FORCE

1. (A) With reference to the direction of action, how does a centripetal force differ from a
centrifugal force during uniform circular motion?
(B) Is centrifugal force the force of reaction of centripetal force?
(C) Compare the magnitudes of centripetal and centrifugal force.

2. A stone of mass 'm' is rotated in a circular path with a uniform speed by tying a strong string
with the help of your hand. Answer the following questions:
(A) Is the stone moving with a uniform or variable speed?
(B) Is the stone moving with a uniform acceleration? In which direction does the acceleration
act?
(C) What kind of force acts on the hand and state its direction?

3. A uniform metre rod is balanced at the 70 cm mark by suspending a weight of 50 gf at the 40

cm mark and 200 gf at the 95 cm mark. Draw a diagram of the arrangement and calculate the
weight of the metre rod.

4. A half metre rod is provided at the centre with two weights of 20 gf and 12 gf suspended at a
perpendicular distance of 6 cm and 10 cm from the pivot respectively as shown below.

(A) Which of the two forces acting on the rigid rod causes clockwise moment?
(B) Is the rod in equilibrium?
(C) The direction of 20 gf force is reversed. What is the magnitude of the resultant moment
of the force on the rod?

5. The iron door of a building is 3 m broad. It can be opened by applying a force of 100 N
normally at the middle of the door. Calculate:
(A) The torque needed to open the door
(B) The least force and its point of application to open the door.

6. (A) Why does a rope walker hold a long pole in his hands?
(B) The passengers in a boat are not allowed to stand while crossing a river why?
(C) The screw drivers have long handles, why?

7. State the position of centre of gravity of the following:

(A) Cylinder
(B) Scalene triangle
(C) Rectangle

WORK, POWER, ENERGY

1. The figure below shows a simple pendulum of mass 200 g. It is displaced from the mean
position x to the extreme position y. The potential energy at the position x is zero. At the
position y the pendulum bob is raised by 5 m.
 (A) What is the potential energy of the pendulum at the position y?
(B) What is the total mechanical energy at point z?
(C) What is the speed of the bob at the position A when released from Z? (Take g = 10 m/s²)
and there is no loss of energy.)

2. A body of mass 10 kg is kept at a height of 5 m. It is allowed to fall and reach the ground.

3. (A) What is the total mechanical energy possessed by the body at the height of 5 m assuming
it is a frictionless medium?
(B) What is the kinetic energy possessed by the body just before hitting the ground? Take g=
10 m/s².

4. (A) Derive a relationship between S.I. and C.G.S. unit of work.

(B) A force acts on a body and displaces it by a distance S in a direction at an angle with the
direction of force. What should be the value of θ to get the maximum positive work?

5. Your whole family has decided to go on a family vacation and you are in charge of luggage.
You are weighing 55 kgs and you have to lift 20 kg of luggage over your head. The car is 20
m away from you. At the airport, you have to walk and inclined path, upon an incline of 1/5.
What is the work done in both scenarios?

MACHINES

1. A block and tackle system of pulleys has velocity ratio 4.

(A) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the system indicating clearly the points of application
and direction of load and effort.
(B) What will be its V.R. if the weight of the movable block is doubled?

REFRACTION OF LIGHT AT PLANE SURFACES

1. A diver in water looks obliquely at an object AB in air.

(A) Does the object appear taller, shorter or of the same size to the diver?
(B) Show the path of two rays AC & AD starting from the tip of the object as it travels
towards the diver in water and hence obtain the image of the object.
2. Complete the path of the ray AB through the glass prism in PQR till it emerges out of the
prism. Given the critical angle of the glass as 42°

3. How does the angle of deviation formed by a prism change with the increase in the angle of
incidence?
Draw a graph showing the variation in the angle of deviation with the angle of incidence at a
prism surface.

4. A ray of light XY passes through a right-angled isosceles prism as shown below.

(A) What is the angle through which the incident ray deviates and emerges out of the prism?
(B) Name the instrument where this action of prism is put into use.
(C) Which prism surface will behave as a mirror.

