline caused by hormonal
changes

52. The term “hot flash” refers to:

A. A period of transition in which a woman's
ovaries stop releasing eggs and the level of
estrogen and progesterone production decreases
B. The midlife transition when fertility declines
C. A span of 12 months without menstruation
D. A surge of adrenaline caused by hormonal
changes

53.Depression, mood swings are more common

during menopause, but only for women who
have prior histories of these conditions.
A. True
B. False
54. Hormone replacement therapy to relieve
unpleasant symptoms of menopause has been
associated with an increased risk of:
A. Breast cancer
B. Stroke
C.The development of blood clots
D. All of the above

55. How women feel about menopause

depends on cultural influences as well as
how they individually feel about fertility and
the aging process.
A. True
B. False

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Psychology C.Perceptual speed
57. Intermittent erectile dysfunction affects as D. Verbal memory
many as
of men between the ages of 40 and 70.
A. 4%
B. 50% 65. is the mental state of being
C.17% completely present and fully absorbed in a
D. 70% task.

58. Although age-related physical changes

can affect sexual functioning and desire,
interest in sex does not automatically
disappear at a certain age.
A. True
B. False

59. The risk of contracting a sexually

transmitted infection does not disappear
just because a person reaches a certain
age.
A. True
B. False

60. Which of the following statements about

cognitive development in midlife is FALSE?
A. Older adults use more of their brains than
younger adults
B. Brain plasticity has stopped before midlife
C. Adults in middle adulthood make better
financial decisions
D. Some individuals in middle age actually have
improved cognitive functioning

61. The capacity to learn new ways of solving

problems and performing activities quickly
and abstractly is called:
A. Acquired intelligence
B. Crystallized intelligence
C.Fluid intelligence
D. Experiential intelligence

62. The accumulated knowledge of the world

we have acquired throughout our lives is
called:
A. Acquired intelligence
B. Crystallized intelligence
C.Fluid intelligence
D. Experiential intelligence

63. tends to increase with age,

while
tends to decrease with age.
A. Fluid, crystallized
B. Crystallized, fluid

64. According to Figure 8.17 on page 308 of

your book, the Seattle Longitudinal Study
showed that all of the following skills
improve in middle adulthood EXCEPT:
A. Inductive reasoning
B. Spatial orientation
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Psychology
A. Sustained attention B. Crystallized intelligence
B. Flow C.Wisdom
C.Productive concentration D. Expertise
D. Information processing

66. is knowledge that is

pragmatic or practical and learned through
experience rather than explicitly taught.
A. Expertise
B. Wisdom
C.Flow
D. Tacit knowledge

67. Which of the following general

statements about people in a flow state is
FALSE?
A. They are achieving great joy or intellectual
satisfaction from the activity and accomplishing a
goal
B. They are not concerned with extrinsic rewards
C.They are engaged in vigorous physical activity
D. They are able to block outside distractions

68.By the year 2020, students over age 35 are

expected to account for of all college and
graduate students.
A. 6%
B. 19%
C.27%
D. 33%

69. Compared to younger students, older

students are more likely to:
A. Use higher order cognitive skills to enhance
memory
B. Look for relevance and meaning when
learning information
C.Learn information more slowly but retain it longer
D. All of the above

70. The program that assists community

colleges in creating or expanding options
that focus on workforce training and new
careers for the plus-50 population is called:
A. Golden Opportunities
B. Slow and Steady Wins the Race
C.Plus 50 Initiative

71. A is who has

someone experiences with a limited
particular task.
A. Novice
B. Trainee
C. Newbie
D. Greenhorn

72. Specialized skills and knowledge that

pertain to a particular topic or activity are
collectively called:
A. Tacit knowledge
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Psychology
73. Expert thought often involves calling C.55-64
upon knowledge and past experience D. 65 and up
instead of relying on rules (such as a
person who doesn’t need to follow a 79.Which term refers to organizational
recipe because they have so much discrimination in the workplace that limits
cooking exp.. For this reason, expert the career advancement of women?
thought is sometimes described as: A. Sexual harassment
A. Intuitive B. Family responsibilities discrimination
B. Automatic
C.Strategic
D. Flexible

74.Expert thinkers often process information

faster and more effectively than novices, and
their reactions often appear instinctive
(such as a trauma nurse who barely has to
think about what to do because they’ve done
their job for so long.. For this reason,
expert thought is sometimes described
as:
A. Intuitive
B. Automatic
C.Strategic
D. Flexible
75.Expert thinkers can generate hypotheses
better than novices, and are also better at
ignoring irrelevant information to make
effective decisions (such as an
experienced college student who can
identify which information on the
PowerPoints is important and doesn’t have to
write down everything.. For this reason,
expert thought is sometimes described as:
A. Intuitive
B. Automatic
C.Strategic
D. Flexible

76. Expert thinkers are more curious and

creative; they enjoy a challenge and
experiment with new ideas or procedures
(such as a painter who explores other
artistic mediums such as sculpture.. For
this reason, expert thought is sometimes
described as:
A. Intuitive
B. Automatic
C.Strategic
D. Flexible

77.Job satisfaction tends to peak in early

adulthood and decline in middle adulthooD.
A. True
B. False

78. In terms of the U.S. work force, adults in

which age group are the only population of
adults that will shrink in size over the next
few years?
A. 16-24
B. 35-45
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 Developmental
Psychology
C.Glass ceiling D. Thinking of life in terms of how many years are
D. Title VII violation left

80. Someone is experiencing job burnout 87. The majority of middle-aged adults in
when they: the United States experience a midlife crisis.
A. Have reached the peak of their earning A. True
potential
B. Feel disillusioned and frustrated at work
C. Have advanced as far as they can go in
terms of promotions and responsibilities
D. Are trying to balance their employment and
family responsibilities

81. According to Figure 8.19 on page 313 of

your book, the average number of annual
hours worked by American workers is higher
than the number for all of the following
countries EXCEPT:
A. Australia
B. Denmark
C.Mexico
D. Germany

82.Middle aged adults who find themselves

unemployed are likely to remain unemployed
longer than those in early adulthooD.
A. True
B. False

83.Around the world, the most common

leisure activity in both early and middle
adulthood is:
A. Reading
B. Participating in exercise or sports
C.Creative pursuits such as cooking and art
D. Watching television

84. In general, who spends more time in

leisure activities, men or women?
A. Men
B. Women
C. Men and women spend equal amounts of time in
leisure activities

85.Why do so many American workers fail to

use all of their available vacation time?
A. Lack of encouragement from bosses and
coworkers
B.Concerns about coming back to a big mountain of
work to do
C.Not wanting to seem replaceable
D. All of the above

86. According to Levinson’s theory of

adult development, the midlife transition
(ages 40-45. was a time of:
A. Attaining career success and prestige
B.Reevaluating previous commitments and making
changes as necessary
C.Disengaging from society
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 Developmental
B. False Psychology D. Social ascendancy

88.Levinson concluded from his research

that a midlife crisis was a normal part of
development. However, his research has
been criticized and questioned for:
A. Using a cross-sectional instead of a longitudinal
design
B. Not operationally defining his variables
C.Using the wrong statistical tests during data
analysis
D. Using invalid measures to assess development

89. The word refers to a pattern of

physical and psychological responses in
an organism after it perceives a
threatening event that disturbs its
homeostasis and taxes its abilities to
cope with the event.
A. Jittering
B. Ululation
C.Stress
D. Damping

90. In Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome,

there are three phases. Which of the
following is NOT one of them?
A. Mobilization of physiological resources
B. Coping
C.Exhaustion
D. Recuperation

91. Stress can be caused by:

A. Traumatic events, like a natural disaster
B.Daily hassles, like getting stuck behind a slow
driver when you’re late
C. Chronically difficult situations, such as an
unhappy marriage
D. All of the above

92. The behavior pattern that involves being

competitive, impatient, hostile, and time
urgent is called:
A. Type A
B. Type B
C.Type C
D. Type D

93.Which behavior pattern is associated with a

high risk of heart disease?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C.Type C
D. Type D

94. Your book uses the term to

describe to describe the number of social
roles a person has.
A. Social facilitation
B. Sociability
C.Social integration
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Psychology his eight stages, and they refer to what the
95. Caregiving is associated with several individual achieves when the stage is
negative outcomes for the caregiver, successfully reconcileD. The virtue emerging
including: when one achieves generativity is:
A. Depression A. Purpose
B. Physical health problems B. Care
C. Anxiety C.Love
D. All of the above

