30-03-2025

9610ZMD801482240021 MD

PHYSICS

1) A logic gate circuit provides the output Y as per the following truth table :

A B Y

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 1

1 1 0

The expression for the output Y is-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) B

2) The electron mobility in n-type germanium is 3900 cm2/v-s and its conductivity is 6.24 mho/cm,
then impurity concentration :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) Inner diameter of a hollow cylindrical object is measured from vernier callipers its reading is
shown in diagram then diameter will be : (if 9 part of main scale coincide with 10 part of vernier

scale)

(1) 9.4 mm
(2) 5.4 mm
(3) 5.5 mm
(4) 6.4 mm

4) Some physical quantity are given in column-I while their dimensions are given in Column-II.
Match the correct entries in Column-I with corresponding correct entries in Column-II.
(1) a–(i), b–(ii), c–(iii), d–(iv)
(2) a–(ii), b–(i), c–(iv), d–(iii)
(3) a–(i), b–(iii), c–(iv), d–(ii)
(4) a–(iv), b–(i), c–(iii), d–(ii)

5) At a certain instant of time the mass of a rocket going up vertically is 100 kg. If it is ejecting 5 kg
of gas per second at a speed of 400 m/s, the acceleration of the rocket would be (taking g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 20 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2

6) A car is moving on a straight horizontal road with a speed v. If the coefficient of friction between
the tyres and the road us μ, distance in which the car can be stopped is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Assuming that the law of gravitation is of the form F = and attractive. A body of mass m
revolves in a circular path of radius r around a fixed body of mass M. Find on what power of r will
the square of time period depend.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

8) The magnitudes of gravitational field at distance r1 and r2 from the centre of a uniform sphere of
radius R and mass M are I1 and I2 respectively. Find the ratio of (I1/I2) when,
Now match the given columns and select the correct option from the codes given below :-
Codes

(1) i–s, ii–r, iii–q, iv–p

(2) i–p, ii–s, iii–q, iv–r
(3) i–r, ii–s, iii–p, iv–q
(4) i–p, ii–q, iii–r, iv–s

9) Suppose ideal gas equation follows VP3 = constant. Initial temperature and volume of the gas are
T and V respectively. If gas expands to 27V, then its temperature will become :

(1) T
(2) 9T
(3) 27T
(4) T/9

10) If pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessels is increased by 0.4%, when heated by 1°C, the
initial temperature must be :

(1) 250 K
(2) 250°C
(3) 2500 K
(4) 25°C

11) A vessel of volume 8 × 10–3 m3 contains an ideal gas at 300 Kelvin & 200kPa. The gas is allowed
to leak till the pressure falls to 125 kPa. Calculate the number of moles leaked when temperature
remains constant :–

(1) 0.24
(2) 2.4
(3) 0.80
(4) 2.8

12) Water contained in a tank flows through an orifice of diameter 2 cm, under a constant pressure
difference of 10cm of water column. The rate of flow of water through the orifice is :-

(1) 44 cc/sec
(2) 4.4 cc/sec
(3) 440 cc/sec
(4) 4400 cc/sec
13) A metal ball B1 (density 3.2 gm/cm3) is dropped in water while another metal ball B2 (density 6
gm/ cm3) is dropped in a liquid of density 1.6 g cm–3. If both the balls have the same diameter and
attain the same terminal velocity, the ratio of coefficient of viscosity of water to that of the liquid is
(and density of water is 1 gm/cm3) :-

(1) 2.0
(2) 0.5
(3) 4.0
(4) Indeterminate due to insufficient data

14) In vacuum,

(1) red travels faster.

(2) yellow travels faster.
(3) violet travels faster.
(4) all colours have same speed.

15) A convex lens of focal length 40 cm, a concave lens of focal length 40 cm and a concave lens of
focal length 15 cm are placed in contact. The power of the combination in dioptre is :

(1) +1.5
(2) –1.5
(3) +6.67
(4) –6.67

16) In the Young's double slit experiment a point P on the central bright fringe is such that the

intensity of the point P is times, the maximum intensity. Distance between the slits is d and
wavelength is λ. Then angular position of point P is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A 100 watt light source is emitting radiations of wavelength 5000Å. The rate of emission of
photons is of the order of :-

(1) 1040
(2) 1020
(3) 1010
(4) 105
18)

The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E1 and E2 respectively. Two atoms of X are fused to give
one atom of Y and an energy Q is released. Then

(1) Q = 2E1 – E2
(2) Q = E2 – 2E1
(3) Q = 2E1 + E2
(4) Q = 2E2 + E1

19) If alternating current of 60 Hz frequency is flowing through inductance of L=1 mH and drop in
ΔVL is 0.6 V then alternating current :-

(1)
A

(2)
A

(3)
A

(4)
A

20)

The power factor of the circuit shown in the figure is :-

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.8
(4) 0.6

21) The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic wave has a peak value of 20nT. The peak
value of electric field strength is:-

(1) 3 V/m
(2) 6 V/m
(3) 9 V/m
(4) 12 V/m

22) Which statement is incorrect ?

(1)
Speed of light in free space =

(2)
Speed of light in the medium =

(3)

(4)

23) Two trains A and B, 100m and 60m long, are moving in opposite directions on parallel tracks.
The velocity of shorter train in 3 times that of the longer one. If the trains take 4s to cross each
other, the velocities of the trains are :

(1) vA = 10 m/s , vB = 30 m/s

(2) vA = 2.5 m/s , vB = 7.5 m/s
(3) vA = 20 m/s , vB = 60 m/s
(4) vA = 5 m/s , vB = 15 m/s

24) An aeroplane flying at 540 km/hr horizontally drops a packet when it was exactly above the
target, at a height of 2 km from the target. By what horizontal distance packet will miss the target?

(1) 3 km
(2) 5 km
(3) 6 km
(4) 9 km

25) A body of mass 500 g is attached to a horizontal spring of spring constant Nm-1 . If the body
is pulled to a distance of 10 cm from its mean position, then its frequency of oscillation is :

(1) 2 Hz
(2) 4 Hz
(3) 8 Hz
(4) 0.5 Hz

26) A small mass executes linear SHM about O with amplitude a and period T. Its displacement from
O at time T/8 after passing through O is :

(1) a/8
(2)
(3) a/2
(4)

27) Two closed organ pipes of length 100 cm and 101 cm produce 16 beats in 20 sec. When each
pipe is sounded in its fundamental mode calculate the velocity of sound.

(1) 303 ms-1

(2) 332 ms-1
(3) 323.32 ms-1
(4) 300 ms-1

28) The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by

,
where x and y are in metres and t is in second. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the wave
velocity is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) In which of the following circuits is the current maximum just after the switch S is closed ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) Both 2 and 3

30) Current i flows through a long wire. A square loop made of conducting wire held below the wire
in the same vertical plane is released and allowed to fall under gravity. If acceleration of the loop is

a, then :-

(1) A current is induced in anticlockwise direction and a > g

(2) A current is induced in the clockwise direction and a < g
(3) A current is induced in anticlockwise direction and a < g
(4) No current is induced in the loop and a = g

31) A particle of mass m and charge q moving with velocity v < enters region-II normal to the
boundary as shown in the figure. Region-II has a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane

of paper. The particle will :-

(1) Enter the region-III

(2) Not enter the region-III
(3) Complete circular motion in region-II
(4) Move undeflected in region-II

32) A proton (mass m and charge +e) and an particle (mass 4m and charge +2e) are projected with
the same kinetic energy at right angles to the uniform magnetic field. Which one of the following
statements will be true

(1) The α-particle will be bent in a circular path with a small radius that for the proton
(2) The radius of the path of the α-particle will be greater than that of the proton
(3) The α-particle and the proton will be bent in a circular path with the same radius
(4) The α-particle and the proton will go through the field in a straight line

33) The electric current in a circular coil of four turns produces a magnetic induction 32 T at its
centre. The coil is unwound and is rewound into a circular coil of single turn, the magnetic induction
at the centre of the coil by the same current will be :

(1) 8T
(2) 4T
(3) 2T
(4) 16T

34) A 1 charge is uniformly distributed on a spherical shell given by the equation x2+y2+z2 = 25 .
What will be the intensity of electric field at a point (1,1,2) ?

