Full Test - 10 : RRB Paramedical Radiographer

Total Time: 1 Hour : 30 Minute Total Marks: 100

Instructions

Sl No. of Maximum Negative Positive

Section Name
No. Question Marks Marks Marks

1 Radiographer 70 70 0.33 1

2 General Awareness 10 10 0.33 1

General Arithmetic, General

3 10 10 0.33 1
Intelligence, and Reasoning

4 General Science 10 10 0.33 1

1.) A total of 90 minutes is allotted for the examination.

2.) The server will set your clock for you. In the top right corner of your screen, a
countdown timer will display the remaining time for you to complete the exam. Once the
timer reaches zero, the examination will end automatically. The paper need not be
submitted when your timer reaches zero.

3.) There will, however, be sectional timing for this exam. You will have to complete each
section within the specified time limit. Before moving on to the next section, you must
complete the current one within the time limits.
 Radiographer

1. A characteristic of the first generation CT scanner is: (+1, -0.33)

a. Pencil beam

b. Fan beam

c. Detector array

d. Silo ring technology

2. T1 is the time when approximately _______ of the original longitudinal (+1, -0.33)
magnetization is reached.

a. 37%

b. 50%

c. 63%

d. 100%

3. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is transported in the blood mainly as: (+1, -0.33)

a. Dissolved in red blood cells

b. HCO3

c. Carbaminohemoglobin

d. Attached to hemoglobin

4. Which of the following is used in Computed Tomography (CT) scans? (+1, -0.33)
 a. X-rays

b. Ultrasound

c. Infrared waves

d. Radio waves

5. Which tube is used in a Barium enema? (+1, -0.33)

a. BD's tube

b. Oesophageal tube

c. Ryle's tube

d. None

6. Which is not true for green sensitive films? (+1, -0.33)

a. Less stable sensitometric response

b. Improves image quality and sharpness

c. Low replacement rates needed

d. Better resistance to scratches

7. For obese patients, which transducer is mostly preferred? (+1, -0.33)

a. High frequency

b. Low frequency
 c. Medium frequency

d. All of the above

8. In the word "Computed Tomography" (CT), "Tomo" means: (+1, -0.33)

a. Recording

b. Slice

c. X-ray

d. Picture

9. Which interaction enhances the natural tissue contrast? (+1, -0.33)

a. Coherent scattering

b. Photoelectric absorption

c. Compton scattering

d. Pair production

10. The X-rays most useful for enhancing differential absorption in breast (+1, -0.33)
tissue and maximizing radiographic contrast are those in the range of:

a. 17 to 25 keV

b. 17 to 35 kVp

c. 20 to 40 kVp

d. 15 to 60 keV
11. The layer of the epidermis found only on the palms of the hands and soles (+1, -0.33)
of the feet is:

a. Stratum spinosum

b. Stratum basale

c. Stratum corneum

d. Stratum lucidum

12. Streak artifacts in CT scans are caused by: (+1, -0.33)

a. Movement due to heart motion

b. Aliasing

c. Beam hardening

d. Metals in the body

13. The number of iodine atoms in a contrast agent is directly related to its: (+1, -0.33)

a. Osmolarity

b. Radiodensity

c. Both A & B

d. None

14. Which acute radiation syndrome requires the largest exposure before the (+1, -0.33)
associated effects become apparent?
 a. Hematopoietic

b. Gastrointestinal

c. Central nervous system

d. Skeletal

15. The smallest unit in the reconstruction of an MRI image is? (+1, -0.33)

a. Pixel

b. Voxel

c. Binary units

d. None of the above

16. The anterior surface of the liver is connected to the anterior abdominal (+1, -0.33)
wall by:

a. Greater omentum

b. Lesser omentum

c. Mesentery proper

d. Falciform ligament

17. The filament in an x-ray tube emits electrons by the process of: (+1, -0.33)

a. Space charge effect

b. Thermionic emission
 c. Both above

d. None above

18. The effective energy of the X-ray beam is increased by increasing: (+1, -0.33)

a. Kilovoltage

b. Seconds

c. Milliampere

d. None

19. An acute reaction caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent (+1, -0.33)
describes:

a. Asthma

b. Anaphylaxis

c. Myocardial infarction

d. Rhinitis

20. The OM line in radiological anatomy refers to a line that: (+1, -0.33)

a. Runs from the outer canthus of the eye to the center of the external
auditory meatus

b. Passes from the infraorbital point to the upper border of the external
auditory meatus

c. Joins the two infraorbital points

 d. Joins the center of the two pupils

21. When the patient lies in dorsal recumbent position, and the cassette is (+1, -0.33)
placed behind the patient with the horizontal beam used, this projection is
termed as:

a. Lateral decubitus

b. Dorsal decubitus

c. Ventral decubitus

d. Decubitus view

22. Damage to the hippocampus is most likely to affect which function? (+1, -0.33)

a. Motor coordination

b. Memory

c. Vision

d. Emotional regulation

23. The skeletal system is essential for storing which mineral? (+1, -0.33)

a. Sodium

b. Potassium

c. Calcium

d. Iron
24. The suture that connects the parietal bone with the frontal bone is the: (+1, -0.33)

a. Lambdoidal suture

b. Coronal suture

c. Sagittal suture

d. Squamous suture

25. A post-void image of the urinary bladder is usually requested at the (+1, -0.33)
completion of an IVP/IVU and may be helpful in demonstrating:

