Biotechnology Question
Biotechnology Question
1. The enzyme used in the polymerase chain 6. A host cell normally does not take up a
reaction is a : foreign DNA until it has been made competent
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase to do so. This is because:
(2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase 1. DNA is a hydrophilic molecule
(3) DNA dependent DNA polymerase 2. DNA is a very large molecule
(4) RNA dependent RNA polymerase 3. there are no receptors for DNA on the cell
membrane
2. Identify a character that is not desirable in a 4. DNA is an inert molecule
cloning vector:
1. an inactive promoter 7. Which statement regarding restriction
2. an origin of replication site endonucleases is NOT correct?
3. selectable markers such as genes for 1. They recognize a specific base sequence in
antibiotic resistance the DNA.
4. one or more unique restriction endonuclease 2. They are produced by bacterial cells as a
sites primitive immune system.
3. They digest DNA by removing nucleotides
3. A cloning vector has two antibiotic resistance from a free 3' end.
genes- for tetracycline and ampicillin. A foreign 4. They often generate stick ends.
DNA was inserted into the tetracycline gene.
Non-recombinants would survive on the 8. The technique not used for transformation of
medium containing : plant cells in recombinant procedures is:
1. ampicillin but not tetracycline 1. Biolistics
2. tetracycline but not ampicillin 2. Agrobacterium mediation
3. both tetracycline and ampicillin 3. Use of viruses
4. neither tetracycline nor ampicillin 4. Micro-injection
13. Which of the following restriction enzymes 18. How are transformants selected from
produces blunt ends? nontransformants?
(1) Sal I 1. Presence of more than one recognition site in
(2) Eco RV the vector DNA.
(3) Xho 2. Presence of alien DNA into the vector DNA
(4) Hind III results into insertional inactivation of
selectable marker.
3. Antibiotic resistance gene gets
14. The colonies of recombinant bacteria inactivated due to insertion of alien DNA.
appear white in contrast to blue colonies of 4. Both 2 and 3.
non-recombinant bacteria because of
(1) Non-recombinant bacteria containing β- 19. Plasmid vector in DNA recombinant
galactosidase technology means
(2) Insertional inactivation of α-galactosidase in 1. a virus that transfers gene to bacteria
non-recombinant bacteria 2. extra-chromosomal autonomously
(3) Insertional inactivation of β-galactosidase in replicating circular DNA
recombinant bacteria 3. sticky end of DNA
(4) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in 4. any fragment of DNA carrying desirable gene
recombinant bacteria
20. Biolistic (gene gun) is suitable for
1. disarming pathogen vectors
15. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a 2. transformation of plant cell
radioactive molecule is called 3. constructing recombinant DNA by joining
1. vector with vectors
2. selectable marker 4. DNA fingerprinting
3. plasmid
4. probe 21. A mixture containing DNA fragments, a, b, c
and d, with molecular weights of a+b = c, a > b
and d>c, was subjected to agarose gel
16. Electroporation procedure involves electrophoresis. The positions of these
1. fast passage of food through sieve pores in fragments from anode to cathode sides of the
phloem elements with the help of electric gel would be
stimulation (1) b, a, c, d
2. opening of stomatal pores during night by (2) a, b, c, d
artificial light (3) c, b, a, d
3. making transient pores in the cell membrane (4) b, a, d, c
to introduce gene constructs
4. purification of saline water with the help of a 22. pBR322, which is frequently used as a vector
membrane system. for cloning gene in E. coli is a/an
1. original bacterial plasmid
17. cDNA probes are copied from the 2. modified bacterial plasmid
messenger RNA molecules with the help of 3. viral genome
1. restriction enzymes 4. transposon
2. reverse transcriptase
3. DNA polymerase
4. adenosine deaminase.