(1) 5 N/C
(2) 45 N/C
(3) 112.5 N/C
(4) Zero

35) The electric potential at a point A due to system given below is (Where )

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Consider a sphere of radius R having charge q uniformly distributed inside it. At what minimum
distance from its surface the electric potential is half of the electric potential at its centre?

(1) R

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A capacitor has air as dielectric medium and two conducting plates of same area and they are
0.5 cm apart. When a slab of dielectric having identical area and 0.5 cm thickness is inserted
between the plates, one of the conducting plates has to be moved by 0.25 cm to keep the
capacitance same as in previous case. The dielectric constant of the slab is :
(Given : )

(1) 1.50
(2) 2
(3) 0.66
(4) 2.5

38) Two capacitor of capacitances 30 mF and 60 mF are connected in parallel to a supply of 100 V.
Energy stored in the above combination is E. When these capacitors are connected in series to the
same supply, the stored energy is:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

39) Two resistors of resistance, 100 and 200 are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The
ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 to that in the combined resistance in 5 second is :

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 1 : 2

40) The electric current through a wire varies with time as I = 10 + 3t. The amount of electric
charge crossed through a section of the wire in 20s is:

(1) 1600 c
(2) 800 c
(3) 80 c
(4) 1000 c

41) A particle is moving with constant speed υ along line y = a in positive x-direction. Find
magnitude of its angular velocity 'ω' about origin when its position vector makes an angle θ with
positive x-axis :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) When you lower a book of mass m down slowly through a distance h from yourself, the work
done by you on the book is

(1) mgh
(2) –mgh
(3) zero
(4) > mgh

43) A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m. If the coefficient of restitution for the collision between
ball and floor is 0.5, after hitting the floor, the ball rebounds to a height of_________m.

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9

44) A thin rod of mass 0.9 kg and length 1m is suspended, at rest, from one end so that it can freely
oscillate in the vertical plane. A particle of move 0.1 kg moving in a straight line with velocity 80 m/s
hits the rod at its bottom most point and sticks to it (see figure). The angular speed (in rad/s) of the

rod immediately after the collision will be ______.

(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 60
(4) 80

45) Consider a uniform wire of mass M and length L. It is bent into a semicircle. Its moment of
inertia about a line perpendicular to the plane of the wire passing through the centre is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) The IUPAC nomenclature for the complex Na[Pt-BrCl(NO2)(NH3)]

(1) Sodium amminechlorobromonitro-N-platinum(II)

(2) Sodium nitrochlorobromoammine-N-platinate(II)
(3) Sodium amminebromochloronitro-N-platinate(II)
(4) Sodium amminebromochloronitro-N-platinum(II)

2) Statement-1 : Zeise’s salt is a π-bonded organometallic compound.

Statement-2 : Zeise’s salt contain C2H4 molecules as one of the ligand.

(1) If statement-1 is true but the statement-2 is false.

(2) If statement-1 is false but statement-2 is true.
(3) If both statements are true and the statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1.
(4) If both statement are true but statement-2 is not the correct explanation of statement-1.

3) Which of the following orders regarding thermal stability of hydrides MH3 of group 15 is correct ?
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3
(2) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3
(3) NH3 > PH3 < AsH3
(4) NH3 < PH3 > AsH3

4) The correct order of O—O bond length in O2, H2O2 and O3 :

(1) O3 > H2O2 > O2

(2) O2 > H2O2 > O3
(3) O2 > O3 > H2O2
(4) H2O2 > O3 > O2

5) Given below are two statements : Statement-I : Transition elements exhibit higher enthalpies of
atomisation.
Statement-II : Transition elements have stronger inter atomic interaction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I and II both are correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct.

6) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Ce+4 is a strong oxidant but Eu+2 is a strong reducing agent.
Statement-II : All lanthanoid ion in +3 oxidation state are paramagnetic.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct.

7) Assertion (A) : Aqueous solution of Mohr's salt exhibits the test for NH4+, Fe2+ and SO42– ions.
Reason (R) : Mohr's salt is a double salt.

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

8) Two gases when mixed give white dense fumes, the gases are

(1) NH3 and SO2

(2) SO2 and steam
(3) NH3 and HCl
(4) NH3 and N2O

9) What is the mass of a molecule of CH4 :–

(1) 16 g
(2) 26.6 × 1022 g
(3) 2.66 × 10–23 g
(4) 16 NA g

10)

Multiplication of electron velocity and radius for a orbit in an atom is :-

(1) Proportional to mass of electron

(2) Proportional to square of mass of electron
(3) Inversely proportional to mass of electron
(4) Does not depend upon mass of electron

11) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Solubility of AgBr decreases in the presence of NaBr.
Statement-II : NaBr undergoes hydrolysis in water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

12) An ideal gas expands isothermally from 10–3 m3 to 10–2 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure of
105 Nm–2. The work, in the process is :-

(1) +270 kJ
(2) –900 J
(3) +900 kJ
(4) –900 kJ

13) For which reaction at 298 K, the value of is maximum and minimum respectively :-
(a) N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)
(b) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)
(c) X(g) + Y(g) ⇌ 4Z(g)
(d) A(g) + 3B(g) ⇌ 7C(g)

(1) d, c
(2) d, b
(3) c, b
(4) d, a

14) In the reaction : here x will be

(1) n1 + n2
(2) n2 – n1
(3) n1 – n2
(4) n1 . n2

15) For a reaction at 25°C enthalpy change (ΔH) and entropy change (ΔS) are –11.7 × 103 Jmol–1
and –105 J mol–1 K–1 respectively. The reaction is :

(1) Spontaneous
(2) Non spontaneous
(3) At equilibrium
(4) Can't say anything

16) A compound (X) with molecular formula C3H9N reacts with C6H5SO2Cl to give solid which is
insoluble in alkali. X is :-

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2
(2) CH3–CH2–NH–CH3

(3)

(4)

17) Which of the following is correct –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All
18) Which of the following will not give D.N.P. test?

(1) CH3–CHO
(2) CH3–CO–CH3
(3) CH3–O–CH3

(4)

19) When acetaldehyde is heated with fehling's solution it gives a precipitate of

(1) Cu
(2) CuO
(3) Cu2O
(4) Cu(OH)2

20) In the following sequence of reactions,

the compound D is :-

(1) Propanal
(2) Butanal
(3) n-butylalcohol
(4) n-propylalcohol

21) Which of the following is a reducing sugar ?

(1) Starch
(2) Cellulose
(3) Glycogen
(4) Fructose

22) Which of the following statement is incorrect :

(1) Pentacetate of glucose react with hydroxylamine forming oxime.

(2) Glucose does not form a addition product with NaHSO3.
(3) A aged solution of α-D Glucose will show less dextrorotation then fresh solutions.
(4) All of these

23)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Which of following belongs to –I groups ?

(1)

(2)

(3) –CH3, –OCH3, –COOH, –F

(4)

25) In which of following species hyperconjugation is possible ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved
from 0.75 g of sample neutralised 10 mL of M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is

(1) 45.33
(2) 35.33
(3) 43.33
(4) 37.33

27) Which of the following compounds will react with Na to form 4, 5-diethyloctane ?