a. Residual urine

b. Prostate enlargement

c. Ureteral tortuosity

d. A and B

26. A lateral curvature of the vertebral column is called: (+1, -0.33)

a. Scoliosis

b. Kyphosis

c. Lordosis

d. Spondylosis

27. The full form of PET is: (+1, -0.33)

 a. Position Ejection tomography

b. Positron Emission tomography

c. Position Emission transference

d. Proton Emission tomography

28. Which CT scanner uses slip ring technology? (+1, -0.33)

a. EMI Scanner

b. Multi-slice CT

c. EBCT

d. All of the above

29. What is the technological basis of a spiral CT? (+1, -0.33)

a. Gantry

b. Slip ring

c. Multi-detectors

d. Couch

30. Which is NOT true about developer solutions? (+1, -0.33)

a. Metol and hydroquinone act as reducing agents

b. Potassium bromide acts as an antifogging agent

 c. Sodium sulphite acts as a preservative

d. Developer solution is acidic

31. Which is the largest part of the brain? (+1, -0.33)

a. Thalamus

b. Cerebellum

c. Hypothalamus

d. Cerebrum

32. Characteristic radiation is produced when: (+1, -0.33)

a. Electrons are stopped at the cathode

b. A vacancy in an electron orbit is filled

c. A vacancy in the nucleus is filled

d. Electrons are stopped at the anode

33. The proximal row of carpal bones (moving from radial to ulnar) are the: (+1, -0.33)

a. Pisiform, lunate, triquetrum, and scaphoid

b. Scaphoid, triquetrum, lunate, and pisiform

c. Pisiform, triquetrum, scaphoid, and lunate

d. Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform

34. The general-purpose diagnostic X-ray tubes operated above 70 kVp (+1, -0.33)
must have a total filtration of:

a. At least 2.5 mm Al

b. At least 1.5 mm Al

c. At least 0.5 mm Al

d. At least 0.25 mm Al

35. What is the length of the alimentary canal in a human being? (+1, -0.33)

a. About 4-5 meters

b. About 2-3 meters

c. About 8-9 meters

d. About 10-12 meters

36. The largest papillae of the tongue are: (+1, -0.33)

a. Fungiform

b. Filiform

c. Circumvallate

d. None of the above

37. The interaction between ionizing radiation and the target molecule that is (+1, -0.33)
most likely to occur is the:
 a. Direct effect

b. Indirect effect

c. Target effect

d. Random effect

38. The tough membrane that covers bones is called: (+1, -0.33)

a. Cartilage

b. Ligament

c. Tendon

d. Periosteum

39. High-frequency generators have: (+1, -0.33)

a. High tube current with short exposure

b. More efficiency

c. Ripple factor is minimum

d. All of the above

40. Total absence of hydrochloric acid in the stomach is called: (+1, -0.33)

a. Hypochlorhydria

b. Hyperchlorhydria
 c. Achlorhydria

d. None of the above

41. Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the (+1, -0.33)
liver and kidneys?

a. Lateral abdomen

b. AP abdomen

c. Dorsal decubitus abdomen

d. Ventral decubitus abdomen

42. Pair production is important in which modality? (+1, -0.33)

a. CT

b. PET-scan

c. MRI

d. Ultrasound

43. What is the technical term for the kneecap? (+1, -0.33)

a. Tibia

b. Patella

c. Fibula

d. Femur
44. Microglial cells are found in: (+1, -0.33)

a. Kidney

b. Liver

c. Spleen

d. Brain

45. Biologic material is most sensitive to radiation exposure under which of (+1, -0.33)
the following conditions?

a. Deoxygenated

b. Oxygenated

c. Hypoxic

d. Anoxic

46. A patient comes with a local trauma, and we suspect a bone fracture. (+1, -0.33)
Which imaging test should we use?

a. CT

b. MRI

c. Angiography

d. X-ray

47. Currently commercially available ionic monomers include: (+1, -0.33)

 a. Iopamidol

b. Urografin

c. Iohexol

d. None

48. The largest sesamoid bone in the human body is the: (+1, -0.33)

a. Talus

b. Patella

c. Calcaneum

d. Navicular

49. Maximum absorption of bile occurs in the: (+1, -0.33)

a. Duodenum

b. Jejunum

c. Ileum

d. Colon

50. Film base: (+1, -0.33)

a. Must have a high opacity

b. Is constituted of gelatin
 c. Is chemically reactive

d. Provides support for the film emulsion

51. Bremsstrahlung produces an energy spectrum that is: (+1, -0.33)

a. Continuous

b. Discrete

c. Filtered

d. Kinetic

52. The linear attenuation coefficient of coherent scattering is directly (+1, -0.33)
proportional to the:

a. Square of energy

b. Square of atomic number

c. Half of atomic energy

d. Energy

53. A beta particle is most similar to which of the following particles? (+1, -0.33)

a. Proton

b. Helium nucleus

c. Photon

d. Electron
54. Which part of the brain controls higher mental activities like reasoning? (+1, -0.33)

a. Temporal lobe

b. Frontal lobe

c. Cerebellum

d. Medulla oblongata

55. Which term below refers to a depression in a bone? (+1, -0.33)

a. Tuberosity

b. Fossa

c. Condyle

d. Tubercle

56. Target materials used in mammography include all of the following (+1, -0.33)
except:

a. Tungsten

b. Copper

c. Molybdenum

d. Rhodium

57. The requirement of the ideal material for anode is: (+1, -0.33)
 a. High atomic number, so high conversion efficiency for electrons into
x-rays

b. High melting point

c. High specific heat and high thermal conductivity

d. All of the above

58. Which is the longest muscle in the body? (+1, -0.33)

a. Soleus

b. Gracilis

c. Trapezius

d. Sartorius

59. Which of the following bones is classified as an irregular bone? (+1, -0.33)

a. Rib

b. Vertebrae

c. Carpal

d. Phalanges

60. What is the primary function of the skeletal system? (+1, -0.33)

a. To regulate body temperature

b. To provide support and structure

 c. To produce hormones

d. To transport oxygen

61. What is the role of cilia in the respiratory system? (+1, -0.33)

a. Gas exchange

b. Mucus production

c. Filtration of air

d. Oxygen transport

62. Occupational radiation monitoring is required when it is possible that the (+1, -0.33)
individual might receive more than:

a. 5 mrem

b. 10 mrem

c. One-fourth the annual dose limit

d. One-tenth the annual dose limit

63. Blood is a type of: (+1, -0.33)

a. Epithelium tissue

b. Connective tissue

c. Nervous tissue

d. Muscular tissue
64. What is spatial resolution? (+1, -0.33)

a. Capacity to distinguish different densities

b. Capacity to distinguish fine details

c. Color of each pixel

d. Image processing algorithms

65. One Tesla is equal to how many Gausses? (+1, -0.33)

a. 100

b. 10

c. 10,000

d. 1000

66. The angle of tracheal bifurcation increases in the enlargement of the: (+1, -0.33)

a. Right ventricle

b. Left ventricle

c. Right atrium

d. Left atrium

67. The envelope in a modern x-ray vacuum tube is made of: (+1, -0.33)

a. Borosilicate glass envelope

 b. Metal envelope

c. Lead envelope

d. None

68. Which neurotransmitter deficiency is linked to conditions like Parkinson's (+1, -0.33)
disease?

a. Serotonin

b. Acetylcholine

c. Dopamine

d. None

69. The heartbeat originates from: (+1, -0.33)

a. Papillary muscles

b. SA node

c. AV node

d. Purkinje fibers

70. The Roentgen unit of measurement expresses: (+1, -0.33)

a. Absorbed dose

b. Exposure in air

c. Dose equivalent
d. Dose to biologic material
 General Awareness

71. India purchased Rafale Fighter Jets from (+1, -0.33)

a. Italy

b. France

c. England

d. Russia

72. Which agency is not under the Right to Information? (+1, -0.33)

a. Private utility companies

b. Central Bureau of Investigation

c. Police departments

d. Courts and judicial bodies

73. Chilka Lake which is the largest brackish water lake in India is located in (+1, -0.33)
which state?

a. Andhra Pradesh

b. West Bengal

c. Odisha

d. Chattisgarh
74. Provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection are mentioned (+1, -0.33)
under which schedule of the Indian constitution?

