Planning - Cross Checked
Planning - Cross Checked
CROSS CHECKED
NOT SURE
KEY TERMS
ADDITIONAL NOTES
~ a. Meander
b. Rolling
c. Radial (uses roads to connect the center and outskirts)
d. Grid Iron (divided into squares or rectangle blocks)
5. A street opens only to one end with provision for a practical turnaround at the other
a. Collector Street (Low-moderate capacity road)
b. Avenue (broad road/wide street)
c. Cul-de-sac (dead-end street)
d. Local Street (used to gain access to the property bordering it)
7. In developing the site for a retreat center, the sanctuary is usually best placed at the
____ of the site.
8. It involves the remodeling of existing landform to facilitate the functions and circulation of
the site.
a. Landscaping
b. Grading
c. Site Planning (art of arranging structures on the land and shaping spaces between
them)
d. Layering
10. Which of the following colors is used for contour lines in Topographic Maps:
a. Brown
b. Blue (bodies of water)
c. Black (roads, railroads, & civil boundaries)
d. Green (woodlands)
12. Bearing capacity, stability, erodibility, and fertility are attributes of:
a. Site Planning
b. Urban Design (design of towns and cities)
c. Site Analysis
d. Landscape Architecture (development of green spaces)
14. Are sets of imaginary lines that connect all points of some arbitrary equal elevation on
the ground.
17. Which has the least effect over the amount of sunlight entering indoors?
18. The local wind system is characterized by a flow from land to water late at night.
a. Water breeze
b. Land breeze
c. Sea breeze (water to land)
d. Night breeze
19. Which passive way helps reduce growth of fungi and milder?
21. An architect wants to know the exact measurement and the topographical characteristics
of a 2.5 hectare site in Tagaytay. What is his best action?
22. In Manila City, floor-ceiling picture windows are best to be located on which side of the
building?
23. The result from high winds forcing water ashore above normal tide levels
28. The visible form of the built-up areas which is sometimes equated with "townscape"
29. Describes the design of the buildings, places, spaces, and networks that make up our
towns and cities, and the ways people use them
a. Construction plans b. History of the Place c. Urban Form and Shape d. Urban Plans
33. Infrastructure assets such as buildings, machines, roads, power plants, and ports are all
parts of the
37. Which of the following are the basic forms of urban space?
39. Help define the character and beauty of a city by creating soft, contrasting spaces and
elements
40. In the body of urban form, the streets, transit routes, pedestrian walks are referred to as
the
~ ANSWER: Personalization
UR
45. It is an area framed by buildings and designed to exhibit the buildings to the greatest
advantage
46. In the process of documenting the city, which one is not required
48. Where should more windows be oriented best in the tropics to catch wind and avoid
sun?
50. In the principle of New Urbanism, it is best to ______ the density of a place to enable a
more efficient use of services
ARCHITECTURAL DESIGN
35 PASSING SCORE
3. What idealized Latin phrase best describes the noble profession of architecture?
a. Deus Ex Machina
b. Ora et Labora
c. Deus Architectus Mundi, Architectus Secundus Deus (God is the Architect of
the world, Architects are second to God)
d. Deo Optimo Maximo
e. Requiescat in Pace
a. Branch of Aesthetics
b. Branch of Philosophy
c. Branch of Dynamics
d. Branch of Art
e. Branch of Science
a. Spatial Delight
b. Technological Delight
c. Wonder and Amazement
d. Spatial and Visual Delight (functionality and aesthetics)
e. Structural Delight
8. Which of the following is a lesser activity for someone who studies architecture
a. Designing
b. Drafting
c. Conceptualizing
d. Sketching
e. Critiquing
9. A classification system that groups of buildings into categories of like with like
a. Style
b. Trend
c. Character
d. Manner
e. Catalogue
a. Interior Design
b. Fashion Deisgn
c. Graphic Design
d. Industrial Design
e. Information Design
11. The business of commerce particularly in merchandise started to change 20 years ago,
what manner of change is this best reflected. (especially one that started from western
and developed countries)
a. Commercial Retailing
b. Personal Shopper
c. On-Line Retailing
d. Brick and Mortar Retailing (physical store)
e. Catalogue Retailing
a. Araucaria
b. Amazon
c. Sherwood
d. Yakushima
e. Bialowieza
a. Distribution center
b. Grocery
c. Brick and mortar
d. Warehouse
e. Mall
15. Before the arrival and popularity of shopping malls in the Philippines, Commercial Retail was
best found in?
a. Wet Markets
b. Shopping centers
c. Supermarkets
d. High Street
e. Downtown
16. A high-end commercial stip with a designated open area for eating and shopping is called;
a. Shopping center
b. Mall
c. Downtown
d. High Street
e. Tiangge
17. Today almost anything can be found in a shopping mall, which of the following is not ideal.
18. In the aforementioned question of a store type not advised to be placed in malls, what
consideration negates the reason why its presence inside a shopping mall is not ideal
19. These stores serve as primary retailers, whose size and nature of merchandise or activity
directs people to their location
a. Magnet
b. Polars
c. Big stores
d. Activity Center
e. Food Court
20. In the aforementioned study on retail design, these spaces similarly serve the same function
and are usually identified by the big retailers found in opposite ends of a Mall Development.
21. Ergonomics is an applied science often used in designing and planning built spaces. It
relates human scale to his built space. This study allows people and things to interact most
efficiently and comfortably. Which among these is not an example of ergonomics.