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23. Go through the statements: 27. The names associated with construction of
A. During the processing of the prohormone first Recombinant DNA are
"proinsulin" into the mature "insulin", C-peptide a. Arber, Nathans, Smith
is removed from proinsulin. b. Annie Chang, Boyer, Berg, Cohen
B. In hydridoma technology, B-cells are fused c. Howard Temin, Brenner, Sharp
with myeloma cells. d. Tim Hunt, Hartwell, Nurse
C. Genetic engineering has been successfully
used for producing transgenic mice for testing 28. The restriction enzymes most commonly
safety of polio vaccine before use in humans. used in rDNA technology are
D. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are 1. Type 1 Restriction enzymes
high yield and resistance to bollworms. 2. Type II Restriction enzymes
E. An improved variety of transgenic basmati 3. Type III Restriction enzymes
rice gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A. 4. Type IV Restriction enzymes
F. Gray biotechnology' is referred to industrial
process. 29. A protein is not expressed properly in a
G. The polymerase chain reaction is a technique diseased tissue. To find out whether the defect
that is used for in vivo replication of DNA. is at the level of translation or post
How many statement(s) is wrong? translational modifications which techniques
(1) One would you use ?
(2) Two a. Southern blotting and South Western blotting
(2) Four b. Northern blotting and western blotting
(4) Six c. Western blotting and Eastern blotting
d. Southern and Northern blotting
24. Molecular probes used for identification of
recombinant clone carrying the desired DNA 30. Insertional inactivation of a gene helps in
insert can be: a. Identification of recombinant clones
A. Denatured double stranded DNA probes b. Identification of deletion mutants
B. doubles stranded RNA probes c. Identification of recombinant transformants
C. Protein probes d. Elimination of suppression mutants
D. Single stranded DNA probes.
(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) A, D
(4) A, B, C, D
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31. Look at the given hypothetical vector- 34. If one needs to derive a cDNA of human
insulin, which cells should be taken up for
extraction?
(1) Kanamycin resistance will select the 1. They self replicate within bacterial cells
transformants from non transformants while 2. Replicate freely outside bacterial cells
tetracycline resistance will select recombinant 3. Can be replicated in culture
transformants from non-recombinant 4. Can be replicated in laboratory using
(2) Tetracyclin resistance will select the enzymes
transformants from non transformants while
kanamycin resistance will select recombinant
transformants from non-recombinant
36. Why is a marker gene useful?
(3) Both will select only transformants.
1. It shows you whether the gene being added,
(4) Both will select only recombinants.
has been taken up or not.
2. It's a way of labelling which gene you want to
modify.
32. Insertional inactivation of the lac Z gene 3. It sticks with the striker gene.
forms- 4. It marks the position of r-DNA
(1) Blue recombinant colonies 37. The introduction of genes into plant cells
(2) Colourless recombinant colonies often makes use of
(3) Fluorescent green colonies a. Disarmed Agrobacterium vectors
(4) There is no relation between the lac Z gene b. disarmed retroviral vectors
and colour of the colony. c. Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium
c. Ri plasmid of Agrobacterium
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11. Which of the following represents a correct 15. Normal E. coil cells carry resistance against
palindromic sequence recognised by EcoRl? which of the following antibiotics?
(1) (1) Chloramphenicol
(2) Ampicillin
(2) (3) Tetracycline
↓ (4) None of these
5' − CCCGGG − 3'
16. Which of the following statements is correct
3' − GGGCCC − 5' in the context of observing DNA separated by
↑ agarose gel electrophoresis?
(3) (1) DNA can be seen in visible light
↓ (2) DNA can be seen without staining in visible
5' − GAAT T C − 3' light
(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen
3' − CT T AAG − 5' in visible light
↑ (4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen
(4) under exposure to UV light
↓
5' − AT GCCG − 3' 17. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA
molecules of different lengths are separated on
3' − T ACGGC − 5' the basis of their
↑ (1) Charge only
(2) Size only
(3) Charge to size ratio
12. Restriction in Restriction endonuclease (4) Both (1) & (3)
enzyme refers to
(1) cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by 18. Significance of treating bacterial cells with
the enzyme calcium chloride before transformation is to
(2) Cutting of DNA at specific position only facilitate
(3) Prevention of bacteriophage multiplication (1) Binding of DNA to the cell surface
in bacteria (2) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport
(4) Cutting each of the two strands of DNA at proteins
specific points in sugar phosphate backbone (3) Uptake of DNA by creating transient pores in
the bacterial cell wall
13. Which of the following steps is/are catalysed (4) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene
by Taq polymerase in a PCR?