5. Draw a diagram of a right-angled Isosceles prism which is used to make an inverted image
erect.

6. What is understood by lateral displacement? State two factors on which it depends.

7. The diagram below shows a point source P inside a water container. Four rays A, B, C, D
starting from the source P are shown upto the water surface.

(A) Show in the diagram the path of these rays after striking the water surface. The Critical
Angle for water air surface is 48°.
(B) Name the phenomenon which the rays B and D exhibit.
8. (A) Write a relationship between angle of incidence and angle of refraction for a given pair of
media.
(B) When a ray of light enters from one medium to another having different optical densities
it bends. Why does this phenomenon occur?
(C) Write one condition where it does not bend when entering a medium of different optical
density.

9. When a ray of monochromatic green light enters a liquid from air as shown in the figure
given:

The angle 1 is 45° and angle 2 is 30°.

(A) Determine the refractive index of the liquid.
(B) Represent the path of light after reflection.

10. A coin is placed at the bottom of a beaker appears to be raised by 4.0 cm if the refractive
index of water is 4/3, find the depth of the water in the beaker.

LENS

1. A virtual, diminished image is formed when an object is placed between the optical centre
and the principal focus of a lens.
(A) Name the type of lens which forms the above image.
(B) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image with the above stated
characteristics.

2. An object AB is placed between O and F1 on the principal axis of a converging lens as

shown in the diagram.

Copy the diagram and by using three standard rays starting from point A, obtain an image of
the object AB.

3. An object is kept at a distance of 15 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Calculate
the image distance and state the characteristics of the image formed.

4. A lens forms an upright and diminished image of an object when the object is placed at the
focal point of the given lens.
 (A) Name the lens.
(B) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation.

5. (A) Define power of a lens.

(B) A child is using a spectacle with power of -2.5 D. What is meant by the negative sign?
(C) Find the focal length of the lens used.

6. A lens produces a virtual image between the object and the lens.
(A) Name the lens.
(B) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of this image.

7. (A) Where an object should be placed so that a real and inverted image of the same size as
the object is obtained using a convex lens?
(B) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image as specified in the part a (A).

8. A lens forms an erect, magnified and virtual image of an object.

(A) Name the lens.
(B) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the image formation.

9. (A) Define the power of a lens.

(B) A lens has a focal length of +25 cm. Calculate the power of the lens.

10. State the changes in the position size and nature of the image of an object when brought from
infinity upto a concave lens. Illustrate your answer by drawing diagrams.

11. A lens forms an erect, magnified and a virtual image of an object.

(A) Name the lens.
(B) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the image formation.

12. Draw a labelled diagram showing how an image of a small slide can be projected on large
screen. State two characteristics of the image.

13. A linear object is placed on the axis of the lens. An image is formed by refraction of the lens.
For all positions of the object on the axis of the lens, positions of the image are always
between the lens and the object.
(A) Name the lens.
(B) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image of the object placed in front of
the lens at any position of your choice except infinity.

14. (A) State mirror formula. How does 'f change when object distance 'u' from the mirror is
changed?
(B) Rahul finds the rough focal length of a convex lens. He is trying same method to find the
focal length of concave lens; will he be successful. Justify your answer with help of ray
diagram.

SPECTRUM
1. Give reasons for the following:
During the day:
(A) clouds appear white
(B) sky appears blue

2. A type of electromagnetic wave has ni wavelength 50 Å.

(A) Name the wave.
(B) What is the speed of wave is vacuum?
(C) State one use of this type of wave.

3. Suggest one way in each case by which we can detect the presence of:
(A) (a) Infrared radiations.
(b) Ultra violet radiations.
(B) Give one use of infrared radiations.

4. State three properties common to all types of electromagnetic radiations.

5. Which type of rays exist beyond visible red end of the electromagnetic spectrum? State one
property and one use of the rays.