22. Naturally ventilated toilets and bath are highly recommended for structures with small
occupancies such as single family dwelling due to:
23. Which of the following floor finishes can be best used for PWD ramps.
a. Marble
b. Glazed floor tiles (glossy/slippery)
c. Tactile pavers (feature rather than finish)
d. Vinyl Tiles
e. Carpet Tiles (avoided)
24. Which of the following values is the maximum accessibility ramp gradient according to the
Accessibility Law.
a. 12”
b. 1:12
c. 12%
d. 1.20 meters
e. 0.12 inches
25. How many intermediate handrails must be provided for a stairway having a width of 9
meters.
a. 1
b. 2 (“Every stairway required to be more than 3.00 m in width, shall be provided
with not less than one intermediate handrail for every 3.00 m”)
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
26. Which of the following need not be seen in a site development plan
28. Slope information in architecture may be presented using the following except
a. Percentages
b. Ratios
c. Degrees
d. Fractions
e. Anglation
29. Which among the following best represents a context-sensitive design process.
a. Site and User Analysis > Behavior Design > Conceptual Development
b. Program > Economic Review > Space Matrix
c. User Analysis > Space Equipment Program > Form Studies
d. Site and User Analysis > Problem Analysis > Form Studies
e. Program Analysis > Conceptual Development
a. 0-shaped bench
b. S-shaped bench
c. L-shaped bench
d. C-shaped bench
e. I-shaped bench
31. This of these drawings is the most ancient decorative symbol in the Christian Church
a. Chi rho
b. Fish
c. Cross
d. Burning Bush
32. Most of the developers in the Philippines follow the maximum parking efficiency of 35.00
square meters per slot. In a parking building footprint of 2,500 square meters, what would be the
maximum parking slots required?
a. 61 parking slots
b. 91 parking slots
c. 71 parking slots (2500sqm/35 = 71)
d. 100 parking slots
33. Under the PD 1096 (NBCP) rule, what are the minimum parking dimensions for a 180
degrees layout? (90 degrees is perpendicular)
34. The plan of the building, based on a dialogue between circles and squares summarizes the
fundamental relationship between God and man. The circle stands for Heaven, the sacred, the
spiritual world. The square, on the other hand, represents
a. The Cosmos
b. The Terrestrial Condition
c. The Material Things
d. All of the Above
35. What is the allowable percentage of slope which allows for parking slots to be placed along
the inclined surfaces
a. 11%
b. 7%
c. 9%
d. 5%
36. In the absence of the pulpit and lectern, this is the speaker’s stand at the center in the front
of the church
a. Altar
b. Ambo
c. Lectem
d. Pulpit
37. Which of the following is not considered a transit building
a. Airports
b. Bus Terminal
c. Subway Station
- d. Waiting Shed
e. Pier
& 38. Which of the following is not considered an integral feature of transit buildings
a. Pedestrian overpass
b. Pedestrian underpass
c. Waiting shed
* d. Zebra crossing
e. Sidewalk
39. Which of the following can be considered not an adjunct building to a Transit Terminal?
a. Garage or trailer
b. Parking building
c. Commercial shopping mall
↑ d. Religious structures
e. Arenas
a. More than 2
b. More than 4
- c. Minimum of 1
d. No number required
e. As many as possible
41. Which of the following establishments is not suited for Transport Buildings?
a. ATMs
~ b. Car showrooms
c. Creche -(Tableau of Jesus Christ’s birth) DAYCDRE/NURSING
d. Drug store and clinic
e. Massage services
-
42. Which of the following are described as active layby or vehicular concourse bays in the
Philippine Setting?
a. Point-2-Point UV Vans
b. Buses
* c. Jeepneys
d. Tricycles and Pedicabs
e. Taxis, Ubers, and Grab
- 43. Determining movement and traffic flow within transport terminals is controlled by which office
-
44. In an office that provides a schedule of tasks and monitoring of item transport, what is the
primary modern design requirement for this activity?
45. In a security and traffic control office, the ideal design parameter for this activity would be..
46. Designing Vehicular Ramps, the most important considerations would be?
a. Driver’s Skills
b. Acceptable Slope
c. Vehicular Worthiness
V d. Vehicular Dynamics (Mechanics of the conveyance - particularly crucial in
designing ramps for cars and other land vehicles)
e. Vehicle Load
48. This is concerned with ensuring that all aspects of transport design meet the needs of
people engaging with design, safety, and efficiency
49. These factors provide a multidisciplinary effort to generate and compile information about
human capabilities and limitations and apply that info to equipment, systems, facilities,
procedures, jobs, environments for safe, comfortable, and effective human performance
a. Public Transport
b. Ergonomics
c. Human transport
d. Human Factors
e. Transport Network
50. The following parking provisions are based on BP 344 except for:
THEORY OR ARCHITECTURE
35 PASSING SCORE
1. As architecture is both art and science, pick another answer that is also true:
2. STATEMENT (1) Louis Khan defined architecture as: “Architecture is what nature cannot
make”. (2) Cryll M. Harris defined architecture as “The art and science of designing and
building structures, or large groups of structures, in keeping with logical and functional
criteria”
5. The General influences of man affect what kind of architecture we need. Therefore, we
must also consider the need for safety of our clients and would-be users of what we
design.