a. 12th schedule

b. 9th schedule

c. 11th schedule

d. 10th schedule

75. Which country is NOT a member of OPEC? (+1, -0.33)

a. Venezuela

b. Algeria

c. Nigeria

d. Kenya

76. The National Commission for Farmers, headed by whom, had suggested (+1, -0.33)
that the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for agricultural crops should be at
least 50% higher than the weighted average cost of production?

a. A.M. khusro

b. G.V. ramakrishna

c. M.S. Swaminathan

d. R.V. Gupta
77. The Congress objected to which among the following proposals of British (+1, -0.33)
India on the grounds that "it was an attempt to reduce the Congress to
the status of a purely caste Hindu party"?

a. Cripps Mission

b. Wavell Plan

c. August Offer

d. Cabinet Mission Plan

78. Which three Indian Ocean structures have been officially named as per (+1, -0.33)
the recent approval by International Hydrographic Organisation and
UNESCO’s IOC?

a. Akbar, Aurangzeb, and Tipu Sultan

b. Ashoka, Chandragupta, and Kalpataru

c. Krishna, Rama, and Arjuna

d. Gandhi, Nehru, and Patel

79. Who among the following is also known as Andhra Bhoj? (+1, -0.33)

a. Krishnadeva Raya

b. Rajendra Chola

c. Harihara

d. Bukka
80. Under which legislation is the National Medical Register (NMR) (+1, -0.33)
mandated?

a. The Medical Council Act, 1956

b. The National Medical Commission (NMC) Act, 2019

c. The Indian Medical Council Act, 1916

d. The Health and Education Act, 2020

 General Arithmetic, General Intelligence, and Reasoning

81. In a code language, FLUTE is written as 62105. What is the code for (+1, -0.33)
HARMONICA?

a. 918354931

b. 818254931

c. 818354931

d. 818354932

82. For what least value of * the number 648*458 is divisible by 11 ? (+1, -0.33)

a. 5

b. 6

c. 7

d. 9

83. A man travels 15 km towards the east, then turns right and travels 20 km. (+1, -0.33)
He then turns left and travels 30 km. Finally, he takes a right turn and
covers 40 km. The shortest distance between the starting point and the
destination is:

a. 50 km

b. 75 km

c. 100 km

d. 80 km
84. Find the next number in the following series. (+1, -0.33)

5, 18, 44, 83, ?

a. 135

b. 137

c. 127

d. 117

85. 12 units of air-conditioner totalling Rs. 6,48,816 what will be the (+1, -0.33)
approximate profit percentage if the cost per unit is Rs. 52,283.

a. 8.74%

b. 4.05%

c. 12.21%

d. 3.30%

86. A train travelling with a speed of 65 kmph passes a man travelling with a (+1, -0.33)
speed of 7 kmph in an opposite direction in 13s. What is the length of the
train?

a. 230 m

b. 260 m

c. 270 m

d. 280 m
87. The age of a mother 10 years ago was thrice the age of her son. 10 years (+1, -0.33)
hence, the mother’s age will be twice that of her son. The ratio of their
present ages is:

a. 12 : 5

b. 6 : 1

c. 7 : 3

d. 4 : 2

88. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the (+1, -0.33)
information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at
variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given
conclusion logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All laptop are computers.

Some computers are television.

No television is remote

Conclusions:

I. No computer are remote.

II. Some computer are remote.

a. Only conclusion II follows

b. Only conclusion I follows

c. Either conclusion I or II follows

 d. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

89. Which of the following options does NOT give the lengths of three sides of (+1, -0.33)
any triangle?

a. 12, 18, 25

b. 18, 23, 41

c. 7, 10, 12

d. 4, 7, 9

90. The sum of x 4– xy + 2y 2and –x 4+ xy + 2y 2is (+1, -0.33)

a. Monomial and polynomial in y

b. Binomial and Polynomial

c. Trinomial and polynomial

d. Monomial and polynomial in x

 General Science

91. The star that appears stationary and is the most shining in the night sky is: (+1, -0.33)

a. Taurus

b. Sirius

c. Orion

d. Pole star

92. Involuntary actions in human beings such as blood pressure, salivation (+1, -0.33)
and vomiting are controlled by the:

a. Pons

b. Hypothalamus

c. Medulla

d. Spinal cord

93. Which state of matter has minimum inter-molecular distance? (+1, -0.33)

a. Plasma

b. Gas

c. Liquid

d. Solid
94. If a net force of 5 N is constantly applied on 200 g box which is at rest, (+1, -0.33)
then how long will it take to raise its velocity to 50 m/s?

a. 4 sec

b. 6 sec

c. 10 sec

d. 2 sec

95. Pollen grains are produced by _______ (+1, -0.33)

a. filament

b. stigma

c. anther

d. ovary

96. If an agent does a work ‘W’ in time ‘t’, then the power is given by (+1, -0.33)
________.

a. W/t

b. t/W

c. W × t

d. W + t

97. 5 – 8% of acetic acid is called: (+1, -0.33)

 a. glacial acetic acid

b. vinegar

c. ester

d. ethanol

98. The Cells were first discovered by which of the following? (+1, -0.33)

a. Robert Hooke

b. Robert Brown

c. Sir Alexander Fleming

d. Louis Pasteur

99. Halophytes grow well in (+1, -0.33)

a. Acidic soils

b. Cold soils

c. Soils containing calcium

d. Saline soils

100. An object is placed in front of a convex mirror. What type of image will be (+1, -0.33)
formed?

a. Virtual, erect image of the same size as the object at the optical
center C
b. Virtual, erect, small image between pole and focus

c. Real, inverse, small image between optical center C and focus F

d. Virtual, erect, small image at focus F

 Answers

1. Answer: a

Explanation:

The first generation of CT scanners used a pencil beam of X-rays and a single
detector.

2. Answer: c

Explanation:

T1 is the time it takes for about 63% of the original longitudinal magnetization to be
recovered.