6. A radio can tune into any station in 7.5 MHz to 12 MHz band. What is the corresponding
wavelength band?

7. Give reasons for the following:

(A) Infrared radiations are used for photography in fog.
(B) Ultraviolet bulbs have a quartz envelop instead of glass.
(C) Microwaves are used in radar communication.

8. What do you understand by the term scattering of light? Which colour of white light is
scattered the least and why?

SOUND

1. Rohit playing a flute and Anita playing a piano emit sound of same pitch and loudness.
(A) Name one characteristics that is different for waves from the two instruments.
(B) If now the loudness of the sound from flute becomes four times that of the sound from
Piano, then write the value of the ratio A F: AP. (AF): amplitude of sound wave from flute.
AF -amplitude of sound wave from piano)
(C) Define 'Pitch' of sound.

2. Study the given figure and answer the following:

 (A) What type of vibration does the add given figure represent?
(B) State one reason for which the amplitude of the vibration decreases with time.
(C) Write an example of natural vibration.

3. (A) Which one of the following graphs A or B shows free vibrations in vacuum and which
one shows free vibrations in a medium?
(B) How did you come to this conclusion?

4. (A) Define pitch.

(B) Two wires AB and CD of same length are stretched by same amount. Which wire will
produce sound of greater pitch on plucking?

(C) Give a reason for your answer.

5. A tuning fork is struck against a rubber pad and allowed to vibrate, while it is vibrating, its
stem is pressed against a table top.
(A) Would this result in the production of audible sound?
(B) If the table does start vibrating, what type of vibrations are they likely to be?
(C) When can this action lead to the phenomenon of resonance?
6. A vibrating tuning fork is placed over the mouth of a burette filled with water. The tap is
opened and the water level gradually falls.
(A) What do you observe?
(B) Name the phenomenon.
(C) When does it happen?

7. Name the factor that determines:

(A) loudness of the sound heard.
(B) quality of the note.
(C) pitch of the note.

8. (A) What are damped vibrations?

(B) Give one example of damped vibrations.
(C) Name the phenomenon that causes a loud sound when the stem of a vibrating tuning fork
is kept pressed on the surface of a table.

9. Define resonance. State condition for it to occur and why a loud sound is heard at resonance.

10. Distinguish between Loudness and Intensity of sound.

11. What are forced vibrations? Give two examples?

12. What is loudness of sound? What factors does it depend on?

13. What different forces act on a body executing the forced vibrations?

14. When a troop crosses a suspension, bridge the soldiers are asked to break their steps. Why?

15. Which characteristics, distinguish two sounds from each other?

16. What do you understand by free vibrations of a body? Draw a displacement time graph to
represent them.

17. The frequency of a stretched string of fixed length is f when it is plucked in the middle.
Where should it be plucked so that string vibrates with frequency (A) 2f, (B) 3f? Draw
diagrams to show these vibrations and name them.
18. In what respect does wave forms of a noise and a musical note differ. Draw diagrams to
illustrate your answer.

19. How do you account for the fact that two strings can be used to give notes of the same pitch
and loudness but of different quality?

20. The rear view of mirror of motor bike starts vibrating vigorously at some particular speed of
bike.
(A) Why does this happen?
(B) What is the name of phenomenon takes place.
(C) What could be done to stop the violent vibrations.

21. The diagram below shows a wire stretched over a sonometer stems of two vibrations tuning
forks A and B are touched to the wooden box of the sonometer. It is observed that the paper
rider (a small piece of paper folded at the centre) present on the wire flies off when the stem
of vibrating tuning fork B is touched to the wooden box but the paper just vibrates when the
stem of vibrating tuning fork A is touched to the wooden box.

(A) Name the phenomenon when the paper rider just vibrates.
(B) Name the phenomenon when the paper rider flies off.
(C) Why does the paper rider fly off when the stem of tuning fork B is touched to the Box.

22. The adjacent diagram shows three different modes of vibrations P, Q and R of the same
string.

(A) Which vibration will produce a louder sound and why?

 (B) The sound of which string will have maximum shrillness?
(C) State the ratio of wavelengths of P and R.