(1) Denaturation of template DNA 19. Pure DNA precipitated by addition of chilled
(2) Annealing of primers to template DNA ethanol can be removed from solution by
(3) Extension of primer end on template DNA (1) Elution
(4) All of these (2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) Spooling
14. In case of Bam HI, H represents (4) PCR
(1) Genus
(2) Species 20. The optimum temperature for
(3) Name of scientist polymerisation in PCR is _____________ while the
(4) Strain enzyme responsible for the mentioned step can
tolerate temperatures upto __________. Select
the correct option according to the blanks.
(1) 95°C, 60°C
(2) 94°C, 95°C
(3) 72°C, 95°C
(4) 95°C, 72°C
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21. Stirrer in stirred tank type bioreactor 27. The correct order of steps in Polymerase
facilitates Chain Reation (PCR) is
(1) Oxygen delively from outside to inside (1) Extension Denaturation, Annealing
(2) Mixing and aeration (2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(3) Temperature control (3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(4) Foam control (4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
22. Separation and purification by filtration, 28. A gene whose expression helps to identify
centrifugation of desired compound produced transformed cell is known as
in bioreactor is a part of (1) Selectable marker
(1) Downstream processing only (2) Vector
(2) Scaling up and downstream processing (3) Plasmid
(3) Upstream processing (4) Structural gene
(4) Screening for recombinants and
downstream processing 29. What is the criterion for DNA fragments
movement on agarose gel during gel
23. Each restriction endonuclease functions by electrophoresis?
inspecting the length of DNA sequence. It (1) The larger the fragment size, the farther it
cleaves _______________. moves
(1) Only the master strand to produce sticky (2) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it
end moves
(2) Sense strand of DNA to produce sticky ends (3) Positively charged fragments move to
(3) Each of the two strands of the double helix farther end
at specific points in their sugar phosphate (4) Negatively charged fragments do not move
backbones
(4) Messenger RNA to remove exons 30. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same
restriction endonuclease can be joined to form
24. A set of bacterial clones, each containing a a recombinant plasmid using
plasmid or phage, is called (1) Eco RI
(1) Gene library (2) Taq polymerase
(2) Gene pool (3) Polymerase III
(3) Genophore (4) Ligase
(4) Genome
31. Which of the following is not a component
25. Select the option that excludes of downstream processing?
characteristics applicable to plasmids (1) Separation
(a) Circular DNA (2) Purification
(b) Linear DNA (3) Preservation
(c) Present in all bacteria (4) Expression
(d) Contain essential genes
(e) Extra chromosomal self-replicating 32. Which of the following restriction enzymes
(1) b & d only produces blunt ends?
(2) b, c & d only (1) sal I
(3) d b, e & c only (2) Eco RV
(4) a only (3) Xho I
(4) Hind III
26. PCR is used for
(1) Reversing transcribing RNA into DNA
(2) Digesting DNA
(3) Amplifying DNA
(4) Amplifying proteins and separating DNA
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33. Which vector can clone only a small 37. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C)
fragment of DNA? of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the
(1) Bacterial artificial chromosome option giving correct identification together
(2) Yeast artificial chromosome with what it represents?
(3) Plasmid
(4) Cosmid
36. The figure below is the diagrammatic 39. Production of a human protein in bacteria
representation of the E.coli vector pBR 322. by genetic engineering is possible because
Which one of the given options correctly (1) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing
identifies its certain component(s)? reactions
(2) The human chromosome can replicate in
bacterial cell
(3) The mechanism of gene regulation is
identical in humans and bacteria
(4) The genetic code is universal
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41. All the following statements about stanley 46. What would happen if a recombinant DNA
Cohen and Herbert Boyer are correct but one is is inserted within the coding sequence of an
wrong. Which one is wrong? enzyme, β−galactosidase?
(1) They discovered recombinant DNA (r-DNA) (1) This will result in the inactivation of the
technology which marked the birth of modern enzyme
biotechnology. (2) The presence of chromogenic substrate will
(2) They first produced, healthy sheep clone, a give blue coloured colonies
Finn Dorset lamb, Dolly, form the differentiated (3) The recombinant colonies do not produce
adult mammary cells. any colour
(3) They invented genetic engineering by (4) Both (1) & (3) are correct
combining a piece of foreign DNA containing a
gene from a bacterium with a bacterial (E.coli)
47. You suspect your patient to be suffering
plasmid using the enzyme restriction
from a bacterial disease, however the number
endonuclease. of bacteria in the patient's body is very less.
