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Centro Escolar University

School of Pharmacy
EXAMINATION IN PRPM114

GENERAL INSTRUCTION: Read each question carefully. Shade the BEST option that suits each
case (100 items).
NOTE:
1. Which of the following will specifically increase the fluidity of the cell membrane? MORE DOUBLE BONDS, MORE
DEGREE OF UNSATURATION
A. Decrease in temperature C. Increase the saturated fatty acids meaning DECREASE FORCE
B. Increase the unsaturated fatty acids D. Removal of cholesterol INCREASE FLUIDITY
2. Transport of solute against its concentration gradient:
A. Primary active transport C. Simple diffusion
B. Facilitated diffusion D. Osmosis
3. Which of the following is not true about glycine?
A. Achiral C. Simplest amino acid NOTE:
SIMPLEST AMINO ACID
B. Aliphatic D. Has an l-configuration ACHIRAL: NOT CAPABLE OF ROTATING
4. Acidic amino acids:
I. Are negatively charged at neutral pH
II. Are ionizable amino acids
III. Include glutamic acid and aspartic acid
IV. Form H bonds
A. I, II, III, IV C. II, III, IV
B. I, IV D. I, II, III
5. Which of the following statements differentiates simple passive diffusion from facilitated
diffusion?
A. Facilitated diffusion is saturable, meaning, the carriers may be fully occupied.
B. Facilitated diffusion is an active process.
C. Facilitated diffusion moves against concentration gradient.
D. Facilitated diffusion is not a carrier-mediated transport process.
6. Which of the following protein structure is resistant from denaturation?
A. Primary C. Tertiary
B. Secondary D. Quaternary
7. The organelle which has its own DNA and the site of energy-yielding oxidation reactions:
A. Nucleus C. Endoplasmic Reticulum
B. Golgi Apparatus D. Mitochondrion
8. Deficiency of Se is associated with decreased efficiency of:
A. Urease C. Glutathione peroxidase
B. Nitrate reductase D. Superoxide dismutase
9. These are enzymes that facilitate group transfer:
A. Oxidoreductases C. Hydrolases
B. Transferases D. Ligases
10. Which of the following factors can affect the rate of reaction held by enzymes?
A. Temperature C. [P]
B. pH D. [S]
11. What is the difference between active transport (AT) and facilitated diffusion (FD)?
A. AT requires protein carriers; FD does not.
B. AT requires energy; FD does not.
C. AT requires a concentration gradient; FD does not.
D. AT requires a membrane; FD does not.
12. A substrate has the same affinity towards enzyme A and B. However, when all other
conditions are identical, a higher molar concentration of the product is seen when enzyme A is
used. This means that compared to enzyme B:
A. Enzyme A has a higher Km C. Enzyme A has a higher Vmax
B. Enzyme A has a lower Km D. Enzyme A has a lower Vmax
13. What is the significance of Km?
A. A crude measure of the affinity between the enzyme and substrate
B. Tells how fast the enzyme can generate product under saturating substrate conditions
C. Measurement of the relationship between the enzyme concentration and substrate
concentration
D. Measurement of the relationship between V0 and pH
14. The Lineweaver-Burk plot of noncompetitive inhibition shows lines that intersect on the
_____.
A. X axis C. Origin
B. Y axis COMPETITIVE D. No intersectionUNCOMPETITIVE
15. In what cell component does fatty acid synthesis occur?
A. Lysosome C. Cytosol
B. sER D. Mitochondrion
16. In diagnosing patients with suspected Cu poisoning, which enzyme must be monitored?
A. CK C. Ceruplasmin
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B. Amylase D. Lipase
17. Which of the following is not found in the cytoplasm?
A. Cytosol C. Mitochondrion
B. Inclusions D. Plasma membrane
18. Ketogenic amino acids may include all of the following, except:
A. Phenylalanine C. Lysine
B. Isoleucine D. Asparagine
19. Lysine and arginine amino acids are ____.
A. Acidic C. Nonpolar
B. Neutral D. Basic
20. This amino acid is considered as a semi-essential amino acid in humans.
A. Lysine C. Lysine
B. Tryptophan D. Arginine
21. This structure of peptides refers to the order of amino acids in the polypeptide chain/s:
A. Primary AMINO ACID SEQUENCE;PEPTIDE BONDS C. Tertiary MULTIPLE FORCES; ONLY 1 POLYPETIDE
B. Secondary A-HELICES, BETA HELICES, H-BONDS D. Quaternary MULTIPLE FORCES; MORE THAN 1 POLYPEPTIDE
22. A fibrous protein that is important component of arterial blood vessels and ligaments.
A. Keratin C. Elastin
B. Collagen D. Fibronectin
23. Protein present in hemoglobin has a structure known as:
A. Primary C. Tertiary
B. Secondary D. Quaternary
24. In sickle cell anemia, Glu is replaced by which amino acid?
A. Val C. Ile
B. Lys D. Ala
25. Which component is not part of a nucleotide?
A. A nitrogen-containing base C. An amino acid
B. A monosaccharide D. A phosphate group
26. Which base is found in DNA or RNA, but not both?
A. Uracil C. Cytosine
B. Adenine D. Guanine
27. Compute for the isoelectric point of lysine: pK1 = 2.2, pK2 = 9.2, pK3 = 10.8
A. 10 C. 5.7
B. 6.5 D. 10.7
28. Which type of RNA is a template for protein synthesis?
A. mRNA C. rRNA
B. tRNA D. dDNA
29. All amino acids found in proteins are in L configuration except:
A. Leucine C. Threonine
NOTE:
B. Thymine D. Glycine GLYCINE: SIMPLEST AMINO ACID AND ACHIRAL MEANING
30. Which does not correctly describe collagen? NOT CAPABLE OF ROTATING
A. It is a structural protein.
B. It is the most abundant fibrous protein
C. It is globular in shape
D. It is found in all tissues and organs
31. Which one of the following statements concerning the peptide shown below is correct?
Val-Cys-Glu-Ser-Asp-Arg-Pro
A. The peptide contains asparagine.
B. The peptide contains a side chain with a secondary amino group.
C. The peptide contains a thioether side chain.
D. The peptide cannot form an internal disulfide bond.
32. What is a nucleoside?
A. Monosaccharide + Base C. monosaccharides ribose and deoxyribose
B. A polymer of nucleotides D. monosaccharide + a base + phosphate
33. Which sequence is not possible?
A. GAGA C. TATA
B. TAU D. TGA
34. What is the function of myosin in the human body?
A. as connective tissue found in tendons, bone, cartilage, and blood vessels
B. control muscle contractions
C. stores iron in the liver
D. stores O2 in tissues
35-37. What is the structure of the amino acid leucine at pH 7.4? B
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38. Which of the following bonds provides attachment of the sugar to the N-base?
A. H Bond C. Glycosidic bond
B. PD Bond D. Peptide bond
39. What is the strongest type of interaction between two cysteine amino acids in a protein?
A. Hydrogen bonding C. Disulfide bond
B. London dispersion forces D. Electrostatic interactions
40. What is the process of altering the shape of a protein without breaking the amide bonds that
form the primary structure? TAKE NOTE: PRIMARY STRUCTURE ARE RESISTANT FROM DENATURATION
A. Hydrolysis C. Competitive inhibition C. Denaturation D. Oxidation
41-43. How many chirality centers are in leu-enkephalin (structure shown)?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

