10-01-2025

9610WMD80100824R016 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Eight equal drops of water each of radius r = 2 mm are falling through air with a terminal velocity
of 16 cm/s. The eight drops combine to form a big drop. The terminal velocity of the bigger drop will
be :

(1) 16 cm/s
(2) 32 cm/s
(3) 64 cm/s
(4) 30 cm/s

2) The given plot shows the variation of U, the potential energy of interaction between two particles

with the distance separating them given as r. (i) B and D are

equilibrium points
(ii) C is a point of stable equilibrium
(iii) The force of interaction between the two particles is attractive between points C and D and
repulsive between D and E
(iv) The force of interaction between particles is repulsive between points E and F.
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iii)

3) In semiconductor the concentrations of electrons and holes are 8 × 1018/m3 and 5 × 1018/m
respectively. If the mobilities of electrons and holes are 2.3 m2/volt-s and 0.01 m2/volt-s respectively,
then semiconductor is :-

(1) N-type and its resistivity is 0.34 ohm-metre

(2) P-type and its resistivity is 0.034 ohm-metre
(3) N-type and its resistivity is 0.034 ohm-metre
(4) P-type and its resistivity is 3.40 ohm-metre

4) A straight beam of cathode rays travelling with a speed of 5 × 106 ms–1 enters perpendicularly to a
region of mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields and emerge undeviated from this
region. If magnitude of magnetic field is 0.02T, the magnitude of the electric field is

(1) 105 Vm–1

(2)
(3)
(4)

5) The breaking stress for a substance is 2 × 106 N/m2. What length of the wire of this substance
should be suspended vertically so that the wire breaks under its own weight? (Given : density of
material of the wire = 2 × 103 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 40 m
(2) 45 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 43 m

6) 50 gram of ice at 0°C is mixed with 50 gram of water at 60°C, final temperature of mixture will be
:-

(1) 0°C
(2) 40°C
(3) 10°C
(4) 15°C

7) The resultant capacitance between A and B in the figure is :

(1) 1µF
(2) 10 µF
(3) 50 µF
(4) 1.5 µF

8) In the given diagram, the tension in string C is nearly :- (Wall is vertical and ceiling is horizontal.)
(1) 100 N
(2) 70.7 N
(3) 141 N
(4) 200 N

9) Assertion : A player lowers his hands while catching a cricket ball to reduce the force between
ball and hand.
Reason : Lowering hands increases the time of catch.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

10) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 then average
speed is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Find out electric field intensity between non-conducting plates with surface charge
densities of plates as shown in diagram.

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)
12) An intense stream of water of cross-sectional area A strikes a wall at an angle θ with the normal
to the wall and returns back elastically. If the density of water is ρ and its velocity is ν. then the
force exterted in the wall will be

(1) 2 Aνρ cos θ

(2) 2Aν2 ρ cos θ
(3) 2 An2ρ
(4) 2aνρ

13) A particle is projected vertically up from the top of a tower with velocity 10 m/s. It reaches the
ground in 5s. Find height of tower. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 70 m
(2) 75 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 85 m

14) The moment of inertia of a uniform solid sphere (radius 2R), about its diameter is I. Four such
spheres are arranged as shown in figure. Find the moment of inertia of the system about the axis

XX'.-

(1) 12 I
(2) 9 I
(3) 7 I
(4) 4 I

15) A string 2.0 m long and fixed at its both ends is driven by a 240 Hz vibrator. The string vibrates
in its third harmonic mode. The speed of the wave and its fundamental frequency is :–

(1) 320 m/s, 120 Hz

(2) 180 m/s, 80 Hz
(3) 180 m/s, 120 Hz
(4) 320 m/s, 80 Hz

16) In an EM wave moving in air, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.5 × 1010
Hz and amplitude . The amplitude of oscillating magnetic field will be

(1) 1.52 × 10–8 Wb/m2

(2) 1.52 × 10–7 Wb/m2
(3) 1.6 × 10–6 Wb/m2
(4) 1.6 × 10–7 Wb/m2

17) The height above the surface of the earth where acceleration due to gravity is of its value at
surface of the earth is approximately -
[Earth radius = 6400 km]

(1) 45 × 106 m
(2) 54 × 106 m
(3) 102 × 106 m
(4) 72 × 106 m

18) On increasing the temperature of a conductor, the product of its resistivity and conductivity will
...........

(1) increase
(2) decrease
(3) remain constant
(4) may increase of decrease

19) The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is nine times of that of steel. In the composite
cylindrical bar shown in figure, what will be the temperature at the junction of copper and steel ?

(1) 75°C
(2) 67°C
(3) 33°C
(4) 25°C

20) A steel rod of length 1m is heated from 25ºC to 75ºC keeping its length constant. The
longitudinal strain developed in the rod is
(Given : Coefficient of linear expansion of steel = 12 × 10–6/ºC) :-

(1) 6 × 10–6
(2) 6 × 10–5
(3) 6 × 10–4
(4) Zero
21) A spring of force constant k is cut in two parts at its one third length. When both the parts are
stretched by same amount. The work done in the two parts, will be :-

(1) equal in both

(2) equal in both
(3) greater for the shorter part
(4) data insufficient.

22) In a circuit, a coil of resistance is 2 , magnetic flux linked with coil changes from 2.0Wb to
10.0Wb in 0.2 sec. The charge flow in the coil during this time is :–

(1) 5.0 C
(2) 4.0 C
(3) 1.0 C
(4) 0.8 C

23) If a uniform solid sphere is rolling, without slipping then the ratio of its rotational kinetic energy
to the total kinetic energy is:

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 5
(3) 2 : 7
(4) 5 : 7

24) In a string, transverse wave speed is 100 m/s, frequency is 500 Hz and amplitude is 2 × 10–2 m.
Its displacement (Y) equation may be :-

Y = 2 × 10–2 sin
(1)

(2) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (1000πt – 10πx)

(3) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (500πt – πx)
(4) Y = 2 × 10–2 sin (200πt – 10πx)

25) P-V graph for an ideal gas undergoing polytropic process PVm = constant is shown here. Find the

approximate value of m :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The diameter of the ball is measured with a screw gauge, whose pitch is 0.5 mm and there are
50 divisions on the circular scale. The reading on the main scale is 2.5 mm and that on the circular
scale is 20 divisions. Then diameter of ball is :

(1) 2.60 mm
(2) 2.50 mm
(3) 2.70 mm
(4) 2.80 mm

27) The gas in a vessel is subjected to a pressure of 20 atmosphere at a temperature 27°C. The
pressure of the gas in a vessel after one half of the gas is released from the vessel and the
temperature of the remainder is raised to 77°C is

(1) 8.5 atmosphere

(2) 10.8 atmosphere
(3) 11.7 atmosphere
(4) 17 atmosphere

28) Two trains, each 50 m long, are travelling in opposite directions with velocity 10 m/s and 15 m/s.
The time of crossing is:

(1) 2 s
(2) 4 s
(3) s
(4) 4 s

29) In a certain circuit current changes with time according to i = . Then r.m.s. value of current
between t = 2 to t = 4s will be :