3. Answer: b

Explanation:

Most CO2 is transported in the blood as bicarbonate ions (HCO3-), formed through
the reaction of CO2 with water.

4. Answer: a

Explanation:

X-rays are used in CT scans to create detailed cross-sectional images of the body.
5. Answer: d

Explanation:

A special enema tube is used in barium enema procedures, not BD's, oesophageal, or
Ryle's tubes.

6. Answer: a

Explanation:

Green sensitive films have a stable sensitometric response, and their key advantages
include improved image quality and scratch resistance.

7. Answer: b

Explanation:

Low-frequency transducers are preferred for obese patients as they provide better
penetration, though with lower resolution.

8. Answer: b

Explanation:

Tomo in "Computed Tomography" refers to "slice," as CT creates cross-sectional

images (slices) of the body.
9. Answer: b

Explanation:

Photoelectric absorption enhances natural tissue contrast by increasing differences

in tissue density absorption.

10. Answer: a

Explanation:

X-rays in the range of 17 to 25 keV are most effective for enhancing differential
absorption and contrast in breast tissue.

11. Answer: d

Explanation:

Stratum lucidum is a clear layer of the epidermis found only on the palms of the
hands and soles of the feet.

12. Answer: d

Explanation:

Streak artifacts in CT scans are commonly caused by metal objects in the body,
which interfere with the X-ray beam.
13. Answer: c

Explanation:

The number of iodine atoms in a contrast agent affects both its osmolarity and
radiodensity, determining its effectiveness in imaging.

14. Answer: c

Explanation:

The central nervous system (CNS) syndrome requires the largest dose of radiation,
typically over 50 Gy, before effects such as confusion and seizures appear.

15. Answer: b

Explanation:

The smallest unit in the reconstruction of an MRI image is a voxel, which represents a
volume element.

16. Answer: d

Explanation:

The falciform ligament connects the anterior surface of the liver to the anterior
abdominal wall.
17. Answer: c

Explanation:

The filament emits electrons by thermionic emission, and space charge effect refers
to the collection of electrons around the filament.

18. Answer: a

Explanation:

Increasing the kilovoltage (kVp) increases the effective energy of the X-ray beam,
allowing for greater penetration.

19. Answer: b

Explanation:

Anaphylaxis is an acute allergic reaction caused by the ingestion or injection of a

sensitizing agent.

20. Answer: b

Explanation:

The OM (orbitomeatal) line is a standard reference line passing from the infraorbital
point to the upper border of the external auditory meatus.
21. Answer: b

Explanation:

In the dorsal decubitus position, the patient is lying on their back (dorsal), and the x-
ray beam is horizontal.

22. Answer: b

Explanation:

The hippocampus plays a crucial role in the formation of new memories.

23. Answer: c

Explanation:

The skeletal system is essential for storing calcium, which is important for bone
strength and various bodily functions.

24. Answer: b

Explanation:

The coronal suture connects the parietal bones to the frontal bone in the skull.

25. Answer: d

Explanation:
 A post-void image is helpful in demonstrating residual urine and prostate
enlargement after an IVP/IVU procedure.

26. Answer: a

Explanation:

Scoliosis refers to the abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column.

27. Answer: b

Explanation:

PET stands for Positron Emission Tomography, a type of imaging test used to
observe metabolic processes in the body.

28. Answer: b

Explanation:

Multi-slice CT scanners utilize slip ring technology, allowing continuous rotation of

the X-ray tube and faster scanning.

29. Answer: b

Explanation:

Slip ring technology in spiral CT allows continuous rotation of the gantry, enabling
faster and more efficient scanning.
30. Answer: d

Explanation:

Developer solution is alkaline, not acidic, to facilitate the reduction of silver halide
crystals to metallic silver.

31. Answer: d

Explanation:

The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain, responsible for sensory and motor
functions, as well as higher cognitive processes.

32. Answer: b

Explanation:

Characteristic radiation occurs when a vacancy in an electron orbit is filled,

releasing energy in the form of X-rays.

33. Answer: d

Explanation:

The correct order of carpal bones in the proximal row is scaphoid, lunate,
triquetrum, and pisiform (radial to ulnar).
34. Answer: a

Explanation:

X-ray tubes operating above 70 kVp must have at least 2.5 mm of aluminum
filtration to comply with safety standards.

35. Answer: d

Explanation:

The length of the alimentary canal is about 10-12 meters in adults.

36. Answer: c

Explanation:

Circumvallate papillae are the largest papillae of the tongue and are located at the
back of the tongue.

37. Answer: b

Explanation:

The indirect effect is the most likely interaction between ionizing radiation and
target molecules, often through water radiolysis.

38. Answer: d
 Explanation:

The periosteum is the tough membrane that covers the outer surface of bones,
providing protection and serving as an attachment site for muscles and tendons.

39. Answer: d

Explanation:

High-frequency generators are more efficient, provide high tube currents with short
exposures, and have a minimal ripple factor.

40. Answer: c

Explanation:

Achlorhydria is the medical condition characterized by the total absence of

hydrochloric acid in the stomach.

41. Answer: c

Explanation:

The dorsal decubitus abdomen position best demonstrates the size and shape of
the liver and kidneys.

42. Answer: b

Explanation:
 Pair production is important in PET (Positron Emission Tomography) scans, which
rely on positron interactions for imaging.

43. Answer: b

Explanation:

The technical term for the kneecap is the patella, which protects the knee joint and
aids in movement.

44. Answer: d

Explanation:

Microglial cells are found in the brain and are responsible for immune defense in
the central nervous system.

45. Answer: b

Explanation:

Oxygenated biologic material is more sensitive to radiation exposure due to the

oxygen enhancement effect.

46. Answer: d

Explanation:

X-rays are the first-line imaging technique for suspected bone fractures due to
their quick and effective detection of skeletal injuries.
47. Answer: b

Explanation:

Urografin is an ionic contrast agent commonly used in radiographic studies.

48. Answer: b

Explanation:

The patella (kneecap) is the largest sesamoid bone, which is embedded within the
tendon.

49. Answer: c

Explanation:

Maximum absorption of bile salts occurs in the ileum, the final part of the small
intestine.

50. Answer: d

Explanation:

The film base provides structural support for the film emulsion, which holds the
light-sensitive crystals.

51. Answer: a
 Explanation:

Bremsstrahlung radiation produces a continuous energy spectrum due to the

deceleration of electrons in the target material.