96. Women are more likely than men to be:

A. Caregivers
B. Care recipients
C.Both caregivers and care recipients
D. Neither caregivers nor care recipients

97. In general, women acting as caregivers

experience more burden than men in that
role.
A. True
B. False

98. is a technique where the

individual is shown bodily information that is
not normally available to them and then
taught strategies to alter this signal.
A. Sensory integration therapy
B. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
C.Biofeedback
D. Paired-associates learning

99. Esther is very stressed by her

caregiving responsibilities and is dealing
with it by attempting to hire some home
health care. Esther is using:
A. Emotion-focused coping
B. Problem-focused coping
C.Self-focused coping
D. Other-focused coping

100. Demitri is very stressed by his

caregiving responsibilities and is dealing
with it by reminding himself that his
mother’s disruptive behaviors are part of her
Alzheimer’s disease and she’s not doing
these things on purpose. Demetri is using:
A. Emotion-focused coping
B. Problem-focused coping
C.Self-focused coping
D. Other-focused coping

101. As Erikson uses

it, refers to procreativity, productivity, and
creativity in midlife, with the goal of leaving
a positive legacy.
A. Generosity
B. Gainsharing
C.Generativity
D. Gemellology

102. Erikson identified “virtues” for each of

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D. Wisdom Psychology 111. Boomerang kids are:
A. Young adults who go from job to job without
103. Generative adults often have other steadily committing to anything
positive qualities. Which of the following
traits is NOT mentioned in your book as
one of these positive qualities?
A. Good cultural knowledge
B. Better cognitive functioning
C. Agreeableness
D. Wisdom

104. The term “sandwich generation” refers to:

A.Children who rely on school-provided lunches
for most of their nutrition
B. Adults who have not learned to cook
because their parents served prepared foods so
often
C. Adults with elderly parents and are either
raising their or supporting their own children
D. Children who are extremely picky eaters
105. The majority of the sandwich generation
is:
A. 40-59 years old
B. 60 or older
C.20-39 years old
D. Under 20 years old

106. Parents whose children are grown up

and have left home are sometimes called:
A. Fictive kin
B. Kinkeepers
C.Family watchdogs
D. Empty nesters

107.Great emotional distress experienced

by parents, typically mothers, after children
have left home is called:
A. Postpartum depression
B. Empty nest syndrome
C.Child-centered coping
D. Prosopagnosia

108. Empty nest syndrome is consistent with

the idea of:
A. The role loss hypothesis
B. The Zeigarnik effect
C.The law of filial regression
D. The law of proximity

109.In general, research has demonstrated

that raising children has a negative impact
on the quality of martial relationships.
A. True
B. False

110. How parents react to their children

growing up and leaving home appears to be
affected by cultural factors.
A. True
B. False

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Psychology
B. Young adults who help their aging relatives B. Look for other relationships immediately after
on a temporary, as-needed basis their divorce
C. Young adults who are returning after C. Use their divorce experience to grow
having lived independently outside the home emotionally, but choose to stay single
D. Young adults who are still forming their identity D. Maintain positive relationships with their ex-
spouses
112.The notion that people in important
relationships, such as children and parents, 118. In the context of divorced parents’
mutually influence each other’s interactions with their children, the word
developmental pathways is called: “gatekeeping” means:
A. Intersectionality
B. Linked lives
C.Equipotentiality
D. Generation effect

113. According to DePaulo, studies that simply

compare married people to single people may
be flawed because:
A. They use cross-sectional and not longitudinal
designs
B. They are not experimental studies
C.They do not use valid measures to assess
adjustment
D.They do not differentiate between adults who have
always been single and adults who are single due
to divorce or widowhood

114. The most common relationship status

for middle-aged adults in the United States
is:
A. Divorced
B. Never married
C.Married
D. Widowed

115. According to your book, which of the

following statements about divorce is TRUE?
A. Most divorces are initiated by men
B. Most divorces take place within the first 5 to 10
years of marriage
C. Since the 1990s, the divorce rate among those
50 and older has declined significantly
D. Compared to divorce at younger ages, midlife
divorces tend to be more angry and conflictual

116. The subgroup of divorcees called

“enhancers”:
A. Use the experience to better themselves and
seek more productive intimate relationships
B. Look for other relationships immediately after
their divorce
C. Use their divorce experience to grow
emotionally, but choose to stay single
D. Maintain positive relationships with their ex-
spouses

117. The subgroup of divorcees called

“competent loners”:
A. Use the experience to better themselves and
seek more productive intimate relationships
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A. These parents limit their ex-spouse’s contact
with their children 124.Cherlin and Furstenberg identified three
B.These parents regulate the flow of information styles of grandparents. Involved
about their new romantic partner to their children grandparents:
C. These parents do not discuss their ex-spouse
with their children
D.These parents want to be very involved in their
children’s romantic lives to prevent them from
making the same mistakes they did

119. Which of the following statements about

remarriage is TRUE?
A. Remarriage rates have declined in recent years
B. More women than men remarry
C. Rates of remarriage are similar across racial
and ethnic groups
D. The divorce rate in remarriage is less than
in first marriages

120. Adult-focused parents:

A. Tend to have less rapport with their children
B.Tend to prioritize their partner’s needs over their
children’s needs
C.Spend less time in joint activities with their children
D. All of the above

121.The degree that grandparents are

involved in their grandchildren’s lives
depends on:
A. The proximity of the grandparents’ home
to the grandchild’s home
B. The availability of technology such as
FaceTime and Skype
C. Cultural factors such as how common
multigenerational households are
D. All of the above

122.Cherlin and Furstenberg identified

three styles of grandparents. Remote
grandparents:
A. Rarely see their grandchildren, either due to
geographic or emotional distance
B. Have frequent contact with and authority
over the grandchild
C. Do things with the grandchild but have little
authority or control over them
D. Emphasize the importance of discipline over
affection, much like authoritarian parents

123.Cherlin and Furstenberg identified

three styles of grandparents. Companionate
grandparents:
A. Rarely see their grandchildren, either due to
geographic or emotional distance
B. Have frequent contact with and authority
over the grandchild
C. Do things with the grandchild but have little
authority or control over them
D. Emphasize the importance of discipline over
affection, much like authoritarian parents

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A. Rarely see their grandchildren, either due to psychological well-being.
geographic or emotional distance A. True
B. Have frequent contact with and authority B. False
over the grandchild
C. Do things with the grandchild but have little 132. Religious beliefs and practices appear to
authority or control over them vary by:
D. Emphasize the importance of discipline over
affection, much like authoritarian parents

125. Lacking close friendships in

adulthood is associated with:
A. Increased depression and anxiety
B. Premature mortality
C.Poorer reactions to stress
D. All of the above

126. Midlife social interactions are predicted

by the
of social interactions at age 20
and the
of social interaction at age 30.
A. Quantity, quality
B. Quality, quantity
C.Quality, quality
D. Quantity, quantity

127. Internet relationships are inferior to

real-life relationships.
A. True
B. False

128. Attitudes about women’s aging vary by:

A. Sexual orientation
B. Race
C.Culture
D. All of the above

129. The term refers to an

individual’s intrapsychic sense of
connection with something transcendent
(that which exists apart from and not
limited by the material universe. and the
subsequent feelings of awe, gratitude,
compassion, and forgiveness.
A. Religiosity
B. Spirituality
C.Transcendentalism
D. Predestination

130. The term refers to engaging

with a formal religious group’s doctrines,
values, traditions, and co-members.
A. Religiosity
B. Spirituality
C.Transcendentalism
D. Predestination

131. It appears that formal religious

participation and spirituality relate
differently to an individual’s overall
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A. Age Psychology measures how many equivalent years of
B. Gender full health on average a newborn baby is
C.Religious denomination expected to have. This age takes into account
D. All of the above current
Chapter 09 ⏐ Late Adulthood

1.The fastest growing age division of the

United States population consists of:
A. Children under 18
B. Adults 19-39 years old
C. Adults 40-64 years old
D. Adults over 65 years old

2.According to Table 9.2 on page 350 of

your textbook, in 2030, the United States is
predicted to have the lowest percentage of
living adults over 65 except for which
country?
A. Russia
B. Japan
C.Canada
D. Germany

3.The number of older people in less

developed countries is projected to
increase more than in developed
countries.
A. True
B. False

4.The greatest age reached by any member

of a given population (or species) is called:
A. Life expectancy
B. Life span
C.Life course
D. All of the above, because all of these
terms mean the same thing

5.The average number of years that

members of a population (or species)
live is called:
A. Life expectancy
B. Life span
C.Life course
D. All of the above, because all of these
terms mean the same thing

6.Which is longer, life span or life expectancy?