44. What is the particular sequence of amino acids of a protein that are joined together by peptide
bonds called?
A. The primary structure of a protein
B. The tertiary structure of a protein 1 POLYPEPTIDE; MULTIPLE PURPOSE
C. The secondary structure of a protein H-BOND; ALPHA &BETA HELICES
D. The quaternary structure of a protein 2 POLYPEPTIDE; MULTIPLE FORCES
45. Evaluate the two statements:
I. Amino acid [Q] has a nonionic polar side chain.
II. It is also classified as an aliphatic amino acid with hydroxyl group.
A. Only statement 1 is correct.
B. Only statement 2 is correct.
C. Both statements are correct.
D. Both statements are incorrect.
46. This amino acid contains the indole functional group.
A. Histidine B. Arginine C. Tryptophan D. Proline
47. Helical formation of helix is a characteristic of what protein structure?
A. Primary ALPHA; BETA B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary
48. The main mode of linkage in primary protein structure is:
A. Hydrogen bonds SECONDARY STRUCTURE C. Salt bridges formation
B. Peptide bonds D. Covalent bonds
49. Hydrogen atom at 2’ of the ribose ring indicates that the nucleic acid is:
A. RNA B. DNA C. ATP D. ADP
50. Which of the following base pairs is bound by a triple bond?
A. Adenine and Thymine C. Adenine and Cytosine
B. Guanine and Thymine D. Cytosine and Guanine
51. The chromatin structure is an example of _____ structure.
A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary
52. Each amino acid in the chain is called:
A. Carboxyl B. Amino C. Residue D. Peptide
53. This is not a feature of a genetic code:
A. Degenerate B. Unambiguous C. Overlapping D. Universal
54. These cause neurodegenerative diseases to cause improper folding of proteins:
A. Chaperones B. Protein denaturation C. Domain D. Prion
55. Which among the following is not a characteristic of a peptide bond?
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A. Has freedom of rotation