(4) They isolated the antibiotic resistance gene
which method can help you detect these
by cutting out a piece of DNA from a plasmid
pathogens in the laboratory?
which was responsible for conferring antibiotic
(1) Hybridoma technology
resistance. (2) PCR
(3) Somatic hybridization
42. Extraction of bands of DNA from the (4) DNA fingerprinting
agarose gel is temed as
(1) Down stream processing 48. cDNA is
(2) Upstream processing (1) Formed by reverse transcriptase
(3) Elution (2) Cloned DNA
(4) Insertional inactivation (3) Circular DNA
(4) Recombinant DNA
43. In plant biotechnology, PEG is used in
(1) Protoplast isolation 49. A: Restriction enzymes belong to a larger
(2) Cell culture preparation class of enzymes called nucleases.
(3) Protoplast fusion R: Each restriction enzyme recognises a specific
(4) Hardening palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
44. Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a 50. A: Taq Polymerase is involved in PCR
little away from the centre of the palindromic technique.
site, but between the same two bases on the R: This enzyme remain active during the high
opposite single stranded strands, these temperature including denaturation of double
overhanging stretches formed on each strand stranded DNA.
are called __________.
(1) Blunt ends 51. A: Pst I generates single stranded over
(2) Sticky ends hanging stretches in DNA after digestion that
(3) Staggered end facilitate ligation.
(4) Both (2) & (3) R: These short extensions can form
phosphodiester bonds with their
45. Which of the following is considered as complementary counterparts.
molecular glue?
(1) Alkaline phosphatase
(2) Restriction endonuclease
(3) DNA ligase
(4) DNA polymerase
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Biotechnology : Principles and Processes (18 Dec) - Live
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11. The mechanism of intake of DNA fragments 18. A plasmid has two antibiotic - resistance
from the surrounding medium by a cell is genes, one for ampicillin and one for
called tetracycline. It is treated with a restriction
(1) Transformation enzyme that cuts in the middle of the ampicillin
(2) Transduction gene. DNA fragments containing a haemoglobin
(3) Both (1) and (2) gene were cut with the same enzyme. The
(4) Conjugation plasmids and fragments are mixed, treated
with ligase and used to transform bacterial
12. The PCR technique was developed by cells. Host cells that have taken up the
(1) Kary Mullis recombinant DNA are the one that
(2) Kohler (1) Are blue and can grow on plates with
(3) Milstein antibiotics
(4) Altman (2) Can grow on plates with ampicillin but not
with tetracyline
13. The process of binding primer to the (3) Can grow on plates with tetracycline but not
denatured strand is called with ampicillin
(1) Denaturation (4) Cannot grow with any antibiotics
(2) Annealing
(3) Melting 19. A thermostable DNA polymerase is isolated
(4) Electroporation from
(1) E. coil
14. A plasmid vector should have which of the (2) Salmonella
following properties? (3) Thermus coccus
(i) MCs (4) Thermus aquaticus
(ii) Multiple Ori
(iii) Small Size 20. Complete the analogy:
(iv) Selectable markers Molecular scissor : Restriction endonuclease : :
(1) (i), (ii) & (iii) Molecular glue : X
(2) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (1) Alkaline phosphatase
(3) (i), (ii) & (iv) (2) Acid phosphatase
(4) (i), (iii) & (iv) (3) Taq polymerase
(4) DNA ligase
15. Taq polymerase is used in PCR because of its
(1) Low thermal stability 21. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a
(2) High fidelity generic trait carried in the bacterial
(3) High speed (1) Intron
(4) High thermal stability (2) Chromosome
(3) Plasmid
16. Which of the restriction enzymes are (4) Centromere
commonly used in rDNA technology?
(1) Type I 22. The vector used to produce Humulin was
(2) Type II (1) Cosmid
(3) Type III (2) Plasmid pBR322
(4) Type IV (3) Ti plasmid
(4) Escherichia coli
17. In a PCR, which of the following
components is not required?
