NEBOSH

NEBOSH
International Technical Certificate in
International Technical Certificate in
Oil and Gas Operational Safety
Oil and Gas Operational Safety
Element 1: Health,
Element 1 Safety and
Environmental Management in Context

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 Practice Exam Question
(a) Outline reasons why incidents should be
investigated by employers. (4)
(b) Incident investigations commonly include
the following sequence of
stages:
1. gathering information;
2. analyzing information;
3. identifying suitable risk control measures;
4. producing an action plan.

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 Practice Exam Question
Identify which stage EACH of the following tasks aligns with:
(i) drawing conclusions about immediate causes of the incident; (1)
(ii) collecting a permit-to-work document from permit display boards; (1)
(iii) suggesting that inexperienced workers are supervised more closely;
(1)
(iv) documenting a management system failure as a root cause; (1)
(v) reducing likelihood by requesting updated standard operating
procedures; (1)
(vi) prioritizing risk control measures for implementation; (1)
(vii) taking measurements at the scene of the incident; (1)
(viii) nominating timescales given for short- and long-term
recommendations. (1)
(c) As the health and safety adviser on an incident investigation team,
explain how you can help ensure that recommendations are effective. (8)

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 Suggested Answer
(a) The reasons for investigating incidents:
• To identify the immediate and root causes of the incidents– incidents are usually caused
by unsafe acts and unsafe conditions in the workplace, but these often arise from
underlying, or root causes.

• To identify corrective actions that will prevent a recurrence – the main reason for
investigating.

• For legal reasons – incident investigations can be an implicit legal duty imposed on the
employer.

• For claims management – if a claim for compensation is lodged against the employer the
insurance company will want to examine the incident investigation report to help
determine liability.

• To record the facts of the incidents– people do not have perfect memories and
investigation records document the factual evidence for the future.
• For data-gathering purposes – incidents statistics can be used to identify trends and
patterns; this relies on the collection of good-quality data.

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 Suggested Answer
(b)
• (i) In the analyzing information stage, the investigation team draw conclusions about
immediate causes of the incident.

• (ii) In the gathering information stage, the investigation team collecting a permit-to-
work document from permit display boards.
• (iii) In the identifying suitable risk control measures stage, the investigation team
suggest that inexperienced workers are supervised more closely.
• (iv) In the analyzing information stage, the investigation team document a
management system failure as a root cause.
• (v) In the identifying suitable risk control measures stage, the investigation team
reducing likelihood by requesting updated standard operating procedures.
• (vi) In the producing an action plan stage, the investigation team prioritizing risk control
measures for implementation;
• (vii) In the gathering information stage, the investigation team taking measurements at
the scene of the incident;
• (viii) In the producing an action plan stage, the investigation team nominating
timescales given for short- and long-term recommendations.

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 (c) Here are some ways you can help ensure the effectiveness of the
recommendations:
• Involve stakeholders and subject matter experts: Engage with
relevant stakeholders throughout the investigation process, including
employees, supervisors, management, and subject matter experts. .
By involving key stakeholders, you can gather diverse insights,
increase ownership of the recommendations, and enhance their
practicality and effectiveness.
• Prioritize risk control measures: Assess the identified
recommendations based on their potential to control or mitigate risks
effectively. Prioritize the recommendations that address the root
causes or systemic issues identified during the investigation.
Implementing control measures at the source of the problem is often
more effective than relying solely on procedural or administrative
controls.

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 (c) Here are some ways you can help ensure the effectiveness of the
recommendations:
• Develop clear and actionable recommendations: Ensure that the
recommendations are clear, specific, and actionable. This clarity will
help stakeholders understand their roles and responsibilities in
implementing the proposed control measures.
• Monitor and review the implementation: Follow up on the
implementation of the recommendations to ensure that they are
being effectively implemented. Monitor progress, identify any barriers
or challenges, and provide support or guidance as needed. Regularly
review the effectiveness of the implemented measures and make
adjustments if necessary.

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 Practice Exam Question

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 Suggested Answer
(a) Incident – an unplanned, unwanted event, which leads to cause injury,
damage, or loss.
Near-miss – an unplanned, event with the potential to cause injury, ill-health,
loss or damage but did not, in fact, do so.
(b) The reasons for investigating near misses:
• To identify the immediate and root causes of the near misses – near misses are
usually caused by unsafe acts and unsafe conditions in the workplace, but these
often arise from underlying, or root causes.

• To identify corrective actions that will prevent a recurrence – the main reason
for investigating.

• To record the facts of the near misses – people do not have perfect memories
and investigation records document the factual evidence for the future.
• For data-gathering purposes – near misses' statistics can be used to identify
trends and patterns; this relies on the collection of good-quality data.

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 Suggested Answer

(c) (i)
1.Preserving the scene from any tampering of evidence
2. Separating witnesses (to prevent collusion).
3.Secured to prevent additional risk to personnel in the area
4. To prevent unauthorized access.

(ii) Interviews
1. Witnesses should be interviewed as soon as possible.
2. Held in a separate area,
3. Interviewing each witness in order of priority.
4. To be looked after (well-being) given their recent experience.

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 Suggested Answer
(c)
(iii) Collect factual information from the scene and record it. This might
be done by means of Photographs, Sketches, Measurements, Videos,
Written descriptions of factors such as wind speed & temperature, and
Taking physical evidence. The investigator should come prepared with
the appropriate equipment to record this information.

Various documents may be examined during an incident investigation,

such as Company policy, Risk assessments, Training records, Safe
systems of work, Permits-to-work, Maintenance records, Disciplinary
records, Internal accident report forms, Log-book entries, and Computer
printouts relevant to the situation.

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 Suggested Answer
(c)
(iv) Police, safety union representatives, local enforcement authorities
and insurers, depending on the nature and extent of the incident. And
by solicitors, coroners and manufacturers/suppliers of equipment/
substances. .

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 Practice Exam Question

(a) Outline reasons why incidents should be

investigated by employers. (4)
(b) Other than the employer, identify
organizations and persons who may want to
investigate incidents. (4)

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 Suggested Answer
(a) The reasons for investigating incidents:
• To identify the immediate and root causes of the incidents– incidents are usually caused
by unsafe acts and unsafe conditions in the workplace, but these often arise from
underlying, or root causes.

• To identify corrective actions that will prevent a recurrence – the main reason for
investigating.

• For legal reasons – incident investigations can be an implicit legal duty imposed on the
employer.

• For claims management – if a claim for compensation is lodged against the employer the
insurance company will want to examine the incident investigation report to help
determine liability.

• To record the facts of the incidents– people do not have perfect memories and
investigation records document the factual evidence for the future.
• For data-gathering purposes – incidents statistics can be used to identify trends and
patterns; this relies on the collection of good-quality data.