(1) 3A
(2)
(3)

(4)

30) Suppose ideal gas equation follows VP3 = constant. Initial temperature and volume of the gas are
T and V respectively. If gas expands to 27V, then its temperature will become :

(1) T
(2) 9T
(3) 27T
(4) T/9

31) Velocity of sound in air is 320 m/s. A pipe closed at one end has a length of 1 m. Neglecting end
correction, the air column in the pipe can resonate for sound of frequency :

(1) 80 Hz
(2) 260 Hz
(3) 500 Hz
(4) 250 Hz

32) A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of nonuniform cross-section. The

quantity/quantities constant along the length of the conductor is/are:-

(1) current, electric field and drift speed

(2) drift speed only
(3) current and drift speed
(4) current only

33) Find equivalent resistance across terminals A and B :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Charge + q placed at point A which is a distance 2L apart from B and C is the midpoint between
A and B. The work done in moving charge + Q along the semicircle CRD is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
35) Given below are two statements:
Statement-I :
In an ac circuit, the current through a capacitor leads the voltage across it.
Statement-II:
In a.c. circuits containing pure capacitance only, the phase difference between the current and the
voltage is :-
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

SECTION-B

1) In an experiment on photoelectric effect, the wavelength of the incident radiation is λ. The

wavelength of the incident radiation is reduced to of the initial value and the maximum kinetic
energy of the photoelectron is observed to be n times the previous value. The threshold wavelength
for the metal plate is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The heat generated in a circuit is dependent upon the resistance, current and time for which the
current is flown. If the error in measuring the resistance, current and time are 1%, 2% and 1%
respectively, then the maximum error in measuring heat will be

(1) 2%
(2) 3%
(3) 6%
(4) 1%

3) The angle of polarisation for a pair of media is 60°, then what will be critical angle for this pair of
media?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates :-

(1) AND
(2) NAND
(3) NOR
(4) OR

5) A single slit of width a is illuminated by light. For red light (λ = 6500Å), the Fraunhofer diffraction
first minimum is obtained at θ = 30° Then the value of a will be.

(1) 3250Å
(2) 6.5 × 10–4 mm
(3) 1.3 µm
(4) 2.6 × 10–4 mm

6) An atomic power nuclear reactor can deliver 300 MW. The energy released due to fission of each
nucleus of uranium atom is 170 MeV. The number of uranium atoms fissioned per hour will be nearly
:-

(1) 30 × 1025
(2) 4 × 1022
(3) 10 × 1020
(4) 5 × 1015

7) An object is lying at a distance of 45 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm. The position
and nature of image formed by it will be

(1) 45 cm, of the size of object

(2) 90 cm, bigger than object
(3) 30 cm, bigger than object
(4) 45 m smaller than object

8) The de Broglie wavelength and kinetic energy of a particle is and 1 eV respectively. If its
kinetic energy becomes 1 MeV, then its de Broglie wavelength becomes

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with a period of T seconds and amplitude a metre.

The shortest time it takes to reach a point from its mean position in seconds is :

(1) T
(2) T/4
(3) T/8
(4) T/16

10) Keeping in view the amperean circuital law, rank the value of for the closed paths shown
in figure, from the smallest to largest :- (Amperean loops are anticlockwise.)

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d, b
(3) a, d, c, b
(4) a, c, b, d

11) A 2V battery is connected across AB as shown in the figure. The value of the current supplied by
the battery when in the first case battery's positive terminal is connected to A and in second case
when positive terminal of battery is connected to B will respectively be : (Diodes are ideal.)

(1) 0.2 A and 0.1 A

(2) 0.1 A and 0.2 A
(3) 0.2 A and 0.4 A
(4) 0.4 A and 0.2 A
12) Under which of the following conditions for the distance of the real object (u), will a convex
mirror of focal length f produce an image that is erect, diminished and virtual

(1) Only when 2f > u > f

(2) Only when u = f
(3) Only when u < f
(4) Always

13) The refracting angle of a prism is A and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot(A/2).
The angle of minimum deviation is :-

(1) 180° – 2A
(2) 90° – A
(3) 180° + 2A
(4) 180° – 3A

14) The wavelength λe of an e– and λp of a photon of same kinetic energy E are related by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A small air bubble is inside a glass cube of side 15 cm. When seen from the top lace, the bubble
appears at a distance of 5 cm and when seen from the opposite face it appears at 7 cm. Refractive
index of glass is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) If number of electrons present in x+3 is 16, then number of protons in x will be

(1) 16
(2) 13
(3) 18
(4) 19

2) The orbital diagram in which both the Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule are violated, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The first emission line of Balmer series for H spectrum has the wave no. equal to ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) For the reaction, H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI the equilibrium concentration of H2, I2 and HI are 8.0, 3.0 and 28.0
mol/litre, respectively, the equilibrium constant is:

(1) 28.34
(2) 32.66
(3) 34.18
(4) 38.88

5) Equilibrium constant Kp increases with increase in temperature. The △H for the reaction would
be:

(1) positive
(2) negative
(3) zero
(4) cannot be predicted

6) The half-life period of a first order reaction is l0 minutes. The time required for the concentration
of the reactant to change from 0.08 M to 0.02 M is:

(1) 10 min
(2) 20 min
(3) 30 min
(4) 40 min

7) The minimum amount of energy that the reacting molecules must possess at the time of collisions
in order to produce effective collision is called
(1) Activation energy
(2) Threshold energy
(3) Internal energy
(4) Free energy

8) Doubling the initial concentration of a reactant doubles t1/2 of the reaction, then order of the
reaction is-

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

9) The standard hydrogen electrode potential is zero, because

(1) Hydrogen oxidized easily

(2) Electrode potential is considered as zero
(3) Hydrogen atom has only one electron
(4) Hydrogen is a very light element

10) The solubility product of Ag2CrO4 is 32 × 10–12. What is the concentration of ions in that
solution ?

(1) 2 × 10–4 M
(2) 8 × 10–4 M
(3) 8 × 10–8 M
(4) 16 × 10–4 M

11) Which of the following pairs of solution are isotonic at the same temperature ?

(1) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4

(2) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4
(3) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M MgCl2
(4) 0.2 M urea and 0.2 M NaCl

12) Which of the following graph is a correct representation of Henry’s law?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) If 1021 molecules are removed from 100 mg CO2, then number of moles of CO2 left are :

(1) 6.10 × 10–4

(2) 2.8 × 10–3
(3) 2.28 × 10–3
(4) 1.36 × 10–2

14) What is the maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the quantum number n = 4,
mℓ = +1?

(1) 4
(2) 15
(3) 3
(4) 6

15) What mass of sodium acetate (CH3COONa) is required to make 500 mL of 0.375 M aqueous
solution ?