52. Answer: b

Explanation:

The linear attenuation coefficient of coherent scattering is directly proportional to

the square of the atomic number of the material.

53. Answer: d

Explanation:

A beta particle is essentially an electron (or positron) emitted from the nucleus
during radioactive decay.

54. Answer: b

Explanation:

The frontal lobe is responsible for higher mental activities, including reasoning,
planning, and decision-making.

55. Answer: b

Explanation:
 A fossa is a depression or hollow in a bone, often serving as a site for muscle
attachment or articulation.

56. Answer: b

Explanation:

Copper is not used as a target material in mammography; Molybdenum and

Rhodium are commonly used.

57. Answer: d

Explanation:

The ideal anode material has a high atomic number, high melting point, and good
thermal conductivity, all of which are met by tungsten.

58. Answer: d

Explanation:

The sartorius is the longest muscle in the human body, running along the length of
the thigh.

59. Answer: b

Explanation:

Vertebrae are classified as irregular bones due to their complex shape.

60. Answer: b

Explanation:

The primary function of the skeletal system is to provide support, structure, and
protection for the body's organs.

61. Answer: c

Explanation:

The role of cilia in the respiratory system is to filter the air by trapping dust and other
particles and moving them out of the airways.

62. Answer: d

Explanation:

Radiation monitoring is required when an individual may receive more than one-
tenth of the annual dose limit, which is 5 mSv (500 mrem).

63. Answer: b

Explanation:

Blood is considered a type of connective tissue because it consists of cells and a

fluid matrix (plasma).
64. Answer: b

Explanation:

Spatial resolution refers to the ability to distinguish fine details in an image.

65. Answer: c

Explanation:

One Tesla is equal to 10,000 Gausses, which are units used to measure magnetic
field strength.

66. Answer: d

Explanation:

Enlargement of the left atrium can cause the angle of tracheal bifurcation (carina)
to increase.

67. Answer: a

Explanation:

The envelope in modern x-ray tubes is typically made of borosilicate glass to

withstand high temperatures and vacuum conditions.

68. Answer: c
 Explanation:

A deficiency in dopamine is linked to Parkinson's disease, affecting motor control.

69. Answer: b

Explanation:

The sinoatrial (SA) node is the pacemaker of the heart, initiating the heartbeat.

70. Answer: b

Explanation:

The Roentgen is a unit of exposure, measuring ionization in the air caused by X-rays
or gamma rays.

71. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is France.

Important Points

India purchased Rafale Fighter Jets from France .

India had signed an agreement with France for the procurement of 36 Rafale
fighter jets at a cost of Rs. 59,000 crore in September 2016.
Dassault Aviation is the maker of aircraft.
IAF pilots are flying the new fighter jets for at least 1,500 hours in France as part
of the induction process into service.
The first squadron is expected to become operational by February 2021.
 All 36 jets are expected to arrive in India by September 2022.

Additional Information

Dassault Rafale Fighter Jets:

The Dassault Rafale is a French twin-engine, canard delta wing, multirole fighter
aircraf t.
Rafale was first produced in 1986 .
The Rafale can easily perform aerial reconnaissance, ground support , in-
depth strike, anti-ship strike, and nuclear deterrence missions.

72. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is the Central Bureau of Investigation.

Key Points

The Right to Information is a tool that every person in India can use to find out
information that can make their lives better.
India initiated the enactment of the Right to Information Act in the year 2005.
The RTI Act came into force on 12th October 2005.
There are only 2 schedules in RTI Act 2005.
Right to Information Act 2005 mandates timely response to citizen requests for
Government information.
It is an initiative taken by the Department of Personnel and Training, Ministry of
Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions.
The main object of the Right to Information Act is to empower the citizens,
promote transparency and accountability in the working of the Government,
contain corruption, and make our democracy work for the people in a real
sense.
Sweden is the first country to pass the Right to Information Act.

Important Points
 CBI derives power to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment
Act, 1946.
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the premier investigating police
agency in India
It functions under the superintendence of the Department of Personnel,
Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public Grievances , Government of India -
which falls under the prime minister’s office.
However for investigations of offenses under the Prevention of Corruption Act,
its superintendence vests with the Central Vigilance Commission.
The founder-director of the CBI was Shri D.P. Kohli.
He held office from 1st April 1963 to 31st May 1968.

73. Answer: c

Explanation:

The correct answer Odisha.

Key Points

Chilka Lake is located in Odisha.

It is a brackish water lagoon.
It is the largest lake in India.
Largest brackish water lagoon in Asia
Chilka is at the mouth of the Daya river.
One of the tentative UNESCO World Heritage sites in India.
Designated the first Indian wetland of international importance under the
Ramsar convention in 1981.
Only lake in India is included in ‘ Destination Flyways ’ by the United
Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO).

Additional Information

Important Lakes:
 Lakes State/UT

Vembanad Lake Kerala

Chilika Lake Odisha

Shivaji Sagar Lake Maharashtra

Indira Sagar lake Madhya Pradesh

Pangong Lake Ladakh

Pulicat Lake Andhra Pradesh

Sardar Sarovar Lake Gujarat

Nagarjuna Sagar Lake Telangana

Loktak Lake Manipur

Wular lake Jammu and Kashmir

74. Answer: d

Explanation:

The correct answer is the 10th schedule.

Key Points

10th schedule:-
It includes provisions relating to the disqualification of the members of
Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection.
This schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, also
known as the Anti-defection Law.
The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution is designed to prevent the evil or
mischief of political defections motivated by the lure of office or material
benefits or other similar considerations.
 It is intended to strengthen the fabric of Indian parliamentary
democracy by curbing unprincipled and unethical political defections.
Grounds for disqualification:-
If an elected member gives up his membership in a political party
voluntarily.
If he votes or abstains from voting in the House, contrary to any direction
issued by his political party.
If any member who is independently elected joins any party.
If any nominated member joins any political party after the end of 6
months.
The decision on disqualification questions on the ground of defection is
referred to the Speaker or the Chairman of the House, and his/her
decision is final.
All proceedings in relation to disqualification under this Schedule are
considered to be proceedings in Parliament or the Legislature of a state
as is the case.
Exceptions Under the Anti-Defection Law:-
In a situation where two-thirds of the legislators of a political party decide
to merge into another party, neither the members who decide to join nor
the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification.
Any person elected as chairman or speaker can resign from his party, and
rejoin the party if he demits that post.
Earlier, the law allowed parties to be split, but at present, this has been
outlawed.

Additional Information
 It deals with the state acts and regulations that deal with land
reforms and

abolition of the zamindari system. It also deals with the acts and
regulations of the Parliament dealing with other matters.