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 Suggested Answer
(b) Police, safety union representatives, local enforcement authorities
and insurers, depending on the nature and extent of the incident. And
by solicitors, coroners and manufacturers/suppliers of equipment/
substances. .

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 Practice Exam Question

An employee was seriously injured in an

accident at work within an oil and gas
installation.
Identify the documented information
that might be used by the investigating
team to determine the causes of this
accident

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 Suggested Answer

The documented information that might be used by an

investigating team to determine the cause of the accident would
include:
• Company policy.
• Risk assessments.
• Training records.
• Safe systems of work.
• Permits-to-work.
• Maintenance records.
• Disciplinary records.
• Internal accident report forms.
• Logbook entries.
• Computer printouts relevant to the situation.

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 Practice Exam Question

a) Explain the meaning of the term “flash

point”. (2)
b) Identify the three classifications within
flammability. (3)
c) Explain where the flammable range exists
in a fuel/air mixture. (3)

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 Suggested Answer
(a) “Flash point” is the lowest temperature at which sufficient
vapour is given off to “flash” – that is, ignite momentarily (and not
carry on burning) when a source of ignition is applied to the
vapor.
(b) Flammability falls into three distinct classifications:
• Extremely flammable – flash point below 0° Celsius.
• Highly flammable – flash point between 0° and 21°.
• Flammable – flash point between 21° and 55° (inclusive).
(c) The lower flammable limit is the minimum concentration of
fuel in air that will allow combustion to occur (below this, the
mixture is too lean).
The upper flammable limit is the maximum concentration of fuel
in air that will allow combustion to occur (above this, the mixture
is too rich).
The flammable range lies between these limits.

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 Practice Exam Question

(a) Outline conditions that are necessary

to ignite a flammable liquid. (4)
(b) Outline control measures that could
help reduce the risk of fire from a
storage tank containing flammable
liquid. (4)

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 Suggested Answer

Part (a)
1. Sufficient vapor being produced above the liquid;
2. The presence of sufficient oxygen to support combustion;
3. The vapor concentration being in the right range (between the
flammable limits);
4. The liquid being at or above its flashpoint;
5. An ignition source being present of sufficient energy (minimum
ignition energy).

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 Suggested Answer
Part (b) 1. Stating ‘alarms’ when ‘high-level alarms’ were required i.e., use of level
alarms (high and high-high);
2. Tank level controls;
3. Automatic shut off valves;
4. Flammable gas/vapor detection equipment;
5.The use of explosion proof equipment (ATEX);
6. The control of possible ignition sources during filling/emptying(such as static);
7. Inspection/maintenance regime.
8. Inerting of the tank.
9. Use of vehicle impact/collision protection measures like physical collision
barriers around the tank (lead to containment loss and subsequent ignition).
10. Bounding
11. Lightning discharger
12. Siting of the storage tank outdoors
13. Provide good ventilation to help keep any minor quantities of vapor
leakage from building up.

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 Practice Exam Question
Outline the following terms.
(a) Upper flammable limit (UFL). 2 marks
(b) Lower flammable limit (LFL). 2 marks
(c) Flashpoint. 2 marks
(d) Highly flammable liquids. 2 marks

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 Suggested Answer
(a) The highest concentration of a flammable substance in air that will ignite when
exposed to an ignition source. Above the UFL the mixture is too rich to burn.

(b) The lowest concentration of a flammable substance in air that will ignite when
exposed to an ignition source. Below the LFL the mixture is too lean to burn.

(c) The minimum temperature to which a material must be heated for the
vapours emitted to ignite in the presences of a flame.

(d) Substances which remain liquid under pressure and having a flashpoint lower
than 21°C.

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 Practice Exam Question
The flammability of gas is a factor that should be
considered with maintenance tasks and, in
particular, hot work permits. The diagram below
highlights the flammable range of a gas. With
reference to the diagram:
(a) Give the meaning of the following terms:
(i) lower flammable limit (LFL); (2)
(ii) flammable range. (2)
(b) Explain the significance of the range between 0%
and the LFL, indicated as (a) on the diagram, in
relation to gas monitoring as part of a hot work
permit. (4)
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 Practice Exam Question

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 Suggested Answer
Part (a)
(i)LFL related to the lowest concentration of a flammable substance in air
that this allowed a self-propagating flame. such as, below the LFL, the
mixture is too lean to burn.
(ii) flammable range the range of concentration of a flammable substance
in air within which a fire can occur.

Part (b)
The fact that workers are correspondingly alerted to the presence of a
flammable gas at an early stage (at a percentage below the lower
flammable limit for the gas being measured).
Gas monitoring aims is to give early warning of flammable atmospheres.
Gas monitors therefore work in the range below the LFL and raise the
alarm below the LFL (at a percentage of the LFL) to alert personnel to the
possible presence of a developing flammable atmosphere. Work can then
be stopped before the LFL is reached
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 Practice Exam Question
(a) Give the meaning of the following terms:
(i) lower flammable limit (LFL); (2)
(ii) upper flammable limit (UFL). (2)
(b) The flammability of a gas is a factor to consider
with maintenance tasks and, in particular, hot work
permits. The diagram below highlights the
flammable range of a gas.
Explain the significance of the range between 0%
and the LFL, indicated as (a) on the diagram, in
relation to gas monitoring as part of a hot work
permit. (4)

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 Practice Exam Question

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 Suggested Answer
Part (a)
(i)LFL related to the lowest concentration of a flammable substance in air
that this allowed a self-propagating flame. such as, below the LFL, the
mixture is too lean to burn.
(ii) UFL related to the maximum concentration of a flammable substance
in air that this allowed a self-propagating flame over the UFL, the mixture
is too rich to burn. upper flammable limit (UFL) the ‘rich’ highest
concentration of a flammable substance,
Part (b)
The fact that workers are correspondingly alerted to the presence of a
flammable gas at an early stage (at a percentage below the lower
flammable limit for the gas being measured).
Gas monitoring aims is to give early warning of flammable atmospheres.
Gas monitors therefore work in the range below the LFL and raise the
alarm below the LFL (at a percentage of the LFL) to alert personnel to the
possible presence of a developing flammable atmosphere. Work can then
be stopped before the LFL is reached
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 Practice Exam Question

(a) When considering fire safety, give the

meaning of the following terms:
(i) vapour pressure; (2)
(ii) vapour density. (2)

(b) Explain the relevance of vapour density in

fire safety. (4)