(1) 16.38 g
(2) 15.375 g
(3) 14.38 g
(4) 15.75 g

16) The unit of equivalent conductivity is:-

(1) Ohm cm
(2) ohm-1 cm2 (g-equivalent)-1
(3) ohm cm2 (g-equivalent)
(4) S cm2

17) Methyl orange is

(1) Red in acidic medium, yellow in basic medium

(2) Yellow in acidic medium, pink in basic medium
(3) Colorless in acidic medium, pink in basic medium
(4) Pink in acidic medium, colorless in basic medium

18) The heat of neutralization of a strong acid and a strong alkali is 57.0 kJ mol–1. The heat released
when 0.5 mole of HNO3 solution is mixed with 0.2 mole of KOH is

(1) 57.0 kJ
(2) 11.4 kJ
(3) 28.5 kJ
(4) 34.9 kJ

19) For the redox reaction :

the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced reaction are :-

H+
(1) 2 5 16
(2) 16 5 2
(3) 5 16 2
(4) 2 16 5
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) The bond dissociation energies for Cl2, I2 and ICI are 242.3, 151 and 211.3 kJ/mol respectively.
The enthalpy of sublimation of iodine is 62.8 kJ/mol. What is the standard enthalpy of formation of
ICI(g)?

(1) 211.3 kJ/mol

(2) –14.6 kJ/mol
(3) 16.8 kJ/mol
(4) 33.5 kJ/mol

21) Considering entropy(S) as a thermodynamic parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of any
process is :

(1) ΔSsystem + ΔSsurroundings > 0

(2) ΔSsystem – ΔSsurroundings > 0
(3) ΔSsystem > 0 only
(4) ΔSsurroundings > 0 only

22)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Consider the following alcohols.

The order of decreasing reactivities of these alcohols towards nucleophilic substitution with HBr is :
(1) III > I > II > IV
(2) I > III > IV > II
(3) III > I > IV > II
(4) I > III > II > IV

24)
Which statement is correct -

(1) X is formed by electrophilic substitution reaction

(2) Y is formed by electrophilic substitution reaction
(3) Y is formed by free radical addition reaction
(4) X is formed by electrophilic addition reaction

25) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R) .
Assertion: If benzene is treated with 1-chloropropane in presence of anhydrous AlCl3, Isopropyl
benzene is major product not n-propyl benzene.
Reason : Reaction occurs via rearrangement of carbocation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

26) What is the final product of following reaction,

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

27) What is the IUPAC name of the product of following reaction–

(1) Propan–1–amine
(2) 1–Propanol
(3) Propan nitrile
(4) None of these

28) Hinsberg’s reagent is used for detection of which of the functional group.

(1) Alcohols
(2) Amines
(3) Ketones
(4) Aldehydes

29) Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion and Reason.
Assertion: At isoelectric point, the amino group does not migrate under the influence of electric
field.
Reason: At isoelectric point. Amino acids exists as zwitter ion.
Select the most appropriate answer from the option given below.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true and R is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

30) The correct stability order for the following carbocation is :-

(1) IV > I > III > II

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) I > IV > III > II
(4) I > III > IV > II

31) Major product will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Which of the following represents zero overlap of atomic orbitals.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

33) The average formal charge present on the nitrogen and the oxygen atom in ion is

(1)
+1 and

(2)
+1 and

(3)
0 and

(4)
-1 and

34) Match column-I with column-II and column -III and choose the correct option from the given
codes
 Column-II
Column-III
Column-I (No. of lone
(Shape of
Molecule pairs and
molecule)
bond pairs)

(A) NH3 (i) 1, 2 (p) Bent

Trigonal
(B) SO2 (ii) 1, 4 (q)
pyramidal

(C) SF4 (iii) 2, 3 (r) T-shape

(D) CIF3 (iv) 1, 3 (s) See-Saw

(1) A-(iv, q); B- (ii, p) ; C-(i, r) ; D-(iii, s)
(2) A-(iv, q); B- (i, p) ; C-(ii, s) ; D-(iii, r)
(3) A-(i, p); B- (iii, s) ; C-(iv, r) ; D-(ii, q)
(4) A-(iv, p); B- (i, r) ; C-(iii, q) ; D-(ii, s)

35) The incorrect statement about Ni(CO)4 is :-

(1) The bond order of CO in the complex is less than bond order of CO molecule
(2) The complex is diamagnetic and dsp2 hybridised
(3) The bond order of Ni–C bond is greater than one
(4) The complex cannot act as oxidizing or reducing agent according to sidwick EAN rule

SECTION-B

1) Match the property given in column-I with the element given in column-II

Column-I Column-II
(Property) (Element)

Lanthahnoid which shows

(A) (1) Pm
+4 oxidation state

Lanthanoid which can show

(B) (2) Ce
+2 oxidation state

(C) Radioactive lanthanoid (3) Lu

Lanthanoid which has 4f7

(D) electronic configuration in (4) Eu
+3 oxidation state.

Lanthanoid which has 4f14

(E) electronic configuration in (5) Gd
+3 oxidation state.

(6) Dy
(1) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-3
(2) A-1, B-2, C-5, D-3, E-4
(3) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-5, E-1
(4) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1, E-5

2) Which of the following diagrams shows correct change in the polarity of bond ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Which is correctly matches :-

Atomic
Group Number Period Numer
Number

(1) 46 10th 6th

(2) 56 2nd 6th

(3) 66 16th 6th

(4) 76 13th 6th

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) What is relation between following compounds

(1) positional isomers
(2) chain isomers
(3) optical isomers
(4) metamers

5) Identify true/false :-

Functional isomers

Metamers

Metamers

Functional isomers

(1) TFTF
(2) FTTF
(3) TTFT
(4) TFFT

6) Assertion (A) :- Methyl chloride is more reactive for SN2 in as compared to .

Reason (R) :- is stronger base than .

(1) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) is not right explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(4) Both (A) and (R) is wrong.
7) Consider the following bromides :

The correct order of SN1 reactivity is

(1) C > B > A

(2) A > B > C
(3) B > C > A
(4) B > A > C

8) Consider the following reaction sequence

A and B respectively are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every 10oC rise in temperature. If the temperature is
increased by 60oC the rate of reaction increases by:

(1) 20 times
(2) 32 times
(3) 64 times
(4) 128 times

10) You are given the following cell at 298 K with

Where C1 and C2 are the concentration in mol/lit then which of the following figures correctly
correlates Ecell as a function of concentrations

x-axis: and y-axis : Ecell

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) An organic compound contains 78% (by wt). carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The
right for the empirical formula of this compound is :
[Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]

(1) CH
(2) CH2
(3) CH3
(4) CH4

12) Isomerism shown by complex [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]SO4:-

(i) Ionisation isomerism
(ii) Linkage isomerism
(iii) Geometrical isomerism
(iv) Optical isomerism

(1) 1, 2
(2) 2, 3
(3) 3, 4
(4) 1,4

13) The number of S–S bonds in SO3, respectively are

(1) 1, 0, 0, 1
(2) 1, 0, 1, 0
(3) 0, 1, 1, 0
(4) 0, 1, 0, 1

14) IUPAC name of the given compound is

(1) 2-Ethoxy-1-nitrocyclohexane
(2) 1-Ethoxy-2-nitrocyclohexane
(3) 1-Ethoxy-6-nitrocyclohexane
(4) 6-Ethoxy-1-nitrocyclohexane

15) Consider the following statements.