B. Side chains are free to rotate on either side
C. Partially double bond
D. Rigid and planar
56. 5’-3’ exonuclease activity is exhibited by what type of DNA polymerase?
A. DNA Polymerase I B. DNA Polymerase II C. DNA Polymerase III D. DNA Polymerase IV
57. Unzipping of dsDNA is catalyzed by:
A. Polymerase B. Helicase C. Topoisomerase D. Ligase
58. Which type of mutation is expressed when a DNA sequence changes from GGA TCA CCG
GAA…. to GGA TCC CGG….?
A. a deletion mutation C. a point mutation
B. an insertion mutation D. All of the above
59. A purine that substitutes for a pyrimidine and vice versa is what type of point mutation?
A. Transition B. Transversion C. Translocation D. Transmission
60. Which of the following is the complementary RNA strand of the sequence CGATTGAC?
A. CAGTTAGC
B. GCUAACUG
C. TCUAACTG
D. GCTAACTG
61. The point where unwinding occurs in DNA is:
A. Replication fork
B. Replication bubble
C. Leading strand
D. Lagging strand
62. This is defined as the continual maintenance of active set of cellular proteins required under a
given set of conditions:
A. Amyloidoses C. Proteostasis
B. Homeostasis D. Collagenopathies
63. Nascent proteins are non-functional. Native proteins are functional. NASCENT: NON FUNCTIONAL, PRIMARY &
A. TRUE; FALSE C. TRUE; TRUE SECONDARY STRUCTURE
NATIVE: FUNCTIONAL: TERTIARY AND
B. FALSE; TRUE D. FALSE; FALSE QUATERNARY
64. These are also known as cage-like chaperones in eukaryotes:
A. GroEL B. Hsp70 C. PDI D. Hsp60
65. In post-transcriptional modifications of mRNA, the following are observed, except:
A. Addition of 7-methylguanosine cap at the 3’ end C. RNA Splicing
B. Addition of Poly(A) tail D. None of the above
66. Agents that promote protein denaturation:
A. Heat B. UV Radiation C. Strong Acids D. All of the choices
67. Increased levels of b-amyloid is critical in aggravating:
A. Huntington’s Disease C. b-Thalassemia
B. Alzheimer’s Disease D. Parkinson’s Disease
68. Which is the sum of all of the chemical reactions that take place in an organism?
A. anabolism B. catabolism C. metabolism D. citric acid cycle
69. Complete 3D conformation:
A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary
70. The addition of a phosphate group to ADP, forming ATP is an example of what type of
reaction?
A) hydration B) hydrolysis C) phosphorylation D) reduction E) decarboxylation
71. Which of the following correctly describe/s collagen?
I. Triple helix
II. In every 3rd amino acid residue, proline is observed
III. Gly-X-Y sequence
A. I, II, III C. I, III
B. I, II D. II, IV
72. What is the essence of having P in the structure of collagen?
A. Flexibility B. Integrity C. Kinks D. Rigidity
73. Which of the following cofactor/s is/are needed in the hydroxylation of proline and lysine?
I. Iron II. Oxygen III. Vitamin C
A. I, II, III B. I, III C. I, II D. II, III E. III only
74. How many reactions in the citric acid cycle generate FADH2?
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4
75. This protein is found in lungs with rubber-like properties: NOTE:
A. Hemoglobin B. Myoglobin C. Keratin D. Elastin ELASTIN ARE IMPORTANT SA
BLOOD VESSELS AND LIGAMETS
76. A storage protein of oxygen:
A. Hemoglobin B. Myoglobin C. Keratin D. Elastin
77. CO poisoning is caused by increased levels of:
A. Methemoglobin C. Myoglobin
B. Carboxyhemoglobin D. Hemoglobin
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78. Glycolysis converts _____