(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Which of the following reactions does not show the correct products of the reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Which one is the most reactive towards electrophilic reagent ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
30)

(1) CH3CH2CH=CH—CH3
(2) CH3CH2CH=CH2

(3)

(4)

31) The freezing point order of the solution of glucose is:

(1) 10% > 3% > 2% > 1%

(2) 1% > 2% > 3% > 10%
(3) 1% > 3% > 10% > 2%
(4) 10% > 1% > 3% > 2%

32) The vapours pressure of two liquids X and Y are 80 and 60 torr respectively. The total vapour
pressure of the ideal solution obtained by mixing 3 moles of X and 2 moles of Y would be

(1) 68 torr
(2) 140 torr
(3) 48 torr
(4) 72 torr

33) The specific conductance of a N/10 solution of KCl at 25°C is 0.0035 Ω–1 cm–1. If the resistance of
a cell containing this solution is 500 Ω, what is the cell constant?

(1) 1.106 cm–1

(2) 1.75 cm–1
(3) 3.2 cm–1
(4) 2 cm–1

34) Assertion (A) : Λm for weak electrolytes shows a sharp increase when electrolytic solution is
diluted.
Reason (R) : For weak electrolytes degree of dissociation increases with dilution of solution.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

35) Electrolysis of aq. CuSO4 causes

(1) A decrease in pH
(2) An increase in pH
(3) Either decreases or increase in pH
(4) None of the above

36) The rate of reaction increases with rise in temperature because of :-

(1) Decrease in energy of activation

(2) Increase in energy of activation
(3) Increase in total no. of molecules
(4) Increase in the number of effective collisions

37) The hypothetical reaction P2 + Q2 → 2PQ follows the mechanism as given below :
P2 2P (fast)
P + Q2 → PQ + Q (slow)
P + Q → PQ (fast)
The order of the over all reaction is :-

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 1.5
(4) 0

38) A first order reaction is 75% completed in 100 min. How long will it take for it's 87.5%
completion ?

(1) 125 min

(2) 150 min
(3) 175 min
(4) 200 min

39) Consider the following table

Total number of electron pairs Total number of

Shape
(l.p. + σ-bond) lone pairs

5 Linear

1 See-saw

4 Bent shape

2 Square planar

5 Bent “T” shape

Then calculate value of “p + q + r – s – t’.
(1) 2
(2) 10
(3) 0
(4) 5

40) Which set of compound in the following pair of ionic compounds has the higher lattice energy ?
(i) KCl of MgO (ii) LiF or LiBr (iii) Mg3N2 or NaCl

(1) KCl, LiBr, Mg3N2

(2) MgO, LiBr, Mg3N2
(3) MgO, LiF, NaCl
(4) MgO, LiF, Mg3N2

41) Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F
if it is false.
(I) The order of repulsion between different pair of electrons is lp–lp > lp–bp > bp–bp
(II) In general, as the number of lone pair of electrons on central atom increases, value of bond
angle from normal bond angle also increases.
(III) The number of lone pair on O in H2O is 2 while on N in NH3 is 1
(IV) The structures of xenon fluorides and xenon oxyfluorides could not be explained on the basis of
VSEPR theory.

(1) TTTF
(2) TFTF
(3) TFTT
(4) TFFF

42) Bonds present in N2O5 (nitrogen pentaoxide) are :

(1) only ionic

(2) only covalent
(3) covalent and co-ordinate
(4) covalent and ionic

43) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II
(atomic number) (position in the periodic table)

(A) 52 (P) s-block

(B) 56 (Q) p-block

(C) 30 (R) d-block

(D) 60 (S) f-block

(1) A→Q; B→P; C→R; D→S
(2) A→P; B→Q; C→R; D→S
(3) A→Q; B→R; C→P; D→S
(4) A→Q; B→P; C→S; D→R
44) Select equations having endothermic step :
(a) S–(g) → S2–(g)
(b) Cl(g) + e– → Cl–(g)
(c) N(g) → N–(g)
(d) Al2+(g) → Al3+(g)

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d

45) The electronic configuration of four elements are :

(I) [Kr]5s1 (II) [Rn]5f146d17s2
(III) [Ar]3d104s24p5 (IV) [Ar]3d64s2
Consider the following statements :
(i) I shows variable oxidation state
(ii) II is a d-block element
(iii) The compound formed between I and III is covalent
(iv) IV shows single oxidation state

(1) FTFF
(2) FTFT
(3) FFTF
(4) FFFF

BIOLOGY

1) Which one of the following option gives the correct categorisation of cellular events according to
their respective phase (A, B, C).

A B C
(Diakinesis) (Pachytene) (Diplotene)

(1) Synapsis Crossing over Chiasmata appear

Terminalisation of Dissolution of
(2) Recombination nodule
chiasmata synaptonemal complex

Activity of recombinase
(3) Synapsis Crossing over
enzyme

(4) Bouquet stage Crossing over Chiasmata appear

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Bulk of RNA is synthesised in a cell during

(1) S-(synthetic) phase
(2) G2 phase
(3) G1 phase
(4) M-phase

3) In which of the following ways are mitosis and meiosis similar?

(1) Both have pairing of homologous chromosomes.

(2) Both are preceded by DNA replication
(3) Both occur in all kinds of cells
(4) Both include separation of paired chromosomes.

4) Identify the mismatched pair with respect to phases of prophase-I

(1) Zygotene – Synapsis of homologous chromosome

(2) Pachytene – Recombination nodule formation
(3) Diakinesis – Can last for months or years in oocyte of some vertebrate
(4) Diplotene – Chiasmata distinct

5) What is the percentage of protein and lipid in the plasmalemma of RBC respectively?

(1) 58%, 40%

(2) 40%, 58%
(3) 52%, 40%
(4) 40%, 52%

6) Plant cells differ from animal cells in having :-

(1) Cell wall

(2) Plastids
(3) A large central vacuole
(4) All of these

7) The function of nucleolus is the synthesis of :-

(1) DNA
(2) m-RNA
(3) r-RNA
(4) t-RNA

8) The number of membranes that surround centriole structure is :-

(1) 3
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 2

9) Statement-I :

- Nephridia helps in excretion as well as osmoregulation.

Statement-II :

- Water canal system helps in respiration and excretion.

(1) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

10) Choose the phylums that includes exclusively marine animals :

(1) Coelenterata, Ctenophora, Platyhelminthes

(2) Ctenophora, Echinodermata, Hemichordata
(3) Mollusca, Echinodermata, Arthropoda
(4) Porifera, Mollusca, Chordata

11) Choose the correct match showing higher to lower category -

(1) Agnatha Pisces Tetrapoda

(2) Vertebrata Chordata Gnathostomata

(3) Gnathostomata Tetrapoda Mammalia

(4) Agnatha Pisces Cyclostomata

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) A. Tendon
B. Blood
C. Areolar tissue
D. Cartilage
Choose the appropriate option -

(1) A and B are loose connective tissue

(2) A, B and D are specialized connective tissue
(3) A is loose connective tissue whereas C is dense connective tissue
(4) C and D are dense connective tissue

13) Choose the incorrect match –

(1) Columnar cells in stomach and intestine : form a diffusion boundary.

(2) Cuboidal epithelium in nephrons – involved in secretion and absorption.
(3) Compound epithelium – protection.
(4) Ciliated epithelium – move particles in specific direction.

14) Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Periplaneta americana.

(1) Wings extend beyond the tip of the abdomen in males.

(2) Mouth parts are biting and chewing type.
(3) Hindwings are opaque dark and leathery.
(4) Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal styles which are absent in females.