(a) A reagent that takes away an electron pair is called an electrophile.
(b) A nucleophile is electron rich species
(c) In methyl halide, carbon is electrophiliccentre
Correct statements are

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a) and (c) only

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Which one includes growth promoters ?

(1) Auxin, Cytokinin and ABA

(2) GA, Cytokinins and C2H4
(3) C2H4 and ABA
(4) Auxin, Cytokinins and GA

2) Which set of characters is specific to red algae?

(1) Phycobilins, Chlorophyll a and c

(2) Chlorophyll a and d, Floridean starch
(3) Flagella absent, Mannitol
(4) Fucoxanthin, Floridean starch

3) Mangifera indica belongs to_______order and __________family,

(1) Sapindales, Anacardiaceae

(2) Anacardiales, Sapindaceae
(3) Poales, Poaceae
(4) Poaceae, Poales

4)

Fungi shows association with

a - Root of lower plants
b - Algae

(1) a
(2) b
(3) a and b
(4) none of these

5) Select incorrect statement?

(1) Truffle is an example of fungi.

According to five kingdom system of R.H. Whittaker, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are placed
(2)
in Kingdom protista.
(3) In Pinus stems are branched.
(4) In Pinus, both male cone and female cone are developed on different trees.

6) Identify A, B, C & D in the given diagram.

(1) A-Head, B-Sheath, C-Collar, D-Tail fibres

(2) A-Head, B-Collar, C-Sheath, D-Tail fibres
(3) A-Head, B-Collar, C-Tail fibres, D-Sheath
(4) A-Head, B-Sheath, C-Tail fibres, D-Collar

7)

Tendril as modified axillary bud is found in

a - Grape vine b - Cucumber c - Pea

(1) a and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) a,b and c

8) Which of the followings do not constitute the ground tissue system in plants?
a. Pericycle
b. Endodermis
c. Mesophyll
d. Epidermis
e. Veins in leaf
f. Xylem & phloem

(1) a, b & c
(2) c, d & e
(3) c, f & a
(4) d, e & f

9) When sepals or petals just touch one another at margin without overlapping is found in

(1) Calotropis
(2) Cassia
(3) China rose
(4) Pea

10) Commercial fibre is obtained from

a. Jute b. Hemp c. Cotton d. Flax

(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d

11) Cell wall of algae is rich in _____

(1) Cellulose, Hemicellulose, Pectins and proteins

(2) Cellulose, Galactans, Mannans and Minerals like CaCO3
(3) Cellulose, Lignin, Pectin and CaCO3
(4) Cellulose, Pectin, Galactans and Lignin

12) Choose the correct statement(s) with respect to Golgi bodies :

(1) Cis and trans face are entirely different but not connected
(2) Cis and trans faces are entirely different but interconnected
(3) Cis and trans faces are similar but connected
(4) Cis and trans faces are similar but not connected

13) If egg of an organism has 10 pg DNA in its nucleus. How much DNA amount would a diploid cell
of same organism have in metaphase-I stage of meiosis?

(1) 20 pg
(2) 40 pg
(3) 2 pg
(4) 80 pg

14) Identify the metaphase-I from the following figures :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Given below is the pedigree of an autosomal dominant disorder Myotonic dystrophy:

In this pedigree the genotype of all affected children will be:-

(1) AA
(2) Aa
(3) AA or Aa
(4) aa

16) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Jan Ingenhousz (i) First action spectrum of photosynthesis

(b) Joseph priestley (ii) Essentiality of sun light to plants

 Essential role of air in the growth of
(c) T. W. Engelmann (iii)
green plants
(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii)
(3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)

17)

Chlorophyll-a is protected from photo oxidation by the help of

(1) LHC
(2) Antenna pigments
(3) OEC
(4) 1 and 2

18) ATP is utilized in C3 cycle at -

(1) Reduction step

(2) Carboxylation step
(3) Regeneration step
(4) Both at (1) and (3)

19)

Total number of ATP required in six calvin cycle for reduction process is (C4 plant)

(1) 12
(2) 6
(3) 18
(4) 10

20) Yeasts poison themselves to death if the concentration of alcohol reaches about :-

(1) 20%
(2) 15%
(3) 13%
(4) 10%

21) Select wrong statement with respect to gas exchange in plants

(1) Each plant part takes care of its own gas exchange needs.
(2) Plants do not present great demands for gas exchange.
(3) Transport of gases from one plant part to another occurs sufficiently for longer distance.
(4) Large volume of gases are exchange only during photosynthesis.
22) The last electron acceptor of respiration in an aerobic respiration is :-

(1) Cytochrome
(2) Oxygen
(3) Hydrogen
(4) Ferredoxin

23) Substrate level phosphorylation occurs during which step of Kreb's cycle ?

(1) Succinyl – CoA → Succinic acid

(2) Isocitric acid → Oxalosuccinic acid
(3) Oxalosuccinic acid → α-keto glutaric acid
(4) Malic acid → OAA

24) Down's syndrome is characterised by

(1) Mongolian face

(2) furrowed tongue
(3) Mental retard ness
(4) all of the above

25) Horizontal growth of seedling, swelling of axis and apical hook formation in dicot seedling are
associated with:-

(1) Photoperiodism
(2) Vernalisation
(3) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinin

26) Exponential growth can be expressed as :-

(1) w1 = w0ert
(2) w1 = w0 + ert
rt
(3) w1 = w0e
rt
(4) w0 = w1e

27) Pollen grains are generally spherical measuring about

(1) 25 - 50 mm
(2) 25 - 50 m
(3) 50 - 100 m
(4) 20 - 40 mm

28) If the number of chromosomes in gametes of angiosperm is 12. What will be the number of
chromosome in primary endosperm cell, embryo and synergids, respectively ?
(1) 36, 24, 12
(2) 24, 36, 12
(3) 12, 36, 24
(4) 36, 12, 24

29) Sickle cell Anaemia shows

(1) Substitution mutation

(2) Point mutation
(3) Frame shift mutation
(4) 1 and 2

30) Mendel selected :-

(1) 7 true breeding pea plant varieties

(2) 12 true breeding pea plant varieties
(3) 14 true breeding pea plant varieties
(4) 10 true breeding pea plant varieties

31) Pyramids of energy are :-

(1) Always upright

(2) Always Inverted
(3) Mostly upright
(4) Mostly inverted

32) According to Robert May global species diversity is about

(1) 1.5 million

(2) 20-50 million
(3) 7 million
(4) 2.5 million

33) A ds DNA having 200bp shows presence of twenty double hydrogen bond. What will be the
number of Guanine in that DNA

(1) 360
(2) 180
(3) 160
(4) 120

34) Replication in prokaryote is

a - Bidirectional b- Have single ori site
c - Occur in cytoplasm

(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) b and c
(4) a and c

35)

The UTR are associated with _____ and present at

(1) tRNA, 3'end only

(2) mRNA, 3'end only
(3) rRNA, 5' as well as 3'end
(4) mRNA, 5' end as well as 3'end

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following cross gives 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio ?