A. Life expectancy
B. Life span
C.They are equal in length

7.Worldwide, who lives longer on

average, men or women?
A. Men
B. Women
C.They live the same amount of time

8.When looking at large populations, the

World Health Organization (2016)
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age-specific mortality, morbidity, and disability
risks and is referred to as the: 15. Older adults between the ages of 85
A. Adjusted Life Span and 99 comprise the category.
B. Prorated Life Expectancy A. Young-old
C.Healthy Life Expectancy B. Old-old
D. Corrected Life Span C.Oldest-old

9.According to the Centers for Disease

Control data collected in 2006-2007, which
of the following statements about Health
Life Expectancy (HLE) in the
U.S. is TRUE?
A. The highest HLE was observed in Wisconsin
B. HLE was equal across racial and ethnic
groups in most states
C.Females had a lower HLE than males at age 65
years
D. Overall, the lowest HLE was among southern
states

10. Children born in the United States today

may be the first generation to have a shorter
life span than their parents.
A. True
B. False

11. Children born in the United States today

may be the first generation to have a shorter
life span than their parents due to
increasing rates of:
A. Obesity
B. Unhealthy eating habits
C.Physical inactivity
D. All of the above

12. In terms of developmental biology,

women are the “default” sex. The term
“default” means that:
A. Women outlive men
B. Males are heterogametic (XY), whereas
females are homogametic (XX)
C.The creation of a male individual requires a
sequence of events at a molecular level
D. Women are, on average, at lower risk
of certain conditions than men

13. Reasons why women tend to live longer

than men include:
A. The protective effect of estrogen
B. Men tend to have more dangerous jobs
C.Men are more susceptible to bacterial and viral
infections
D. All of the above

14. Older adults between the ages of 65

and 84 comprise the category.
A. Young-old
B. Old-old
C.Oldest-old
D. Centenarian
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D. Centenarian Psychology continuation of childhood development, are
called theories.
16. Older adults above the age of 100 A. Sensorineural
comprise the B. Longitudinal
category. C.Programmed
A. Young-old D. Damage
B. Old-old
C.Oldest-old
D. Centenarian

17. When compared to adults over 85,

the young-old tend to have better
functioning in:
A. Health
B. Social engagement
C.Cognitive skills
D. All of the above

18. The term “fourth age”

is sometimes used to describe people in the
age group.
A. Young-old
B. Old-old
C.Oldest-old
D. Centenarian

19. Which age group accounts for only 2%

of the U. S. population, but 9% of all
hospitalizations?
A. Young-old
B. Old-old
C.Oldest-old
D. Centenarian

20. According to your book, which of the

following is NOT one of the most common
reasons for hospitalization for the
oldest-old?
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Influenza
C.Urinary tract infections
D. Hip fractures

21. Although those 85 and older are more

likely to require long-term care and to be in
nursing homes than the youngest-old, most
still live in the community rather than a
nursing home.
A. True
B. False

22. In general, centenarians are likely to be

in
health compared to many other
adults.
A. Worse
B. Better
C.The same quality

23. Theories of aging that follow

a biological timetable, possibly a
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24. Theories of aging emphasizing D. A chemical compound that counteracts the
environmental factors that cause cumulative deterioration of stored food products
damage in organisms are called theories.
A. Sensorineural
B. Longitudinal
C.Programmed
D. Damage

25. At the end of each chromosomal

strand is a sequence of DNA that does not
code for any particular protein, but protects
the rest of the chromosome. This sequence
of DNA is called a:
A. Telecaster
B. Telodendron
C.Telomere
D. Teleplasm

26. As our cells replicate, what

happens to our telomeres?
A. They get stronger
B. They get shorter
C.They take on new functions
D. They create new cells of their own

27. When the telomeres get too short, one

of three things can happen. When “cellular
senescence” occurs:
A. A cell ceases to replicate by turning itself off
B. A cell takes on new functions
C. A cell continues to divide and becomes
abnormal
D. A cell ceases to replicate by dying

28. When the telomeres get too short,

one of three things can happen. When
“apoptosis” occurs:
A. A cell ceases to replicate by turning itself off
B. A cell takes on new functions
C. A cell continues to divide and becomes
abnormal
D. A cell ceases to replicate by dying

29. The mitochondria is:

A. The finely branched terminal of an axon
B. A cell organelle that uses oxygen to produce
energy from food
C. A molecule that is missing an electron and
creates instability in surrounding molecules by
taking electrons from them
D. A chemical compound that counteracts the
deterioration of stored food products

30. A free radical is:

A. The finely branched terminal of an axon
B. A cell organelle that uses oxygen to produce
energy from food
C. A molecule that is missing an electron and
creates instability in surrounding molecules by
taking electrons from them
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31. Research has conclusively demonstrated B. Fat, lean
that adding antioxidants to our diets
reduces the effects of free radical damage. 37. Years exposed to the sun may lead to:
A. True A. Cancer
B. False B. Wrinkles
C. Age spots
32. The life sustaining activities of the body D. All of the above
are called:
A. Eustress
B. Acute stress
C.Chronic stress
D. Metabolic stress

33. The innate immune system is composed of

the:
A. Skin, mucous membranes, cough reflex,
stomach acid, and specialized cells that alert
the body of an impending threat
B. Cellular changes that occur following
immunization or exposure to bacteria or
viruses that results in the body developing
immunity
C.Tonsils, spleen, bone marrow, thymus, circulatory
system and the lymphatic system that work to
produce and transport T cells
D. Antibodies that are produced in a body
other than our own, such as the antibodies
transferred from mother to infant through the
placenta

34. The adaptive immune system is composed

of the:
A. Skin, mucous membranes, cough reflex,
stomach acid, and specialized cells that alert
the body of an impending threat
B. Cellular changes that occur following
immunization or exposure to bacteria or
viruses that results in the body developing
immunity
C.Tonsils, spleen, bone marrow, thymus, circulatory
system and the lymphatic system that work to
produce and transport T cells
D. Antibodies that are produced in a body
other than our own, such as the antibodies
transferred from mother to infant through the
placenta

35. Hormonal Stress

Theory suggests that as we age, the
ability of the to regulate
hormones in the body begins to decline,
leading to metabolic problems.
A. Thyroid gland
B. Pineal gland
C.Pituitary gland
D. Hypothalamus

36. After age 30, people tend to

lose tissue and gain tissue.
A. Lean, fat

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38. Common skin changes in older adults 46. According to your book, the most common
include: cause of blindness in the United States is:
A. Skin tags, especially in women A. Macular degeneration
B. More frequent bruising B. Glaucoma
C.Longer healing time for cuts and scratches C.Diabetic retinopathy
D. All of the above D. Cataracts

39. The loss of muscle tissue as a natural

part of aging is called:
A. Sarcomeria
B. Sarcopenia
C.Sarcoma
D. Sarcoidosis

40. Which of the following is NOT

mentioned in your book as a factor
contributing to sarcopenia?
A. Reduction in nerve cells responsible for sending
signals to the muscles from the brain to begin
moving
B. Decrease in the ability to turn protein into
energy
C.Exposure to environmental toxins
D. Not receiving enough calories or protein
to sustain adequate muscle mass

41. People tend to get shorter as they move

into old age.
A. True
B. False

42. is/are a clouding of the lens of the

eye.
A. Macular degeneration
B. Glaucoma
C.Presbyopia
D. Cataracts

43. In nations in which medical care is

limited, cataracts are a leading cause of
blindness.
A. True
B. False

44. is/are a loss of clarity in the center

field of vision, due to the deterioration of the
macula, the center of the retina.
A. Macular degeneration
B. /Glaucoma
C.Presbyopia
D. Cataracts

45. is/are the loss of

peripheral vision, frequently due to a buildup
of fluid in eye that damages the optic nerve.
A. Macular degeneration
B. Glaucoma
C.Presbyopia
D. Cataracts

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47. Tinnitus is: Psychology 55. Treating cancer in older adults is
A. A ringing, hissing, or roaring sound in the ears challenging because:
B. The experience of dizziness caused by fluid
problems in the inner ear
C. A common form of hearing loss in late
adulthood that results in a gradual loss of
hearing
D. An injury to the ear caused by changes in
air or water pressure

48. Presbycusis is:

A. A ringing, hissing, or roaring sound in the ears
B. The experience of dizziness caused by fluid
problems in the inner ear
C. A common form of hearing loss in late
adulthood that results in a gradual loss of
hearing
D. An injury to the ear caused by changes in
air or water pressure

49. Smell loss due to aging is called:

A. Anosmia
B. Dysosmia
C.Presbyosmia
D. Phantosmia

50. Older adults often show increasing

insensitivity to pressure, temperature, or
pain, putting them at risk for injury.
A. True
B. False