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 Suggested Answer
(a) (i) Vapour Density – mass per unit volume of vapour.
(ii) Vapour Pressure – the pressure exerted by a vapour in equilibrium
with its liquid (or solid).
(b) In fire safety, understanding the vapour density of flammable
substances is essential for strategically placing gas detection equipment,
such as gas detectors or sensors. Flammable vapours, which are typically
lighter or denser than air, can behave differently based on their vapour
density. The relevance of vapour density lies in the fact that it helps
determine the optimal placement of gas detection equipment to
effectively detect and monitor the presence of flammable vapours in a
given area.
If a flammable vapour is lighter than air, it tends to rise and disperse
upwards. In this case, gas detectors should be placed at higher levels or
near the ceiling to detect the presence of the vapour. On the other hand,
if a flammable vapour is denser than air, it tends to sink and accumulate
closer to the ground or in low-lying areas. Gas detectors should be
strategically located at lower levels or near the floor to detect the
presence of such vapours.
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 Practice Exam Question

Explain the hazards inherent in oil and gas

arising from the extraction, storage and
processing of raw materials and product
(20)

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 Suggested Answer
In the oil and gas industry, hazards can arise from the extraction, storage,
and processing of raw materials and products. Several key terms are
relevant to understanding these hazards:
1.Flash Point: The flash point refers to the lowest temperature at which a
substance emits sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air
near its surface. Substances with low flash points pose a higher risk of fire
and explosion hazards. Such as methane and LPG.
2.Flammable: Flammable substances have the ability to ignite and burn
easily in the presence of an ignition source. They can contribute to the
rapid spread of fires and explosions if not properly handled or contained.
Such as Hydrogen and hydrocarbon condensate.
3.Toxicity: Toxicity refers to the ability of a substance to cause harmful
effects on human health or the environment. In the context of oil and gas,
exposure to toxic substances, such as certain gases or chemicals, can lead
to acute or chronic health effects, depending on the level and duration of
exposure. Such as H2S and Carbon monoxide.

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 Suggested Answer
4. Vapor Pressure: Vapor pressure is a measure of the tendency of a
substance to vaporize or convert into a gas at a given temperature.
Substances with high vapor pressures can release higher concentrations
of vapors, increasing the risk of inhalation exposure and flammability
hazards.
5. Vapor Density: Vapor density compares the weight of a gas or vapor to
the weight of an equal volume of air. It indicates whether the vapor will
tend to rise or sink in the atmosphere. Vapors with a higher density than
air tend to settle in low-lying areas, potentially leading to the formation of
flammable or toxic concentrations.
6. Skin Irritant: Some substances encountered in the oil and gas industry
can cause irritation or damage to the skin upon contact. Skin irritants can
lead to dermatitis, allergic reactions, or chemical burns, depending on the
nature and concentration of the substance.

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 Suggested Answer
7. Carcinogenic: Carcinogenic substances have the potential to cause
cancer in humans. Prolonged exposure to carcinogens, such as certain
chemicals or compounds found in oil and gas, can increase the risk of
developing cancer over time. Proper handling, containment, and
protective measures are crucial to minimize exposure to carcinogenic
substances.
8. Mutagenic: Mutagenic substances have the ability to induce changes in
the genetic material (DNA) of cells, potentially leading to mutations.
Mutations can affect normal cellular functions and may have long-term
health consequences. Exposure to mutagenic substances in the oil and
gas industry should be minimized to prevent genetic damage and
associated risks.
9. Toxic for Reproduction: Substances that are toxic for reproduction
have adverse effects on fertility, pregnancy, and the development of the
fetus. Exposure to these substances during the extraction, storage, or
processing of oil and gas can pose risks to reproductive health. Pregnant
workers or those planning to conceive should take extra precautions to
avoid exposure to such substances.
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 Suggested Answer

The inherent hazards include the hazards of the low specific activity (LSA)
sludge. A radioactive sludge can emit ionizing radiation, which poses a risk
of radiation exposure to workers who come into contact with it.
Prolonged or high-level exposure can lead to health effects such as
radiation sickness, increased risk of cancer, and damage to cells and
tissues. The risk to workers will depend on the activity of the material,
and arises from possible:
• Inhalation of radioactive dust from dried contamination.
• Direct contact with radioactive sludge.
• Ingestion of radioactive contamination.

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 Suggested Answer
The inherent hazards include the hazards of some substances such as
Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Hydrogen sulphide, and Oxygen, as the following:
• Hydrogen is highly flammable and explosive gas that forms ignitable
mixtures in air over a very wide range of concentrations (between 4.9% -
75%). Lighter than air and forms explosive mixtures rapidly. Easily ignited
by low-energy sparks.
• Nitrogen is a gas will asphyxiate at high concentrations. Liquefied nitrogen
will cause cold burns.
• Hydrogen sulphide forms explosive mixtures with air over a wide range of
concentrations (4%-46%). Denser than air and will accumulate in low level
areas, travel long distances to an ignition source and flash back. Toxic, will
irritate the eyes, skin and respiratory tract and can lead to respiratory
paralysis. It will rapidly deaden the sense of smell, so its odour cannot be
relied on to detect it.
• Oxygen enrichment can lead to fires and explosion. Oxygen will react
violently with oils and greases. Oxygen is non-flammable, but will
encourage combustion, with combustible materials becoming more easily
ignited in an oxygen-enriched atmosphere.
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 Practice Exam Question
Gases are used and created in the production
and processing of oil and gas.

Identify the hazardous properties of:

(a) Hydrogen. (2)
(b) Nitrogen. (2)
(c) Hydrogen sulphide. (2)
(d) Oxygen. (2)

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 Suggested Answer
(a) Hydrogen:
• Highly flammable and explosive gas that forms ignitable mixtures in air over a very wide
range of concentrations (between 4.9% -75%).
• Lighter than air and forms explosive mixtures rapidly.
• Easily ignited by low-energy sparks.

(b) Nitrogen:
• Gas will asphyxiate at high concentrations.
• Liquefied nitrogen will cause cold burns.

(c) Hydrogen sulphide:

• Forms explosive mixtures with air over a wide range of concentrations (4%-46%).
• Denser than air and will accumulate in low level areas, travel long distances to an
ignition source and flash back.
• Toxic, will irritate the eyes, skin and respiratory tract and can lead to respiratory
paralysis. lt will rapidly deaden the sense of smell, so its odour cannot be relied on to
detect it.

