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NATIONAL APTITUDE EXAMINATION INTO THE FIRST YEAR

OF MEDICAL, ODONTOSTOMATOLOGICAL AND
PHARMACEUTICAL TRAINING IN CAMEROON

SEPTEMBER 2022
Instructions ; For each question or statement below, select the single best answer from the
proposals

BIOLOGY

1. Which of the following structures are found in all viruses?

A. Envelope, nucleic acid and capsid
B. DNA,RNA and proteins
C. Proteins, nucleic acid carbohydrate and lipids
D. None of the above
2. The animal virus is derived from his
A. From the cell wall
B. From the cell membrane
C. Glycocalyx
D. Receivers
E. None of the above answers
3. Virus are highly specific to their host (host-specific). Viruses that attack bacteria are
called?
A. Virions
B. Phages
C. Cyano viruses
D. Bacterial Viruses
E. None of the above answers
4. Bacterials are also called prokaryotes because they?
A. Chemo-Synthetic
B. Cause disease
C. Are unicellular
D. Do not have an internal membrane system
E. None of the above answers
5. HIV is classified as a retrovirus. That means:
A. Pieces of its RNA genome are spliced into a single RNA Brown before translation
B. It transcribes its RNA genome into a DNA genome
C. The mechanism of the virus is to allow the host cells to enter the capsid in order to take
control of it rather than the typical mechanism of viral entry into the host cell
D. It's reverses its morphology upon entering the cell

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E. No answers above
6. Which of the following organelles still contain DNA?
A. The Centriole
B. The Golgi apparatus
C. The lysosomes
D. The mitochondria
E. None of the above answers
7. The concentration of calcium in a cell is 0.38 the concentration of calcium in the liquid in
turning 0.1%. How could they cell get more calcium?
A. By passive transport
B. By diffusion
C. By active transport
D. By osmosis
E. All the answers above
8. All of the following structures are directly implied in the support or cellular movement
except one. Which one?
A. The microfilament
B. the flagellum
C. The microtubule
D. The lysosome
E. None of the above answers
9. What cellular component from Pino vesicles?
A. The cell surface membrane
B. the endoplasmic reticulum
C. The lysosome
D. The nucleolus
E. all the answers above
10. Cells without a nucleolus die Because they lack?
A. Centrioles and are to divide ;
B. Lysosomes and are unable to Destroy spent organelles
C. Mitochondria and are unable to obtain energy
D. Ribosomes and are unable to manufacture proteins
E. none of the above answers
11. the secondary order of protein structure is?
A. The sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain
B. The formation of peptide bonds between amino acids
C. Coiling of the polypeptide chain
D. Folding of the coiled polypeptide chain
E. none of the above answers
12. Most polysaccharides are composed of chains of condensed
A. Cellulose unit

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B. Units of hexose
C. Sucrose units
D. Penrose units
E. None of the above answers
13. which of the following is a characteristic of saturated fats that distinguishes them from
unsaturated groups?
A. They do not contain glycerol
B. they contain a high proportion by mass of oxygen
C. They contain only fatty acids not branched
D. They have no double bonds between their carbon atoms
E. All the answers above
14. Compared to globular proteins the proteins fibrous
A. Have a less regular structure
B. Are less chemically stable
C. Are more easily soluble
D. Are more resistant to high temperatures
E. all the answers above
15. All of the following statements about amino acids are true except one ?
A. They are classified as essential and non essential
B. They can be synthesized in a transamination reaction
C. They can be used as a source of energy
D. All amino acids can be synthesized by the body
E. None of the above answers
16. The replication potential of deoxyribonucleic acid depends on:
A. Covalent bonds between bases
B. Electrovalent bonds between base and phosphate groups
C. High energy bonds between phosphate groups
D. Hydrogen bonds between bases
E. None of the above answers
17. The nitrogenous basis present in RNA are the same as those present in DNA except that:
A. Adenine replaces cytosine
B. Adenine replaces thymine
C. Uracil replaces adenine
D. Uracil replaces thymine
E. None of the above
18. What is the function of DNA polymerase enzyme?
A. Make a DNA strand using DNA as a template
B. Make a DNA strand using a polypeptide as a template
C. Making a strand of mRNA using DNA as a template
D. Make a polypeptide using mRNA as a template
E. All the answers above