51. Chronic pain can lead to other problems

such as:
A. Decline in physical activity
B. Sleep and mood disorders
C.Greater disability
D. All of the above

52. Total loss of smell is called:

A. Anosmia
B. Dysosmia
C.Presbyosmia
D. Phantosmia

53. The “MyPlate for Older Adults” guide

from Tufts University suggests that 50% of
an older adult’s diet should consist of:
A. Lean meats
B. Whole grains
C.Fruits and vegetables
D. Fats and sugars

54. According to Table 9.6 on page 368 of

your book, the most common chronic
condition is:
A. Diabetes
B. Osteoporosis
C.Stroke
D. High cholesterol

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A. Chemotherapy may exacerbate dementia someone with shingles
and elderly cognitive declines C.Shingles can produce a lasting pain condition that
B. Aging is associated with a decline in impairs daily functioning
multiple organ systems that can adversely affect
the ability of medications to treat the cancer
C.Older adults are likely to have other medical
conditions that can complicate treatment
D. All of the above

56. Atherosclerosis is an unavoidable part

of normal aging.
A. True
B. False

57. As bones weaken in the spine, adults

gradually lose height and their posture
becomes hunched over, which is called:
A. Osteoporosis
B. Scoliosis
C.Kyphosis
D. Hyperhydrosis

58. The disease that thins and weakens

bones to the point that they become fragile
and break easily is called:
A. Osteoporosis
B. Scoliosis
C.Kyphosis
D. Hyperhydrosis

59. is a progressive lung

disease in which the airways become
damaged, making it difficult to breathe.
A. Tuberculosis
B. Asthma
C.Pneumonia
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

60. Shingles is a disease that affects

your nerves, caused by the same virus
that causes:
A. Measles
B. Influenza
C.Chicken pox
D. Mumps

61. is a disease in which the

liver becomes scarred and does not function
properly.
A. Diverticulosis
B. Cirrhosis
C.Cellulosis
D. Halitosis

62. Which of the following statements about

shingles is FALSE?
A. People who had the chicken pox when they
were younger do not have to worry about getting
shingles
B. A person can catch the chicken pox from
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D. Shingles can produce blindness if a person B. Older adults are more likely to experience
experiences blisters near their eye insomnia than other sleep problems
C.Older adults tend to go to sleep earlier and get up
63. The brain decreases in weight as we earlier than younger adults
age. Which of the following is NOT D. All of the above
mentioned in your book as a reason for
this decrease?
A. Shrinkage of neurons
B. Lower number of synapses
C.Loss of myelin
D. Shorter length of axons

64. The theory that the brain adapts to

neural atrophy (dying of brain cells) by
building alternative connections is called
the:
A. Dopamine hypothesis
B. Scaffolding theory of aging and cognition
C.Neural proliferation hypothesis
D. Role stress relief hypothesis

65. Cognitive training programs for older

adults:
A. Have been shown to delay or slow the
progression of Alzheimer’s disease
B. Are more effective at maintaining
cognitive functioning than physical exercise,
learning new skills, and socializing
C.Have been found to improve generalization of
cognitive skills to other tasks
D. None of the above

66. is a disease characterized by

motor tremors, loss of balance, poor
coordination, rigidity, and difficulty moving.
A. Huntington’s disease
B. Alzheimer’s disease
C.Parkinson’s disease
D. Meniere’s disease

67. Treatment for Parkinson’s disease

often involves medication that affects
which neurotransmitter?
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C.Epinephrine
D. Norepinephrine

68. Which of the following appears to

significantly increase a person’s risk of
developing Parkinson’s disease?
A. Brain injury that results in loss of consciousness
B. Exposure to radiation
C. A high-sodium diet
D. Being born prematurely

69. The term “advanced sleep phase

syndrome” means that:
A. Older adults need less sleep than adults of
other ages

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Psychology
70. People who have repeated short pauses in D. 20%
breathing that can lead to reduced oxygen in
the blood are said to have: 78. A change in marital status is more likely to
A. Periodic limb movement disorder affect the sexual behavior of older women than
B. Sleep apnea older men.
C.Restless legs syndrome A. True
D. Rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder B. False

71. People who jerk and kick their legs

every 20 to 40 seconds during sleep are
said to have:
A. Periodic limb movement disorder
B. Sleep apnea
C.Restless legs syndrome
D. Rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder

72. People who feel tingling, crawling, or

pins and needles sensations in one or both
legs that worsens at night are said to have:
A. Periodic limb movement disorder
B. Sleep apnea
C.Restless legs syndrome
D. Rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder

73. People whose muscles move during REM

sleep and therefore disrupt their sleep are
said to have:
A. Periodic limb movement disorder
B. Sleep apnea
C.Restless legs syndrome
D. Rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder

74. Exercise appears to improve sleep

quality.
A. True
B. False

75. Sleep problems in older adults are

associated with:
A. Increased risk of falls
B. Reduced immune function
C.Cognitive decline
D. All of the above

76. According to the National Survey of

Sexual Health, 20%-30% of individuals
remain sexually active:
A. Until they reach their 50s
B. Until they reach their 60s
C.Until they reach their 70s
D. Well into their 80s

77._______________________Results from
the National Social Life Health, and Aging
Project indicated that_______of men and aged
52
to 72 reported being sexually active.
A. 45%
B. 72%
C.30%
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79. If there is a decline in sexual activity were asked to complete words such as s_ _ p,
for a heterosexual couple, it is typically due to you may be more likely to write soup than
a decline in the male’s physical health. soap, or ship. This is an example of:
A. True A. Semantic memory enhancement
B. False B. Central processing disorder
C.Facilitated communication
80. Working memory is composed of D. Priming
three major systems. The one that
oversees working memory, allocating
resources where needed and monitoring
whether cognitive strategies are being
effective, is the:
A. Central executive
B. Visuospatial sketchpad
C.Phonological loop
D. Auditory processor

81. Working memory is composed of

three major systems. Which one appears
to be most negatively impacted by age?
A. Central executive
B. Visuospatial sketchpad
C.Phonological loop
D. Auditory processor

82. Working memory is composed of

three major systems. The one that
maintains information about visual
stimuli is the:
A. Central executive
B. Visuospatial sketchpad
C.Phonological loop
D. Auditory processor

83. Working memory is composed of

three major systems. The one that
maintains information about auditory
stimuli is the:
A. Central executive
B. Visuospatial sketchpad
C.Phonological loop
D. Auditory processor

84. Which type of long-term memory shows

the greatest declines with aging?
A. Semantic
B. Episodic
C.Implicit
D. Trick question! All of them show equal decline
with aging

85. The “tip-of-the-tongue” phenomenon

involves:
A. Declines in oral-motor skills with aging
B. Declines in taste sensitivity with aging
C. A “block” at retrieving information that we
know
D. Improvements in vocabulary with aging

86. If you were shown pictures of food and

asked to rate their appearance and then later
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87. Prospective memory involves: suppressing attention to less pertinent
A. Remembering things we need to do in the information tasks is called:
future A. Inhibition theory
B. Using executive functions to track B. Directed forgetting
multiple tasks simultaneously C.Processing speed theory
C.Using previously learned information to make D. Accommodation theory
decisions about new information
D. Recognizing information previously presented

88. Having to remember to do

something at a future time is called -
based prospective memory.
A. Future
B. Time
C.Proactive
D. Event

89. Having to remember

to do something when a certain event occurs
is called -based prospective
memory.
A. Future
B. Time
C.Proactive
D. Event

90. Recognition tasks are usually easier

because they require less cognitive energy.
A. True
B. False

91. Olde
r adults show larger declines in
memory compared to younger adults.
A. Recall
B. Recognition
C.Procedural
D. All of the above

92. In terms of attention changes in late

adulthood, older adults:
A. Are less able to selectively focus on
information while ignoring distractors
B. Require more time to perform at young adult
levels
C.Have greater difficulty shifting their attention
between objects or locations
D. All of the above

93. The idea that our ability to process

information declines as the nervous system
slows with advanced age is called:
A. Inhibition theory
B. Directed forgetting
C.Processing speed theory
D. Accommodation theory

94. The idea that older adults have difficulty

focusing on certain information while
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95. Possible non-cognitive explanations Psychology B. Implicit memory
for cognitive differences between younger C.Procedural memory
and older adults include: D. Wisdom
A. Decreased sensory function in older adults
B. Older adults’ greater need for cognitive 103. Research suggests that life
tasks to be meaningful experiences, rather than just age, are
C. An overreliance on cross-sectional versus stronger predictors of wisdom.
longitudinal research A. True
D. All of the above B. False

96. Cultural exposure to facts

and procedures is called the of
intelligence.
A. Mechanics
B. Pragmatics
C.Informatics
D. Automatics