15) All the given structures are present in frog except –

(1) Renal portal system

(2) Sinus venosus
(3) Conus arteriosus
(4) Anal cerci

16) Fill in the blanks in the following statements The human male ejaculates about ____A____ million
sperms during a coitus of which, for normal fertility, at least ____B____ percent sperms must have
normal shape and size and at least ____C____ percent of them must show vigorous motility.

(1) A- 400 - 500, B - 60, C - 40

(2) A - 100 - 120, B - 40, C - 60
(3) A - 200 - 300, B - 60, C - 40
(4) A - 200 - 300, B - 40, C - 60

17) In humans the correct sequence of various stage in sexual reproduction are –

(1) Insemination → Gametogenesis → Fertilization → Parturition

(2) Gametogenesis → Insemination – Fertilization → Implantation → Gestation → Parturition
(3) Parturition → Gametogenesis → Insemination → Fertilization → Implantation → Gestation
(4) Gametogenesis → Insemination → Fertilization → Gestation → Implantation → parturition

18) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the
correct ones only.
(a) GnRH is a hypothalamic hormone
(b) LH acts on the leydig cells
(c) Androgen stimulate the process of oogenesis
(d) FSH acts on the sertoli cells
Options :-

(1) a, b, d
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, d

19) 'Antrum' is a cavity present in :-

(1) Primary oocyte

(2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Secondary follicle
(4) Tertiary follicle

20) Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD ?

(1) Lippes loop

(2) Cu7
(3) LNG-20
(4) Multiload 375

21) If sperm is immotile which of the following technique is suitable for fertilization :-

(1) Z.I.F.T
(2) I.U.T.
(3) I.C.S.I.
(4) A.I.

22) Which of following antibody will be produced during allergic reaction ?

(1) IgA
(2) IgE
(3) IgM
(4) IgD

23) Saliva of mouth and tears of eye are included under which barrier ?

(1) Physiological barrier

(2) Physical barrier
(3) Cellular barrier
(4) Cytokine barrier
24) Identify the A, B, C, D in the following life cycle.
Options :-

A B C D

Salivary
(1) Gametocyte Liver Sporozoites
gland

Salivary
(2) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

Salivary
(3) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

(4) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte Salivary gland

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Given below are pairs of pathogens, disease caused by them and their classification. Which is
incorrectly matched ?

Causative
Disease Pathogen
agent

Haemophilus
(1) Pneumonia Bacteria
influenzae

(2) Typhoid Salmonella Bacteria

(3) Filariasis Microsporum Round worm

Chikungunya
(4) Chikungunya Virus
Virus
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Which of the following is incorrect among the following?

(1) Thorns of Cucurbita and tendrils of Bougainvillea represent homology.

(2) Heart of vertebrate represent homology.
(3) Flippers of penguin and dolphin represent analogy.
(4) Sweet potato and potato represent analogy.

27) How many of the following given statements are true?

(a) Continuity of germplasm discarded the theory of Darwinism.
(b) Alfred Wallace worked in the Malay Archipelago island and came to similar conclusion of use
and disuse of organ.
(c) Large differences arising suddenly in a population called mutation given by hardy.
(d) Isolation has no role genetic variation.
(e) Ernst Haeckel stated that in embryonic stages general character appears firstly and specialised
character later.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) All are incorrect

28) Statement-I : Random change in the allelic frequency in a population merely by chance is called
gene migration.
Statement-II : Genetic equilibrium operates in large, selectively mating and non-evolving
population.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

29) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option from given below options.

Column-I Column-II

i Syncarpous a Papaya

ii Endodermis b Papaver

iii Middle layer c Michelia

iv Many ovule d Hygroscopic

v One ovule e Paddy

Provide nutrition to developing pollen

f
grains

g Ephemeral
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-e, iv-f, v-d
(2) i-c, ii-d, iii-g, iv-e, v-a
(3) i-b, ii-d, iii-f, iv-a, v-e
(4) i-b, ii-d, iii-g, iv-a, v-e

30) Assertion : Megaspore mother cell divides mitotically and form dyad of cells which further form
tetrad of cells.
Reason : Main plant body of angiosperm is sporophyte and megaspore represent gametophyte
stage, the sporophyte stage is regain after triple fusion.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Only assertion is true.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

31) Among them how many statements are correct.

I. Embryo develop at the region of micropyle.
II. Hypodermis outgrow during epigeal germination.
III. Non-albuminous seeds are endospermic.
IV. Apple and strawberries are false fruit.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

32) For the given population growth curve which statement is correct :-

(1) Curve 'a' does not show saturation because rate of population growth is very slow.

(2)
Curve 'b' population growth rate is represented by = rN.
(3) 'K' is carrying capacity and its value is equal for all organisms.
(4) Curve 'b' represents logistic growth rate in a population.

33)

A population has certain attributes that an individual organism does not, like :-

(a) birth (b) birth rate

(c) death rate (d) sex ratio
(1) a and d only
(2) a and b only
(3) b, c and d
(4) c and d only

34) Assertion : In mutualism, both the species are benefitted from each other..
Reason : Example of mutualism is cuckoo and crow birds..

(1) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion and Reason are false.

35) Assertion (A) : Ecosystem follows both laws of thermodynamics.

Reason (R) : The ultimate source of energy is the sun for all ecosystems.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

36) In a given food chain suppose the amount of energy at the fourth tropic level is 6 KJ, what will be

the energy at producer level ?

(1) 0.6 KJ
(2) 60KJ
(3) 600KJ
(4) 6000KJ

37) Assertion: According to rivet popper hypothesis, loss of rivets on the wings is obviously a more
serious threat to flight safety than loss of a few rivets on the seats or windows inside the plane.
Reason: Which rivet is removed from the airplane may also be critical.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

38) Assertion : The most dramatic examples of habitat loss come from tropical rain forest.
Reason : They are being destroyed fast for cultivation of soybean and grassland for beef cattle.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

39) Assertion : A stable community should not show too much variation in productivity from year to
year.
Reason : Increased diversity in community contribute to higher productivity.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

40) In pea and bean flowers, the stamens are __A__ and aestivation in petals is __B__. Here A & B
are respectively :

(1) Diadelphous, Vexillary

(2) Monoadelphous, Vexillary
(3) Polyadelphous, Imbricate
(4) Diadelphous, Valvate

41) The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as __A__ while the mode of arrangement of
flower on floral axis is known as __B__.

(1) [A] Aestivation, [B] Placentation

(2) [A] Venation, [B] Placentation
(3) [A] Placentation, [B] Inflorescence
(4) [A] Venation, [B] Aestivation

42) In dicot stem, in between the vascular bundles there are few layer of radially placed
parenchymatous cells, which constitute _________.

(1) Conjuctive tissue

(2) Cortex
(3) Medullary rays
(4) Bundle sheath.

43) Assertion (A) :- Vascular bundles are scattered in monocot stem.

Reason (R) :- Size of vascular bundles in monocot stem is variable.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct.
44) How many plants in the list given below have twisted aestivation and axile placentation.
Sunflower, Chinarose, Wheat, Cotton, Maize, Grass, Marigold, Parthenium.

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Three

45) Aerobic respiration takes place only in the presence of oxygen and the role of O2 is limited to
the:-

(1) Glycolysis
(2) Link reaction
(3) Kreb's cycle
(4) Terminal stage of ETS

46) (A) Water splitting

(B) Reduction of carbon dioxide
(C) Use of ATP
(D) Formation of ATP and NADPH
(E) Oxygen release
Which of the above processes are not included in the photochemical phase (light Reaction) of
photosynthesis ?