10. STATEMENT (1) There are four Primary Elements of Form. (2) These are: plane, line,
solids, and point.
a. Utility
b. Economy
c. Beauty
d. Strength
13. What phase of architectural development are the classical styles of Greece and Rome?
a. Archaic
b. Defense
c. Mastery
d. Decadence
a. Cone
b. Cube
c. Cylinder
d. Sphere
16. This scheme uses a primary color and the 2 colors adjacent to its complementary
a. Split-complementary
b. Monochromatic
c. Analogous
d. Complementary
17. _____ are symbols that people are familiar with because of long-time association. An
example would be the symbol for toilets (man+woman)
a. Learned symbols
b. Biogenic symbols
c. Replica
d. Representation
18. This scheme is made of 2 colors that are opposite each other on the color wheel
a. Monochromatic
b. Complementary
c. Analogous
d. Split Complementary
19. This scheme uses variations in lightness and saturation of a single color and can be
integrated with neutral colors
a. Monochromatic
b. Complementary
c. Analogous
d. Split Complementary
a. Distant View
b. Frontal
c. Spiral
d. Oblique
a. Distant View
b. Frontal (primary approach to Greek Temples were typically frontal, emphasizing
the main entrance facing east)
c. Spiral
d. Oblique
22. Which entrance promotes continuity?
a. Recessed
b. Implied
c. Flushed
d. Projected
23. ______ is a type of linear path that can have branches to highlight points of interest
a. Looped
b. Zigzag
c. Curved
d. Segmented
a. Projected
b. Implied
c. Recessed
d. Flushed
a. Pass by spaces
b. Pass through spaces
c. Are their own space
d. Terminates in a space
26. The common material used for beams and columns using the post and lintel construction
method for skyscrapers
a. Tempered Glass
b. Stones and Bricks
c. Reinforced Concrete (Skyscrapers are not typically made of bricks; Materials
commonly used in Skyscrapers are Steel and Reinforced Concrete)
d. Wood
27. The customs, arts, social institutions, and achievements of a particular nation, people, or
other social groups
a. Civilization
b. Territoriality
c. Culture
d. Boundaries
28. The introduction of a roof skylights in the Mall of Asia lobby and skating rink are
examples of a response to context in terms of _________
29. __________ are considered in the construction of buildings and development of sites in
sloping terrain such as in Baguio City and Tagaytay City
a. Property Boundaries
b. Land Contours
c. Surface Drainage
d. Water Bodies
30. Site analysis is only composed of analysis of wind direction and sun path orientation
a. True
b. False
31. The designer of the Bonifacio High Street mall in Taguig City applied the circulation
approach in consideration of the __________
a. Existing structures
b. Vistas
c. Noise
d. Vehicular-pedestrian traffic systems
32. _____ will be used by potential contractors to prepare quotations and setting out the
price they would change to construct the building
a. Contract documents
b. Schematic Drawings
c. Presentation Drawings
d. Initial Expenditure
33. During the Design Development stage, what is prepared to ensure that the design is
within the established budget?
a. Cost estimate
b. Contract documents
c. Initial outlay
d. Contingency budget
34. This site consideration is in regards to the property lines (setbacks), topography, and
other physical features
a. Orientation
b. Location
c. Access
d. Envelope
35. In Marcel Breuer’s Whitney Museum of American Art, the inverted pyramid symbolized
____
36. The siting of Richard Meier’s Getty Center is reminiscent of what style?
a. Roman
b. Neoclassic
c. Roman
d. Greek
37. In response to the restraints of budgets and space, in the Chapel of St. Ignatius, Stevel
Holl chose to rely on ____ to bring meaning and beauty to the project
a. Natural landscape
b. Space
c. Form and Massing
d. Light
a. Small budget
b. Incompatible activities
c. Imagination
d. Underutilized land
a. Service
b. Activity
c. Site
d. People
40. The programmatic concept of ____ is related to how a person can maintain his
individuality within a space.
a. Home base
b. Grouping
c. Relationships
d. Address
41. The scarcity of energy was the main concept that drove the deconstructivist vocabulary
of the Pompidou Center in Paris
a. True
b. False
42. Trees provide a natural barrier to protect architectural development and therefore must
be preserved and not cut, as much as possible
a. True
b. False
43. In Rem Koolhaas’ Educatorium, he works with the concept that reflects blurred
boundaries brought about in the Industrial revolution
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
45. Concepts may be product or process oriented and can occur only during the schematic
design phase
a. True
b. False
46. The correct interrelation of spaces promotes efficiency and effectiveness of people and
their activities
a. True
b. False
47. Free address refers to a designated group or team space assigned for a specific period
of time
a. True
(Types of Address:
Fixed - traditional work setting where one person is assigned to a workplace
Free - specific period of time
Group - assigned or free within it)
b. False
a. True
b. False
49. The architectural design process is organized to ensure that objectives are reached
according to cost efficiency
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
a. Steel
b. Rubber
c. Aluminum
d. Copper
a. If the resultant force acting on a particle is zero, the particle remains at rest (if
originally at rest) or will move with constant speed in a straight line (if originally in
motion)
b. If the resultant force acting on a particle is not zero, the particle will have an
acceleration proportional to the magnitude of the resultant force and in the direction of
this resultant force (F=ma)
c. Each force (of “action”) has an equal and opposite force (of “reaction”)
d. None of the given choices
3. The point through which the whole weight of the body acts is called ______
4. A block 100mm x 100mm base and 10mm height. What will be the direct shear stress in
the element when a tangential force of 10kN is applied to the upper edge to a
displacement 1mm relative to the lower face?