97. The
pragmatics of intelligence with
age.
A. Are maintained
B. Decline

98. The pragmatics of

intelligence are similar to the concept of
intelligence.
A. Interpersonal
B. Intrapersonal
C.Fluid
D. Crystallized

99. Aspects of
intelligence that are dependent on brain
functioning are called the of
intelligence.
A. Mechanics
B. Pragmatics
C.Informatics
D. Automatics

100. T
he mechanics of intelligence
with age.
A. Are maintained
B. Decline

101. The mechanics of

intelligence are similar to the concept of
intelligence.
A. Interpersonal
B. Intrapersonal
C.Fluid
D. Crystallized

102. The ability to use the accumulated

knowledge about practical matters that
allows for sound judgment and decision
making is called:
A. Common sense

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104. A significant cognitive decline from a D. All of the above
previous level of performance in one or more
cognitive domains and interferes with 112. Vascular neurocognitive disorder is
independent functioning is called a associated with:
neurocognitive disorder.
A. Major
B. Minor
C.Primary
D. Secondary

105. A modest cognitive decline from a

previous level of performance in one of more
cognitive domains and does not interfere with
independent functioning is called a
neurocognitive disorder.
A. Major
B. Minor
C.Primary
D. Secondary

106. At this time, among the top 10 causes

of death in America, Alzheimer's disease is the
only one that cannot be prevented or cured.
A. True
B. False

107. Alzheimer’s disease involves changes in:

A. Personality
B. Cognitive functioning
C.Physical coordination
D. All of the above

108. The greatest risk factor for developing

Alzheimer’s disease is:
A. Exposure to aluminum
B. Lack of physical activity
C. Age
D. Premature birth

109. is an important protein that

helps maintain the brain’s transport
system.
A. Alpha
B. Sigma
C.Tau
D. Beta

110. Neurons in the

are among the first to be damaged in
Alzheimer’s disease.
A. Cerebellum
B. Thalamus
C.Reticular formation
D. Hippocampus

111. Beta-amyloid plaques appear to:

A. Replicate rapidly and encourage the
formation of new plaques
B. Block cell communication in the brain
C.Strip axons of myelin
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A. A general loss of neurons Psychology themselves as old enough to retire
B. Microscopic protein deposits in neurons B. They have not yet developed hobbies to keep
C. A blockage of cerebral blood vessels that them busy
usually affects only one part of the brain C.They may not have the financial resources
D. Tremors and slowing of movement in addition D. They enjoy working so much that they
to cognitive decline can’t imagine making changes

113. Neurocognitive disorder with Lewy

bodies is associated with:
A. A general loss of neurons
B. Microscopic protein deposits in neurons
C. A blockage of cerebral blood vessels that
usually affects only one part of the brain
D. Overuse of certain types of medications

114. involves both cognitive

and motor symptoms, similar to
Parkinson’s disease.
A. Vascular neurocognitive disorder
B. Pick’s disease
C.Neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies
D. Alzheimer’s disease

115. People who get another job after being

fully retired but work in a different field
from the one in which they retired are said
to have:
A. Encore careers
B. Recidivism
C.Bridge jobs
D. Adjunct positions

116. People who get part-time jobs as a

transition between a career and full
retirement are said to have:
A. Encore careers
B. Recidivism
C.Bridge jobs
D. Adjunct positions

117. According to your book, the

average age of retirement is
currently:
A. 70 years
B. 65 years
C.63 years
D. 60 years

118. Which of the following laws and

regulations can influence a person’s
decision to retire?
A. Eligibility for Medicare
B. Eligibility for Social Security benefits
C.Specific occupations have mandatory retirement
ages
D. All of the above

119. The main reason that people

choose to delay retirement is:
A. They are not emotionally ready to think of

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120. Atchley (1994) identified several B. False
phases that individuals ago through when
they retire. In which phase do people
establish concrete plans for retirement?
A. Immediate pre-retirement phase
B. Remote pre-retirement phase
C.Reorientation phase
D. Honeymoon phase

121. Atchley (1994) identified several

phases that individuals ago through when
they retire. In which phase do people
experience an emotional let-down?
A. Remote pre-retirement phase
B. Actual retirement
C.Disenchantment phase
D. Honeymoon phase

122. Atchley (1994) identified several

phases that individuals ago through when
they retire. In which phase do people
attempt to adjust to retirement by making
less hectic plans and getting into a regular
routine?
A. Honeymoon phase
B. Reorientation phase
C.Immediate pre-retirement phase
D. Disenchantment phase

123. is a program that

provides educational opportunities and
travel experiences for older adults.
A. Senioritis
B. Age of Enlightenment
C.Golden Road Experiences
D. Road Scholar

124. When the belief in one’s ability results

in actions that make it come true, this is
called a:
A. Self-serving bias
B. Positive reinforcer
C.Self-fulfilling prophecy
D. Stereotype threat

125. Being the target of stereotypes can

adversely affect individuals’ performance on
tasks because they worry they will confirm
the cultural stereotypes. This is called a:
A. Self-serving bias
B. Positive reinforcer
C.Self-fulfilling prophecy
D. Stereotype threat

126. People who live in cultures with

negative stereotypes about aging, and who
believe those negative stereotypes, are likely
to experience declines in memory and other
cognitive skills.
A. True
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127. People who live in cultures with Psychology older adults lived in a nursing home.
negative stereotypes about aging, and A. 3.2%
who believe those negative B. 1.9%
stereotypes, are likely to: C.10.4%
A. Experience declines in memory and other D. 7.4%
cognitive skills
B. Have more difficulty recovering from illnesses
C.Experience more stress and anxiety
D. All of the above

128. The term “triple jeopardy” is used to

describe a situation in which:
A. People do not have at least three
sources of social support
B. Older minority women face a
combination of ageism, racism, and sexism
C. A person has at least three life-threatening
illnesses
D. A person has at least three factors that
increase their suicide risk

129. The poverty rate for older adults is

consistent across gender, marital
status, race, and age.
A. True
B. False

130. Which of the following groups is MOST

likely to live in poverty?
A. Caucasian older men
B. African American older men
C.Hispanic women
D. African American older women

131. 2014 statistics indicate that men 65

years of age and older are most likely to
live:
A. In a nursing home
B. With their spouse
C.With adult children or other family members
D. Alone

132. In general, women 65 years of age

and older are least likely to live:
A. With non-relatives such as friends
B. With their spouse
C.With adult children or other family members
D. Alone

133. Which group is least likely

to live in multigenerational
households?
A. Asian
B. Hispanic
C. African American
D. Caucasian

134. Acco
rding to the United States Department of
Health and Human Services, in 2015 of

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Psychology
135. According to Erber and Szuchman
(2015), the majority of older adults do not 141. When grandparents take over the task
move to a different residence after of raising their grandchildren, they may face
retirement. challenges because:
A. True A. Older adults have far less energy
B. False B. Traumatic events are usually the reason
behind them taking over this task
136. According to Erikson, the stage in life in C.They face financial, health, education, and
which we make a retrospective accounting of housing challenges that often derail their
our life to date and evaluate how much one retirement plans
embraces life as having been well lived, as D. All of the above
opposed to regretting missed
opportunities, is the stage of:
A. Initiative versus guilt
B. Generativity versus stagnation
C.Ego integrity versus despair
D. Intimacy versus isolation

137. Successfully resolving the crisis of Ego

integrity versus Despair requires:
A. Finding meaning in one’s life and
accepting one’s accomplishments
B. Acknowledging what in life has not gone as
hoped
C.Feeling a sense of contentment and accepting
others’ deficiencies, including those of one’s
parents
D. All of the above

138. According to Erikson, successfully

resolving the crisis of Ego integrity versus
Despair is necessary in order to achieve:
A. Closure
B. Wisdom
C.Postformal thinking
D. Fluid intelligence

139. More positive views on aging and greater

health are noted with those who keep active
than those who isolate themselves and
disengage with others. This is consistent
with:
A. Socioemotional selectivity theory
B. Selective optimization with compensation
C. Activity theory
D. Convoy model of social relations

140. Which of the following

statements about volunteering in
later life is FALSE?
A. The number of hours older adults
volunteer declines significantly in their early
70s
B. About 40% of older adults engage in
volunteerism
C.Religious organizations, hospitals, and
environmental groups are common volunteer
outlets for older adults
D. Volunteering is associated with positive
factors such as better health and life satisfaction
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 Developmental
Psychology A. Solitude
142. Approximately B. Social isolation
of grandparents raising their C.Loneliness
grandchildren are at least 65 years old. D. Autonomy
A. 5%
B. 18% 149. The Social Readjustment Rating Scale rates
C.25% as the most significant possible
D. 46% stressor in a person’s life.
A. Being diagnosed with a terminal illness
143. The idea that the social connections
that people accumulate differ in levels of
closeness and are held together by
exchanges in social support is called:
A. Socioemotional selectivity theory
B. Selective optimization with compensation
C. Activity theory
D. Convoy model of social relations