(1) Nucleotide precursors
(2) A primer containing 3' - OH
(3) DNA helicase to separate the strands
(4) DNA polymerase to catalyse the reaction
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Biotechnology : Principles and Processes (18 Dec) - Live
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23. To prevent self-ligation of vector DNA and 28. Mark the statement that is incorrect for the
to increase the frequency of production of enzyme(s) involved in biotechnology
recombinant DNA technology which enzyme is (1) Lysozymes are used to dissolve the bacterial
used? cell walls
(1) Reverse transcriptase (2) DNA ligase completes the DNA backbone by
(2) Alkaline phosphatases forming covalent bonds
(3) Restriction endonuclease (3) Restriction enzymes and DNA ligase can be
(4) Acid phosphatases used together to join lengths of DNA from
different sources
24. Animal biotechnoloy involves (4) DNA polymerases help in synthesis of
(1) Production of valuable products in animals complementary DNA and reverse transcriptase
using rDNA technology helps in in-vitro synthesis of DNA
(2) Rapid multiplication of animals of desired
genotypes 29. A good vector is one
(3) Alteration of genes to make the animal more (1) That makes transformation process complex
desirable (2) That maintains its individuality in host cell
(4) All of these (3) That is easy to isolated and to purify
(4) Generates few copies of host DNA
25. Recombinant proteins are
(1) Proteins synthesized in animals 30. A. DNA fragments can be separated on the
(2) Proteins synthesized by transgene in basis of their sizes.
heterologous host cell by rDNA technology R. Gel electrophoresis technique does not
(3) Proteins synthesized in cells that are depend on the charge on DNA fragments.
produced by protoplast fusion (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(4) Proteins synthesized in mutated cell lines reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
26. A bacterial cell is transformed by using any (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
of the following methods, except reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) Heat shock method assertion.
(2) Electroporation (3) Assertion is true statement be Reason is
(3) Biolistics false.
(4) Via bacteriophage (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements.
27. The role of ethidium bromide in gel
electrophoresis is that 31. DNA fragment can be joined together (end
(1) It induces a negative charge on all DNA to end) using DNA ligases when they have been
strands (1) Cut by the same restriction enzyme
(2) It makes DNA strands visible as orange (2) Cut by the different restriction enzyme
coloured strips (3) Treated by alkaline phosphatase
(3) It ensures separation of DNA strands on the (4) Combined with plasmid components
basis of charge and mass
(4) It removes the gel associated with DNA 32. Small oligonucleotides capable of
strands recognizing complementary sequence are
known as
(1) cDNA
(2) Hybridoma
(3) Repetitive DNA
(4) Molecular probe
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Biotechnology : Principles and Processes (18 Dec) - Live
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33. When a typical restriction enzyme cuts a 38. Yeast have been extensively used for the
DNA molecule, it leaves single stranded functional expression of genes because these
portions get the ends. These overhanging offer several advantages except
stretches are called sticky ends on each strand. (1) They are simple eukaryotic organism
They are so named because (2) Genetically well characterized
(1) They serve as the starting points for DNA (3) Grown readily in both small culture vessel
replication and large scale bio-reactors
(2) They enable the researchers to use the (4) Chitinous cell wall
fragments as molecular probes
(3) They form hydrogen bonds with their 39. Molecular scissors cut specific pallindromic
complementary cut counter parts sequences except
(4) The ends are called as chemical scapels (1) DNA sequences
(2) Methylated DNA sequences
34. The construction of the first artificial (3) Between phosphate and sugar in DNA only
recombinant DNA emerged from the possibility (4) Both (1) & (2)
of linking a gene encoding antibiotic resistance
with a native plasmid of 40. Restriction endonucleases are the most
(1) Escherichia coli widely used in recombinant DNA technology.
(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens They are obtained from
(3) Salmonella typhimurium (a) Bacteriophage
(4) Bacillus amyloliquefaciens (b) Bacterial cells
(c) Plasmids
35. If the bacterial colonies do not produce any (d) All prokaryotic cells
colour. In the presence of chromogenic (1) (a) only
substance it confirms (2) (a) and (b)
(a) Insertional inactivation of β galactosidase (3) (b) only
enzyme (4) (b) and (d)
(b) Recombinant
(c) Activation of β galactosidase enzyme 41. Refer to this sketch of a gel with four
(d) Non-recombinants samples of DNA. Which well contained DNA
Mark the correct choice that did not undergo restriction digestion and
(1) (a) & (b) which lane contains the smallest piece of DNA?