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19. Which of the following propositions concerns in RNA nucleotide and not a DNA
nucleotide?
A. It contains the sugar ribose
B. Conscient abuse contain nitrogen
C. It contains a phosphate molecule Mass
D. It becomes bound to other nucleotide
E. None of the above answers
20. The show many statements following is involved in the connection inter-chain between
complementary strands DNA?
A. Covalent bond between sugar and nitrogenous bases
B. Covalent bond between sugar and phosphate
C. Covalent bond between adjacent sugar groups
D. Hydrogen bond between nitrogenous bases
E. None of the above answers
21. What do you understand by the number of “turnover” of an enzyme
A. The rate with which an enzyme is denatured
B. The rate with which an enzyme is synthesized by the cells
C. The number of substrate molecules that are converted into products by an enzyme
D. The number of substrate molecules that are converted into products by an enzyme
molecule per minute
E. None of the above answers
22. when an enzyme is linked with its co - factor to form a complex it can be called;
A. Holozyme
B. Apoenzyme
C. Coenzyme
D. Ribozyme
E. Prosthe group ticks
23. Allosteric enzymes are enzymes
A. Whose activity is regulated by compounds that are not their substrate and that bind to
the enzyme at specific locations away from the active site
B. Whose activity is regulated by compounds which are not their substrates and which
bind to the enzyme at the active site
C. Whose activity is not affected by temperature
D. Whose activity is not affected by pH
E. None of the above answers
24. The phenomenon by which most enzymes work with only one or with a limited number of
substrate is called:
A. Enzyme inhibition
B. Temperature coefficient
C. Enzyme specificity
D. Cooperativity

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E. None of the above answers

25. What is the most directly responsible for the specificity of a protein enzyme
A. Its primary structure
B. It’s secondary and tertiary structures
C. The R groups of amino acids in its active site
D. The combination of its allosteric sites
E. None of the above answers
26. A chromosome is in its most extended in (most condensed) Form during?
A. The interphase
B. Prophase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. None of the above answers
27. The sister chromatids
A. Have half the amount of genetic material just like the original chromosome
B. Begin to move along the microtubules of the kinetochore towards opposite poles
during telophase
C. Everyone in their own kinetochore
D. Form during prophase
E. All the answers above
28. At the level of the metaphase split during metaphase II of meiosis there is:
A. Chromosomes consisting of a chromatid
B. Unpaired duplicate chromosomes
C. Bivalents
D. Homologous pair of chromosomes
E. None of the above answers
29. Amniotic fluid
A. Act as a shock absorber
B. protects fetal membranes
C. Act as a source of water for the fetus
D. Act as a medium to conduct nutrients from maternal blood to fetal blood
E. All the answers above
30. What birth control method prevents implantation of the fertilized egg?
A. Sterile (mechanical)
B. the condom (mechanical)
C. spermicide (chemical)
D. vasectomy (surgical)
E. none of the above answers
31. The size shows a continuous variation from very small to very large size is mostly likely
controlled by:
A. Epistatic genes

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B. environmental factors
C. sex-linked genes
D. Multiple alleles
E. None of the above answers
32. A DNA bank is:
A. A general collection of all genes Sequence so far
B. A collection of DNA fragments that make up the entire genome of an Organism
C. A DNA fragment inserted into a vector
D. All DNA fragments identified in a probe
E. None of the above answers
33. What is the main role of vitamin K in the mammalian diet?
A. Participate in the formation of visual purple
B. Participate in the metabolism of calcium and phosphate
C. promote the production of blood coagulation factors
D. Prevent skin disorders
E. All the answers above
34. Human blood passes from the inferior vena cava
A. Closure of venous valves
B. from a mass blood flow
C. From the beating of the sinoatrial node
D. A pressure difference between the atrium and the vena cava
E. None of the above answers
35. Peristalsis is:
A. The molding of partially digested food in the bo read by tongue
B. Stimulation of the stomach wall in order to arms serve food
C. The stimulation of the walls of the esophagus in order to stand create mucus
D. The rhythmic contractions of the walls of the intestine in order to push the foot bolus
forward
E. None of the above answers
36. The miscelles are
A. Lipids surrounded by bile salts
B. Produced by the pancreas
C. Released in milk
D. Stored in gallbladder
E. None of the above answers
37. All of the following statements regarding glycolysis are correct except one; which?
A. It is the decomposition of glucose to two molecules pyruvic acid
B. it occurs only during anaerobic respiration
C. It produces 2 molecules of NADH
D. It requires a supply of two molecules of ATP
E. None of the above answers

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38. Alveolar respiration is:

A. The tidal volume multiplied by the respiratory rate
B. Minute ventilation plus dead Space
C. The amount of air available for gas exchange
D. Vital capacity divided by respiratory rate
E. None of the above answers
39. What is the function of molecular oxygen in cellular respiration
A. To cause the degradation of citric acid
B. To combine with glucose to produce carbon dioxide
C. To combine with the carbon of organic molecules to produce carbon dioxide
D. To combine with hydrogen from organic molecules to produce water
E. None of the above answers
40. All of the following structures are involved in the involuntary control of breathing except
which one?
A. Bronchi
B. the carotid bodies
C. they medulla oblongata
D. The aortic bodies
E. None of the above answers
41. Due to the activity of insulin there is
A. An increase in glucose uptake by the muscles
B. Decreased glucose uptake by cells
C. The presence of glucose in urine
D. The deposition of fat in the blood vessels
E. none of the above answers
42. When was the concentration of ions in the body fluids of mammals be kept constant
A. To provide an absolute quantity of available ions
B. to provide the correct osmotic pressure for body cells
C. Osmotic pressure for body cells to supply enough ions for basal metabolism
D. To provide diffusion gradients for ion absorption
E. all of the answers above
43. Where does the selective reabsorption of components of the glomerular filtrate occur
A. Bowman’s capsule
B. The glomerulus
C. the proximal convoluted tubule
D. The afferent arteriole
E. The efferent arteriole
44. When blood volume is high blood pressure increase. This implies:
A. A drop in renin, angiotensin and aldosterone levels
B. An increase in renin, angiotensin and aldosterone levels
C. An increase in renin levels and a decrease in angiotensin levels;

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D. A drip in renin and angiotensin levels but with an increase in aldosterone levels
E. None of the above answers
45. Which of the following correctly describes a layer of skin?
A. The epidemic is a simple squamous epithelium in which hair follicles develop and
blood vessels dilate when we are hot
B. The subcutaneous layer lies between the epidermis and the demise. It contains
adipose tissues which keep warm
C. The demise is a region of connective tissue that contains sensory receptors nerve
endings and blood vessels
D. The skin has a special, as yet unnamed layer in which all accessory structures are
formed such as nails, hair and various glands
E. None of the above answers
46. Which of the following stimulates ADH secretion?
A. High blood osmolality
B. Blood osmolarity decreased
C. the release of hormones from the hypothalamus
D. ACTH
E. None of the above answers
47. Parathyroid hormone secretion increases in response to:
A. Increase production of parathyroid stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary
B. Increased secretion of parathyroid releasing hormone by the hypothalamus
C. increased the calcium secretion
D. A decrease in iodine levels in the blood
E. a decrease in calcium levels in the blood
48. The Motor nerve cells transmit impulses:
A. From an effector organ to the spinal cord
B. From receptor cells to effector organ
C. From receptor cells to spinal cord
D. From the spinal cord to the effector organ
E. None of the above answers
49. The action potential in a muscle fiber causes the release of calcium ions from?
A. Actin filaments
B. Myosin filaments
C. Sarcolemma
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
E. None of the above answers
50. Grey matter is:
A. Made-up of three protective layers called meninges
B. Located outside the spinal cord
C. Restricted to the brain
D. Populated with cell bodies of neurons

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E. None of the above answers

CHEMISTRY

51. How many moles of potassium glory hole decompose on heating to give 𝟔𝟎𝒄𝒎𝟑of oxygen
at 25°C and 1 atmosphere ? ( The molar volume of oxygen at 25°C and the atmosphere is
equivalent to 24litres
A. 1.6 × 10−3
B. 1.67 × 10−4
C. 5 × 10−3
D. 8.3 × 10−5
E. No proposal is fair
52. isotopes always have:
A. The same mass number
B. the same atomic number
C. The same number of neutrons
D. The same fundamental atomic particles
E. None of the above answers
53. As the atomic number increases the neutron/proton (n/p) ratio for stable isotopes:
A. Remains constant
B. Slowly increasing
C. Decrease slowly
D. Increases and decreases
E. None of the above answers
54. Which of the following molecules has the highest dipole moment?
A. CH4
B. NF
C. NH3
D. H2O
E. None of the above answers
55. The relative strength of hydrogen bonds between molecules in liquid hydrogen halogens,
HX can be illustrated by comparison.
A. Changes in the enthalpy of evaporation
B. Changes in the enthalpy of formation
C. Changes in the enthalpy of solution
D. The enthalpies of HX bonds
E. None of the above answers
56. The electron affinity is:
A. The tendency of an atom to attract electrons to itself in a covalent bond
B. The tendency of an atom to repel electrons in a covalent bond
C. The change in energy when one when of gaseous atom attracts one more of electron