a. 1 Pa
b. 10 MPa
c. 1 MPa
d. 100 N/sq.mm
5. States that strain produced within elastic limits is proportional to the stress producing it.
a. Bernoulli’s Law
b. Hooke’s Law
c. Stress Law
d. Poissoin’s Law
a. Shear Stress
b. Thermal Stress
c. Normal Stress
d. Parallel Stress
7. A diagram which shows the variations of the axial load for all sections in the span of a
beam
8. A condition in which the resultants of all forces acting on the body is zero.
a. Equilibrium
b. Resultant
c. Statics
d. Rigid Body
9. True or False: Statics of rigid bodies is the study of materials, objects, or particles at rest
or moving under constant velocity
a. True
b. False
10. A combination of large number of particles in which all particles remain at a fixed
distance from one another before and applying a load
a. Static Body
b. Dynamic Body
c. Rigid Body
d. None of the above
11. For the figure below, what are the reaction forces at A and B?
a. +64lb; +96lb
b. -64lb; -96lb
c. +96lb; +64lb
d. -96lb; -64lb
12. . If the x- and y- components of the forces on the figure shown are -105 N and -200 N,
respectively, what is the magnitude of the resultant force? (w/diagram)
a. +225.90 N
b. -225.90 N
c. +170.22 N
d. -170.22 N
13. States that the moment of a force about a point is equal to the sum of the moments of
the force’s components about _____
a. Varignon’s Theorem
b. Principle of Transmissibility
c. Hooke’s Law
d. Poisson’s Law
14. When equal and opposite forces applied to a body tend to elongate it, the stress
produced is ______
a. Compressive
b. Transverse
c. Shear
d. Tensile
15. Stress at which extension of a material takes place more quickly as compared to the
increase in load
a. Elastic Point
b. Plastic Point
c. Yielding Point
d. Breaking Point
a. 2.33 kN
b. 3.33 kN
c. 4.33 kN
d. 5.33 kN\
a. kN
b. kN/m
c. kN m
d. kN 𝑚 2
18. Refers to the gravitational force (attraction) of the earth acting on a body.
a. Mass
b. Acceleration
c. Weight
d. Velocity
a. 10 kN
b. 15 kN
c. 16 kN
d. 28 kN
a. -3kN
b. 6 kN
c. 10 kN
d. 16 kN
a. Bending stress is the same at every section along its longitudinal axis
b. Shear stress is the same through the beam
c. Deflection is the same throughout the beam
d. None of the given choices
a. 4150 lbs
b. 5250 lbs
c. -1250 lbs
d. -3750 lbs
23. In a beam, which layer is neither elongated nor shortened during bending?
a. Axis of load
b. Centroidal axis
c. Center of gravity
d. Neutral Axis
24. A _____ isolates a body from its surroundings, and one considers all the forces and only
those forces, acting on the body.
25. In a body loaded under plane stress conditions, how many independent stress
components are present?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
26. A man raises a 10kg joist, of length 4 m, by pulling on a rope as shown in the picture.
How many concurrent forces are acting upon the joist?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 2
d. 3
a. kN/m
b. kN-m
c. kN
d. m/kN
28. A ______ body is one which does not deform. The distance between the individual
particles making up the body remains unchanged under the action of external forces.
a. Rigid
b. Static
c. Dynamic
d. None of the given choices
29. Two forces act on a bolt at point A. Determine the magnitude of the resultant force
a. 35.04 N
b. 97.73 N
c. 72.11 N
d. 99.91 N
30. . True or False: The types of normal stresses are shear and bending
a. True
b. False (Tensile and Compressive)
BUILDING UTILITIES - CROSS CHECKED
35 PASSING SCORE
1. What is the minimum size of a THWN wire (in AWG) for lighting fixtures?
2. Which of the following condition is not true in terms of providing cleanouts in the piping
system?
3. A component of an electricity supply system that divides an electrical power feed into
subsidiary circuits, while providing a protective over current device for each circuit in a common
enclosure
a. Cable tray (unit of assembly of units or sections and associated fittings forming a rigid
structural system used to support cables)
b. Lighting rod
c. Duct
d. Panel board (A single or group of panel units designed for assembly in the form of a single
panel; consist of a metal cabinet containing overcurrent protective devices and other devices)
a. Refraction (Change in the direction of waves as they pass from one medium to another)
b. Absorption (material, structure or object absorbing sound energy when sound waves collide
with it, as opposed to reflecting the energy.)
c. Reverberation
d. Diffusion (process of spreading or dispersing radiated energy so that it is less direct or
coherent.)
5. In acoustics, what Is the unit of loudness level?
a. Rays
b. Hertz (unit of Frequency)
c. Decibel (measure of sound intensity)
d. Phon
6. A suction created by the flow of liquid in pipes; a pressure less than the atmospheric pressure
a. Backpressure (A pressure within the sanitary drainage system or vent piping system that is
greater than atmospheric pressure (>14.7 psi)
b. Backflow (The flow of water or wastewater in pipes in a reverse direction from that normally
intended)
c. Siphonage
d. Flow pressure (The pressure in the water supply pipe near the faucet or water outlet while the
faucet or water outlet is wide open and flowing)
a. 50 mm b. 75 mm c. 100 mm d. 150 mm
8. The overhead service conductor from the pole or other aerial support to and including the
splices, if any, connecting to the service entrance conductors of a building.
a. Service entrance
b. Service lateral (underground service conductors between the street main, including any risers
at a pole or other structure or from the transformers, and the first point of connection to the
service entrance conductors in a terminal box or meter other enclosure, inside or outside the
building wall.)
c. Service drop
d. Service raceway (raceways that encloses the service-entrance conductors)
9. Metal pipe into which electrical conductors may be drawn; it has a wall section thinner than a
rigid metal conduit and used for both exposed and concealed work?
a. Shielded Non-metallic Sheather Cable (Type SNM) (a factory assembly of two or more
insulated conductors in an extruded core of moisture-resistant, flame- resistant nonmetallic
material, covered with an overlapping spiral metal tape and wire shield, and jacketed with an
extruded nonmetallic material resistant to moisture, flame, oil, corrosion, fungal growth, and
sunlight.)
b. Metal Clad cable (Type MC)
c. Mineral Insulated, metal sheathed cable (Type MI) (factory assembly of one or more
conductors insulated with a highly-compressed refractory mineral and enclosed in liquidtight and
gastight continuous copper or alloy steel sheathe)
d. Armored Cable (Type AC) (a fabricated assembly of insulated conductors in a flexible metal
enclosure.)