(1) A, B and C
(2) C and E
(3) B, D and E
(4) B and C

47) Choose the correct sequence of steps with respect to flow of electrons in non-cyclic ETS :-

(1) PS II → PQ → Cyt b6f → PC → PS II

(2) PS I → PQ → Cyt b6f → PC → PS II
(3) PS II → PQ → Cyt b6f → PC → PS I
(4) PS I → PQ → Cyt b6f → PC → PS I

48) In mitochondrial ETS, cytochrome 'c' acts as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between :-

(1) Complex III and IV

(2) Complex I and II
(3) Complex II and III
(4) Complex IV and V

49) Assertion (A) :- Two decarboxylation reactions occur in each turn of Krebs cycle.
Reason (R) :- Pyruvic acid, which is the substrate for krebs cycle is a 2C compound.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) and (R) both are incorrect

50) Parenchymatous cells that are made to divide under controlled laboratory conditions during
plant tissue culture is :-

(1) Differentiation
(2) Dedifferentiation
(3) Redifferentiation
(4) None

51) Which of the following is not correct about ethylene.

(1) Break dormancy in peanut seeds

(2) Promote male flowing in cucumber
(3) Enhance respiration rate in ripening fruits
(4) Thinning in walnut & cotton

52)

Labelled-B representing entry of-

(1) 4Ca++
(2) 2Na+
(3) 4H+
(4) 2K+

53)

Name the blank space A, B, C and D given in the following table :

Microbes Commercial
name product

A Lactic acid

B Cyclosporin-A

C Penicillin
 D Statins
(1) A-Lactobacillus; B-Trichoderma; C-Penicillium; D-Aspergillus
(2) A-Trichoderma; B-Aspergillus; C-Lactobacillus; D-Penicillium
(3) A-Lactobacillus; B-Trichoderma; C-Penicillium notatum; D-Monascus
(4) A-Lactobacillus; B-Trichoderma; C-Penicillium; D-Streptococcus

54) The relation of solanaceae and convolvulaceae with polymoniales is similar to the relation
occuring in:-

(1) Felidae and canidae with carnivora

(2) Primata and carnivora with mammalia
(3) Amphibia and reptilia with chordata
(4) Solanum and Petunia with solanaceae

55) Read the following statements :

(i) Mycorrhiza is the symbiotic association between roots of higher plants and fungus.
(ii) Lichens are biological indicator for air pollution.
(iii) Viroids contain only low molecular weight DNA and protein.
(iv) W.M. Stanley crystallised TMV
Which of the above statements are correct:

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (ii)

56)

Choose the wrong statement :

(1) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation

(2) Penicillium is unicellular and produces antibiotics
(3) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics
(4) Morels and truffles are edible mushrooms

57) Which set of diseases is caused by members of basidiomycetes ?

(1) Rust and smut

(2) Ergot and smut
(3) Ergot and mould
(4) Citrus canker and rust

58) Embryo is present but true vasculature is absent in the group :-

(1) Cyanophyta
(2) Tracheophyta
(3) Mosses
(4) Chlorophyta

59) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion : Majority of pteriodophytes are heterosporous.
Reason : Genera like selaginella and salvinia produce two kinds of spores, macro (large) and micro
(small).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both assertion & reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct but reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion & reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

60) Identify the correct set of statements :

(a) Red colour of red algae is due to predominance of the red pigment phycoerythrin.
(b) Chlorella is a multicellular alga rich in proteins is used as food supplement even by space
travallers.
(c) Green algae usually have a rigid cell wall made of an outer layer of cellulose and an inner layer of
pectose.
(d) In red algae food is stored as floridean starch which is very similar to amylopectin and glycogen
in structure.
(e) Fucus is a brown alga shows haplo-diplontic life cycle.
Choose the correct answer from options given below :

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (e)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d) only

61) How many of the following are mendelian disorders:-

Haemophilia, Cystic fibrosis, Sickle cell Anaemia, Colour blindness, Phenylketonuria, Thalassemia,
Down's syndrome, Turner's syndrome, Klinefelter's syndrome.

(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 3

62) The Punnett square shown below represents the pattern of inheritance in dihybrid cross, when
round (R) is dominant over wrinkled (r) seeds and yellow (Y) is dominant over green (y) seeds.

RY Ry rY ry

RY F J N R
 Ry G K O S

rY H L P T

ry I M Q U

Find out the odd one with respect to genotype –

(1) F
(2) K
(3) Q
(4) U

63) Read the following statements :-

(i) In Honey Bee, female workers are developed by the unfertilized eggs by parthenogenesis.
(ii) In XO types of sex determination, males have half number of total chromosome than the female.
(iii) In Human beings and Drosophila, females have a pair of X-chromosomes besides autosomes.
(iv) In haplodiploid type of sex determination system, the males do not have father and thus cannot
have sons.
Select the incorrect statements :-

(1) i, iii
(2) ii, iii
(3) i, ii
(4) iii, iv

64) Match the following Column - I to Column - II and select the correct option

Column - I Column - II

a. bacteriophage i.

b. Bacteriophage Lambda ii.

c. Escherichia coli iii. 5386 bases

d. Human haploid cell iv. 48502 base pairs

(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

65) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
one only :
(a) Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme beta-galactosidase.
(b) In lac operon i refer to inducer
(c) Size of VNTR varies in size from 0.1 to 20 kb
(d) Lactose operon is an example of catabolic operon.
Options :

(1) Statements (a), (b) and (c)

(2) Statements (b) and (c)
(3) Statements (a), (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (b) and (d)

66) The given sequence of mRNA when translated must form a polypeptide of how many amino acids
:-
5'-AAA AUG GUG UGG UUU GGG CCC UAA-3'

(1) Eight
(2) Six
(3) Five
(4) Four

67) Assertion :- DNA is perferred over RNA for storage of genetic information.
Reason :- DNA is more stable than RNA.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

68) Which of the following statement is incorrect.

(1) Proteins are heteropolymers of amino acid.

(2) At isoelectric point amino acid will move neither towards cathode nor towards anode.
(3) Peptide bond is the strongest bond in proteins.
(4) Change in temperature doesn’t affect denaturation of proteins.

69) Statement-I : Mannose and Galactose are epimers of Glucose.

Statement-II : Epimers are isomers formed as a result of interchange of the -OH and -H group on
just one carbon atom.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) Both Statements are incorrect.

70) How many of the following statements are not correct.

A. Arachidonic acid is 20 carbon compound having three unsaturated fatty acid.
B. Phospholipid is an amphipathic molecule.
C. Catalytic power of an enzyme is inversely proportional to its Km value.
D. Prosthetic group is tightly bound to apoenzyme.
E. Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of non-competitive inhibition.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

71)

Which of the following is not true regarding counter current mechanism?

(1) Osmolarity increases from 300 mOsmolL-1 in the medulla to about 1200 mOsmolL-1 in cortex.
NaCl is transported by ascending limb of Henle's loop which is exchanged with descending limb
(2)
of vasa recta.
Urea enter the thin segment of ascending limb of Henle's loop which is transported back to
(3)
interstitium by collecting duct.
(4) Gradient is mainly caused NaCl and urea.

72) Assertion :- Aldosterone leads to an increase in blood pressure and GFR.

Reason :- Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and water from distal parts of tubule.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

73) Match List I with List II.