A) polysaccharides to glucose. C) fatty acids to thioesters
B) glucose to pyruvate. D) amino acids to urea.
79. Which is not one of the three major products that are formed in glycolysis?
A) glucose B) ATP C) NADH D) pyruvate
80. True statements concerning hemoglobin, except:
A. It has a hyperbolic shape in its oxygen dissociation curve
B. It has 4 polypeptide subunits
C. It is a quaternary structure type of protein
D. All are correct
81. Which process requires the coenzyme NADH?
A) glucose to pyruvate C) pyruvate to lactate
B) pyruvate to acetaldehyde D) pyruvate to acetyl CoA
82. Which factors increase the rate of gluconeogenesis?
A) high glycogen reserves C) high carbohydrate diet
B) low carbohydrate diet D) low oxygen concentration
83. Where does the electron transport chain process take place?
A. in the inner membrane of mitochondria
B. in the outer membrane of mitochondria
C. in the intermembrane space of mitochondria
D. in the matrix of mitochondria
84/ Glucogenic amino acids _____
A. are converted to acetyl CoA.
B. are converted to the thioester acetoacetyl CoA.
C. are catabolized to pyruvate or an intermediate in the citric acid cycle.
D. can be converted to ketone bodies
85. The electron transport chain (ETC) is the final common pathway by which electrons derived
from the different fuels of the body flow to oxygen. Where does ETC occurs?
A) Outer mitochondrial membrane C) Golgi complex
B) Cytosol D) Inner mitochondrial membrane
86. Which of the following is called transamination?
A. Conversion of amino acids to hydroxyl acids
B. Conversion of amino acids to keto acids
C. Loss of ammonia from amino acids
D. Formation of ammonium salts from ammonia
87. The energy producing reaction:
A) Metabolic C) Anabolic
B) Catabolic D) Amphibolic
88. Which one of the following statements concerning glycolysis is correct?
A. The conversion of glucose to lactose requires the presence of oxygen.
B. Hexokinase is important in hepatic glucose metabolism only in the absorptive period following
consumption of a carbohydrate-containing meal.
C. Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate is a potent inhibitor of phosphofructokinase.
D. The regulated reactions are also the irreversible reactions.
89. It is the building block of essential fatty acids.
A. Malonyl CoA B. Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate C. Acetyl CoA D. HMG CoA
90. Insulin promotes the storage of fat and glucose in specialized target cells. What pancreatic
cell type is responsible for secreting this hormone?
A) A cell. B) B cell. C) D cell. D) F cell
91. Ketogenic amino acids may include all of the following, except:
A) Phenylalanine B) Isoleucine C) Lysine D) Asparagine
92. Which of the following biochemical pathways occur in the cytoplasm?
I. Decarboxylation of Pyruvate III. HMP Pathway
II. Krebs Cycle IV. Fatty Acid Synthesis
A) I, II B) II, III C) I, III D) III, IV
93. The process where 6-carbon glucose molecule is split into two molecules of pyruvic acid.
A) glycolysis B) citric acid cycle C) calvin cycle D) TCA
94. A molecule that carries energy within cells.
A) NADH B) ATP C) NADPH D) glucose
95. Which of following is not a product of citric acid cycle?
A) carbon dioxide B) NADH C) FADH2 D) oxygen
96. If oxygen is not present, this step will happen after glycolysis.
A) citric acid cycle C) Fermentation
B) ETC D) Glycogenesis
97. What are the products of aerobic respiration?
A) Acetyl CoA and oxygen C) Lactic acid
B) Carbon dioxide and water D) Ethanol
98. What are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration?
A) oxygen and lactic acid C) glucose and oxygen
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B) carbon dioxide and water D) water and glucose

99. Where does the Krebs Cycle take place?
A) mitochondria B) chloroplast C) cytoplasm D) nucleus
100. Which is the correct order of the steps of cellular respiration?
A. Glycolysis > Krebs cycle > ETC C. Krebs cycle > ETC > Glycolysis
B. Glycolysis > ETC > Krebs cycle D. ETC > Glycolysis > Krebs cycle

God bless! James 1:5

Prepared by: Crisfel R. del Mundo, MSc, RPh

TOP 5 MOST DIFFICULT QUESTIONS (MORE THAN 70% of the students got these
incorrectly!)

Item Question Answer

88 Which one of the following D. The regulated reactions are
statements concerning also the irreversible reactions
glycolysis is correct?
A. The conversion of glucose
to lactose requires the
presence of oxygen.
B. Hexokinase is important in
hepatic glucose metabolism
only in the absorptive period
following consumption of a
carbohydrate-containing meal.
C. Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
is a potent inhibitor of
phosphofructokinase.
D. The regulated reactions are
also the irreversible reactions
53 This is not a feature of a C. Overlapping
genetic code:
A. Degenerate Must be NON-OVERLAPPING
B. Unambiguous
C. Overlapping
D. Universal

77 CO poisoning is caused by B. Carboxyhemoglobin

increased levels of:
A. Methemoglobin Methemoglobin – related to
CYANIDE poisoning, not CO.
B. Carboxyhemoglobin
C. Myoglobin
D. Hemoglobin

82 Which factors increase the B. low carbohydrate diet

rate of gluconeogenesis?
A) high glycogen Gluconeogenesis is a
reserves catabolic reaction which aims
B) low carbohydrate diet to generate glucose from non-
sugar carbon skeleton. It is
C) high carbohydrate diet activated when someone’s
D) low oxygen glucose consumption is low.
concentration

12 What is the significance of Km? A. A crude measure of

E. A crude measure of the the affinity between
affinity between the the enzyme and
enzyme and substrate substrate
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F. Tells how fast the enzyme Km measures the AFFINITY of

can generate product the enzyme to the substrate.
under saturating
substrate conditions
G. Measurement of the
relationship between the
enzyme concentration
and substrate
concentration
H. Measurement of the
relationship between V0
and pH