11. That portion of the hoistway extends below the level of the bottom landing or floor to provide
for overtravel and clearance for parts which requires space below the bottom of the car travel.
12. Resistance in alternating current (ac) also known as impedance is a combination of _____
and _______.
13. A device or appurtenance provided with a cap or plug with female(?) design to provide
access or means of removing instructions or deposits inside pipes in vertical or horizontal
installations.
a. Clean-out
b. Handhole
c. Stub-out
d. Manhole (An opening constructed in any part of plumbing system, of sufficient size for a
person to gain access thereto.)
14. These are electronic cables connecting an elevator car to a fixed electrical outlet in the
hoistway?
a. Traveling cables
b. Hoisting cables
c. Counterweight cables
d. Car cables
15. It is the persistence of sound in an enclosed space resulting from repeated reflection or
scattering of sound.
a. Refraction (Change in the direction of waves as they pass from one medium to another)
b. Absorption (material, structure or object absorbing sound energy when sound waves collide
with it, as opposed to reflecting the energy.)
c. Reverberation
d. Diffusion (process of spreading or dispersing radiated energy so that it is less direct or
coherent.)
a. Stack
b. Riser (A water supply pipe that extends vertically one full storey or more to convey water to
fixture branches or group of fixtures.)
c. Downspout (The vertical portion of a rainwater conductor.)
d. Upfeed pipe
18. The bending of the travel of sound caused by an obstacle in its path.
a. Diffraction
b. Diffusion (process of spreading or dispersing radiated energy so that it is less direct or
coherent.)
c. Refraction (Change in the direction of waves as they pass from one medium to another)
d. Reflection (When a sound wave encounters a sharp discontinuity in the density of its medium,
some of its energy is reflected.)
19. What working principles are involved in the operation of an air-conditioning system in a
building?
(Refrigerating Cycle: Refrigerant > Compressor > Condenser > Expansion Valve > Evaporator)
20. In water supply system, it is the first section of water supply piping in a building after the
water meter.
a. Water main
b. Building supply pipe
c. Water distributing pipe
d. Water service pipe
(Water Main -> Water Service Pipe -> Building Supply Pipe -> Riser or Upfeed Pipe ->
Downfeed pipe -> Branch or Lateral -> Fixture Branch -> Fixture Supply -> Valve)
21. What type of wave transports energy by moving particles of the medium are moving back
and forth in a leftward and rightward direction.
a. Longitudinal (waves in which the displacement of the medium is in the same direction as, or
the opposite direction to, the direction of travel of the wave.)
b. Electromagnetic
c. Transverse (a moving wave that consists of oscillations occurring perpendicular (or right
angled) to the direction of energy transfer)
d. Soundwave
22. A value derived based on the load-producing characteristics of fixtures measured in terms of
volume per unit time rate
a. Flow rate (The volume of water used by a plumbing fixture in a given amount of time. Usually
expressed in gallons per minute (gpm).)
b. Fixture units
c. Plumbing unit
d. Discharge rate
23. These are rectangular cast-iron blocks stacked in a frame and supported at opposite ends of
the cables to which the car is fastened and balances the car.
a. Deadweight
b. Ballast (dense material used as a weight to provide stability to a vehicle or structure)
c. Counterweight
d. Buffer (device designed to stop a descending car or counterweight beyond its normal limit of
travel by absorbing and dissipating the kinetic energy of the car or counterweight)
25. As per PEC, what is the maximum load given to each lighting outlet?
a. 20 watts
b. 100 watts
c. 40 watts
d. 120 watts
26. What is the minimum recommended slope percentage value for horizontal excrete drainage
pipes having a size of less than 102 mm?
27. A heavy conductor, usually in the form of a solid copper or aluminum bar, strip or rod used
for conducting, carrying, and distributing large electric currents
a. Bus (busbar; rigid electric conductor, usually a metal bar, hollow tube, or rod, which forms a
connection between electric circuits)
b. Grounded Conductor (A system or circuit conductor that is intentionally grounded.)
c. Main Conductor
d. Conductor (A substance that has free electrons or other charge carriers which permit charge
flow when an emf (electromotive force) is applied across the substance)
29. The part of the drainage system that extends from the end of the building drain and conveys
its discharge to the public sewer, private sewer, individual sewage disposal system, or other
appropriate point of disposal?
a. Building drain (That part of the lowest horizontal piping of a plumbing system which receives
the discharge from soil, waste and other drainage pipes inside a building and conveys it to the
building sewer/house sewer.)
b. Building storm drain (part of the piping of a stormwater drainage system that begins at the
connection to the building drain at a point 5 feet outside the established line of the building or
structure, and that conveys stormwater to the approved point of disposal)
c. Building sewer
d. Building sewage pipe
30. What kind of material is used to convey refrigerant (refrigerant line) from the condenser to
the fan coil unit (PCU) of a split type air conditioning unit?
a. Plastic
b. Copper
c. Rubber
d. Fiberglass
31. Which of the following fittings is categorized under sanitary drainage fittings?
a. Integrated gas spacer cable (factory assembly of one or more conductors, each individually
insulated and enclosed in a loose-fit nonmetallic flexible conduit as an integrated gas spacer
cable rated at 0 – 600 volts)
b. Messenger supported wiring (exposed support system using a messenger wire to support
insulated conductors)
c. Medium voltage cable (a single or multi-conductor solid dielectric cable rated at 2001 volts or
higher)
d. Service Entrance Cable
34. Which of the statements does not conforms to the general plumbing principles for a sound
and efficient system of plumbing?
a. Each vent terminal shall not be extended to the outer air to minimize the possibility of
clogging and the return of foul air to the building (Each vent terminal SHALL EXTEND to
the outer air to minimize the possibility of clogging and the return of foul air to the building)
b. Plumbing systems shall be maintained in a sanitary and serviceable condition
c. The plumbing system shall be subjected to such tests as well effectively disclose all leaks and
defects in the work
d. No water closet shall be located in a room or compartment that is not properly lighted
ventilated
35. The following are four major components of a unitary or window type air conditioning unit
except ____. 4 major components: evaporator, condenser, compressor, and expansion valve
a. Evaporator
b. Air handling unit
c. Compressor
d. Condenser
36. In an elevator, a piston or spring device which absorbs the impact of a descending elevator
car in the elevator pit?