144. The idea that as we age, we change our

motivation for actively seeking social contact
with others is called:
A. Socioemotional selectivity theory
B. Selective optimization with compensation
C. Activity theory
D. Convoy model of social relations

145. Socioemotional selectivity theory is

supported by research indicating that:
A. Older adults have smaller networks
compared to young adults
B. Older partners show more affectionate
behavior during conflict discussions than do
middle-aged partners
C.Compared to younger adults, older adults
often avoid negative interactions
D. All of the above

146. Older parents of adult children who

provided
support tended to report greater
life satisfaction, but older adults whose
children provided
support reported less life satisfaction.
A. Emotional, informational
B. Financial, emotional
C.Informational, emotional
D. Informational, financial

147. Having a friend as a confidante appears

to provide more health-related benefits to
recent widows than having a family
member as a confidante.
A. True
B. False

148. Your
book uses the term to
describe the discrepancy between the
social contact a person has and the
contacts a person wants.

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B. The death of a spouse with HIV/AIDS in the United States are 50 or
C.The death of a child older.
D. Being incarcerated A. 10%
B. 25%
150. Older adults are more likely to adjust C.40%
better to the death of a spouse if they: D. 60%
A. Are more extroverted
B. Have higher self-efficacy
C.Get positive support from adult children
D. All of the above

151. The context of a spouse’s death, such as

whether or not the death occurred after a
lengthy illness, is an important factor in how
people may react.
A. True
B. False

152. There is a higher risk of death after the

death of a spouse. This is called the:
A. Comorbidity effect
B. Widowhood mortality effect
C.Terminal drop
D. Thanatoptic syndrome

153. Which of the following statements

about divorce and older adults is TRUE?
A. Adults age 65 and over are more likely to
divorce than middle-aged and young adults
B. Men who divorce are more likely to
experience financial difficulties
C.Women who divorce are more likely to remain
single
D. Adult children of divorced parents offer more
support and care to their fathers than their
mothers

154. The online dating patterns of older

adults are similar to those of young and
middle-aged adults.
A. True
B. False

155. Opportunities to develop close

relationships often diminish in later life as
social networks decrease because of:
A. Retirement
B. Relocation
C.The death of friends and loved ones
D. All of the above

156. Reasons commonly cited by older

women for not wanting to remarry include:
A. Wanting to maintain their autonomy
B. Not wanting to merge their finances with
someone else
C.Not wanting to care for an ill partner
D. All of the above

157. Nearly of people living

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 Developmental
Psychology workers such as home health aides or nursing
158. A home staff.
2010 research study indicated that of A. True
adults 50 and over who were single or had a B. False
new sexual partner reported using a condom
the last time they had sex. 165. Although there do not seem to be racial
A. 10% or ethnic group differences in elder abuse
B. 25% prevalence, cultural
C.40%
D. 60%

159. Older adults who remarry often

find that their remarriages are less
stable than those of younger adults.
A. True
B. False

160. When compared to heterosexual elders,

lesbian and gay elders have less support
from others as they are:
A. More likely to live alone
B. Less likely to have adult children
C.Likely to be discriminated against
D. All of the above

161. Cross-sectional research may not be

appropriate for examining the experiences
of LGBT elders because:
A. There are ethical issues with recruiting
participants
B. The sample size will not be large enough
to draw valid conclusions
C.Today’s cohort of LGBT elders grew up in
times when social attitudes about homosexuality
were different than they are now
D. People cannot be randomly assigned to
groups based on sexual orientation or gender
identity

162. Which of the following statements

about elder abuse is TRUE?
A. Cognitive impairment is the greatest risk
factor for elder abuse
B. Approximately 4.3 million older Americans
are affected by at least one form of elder abuse
per year
C.Elders between 60 and 69 years of age
are more susceptible to elder abuse than
those older
D. All of the above

163. The most common form of elder abuse is

abuse.
A. Financial
B. Emotional
C.Physical
D. Sexual

164. Perpetrators of elder abuse are more

likely to be family members than paid

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Psychology
norms regarding what constitutes abuse do A. Relative avoidance of disease, disability, and risk
differ based on ethnicity. factors, like high blood pressure, smoking, or
A. True obesity
B. False B. Maintenance of high physical and cognitive
functioning
166. Which of the following statistics about C. Active engagement in social and productive
substance abuse in older adults is TRUE? activities
A. Nearly 50 percent of nursing home residents D. All of the above
have alcohol related problems
B. 14 percent of elderly emergency room 172. Which of the following statements about
admissions are a result of alcohol or drug cannabis use in older adults is TRUE?
problems
C.Older adults are hospitalized as often for alcoholic
related problems as for heart attacks
D. All of the above

167. Which of the following factors can make

it difficult to identify substance abuse
problems in older adults?
A. Stereotypes of older adults can result in a
diagnosis of cognitive impairment instead of a
substance use disorder
B. Stigma and shame about use may keep older
adults from seeking assistance
C.Older adults may participate in fewer activities
(such as jobs) where substance abuse would be
easily noticed
D. All of the above

168. Family physicians may be more likely

prescribe benzodiazepines and opioids to older
adults to deal with psychosocial and pain
problems rather than prescribe alternatives
such as therapy.
A. True
B. False

169. Why might older adults be especially

sensitive to the effects of drugs and
alcohol?
A. The age-related decrease in the ratio between
lean body mass and fat makes them more
susceptible to the effects of drugs and alcohol
B. Older adults are likely to be taking other
medications, which can result in unpredictable
interactions
C.Liver enzymes that metabolize alcohol
become less efficient with age
D. All of the above

170. When an elder makes adjustments, as

needed, in order to continue living as
independently and actively as possible, this is
called:
A. Socioemotional selectivity theory
B. Selective optimization with compensation
C. Activity theory
D. Convoy model of social relations

171. In general, successful aging involves:

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A. Cannabis appears to relieve some of thePsychology A. Health professionals, trained to heal,
symptoms of Parkinson’s disease and chronic may feel inadequate and uncomfortable
pain facing decline and death
B. Adults aged 65-79 were more likely to use B. Friends and family members may feel that
cannabis than older adults they do not know what to say or that they
C. Among Baby Boomers, married men were can offer no solutions to relieve suffering
most likely to use cannabis C. Psychologically, it keeps the well person
D. All of the above from thinking of themselves as becoming ill
or in need of assistance
Chapter 10Death and Dying

1. The Uniform Determination of Death

Act defines death as occurring when
there has been irreversible cessation of
function in:
A. The circulatory system
B. The brain, including the brain stem
C. The respiratory system
D. Any of the above

2. According to your book, which of the

following does NOT typically happen in
the weeks before passing?
A. Reaching in air or picking at covers
B. Restlessness or disorientation
C. Increase in the need for sleep
D. Incontinence of bladder and/or bowel

3. According to your book, which of the

following does NOT typically happen in
the days before passing?
A. Murmuring to people others cannot see
B. Inability to swallow
C. Minimal appetite; prefer easily digested foods
D. Decreased level of consciousness

4. According to your book, which of the

following does NOT typically happen in
the days to hours before passing?
A. Pauses in breathing
B. Decreased urine volume and urine color
darkens
C. Knees, feet, and/or hand discoloring to
purplish hue
D. Decreased urine volume and urine color
darkens

5. occurs when others

begin to dehumanize and withdraw
from someone who is terminally ill or
has been diagnosed with a terminal
illness.
A. Psychological death
B. Emotional death
C. Social death
D. Adaptational death

6. Why do people sometimes

dehumanize and withdraw from
someone who is terminally ill?