(1) AABb × AaBB

(2) AaBBCcDDEE × AaBBCcDDEE
(3) AaBB × AaBb
(4) aaBBCc × AAbbCc

2) Dominating trait of pea plant which is studied by Mendel is :-

(1) Tall plant and wrinkle seed

(2) Inflated pod and yellow pod
(3) Round seed and white flower
(4) Violet flower and yellow colour seed

3) Statement-I: Predators are prudent.

Statement-II: Removal of starfish Pisaster resulted in extinction of more than 10 species of
vertebrates.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Statement-II only correct
(4) Statement-I only correct

4) Match column–I and Column–II :-

Column–I Column–II

(i) Q B Bacteriophage (a) ss RNA

(ii) ϕ × 174 Bacteriophage (b) ds DNA

(iii) λ Bacteriophage (c) ss DNA

 (iv) TMV (d) ss RNA
(1) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(3) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
(4) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c

5) Who among the following scientists worked to determine the biochemical nature of the
'transforming principle' in Griffith's experiment?

(1) James Watson and Francis Crick

(2) Gregor Mendel
(3) Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty
(4) Frederick Griffith

6)

Polyribosomes are formed when ribosomes are connected by

(1) rRNA
(2) mRNA
(3) tRNA
(4) All the above

7) Which biotic components mainly help in recycling of minerals?

(1) Producers
(2) Consumers
(3) Decomposers
(4) All the above

8) The rate decomposition is faster in the ecosystem due to following factors EXCEPT

(1) Detritus rich in sugars

(2) Warm and moist environment
(3) Presence of aerobic soil microbes
(4) Detritus richer in lignin and chitin

9) Which ecosystem's pyramids are upright for all ecological parameters such as biomass, number
and energy ?

(1) Forest ecosystem

(2) Grassland ecosystem
(3) Pond ecosystem
(4) River ecosystem

10) Russia lost which of the following species ?

(1) Stellar's Sea Cow
(2) Thylacine
(3) Quagga
(4) Dodo

11) Fatty acid for entry into Krebs' cycle is degraded to :-

(1) Pyruvate
(2) Citric acid
(3) Acetyl CoA
(4) PGA

12)

Condon 3'CAG5' will code for amino acid

(1) Aspartic acid

(2) Glutamic acicd
(3) Glycine
(4) Valine

13) What is the percentage of proteins and lipids in an RBC membrane respectively?

(1) 52%, 40%

(2) 50%, 40%
(3) 50%, 42%
(4) 52%, 42%

14) Which of the following is/are intracellular intrinsic factor(s) to affect the development of plants ?

(1) Plant growth regulators

(2) Temperature and nutrients
(3) Genetic factors
(4) Oxygen and water

15) In ovule, megaspore mother cell is differentiated towards

(1) Chalaza
(2) Micropyle
(3) Central cell
(4) Funicle

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A
1) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately how much ml of CO2 to the alveoli :

(1) 5 ml
(2) 4 ml
(3) 7 ml
(4) 8 ml

2) The 10th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structure in cockroach which is called :-

(1) Anal cerci, in both sexes

(2) Anal style, in both sexes
(3) Anal cerci, in male cockroach only
(4) Anal style, in male cockroach only

3) The triangular sac like structure which receives blood through the vena cava in frog is:

(1) Ventricle
(2) Sinus venosus
(3) Hepatic portal system
(4) Conus arteriosus

4) Which is the CORRECT matching

Column-I Column-II

A. Scoliodon I. Pterophyllum

B. Trygon II. Betta

C. Fighting fish III. Dog fish

D. Angel fish IV. Sting ray

(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

5) How many animals from the following are marine?

[Balanoglossus, Spongilla, Asterias, Hydra, Pteropus, Loligo, Ancylostoma, Ascidia]

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

6) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column I Column I
 Help to stop
Adhering substances from
a 1
Junctions leaking across a
tissue

Perform cementing
b Gap Junctions 2 to keep neighbouring
cells together

Facilitate the cells to

Tight
c 3 communicate with
Junctions
each other
(1) a-3, b-2, c-1
(2) a-2, b-3, c-1
(3) a-2, b-1, c-3,
(4) a-1, b-3, c-2

7) How many statements from given below are related with the above
figure ?
(a) Possess desmosome junction
(b) Limited role in secretion and absorption
(c) Main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses
(d) They cover the dry surface of skin, moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx
(e) Basement membrane is absent.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Five

8)

Read the following statement (A–D):-

(A) Fatty acid are saturated or unsaturated
(B) Lecithin is a phospholipid which is present in plasma membrane
(C) Melting point of oils are high. Hence they remain liquid in winter
(D) The molecular weight of lipid do not exceed 800 dalton but they are present in acid insoluble
pool.
How many statement are correct ?

(1) A,B,C,D
(2) A,B,D
(3) B,C
(4) A,C

9) Origin of heartbeat and its conduction is represented by :-

(1) SA node→AV node→Bundle of His→Purkinje fibres

(2) Purkinje fibres→AV node→SA node→Bundle of His
(3) SA node→Purkinje fibres→AV node→Bundle of His
(4) AV node→Bundle of His→SA node→Purkinje fibres

10) Which of the following statements are correct ?

I. Ca+2 is necessary for blood coagulation
II. Coagulation in blood vessel is prevented during normal condition by heparin.
III. Clotting of blood involves changes of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin
IV. Blood clotting involves cascading process involving a number of factors present in the active
form always.

(1) I, III, IV
(2) II, IV
(3) I, II, III
(4) III, IV

11) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

1. TV A. 1000-1100 ml

2. IRV B. 5800-6000 ml

3. ERV C. 500 ml

4. TLC D. 2500-3000 ml
(1) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
(2) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(3) 1-C, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(4) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D

12) Match the excretory functions of section I with the part of the excretory system in section II.
Choose the correct combination from among the option given :-

Section-I Section - II
(Function) (Parts of excretory systems)

(A) Ultra filtration (1) Henle's loop

(B) Concentration of urine (2) Ureter

(C) Transport of urine (3) Urinary bladder

(D) Storage of urine (4) Malpighian corpuscle

(5) Proximal convoluted tubule

(1) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
(2) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1
(3) A–5, B–4, C–1, D–3
(4) A–5, B–4, C–1, D–2

13) In micturition, signal is initiated by :-

(1) CNS
(2) Stretching of urinary bladder
(3) Stretching of internal urethral sphincter
(4) Stretch receptors on urethra

14) Identify the A, B and C respectively :-

(1) Ethmoid, Lacrymal, Occipital condyle

(2) Lacrymal, Ethmoid, Occipital condyle
(3) Occipital condyle, Ethmoid, Lacrymal
(4) Nasal, Vomar, Zygomatic bone

15)

Read the following statement and find out the correct option :-
(a) 'A' bands are dark and contain myosin.
(b) 'I' bands are light and contain actin
(c) During muscle contraction, 'A' band contracts

(d) Part between two Z-lines is called sarcomere (e) Central part of thin filament, not overlapped by
thick filament in H-zone.
(1) a, b, c, are correct
(2) a, b, e are correct
(3) a, b, d, e are correct
(4) a, b, d are correct

16) Nissl's granules are found in ............ and helps in ............ :-

(1) Cyton only, lipid synthesis respectively

(2) Cyton and Axon, Protein synthesis respectively
(3) Dendron and Axon, Protein synthesis respectively
(4) Dendron and cyton, Protein synthesis respectively

17)

The axoplasm contains high concentration of __(A)__ and negatively charged proteins and low
concentration of __(B)__

(A) (B)

(1) Cl– ions Na+ ions

(2) Na+ ions K+ ions

(3) K+ ions Na+ ions

(4) 1 and 3 both

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Pineal gland regulates .............