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D. The energy released when one mole of gaseous atom attracts one mole of electrons
E. None of the above answers
57. Calculate the partial pressure of methanol in a mixture of ethanol and methanol given
that the mole fraction of ethanol is 0.80 and the total pressure of the mixture is one
atmosphere
A. 0.8 atmosphere
B. 1 atmosphere
C. 105 𝑁𝑀−2
D. 0.6 atmosphere
E. 0.2 atmosphere
58. The equilibrium constant KC for the reaction N 2O4(g) →2NO2(g) at 25°C is 𝟒. 𝟔𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑.
What Is the equilibrium concentration of N 2O4 given That the equilibrium concentration of
NO2(g) is 0.491 under the same condition?
A. 9.37 × 10−3
B. 4.3 × 10−3
C. 4.75 × 10−2
D. 5.75 × 10−2
E. 52.41
59. Which of the following reactions represent the new hydrochloric acid transfer?
A. HCL(aq) +AgNO3 →AgCl + HNO3
B. HCL(aq) + NaBr → NaCl +HNO3
C. 2HCL(aq) + Ca(NO3)→CaCl2 +2HNO3
D. 2HCL(aq) + NaHCO3 → NaCl + H20 + CO2
E. None of the above answers
60. When hydrogen reacts with sodium for sea of sodium hydride, hydrogen behaves as:
F. An acid
G. A base
H. An oxidizing agent
I. A reducing agent
J. None of the above answers
61. For the reaction A+B→ C+D. The speed of the full reaction is given by:
A. Velocity = K[A][B]
B. Speed = [B][AT]
C. Speed = [CD]
D. Velocity = 1/k[C][D]
E. None of the above answers
62. Elements of the same short period of periodic stable are likely to have:
A. The same oxidative state
B. similar physical properties
C. a different number of electrons in their shell extended
D. Similar atomic radii

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E. None of the above answers

63. Which of the following statements is correct about magnesium?
A. It is extracted from seawater as precipitation as Mg(OH) 2
B. It react vigorously with cold water to give oxide and hydrogen gas;
C. It forms sulfate which is hydrated
D. An ion [Mg(H2O)6] Is formed
E. none of the above answers
64. Which property of group IV elements of the periodic table decreases with increasing
atomic number?
A. The reducing power of compounds +2
B. The ionic pair effect
C. The stability of tetrahydrides
D. The stability of compounds
E. None of the above answers
65. Which of the following statements about sulphuric acid is incorrect?
F. It can act as a dehydrating agent
G. It can act as an oxidizing agent
H. It is very corrosive
I. It is conveniently made by dissolving Sulfur dioxide directly in water
J. None of the above answers
66. What is meant by the term “reaction of dismutation”
K. A reaction in which oxidation and reduction occur at the same time;
L. A reaction in which a particle is both oxidized and reduced
M. A reaction in which all reactants are So simultaneously oxidized and reduced
N. A reaction in which only the products are simultaneously oxidized and reduced
O. None of the above answers
67. which of the following statements provide the most satisfactory definition of a transition
metal ?
P. It occurs in the block D from the periodic table
Q. It has varying oxidation state in its compounds
A. It forms an ion with a partially filled D subshell
B. It sits between scandium and zinc in the periodic table
C. None of the above answers
68. A Sigma bond is formed by the overlapping of the following atomic orbitals except one;
which?
A. 2 S orbitals
B. An S orbital and a P orbital
C. Two P orbitals abreast
D. Two P orbitals bordered on
E. None of the above answers
69. Ethene:

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A. Belongs to the homologous series of general formula C nH2n

B. Is much less reactive than the corresponding alkane due to strong C=C double bond
C. Is a planar molecule with bond angles of 120°
D. Burnt with a brighter flame than ethane
E. All of the answers above
70. the correct structural formula of 1,2-dichloro-2-methylbutane is
A. H3CCH2HCClCHClCH3
B. H3CCHClCCl(CH3)CH3
C. H3CCH2CCl(CH3)CH2Cl
D. H3CCH(CH3)CHClCH2
E. None of the above
71. Which of the following reagents and condition is best suited for the preparation of
nitrobenzene from benzene?
A. Mix benzene with HNO3
B. Reflux benzene with HNO3 concentrated at room temperature.
C. Heat the benzene with HNO3 concentrate and H2SO4 concentrated at 55°C
D. Mix benzene with HNO3 diluted and H2SO4 diluted at 60°C
E. None of the above answers
72. Aliphatic ethers
A. Are very reactive molecules because they have two loan pairs of the oxygen atom
B. can be prepared by dehydrating alcohol at 170°C
C. React with PCL5 to give chloroalkenes
D. Form a homologous series of general for C nH2n+1
E. None of the above answers
73. In the reactivity of halogeno-alkane
A. Substitution reactions are favored by weakly basic nucleophiles
B. Removal of HX molecules is favored by weakly basic regions
C. The elimination of HX molecules is strongly favored by a low concentration of base in
an aqueous medium
D. Substitution reactions have favored by a strongly basic non-aqueous medium
E. None of the above answers
74. What type of reaction occurs when ethanal(CH3CHO) and hydrogen cyanide react?
A. Electrophilic addition
B. Nucleophilic addition
C. The condensation reaction
D. Nucleophilic substitution
E. None of the above answers
75. To which of the following classes of organic compounds does CH3 - C belong
A. Aldehydes
B. Carboxylic acid
C. Esters