(d) Oxygen:
• Oxygen enrichment can lead to fires and explosion.
• Will react violently with oils and greases.
• Oxygen is non-flammable, but will encourage combustion, with combustible materials
becoming more easily ignited in an oxygen-enriched atmosphere.
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 Practice Exam Question
Following preparation of a vessel for
maintenance on an oil and gas installation, a
low specific activity (LSA) radioactive sludge
was encountered.
Outline control measures to help reduce the
risk to workers exposed to the sludge. (8)

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 Suggested Answer
1. Personal protective equipment (from contact and inhalation)
2. Need restricted, controlled areas
3. Classified workers for high radiation levels
4. Suitable signage
5. Provide suitable training for all workers.
6. to avoid inhalation or ingestion of these materials, as alpha radiation will
have a long half-life.
7. Radiation monitoring in settling-out areas
8. Removal of LSA scale from production equipment (specialist dispersal
chemicals, or high-pressure water flushing) Pyrophoric* iron – special
control measures to dispose of it

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 Practice Exam Question
Following preparation of a vessel for
maintenance within an oil and gas installation a
low specific activity (LSA) radioactive sludge was
encountered.
(a) Identify hazards associated sludge. (2)
(b) Outline FOUR control measure to reduce the
risk to workers exposed to the sludge. (4)
(c) Identify TWO other pieces of workplace
equipment where the sludge may be found. (2)

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 Suggested Answer
(a)
A radioactive sludge can emit ionizing radiation, which poses a risk of
radiation exposure to workers who come into contact with it. Prolonged
or high-level exposure can lead to health effects such as radiation
sickness, increased risk of cancer, and damage to cells and tissues.
The risk to workers will depend on the activity of the material, and arises
from possible:
• Inhalation of radioactive dust from dried contamination.
• Direct contact with radioactive sludge.
• Ingestion of radioactive contamination.

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 Suggested Answer
(b)
1. Personal protective equipment (from contact and inhalation)
2. Need restricted, controlled areas
3. Classified workers for high radiation levels
4. Suitable signage
5. Provide suitable training for all workers.
6. to avoid inhalation or ingestion of these materials, as alpha radiation will
have a long half-life.
7. Radiation monitoring in settling-out areas
8. Removal of LSA scale from production equipment (specialist dispersal
chemicals, or high-pressure water flushing) Pyrophoric* iron – special
control measures to dispose of it

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 Suggested Answer
(c) In oil and gas production, low specific activity (LSA) scale is typically found
in:

• The production well.

• Safety valves.

• Wellheads.

• Production manifolds.

• Separators.

• Water separators.

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 Practice Exam Question

(a) Identify the hazardous of properties of

LNG. (3)
(b) Outline the risks associated with LNG.
(5)

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 Suggested Answer
(a) Hazardous properties of LNG:
• Easily liquefied and vaporised from the liquefied state.
• Forms a highly flammable odourless gas.
• Non-toxic asphyxiant gas.

(b) Risks associated with LNG:

• Forms an explosive mixture with air.
• Vapour can be ignited some distance away from a leak and the
flame will spread back to the source.
• Will exclude oxygen from the atmosphere and asphyxiate at high
concentrations.
• Contact with its liquefied form will cause frostbite.
• Catastrophic vessel failure may result in boiling liquid expanding
vapour explosions (BLEVEs).

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 Practice Exam Question

(a) Identify properties of hydrogen. (4)

(b) Outline hazards associated with
hydrogen. (4)

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 Suggested Answer

Part (a)
Hydrogen – (catalyst regenerator in petroleum refining)
1. Colourless and odourless gas
2. Low ignition energy
3. Highly flammable/explosive (explosive range:
4.9 – 75%)
4. Less dense than air
5. Reacts readily with oxidizing agents.

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 Suggested Answer

Part (b)
1. It forms explosive mixtures with air over a very wide range of
concentrations;
2. It is very easily ignited (even by very low energy sparks);
3. It can rise in structures and from explosive pockets in ceilings and
roofs;
4. Not toxic but asphyxiant in high concentrations, i.e., it can displace
oxygen in high concentrations;
5. It burns with an invisible flame (so difficult to see)
6. Depending on how it is stored/supplied, may be cryogenic.

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 Practice Exam Question

(a) Identify the hazardous properties of

Liquid Petroleum Gas (LPG). (4)
(b) Outline the risks associated with Liquid
Petroleum Gas (LPG). (4)

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(a) The hazardous properties of LPG include:

• It is a gas at normal temperature and pressure.
• It is colourless and odourless.
• Readily liquefied under pressure.
• LPG is highly flammable .
• It is a fuel gas.
• It may react explosively with chlorine

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 Suggested Answer

The risks associated with LPG include:

• It is denser than air and collects at low level.
• Readily forms an explosive mixture with air.
• Weak concentrations can be easily ignited flashing back to the
source of a leak.
• Inhalation can lead to drowsiness, and it is an asphyxiant.
• The liquid will cause frost burns on the skin if touched while
handling cylinders, pipework and connections.
• Cylinders may cause a manual handling risk.

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 Practice Exam Question

Outline the purpose and use of the following

risk assessment techniques:

(a) Qualitative. (4)

(b) Quantitative. (4)

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 Suggested Answer
Qualitative risk assessment: Quantitative risk assessment:
• Specified activity. • Specified activity.
• Comprehensive • Application of methodology
identification and to produce a numerical
description of hazards to representation.
people or the • Frequency and extent of a
environment. specified level of exposure
• The range of possible or harm.
events is represented by • Specified people or the
broad categories. environment.
• Classification of the • Enables comparison of the
likelihood and severity. results with specified
numerical criteria.

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 Practice Exam Question
A quantitative risk assessment is to be used
instead of a qualitative risk assessment on a
project to expand an existing oil and gas
installation.
(a) Outline the meaning of a qualitative risk
assessment. (4)
(b) Outline how a quantitative risk
assessment differs from a qualitative risk
assessment. (2)
(c) Outline the concept of as low as
reasonably practicable (ALARP). (2)
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 Suggested Answer
(a) A qualitative risk assessment is an evaluation method that assesses
risks based on subjective judgments, descriptions, and qualitative
criteria. It focuses on identifying and ranking risks based on their
characteristics, significance, and potential consequences. It involves
qualitative descriptions such as low, medium, or high to categorize risks
without assigning specific numerical values.
(b) A quantitative risk assessment differs from a qualitative risk
assessment. The quantitative risk assessment is based on objective
assessment. Quantitative assessments involve the use of numerical data
and calculations to quantify risks. This includes estimating probabilities,
consequences, and potential impacts of identified risks, providing a
more precise and measurable assessment.
(c) The concept of as low as reasonably practicable (ALARP) is a risk
management principle that aims to minimize risks to a level that is both
feasible and reasonable. It involves striking a balance between the cost
and effort required to reduce risks and the potential benefits gained
from risk reduction measures.