Thyroid gland regulates .............
Adrenal cortex regulates .............
Read above incomplete sentences and find out correct option to complete them :-

(1) BMR, Ca+2 metabolism, release of MSH

(2) Pigmentation, BMR, release of few amount of steroid hormone
(3) Pigmentation, growth, release of growth hormone
(4) Electrolytic balance, BMR, Ca+2 metabolism

19) Find out the correct labelling in the following diagram:-

(1) A = Nucleus, B = Genome, C = Surface receptor, D = Adrenaline

(2) A = Fats, B = DNA, C = Hormone Receptor complex, D = Insulin
(3) A = Proteins, B = DNA, C = Hormone Receptor complex, D = Adrenaline
(4) A = Nucleus, B = Genome, C = Hormone Receptor complex, D = Oestrogen

20) How many of the given developing stages during gametogenesis are haploid?
 Spermatozoa, Secondary oocyte, Spermatid, Oogonia, Primary
spermatocyte
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

21) Foetal movement starts usually from

(1) II month of pregnancy

(2) III month of pregnancy
(3) IV month of pregnancy
(4) V month of pregnancy

22) Two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E.coli were isolated.
One was methylase and other was restriction endonuclease. What is the significance of methylase ?

Protection of host DNA from the action of restriction endonuclease by adding methyl group to
(1)
one or two bases usually with in the sequence recognised by restriction enzyme
(2) Able to ligate the two cohesive ends of DNA molecule
Able to remove the methyl group and hence, prevent the action of restriction endonuclease on
(3)
host DNA
(4) Able to cut the DNA of bacteriophage at specific sites

23) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram of E.coli cloning vector pBR322.

(1) A-Eco Rl, B-Bam-Hl, C -Ori, D-ampR

(2) A-ampR, B-Ori, C-Bam Hl, D-Eco Rl
(3) A-Ori, B-Bam Hl, C-Eco Rl, D-ampR
(4) A-Bam Hl, B-Eco Rl, C-ampR, D-Ori

24) Consider the following statements :-

I. Ladybirds and dragonflies are used to get rid of aphids and mosquitoes respectively.
II. The bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) spores are used to control butterfly caterpillar.
III. Trichoderma species free living fungi, are present in root ecosystem where they act against
several plant pathogens.
IV. Rhizobium is a symbiotic bacterium that lives in the stem of legumes.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(1) I, II and III

(2) I, III and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) II and IV

25) Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II
(A) Rosie (i) α-1 antitrypsin
(B) ELISA (ii) Human protein enriched milk
(C) rop (iii) Test to detect antigen or antibody
(D) Emphysema (iv) Codes for protein involved in plasmid replication
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

26) Which of the following statement regarding baculoviruses as bio-control agent is/are correct ?
(a) Baculoviruses are pathogen that attack insect and other arthopods
(b) They do harm plants, mammals, birds, fish and other non-target insects
(c) Most of these biocontrol agents belong to the genus nucleopolyhedrovirus
(d) Baculovirus are helpful in Integrated Pest Managment (IPM) programme in which beneficial
insects are conserved.
Choose the correct option:-

(1) a, b, and d
(2) a and b
(3) a, c and d
(4) All of these

27) Darwinian variations are

(1) Small and directional

(2) Large & Non directional
(3) Single step & Non directional
(4) Large and discontinuous

28) Match the following :-

Uterus
Non-medicated Multiload-
(A) (a) (i) unsuitable for
IUDs 375
implantation
 Promote
Copper Phagocytosis
(B) (b) Saheli (ii)
releasing IUDs of
sperms

Hormone
Lippes Suppress
(C) releasing (c) (iii)
loop sperm motility
IUDs

Anti estrogenic
Non-steroidal on uterus and
(D) (d) LNG-20 (iv)
pill prevent
implantation
(1) A–b–i, B–c–ii, C–d–iii, D–a–iv
(2) A–c–iv, B–a–iii, C–b–i, D–d–ii
(3) A–c–ii, B–a–iii, C–d–i, D–b–iv
(4) A–a–iii, B–c–ii, C–d–i, D–b–iv

29) Which of the following are natural contraceptive methods?

(A) Periodic abstinence
(B) Coitus interruptus
(C) Lactational amenorrhoea
(D) M.T.P.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) B, D

30) Match the following and give the answer for correct match:

More than 8 blastomere

A ZIFT i
stage transfer into the uterus

Sperm is directly injected

B IUT ii
into the cytoplasm of ovum.

Zygote upto 8 blastomere

C GIFT iii
could be tranfer into the fallopian tube.

Transfer of an ovum collected

D ICSI iv
from ovary into the fallopian tube
(1) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
(2) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
(3) A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii
(4) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii

31) Identify the correct match from Column - I and Column - II :

Column - I Column - II
 (a) Scoliodon (i) Saw fish

Poisionous
(b) Pristis (ii)
sting

(c) Trygon (iii) Electric ray

Carteilagenous
(d) Torpedo (iv)
fish

Options:
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

32) Read the statement(s) carefully and fill the blanks with correct option :-
In multicellular animals, a group of ___A___ cells alongwith ___B___ substances perform a specific
function. Such an organisation is called tissue.

(1) A - Similar, B - Intracellular

(2) A - Different, B - Intracellular
(3) A - Similar, B - Intercellular
(4) A - Different, B - Intercellular

33)

Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell wall is made up of :-

(1) branched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(2) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 6 glycosidic bond
branched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight chain and 1, 6
(3)
glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(4) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 4 glycosidic bond

34) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Homologous Divergent
(i) Vertebrates' brain
organ evolution

Flippers of Penguins Analogous Divergent

(ii)
and dolphins organ evolution

Thorns
of Bougainvillea Homologous Divergent
(iii)
and Tendrils of organ evolution
Cucurbita
(1) (i) only
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (iii) only
(4) (i) and (iii)

35) Match the following columns :-

Column-I (Structures in Column-II

cockroach) (Number)

a Spiracles 1 6-8

b Legs 2 100-150

c Hepatic caecae 3 6

d Malpighian tubule 4 20

Select the correct option

(1) a-2; b-4; c-3; d-1
(2) a-3; b-2; c-4; d-1
(3) a-1; b-4; c-2; d-3
(4) a-4; b-3; c-1; d-2

SECTION-B

1) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statements :-
(a) Heart is situated in the thoracic cavity, in between the two lungs, slightly tilted to the right
(b) Heart has the size of a clenched fist
(c) Heart is protected by double walled membranous bag, pericardium, enclosing the pericardial
fluid
(d) Human heart has four chambers, two relatively thicker upper chambers called atria and two
thinner lower chambers called ventricles
(e) A thick muscular wall called the inter-atrial septum separates the right and the left atria,
whereas a thin-walled, the inter-ventricular septum, separates the left and right ventricles.