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D. Ketones
E. Alcohols

PHYSICS

76. The following pairs of physical quantities have the same base units except one; which?
A. Energy and torque (moment of rotation and torsion)
B. Decay constant and frequency
C. Pressure and Young’s modulus
D. Permeability of a medium and permittivity of a medium
E. None of the above answers
77. A mass of 4.00 kilograms sliding on a platform without friction had a speed of
𝟓. 𝟎𝟎𝒎𝒔−𝟏 due north , 6.00 seconds aater it is moving due South with the speed of
𝟐. 𝟎𝟎 𝒎𝒔−𝟏.The average external force that acted on it during this interval of time is:
A. 1.33 𝑁 due 𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑡ℎ
B. 3.33 𝑁 due 𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑡ℎ
C. 4.33 𝑁 due 𝑛𝑜𝑟𝑡ℎ
D. 8.00 𝑁 due 𝑛𝑜𝑟𝑡ℎ
E. 8.00 𝑁 due 𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑡ℎ
78. An object with a mass of 100 kilograms moves at a speed of 10 meters per second. the value
of the energy increase for a speed of 5 meters per second will be?
A. 1.63 × 104 𝐽
B. 5.0 × 104 𝐽
C. 6.25 × 104 𝐽
D. 4.0 × 103 𝐽
E. 1.30 × 103 𝐽
79. The forces acting on a point A=2i, B=2i+6.The particle will move
A. Along the X axis
B. Along the Y axis
C. In the XY plane
D. All of the above answers
E. None of the above answers
80. The length per resistance unit of the copper wire has a value of 7.63 mm/ohm for a diameter
of 1.450 m. This corresponds to a resistivity of :
A. 1.72 × 104 ohm meters
B. 5.04 × 104 ohm meters
C. 7.63 × 10−3 ohm meters
D. 2.72 × 10−3 ohm meters
E. 2.16 × 10−4 ohm meters
81. Which of the following thermometers is a standard thermometer
A. The constant volume gas thermometer
B. The mercury glass thermometer

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C. The resistance thermometer

D. The radiation pyrometer
E. None of the above answers
82. When calculated from the balanced length, the potentiometer difference across the first
resistor of 58 is 2.6V. The current through the 2nd resistor from 582 to the equilibrium point
is:
A. 2.04𝐴
B. 0.52𝐴
C. 1.04𝐴
D. 0.26𝐴
E. 1.9𝐴
83. The current in the copper wire is increased by increasing the potential difference originates
ends between its ends. Which of the following statements about n, the Of charge carriers,
the unit volume in a wire, and V, the drift rate Of the charge carrier Is correct?
A. n is unchanged but V is increased;
B. n is unchanged but V is decreased
C. n is increased but V is decreased
D. n and V are increased
E. None of the above answers
84. Four identical cells, whether connected in series or in parallel with an external resistance of
2ohms give a current The electromotive force and the internal resistance of each cells are?
A. 1.0V; 2ohm
B. 1.25V; 2ohm
C. 1.25V; 0.5ohm
D. 1.0V; 0.5ohm
E. None of the above answers
85. The temperatures of the two sides of a flat brick wall are 25°C and 10°C.The what is made
three times thicker and one side remains at 25°C. if the rate of heat conduction per unit
area remains the same, Then the temperature of the new face will be of.
A. -35°C
B. 30°C
C. 5°C
D. -20°C
E. 45°C
86. Which of the following statements about airwaves is true
A. Electromagnetic waves can be diffracted
B. Long Beach is now it cannot be diffracted
C. Sound waves can be polarized
D. Radio waves cannot be polarized
E. None of the above answers