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 Practice Exam Question

Risk management techniques used in offshore

installations can differ from the simple five-step
approach prescribed by the United Kingdom
Health and Safety Executive (HSE).
(a) Outline why advanced risk assessment
techniques may be needed in offshore
installations. (3)
(b) Identify the two main types of risk
assessment technique. (2)
(c) Identify the main stages of risk assessment for
an offshore installation. (3)
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(a) advanced risk assessment techniques may be needed in offshore installations
in UK due to the following:

• The high level of complex risks associated with oil and gas production and
processing have to be assessed, the technique used is likely to require far more
depth and technical insight.

• The UK Offshore Installations (Safety Case) Regulations 2005 require to identify

all potential major accident hazards and evaluate its risks and measures have
been. That requires advanced risk assessment techniques.

• The application of risk assessment should be proportionate to the magnitude

of the risk. Because of the higher levels of risk in the oil and gas industries, we
need to go further advanced risk assessment techniques.

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(b) The two main types of risk assessment techniques are the A qualitative risk
assessment which is an evaluation method that assesses risks based on subjective
judgments, descriptions, and qualitative criteria. such as HAZID (Hazard
Identification Technique), and HAZOP (Hazard & Operability Technique). As well
as the quantitative risk assessment which based on objective assessment.
Quantitative assessments involve the use of numerical data and calculations to
quantify risks. Such as quantified risk assessment (QRA), and fire and explosion
risk assessment (FERA).

(c) The main stages of risk assessment for an offshore installation are:
• Hazard Identification,
• Risk Estimation and Ranking of Risks,
• Identification of Possible Additional Risk Reduction.
• Risk Evaluation and Implementation of Risk Reduction to Ensure Regulatory
Compliance.
• Review

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 Practice Exam Question

Risk management tools and techniques are used

to minimize hazardous events associated with oil
and gas exploration and production activities.
(a) Identify risk management tools
and techniques. 6 marks
(b) Identify the steps of risk management AND
outline EACH of the steps identified. 8 marks
(c) Identify project phases where risk
management applies. 6 marks

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 Suggested Answer
(a) Suitable tools and techniques include:
✓ bow-tie analysis
✓ hazard and operability studies (HAZOP)
✓ Swiss cheese model
✓ job hazard analysis (JHA)
✓ fault tree analysis (FTA)
✓ failure modes effects analysis (FMEA).

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(b) The steps of risk management are as follows.
✓ Identifying hazards – an outline of a range of hazards is
required.
✓ Evaluating risk – an outline of determining the
acceptability of a specific risk is required.
✓ Risk reduction measures – an outline of mitigating
measures, setting functional requirements and necessary
risk reduction measures is required.
✓ Review – an outline of a review is required.

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 PHA TIMING
(c) Suitable phases include:

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(c) Suitable phases include:

• Design Phase: The design phase involves the development of detailed
engineering designs and specifications for the process plant. Risk management
in this phase focuses on identifying and addressing potential hazards and risks
associated with the design, layout, and equipment selection. It includes
conducting hazard and operability studies (HAZOP), safety reviews, and design
reviews to ensure that risks are adequately mitigated, and design meets safety
standards and regulatory requirements.
• Construction Phase: The construction phase involves the physical construction
and installation of the process plant. Risk management in this phase addresses
safety risks associated with construction activities, such as working at heights,
handling heavy equipment, electrical installations, and potential hazards from
temporary structures. Safety plans, regular inspections, and safety training are
essential to manage risks and ensure a safe working environment during
construction.
✓

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• During the commissioning phase, risk management is focused on testing and
verifying the process plant and its systems to ensure proper functioning
before full operation. Activities such as system testing, equipment
calibration, and risk assessments are conducted to identify potential issues
that could impact safety, efficiency, or the environment.
• In the startup phase, risk management aims to mitigate the risks associated
with initiating operations and transitioning from idle to normal production.
This phase involves activities like system energization, process initialization,
and performance testing. Risk management ensures that safety systems are
operational, personnel are trained, and operational procedures are followed
to minimize incidents or accidents during the initial stages of operation.
• In the shutdown phase, risk management addresses the risks associated with
halting operations for maintenance, repairs, or decommissioning. Activities
such as equipment isolation, decontamination, and maintenance are carried
out to prevent unintended releases of hazardous substances. Risk
management during shutdown focuses on the safety of personnel involved,
preventing environmental impacts, and ensuring proper equipment
deactivation.
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(c) Suitable phases include:

• Operational Phase: The operational phase begins once the process plant is
commissioned and handed over for regular operations. Risk management in
this phase focuses on maintaining safe and efficient operations by identifying
and managing operational risks. This includes implementing standard
operating procedures (SOPs), conducting regular safety audits, training
personnel, and ensuring compliance with safety regulations. Risk assessments,
incident reporting, and continuous monitoring are important aspects of risk
management during the operational phase.
• Decommissioning Phase: The decommissioning phase involves the safe
shutdown and removal of a process plant at the end of its operational life. Risk
management in this phase addresses risks associated with the dismantling,
disposal, and environmental impact of the decommissioning activities. It
includes identifying potential hazards, implementing safe work practices,
conducting environmental assessments, and ensuring compliance with legal
and regulatory requirements.

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 Practice Exam Question
(a) Concept and commissioning are process plant
project phases where risk management applies.
Identify FOUR additional project phases where
risk management applies. (4)

(b) Outline the concept of ‘as low as reasonably

practicable’ (ALARP) within risk management. (2)

(c) Outline how a quantitative risk assessment

mainly differs from a qualitative risk assessment.
(2)
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 Suggested Answer
(a) In addition to the concept and commissioning phases, risk management
applies to several other project phases in process plant projects. Here are four
additional project phases where risk management is crucial:
1.Design Phase: The design phase involves the development of detailed
engineering designs and specifications for the process plant. Risk management
in this phase focuses on identifying and addressing potential hazards and risks
associated with the design, layout, and equipment selection. It includes
conducting hazard and operability studies (HAZOP), safety reviews, and design
reviews to ensure that risks are adequately mitigated, and design meets safety
standards and regulatory requirements.
2.Construction Phase: The construction phase involves the physical construction
and installation of the process plant. Risk management in this phase addresses
safety risks associated with construction activities, such as working at heights,
handling heavy equipment, electrical installations, and potential hazards from
temporary structures. Safety plans, regular inspections, and safety training are
essential to manage risks and ensure a safe working environment during
construction.

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 Suggested Answer
3. Operational Phase: The operational phase begins once the process plant is
commissioned and handed over for regular operations. Risk management in this
phase focuses on maintaining safe and efficient operations by identifying and
managing operational risks. This includes implementing standard operating
procedures (SOPs), conducting regular safety audits, training personnel, and
ensuring compliance with safety regulations. Risk assessments, incident
reporting, and continuous monitoring are important aspects of risk management
during the operational phase.
4. Decommissioning Phase: The decommissioning phase involves the safe
shutdown and removal of a process plant at the end of its operational life. Risk
management in this phase addresses risks associated with the dismantling,
disposal, and environmental impact of the decommissioning activities. It
includes identifying potential hazards, implementing safe work practices,
conducting environmental assessments, and ensuring compliance with legal and
regulatory requirements.