(2) (c) & (d)
(3) (a) & (c)
(4) (a) & (d)
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Biotechnology : Principles and Processes (18 Dec) - Live
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42. A virus with ssDNA is discovered. Its DNA is 47. What is the sequence of steps in PCR?
amplified by running 10 cycles of PCR. How (1) Amplification, insertion, polymerisation
many dsDNA strands will be formed at the end? (2) Denaturation, annealing, chain elongation
(1) 10 (3) Annealing, chain termination, denaturation
(2) 512 (4) Annealing, amplification, polymerisations
(3) 1024
(4) 1023 48. Which of following method is unrelated to
downstream processing steps?
43. Which of the following are critical research (1) Centrifugation
areas of biotechnology? (2) Fermentation
(1) Providing the best catalyst in the form of (3) Chromatography
improved organism usually a microbe or pure (4) Distillation
enzyme
(2) Creating optimal conditions through 49. Which restriction enzymes are used for
engineering for a catalyst to act selectable marker tetR on pBR 322?
(3) Downstream processing technologies (1) Pvu I, Pst I
(4) All of these (2) Pvu I, BamHI
(3) Sal I, BamHI
44. If the recombinants grow in ampicillin (4) Pst I, Sal I
containing medium and not on that containing
tetracycline. It means that foreign DNA is 50. The 'sticky ends' of the DNA can be paired a
inserted in joined by
(1) Site of origin of replication (1) Methylase
(2) Rop site (2) Ligase
(3) Tetracycline selective marker site (3) X-gal
(4) Ampicillin selective marker site (4) Alkaline phosphatase
45. In order to force bacteria to take up the 51. Genetic engineering has been used to do all
plasmid, the bacterial cells must first be made of the following except
competent to take up DNA. This is done by (1) Make plants more resistant to frost
treating them with specific. (2) Make plants more resistant to diseases
(1) Concentration of divalent cation such as (3) Improve the nutritional balance of plants
calcium (4) All of these are correct
(2) Incubating cell on ice, heat shock and back
on ice 52. Transgenic bacteria have been developed
(3) Low concentration of monovalent ions and are used for achieving all the following
followed by increase in temperature except
(4) Both (1) & (2) (1) Production of insulin
(2) Production of human growth hormone
46. As the DNA is enclosed within the (3) Clearing oil slicks in oceans
membrane so the membrane has to be broken (4) To test the safety of polio vaccine
to release DNA along with other
macromolecules. It can be achieved by treating 53. Restriction endonuclease generated DNA
plant cell by fragments separated by gel electrophoresis and
(1) Lysozyme blot transferred onto a membrane filter are
(2) Lipases probed with radioactive DNA fragment. This
(3) Chitinase procedure is called
(4) Cellulase (1) Gene cloning
(2) The southern technique
(3) Gene mapping
(4) PCR
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Super Live Session: Unit 9 - Biotechnology
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8. A gene of interest is inserted into the lac Z 12. The Ti plasmid, used in transformation of
gene in a plasmid also containing a plant cells, is found in:
tetracycline-resistant gene. If the transformed Agrobacterium
bacteria are plated on a medium containing 1. 2. Escherichia coli
tumefaciens
tetracycline and X-gal, the recombinant Xanthomonas
plasmids will be shown as: 3. Bacillus thuringiensis 4.
citri
1. a colony which did not grow on the
tetracycline plates
2. a white colony on the tetracycline plates 13. Which of the following can be used to
3. a blue colony on the tetracycline plates induce competence for getting a bacterial cell
4. a black colony on the tetracycline plates transformed during rDNA procedures?
1. A divalent cation 2. Ethidium bromide
9. DNA fragments resulting from restriction
enzyme digestion are moved through agar gel 3. Polyethylene glycol 4. Anionic proteins
during electrophoresis. Which of the following
modifications to the fragments will not affect
the rate of their movement? 14. In microinjection, the rDNA :
1. Neutralizing the negative charge coats the micropellets and is used in
1.