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87. The shortest distance between two parallel points on a travelling wave having a phase
difference of 6r is 0.15m.If the frequency of the wave is 400Hz, the speed of the wave in
𝒎𝒔−𝟏 would be?
A. 200.0
B. 5.0
C. 50.0
D. 20.0
E. 2.0
88. When a light source is at a distance of 1m from a photo cell, The stopping potential is V. If
the source is placed at a distance of 0.5m, the stopping potential will be ?
A. V/2
B. 4V
C. 2V
D. 6V
E. V
89. A gas sample has a volume of 𝟏. 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝒎𝟑 at a pressure of 𝟑. 𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎𝟔 Pa. Its new It depends
on the volume when the pressure is halved at constant temperature will be?
A. 0.75 × 105 𝑚5
B. 4.5 × 105𝑚5
C. 3.0 × 105𝑚5
D. 1.5 × 105𝑚5
E. None of the above answers
90. Which of the following statements will produce the greatest increase in volume of a sample
of an ideal gas in a cylinder with a moving piston when all of its properties remain
unchanged?
A. By doubling the pressure
B. By increasing the temperature 50.0°C to 100°C
C. Doubling the number of molecules in the sample
D. Each of them will produce the same doubled volume
E. None of the above answers
91. Two gases P and Q are at the same pressure. If P is at a temperature of 280K and Q is at
630K, the density ratio of P to that of Q is ?
A. 4:9
B. 5:3
C. 9:1
D. 2:5
E. 3:2
92. For transistor action
A. The collector should be heavily doped than the issuer
B. The base region of the collector must be reversed bias
C. The base region should be wide

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D. The transmitter must be of type N

E. All the answers above
93. On the surface of a planet of radius R an object undergoes a force F due to gravity. What
force does it experience when it is moved to a point at a height of (1/3)R from the surface
of the planet?
A. 0.00
B. (0.33)f
C. (1.770)
D. (0.56f)
E. (1.77f)
94. An electron beam passes without deflection through a region in which exist mutually
perpendicular electric and magnetic fields of magnitude 𝟏𝟎𝑽𝒎−𝟏 and 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝑻 respectively
speed of an electron the beam will be?
A. 3.0 × 107 𝑚𝑠 −1
B. 1.0 × 107 𝑚𝑠 −1
C. 5.0 × 104 𝑚𝑠 −1
D. 6.0 × 104 𝑚𝑠 −1
E. 3.0 × 104 𝑚𝑠 −1
95. At what frequency would an inductor of 10H have a reactant of 200ohm?
A. π/ 200Hz
B. 1/100Hz
C. 100πHz
D. 200/πHz
E. 100πHz
96. Which of the following reasons best explains why alternative current is preferred to direct
current for long-distance transmission of energy
A. Alternating current can be easily rectified
B. Alternating current is easier to generate
C. Alternating current has no polarity
D. AC voltages can be easily stepped up or down
E. None of the above
97. Two identical insulating spheres each carrying a charge “q” are separated by a distance r. If
the distance is doubled ,what will be the ratio of the magnitude of the new force to that of
the force before the changes were made?
A. 16
B. 1/4
C. 1/16
D. 4
E. 8
98. The intensity of a monochromatic light beam is doubled. Which of the following changes, if
any occurs in the amount of motion of each photon of light?

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A. Halved
B. Doubled
C. No change
D. Multiplied by 4
E. None of the above answers
99. Which of the following statements about a particle of constant mass undergoing uniform
motion in a circle is not correct?
A. The particle has a constant speed
B. The particle has a continuously changing velocity
C. The particle is subjected to constant force
D. The particle has a continuously changing kinetic energy
E. None of the above answers
100. Which of the following statements is true of the acceleration of a particle under the
influence of a gravitational field produced by a body of mass M?
A. It is always proportional to the distance from the center of mass of the body
B. It varies as the square of M
C. It’s direction is independent of the direction of motion of the particle
D. It’s direction depends on the direction of motion of the particle
E. None of the above answers

GENERAa KNOWaEDGE
Medical Base
1. Who of these scientist discovered penicillin
A. John Bunyn
B. Alexander Flemming
C. Darwin
D. Louise Pasteur
E. Isaac Newton
2. The first heart transplant was performed in which of the following African countries?
A. Nigeria
B. Egypt
C. South Africa
D. Kenya
E. Cameroon
3. Which of the following causes malaria?
A. Vibrio leoprae
B. Vibrio cholera
C. Shigella Shigella
D. Shigella typhi
E. Salmonella paratyphi

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4. In which year was Human Immunodeficiency virus discovered?