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Psychology
D. All of the above C. Hospitals
D. Hospice facilities
7. In 1900, the most common causes of
death in the
U.S. were:
A. Different forms of cardiovascular disease
B. Accidents
C. Different forms of cancer
D. Infectious diseases

8. According to Figure 10.2 on page 414 in

your textbook, currently, the most
common cause of death in the U.S.
comes from:
A. Different forms of cardiovascular disease
B. Accidents
C. Diabetes
D. Infectious diseases

9. From age 1 until age 44, the most common

cause of death in the U.S. is:
A. Malignant neoplasms
B. Unintentional injury
C. Congenital abnormalities
D. Suicide

10. For adults over age 65, currently, the most

common cause of death in the U.S. comes
from:
A. Different forms of cardiovascular disease
B. Accidents
C. Diabetes
D. Infectious diseases

11. In high-income countries, the most deaths

occur in which age group?
A. Under 15 years
B. 70 years and older
C. 25-39 years
D. 40-60 years

12. In low-income countries, the most deaths

occur in which age group?
A. Under 15 years
B. 70 years and older
C. 25-39 years
D. 40-60 years

13. In low-income countries, the most

deaths occur from which cause?
A. Different forms of cardiovascular disease
B. Accidents
C. Diabetes
D. Infectious diseases

14. In the United States, more Americans

die in
than in any other settings.
A. Their own homes
B. Nursing homes
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Psychology
15. Infants typically show no reaction to their illness, even while being treated.
being separated from a parent who has A. Restorative
died. B. Curative
A. True C. Palliative
B. False D. Hospice

16. Until the age of 9, children are likely to:

A. Feel guilty and responsible for the death
of a loved one
B. Believe that through their thoughts they
can bring someone back to life
C. Assume that death is temporary or reversible
D. All of the above

17. Despite a preoccupation with thoughts of

death, the
of adolescence causes them
to feel immune to death and may lead to
risky behavior.
A. Imaginary audience
B. Personal fable
C. Formal operational thinking
D. Maturation of the frontal lobes

18. Those in adulthood report the most

fear of death.
A. Early
B. Middle
C. Late
D. Trick question! Adults in all age groups
report equal fear of death

19. Why do adults in late adulthood have

the least fear of death?
A. Older adults have fewer caregiving
responsibilities and are not worried about
leaving family members on their own
B. They have had more time to complete
activities they had planned in their lives
C. They have less anxiety because they have
already experienced the death of loved
ones
D. All of the above

20. It is not death itself that concerns

those in late adulthood; rather, it is
having control over how they die.
A. True
B. False

21. care is designed to overcome

disease and illness.
A. Restorative
B. Curative
C. Palliative
D. Hospice

22. care focuses on providing

comfort and relief from physical and
emotional pain to patients throughout

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 Developmental
Psychology costs down the road
23. care provides terminally ill D. Purchasing long-term care insurance in middle
patients with medical, psychological, and age
spiritual support, along with support for
their families.
A. Restorative
B. Curative
C. Palliative
D. Hospice

24. Hospice care was first developed in:

A. Japan
B. The United States
C. The United Kingdom
D. Saudi Arabia

25. Which of the following is NOT a typical

part of hospice care?
A. Pain and symptom management for the
patient
B. Bereavement counseling for the family up
to one year after the patient’s death
C. Coordination of all medical services
D. Trick question! These are all typical parts of
hospice care

26. Most hospice patients are people with:

A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Cancer
C. Heart disease
D. AIDS

27. All ethnic groups and cultures have the

same amount of enthusiasm about
hospice care.
A. True
B. False

28. Family caregiving can be difficult because:

A. Caregiving may be physically demanding
B. Caregiving may interfere with other
obligations, such as work and child care
C. Family caregivers often receive little
training or guidance
D. All of the above

29. According to Table 10.3 on page 420 of

your book, the annual cost of lost
productivity due to family caregivers’
absenteeism from working due to
providing care is:
A. $3 billion
B. $60 million
C. $25.2 billion
D. $34.3 million

30. The term “advance care planning” refers to:

A. Arrangements made for hospice care
when someone is terminally ill
B. All documents that pertain to end-of-life care
C. Pre-paying funeral arrangements to save
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 Developmental
31. A living will is a: Psychology health care issues.
A. Written or video statement that outlines A. True
the health care initiates the person B. False
wishes under certain circumstances
B. Document that names the person who 37. are more likely than other
should make health care decisions in the groups to prefer to have treatment
event that the patient is incapacitated stopped if they have a terminal illness.
C. Document that specifies what a person
wants done with their possessions after
they die
D. Document that a medical professional
writes on behalf of a seriously ill patient

32. A durable power of attorney for health

care agreement is a:
A. Written or video statement that outlines
the health care initiates the person
wishes under certain circumstances
B. Document that names the person who
should make health care decisions in the
event that the patient is incapacitated
C. Document that specifies what a person
wants done with their possessions after
they die
D. Document that a medical professional
writes on behalf of a seriously ill patient

33. A medical order is a:

A. Written or video statement that outlines
the health care initiates the person
wishes under certain circumstances
B. Document that names the person who
should make health care decisions in the
event that the patient is incapacitated
C. Document that specifies what a person
wants done with their possessions after
they die
D. Document that a medical professional
writes on behalf of a seriously ill patient

34. Documents like living wills and durable

power of attorney agreements are
collectively referred to as:
A. Long-term care insurance
B. Last rites
C. Conservatorships
D. Advance directives

35. Cultural factors strongly influence how

doctors, other health care providers,
and family members communicate bad
news to patients, the expectations
regarding who makes the health care
decisions, and attitudes about end-of-
life care.
A. True
B. False

36. Not all cultures view the patient as

being the primary decision-maker for

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Psychology
A. Hispanic people
B. African American people 45. People can find it difficult to grieve
C. Asian people effectively and learn to live with loss if
D. Caucasian people they are prevented from

38. is defined as intentionally

ending one’s life when suffering from a
terminal illness or severe disability.
A. Thanatopsis
B. Parricide
C. Euthanasia
D. End-of-life care

39. Which of the following states does NOT

currently allow physician-assisted
suicide?
A. Oregon
B. Montana
C. Wisconsin
D. Colorado

40. Intentionally ending the life of a terminally

ill person, such as through an overdose
of medication, is called:
A. Passive euthanasia
B. Hospice care
C. Active euthanasia
D. Physician-assisted suicide

41. When a physician prescribes the means by

which a person can die, this is called:
A. Passive euthanasia
B. Hospice care
C. Active euthanasia
D. Physician-assisted suicide

42. When life-sustaining support is

withdrawn, this is called:
A. Passive euthanasia
B. Hospice care
C. Active euthanasia
D. Physician-assisted suicide

43. A person seeking physician-assisted suicide

in the
U.S. must:
A. Be at least 18 years of age
B. Have six or less months until expected death
C. Obtain both oral and written requests
from a physician
D. All of the above

44. Which of the following is the only country

that (with significant restrictions) allows
physician-assisted suicide for people
under 18?
A. Netherlands
B. Belgium
C. Luxembourg
D. Switzerland
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Psychology
participating in traditional funeral D. All of the above, because all of these terms
rites (e.g., if a person is missing and mean the same thing
presumed dead or a family member is
E.
unable to attend a funeral ceremony).
A. True
53. Since her husband died, Linda feels unable to
B. False
move on, is preoccupied with distressing
memories, and feels a sense of disbelief that
46. The funeral rites are heavily
he’s really gone. Linda is most likely
based in this culture’s belief in
experiencing:
reincarnation.
A. Complicated grief
A. Roman Catholic
B. Disenfranchised grief
B. Muslim
C. Anticipatory grief
C. Hindu
D. Culturally-sanctioned grief
D. Orthodox Jewish
54. When Simon’s partner died, the
47. The funeral rites have three
partner’s family refused to acknowledge
parts: A wake, a funeral mass, and a
Simon as a legitimate mourner,
graveside ceremony.
deliberately changing aspects of the
A. Roman Catholic
funeral service without telling him and
B. Muslim
excluding him from family gatherings.
C. Hindu
Simon is likely to experience:
D. Orthodox Jewish
A. Complicated grief
B. Disenfranchised grief
48. The funeral rites involve
C. Anticipatory grief
placing the deceased person’s body on
D. Culturally-sanctioned grief
their right side, facing Mecca.
A. Roman Catholic
55. Satomi’s mother had Alzheimer’s disease
B. Muslim
for many years. When she died, Satomi was
C. Hindu
sad, but she had had time to prepare for the
D. Orthodox Jewish
death and had a sense of relief that her
mother’s struggle was now over.
49. The funeral rites include
Satomi’s experience most closely
the deceased person’s family receiving
describes:
visitors in their home after the burial, a
A. Complicated grief
practice known as “sitting shiva”.
B. Disenfranchised grief
A. Roman Catholic
C. Anticipatory grief
B. Muslim
D. Culturally-sanctioned grief
C. Hindu
D. Orthodox Jewish
56. In Kubler-Ross’ five stages of grief, the
experience of disbelief or shock is called:
50. The emotional process of reacting to a
A. Depression
loss is called:
B. Denial
A. Grief
C. Bargaining
B. Mourning
D. Anger
C. Bereavement
D. All of the above, because all of these
57. In Kubler-Ross’ five stages of grief, the
terms mean the same thing
process of facing death and making
appropriate end-of-life arrangements is
51. The process by which people adapt to
called:
a loss, greatly influenced by cultural
A. Acceptance
beliefs, practices, and rituals, is called:
B. Bargaining
A. Grief
C. Denial
B. Mourning
D. Depression
C. Bereavement
D. All of the above, because all of these
58. In Kubler-Ross’ five stages of grief, may
terms mean the same thing
help people temporarily believe that
52. The period after a loss during which
they have a sense of control over their
grief and mourning occurs is called:
future and to feel that they have at least
A. Grief
expressed their rage about how unfair life
B. Mourning
can be.
C. Bereavement
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A. Depression Psychology
59. In Kubler-Ross’ five stages of grief,
B. Acceptance
C. Anger
may involve feeling the full weight of loss,
D. Bargaining
crying, and losing interest in the outside
world.
A. Depression
B. Acceptance
C. Anger
D. Denial