2. Increasing length biolistics to transform plant cells
3. Changing the base composition is directly injected into the cytoplasm of a
2.
4. Decreasing length plant or an animal cell
is delivered in the vicinity of the plasma
10. If we are able to link an alien piece of DNA 3. membrane of the cell (to be transformed)
with bacteriophage or plasmid DNA, we can is directly injected into the nucleus of an
multiply its number: 4.
animal cell
more than the number of copy number of
1. bacteriophages in the cells and equal to the
copy number of plasmid in the cell. 15. To isolate DNA in pure form from a
equal to the number of copy number of bacterial cell, it should initially be treated with:
2. bacteriophages in the cells and equal to the Proteases and RNase but not
copy number of plasmid in the cell. 1. 2. Lysozyme
DNase
equal to the number of copy number of DNA
3. bacteriophages in the cells and less than the 3. Restriction endonuclease 4.
ligase
copy number of plasmid in the cell.
less than the number of copy number of
4. bacteriophages in the cells and more than 16. The enzyme used for DNA amplification in
the copy number of plasmid in the cell. PCR procedures is:
1. Polynucleotide phosphorylase
2. Reverse transcriptase
11. Restriction enzymes do not act on the DNA 3. Taq polymerase
of the Host cell in which they are produced 4. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
because:
1. Host DNA is packed into chromosomes 17. The downstream processing stage of rDNA
Restriction enzymes are ineffective on host does not involve:
2.
DNA 1. Biosynthesis 2. Separation
Host DNA does not have the restriction site 3. Purification 4. Preservation
3.
for the Restriction enzymes
4. Restriction site of host DNA is methylated
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Super Live Session: Unit 9 - Biotechnology
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
18. Consider the two statements: 22. Gene therapy for ADA deficiency has been
Use of genetically modified crops can be a tried with the help of which of the following
possible solution for minimizing the use of vectors?
I:
chemicals and fertilizers that are 1. Microinjection 2. Liposome
detrimental for the environment. 3. A bacterium 4. A retrovirus
Genetically modified crops do not require
II:
any fertilizers.
23. ELISA is based on the principle of:
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I. Complementary base pairing between
1.
Both I and II are correct but II does not nucleic acid strands
2.
explain I. 2. Antigen-antibody interaction
3. I is correct but II is incorrect. Movement of different proteins under an
3.
4. Both I and II are incorrect. electric field
4. Amplification of DNA in a sample
Page: 3
Super Live Session: Unit 9 - Biotechnology
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
28. Recombinant therapeutic [used for 33. A procedure for identifying specific
treatment] products are available for all the sequences of DNA, in which fragments
following disorders except: separated on a gel are transferred directly to a
1. Hemophilia A second medium on which assay by
2. Pituitary dwarfism hybridization may be carried out is called as:
3. Diabetes insipidus 1. Radioassay
4. Anemia due to renal failure 2. Gel electrophoresis
3. Ultracentrifugation
29. Plants genetically engineered to make them 4. Southern blot
resistant to glyphosate was an important
achievement because: 34. A tract of repetitive DNA in which certain
1. glyphosate promotes frost damage DNA motifs (ranging in length from 10–60 base
glyphosate encourages the production of pairs) are typically repeated 5-50 times is
2. called:
fruit that is lower in protein
glyphosate is the active ingredient in 1. Satellite chromosome 2. Satellite DNA
3. 3. Minisatellite 4. Microsatellite
herbicides
glyphosate prevents the transfer of genes
4.
into the plants
35. A circular plasmid of 10000 bp is digested
with two restriction enzymes A and B, to
30. Production of transgenic plants is easier produce 3000 bp and 2000 bp bands when
than the production of transgenic animals visualized on an agarose gel. When digested
mainly because: with one enzyme at a time, only one band is
visible at 5000 bp. If the first site for enzyme A
1. Plant cells can grow in cell culture.
[A1] is present at the 100th base, the order in
Plant cells have a lower number of which the remaining sites [A2, B1 and B2] are
2.
potentially lethal genes. present is:
3. Plant cells are totipotent. 1. 5100, 3100, 8100 2. 3100, 5100, 8100
4. Plants do have cancers. 3. 8100, 5100, 3100 4. 8100, 3100, 5100
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