Ninth Note: 1st Amendment Act 1951 added the Ninth Schedule to protect
Schedule the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of
violation of fundamental rights.

However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in
this schedule after

April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review

It contains the provisions that specify the powers, authority, and

Eleventh responsibilities of Panchayats. It has 29 matters.
Schedule
Note: This schedule was added by the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992

It deals with the provisions that specify the powers, authority, and
Twelfth responsibilities of Municipalities. It has 18 matters.
Schedule
Note: This schedule was added by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992

75. Answer: d

Explanation:

The correct answer is Kenya.

Kenya is NOT a member of OPEC.

Key Points
 Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is an intergovernmental
organization(national sovereignty over natural resources).
It was founded on 14th September 1960 in Bagdad.
It is headquartered in Vienna, Austria( Austria not a member of OPEC
state).
Mission : Coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its member
countries and ensure the stabilization of oil markets.
To secure an efficient, economic, and regular supply of petroleum to
consumers, a steady income to producers, and a fair return on
capital for those investing in the petroleum industry.
Current OPEC members :Algeria , Angola, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Iran,
Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria , The Republic of Congo, Saudi Arabia,
Venezuela , United Arab Emirates.

76. Answer: c

Explanation:

The correct answer isM.S. Swaminathan.

Key Points

The Swaminathan Commission Report suggested that the government should

raise the MSP to at least 50% more than the weighted average cost of
production.
It is also known as the C2+ 50% formula.
It includes the input cost of capital and the rent on the land (called ‘C2’) to give
farmers 50% returns.
M.S. Swaminathan is also known as The Father of the Green Revolution in India.
He received the first World Food Prize in 1987 for the introduction of high-
yielding wheat and rice varieties to India’s farmers.

Additional Information

MSP(Minimum Support Price)

 Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the
Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp
fall in farm prices.
The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India
at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of
the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and
Prices (CACP).
Presently, the government announces minimum support prices for 23
crops.

77. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is Wavell Plan .

Key Points

The Conservative government in Britain led by Churchill was keen to reach a

solution to the constitutional question in India.
The viceroy, Lord Wavell was permitted to start negotiations with Indian
leaders.
Congress leaders were released from jails in June 1945.
The idea was to reconstruct the governor-general's executive council pending
the preparation of a new constitution .
For this purpose, a conference was convened by the viceroy, Lord Wavell, at
Shimla in June 1945.
This is referred to as the Shimla Conference and the recommendations of
this conference, Wavell plan.
Talks, however, stalled on the issue of the selection of Muslim representatives.
The Congress objected to the plan as " an attempt to reduce the
Congress to the status of a purely caste Hindu party and insisted on its
right to include members of all communities among its nominees ".Hence,
Option 2 is the correct answer.
 The League wanted all Muslim members to be League nominees because
it feared that since the aims of other minorities-depressed classes, Sikhs,
Christians, etc.-were the same as those of the Congress, this arrangement
would reduce the League to a one-third minority.
The League claimed some kind of veto in the council with decisions
opposed to Muslims needing a two-thirds majority for approval.

78. Answer: b

Explanation:

Why is the news?

“India’s Proposals for Undersea Structures Approved: Ashoka, Chandragupta, and

Kalpataru Named by International Hydrographic Organisation (IHO) and UNESCO’s
IOC”

The IHO and UNESCO’s IOC recently approved the names of three Indian Ocean
structures: Ashoka Seamount, Chandragupta Ridge, and Kalpataru Ridge. These
names were proposed following guidelines and reflect significant historical and
cultural figures.

79. Answer: a

Explanation:

The correct answer is Krishnadeva Raya.

Key Points

Krishnadeva Raya
Krishnadeva Raya was known by other names like 'Kannada Rajya Rama
Ramana', 'Andhra Bhoja', and 'Mooru Rayara Ganda'.
 He belonged to the Tuluva dynasty and was the emperor of the
Vijayanagar empire during 1509-1529.
He is considered the most powerful ruler of his dynasty and won many
battles by defeating the Sultans of Bijapur, Golconda, the Bahmani
Sultanate, and the Gajapatis of Odisha.
His last battle was the battle of Raichur fought in 1520 where he secured
the fortress of Raichur from Ismail Adil Shah of Bijapur.

Additional Information

Rajendra Chola
He belonged to the Chola dynasty of Tamil and was the son of Rajaraja
Chola I.
He assumed the throne in 1014 C.E and his reign lasted for 30 years.
He made his empire one of the most powerful maritime empires of India
by defeating the Ceylon king Mahinda V, western Chalukya king
Jayasimha II, and conquering the whole of Sri Lanka. He even extended
the influence of the Chola empire to the banks of the river Ganga in the
North.
He earned the titles like 'Mudikondan', 'Gangaikondan', 'Kadaramkondan',
and 'PanditaCholan'.
Harihara
Harihara I was the founder of the Sangama dynasty and Vijayanagar
empire and reigned during 1336-1356 CE.
His other names were Hakka and Vira Harihara I, and the Sangama
dynasty became the first dynasty to rule the Vijayanagar empire.
Bukka
He was the brother and successor of Harihara I of the Sangama dynasty.
He was also known as Bukka Raya I and reigned during 1356-1377 CE.
He was an able ruler and extended the empire up to Rameshwaram.

80. Answer: b

Explanation:
 Why in the news?

"Union Health Minister Launches National Medical Register (NMR) Portal to Enhance
Doctor Registration and Verification”

The National Medical Register (NMR) is mandated by the National Medical

Commission (NMC) Act, 2019. This legislation requires the establishment of a
comprehensive electronic database for licensed allopathic doctors, ensuring
accurate registration and verification through the Ethics and Medical Registration
Board (EMRB).

81. Answer: c

Explanation:

The logic followed here is that each alphabet is coded as second number of its
positional value.

F (06) → 6;

L (12) → 2;

U (21) → 1;

T (20) → 0;

E (05) → 5;

Similarly,

H (08) → 8;
 A (01) → 1;

R (18) → 8;

M (13) → 3;

O (15) → 5;

N (14) → 4;

I (09) → 9;

C (03) → 3;

A (013 → 1;

Hence, ‘HARMONICA’ is coded as ’818354931’

82. Answer: b

Explanation:

Concept used:

For a number to be divided by 11 the difference of the sum of digits in odd and even
places must be the multiple of either 11/0.