A. 1993
B. 1983
C. 2003
D. 2001
E. 1973
5. Which of these causative agents causes malaria?
A. Trypanosoma
B. Chistosoma
C. Plasmodium
D. Onchocerus
E. Ascaris
6. Which of these vaccines protects against tuberculosis?
A. Diphtenis
B. Polio
C. Tetanus
D. BCG
E. Papilloma
7. Which of the following insects transmits the agent responsible for sleeping sickness?
A. Sand fly
B. Dragon fly
C. Tsetse fly
D. House fly
E. Grasshopper
8. Which of the following is the main carrier of malaria
A. Dragon fly
B. Sand fly
C. Tsetse fly
D. Anopheles mosquito
E. Aedes mosquito
9. Which of the following is the main carrier of dengue and Yellow fever?
A. Aedes mosquito
B. Anopheles mosquito
C. Tsetse fly
D. House fly
E. Dragon fly
10. Among the following, which one is the fundamental unit of heredity?
A. Gene
B. Atom
C. Molecule
D. Cell

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E. DNA
11. Which of the these is a fundamental unit of the health care delivery system (HCDS) in
Cameroon?
A. Schools
B. Churches
C. Departments
D. Health center
E. College
12. In which departments in the hospital must patients be wekoned?
A. Out patient
B. Medicine
C. Surgery
D. Maternity
E. Mortuary
13. Who amongst the following is not a professional I’m the hospital?
A. Surgeon
B. Physician
C. Physicist
D. Nurse
E. Midwife
14. Which human activity could reduce the spread of cholera?
A. Hand washing
B. Drinking well bottled water
C. Killing of flies
D. Washing vegetables with javel water
E. Burning dead cholera victims
15. You are told a member of a house has tuberculosis (TB).which of these can be done to
children to find out if they are already infected by TB germ.
A. Get the young people out of the house
B. Do a tuberculin skin test (mantoux test)
C. Do a sputum examination
D. Do nothing because tuberculosis is not transmissible
E. None of the above answers

B- Test of motivation
Choose the correct answer
16.
A. Humanism makes man and the human spirit makes the supreme values
B. Man is a living being like any other on the planet earth
C. To live well, we must see nothing say nothing and hear nothing
D. Humanism is for weak minds

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17.
A. Without knowing ones HIV status, one can donate blood through blood transfusion
B. Blood donation should not be free
C. Blood donation is useless
D. To know once blood type is important
18.
A. NGOs do not help people
B. Work in remote areas do not help the practitioner in his career
C. The 117 or 115 are emergency numbers to know
D. The Hippocratic Oath is the oath of hypocrites
19. You are a witness of your brother’s marriage. while going to the ceremony, you attend an
accident with loss of life and several cases of serious injuries.
A. You stop to assist
B. You call someone to assist
C. You hurry to leave to be on time for the marriage
D. The sight of blood scares you and you faint
20.
A. Medicine treat all diseases
B. Committing to lost causes means that one that is illuminated
C. Raise fraud for an organization is fraud
D. Even well dressed, you can spontaneously dive into water save a baby
C- GENERAa CUaTURE AND CIVICS
21. The law of gravity was put up by which of these scientists?
A. Darwin
B. Isaac Newton
C. Boylce
D. Joule
E. None of the above answers
22. What computer software is used to produce a Word document?
A. Microsoft Office word
B. PowerPoint
C. Outlook
D. Publisher
E. Excel
23. Which of these countries does not belong to the lake Chad basin Commission?
A. Chad
B. Niger
C. Nigeria
D. Cameroon
E. Equatorial Guinea

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24. Climate change with global warming can contributed to which of the following?
A. Oxygen depletion
B. Nitrogen depletion
C. Carbon dioxide depletion
D. ozone layer depletion
E. Deforestation
25. Whether elements can be measured by instruments. which one of the following pairs is
incorrect?
A. Atmospheric pressure and barometer
B. Humidity and anemometer
C. Rainfall and rain gauge
D. Wind direction and wind vane
E. minimum and maximum temperature and the sex's thermometer
26. the rotation of the earth is not a cause of:
A. Day and night
B. The seasons
C. The deflection of ocean currents
D. The deflection of winds
E. The increasing inclination of the sun between sunrise and sunset
27. Among the following African countries which one has the largest surface area
A. Nigeria
B. Egypt
C. Mali
D. Democratic Republic of Congo
E. Cameroon
28. Which of the following is the most populated country in the African continent
A. South Africa
B. Nigeria
C. Kenya
D. Democratic Republic of Congo
E. Cameroon
29. In which of these dates did the lake nyos natural disaster occurred?
A. 21st of August 1982
B. 21st of August 1985
C. 21st of August 1987
D. 21st of August 1986
E. 21st of August 1984
30. The lake nyos natural disaster was caused by which of these gases?
A. Hydrogen sulphide
B. Sodium hypochloride
C. Carbon dioxide