23. (A) What is meant by Resonance?

(B) State two ways in which Resonance differs from Forced vibrations.

CURRENT ELECTRICITY

1. (A) Calculate the total resistance across AB.

(B) If a cell of e.m.f 2.4 V with negligible internal resistance is connected across AB then
calculate the current drawn from the cell.

2. (A) What is meant by electric current?

(B) Name and define its SI unit.
(C) In conductor electrons are flowing from B to A. What is the direction of conventional
current? Give justification for your answer.

3. (A) In the given circuit, connect a nichrome wire of length 'L' between points X and Y and
note the ammeter reading.

(a) When this experiment is repeated by inserting another nichrome wire of the same
thickness but twice the length (2L), what changes are observed in the ammeter
reading?
(b) State the changes that are observed in the ammeter reading if we double the area of
cross-section without changing the length in the above experiment. Justify your
answer in both the cases.
(B) "Potential difference between points A and B in an electric field is 1 V". Explain the
above statement.

4. A battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance 2 Ω is connected with two resistors A and B of
resistance 4 Ω and 6 Ω respectively joined in series.

Find:
(A) Current in the circuit.
 (B) The terminal voltage of the cell.
(C) The potential difference across 6 Ω resistor.

5. The relationship between the potential difference and the current in a conductor is stated in
the form of a law.
(A) Name the law.
(B) What does the slope of V-I graph for a conductor represent?
(C) Name the material used for making the connecting wire.

6. (A) What is an Ohmic resistor?

(B) Two copper wires are of the same length, but one is thicker than the other.
(a) Which wire will have more resistance?
(b) Which wire will have more specific resistance?

7. Obtain an expression for equivalent resistance of resistors connected in series.

8. Three resistors are connected to a 6 V battery as shown in the figure given below:

Calculate:
(A) The equivalent resistance of the circuit.
(B) Total current in the circuit.
(C) Potential difference across the 7.2 Ω resistor.

9. A wire of resistance 27 Ω is tripled on itself. What is its new resistance?

10. Three resistors of 6.0 Ω, 2.0 Ω and 4.0 Ω respectively are joined together as shown in the
figure.

The resistors are connected to an ammeter and to a cell of emf 6.0 V. Calculate:
(A) The effective resistance of the circuit.
(B) The current drawn from the cell.

11. Calculate the equivalent resistance between the points P and Q.

12. In given figure,

Calculate:
(A) total resistance of the circuit,
(B) the value of R and,
(C) the Current flowing in R.

13. (A) Find the equivalent resistance between A and B.

14. (B) State whether the resistivity of a wire changes with the change in the thickness of the
wire.

15. The given figure shows a battery having an emf of 9 V and internal resistance r = 0.6 Ω is
connected to three resistances A, B and C. Calculate the current in each resistor.
16. In the given diagram, three resistances 1 Ω, 2 Ω and 3 Ω are connected to a cell of emf 2.0 V
and internal resistance 0.5 Ω, calculate the total resistance of the circuit and the reading of
the ammeter.

ELECTRICAL POWER & ENERGY

1. An appliance rated 440 W, 220 V is connected across 220 V supply

(A) Calculate the maximum current that the appliance can draw.
(B) Calculate the resistance of the appliance.

2. An electric iron is rated 250 V, 2 kW. Under normal working conditions. Calculate:
(A) The resistance of its heating element
(B) The current through the element
(C) The amount of heat that will be produced in 5 minutes.

3. A family uses a light bulb of 100 W, a fan of 100 W, and a heater of 1000 W, each for 8 h a
day. If the cost of electricity is ₹ 2 per unit, what is the expenditure for the family per day on
electricity?

4. Two bulbs A and B are rated 100 W, 120 V and 10 W, 120 V respectively. They are connected
in parallel across a 120 V source.
(A) Find the current in bulb A.
(B) Which bulb will consume more power?
5. The filament of a bulb takes a current 100 mA when potential difference across it is 0.2 V.
When the potential difference across it becomes 1.0 V, the current becomes 400 mA.
Calculate the resistance of filament in each case and account for the difference.