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 Suggested Answer
(b) The concept of as low as reasonably practicable (ALARP) is a risk
management principle that aims to minimize risks to a level that is both feasible
and reasonable. It involves striking a balance between the cost and effort
required to reduce risks and the potential benefits gained from risk reduction
measures.

(c) A quantitative risk assessment differs from a qualitative risk assessment. The
quantitative risk assessment is based on objective assessment. Quantitative
assessments involve the use of numerical data and calculations to quantify risks.
This includes estimating probabilities, consequences, and potential impacts of
identified risks, providing a more precise and measurable assessment.

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 Practice Exam Question

Outline the risk management techniques used in

the oil and gas industries (20)

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 Suggested Answer
In the oil and gas industry, risk management techniques play a crucial role in
identifying and mitigating hazards. The main three steps of risk management are
hazard identification, risk assessment, and risk elimination/reduction:
Hazard Identification: Hazard identification involves systematically identifying
potential hazards or sources of harm in the oil and gas field. This step requires a
thorough examination of the work environment, processes, equipment, and
materials used. Various methods can be employed, such as conducting site
inspections, reviewing incident reports, analyzing past incidents, and engaging
employees and stakeholders to identify hazards. The goal is to create a
comprehensive list of potential hazards specific to the oil and gas operations.
Risk Assessment: Risk assessment aims to evaluate the severity and likelihood of
identified hazards and their potential impacts. This step involves analyzing the
likelihood of an event occurring and the potential consequences associated with
it. Qualitative and quantitative methods can be used to assess risks, including
the use of risk matrices, fault tree analysis, event tree analysis, and probabilistic
risk assessment. By assigning levels of risk, such as low, medium, or high, risks
can be prioritized based on their significance.

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Risk Elimination/Reduction: Once hazards are identified and risks are assessed,
risk elimination or reduction measures are implemented to minimize the
likelihood or consequences of potential incidents. This step involves developing
and implementing control measures, engineering controls, administrative
controls, and personal protective equipment. The aim is to eliminate or reduce
risks to as low as reasonably practicable (ALARP). Risk management plans,
standard operating procedures, training programs, and emergency response
plans may be established to ensure effective implementation and ongoing
monitoring of risk controls.

There are qualitative and quantitative risk management techniques that used in
the oil and gas industries. In these techniques, the main three steps of risk
management are the hazard identification, risk assessment and risk
elimination/reduction (as used in the oil industry standard ISO 17776).

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 Suggested Answer
A qualitative risk assessment is an evaluation method that assesses risks based
on subjective judgments, descriptions, and qualitative criteria. It focuses on
identifying and ranking risks based on their characteristics, significance, and
potential consequences. It involves qualitative descriptions such as low,
medium, or high to categorize risks without assigning specific numerical values.
such as HAZID (Hazard Identification Technique), and HAZOP (Hazard &
Operability Technique).
A quantitative risk assessment differs from a qualitative risk assessment. The
quantitative risk assessment is based on objective assessment. Quantitative
assessments involve the use of numerical data and calculations to quantify risks.
This includes estimating probabilities, consequences, and potential impacts of
identified risks, providing a more precise and measurable assessment. Such as
quantified risk assessment (QRA), and fire and explosion risk assessment (FERA)
The concept of as low as reasonably practicable (ALARP) is a risk management
principle that aims to minimize risks to a level that is both feasible and
reasonable. It involves striking a balance between the cost and effort required to
reduce risks and the potential benefits gained from risk reduction measures.

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 Practice Exam Question
Inherently-safe and risk-based design concepts
are the foundations for onshore and offshore
operational safety.
(a) Outline what is meant by ‘inherently-safer design’.
(2)
(b) Identify the THREE principal concepts of
inherently-safer design. (3)
(c) For each concept, Outline, with examples, methods
that could be used to achieve each concept. (15)

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(a) (c)
• Engineers use a Hazard elimination:
variety of techniques • Eliminate use of a hazardous
to achieve risk material.
reduction through
design. • Substitute with a less hazardous
material.
• "Design-it-out”
principle. • Discontinue the operation.
Consequence reduction:
(b) • Reduce quantities of hazardous
• Hazard elimination. materials.
• Consequence • Contain spills.
reduction. • Separate the operation from critical
• Likelihood reduction. areas and reduce exposure to
adjacent operations and personnel.
Likelihood reduction:
• Reduce the potential for human
error through simplicity of design.
• Control ignition sources.
• Provide redundancy and alarms.

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 Practice Exam Question

A large oil company is proposing to build a new

oil and gas installation in the North Sea. The
Process Safety Management Team is analyzing
past incidents and database records from the Oil
and Gas Industry.
Excluding active and passive fire protection
systems, Outline physical design features of
the platform that would minimize risk to
operating personnel in the event of a major
incident. (8)

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 Suggested Answers
In order to minimize risk to operating personnel in the event of a major
incident on the proposed oil and gas installation in the North Sea, the
physical design features of the platform can include the inherent safer
design concepts to minimize risks to operating personnel in the event of a
major incident:
1.Hazard Elimination:
• Eliminate the use of hazardous materials wherever possible. This can
involve selecting alternative safer materials.
• If a hazard cannot be eliminated entirely, consider discontinuing the
operation or process associated with it.
2.Consequence Reduction:
• Reducing the quantities of hazardous materials stored or used on the
platform.
• Designing curbed areas with drains to contain and evacuate spills,
limiting the size of potential spill areas.

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3.Likelihood Reduction:
• Design systems and processes to be simple and easy to understand,
reducing the potential for human errors.
• Control ignition sources effectively by implementing measures such as
proper grounding, static electricity control, and the use of intrinsically
safe equipment.
• Incorporate redundancy and alarms into critical systems to provide
early warning and backup measures in case of failure.

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As well as we can use the following physical features to minimize risk to
operating personnel in the event of a major incident:
1. Material selection: Select proper material as the relevant codes and
standards considering the design operation parameters e.g., pressure,
temperature and flow rate, and work environment e.g., weather
conditions.
2. Structural Integrity: Ensure the platform's structural integrity by using
robust materials and engineering techniques that can withstand potential
impacts or explosions. Implement redundancy measures to prevent
progressive collapse and enhance overall stability.
3. Hazardous Area Zoning: Implement a comprehensive hazardous area
zoning system, segregating areas based on the level of risk and potential
hazards present. Clearly mark and restrict access to high-risk zones, such
as areas with flammable substances or high-pressure systems.