List-I List-II
(Type of Joint) (Found between)

A Cartilaginous Joint I Between flat skull bones

B Ball and Socket Joint II Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column

C Fibrous Joint III Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb

D Saddle Joint IV Between Humerus and Pectoral girdle

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

74) Which of the following statements are correct regarding skeletal muscle ?
A. Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicle.
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store house of calcium ions.
C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin
proteins.
D. M line is considered as functional unit of contraction called sarcomere.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) B and C only

(2) A, C and D only
(3) C and D only
(4) A, B and C only

75) ATPase activity found in

(1) Myosin filament

(2) Actin filament
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

76) Assertion : Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 4 ml of O2 to the tissues under
normal physiological conditions.
Reason : Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 5 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

77) Assertion : Pneumotaxic centre present in the pons region of the brain.
Reason : Neural signal from medulla centre can reduce the duration of inspiration and there by
alter the respiratory rate.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

78) Assertion : Heart failure is not the same as cardiac arrest or a heart attack.
Reason : Heart failure means the state of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively enough to
meet the needs of the body and in cardiac arrest, heart stops beating or in heart attack, heart
muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

79) Statement-I : Ventricular contraction starts shortly after Q and marks beginning of the systole.
Statement-II : Any deviation in the shape of ECG indicates a possible abnormalities.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

80) Statement I: The cerebrum wraps around a structure called thalamus which is a major
coordinating centre for only sensory signaling
Statement II: Canal called the corpora aqueduct passess through the midbrain.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

81) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: When a stimulus is applied at a site on the polarised membrane, the membrane
becomes freely permeable to Na+, leading to depolarisation at that site.
Statement II: The electrical potential difference across the plasma membrane during depolarisation
is called the resting potential. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

82) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the hormone and its function ?
(A) Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) regulates the blood calcium level.
(B) In males, FSH and androgens regulate spermatogenesis.
(C) Hyperthyroidism can lead to goitre.
(D) Glucocorticoids are secreted in Adrenal Medulla.
(E) Parathyroid hormone is regulated by circulating levels of sodium ions.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (C) and (E) only

(2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (B) and (C) only
(4) (A) and (D) only

83) Consider the given diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of action for 2 categories of
hormones. In which of the following option, correct answer for blanks A to I are indicated ?
(1) A–Steroid hormone, B–Receptor, C–Protein, D–Genome
(2) A–Non-steroid hormone, B–Protein, C–mRNA, D–Genome
(3) A–Non-steroid hormone, B–Receptor, C–Hormone receptor complex, D–Genome
(4) A–Steroid hormone, B–Hormone receptor complex, C–Genome, D–mRNA

84) Which endocrine gland secretes the hormone that causes the abnormalities shown in the below
picture ?

(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Pancreas
(3) Adenohypophysis
(4) Neurohypophysis

85) Which one of the following statement is not true regarding the technique shown below
diagrammatically?
(1) The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide.
(2) The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.
(3) Bright orange-coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.
(4) The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution.

86) Select the incorrect statement regarding the given figure :

Primer is a large chemically synthesized oligonucleotide that are complementary to region of

(1)
DNA.
(2) Taq-polymerase is obtained from Thermus aquaticus.
(3) The segment of DNA can be amplified to approximately billion times.
(4) Both (2) and (3)

87)

Match the following enzymes with their functions :

(a) Restriction (i) Joins the

endonuclease DNA fragements
 (b) Restriction (ii) Extends primers on
exonuclease genomic DNA template

(iii) Cuts DNA at

(c) DNA ligase
specific position

(d) Taq (iv) Removes nucleotides

polymerase from the ends of DNA
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

88) What is not true about Bt toxin?

(1) Bt toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis.

(2) The toxin is coded by a gene cryIAc named cry.
(3) The proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and cryIIAb control the corn borer.
(4) cryIAb controls corn borer.

89) Match List -I with List - II.

List I List II

(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency

(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato

(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones

(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) a → iii, b → iv, c → ii, d → i
(2) a → ii, b → i, c → iv, d → iii
(3) a → iii, b → iv, c → i, d → ii
(4) a → iv, b → iii, c → ii, d → i

90) Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing :

(1) transgenic Cow-Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee
(2) animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power
(3) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans
(4) transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 1 1 3 2 4 4 3 2 2 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 1 1 1 4 3 2 2 3 2 3 3 4 4 4 2 2 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 2 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 1 4 2 3 4 3 3 3 4 2 2 3 2 2 4 3 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 3 4 4 4 4 2 2 3 2 4 2 1 1 4 3 2 1 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 1 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 2 3 3 4 3 2 3 2 3 3 1 3 4 3 2 1 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 1 3 3 1 4 3 4 4 2 4 3 3 3 4 1 4 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 2 1 4 4 3 1 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 2 1 3 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 3 3 3 2 1 4 3 2 1 2 2 1 1 4 3 1 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Y =

2)

3) Value of diameter
= Reading of main scale + Reading of V.S.
= 5 (1 mm) + 4 (0.1 mm) = 5.4 mm

4)

The dimensional formulas for quantities are:

• Angular momentum:
• Density:
• Pressure:
• Energy:
The correct matching is a( (i),b (iii), c (iv), d (ii)

5) The acceleration of a rocket is given by :

a=
= (20 – 10) = 10 m/s2

6)

7) As gravitational force provides centripetal force

i.e.,
So that
∴

8) r > R ⇒ I = GM/r2
r = R ⇒ I = GM/R2

r<R ⇒I=

9) VP3 = constant

= constant
3 2
T ∝V

T2 = 9T1 = 9T

10)
⇒

11) ;

leak = = 0.24 Mole

12) P = ρgh or gh =
Rate of flow of water = πr2v = πr2

13) The terminal velocity of the body of radius r, density ρ falling through a medium of density
σ is given by

where η is the coefficient of viscosity of the medium

∴ .....(i)

and ....(ii)
where the subscripts B1 and B2 represent metal ball B1 and metal ball B2 respectively.
∴ and (Given)
Substituting the given values in (i) and (ii), we get

Substituting the given values, we get

(∴ Density of water = 1g cm–3)

14) In vacuum, all colours have same speed which is equal to the speed of light i.e., c = 3×108
ms–1.

15)

For equivalent focal length,

⇒
Since, power i.e., P (in D)

= –6.67 D

16)

17) 100 = n ×

100 =
25 × 1019 = n
2.5 × 1020 = n
OR
n=

18) Q = (B.E.)f – (B.E.)i

19) VL = I × XL

I=

20)

P.f. cosϕ =
R = 20 + 40 = 60 Ω

Z= =
= 100 Ω

cosϕ = = 0.6

21)

22)

23)
Solve to get, and

24)
Time to reach ground

Horizontal range
25)

26)

27)
Beats produced in 20 sec = 16 beats

So beat produced per second =

v = 323.2 m/sec

28) comparing given equations with standard equation

We get

Wave velocity,
Maximum particle velocity,

m/sec

29) (1) I = 0 (t = 0) (L = open)

(2) I = (maximum)

(3) I =

30) due to current will be directed upward. As the loop moves downward, flux linked with
the loop decreases. So induced current will support the magnetic field to increase the flux.
 Hence current will be ‘Anticlockwise’
Force on wire ‘1’
F1 = I B1ℓ upward
Force on wire ‘3’
F3 = IB2ℓ downward
Net Force is upward as
B1 > B2
So the acceleration
a<g

31) given

so R < ℓ
so The particle will not enter in region III

32)
Here kinetic energy K and B are same.

33)

34)
35)

36)
only for r > R

37) Capacitance if air is used as medium,

Capacitance if slab is used

= 0.5 = 0.25 + ; k = 2.

38) For parallel combination,

........(i)
For series combination,

........(ii)
From eqn. (i) and (ii), we get

39)
As both resistors are in parallel combination so potential drop (V) across both are same.
40) Charge,

41)

42)

"Force exerted and displacement are opposite."

43)
v’ = ev

= e2h =(0.5)2 × 20

= = 5m
h’ = 5m

44)
Using principal of conservation of angular momentum we have
⇒ mvL = Iω
 ⇒

⇒ 0.1 × 80 × 1 =

⇒ ⇒ ω = 20 rad/sec.

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) IUPAC nomenclature for the complex Na[PtBrCl(NO2)(NH3)] is

Sodium ammine bromochloronitro–N–platinate (II)

47) Zeise’s salt is a π-bonded organo-metallic compound, K[PtCl3(C2H4)].