6. (A) An electric bulb is marked 50 W, 220 V. What information does this convey?
(B) How much current will the bulb draw if connected to a 250 V supply?

HOUSEHOLD CIRCUIT

1. What is the colour code for the insulation on following wires?

(A) Live wire
(B) Neutral wire
(C) Earth wire

2. (A) Observe the diagram given below and State whether the bulb will glow or not when we
switch on K

(B) Is it safe to handle the bulb when the switch is OFF?

(C) Give a reason for your answer in (B).

3. Three wires with proper colour coding are connected to the three terminals of a three pin
Socket. Match the colour of the wire with proper terminals A, Band C of the socket.

(A) Brown
(B) Green
(C) Light Blue

4. (A) Name the electrical appliance shown in the diagram below.

(B) Name the material of the wire used in this device.

(C) Name two important characteristics of this wire.

5. The diagram in figure shows a three-pin socket marked as 1, 2 and 3.

 (A) Identify and write live (-), neutral (N) and earth (E) against the correct number.
(B) To which part of the appliance is the terminal 1 connected?
(C) To which wire joined to 2 or 3, is the fuse connected?

6. (A) List two characteristics of the material to be used in fuse wire.

(B) Name the material it is made up of.
(C) A fuse is always connected in a series in an electric circuit? Justify this statement by
giving a reason.

7. Figure below shows two bulbs with switches and fuse connected to the mains through a
three-pin socket by means of a three wires cable.

(A) Label alphabets and numbers in the diagrams.

(B) Name and state the colour of insulation of wires labeled with 1, 2 and 3.
(C) How are the two bulbs joined: in series or in parallel.

8. Answer the following questions:

(A) Name the three connecting wires used in a household circuit.
(B) Which of the two wires mentioned in part (A) are at the same potential?
(C) In which of the wire stated in part (A) the switch is connected?

9. A fuse is always connected to the live wire of the circuit. Explain the reason.

10. Highlight the accidents that may result due to electricity?

11. How does the heat produced by the passage of current in a metallic wire depend on:
(A) the current in the wire,
(B) the resistance of the wire,
(C) the time of passage of current in the wire?

12. Answer the following questions:

(A) What is the purpose of a switch in a circuit?
(B) Why is the switch put in the live wire?
(C) What precaution do you take while handling a switch?
13. (A) Two sets A and B, of three bulbs each, are glowing in two separate rooms. When one of
the bulbs in set A is fused, the other two bulbs also cease to glow. But in set B, when one
bulb fuses, the other two bulbs continue to glow. Explain why this phenomenon occurs.
(B) Why do we prefer arrangements of Set B for house circuiting?

14. (A) Name the device used to increase the voltage at a generating station.
(B) At what frequency is A.C supplied to residential houses?
(C) Name the wire in a household electrical circuit to which the switch is connected.

15. (A) A fuse is rated 8 A. Can it be used with an electrical appliance rated 5 KW, 200 V? Give
a reason.
(B) Name two safety devices which are connected to the live wire of a household electric
circuit

16. (A) Write one, advantage of connecting electrical appliances in parallel combination.
(B) What characteristics should a fuse wire have?
(C) Which wire in a power circuit is connected to the metallic body of the appliance?

17. In a viva, examiner asks you to point out the holes in a socket and state which pin goes in
which socket.

ELECTROMAGNETISM

1. The diagram below shows a magnetic compass kept closer to a coil AB wound around a
hollow cylindrical cardboard:

(A) After studying the circuit and the magnetic compass carefully, state whether the switch
S₁ is open or closed.
(B) How did you arrive at the conclusion in (A)?
(C) What is the purpose of placing the magnetic compass in the above setup?

2. The diagram below shows a loop of wire carrying current:

 (A) What is the magnetic polarity of the loop that faces us?
(B) With respect to the diagram how can we increase the strength of the magnetic field
produced by this loop?