37. A packaged assembly for air-conditioning components consisting of coils, fibers, fan,
humidifier, etc. which provides for the treatment of air before it is distributed to an
air-conditioned space.
a. Evaporator
b. Condenser
c. Air handling unit
d. Cooling tower
38. A vent stack must be extended vertically upwards and terminated at the vent stack through
roof through _______
a. A branch vent (a vent connecting one or more individual vents with a vent stack or stack
vent.)
b. A loop vent (employed where two or more fixture traps are installed on a horizontal soil or
waste branch.)
c. A stack vent
d. A dry vent (a vent pipe that is used to provide a path for air to enter the plumbing drainage
system)
40. Which material would exhibit the highest sound absorption coefficient (SAC) value?
a. Marble
b. Wood
c. Plastic
d. Carpet
41. A vertical length of soil or waste stack at least eight feet in height (a storey height), within
which the horizontal branches from one storey or floor of the building or structure are connected
to the stack
a. Fixture branch (A drain serving two or more fixtures that discharges to another drain or to a
stack.)
b. Branch drain (That part of the lowest piping of a drainage system that receives the discharge
from soil, waste and other drainage pipes inside)
c. Branch interval
d. Branch pipe
42. The phenomenon in sound propagation whereby a sound wave moves around an object
whose dimensions are smaller than or about equal to the wavelength of the sound.
a. Refraction (Change in the direction of waves as they pass from one medium to another)
b. Diffraction
c. Reflection (When a sound wave encounters a sharp discontinuity in the density of its medium,
some of its energy is reflected.)
d. Diffusion (process of spreading or dispersing radiated energy so that it is less direct or
coherent.)
43. In this type of circuit, the voltage across each component is the same, equal to the source
voltage and the current through each component varies according to the impedance of each
element loads are connected across the lines
a. Parallel circuit (When two or more electrical devices are connected so that each one offers a
separate path for the flow of current between the two points)
b. Series circuit (When all parts of the circuit are electrically connected end-to-end.)
c. Branch circuit
d. Open circuit (When its conducting elements are disconnected in such a manner as to prevent
the flow of electricity.)
44. A reflected sound reaching a listener's ear with a delay after the initial creation of sound.
45. Which of the following conditions will result in the loss of trap seal due to capillary action?
a. Temperature change
b. Minus pressure
c. When an absorbent is suspended in the trap with one end on the fixture side and the
other on the drain side
d. Momentum of sewage flowing from upper fixture traps
46. Which of the following arrangement of components will produce a cooling effect in a
refrigerating cycle?
47. The trade name for the type letter THWN Insulated Conductor is ______.
49. A vertical pipe which conveys only wastewater or liquid waste free from fecal matter
a. Waste stack (a large-diameter pipe that receives water from toilets and other drains and runs
all the way through the house vertically.)
b. Waste pipe
c. Soil pipe (pipe that conveys the discharge of water closets or similar fixtures containing fecal
matter, with or without the discharge of other fixtures to the building drain or building sewer)
d. Soil stack (A vertical pipe which conveys the discharge of water closet, urinal or fixtures
having similar function, with or without the discharges from other fixtures to the building drain or
building sewer.)
50. An enclosure for housing and protecting electric wires and/or cables that are joined together
in connecting or branching electric circuits
a. Junction box (box with a blank cover which serves the purpose of joining different runs of
raceway or cable, and provided with sufficient space for connection and branching of the
enclosed conductors.)
b. Cable tray (unit of assembly of units or sections and associated fittings forming a rigid
structural system used to support cables)
c. Duct
d. Wire
BUILDING TECHNOLOGIES
35 PASSING GRADE
1. The specified strength of concrete will be reached after how many days of curing?
a. 14
b. 21
c. 30
d. 28
3. The two methods for controlling consistency of concrete mixes and strength
4. A masonry unit of clay formed into a rectangular prism while plastic and hardened by drying
in the sun or firing a kiln
a. CHB (block made of concrete and has space between its walls.)
b. Sandstone (cemented silica grains)
c. Marble (metamorphic rock which are crystallized)
d. Bricks
5. A malleable alloy of iron and carbon (combined) produced by smelting and refining of pig iron
and/or scrap steel
a. Steel
b. Wrought Iron (A tough, malleable, readily soft iron; easily forged & welded.)
c. Cast Iron (hard, brittle, non-malleable iron-based alloy)
d. Galvanized Iron (Iron coated with zinc to prevent rust.)