60. In Kubler-Ross’ five stages of grief,

involves trying to think of ways to negotiate
a longer life, such as promising to be a
better person.
A. Anger
B. Denial
C. Depression
D. Bargaining

61. Kübler-Ross believes that the one stage

that all those who are dying go through
is:
A. Depression
B. Denial
C. Anger
D. Bargaining

62. Research examining the validity of

Kubler-Ross’ stages of grief has indicated
that:
A. People grieve the same way, regardless of
the type of loss they experience
B. All the stages in her model are beneficial
parts of the grieving process
C. Kubler-Ross was correct in describing the
order of stages in the grieving process
D. None of the above

63. The dual-process model of grieving

proposes that, when grieving:
A. People alternate between moments of
sadness and moments of happiness
B. People alternate between looking back and
looking forward
C. People separate their cognitive
understanding of death from their
emotional feelings about death
D. People adjust their grieving processes
depending on their social setting and the
people they’re with

64. In the dual-process model of grieving, the

grieving individual reestablishing roles
and activities they had prior to the death
of their loved one is called
orientation.
A. Loss
B. Assimilation
C. Restoration
D. Accommodation
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65. In the dual-process model of grieving,
the grieving individual yearning for
their loved one is called
orientation.
A. Loss
B. Assimilation
C. Restoration
D. Accommodation

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66. In societies in which childhood deaths C. Starting a new life while still
are statistically infrequent, parents are maintaining a connection with the
often unprepared for the loss of their deceased
daughter or son and suffer high levels of D. Acceptance that the loss has occurred
grief.
A. True 73. Support groups can be beneficial because
B. False they:
A. Reduce isolation
67. Parkes and Prigerson (2010) describe

as “the most distressing and long-lasting of

all griefs”.
A. The loss of a spouse
B. The loss of a parent
C. The loss of a child
D. Being diagnosed with a terminal illness

68. Adjusting to the loss of a parent in

adulthood appears to depend on:
A. The adult child’s marital status
B. The gender of both the parent and the adult
child
C. Whether or not the adult child lived with the
parent, particularly for men
D. All of the above

69. People who experience a parent’s death

during their childhood are at increased
risk for:
A. Substance abuse
B. Depression
C. School underachievement
D. All of the above

70. Which of the following is NOT one of the

“red flags” that could indicate that a
grieving child may need professional
assistance like counseling?
A. Persistent difficulty in talking about the dead
person
B. Crying when recalling memories of the
deceased person or thinking about the
future
C. Somatic complaints like stomachaches
and headaches
D. Persistent self-blame or guilt

71. When explaining death to children, it is

important to use euphemisms, such as
“left us” or “gone to sleep”, because
words like “died” will just confuse them.
A. True
B. False

72. Which of the following is NOT one of

Worden’s four tasks of mourning?
A. Maintaining everyday routines as closely
as possible to what was in place before the
person’s death

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B. Connect individuals with others who havePsychology
similar experiences
C. Offer those grieving a place to share their
pain and learn new ways of coping
D. All of the above

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ANSWER KEY 41-50 CDCBD CDABA 111-120 CCBCA 71-80 ADABC DBACB
51-60 CBADA CADDA BDBAD 81-90 CADAD BBACD
CHAPTER 1 61-70 CBCBA DBBBA 121-131 CADDA 91-100 DAACD CACBA
1-10 CDBAC ABCDB 71-80 ACDCA DBAAC CADAAA 101-110 CBDCA DBAAA
11-20 ACBAC ACACD 81-90 DBCBA BCADA 111-120 CBDCB ACBAD
21-30 DACBD BBCAB 91-100 BACDC DACBD CHAPTER 6 121-130 DACBD ABDBA
31-40 CABCD BBCAB 101-110 ADABC DCBAC 1-10 ABACD CCAAD 131-132 AD
41-50 ACDAB BABBA 111-120 BBACD AAABA 11-20 CAADB DDABA
51-60 DCABC BDBAD 121-130 CDACD BADCB 21-30 CACDA BCAAD CHAPTER 9
61-70 ABCBA DDDBC 131-140 BADAD DCBAC 31-40 BCADB ACBAD 1-10 DAABA BBCDA
71-80 ABDCA DACDA 141-150 BDABA CBDAD 41-50 BACDA BCDAB 11-20 DCDAC DDCCB
81-90 BBADC ACABA 151-155 DCBAC 51-60 CDCBA DCBCD 21-30 ABCDC BADBC
91-100 CDBAC ABCAD 61-70 BAADB CDBAA 31-40 BDACD ADDBC
101-110 BCADB CBACD CHAPTER 4 71-80 DBCDA CDABA 41-50 ADAAB BACCA
111-120 BCDAC ADBDC 1-10 ABAAD CDABC 81-86 CABCDA 51-60 DACDD BCADC
121-130 AAACC BDABC 11-20 ACBDC BABAD 61-70 BACBD CBACB
131-140 ACDBD ADBAC 21-30 CBDAC ADBAB CHAPTER 7 71-80 ACDAD DBAAA
141-153 ABDDCB 31-40 CAACD CBDDB 1-10 CBDAA CBDAB 81-90 ABCBC DABDA
BACDC AA 41-50 ACDBD CBACD 11-20 ABCDD DABDD 91-100 ADCAD BADAB
51-60 CABAC BAABB 21-30 CBCAB CDADA 101-110 CDAAB ADCCD
CHAPTER 2 61-70 CADCD BACDB 31-40 DBACA BADAB 111-120 BCBCA CBDDA
1-10 BCAAB BCADD 71-80 ADDAC BACAD 41-50 CADAC BABCD 121-130 CBDCD ADBBC
11-20 ACBAB DACBC 81-90 BDABC DDAAD 51-60 BCABC DABAA 131-140 BBDAA CDBCA
21-30 ACBBC ABACD 91-100 BCABC CABDB 61-70 ACADC BAADB 141-150 DCDAD AACBD
31-40 BACDA DBCBC 101-110 CAABD ACBDA 71-80 CDCBA DBCDD 151-160 ABCAD DBBBD
41-50 ADABC DAAAD 111-124 CCAAD ADCDD 81-90 DDACA BAACB 161-172 CDBAA DDADBDA
51-60 DBCAB DCCAA AABD 91-100 DCBAC
61-70 BDCAB DBABD AADBC CHAPTER 10
71-80 CDDBA CDDBA CHAPTER 5 101-110 CABDC 1-10 DABCC DDABA
81-90 DDDBC ABABB 1-10 AADBD CCDBA AAAAD 11-20 BADCB DBBDA
91-100 CBACB ADCDC 11-20 BDDDA BBBCA 111-120 BACBA 21-30 BCDCD BBDCB
101-110 ACDAC BDAAC 21-30 DBCDB DACBA DCABC 31-40 ABDDA ADCCC
111-118 BCCDB CDA 31-40 CABCD BCDAB 121-130 BABCD 41-50 DADBA CABDA
41-50 ADDCB BCDAD CDBCA 51-60 BCABC BACAD
51-60 CBACB DCABA 131-140 DBDDD 61-73 CDBCAAC DDBBAD
CHAPTER 3 61-70 DCADC BDABA BCAAC
1-10 BABCA DCBAC 71-80 DDBDD ACDDB 141- 148 DCBAA DCD
11-20 BADDA BCDAB 81-90 BCABC DABDA
21-30 CDABC BDAAD 91-100 CAABC ABCDA CHAPTER 8
31-40 CCABD BBAAA 101-110 AABBC CADBA 1-10 ABCDC BABAC
11-20 DBDCB ADBAC
21-30 BDDDB CAACA
31-40 BCBDD CBAAC
41-50 ACDDA BDCBA
51-60 CDADA ABAAB
61-70 CBBCB DCBDC

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