3. The diagram shows a coil wound around a U shape soft iron bar XY.

(A) What is the Polarity induced at the ends X and Y when the switch is pressed?
(B) Suggest one way to strengthen the magnetic field in the electromagnet.
(C) What will be the polarities at X & Y if the direction of current is reversed in the circuit?

4. (A) Name two factors on which the force experienced by a conductor carrying current,
placed in a magnetic field, depends. Also state how these factors affect the force.
(B) With the help of which rule you can determine the direction of force acting on a current
carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field?

5. A compass needle is placed near a current carrying wire. State your observation for the
following cases and give reason for the same in each case:
(A) Magnitude of electric current in the wire is increased.
(B) The compass needle is displayed away from the wire.

6. The magnetic field in a given region is:

(A) Uniform
(B) Very strong
(C) Very weak
Draw a diagram for each case.

7. What is meant by solenoid? How does a current carrying solenoid behave? Give its main use.

8. (A) On what factors does the force experienced by a straight conductor placed in a magnetic
field depend?
 (B) Fleming stated two laws involving left hand and right hand. Which law is applicable
when:
(a) Electric energy change into mechanical energy?
(b) Mechanical energy change into electric energy?

9. How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can you determine the north and south poles of a
current-carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet? Explain.

10. State any two advantages of electromagnets over permanent magnets.

11. (A) Why does a current carrying, freely suspended solenoid rest along particular direction?
(B) State the direction in which it rests.

12. (A) State the Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction?

(B) Name one electrical device which works on this principle.

CALORIMETRY

1. (A) Which will absorb more heat, 10 g of ice at 0°C or 10 g of water at 0°C?
(B) For the same mass of ice and ice-cold water, why does ice produce more cooling than
ice-cold water?

2. The diagram below shows a cooling curve for 200 g of water. The heat is extracted at the rate
of 100 J/s. Answer the questions that follow:
(A) Calculate the specific heat capacity of water.
(B) Heat released is the region BC.

3. (A) Define heat capacity of a substance.

(B) Write the SI unit of heat capacity.
(C) What is the relationship between heat capacity and specific heat capacity of a substance?

4. (A) Define Calorimetry.

(B) Name the material used for making a Calorimeter.
(C) Why is a Calorimeter made up of thin sheets of the above material answered in (B)?

5. (A) State two differences between "Heat capacity" and "Specific heat capacity".
(B) Give a mathematical relation between Heat capacity and Specific heat capacity.

6. (A) What is the principle of method of mixtures?

 (B) What is the other name given to it?
(C) Name the law on which the principle is based.

7. Specific heat capacity of substance A is 3.8 J/g K whereas the specific heat capacity of
substance B is 0.4 J/g K.
(A) Which of the two is a good conductor of heat?
(B) How is one led to the above conclusion?
(C) If substances A and B are liquids then which one would be more useful in car radiators?

8. (A) Write an expression for the heat energy liberated by a hot body.
(B) Some heat is provided to a body to raise its temperature by 25°C. What will be the
corresponding rise in temperature of the body as shown on the Kelvin scale?
(C) What happens to the average kinetic energy of the molecules as ice melts at 0°C?

9. How much heat energy is gained when 0.5kg of water at 20°C is brought to its boiling point?
[Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kg °C

10. A piece of iron of mass 2.0 kg has a thermal capacity of 966 J/°C What is its specific heat
capacity in SI units?

11. 250 g of water at 30°C is present in a copper vessel of mass 50 g. Calculate the mass of ice
required to bring down the temperature of the vessel and its contents to 5°C Specific latent
heat of fusion of ice = 336 × 10³ J/kg
Specific heat capacity of copper vessel = 400 J/kg °C
Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kg °C

12. 50 g of metal piece at 27°C requires 2400 J of heat energy so as to attain a temperature of
327°C Calculate the specific heat capacity of the metal.