Calculation:

⇒ (6 + 8 + 4 + 8) - (4 + * + 5)

⇒ (26) - (9 + *)

⇒ 17 - *

And the above number must be multiple of 11,

∴ 17 - * = 11

⇒*=6
 ∴ The correct answer is 6.

83. Answer: b

Explanation:

The pattern followed here is:

1) A man travels 15 km towards the east.

2) T hen turns right and travels 20 km.

3) T hen turns left and travels 30 km.

4) Finally, he takes a right turn and covers 40 km.

Final direction arrangement.

⇒ (Perpendicular) 2 + (Base) 2 = (Hypotenuse) 2

⇒ (40 + 20) 2 + (15 + 30) 2 = (H) 2

⇒ (60) 2 + (45) 2 = (H) 2

⇒ √ 3600 + √ 2025 = √ 5625

⇒ (60) 2 + (45) 2 = (75) 2

The shortest distance is between starting point to ending point is 75.

 Hence, the correct answer is "75 km".

84. Answer: a

Explanation:

The logic followed here is:-

Hence, "option 1" is the correct answer.

85. Answer: d

Explanation:

Given:

Selling price of 12 units of air-conditioner totalling = Rs. 6,48,816

Cost price per unit = Rs. 52,283

Formula used:

Profit = SP – CP

Profit% = Profit/CP × 100

Calculation:
 According to the question

SP of 12 units of air-conditioner = Rs. 6,48,816

SP of 1 unit of air-conditioner = Rs. (6,48,816/12)

⇒ Rs. 54,068

Now,

Profit = Rs. (54,068 – 52,283)

⇒ Rs. 1785

Profit% = Rs. (1785/52,283 × 100)

⇒ Rs. 3.41% ~ 3.30%

∴ Required profit percentage is 3.30%

86. Answer: b

Explanation:

Given:

Speed of the train, S t = 65 km/hr

Speed of the man, S m = 7 km/hr

Concept used:

Speed = distance/time

The relative speed, with both, are moving in opposite direction = S t + S m

Calculation:

Relative speed = St + Sm = 65 + 7 = 72 km/hr

 Relative speed 72 × (5/18) m/s

Time taken by train to pass the man = 13 s

Length of the train = Relative speed × Time taken by train to pass the man = 20 × 13
= 260 m

∴ The length of the train is 260 m.

87. Answer: c

Explanation:

let age of her son 10 years ago was be x

So, age of mother 10 years ago = 3x

According to the question

(3x + 20)/(x + 20) = 2/1

3x + 20 = 2x + 40

3x - 2x = 40 - 20

x = 20

Age of her son 10 years ago was x = 20 years

Present age of her son = 20 + 10 = 30

Age of mother 10 years ago was = 3x = 3 × 20 = 60 years

Present age of mother = 60 + 10 = 70 years

Ratio of ages of mother to her son = 70 : 30 = 7 : 3

Hence, 7 : 3 is the correct answer.

88. Answer: c

Explanation:

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. No Computer are remote → Does not fo llow (As s ome computers are television ,
n o television is remote. So, no computer are remote is possible but not
definitely true)

II. Some Computer are remote → Does not follow ( As s ome computers are
television , n o television is remote. So some computer are remote is possible but
not definitely true)

∴ Here,

1. Elements i.e computers and remote are same in both the conclusions.
2. Both the conclusions are individually does not follow.
3. Conclusion I and II are complementary pair i.e one of the conclusion is
negative and one of the conclusion is positive.

Hence, the correct answer is " Either conclusion I or II follows".

Conditions of either or case

Additional Information

1. The elements should be same in both the conclusions

2. Both conclusions should possible but not definitely true.
3. One of the conclusion should be negative and one of the conclusion should
be positive i.e complimentary pair.
 4. Complimentary pairs :

some + no and all + some not

Some + Some not and All + no are not Complimentary pair.

89. Answer: b

Explanation:

Given:

Length of Triangle 1 = 12, 18, 25

Length of Triangle 2 = 18, 23, 41

Length of Triangle 3 = 7, 10, 12

Length of Triangle 4 = 4, 7, 9

Concept Used:

Sum of two sides of triangle > Third Side

Calculation:

⇒ For Triangle 1,

⇒ 12 + 18 = 30 > 25

⇒ This is a true condition for a triangle.

⇒ For triangle 2,

⇒ 18 + 23 = 41 
> 41

⇒ This is a false condition for a triangle.

⇒ For triangle 3,

⇒ 7 + 10 = 17 > 12
 ⇒ This is a true condition for a triangle.

⇒ For triangle 4,

⇒ 4 + 7 = 11 > 9

⇒ This is a true condition for a triangle.

Hence, the sides of Triangle 2 as 18, 23 and 41, cannot be the lengths of the sides of a
triangle.

90. Answer: a

Explanation:

Concept used:

Monomials have only 1 term.

Binomials have 2 terms

Trinomial have 3 terms

Polynomials have more than 2 terms.

Solution:

(x 4 – xy + 2y 2 ) + (–x 4 + xy + 2y 2) = 4y 2

4y 2 is only 1 term, it is a monomial.

Hence, the correct option is 1.

91. Answer: d

Explanation:
 The correct answer isPole star.

Key Points

The star that appears stationary and is the most shining in the night sky is the
Pole star .
Polaris, the North Star , appears stationary in the sky because it lies near the
axis of the Earth as projected into space.
It is therefore the only bright star that does not change position relative to the
rotating Earth.
All other stars below it appear to move in the opposite direction of the Earth's
rotation .

Additional Information

Taurus is the rigorous person of the Earth group , earning the stereotype of
being stubborn as well as down-to-earth and achievement-oriented.
Sirius , also known as Dog Star or Sirius , is the brightest star in Earth's night sky.
Orion is a famous constellation on the celestial equator and can be seen all
over the world.

92. Answer: c

Explanation:

The Involuntary actions like blood pressure, salivation and vomiting are
controlled by the Medulla.
Medulla oblongata , also called the medulla, is the lowest part of the brain and
the lowest portion of the brainstem .
The Medulla oblongata or simply medulla is a long stem-like structure which
makes up part of the brain.
It is anterior and partially inferior to the cerebellum.
It is a cone-shaped neuronal mass responsible for autonomic (involuntary)
functions ranging from vomiting to sneezing.

Key Points
 Hypothalamus lies above the Pituitary gland and below the Thalmus in Human
Brain

The brain is divided into three major parts:

( i) forebrain

(ii) midbrain

(iii) hindbrain

Forebrain It consists of the cerebrum , hypothalamus, and thalamus

It is located between the hypothalamus/thalamus of the forebrain and

Midbrain
pons of the hindbrain

It comprises pons, cerebellum and medulla (also called the medulla

Hindbrain
oblongata)

93. Answer: d
Explanation:

The correct answer is Solid.