(1) a, d and e
(2) b,c and d
(3) b,c and e
(4) a and d

2)

Malpighian tubule are present at the junction of :-

(1) Foregut and midgut, and helps in the secretion of digestive enzyme
(2) Midgut and hindgut, and helps in the grinding the food particles
(3) Foregut and midgut, and helps in the removal of excretory products from haemolymph
(4) Midgut and hindgut, and helps in the removal of excretory products from haemolymph

3) Select the correct route for the passage of sperm in frog.

(1) Testis → Vas deferens → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca
(2) Testis → Vas deferens → Ureter → Bidder's canal → Cloaca
(3) Testis → Bidder's canal → Vas deferens → Ureter → Cloaca
(4) Testis → Vas deferens → Bidder's canal → Cloaca → Ureter

4) Match the following with respect to the average composition of cells:-

% of the total
Component
cellular mass

a. Proteins (i) 5-7

b. Carbohydrates (ii) 3

c. Lipids (iii) 10-15

d. Nucleic acids (iv) 2

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

5) Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements :-
(A) Respiratory rhythm is maintained by the respiratory centre in the midbrain.
(B) RBCs contain a very high concentration of the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase which helps in CO2
transport.
(C) The movement of air into and out of the lungs is carried out by creating a pressure gradient
between the lungs and the atmosphere.
(D) Oxygen(O2) is utilised by the organisms to indirectly breakdown nutrient molecules like glucose
and to derive energy for performing various activities of the body.
(E) Exchange of O2 and CO2 at the alveoli and tissues occur by facilitated transport.

(1) A, B and C
(2) A, D and E
(3) B, C and D
(4) B, C and E

6) Correctly match column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

Trichoderma
(A) (i) Biofertilisers
species

(B) Rhizobium (ii) Clot buster

(C) Cyclosporin A (iii) Biocontrol agents

Trichoderma
(D) Streptokinase (iv)
polysporum
(1) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii), D–(iv)
(2) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(iv), D–(i)
(3) A–(iv), B–(iii), C–(ii), D–(i)
(4) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(iv), D–(ii)

7) Which man fossil is incorrectly matched with its cranial capacity ?

(1) Homo habilis – 650-800 cc

(2) Homo erectus – 900 cc
(3) Neanderthal man – 1400 cc
(4) Cromagnon man – 1000cc

8) Which of the following animal is correctly matched with its phylum and characters ?

Animal Phylum Character

(1) Planaria Aschelminthes Regeneration

(2) Pleurobrachia Ctenophora Comb plate

(3) Adamsia Annelida Cnidoblast

(4) Pheretima Aschelminthes Flame cell

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) In the above
diagram (B) is zwitterionic form of an amino acid (A) and (C) form of amino acid develop respectively
in :-

(1) Acidic and basic medium

(2) Basic and basic medium
(3) Basic and acidic medium
(4) Acidic and neutral medium

10) Which of the following is incorrect matching?

Drug Source Function

Stimulates
(1) Nicotine Tobacco adrenal gland to
release adrenaline

Inflorescence
(2) Ganja Hallucination
of cannabis
 Latex of
Sedative and
(3) papaver
pain killer
sominiferum

Interferes with
(4) Cocaine Erythroxylum the transport of
Dopamine
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Calcitonin is a thyroid hormone which

(1) Elevates calcium level in blood

(2) Has no effect on calcium level
(3) Elevates potassium level in blood
(4) Lowers calcium level in blood

12) Mark the option with all the correct statements regarding "resting stage" of neuron :-
(a) Axon membrane is more permeable for potassium ions (K+)
(b) Axonal membrane is nearly impermeable for sodium ions (Na+)
(c) Axon membrane is permeable for negatively charged protein.
(d) The fluid outside of axon contain a low concentration of Na+ than inside
(e) The fluid inside axon contain high concentration of K+ than outside

(1) a, b, c
(2) c, d, e
(3) a, b, e
(4) a, b, d, e

13)

Which of the following hormone/enzyme is/are correctly paired with its function ?
A. Rennin– Enzyme that catalyses the formation of angiotensin I.
B. Aldosterone – Regulates salt reabsorption from the distal convoluted tubule.
C. Anti–diuretic hormone (ADH) – It is a powerful vasoconstrictor that stimulates the secretion of
aldosterone.
D. Angiotensin I – Promotes reabsorption of sodium from distal convoluted tubule.

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) A and B both
(4) All of the above

14) Match the Column-A with Column-B :-

 Column -A Column-B

(A) Mons pubis (i) Fleshy folds of tissue

(B) Labia majora (ii) Paired folds of tissue

Membrane partially
(C) Labia minora (iii) convering the vaginal
opening

(D) Hymen (iv) Cushion of fatty tissue

(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

15) Muscular pharynx is a characteristic feature of :

(1) Taenia
(2) Hydra
(3) Ascaris
(4) Sycon
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 1 1 3 1 1 3 1 4 4 2 2 2 4 3 1 3 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 2 3 2 4 3 3 2 3 2 1 4 1 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 3 4 4 3 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 1 3 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 4 4 2 1 2 2 4 2 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 1 2 1 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 3 1 2 3 1 2 1 3 4 3 2 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 4 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 1 3 2 3

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 2 1 2 4 2 2 4 1 3 2 2 2 3 2 4 4 4 1 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 1 3 3 3 2 1 4 3 1 3 2 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 4 1 3 2 3 4 2 1 3 1 1 3 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 2 2 3 2 1 2 1 3 1 1 2 2 4 4 3 2 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 1 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 4 4 3 4 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 4 1 2 3 4 4 2 1 3 4 3 2 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

We know that,
vterminal ∝ r2

∴
when 8 drops combine, we have

8× =
⇒ r2 = 2r1

∴ ⇒ v2 = 64 cm/sec

3) ne > nn ⇒ Semiconductor is N type

ρ=

=
= 0.34 Ωm

6) Tref = 0°C water

QSupplied : = 3000 Cal

QRequired : = 4000 Cal

∵ QReq > QSupplied
∴ TMix = Tref. = 0°C

8)

Since TC cos 45° = TB sin 45° ⇒ TC = TB ...(1)

TC sin 45° + TB cos 45° = 20g ⇒ 2TC × = 200

TC = = 141 N

12) Linear momentum of water striking per second to the wall Pi = mυ = Aυρ u = Aυ2 r,
similarly linear momentum of reflected water per second Pr = Au2ρ.
 Now making components of momentum along
x-axes and y-axes. Change in momentum of water per second
= Pi cos θ + Pr cos θ
= 2 Aυ2 ρ cos θ
By definition of force, force exerted on the
Wall = 2Aυ2 ρ cos θ.