Zeise’s salt contains C2H4 molecules as one of the ligand.

48) Reducing property of covalent hydride ∝

Order of thermal stability : NH3 > PH3 > AsH3

49) bond order of O—O bond = H—O—O—H O=O

1 1.5 2
Correct order of O—O bond length H2O2 > O3 > O2

Because bond length ∝

50)

Statement-I :- stronger is the metallic bond more will be heat of atomisation.

Statement-II :- More number of unpaired electron will favour the formation of metallic bond.
51)

Statement-I :- Ce+4 is a strong oxidant and comes to Ce+3

Eu+2 is strong reducing agent changing to common +3 oxidation state.
Statement-II:- La+3 & Lu+3 ions does not shows any color.

52) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

53) NH3 + HCl → NH4Cl

White dense fumes

54)

1 molecule CH4 = 16 amu

1 amu = (1.66 ×10–24g)
mass of 1 molecule of CH4 = 16×(1.66 × 10–24g)
= 2.66 × 10–23g

55)

mvr =

vr =

vr ∝

56) Due to common ion effect, solubility of AgBr decreases in the presence of NaBr. NaBr does
not undergoes hydrolysis in water.

57)

V1 = 10–3m3, V2 = 10–2m3, T = 300 K,

P = 10+5 N/m2
w = –PΔV
⇒ –105 (10–2 – 10–3)
⇒ –105 × (0.009)
⇒ –900 J

58)

kP = kC(RT)Δng

for ⇒ Δng → minimum

for ⇒ Δng → maximum

59)
x = change in O.N.
= –n2–(–n1)
= n1–n2

60) ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
= –11.7 × 103 – 298 × (–105)
ΔG = +19590 J mol–1
ΔG = +ve, so it is non spontaneous process

61) 2° Amine react with Hinsberg reagent (PhSO2Cl) after which, product not react with
NaOH.

62) (1) Ketone is not oxidised

(2)

63) Aldehyde/Ketone → gives DNP test while ether does not.

64) Cu2O

65)

66) Fructose

67) Pentacetate of glucose react with hydroxylamine forming oxime.

68) Cannizzaro reaction then esterification.

70)
Compound has both sp2 hyb. Carbon as well as α hydrogen containing sp3 hyb. carbon.

71)

Kjeldahl’s method is used for estimation of N in organic sample where

N = Normality of acid H2SO4 = 2

w = weight of NH3 evolved
V = Vol. of H2SO4

=
= 37.33 %

72) This is Wurtz reaction and proceeds as follows :

73) Only addition of HBr gives anti-Markonikoff product in presence of peroxide. Presence of
peroxide does not make any difference reaction with HCl.

74) Due to greater +M effect of —OH group.

75)

76) Greater is the concentration of solution. lesser is the freezing point of solution.

77) Mole fraction of X

Mole fraction of Y

78)

κ = G × G*

G* = =
G* = 1.75 cm–1

80)

For aq. CuSO4

At cathode :
At anode :
[H+] increase ⇒ pH decreases.

81)

The rate of reaction increases with rise in temperature because of Increase in the number of
effective collisions.

82) r = k[P][Q2] (rds)

From (i) step

K= ⇒ [P] = (K[P2])1/2
r = k K1/2 [P2]1/2 [Q2]
= k' [P2]1/2 [Q2]
∴ Order = = 1.5

83)

t87.5% = 3t50%
t75% = 2t50%

⇒ t87.5% =

= = 150 min

84)

p = 3, q = 5, r = 2
S = 6, t = 2
3+5+2–6–2=2

85)

86)

(ii) (F) In general as the number of lone pair of electrons on central atom increases, value of
bond angle from normal bond angle decreases due to lp–lp > lp–bp
(iv) (F) Structures of xenon fluorides and xenon oxy fluoride are explained on the basis of
VSEPR theory.

87)

88)

52 [Kr]364d105s25p4 ⇒ p-block
56 [Xe]546s2 ⇒ s-block
30 [Ar]3d104s2 ⇒ d-block
60 [Xe]544f46s2 ⇒ f-block

89)

(a) S–(g) → S2–(g); ΔHe.g. = (+)ve

(b) Cl(g) + e– → Cl–(g); ΔHe.g. = (–)ve
(c) N(g) → N–(g); ΔHe.g. = (+)ve
(d) Al2+(g) → Al3+(g); ΔHI.E. = (+)ve
 90)

(I) [Kr]5s1, shows only single oxidation state +1

(II) [Rn]5f146d17s2, it is f-block element (Z=103)
(III) The compound formed between I and III is ionic.
(IV) [Ar]3d64s2, (Z=26) Fe shows variable oxidation state.

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT XI Page # 126, Phase I

92)

Bulk of RNA is synthesised in a cell during G1 phase.

93)

NCERT XI, Page # 163, 167

Interphase occur before both mitosis and meiosis interphase has S-phase where DNA
replication take place.

94)

NCERT Pg. # 168

Option (3) is incorrect -
Correct would be :- Diakinesis - can last for months in years in oocyte of some vertebrate.

95)

NCERT - Pg. # 93
In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte has approx 52% protein and 40% lipid.

96)

Cell wall plastids and a large central vacuoles are absent in animal cells.

97) NCERT Page. # 88

Animal cell contain non-membrane bound organelles called centrosome which contains 2
0
cylindrical structures called centrioles at 90 to each other.

98) NCERT Pg. # 137, 138

99) NCERT XI Page # 42, 45

I - Flame cells help in excretion and osmoregulation.
II. Water vascular system helps in respiration and excretion.

100) NCERT XI Page # 42, 45

Ctenophora, Echinodermata, Hemichordata includes exclusively marine animals.

101) NCERT XI Page # 47

Correct sequence -
Division - Gnathostomata
Super class - Tetrapoda
Class - Mammalia

102) OLD NCERT XI Page # 103, 104

Tendon - Dense regular connective tissue.
Blood and Cartilage - Specialised connective tissue.
Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue.

103) OLD NCERT XI Page # 101, 102

Columnar cells in stomach and intestine help in secretion and absorption.

104) OLD NCERT XI Page # 111, 112

Hindwings of cockroach are transparent and membranous.

105) NCERT XI Page # 82

Anal cerci are present in cockroach.
They are absent in frogs.

106)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 32
A - 200 - 300, B - 60, C - 40

107)

Gametogenesis → Insemination – Fertilization → Implantation → Gestation → Parturition.

108) Androgen stimulate the process of spermatogenesis.

109) Antrum is a cavity present in Tertiary follicle.

110) NCERT XII Pg. # 45

Hormone releasing IUD are progestasert and LNG-20.
111) NCERT-XII, Page # 48

112)

IgE antibody will be produced during allergic reaction.

113)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 134

114)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 132

115)

NCERT Pg # 130-133

116)

Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita represent homology.

118)

I → Random change in the allelic frequency in a population merely by chance is called genetic
drift.
II → Genetic equilibrium operates in large, randomly mating and non-evolving population.

119)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 4-16

120)

→ MMC form tetrad by meiosis not by mitosis.

→ Triple fusion do not restore sporophyte stage.

121)

→ Hypocotyl germinate during epigeal germination.

→ Non-albuminous seed are non-enclospermic.

130) In pea and bean flowers, the stamens are diadelphous (Two bundle of filaments) and
aestivation in petals is vexillary.
132) In dicot stem, in between the vascular bundles there are few layer of radially placed
parenchymatous cells, which constitute medullary rays.

134) China rose, Cotton

135) Aerobic respiration takes place only in the presence of oxygen and the role of O2 is
limited to the terminal stage of ETS.