Key Points

The intermolecular space is minimum in solids, compared to liquid and gas.

The order of force of intermolecular force of attraction is in the following
order: solid > liquid > gas.

Additional Information

Comparative study of solid, liquid, and gas:

SOLID LIQUID GAS

Highly Strong The intermolecular forces The intermolecular

intermolecular forces are stronger than gases but forces are practically
between the molecules. weaker than solids. non-existent.

Have a definite shape to Do not have a definite Do not have a definite

them. shape. shape.

The intermolecular
The intermolecular space The intermolecular space is
space is free-flowing
between solids is absent. moderate but present.
and large.

Liquids cannot be Gases can be

They are incompressible.
compressed. compressed.
94. Answer: d

Explanation:

The correct answer is 2 sec.

CONCEPT:

Force: The interaction which after applying on a body changes or try to change
the state of rest or state of motion of the body is called force.
In science, a push or pull is on an object is called force .
Actions like picking, hitting, kicking, opening, shutting, lifting, pushing, and
pulling are used to describe certain tasks.
These actions result in some of the other kinds of changes in the motion
of an object.
The motion which is imparted to objects is due to the action of a force.

Force (F) = Mass (m) × acceleration (a)

CALCULATION :

Given: Force applied = 5 N, Mass of box (m) = 200 g = 0.2 Kg, u = 0 (box at rest), v =
50 m/s

The acceleration on the box will be

⇒ a = F/m = 5/0.2 = 25 m/s 2

The total time taken raise its velocity to 50 m/s is

⇒ v = u + at

50−0
⇒t= v−u
a
​ = 25
​ = 2 sec

Therefore time taken is 2 seconds.

95. Answer: c

Explanation:

The correct answer is anther.

Important Points

The pollen grains represent the male gametophytes.

The transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of a flower is called
pollination.
Cross-pollination is defined as the deposition of pollen grains from a flower to
the stigma of another flower.

Additional Information

The male gametes are found inside the pollen grains and female gametes are
found in the ovule.
Pollen grains are generally spherical measuring about 25-50 micrometres in
diameter. It has a prominent two-layered wall. The hard outer layer called the
exine is made up of sporopollenin which is one of the most resistant organic
materials known.

96. Answer: a

Explanation:

CONCEPT:

Power (P) : The rate of work done is called power.

Work done is measured as the force on the body times the distance through
which that force is applied.

⇒ Work done (W) = Force (F) x Distance (s).

 ⇒ Power (P) = work done (W)/ Time taken.

⇒ Energy (E) = power (P) x time (t).

EXPLANATION:

Work done by an agent (W) is W

Time taken (t) is t
We know the formulae for power P = work /time
Now by substituting the above formula, we get

⇒ P = W/t

Power is given by W/t (W)watt.

97. Answer: b

Explanation:

The main constituent of vinegar is Acetic acid (CH3COOH), after adding 5-8%
of acetic acid in water it becomes vinegar.
Vinegar is acidic in nature having a pH around 2.5.
It is used as a food preservative and is also useful for medicinal uses,
household purposes, and in the food Industry.
When acetic acid is undiluted, it is sometimes called glacial acetic acid.

98. Answer: a

Explanation:

The correct answer is Robert Hooke.

Key Points

Cells were discovered in 1665 by Robert Hooke.

 In addition, Hooke enhanced the configuration of the pre-existing compound
microscope, which enlarged and illuminated specimens with the use of three
lenses and a stage light.
Under his invention, a British scientist examined cells in a slice of cork. After
noticing what appeared to be honeycomb-like compartments, Hooke gave
them the name "cells," which derives from the Latin word cellula, which means
"a hollow space".

Important Points

Robert Brown made the discovery of the cell nucleus.

The discovery of penicillin is credited to Scottish physician-scientist Alexander
Fleming.
Significant chemical discoveries were also made by Louis Pasteur, chief
among these being the understanding of the molecular causes of
racemization and the asymmetry of some crystals.

99. Answer: d

Explanation:

The correct answer is Saline soils.

Key Points

Halophytes grow well in saline soils.

The leaves in most of the halophytes are thick, entire, succulent, generally
small-sized, and are often glassy in appearance.
Some species are aphyllous.
Stems and leaves of coastal aero halophytes show additional modes of
adaptation to their habitats.
Their surfaces are densely covered with trichomes.
Halophytes are salt-tolerant plants that grow in waters with high salinity, such
as in mangrove swamps, marshes, seashores, and saline semi-deserts.
Halophytes are classified into aqua-halines, terrestrial-halines, and aero-
halines.
 As halophytes are salt extractors, they perform the key function of reducing soil
salinity and making the area more suitable for growing mangrove species.

Additional Information

In terms of agricultural use, saline soil is defined as one that inhibits the growth
of most crops because of the higher concentration of neutral soluble salts in it.
The salinity of the soil (and also of water) is measured by electrical
conductivity (EC), expressed in dS m−1 (DeciSiemens per meter).
Acid soils are those that have a pH value of less than 5.5 for most of the year.
They are associated with a number of toxicities (Aluminum) as well as
deficiencies (Molybdenum) and other plant restricting conditions. Many of the
acid soils belong to Acrisols, Alisols, Podzols, and Dystric subgroups of other
soils.
Cold soils generally refer to the soils formed in high latitudes and at high
altitudes, and they are identified based on vegetation belts by ecologists and
on soil temperature by soil scientists.

100. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is Virtual, erect, small image between pole and focus.

An object is placed in front of a convex mirror the virtual, erect, small image
between pole and focus will be formed.

Key Points

The convex mirror always forms an image that is smaller than the size of the
object.
When an object is placed in front of a convex mirror at a point between
infinity and the pole of the mirror.
The image formed is virtual and diminished.
A convex mirror always produces a virtual image of the object,
regardless of the distance between the object and the mirror.
 The size of the image is smaller than the object.
The image formed is upright (erect) and horizontally flipped.

Additional Information

Characteristics of Concave Mirrors

Light converges at a point when it strikes and reflects back from the
reflecting surface of the concave mirror.
Hence, it is also known as a converging mirror.
When the concave mirror is placed very close to the object, a magnified
and virtual image is obtained.
However, if we increase the distance between the object and the mirror
then the size of the image reduces and a real image is formed.
The image formed by the concave mirror can be small or large or can be
real or virtual.