RADIOACTIVITY

1. A beam of α, β and γ-rays is travelling through a certain region in space.

(A) Arrange them in ascending order of ionizing power.
(B) Which of the above will pass undeviated if subjected to an electric field?
(C) With respect to your answer to part (b) above, what will be the change in the nucleus of
an atom after such a ray is emitted.

2. From α, β, γ name the one:

(A) Which has the maximum penetrating power?
(B) Which has the maximum ionising power?
(C) Which travels with the speed of light?

3. What will alpha particle change into when it absorbs:

(A) one electron and
(B) two electrons?
 238
4. How many alpha and beta particles are emitted when Uranium nucleus 92 U decays to lead
206
82 Pb ?

5. Select the pairs of isobars and isotopes from the following nuclei:
14 13 14 16 13 30 17 24 31 18 22 23 23
6C , 7 N , 7 N , 8O , 6C , 15 P , 8O , 11 Na , 15 P , 8O , 11 Na , 11 Na , 12 Mg

6. (A) A thorium isotope 233

90 Th undergoes an α-decay and changes to radium. What is the atomic
number and mass number of radium produced?
(B) If the radium undergoes a further disintegration and emits two β-particles, represent the
reaction in the form of an equation.
(C) What is the source of energy released during the decay?

7. A nucleus AZ X emits an alpha particle followed by γ-emission; thereafter it emits two ẞ-

particles to form X3.
(A) Copy and complete the values of A and Z for X3.
A
Z X −α X 1 −γ X 2−2 β X 3
→ → →
(B) Out of alpha (α), beta (β) and gamma (γ) radiation.
(a) Which radiation is the most penetrating?
(b) Which radiations are negatively charged?

8. What is carbon-14-dating?

State three uses of X-rays.

What is radio-isotopes? Name four uses of these isotopes.

9. When a nucleus undergoes alpha decay, is the product atom electrically neutral? What about
in beta decay?

10. Compare the ionising powers of the α, β and γ-radiations?

11. What is the nature of α, β and γ-radiations?

12. Nuclear reactions have been successfully demonstrated with the following energetic
projectiles, neutron, α-particles, protons and γ-rays. Complete the following reactions:

13. Why penetration power of γ radiations is maximum write α radiations have least penetration
power?

14. Why there is no change in the mass number A and atomic number Z of the nucleus in gamma
emission?

15. Explain why carbon-14 is used in the process of carbon dating.

16. Radiations given out from a source when subjected to an electric field in a direction
perpendicular to their path are shown below in the diagram. The arrows show the path of the
radiation A, B and C, Answer the following question in terms of A, B and C.

(A) Name the radiation B which is unaffected by the electrostatic field.

(B) Why does the radiation C deflect more than A?
(C) Which among the three causes the least biological damage externally?
(D) Name the radiation which is used in carbon dating.

17. A type of electromagnetic wave has wavelength 50 Å.

(A) Name the wave.
(B) What is the speed of the wave in vacuum?
(C) State one use of this type of wave.

18. (A) Represent the change in the nucleus of a radioactive element when ẞ particle is emitted.
(B) What is the name given to elements with same mass number and different atomic
number?
(C) Under which conditions does the nucleus of an atom tend to be radioactive?

19. Arrange α, β and γ rays in ascending order with respect to their

(A) Penetrating power.
(B) Ionising power.
(C) Biological effect.

20. A nucleus 11Na24 emits a beta particle to change into Magnesium (Mg).
(A) Write the symbolic equation for the process.
(B) What are number 24 and 11 called?
(C) What is the general name 24 24
12 Mg with respect to 11 Na?

21. (A) What is meant by Radioactivity?

(B) What is meant by nuclear waste?
(C) Suggest one effective way for the safe disposal of nuclear waste.
22. A certain nucleus X has a mass number 14 and atomic number 6. The nucleus X changes to
14
7Y after the loss of a particle.
(A) Name the particle emitted.
(B) Represent this change in the form of an equation.
(C) A radioactive substance is oxidized. What change would you expect to take place in the
nature of its radioactivity? Give a reason for your answer.