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D. Carbon monoxide
E. Nitrogen
31. Which of these has recently been responsible for the floods in the northern part of
Cameroon
A. Logone river
B. Benue river
C. Cross river
D. Katsinaala river
E. Ntem river
32. Which airline was involved in the Mbanga Pongo crash?
A. Cameroon Airline
B. Camair-Co
C. Kenya Airline
D. Swiss Airline
E. Gabon Airline
33. In which of these towns is the main hydroelectric Dam that supplies like to most towns in
Cameroon found?
A. DOUALA
B. Yaounde
C. Ndian
D. Edea
34. In which of these towns is the main deep sea port that is currently being developed
found?
A. Edea
B. Ebolowa
C. Kribi
D. Douala
E. Limbe
35. Cameroon had how many provinces before transformation into 10 provinces in 1983?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 6
D. 7
E. 5
36. There are how many members in the common upper House of parliament?
A. 120
B. 180
C. 100
D. 80
E. 150
37. When was the last time that gammon participated in the final phase of the World Cup?

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A. 2010
B. 2006
C. 2002
D. 1994
E. 1990
38. In 1972, cameroonians voted for which of the following?
A. Reunification
B. Independence
C. Liberation
D. Unitary state
E. Federation
39. In which region of Cameroon is the bakassi pinunsular found?
A. The southwest region
B. The South region
C. The littoral region
D. The north
E. West region
40. Which of the following crops cannot be grown successfully in the tropics?
A. Tobacco
B. Tea
C. Coffee
D. Cocoa
E. Oats
41. In which of the following countries where chemical weapons suspected to be used on
civilians on the 21st of August 2013?
A. Iraq
B. Lybia
C. Iran
D. Syria
E. Egypt
D- aANGUAGE
Instructions: coucher la lettre correspondant à la bonne réponse.
42. Ma sœur et moi …. nos leçons tous les soirs avant d’aller au lit.
A. Apprennent
B. Apprends
C. Apprenez
D. Apprenons
E. Apprenons
43. Cette fille …… le rencontrer demain à 8 heure.

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A. Viendra
B. Venait
C. Viendras
D. Vienne
E. Vient
44. Il faut que vous …… terminé votre devoir avant la fin des cours.
A. Avez
B. Aviez
C. Soyez
D. Ayez
E. Ayé
45. Mes enfants arrivent tout à l'heure il faut …….. demander de m’attendre
A. Les
B. Lui
C. Leurs
D. Leur
E. Ils
46. Elle travaille dans cet hôpital …..
A. Infirmerie
B. Infirmier
C. Infirmière
D. Infirmières
E. Infirmière
47. aes chambres de …….. hôtel sont climatisées
A. Cet
B. Ce
C. Ces
D. Cette
E. Dette
48. ……… Oiseau attrape les poules et les poussin
A. Quel
B. Quelles
C. Quels
D. Quelles
E. Qu’elle
49. Jean est toujours le premier de la classe. Il est …… intelligent de la classe
A. Le plus
B. Le mieux
C. Le moins
D. Le moindre
E. Le plat

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50. J'ai du mal à croire que c’est ce …… homme qui a volé

A. Bel
B. Beau
C. Beaux
D. Belle
E. Baux
51. C'est Paul et moi qui ……. venus ce matin
A. Est
B. Es
C. Sommes
D. Sont
E. Son
52. Cette femme n'attend absolument rien ; elle est ….?
A. Bête
B. Aveugle
C. Muette
D. Sourde
E. Sourde
53. Nana a échoué à son examen ….. la paresse ?
A. Grâce a
B. A cause de
C. Parce que
D. Pour que
E. De part de
54. aa jeune fille …….. je te parlais ne viendra sûrement pas
A. Que
B. Qui
C. Dont
D. Donc
E. Don’t
55. “Avoir le cœur sur la main” veut dire être…..
A. Courageux
B. Timide
C. Généreux
D. Peureux
E. Facile
56. ae ministre de la Justice est également le garde des …… de la république.
A. Sceaux
B. Seaux
C. Sots
D. Sauts

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E. Sauts
57. aes filles se sont ….. les avant de manger
A. Lavées
B. Lavé
C. Lavés
D. Lavée
E. Laver
58. C’est …… ambulance qui a transporté le malade à l’hôpital.
A. Celle
B. Cet
C. Cette
D. Sept
E. Dette
59. Quand l’orateur ….. le silence, il commença son discours
A. A obtenu
B. Aura obtenu
C. Aurait obtenu
D. Eut obtenu
E. Avait
60. aa mère de mon ami vient de casser sa pipe. a'expression souligne signifie:
A. Voyager
B. Mourir
C. Rentrer chez elle
D. Aller a l’église
E. Arrêté de fumer

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