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Class 9 Science Sample Paper Set 13

The Class 9 Science Sample Paper Set 13 is a comprehensive assessment tool designed to help students prepare for their board examinations. This paper covers key topics from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology, aligned with the CBSE syllabus. It includes a balanced mix of multiple-choice questions, short-answer questions, and long-answer questions, focusing on conceptual understanding, problem-solving skills, and practical application.

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Artham Resources
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
219 views10 pages

Class 9 Science Sample Paper Set 13

The Class 9 Science Sample Paper Set 13 is a comprehensive assessment tool designed to help students prepare for their board examinations. This paper covers key topics from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology, aligned with the CBSE syllabus. It includes a balanced mix of multiple-choice questions, short-answer questions, and long-answer questions, focusing on conceptual understanding, problem-solving skills, and practical application.

Uploaded by

Artham Resources
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Group by Clicking the Link Below
Series ARSP/13 Set ~ 13
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/13/13
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 06 printed pages.


 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 39 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80


General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in
the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be

in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. A graph of the total energy of a freely falling body from a height is [1]

a) b)

c) d)

2. A few substances are arranged in the increasing order of forces of attraction between their particles. Which one [1]
of the following represents a correct arrangement?

a) Air, sugar, oil b) Salt, juice, air

c) Oxygen, water, sugar d) Water, air, wind


3. Which of the following can be made into crystal? [1]

a) An Amoeba b) A Bacterium
c) A Virus d) A Sperm
4. Fireman holds a hose by exerting a _____. [1]

a) momentum b) friction

c) force d) an acceleration
5. Frequency of ultrasonic wave is: [1]

a) Greater than 2 MHz b) Greater than 20 Hz

c) Greater than 2 Hz d) Greater than 20,000 Hz


6. In doing the experiment, a student puts the solid iron cuboid in an upright position on loose sand. After that, he [1]
has laid it. In these two cases:

a) the effect of thrust on sand is smaller while b) effects of the thrust are same but different
in an upright position than lying. thrusts are there

c) thrust is the same and its effects are also the d) thrust is same but effects are different
same
7. The kitchen of the cell is [1]

a) b)

c) d)

8. Which of the following tissues has dead cells? [1]

a) Collenchyma b) Epithelial tissue

c) Parenchyma d) Sclerenchyma
9. Preventive and control measures adopted for the storage of grains include [1]

a) strict cleaning b) fumigation

c) all of these d) proper drying


10. Light is a: [1]

a) Transverse wave b) Longitudinal wave

c) None d) Both

11. A coil of wire with cross-sectional area 0.50 mm2 weighs 75N in air and 65N in water. The length of the coil in [1]

cm is (Take g = 10 m/s2)
2 6

a) 10

0.50
b) 10

5 2

c) 10

0.0050
d) 10

50

12. Which of the following settles down when allowed to stand undisturbed doe sometimes? [1]

a) Copper sulphate solution b) Blood

c) Muddy water d) Solution of egg albumin in water


13. Which of the following are isotopes and which are isobars? [1]
Argon (Ar), Deuterium (D), Calcium (Ca), Tritium (T), Protium (P)

a) Ar, Ca are isotopes and D, T, P are isobars b) D, P are isotopes

c) Ar, Ca are isobars and D, T, P are isotopes d) Ar, P, T are isobars


14. Which connective tissue supports and provides flexibility to the body parts? [1]

a) Tendon b) Bone

c) Cartilage d) Ligament
15. The most abundant material on the plant cell wall is: [1]

a) proteins b) lipids

c) wax d) cellulose
16. A rickshaw puller pulls the rickshaw by applying a force of 100 N. If the rickshaw moves with a constant [1]
velocity of 36 km/h. Find the power of rickshaw puller.

a) 10 Watt b) 100 Watt

c) 2000 Watt d) 1000w


17. Assertion (A): The growth of weeds in the crop fields is harmful. [1]
Reason (R): They compete for food, space, and light.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


18. Assertion (A): The velocity of sound changes as we go up in the atmosphere. [1]
Reason (R): Pressure decreases as we go up in the atmosphere.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


19. Assertion (A): The weight of an object on the moon is less than that on the earth. [1]
Reason (R): The mass and radius of the moon are less than that of earth.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


20. Assertion (A): The first law of motion is also known as the law of inertia. [1]
Reason (R): Newton’s first law of motion states that a body at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion will
continue in motion in a straight line with a uniform speed unless it is compelled by an external force to change
its state of rest or of uniform motion.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