136)

(A) Water splitting, (D) Formation of ATP and NADPH, (E) Oxygen release are included in the
photochemical phase (light Reaction) of photosynthesis.
(B) Reduction of carbon dioxide and (C) Use of ATP are included in dark reaction.

137) Choose the correct sequence of steps with respect to flow of electrons in non-cyclic ETS
is PS II → PQ → Cyt b6f → PC → PS I.

138)

In mitochondrial ETS, cytochrome 'c' acts as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons
between complex III and IV.

139)

Pyruvic acid, which is the substrate for krebs cycle is a 3C compound.

140) Parenchymatous cells that are made to divide under controlled laboratory conditions
during plant tissue culture is dedifferentiation.

141) Ethylene promote female flowing in cucumber.

142) Above diagram is showing chemiosmotic hypothesis for oxidative phosphorylation, Here
proton gradient break down by movement of 4H+ from perimitochondrial space to matrix.

143) NCERT XII Page # 181, 182, 183

145)

Mycorrhiza is indeed a symbiotic association between the roots of higher plants and fungi.
This is a correct statement. W.M. Stanley crystallized Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV), proving
that viruses could be crystallized. This statement is correct.
 147)

Basidiomycetes are responsible for causing several plant diseases, including rust and smut:
• Rust: A group of diseases caused by fungi in the Puccinia genus (a type of basidiomycete),
which affects various crops like wheat and other plants.
• Smut: A group of diseases caused by Ustilago species (also basidiomycetes ), which affect
crops like corn.

150)

Correct Answer: Option 3 -

Explanation:

A. (a) Incorrect: The red color in red algae is due to phycoerythrin, not fucoxanthin (which is
found in brown algae).
B. (b) Incorrect: Chlorella is unicellular, not multicellular, though it is protein-rich and used as
space food.
C. (c) Incorrect: Green algae have a cell wall made of an outer pectinous layer and an inner
cellulose layer (opposite of what was stated).
D. (d) Correct: Red algae store food as floridean starch, which is structurally similar to
amylopectin and glycogen.
E. (e) Incorrect: Fucus exhibits a diplontic life cycle, not haplo-diplontic.

Final Answer: Option 3 - "Only (d)".

151)

Given syndromes are chromosomal disorders.

152) F, K and U will be homozygous for both genes.

153) NCERT-XII, Page # 70

154) NCERT - 96

157)

DNA is more stable than RNA.

158)

4th statement is incorrect because change in temperature affect denaturation of proteins like
high temperature cause denaturation.

160)
 A and E statements are incorrect.

161)

1st statement is incorrect because osmolarity increases from 300 mOsmolL-1 to 1200
mOsmolL-1 in the medulla region not in cortex.

162) NCERT PAGE NO.297

163)

Solution :

A. Cartilaginous Joint: These joints are usually located between adjacent vertebrae in the
vertebral column. Therefore, A-II.

B. Ball and Socket Joint: A ball and socket joint is present between the humerus and the
pectoral girdle (shoulder joint). Thus, B-IV.

C. Fibrous Joint: Fibrous joints occur between flat skull bones, such as sutures. Hence, C-I.

D. Saddle Joint: A saddle joint is found between the carpal and metacarpal of the thumb.
Consequently, D-III.

The correct answer is: 1.

A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.

164)

Explanation:

A. Muscle bundles are held together by the perimysium, not fascicles, which refer to the bundles
themselves.

B. The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores calcium ions, essential for muscle contraction.

C. The striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibers is due to the arrangement of actin and
myosin proteins.

D. The sarcomere is the functional unit of contraction, not the M-line, which is located at the
center of the sarcomere.

The correct answer is:

1: B and C only.

165)

ATPase activity found in myosin filament.

 166)

Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues under normal
conditions.

167)

Reason is false because neural signal comes from pneumotaxic centre which is located in pons
region.

169) NCERT Pg. # 201

171) Statement I: Correct. When a stimulus is applied at a site on the polarised membrane, it
does indeed become freely permeable to Na+, leading to a rapid influx of Na+ and resulting in
depolarisation at that site. Statement II: Incorrect. The electrical potential difference across
the plasma membrane during depolarisation is called the action potential, not the resting
potential. The resting potential is the electrical potential difference across the plasma
membrane when the neuron is not transmitting a signal.

172)

A. (A) Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) regulates the blood calcium level.

A. This statement is incorrect. The hormone calcitonin, produced by the thyroid gland,
regulates calcium levels, not thyrocalcitonin (which is an outdated term).
B. Calcitonin lowers blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclast activity in bones,
promoting calcium storage in bones.
B. (B) In males, FSH and androgens regulate spermatogenesis.
A. This statement is correct.
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and androgens (e.g., testosterone) are essential
for spermatogenesis (the production of sperm).
C. FSH stimulates Sertoli cells, which support sperm development, while testosterone,
produced by Leydig cells, is crucial for the development of sperm.
C. (C) Hyperthyroidism can lead to goitre.
A. This statement is correct.
B. Hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid gland produces excessive thyroid hormones (T3
and T4), can cause goitre, an enlargement of the thyroid gland.
C. This enlargement happens due to overstimulation or a lack of iodine in the diet (which
can also cause a goitre).
D. (D) Glucocorticoids are secreted in Adrenal Medulla.
A. This statement is incorrect.
B. Glucocorticoids (such as cortisol) are secreted by the adrenal cortex, not the adrenal
medulla.
C. The adrenal medulla primarily secretes adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline
(norepinephrine) in response to stress.
E. (E) Parathyroid hormone is regulated by circulating levels of sodium ions.
A. This statement is incorrect.
B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is primarily regulated by calcium levels, not sodium.
C. Low blood calcium levels trigger the release of PTH, which increases calcium levels by
 stimulating bone resorption, enhancing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, and
increasing calcium absorption in the intestines.

174) The correct answer is: 3- Adenohypophysis

Explanation:
The Adenohypophysis (Anterior Pituitary) secretes Growth Hormone (GH). which is essential
for normal body growth. A deficiency of GH during childhood leads to pituitary dwarfism,
characterized by short stature with normal body proportions and normal intelligence.

Difference Between Pituitary Dwarfism and Cretinism:

A. Pituitary Dwarfism: Caused by GH deficiency from the anterior pituitary, leads to

proportionate dwarfism with normal intelligence.
B. Cretinism: Caused by thyroid hormone deficiency (hypothyroidism) in infancy; leads to stunted
growth, mental retardation, and delayed development

Conclusion:
Since pituitary dwarfism results from GH deficiency, which is secreted by the Adenohypophysis
(Anterior Pituitary), option 3 is the correct answer.

175)

NCERT XII, Page # 179

Presence of chromogenic substrate gives orange coloured DNA bands on the gel.

176)

NCERT XII, Page # 203

Primer is a small chemically synthesized oligonucleotide that are complementary to region of
DNA.

177)

NCERT XII, Page # 196,197

The correct answer is
.Option 2: a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii.

Explanation:

A. (a) Restriction endonuclease → (iii) Cuts DNA at specific position:

Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that cut DNA at specific sequences called restriction sites.

A. (b) Restriction exonuclease → (iv) Removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA:

Restriction exonucleases act by cleaving nucleotides one at a time from the ends of a DNA strand.

A. (c) DNA ligase → (i) Joins the DNA fragments:

DNA ligase is responsible for joining DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds.

A. (d) Taq polymerase (ii) Extends primers on genomic DNA template:

Taq polymerase is a thermostable enzyme used in PCR to synthesize DNA by extending primers.

178)

NCERT XII, Page # 209

179) Protoplast fusion - Pomato

Plant tissue culture- Totipotency
Meristem culture - Virus free plants
Micropropagation - Somaclones

180) Genetic engineering has been successfully used for transgenic mice for testing safety of
polio vaccine before use in humans.