15)

V = 80 × 4 = 320 m/s

19)
Let temp. of junction is T
at steady state

⇒
300 – 3 = T
4T = 300 ⇒ T = 75°C

20) Strain developed :

ε = αΔT = (12 × 10–6) (50) = 6 × 10–4

23)

25) Slope →

–tan 37º = – m ×
26) LC = 0.01 mm
Diameter d = 2.5 + (0.01) × 20 = 2.70 mm

27) PV = nRT
20 V = nR(27 + 273) = nR (300)

(ii)/(i)

28)

29)

30) VP3 = constant

= constant
3 2
T ∝V

T2 = 9T1 = 9T

31)

Fundamental frequency of COP =

frequency obtained in COP are in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 .....

so frequency will be
80, 240, 400, 560 Hz ....

37)

H = I2Rt

= 6%

39)

=
= A + B (∵ )
= OR gate

41)

∴ Number of atoms per sec

Number of atoms per hour
= 1.102 × 1019 × 3600 = 3.97 × 1022

42) +
⇒ v = –90 cm

m= = =2

44) y = ⇒

48) μ =
∵ μ = cot (A/2)
 ∴ cot (A/2) =

⇒ cos (A/2) = sin

⇒ 90° – A/2 =
⇒ δm = 180° – 2A

49) for, photon & Electron

⇒ λp ∝ λe2

CHEMISTRY

51) 16 + 3 = 19 Proton

52)

54)
= 32.66

55) [Hint : the-reaction : log

Shows that the equilibrium constant will increase with temperature for endothermic reaction,
i. e. △H = + ve.]

56)

t1/2 =

60)
= [2S]2 [S] = 4S2

= 2 × 10–4 M
∴ = 2 × 10–4 M

63) Number of molecules in 100 mg CO2

=
= 1.368 × 1021
Molecules remaining = 1.368 × 1021–1021 = 0.368 × 1021
Number of moles remaining

64)

n = 4; ℓ = 0 ; mℓ = 0
ℓ = 1 ; mℓ = –1, 0, +1
ℓ = 2 ; mℓ = –2, –1, 0, +1, +2
ℓ = 3 ; mℓ = –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3
There are three orbitals having mℓ = +1, thus maximum number of electrons in them will be 6.

65)

wB = 15.375 g

67) Red in acidic medium, yellow in basic medium

68)

Strong acid + Strong base → Salt + H2O ; 57kJ mol–1

HNO3 + KOH → KNO3 + H2O
(0.5 mol) (0.2 mol)
∴ 0.2 mol reacts with 0.2 mol of HNO3
= 57 × 0.2 = 11.4 kJ

69) Read notes

70)

Cl2(g) 2Cl(g) ; ΔH1 = 242.3 kJ/mol

I2(g) 2I(g); ΔH2 = 151 kJ/mol
ICI(g) I(g) + Cl(g) ΔH3 = 211.3 kJ/mol
I2(S) I2(g); ΔH4 = 62.8 kJ/mol
Required equation:

I2(s) + Cl2(g) ICI(g); ΔH = ?

= 62.8 kJ/mol

71) For spontaneous process.

ΔSTotal = ΔSystem + ΔSurroundings) must be positive.

73) Reactivity of alcohol µ stability of carbocation.

74)

X —→ ESR
Y —→ EAR

75)

80)
So, stability order Þ I > IV > III > II
 81)

89) Priority of cyanide > Aldehyde

91)

is better

92) The reactivity in SN1 reaction depends upon the stability of the intermediate carbocations.
Since the stability of the carbocations derived from (A), (B) and (C) follows the order :

therefore, SN1 reactivity of these three bromides follows the order : B > C > A, i.e., option (c)
is correct.

96)
Empirical formula = CH3

BOTANY
107) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 81

111)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

117) NCERT XI Pg # 210

120)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 231

121) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 227

123)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 159

124) NCERT XI Eng. page # 243 (Middle para)

125) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 230

126) NCERT XI Pg. # 243

127)

NCERT Pg. # 28,29

129)

NCERT XII, Page # 27

132)

NCERT

133) Module-1 Pg. # 130

140) Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty conducted experiments between
1933 and 1944 to determine the biochemical nature of the 'transforming principle' in Griffith's
experiment. They purified various biochemicals from heat-killed S cells and demonstrated that
DNA, not protein, was the genetic material responsible for transformation.
 144)

NCERT PG. # 249

146) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 235

147) NCERT XI Page # 246, Figure 15.8

149) NCERT (XIth) (E) Pg. # 247 (1st para)

NCERT (XIth) (H) Pg. # 247 (पहला पे राग ाफ)
[Inter एवं Intra, Eng. NCERT से confirm कर ।]

ZOOLOGY

151) NCERT Pg. # 275

152)

NCERT Pg. # 112

153)

NCERT Pg No : 118

154)

Scoliodon – Dog fish, Trigon – Sting ray, Betta – Fighting fish, Pterophyllum – Angel fish

155) NCERT Page no. 40,43,44,45

156)

OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

157) NCERT XI, Pg. # 102, IInd para

158) NCERT XI Pg # 144

159)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 199

160)

NCERT XI - Pg# 281

161) NCERT, Pg#271

162)

NCERT - Pg. No.# 295

163) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 297

164) NCERT Pg. # 309, Fig. 20.6

165) Module

166) NCERT 316

167)

NCERT Pg. # 317

168) NCERT 333, 335

169)

NCERT Pg. # 341

170)

NCERT Pg. 49

171)

NCERT Pg. 54

172) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 165

173) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 199

174) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 187,188

175)

NCERT XII Pg # 183, 184, 169

176) NCERT-XII ; Pg # 156, 157

177) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 135

178) NCERT XII Pg# 60 (E), 67 (H)

179) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 44

180)

NCERT Pg. No. 48

181)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 57

182) NCERT, Pg. # 100

183)

NCERT XI, Pg # 148

184)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 114,115

185)

NCERT Pg.No - 113

186)

NCERT Pg# 293

187)

NCERT Pg. # 113

188) NCERT Pg # 119

189)

NCERT EDITION 2022 - 2023 Pg.No. 143

190)

NCERT Pg No. 183, 185, 187, 189

191)

NCERT XII Pg. # 183

192) NCERT (XII) Pg#140 Para:7.9

193) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 51

194) NCERT-XI Pg. # 144

195) NCERT Pg.# 159

196)

Calcitonin secreted by thyroid gland is hypocalcaemic.

Parathormone secreted by parathyroid gland is hypercalcaemic.
Deficiency in Mineralocorticoid (secreted by adrenal cortex) increases K+ level.

197) NCERT (XI) E Pg. # 232

198) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 212

199)

NCERT, Pg. # 30

200) NCERT Pg. # 43