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4. Blast Mitigation Measures: Incorporate blast-resistant designs in critical
areas, such as control rooms, to withstand the impact of explosions and
minimize the risk of injury to personnel. This can include reinforced walls,
windows, and doors capable of withstanding blast pressures.
5. Emergency Shutdown Systems: Install reliable and redundant
emergency shutdown systems that can quickly isolate hazardous
processes and prevent the escalation of incidents. These systems should
be designed to trigger automatically or be manually activated in case of
emergencies.
6. Ergonomic Design Considerations: Incorporate ergonomic design
principles to optimize the layout and arrangement of equipment,
controls, and workstations. This can reduce the risk of human error,
improve operational efficiency, and enhance overall safety. Work to
reduce clutter to give more working space. Improve design and layout to
reduce the chance of human error.

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7. Redundant Communication Systems: Implement redundant
communication systems, including both wired and wireless options, to
ensure effective communication during emergencies. This can include
public address systems, emergency alarms, and two-way radios.
8. Escape and Evacuation Routes: Incorporate multiple, well-marked
escape routes throughout the platform, ensuring easy access to lifeboats
and evacuation points. The routes should be strategically positioned to
allow personnel to quickly reach safe areas in case of emergencies.
9. Emergency Response Facilities: Designate dedicated spaces for
emergency response facilities, such as muster stations, first aid stations,
and command centers. These facilities should be easily accessible and
equipped with necessary equipment, communication systems, and
medical supplies to effectively respond to incidents.
10. Training and Emergency Drills: Designate spaces and allocate
resources for regular safety training sessions and emergency drills. These
activities ensure that personnel are familiar with emergency procedures,
evacuation routes, and the proper use of safety equipment.
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 Practice Exam Question

(a) Outline the concept of ‘as low as

reasonably practicable’ (ALARP). (2)
(b) Identify TWO risk control barrier models
extensively used in the oil and gas industry.
(2)
(c) Outline the concept of risk control using
barrier models. (4)

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 Suggested Answers
(a) The concept of as low as reasonably practicable (ALARP) is a risk management
principle that aims to minimize risks to a level that is both feasible and reasonable. It
involves striking a balance between the cost and effort required to reduce risks and the
potential benefits gained from risk reduction measures.
(b) Two risk control barrier models extensively used in the oil and gas industry are:
• Bowtie Analysis: Bowtie analysis is a visual risk assessment technique that uses a
diagrammatic representation to identify and analyze hazards, potential causes, and
the barriers (preventive and mitigative) that can control or reduce the risk.
• Swiss Cheese Model: The Swiss Cheese Model visualizes multiple layers or slices of
barriers as individual slices of Swiss cheese. Each layer of defense represents a
barrier or control measure designed to prevent or mitigate risk. the holes in slices
refer to the weakness and active failures associated with the barriers.
(c) The concept of risk control using barrier models involves identifying potential
threats, hazards, potential top event, and consequence effects. Then identifying
implementing various barriers or control measures to prevent the top event or
mitigate the consequences of the risks in the oil and gas industry. These models help in
understanding the complexity of risk scenarios, identifying critical control barriers, and
assessing their effectiveness.

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 Practice Exam Question

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 Practice Exam Question
A hydrocarbon gas plant and nearby plant suffered catastrophic damage when a
gas cloud exploded after coming into contact with an ignition source. The damage
may have been minimized if an associated deluge system had activated and an
emergency shutdown of the plant had been performed.
The disaster occurred when a pressure safety valve was removed for maintenance
and a blank was attached to the open pipe work within a permit-to- work system.
Unfortunately, the blank was not tightened sufficiently, the pipe work was re-
commissioned and a flammable gas cloud leaked from the loose blank.
Similar disasters may be prevented within the oil and gas industry through risk
control in the form of barrier models.
(a) Using the description and the bowtie diagram to Identify:
(i) ONE hazard;
(ii) TWO hazard control barriers;
(iii) TWO recovery measures;
(iv) ONE consequence.
(b) Outline reasons for involving all workers in the development of barrier models.

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 Suggested Answers
(i) Hazard: The hazard in this scenario is the presence of a
flammable gas cloud resulting from the leakage of gas from the
loose blank.
(ii) Hazard Control Barriers:
• Permit-to-Work System: The permit-to-work system is a control
barrier designed to ensure that maintenance activities are properly
authorized, supervised, and documented.
• Standard Operating Procedures e.g., The correct tightening of the
blank would have prevented the gas leak from occurring.
• Plant Layout: The design and layout of the plant can be
considered a hazard control barrier.
• Construction Standards: Adherence to construction standards,
including the use of appropriate materials, installation
techniques, and quality control measures, can serve as a
hazard control barrier.
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(iii) Recovery Measures:
1.Detection System & Deluge System: A detection and deluge
systems can be implemented as a mitigation measure to quickly
protect other equipment from the effect of fire.
2.ESD System (Emergency Shutdown System): The emergency
shutdown system can act as a recovery measure by
automatically initiating a shutdown of the plant in response to a
detected hazard or abnormal condition. By rapidly isolating and
shutting down the affected equipment or processes, the
potential consequences can be mitigated.

(iv) Consequence: The consequence in this scenario is a multi-

fatalities and injuries. As well as the property damage.

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(b) Reasons for Involving All Workers in the Development of
Barrier Models:
Involving all workers in the development of barrier models has
several benefits:
1.Enhanced Safety Culture: Involving all workers fosters a sense of
ownership and responsibility for safety. It promotes a safety
culture where every individual recognizes their role in identifying
hazards, implementing control measures, and maintaining
barriers to prevent incidents.
2.Frontline Knowledge and Expertise: Workers who are directly
involved in the operations have valuable knowledge and expertise
about the specific hazards, risks, and control measures in their
work areas. Involving them in the development of barrier models
ensures that their insights are considered, leading to more
accurate and effective risk assessments and control strategies.