6. A fluid cement mortar that will flow easily without segregation of the ingredients, used to fill
narrow cavities in masonry and consolidate the adjoining materials into a solid mass
a. Grout
b. Sand mortar (mixture of binder [lime or cement] and sand)
c. Bond
d. Epoxy (two-part adhesive that forms when you mix epoxy resin and hardener)
7. A matte textured surface with no gloss as a result of a pressurized flow of sand and water
a. Soldering (process used for joining metal parts to form a mechanical or electrical bond)
b. Annealing (heat treatment process that changes the physical and sometimes also the
chemical properties of a material to increase ductility and reduce the hardness to make it more
workable)
c. Brazing (process for joining two pieces of metal that involves the application of heat and the
addition of a filler metal)
d. Welding
9. Which among the following materials has the best sound-absorbing qualities?
a. Concrete
b. Glass
c. Stone
d. Wood
10. A ferrous material which is tough and ductile and is produced from pig iron in a way to
remove carbon and other impurities
a. Wrought iron
b. Weathering steel
c. Stainless steel
d. Galvanized Iron
11. An iron coated with zinc through a process of hot-dipping to prevent rust
a. Wrought iron
b. Weathering steel
c. Galvanized iron
d. Stainless steel
12. An admixture which delays the setting time of concrete especially during hot weather
conditions
a. Retarder
b. Air-entraining (concrete will be highly resistant to corrosion)
c. Set inhibiting agent (delays curing; applied immediately)
d. Dispersal agent (bonding agent [spray or paint] that improves bond between old and new
concrete)
14. Rough fragments of broken stone that have at least one face good for exposure on a wall
15. A fabrication process usually done on metals or thermoplastics by melting the work pieces
and adding a filler material which cools to form a strong joint
16. A mixture of cement, sand and water used as a bonding agent in masonry construction
a. Adhesive
b. Plaster
c. Grout
d. Mortar
a. Masonry
b. Concrete
c. Plaster
d. Grout
a. Wrought Iron
b. Brass
c. Aluminum
d. Copper
a. Weathering Steel
b. Aluminum
c. Galvanized Iron
d. Stainless Steel
a. Manganese
b. Tungsten
c. Aluminum
d. Chromium (component of Stainless Steel)
22. It is a type of building board made of 3 or more layers of veneer joined by ____ each layer
a. Hardboard (also called high-density fiberboard) (made from processed wood chips or
fibers subjected to high pressure steam in pressure vessels, released and exploded
forming into filtered cellulose)
b. Plasterboard (also called Drywall or Gypsum board)
c. Fiberboard (kind of natural fiber composite that is made from wood or non wood fiber
materials)
d. Plywood
23. It is made from hardboard from relatively small particles , graduated from coarse at the
center of the board to fine at the surface to produce a smooth dense surface
a. Fiber cement board (composite materials made of sand, cement, and cellulose fibers)
(ideally used for flooring, making furniture, wall cladding/paneling and even gates)
b. Building Board (also known as cement particle boards; made from wood particles that
are bonded together with cement)
c. Medium-density fiberboard (engineered wood product formed by breaking down
softwood into wood fibers)
d. Particle board
24. A wall or ceiling board having a chalk-like material as a core clad with paper …
25. A tile made with finer clay particles fired at higher temperatures to achieve a …
water-resistant than ordinary tile and this allows for the tile to be manufactured ..
a. Homogenous tiles
b. Vitrified tiles
c. Porcelain tiles
d. Ceramic tiles
26. Tiles which are tougher and less porous than a ceramic tile in which the color of the surface
is consistent throughout the tile
a. Porcelain tile
b. Ceramic tiles (thin slabs of clay, water or other inorganic materials, hardened at high
temperatures in a kiln and usually coated with some kind of glaze)
c. Vitrified tiles (ceramic tile with very low porosity)
d. Homogenous tiles (either porcelain or ceramic)
27. This component dissolves the paint to make it usable and workable
a. Binder
b. Solvent
c. Veh
d. Thinner- is a solvent used to thin oil-based paints
a. Sealer
b. Solvent
c. Primer
d. Binder
29. A paint defect which shows uneven coating due to excessive application paint on wet paint
30. This waterproofing type mixed with concrete and does not require skilled workmanship in
creating a waterproof structure
31. A float glass which can be cut, drilled, and polished but has not been heat-strengthened and
underwent a process of a controlled cooling to prevent residual stress
32. A type of safety glass processed by controlled thermal or chemical treatments to increase its
strength by putting the outer surfaces into compression and the interior into tension such that
the glass shatters into small granular chunks when broken instead of splintering into jagged
shards
36. A structure composed of chords, diagonal and vertical web members to create a rigid
framework
37. An arrangement of braces fixed between floor joists to keep them in place and distribute the
load to adjacent floor joists
a. Floor bracing
b. Floor beam
c. Bridging
d. Corbel
a. Overhanging beam
b. Cantilever beam
c. Secondary beam
d. Intermediate beam
39. Prevents water penetration and /or provide water drainage especially between a roof and
wall
a. Downspout
b. Gutter
c. Flashing
d. Downspout
40. A channel of metal, wood, or concrete set below and along the eaves of a building to catch
and carry off rainwater from the roof
a. Roof drain
b. Fascia
c. Downspout
d. Gutter
41. Class A Concrete has a mixture ratio 1:2:_?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
42. Term which means to connect or join 2 similar materials, usually in a straight line by
fastening the ends by means of mechanical connectors, welding, or wire connection
a. Splice
b. Adjoin
c. Pliers
d. Joint
44. The measure from the top of the concrete beam to the center of the bottom bar
a. Developed length
b. Embedment length
c. Effective depth
d. Efficient length
45. The relative movement of parts of a structure caused by uneven settlements ? underlying
soil
a. Primary consolidation
b. Differential settlement
a. 25mm
b. 40mm
c. 75mm
d. 30mm
PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE
35 PASSING SCORE
1. For residential 5 (R5) The allowable highest grade of the building should be:
a. 36m - 54m
b. 12m - 16m
c. 25m - 40m
d. 30m - 50m
2. For R3, High density Housing or multiple-family dwelling units should be allowed to have the
Building Height limit of ___m
a. 20 meters
b. 36 meters
c. 45 meters
d. 20 meters
3. The allowable storeys or number of floors for Commercial 2 above the established grade is
____
a. 6 storeys
b. 10 storeys
c. 20 storeys
d. 15 storeys
4. PUD, Planned Unit Development at reclamation area close to an operating airport should not
go beyond__m as ATO prescribed BHL.