Section B
21. What happens when the temperature of the solids increase? [2]
OR
When heat is being supplied to a solid, then what does the heat energy do to the particles of solid?
22. Give the chemical formulae for the following compounds and compute the ratio by mass of the combining [2]
elements in each one of them. (You may use appendix-III).
a. Ammonia
b. Carbon monoxide
c. Hydrogen chloride
d. Aluminium fluoride
e. Magnesium sulphide
23. What is a neuron? Write the structure and functions of a neuron. [2]
24. If you are provided with some vegetables to cook, you generally add salt into the vegetables. After adding salt, [2]
vegetables release water. Why?
25. What is loudness of sound? What factors does it depend on? [2]
OR
How is ultrasound used for cleaning?
26. What can you say about the motion of an object whose distance-time graph is a straight line parallel to the time [2]
axis?
Section C
27. Differentiate between elements and compounds. [3]
28. A ball thrown up vertically returns to the tower after 6 s. Find [3]
i. the velocity of the ball with which it was thrown up,
ii. the maximum height it reaches, and
iii. the position of the ball after 4 s.
29. Suggest an activity to show that the rate of diffusion of liquids decreases with increase in density of the liquid. [3]
OR
Give two reasons to justify an iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.
30. Why is epidermis important for the plants? [3]
31. Look at the diagram below and answer the following questions: [3]

i. When a force is applied through the free end of the spring balance A, then the reading on the spring balance
A is 15 g-wt. What will be the measure of the reading shown by spring balance B?
ii. Write the reasons for your answer.
iii. Name the force that balance A exerts on balance B and the force of balance B on balance A.
32. What type of motion is represented by the following graphs. [3]

OR
A particle moves in a circle with O as centre and AO = OB = 5 cm, radius, as shown in the figure. It starts from A.
Calculate.

a. the distance covered, and


b. the displacement, when it reaches B.
33. Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures with examples. [3]
Section D
34. Write differences between animal tissue and plant tissue. [5]
OR
What is a permanent tissue? Classify permanent tissues and describe them.
35. Explain with examples: [5]
i. Atomic number,
ii. Mass number,
iii. Isotopes and
iv. Isobars.
Give any two uses of isotopes.
OR
In what way is Rutherford’s atomic model different from that of Thomson’s atomic model?
36. Make a comparison and write down ways in which plant cells are different from animal cells. [5]
Section E
37. Work is closely related to energy. The work-energy principle states that an increase in the kinetic energy of a [4]
rigid body is caused by an equal amount of positive work done on the body by the resultant force acting on that
body.
i. Define potential energy.
ii. Give an example where potential energy is acquired by a body due to a change in its shape.
iii. A skier of mass 50 kg stands at A, at the top of a ski jump. He takes off from A for his jump to B. Calculate
the change in his gravitational potential energy between A and B.

OR
An object of mass, m is moving with a constant velocity, v. How much work should be done on the object in
order to bring the object to rest?
38. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Gases are highly compressible as compared to solids and liquids. The liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) cylinder
that we get in our home for cooking or the oxygen supplied to hospitals in cylinders is compressed gas.
Compressed natural gas (CNG) is used as fuel these days in vehicles. The liquid takes up the shape of the
container in which they are kept. Liquids flow and change shape, so they are not rigid but can be called fluid.
Solids and liquids can diffuse into liquids. The aquatic animals can breathe underwater. The rate of diffusion of
liquids is greater than solid.

i. Why Compressed natural gas (CNG) is used as fuel these days in vehicles? (1)
ii. How can we say that liquid do not have their fixed shape? (1)
iii. How do aquatic animals breathe under water? (2)
OR
What is diffusion? (2)
39. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The practice of keeping or rearing, caring, and management of honey bee on a large scale for obtaining honey
and wax is called apiculture. The place where bees are raised is called an apiary. Bee-keeping requires low
investment and generates additional income, hence it is done by farmers along with agriculture.
Following are the Honey bee varieties that are used for bee-keeping as follows:

Indigenous varieties Exotic varieties

Apis cerana indica (Indian bee) Apis mellifera (Italian bee)

Apis dorsata (Rock bee), Apis florae (Little bee) Apis adamsoni (South African bee)

i. Why bee keeping should be done in good pasturage? (1)


ii. Does honey bee help in pollination? Which type of flowers attracts the honey bee? (1)
iii. Mention the products obtained from the honey bee. (2)
OR
What is the best season to start beehive? (2)

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