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3. Improved Risk Awareness: When workers actively participate in
developing barrier models, they gain a better understanding of
the hazards, potential consequences, and the barriers required to
control risks. This increased risk awareness helps them make
informed decisions, follow procedures correctly, and take
appropriate actions in their daily work.
4. Collaboration and Communication: Involving workers in the
development of barrier models encourages collaboration and
open communication among different levels of the organization.
It promotes dialogue, knowledge sharing, and the exchange of
ideas, leading to the identification of potential weaknesses in
existing barriers and the development of more robust solutions.
5. Continuous Improvement: Workers' involvement in barrier
models supports a culture of continuous improvement. They can
provide valuable feedback based on their practical experience,
contributing to the refinement and optimization of barriers and
control measures over time.
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 Practice Exam Question
Within onshore and offshore installations, thermal
radiation output modelling is a form of consequence
modelling that helps with risk identification.
a) Give the meaning of consequence modelling. (3)
b) Identify specific types of explosion that produce
thermal radiation. (2)
c) Identify health effects associated with exposure to
thermal radiation from an explosion. (3)

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 Suggested Answers
Part (a). Consequence modelling involves a calculation or estimation
(typically using computational methods such as Computational Fluid
Dynamics). Numerical values are used to describe credible scenarios
involving loss of containment of flammable (and similar) materials and
potential consequences on people, plant and safety functions.

Part (b)
CVCE Confined vapour-cloud explosions occur when a flammable vapor
cloud is confined within a space, leading to a rapid combustion and
explosion, causing significant damage and hazards.
UVCE Unconfined vapour-cloud explosions happen when a flammable
vapor cloud is not contained or confined, allowing it to disperse freely in the
surrounding atmosphere, potentially resulting in a more widespread
explosion and fire.
BLEVE A BLEVE occurs when a vessel containing a pressurized liquid,
such as liquefied gas, is exposed to heat, causing rapid boiling, pressure
buildup, and ultimately leading to a catastrophic explosion due to the
sudden release of the expanding vapors.

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Part (C)
Exposure to thermal radiation from an explosion can lead to various
health effects, including:
Burns and Pain: Thermal radiation can cause severe burns on
exposed skin, leading to pain, tissue damage, and potential long-term
complications. The intensity and duration of exposure determine the
severity of burns.
Heat Stress: High levels of thermal radiation can result in heat stress,
overwhelming the body's ability to dissipate heat. This can lead to
symptoms such as dehydration, fatigue, dizziness, and heat
exhaustion, potentially progressing to heat stroke, a life-threatening
condition.
Breathing Difficulties and High Core Body Temperatures: Intense
thermal radiation can cause inhalation of hot air and toxic gases,
leading to respiratory distress and breathing difficulties. Additionally,
exposure to high levels of thermal radiation can raise core body
temperatures, potentially resulting in hyperthermia and heat-related
illnesses.
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 Practice Exam Question

Organisations must have documented

evidence that their safety systems are
adequate.
Outline the purpose of:
(a) the safety case. (4)
(b) the safety report. (4)

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 Suggested Answer - Safety Case
Legally required in some countries; Offshore Installations
(Safety Case) Regulations 2005 (OSCR) require UK operators
of all installations to prepare a safety case.

Required to ensure that those involved in offshore activities

design, construct, commission and operate their facilities in
order to reduce the risks to the health and safety of those
working on the offshore installations, or in connected
activities to as low as reasonably practicable (ALARP).

Demonstrates that the duty-holder is capable of controlling

major accident risks effectively.

Core document for checking that risk controls and safety

management systems are in place and operate as they
should.

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 Suggested Answer - Safety Report
Contributes to preventing major accidents on sites having
specified amounts of hazardous substances, normally
onshore.

Demonstrates measures are in place to prevent major

accidents and limit consequences to people and the
environment.

Systematically examines the site activities, and the potential

for major accidents, and what is or is going to be done to
prevent them.

Shows use of a systematic process to arrive at the risk

controls, showing the depth to which you have gone to
develop them. It shows you can correct any shortcomings.

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 Practice Exam Question

Explain the purpose and content of an

organization's documented evidence to
provide a convincing and valid argument
that a system is adequately safe in the oil
and gas industries (8)

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 Suggested Answer

the purposes of an organization's documented evidence to provide a

convincing and valid argument that a system is adequately safe in the
oil and gas industries (Safety case/report)
1. Demonstrate that risks are being managed;
2. This demonstrates compliance with legal requirements;
3. Show best practice is being used;
4. Used as evidence in legal proceedings
5. Used to satisfy insurers.
6. Demonstration that an installation (on or offshore) is safe to
operate is an essential requirement of regulators throughout the
world.

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 Suggested Answer
the content of an organization's documented evidence to provide a
convincing and valid argument that a system is adequately safe in the
oil and gas industries (Safety case/report)
1. Information on the plant location and inventories;
2.Surrounding environment (eg proximity to schools);
3. Identification of all major accident hazards and the evaluation of
associated risks;
4. Description of the measures being taken to control these risks;
5. Arrangements for audits;
6. A description of the safety management system
7. The presence of emergency plans.

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 Practice Exam Question

Safety cases and safety reports provide

documented evidence that an oil and gas
installation is safe.
Outline the typical content of these types
of documents. (8)

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 Suggested Answer

The typical content of safety cases includes:

• The operator’s details (name and address).
• Design information regarding design process and concepts and
systems on the installation.
• A summary of how safety representatives were consulted
regarding the safety case.
• Description and diagrams of the structure of the installation.
• Description of the plant.
• Plan of the location of the installation.
• Meteorological and oceanographic conditions and sea-bed data.
• Types of operation and activities to be carried out.
• Maximum numbers of persons expected to be on the
installation.

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 Suggested Answer
• Maximum number of persons for whom accommodation is to be
provided.
• Plant and control arrangements for well operations.
• Description of any pipelines with major accident potential.
• How the duty holder ensures people are protected from fire and
explosion and provides emergency response.
• Description of protective measures for fire and explosion.
• Description of main requirements in the specification of the design
of the installation and its plant.
• Particulars of any combined operations which may involve the
installation.
• The safety reports should relate to:
• The management system and the organization of the
establishment with a view to major accident prevention.

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 Suggested Answer

• Description of the establishment’s environment.

• Description of the installation .
• Hazard identification, consequence assessment, risk analysis and
prevention methods.
• Measures of prevention and intervention to limit the consequences of
a major accident.

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 Practice Exam Question
Safety case documents offshore and safety
report documents onshore contain similar
information requirements.
(a) Identify these similar information
requirements. (4)
(b) Outline reasons for using these
documents. (4)

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 Suggested Answer
Part (a)
1. Information on the plant location and inventories;
2.Surrounding environment (eg proximity to schools);
3. Identification of all major accident hazards and the evaluation of
associated risks;
4. Description of the measures being taken to control these risks;
5. Arrangements for audits;
6. A description of the safety management system
7. The presence of emergency plans.

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 Suggested Answer

Part (b)
1. Demonstrate that risks are being managed;
2. This demonstrates compliance with legal requirements;
3. Show best practice is being used;
4. Used as evidence in legal proceedings
5. Used to satisfy insurers.
6. Demonstration that an installation (on or offshore) is safe to
operate is an essential requirement of regulators throughout the
world.

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