a. 10-20 meters
b. 10-30 meters
c. 10-45 meters
d. 10-50 meters (48.00 m is prescribed)
a. 10 meters
b. 15 meters
c. 20 meters
d. 30 meters
6. The office authorized to enforce the provisions of the NBC and its IRR in the field, as well as
the enforcement of orders and decisions made pursuant thereto?
a. Secretary of DPWH
b. City or Municipal Mayor
c. Office of the Building Official
d. Executive Dept.
a. Safety standards
b. Health standards
c. Universal design
d. Environmental safeguards
8. Any physical change made on buildings/structures to increase the value, quality, and/or to
improve the aesthetic
a. Renovation
b. Repair
c. Alteration
d. Demolition
9. The administration and enforcement of the provisions of the NBC ( also known as the “code”)
and its IRR, including the imposition of penalties for administrative violations thereof, is vested
upon?
a. Secretary of DPWH
b. City or Municipal Mayor
c. Office of the Building Official
d. Executive Dept
10. Which of the following is NOT a qualification for being appointed as a Building Official?
11. A type of occupancy of building for residential structure for executive use of single-family
occupants
12. Building type for educational institutions like schools, colleges, universities, concert halls,
museums, etc.
13. If the first two floors of a five-storey building are for commercial use, and the upper floors are
for residential use, each one of these occupancies should have a complete separation
a. True
b. False
14. Residential R-1 is a low-density residential zone, characterized mainly by single family
dwelling.
a. True
b. False
20. Lot location in relation with fault lines and soil characteristics help determine a Building
Height.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
22. The size of a standard truck or bus parking/loading slot must be computed at a minimum of
3.60 meters by 13.00 meters
a. True
b. False
23. One (1) car slot for every five (5) classroom; is for Private elementary, secondary, vocational
and trade school.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
25. Length of an automobile parking slot for parallel parking (2.15m X ____).
a. 5.00 meters
b. 5.50 meters
c. 6.50 meters
d. 6.00 meters
a. True
b. False
27. The owner or his/her authorized representative shall not be responsible for the annual
inspection and testing of doors and its assembly and automatic closing doors. Hardware shall
be examined and other defective parts of its assembly shall be replaced immediately with the
same fire rating and mechanism. Reports shall be included in FSMR.
a. True
b. False
a. True
b. False
29. The maximum length of travel from any point of the building towards the location of such
openings should not be over 45.00 meters in any place of assembly for spaces not protected by
automatic fire suppression and 60.00 meters in areas so protected.
a. True
b. False
30. Places of assembly in building of other occupancy may use exits common to the place of
assembly and the other occupancy, provided that the assembly area and the other occupancy,
considered separately, have exits sufficient to meet the requirements
a. True
b. False
31. Fire extinguishers shall be installed even if the property is equipped with automatic
sprinklers, standpipes, and hose, or other fixed fire protection equipment
a. True
b. False
a. GB code
b. PhilGB Code
c. PGBC
d. Green Code
a. RA 9266
b. PD 1096
c. BP 344
d. PD 957
34. According to section 4. Of the Green Building Code, the Principles include the following
except:
a. Resources must be used efficiently to equitably meet the developmental and environmental
needs of the present and future generations
b. People in the building industry have must ensure that buildings are planned, designed,
constructed, operated, and maintained to the required efficiency level
c. This practice complements the conventional building design concerns that we do not
need to address immediately
d. Occupants of green buildings will benefit from improved indoor environmental quality., which
promotes higher productivity and better comfort
35. According to Section 10 of the Green Building Code, energy efficiency requires the adoption
of the following except:
36. Under Rule 10, arcades are allowed in buildings provided that they are uniform in height and
width all throughout. What is the prescribed minimum height clearance of arcades from the
finish grade level of a sidewalk? (SECTION 1004. Arcades (a) Whenever required by existing
building and zoning regulations, arcades shall be constructed on sidewalks of streets. The width
of the arcade and its height shall be uniform throughout the street provided, that in no case,
shall an arcade be less than 3.00 meters above the established sidewalk grade.)
a. Typically accounts for more than 50% fifty percent of total electricity costs in a centrally
conditioned building
b. 20% better if it’s not centralized
c. Is more efficient if it is never turned off
d. Should be changed every two years
37. What do you call the permanent roofed structure above a door attached to and supported by
the building and projecting over a wall or sidewalk?
a. Window
b. Light Shelf
c. Light tube
d. Clerestory
38. What is the prescribed vertical clearance between the undermost surface of the awning and
the pavement or ground line?
a. 2.00 meters
b. 2.40 meters
c. 2.80 meters
d. 3.20 meters
40. What is the prescribed width (minimum) of temporary walkways to be provided in and
around construction sites as protection for pedestrians?
a. 1.80 meters
b. 1.60 meters
c. 1.40 meters
d. 1.20 meters
41. The width of any access corridor serving 50 or more persons shall not be less than 1.12
meters
a. True
b. False
HISTORY OF ARCHITECTURE
35 PASSING SCORE
6. The largest and longest baroque structure in Prague - Czernin Palace Černín
MOUND
etc.
GABARA
32. The tallest tower in the world that held its title
for 25 years after its construction in 1973,
Sears Tower