31-01-2025

PRE_MEDICAL_MOCK_TEST_2 MD

PHYSICS

1) As per Bohr's model, the minimum energy (in eV) required to remove an electron from the ground
state of double ionised Li atom (z = 3) is:-

(1) 1.51
(2) 13.6
(3) 40.8
(4) 122.4

2) Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because:

(1) Molecules break up at high temperature.

(2) Nuclei break up at high temperature.
(3) Atoms get ionised at high temperature.
(4) Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei.

3) The order of magnitude of the density of nuclear matter is -

(1) 104 kg/m3

(2) 1017 kg/m3
(3) 1027 kg/m3
(4) 1034 kg/m3

4) An alpha particle is a accelerated through a potential difference of 100V. To have same de-Broglie
wavelength what potential difference must be applied across singly ionised 4Be8 atom :-

(1) 200V
(2) 25V
(3) 100V
(4) 50V

5) Light described at a place by the equation

ε=(100 V/m)[sin(5×1015s–1)t+sin(8×1015s–1)t] falls on a metal surface having work function
2 eV. Calculate the maximum kinetic energy of the photo electrons.

(1) 5.27 eV
(2) 1.71 eV
(3) 3.27 eV
(4) 0.854 eV

6) For a logic gate A & B are input and C is output voltage waveform then logic gate is :-
(1) OR
(2) AND
(3) NOR
(4) NAND

7) The width of depletion region in PN–junction diode is 500 nm and an internal electric field is 6 ×
105 V/m. What is the kinetic energy which a conduction electron must have in order to diffuse from
the N side to P side :-

(1) 0.03 eV
(2) 0.3 eV
(3) 0.45 eV
(4) 0.6 eV

8) Two thin lenses of power +15D and –5D are placed coaxially in contact with each other. Then
position of images of an object placed at 20 cm from the combination will be :

(1) +10 cm
(2) –10 cm
(3) +20 cm
(4) –20 cm

9) A beam of convergent light converges to a point 0.5 m in front of the mirror after reflection from
convex mirror but in the absence of mirror the beam converges to a point 0.2m behind the mirror.

The radius of curvature of the mirror is:-

(1) 20 cm
(2) 50 cm
(3) 66.67 cm
(4) 28.57 cm

10) A ray of light is incident on a thick slab of glass of thickness t as shown in the figure. The
emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray but displaced sideways by a distance d. If the angles are
small then d is. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A parallel monochromatic beam of light is incident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction
pattern is formed on a screen placed perpendicular to the direction of incident beam. At the first
minima of the diffraction pattern the phase difference between the rays coming from the edges of
the slit is :-

(1) 0

(2)

(3) π
(4) 2π

12) For a gas molecule, its degree of freedom for translation is 3, for rotation is 2 and for vibration is
2. If its rotational K.E is related to total energy (E) by, K.ER = nE, then n would be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A black body, at a temperature of 227°C radiates heat at a rate of 7 cal cm–2 s–1. At a temperature
of 727°C, the rate of heat radiated in the same units will be :–

(1) 80
(2) 60
(3) 50
(4) 112

14) Displacement of a particle is

x = 3 sin 2t + 4cos 2t,
then amplitude and the maximum velocity will be :–

(1) 5, 10
(2) 3, 2
(3) 4, 2
(4) 3, 8

15) The equation of a plane progressive wave is

y = 0.09sin 8π
When it is reflected at rigid supports, its amplitude becomes (2/3)rd of its previous value. The
equation of the reflected wave is :

(1)
y = 0.09sinπ

(2)
y = 0.06sinπ

(3)
y = 0.06 sin 8π

(4)
y = – 0.06 sin 8π

16) Which of the following is not a property of a charge ?

(1) Charge is quantised

(2) Charge remains conserved

(3)
With change in velocity is not changed
(4) Charge is additive

17) An α particle and a proton are accelerated from rest through the same potential difference. The
ratio of linear momentum acquired by above two particles will be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 8 : 1

18) Three concentric spherical conductors are arranged as shown in figure.

The potential at point P will be :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

19) Two identical capacitors, have the same capacitance C. One of them is charged to potential V1
and the other to V2. The negative ends of the capacitors are connected together. When the positive
ends are also connected, the decrease in energy of the combined system is :-

(1)
C (V12 – V22)

(2)
C (V12 + V22)

(3)
C (V1 – V2)2

(4)
C (V1 + V2)2

20) In the given circuit, calculate the value of current in 4.5 Ω resistor :-

(1) 1 A
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 0.25 A
(4) 0.5 A

21) Three long straight parallel wires, carrying current, are arranged as shown in figure. The force

experienced by 25 cm length of wire C is :-

(1) 10–3 N
(2) 2.5 × 10–3 N
(3) 2.5 × 10–4 N
(4) 1.5 × 10–3 N
22) Points A and B are situated perpendicular to the axis of a 2cm long bar magnet at large
distances x and 3x from its centre on opposite sides. The ratio of the magnetic fields at A and B will
be approximately equal to

(1) 1 : 9
(2) 2 : 9
(3) 27 : 1
(4) 9 : 1

23) A wire loop is rotated in magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of magnetic flux
linked with the loop.

(1) Six times per revolution

(2) Once per revolution
(3) Twice per revolution
(4) Four times per revolution

24) An electromagnetic wave is propagating along Y-axis. Then-

(1) Oscillating electric field is along X-axis and oscillating magnetic field is along Y-axis.
(2) Oscillating electric field is along Z-axis and oscillating magnetic field is along X-axis.
Both oscillating electric and magnetic fields are along Y-axis, but phase difference between
(3)
them is 90°.
(4) Both oscillating electric and magnetic fields are mutually perpendicular in arbitrary directions.

25) The pitch of the screw gauge is 0.2 mm. Its circular scale contains 100 division. The least count
of the screw gauge is:

(1) 0.001 mm
(2) 0.01 mm
(3) 0.002 mm
(4) 0.02 mm

26) A car travels a distance d on a straight road in two hours and then returns to the starting point
in next three hours. Its average speed and average velocity is :

(1)

(2)
,0

(3)

(4) None of these

27) The equation of projectile is then the horizontal range is.

(1) 16 m
(2) 8 m
(3) 64 m
(4) 12.8 m

28) There are four forces acting at a point P produced by strings as shown in figure, which is at rest.
The forces F1 and F2 are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A man of mass 80 kg stands on a plank of mass 40 kg. The plank is lying on a smooth horizontal
floor. Initially both are at rest. The man starts walking on the plank towards north and stops after
moving a distance of 6 m on the plank. Then

(1) The centre of mass of plank-man system will move with constant velocity
(2) The plank will slide to the north by a distance 4 m
(3) The plank will slide to the south by a distance 4 m
(4) The plank will slide to the south by a distance 12 m

30) A ring is rolling on a rough horizontal surface without slipping with a linear speed v. The ratio of

speeds of points B and A is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3)
(4)
31) Find moment of inertia of system about diagonal of square :-

(1) 2mℓ2
(2) mℓ2

(3)

(4)

32) If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% and its mass remaining the same, the acceleration
due to gravity on the earth's surface would :-

(1) Decrease by 2%
(2) Remain unchanged
(3) Increase by 2%
(4) Becomes zero

33) A steel wire of cross-sectional area 3 × 10–6 m2 can withstand a maximum strain of 10–3. Young's
modulus of steel is 2 × 1011 N/m2. The maximum mass this wire can hold is :-

(1) 40 Kg
(2) 60 Kg
(3) 80 Kg
(4) 100 Kg

34) Water is flowing with velocity 4m/s in a cylinder of diameter 8cm, it is connected to a pipe with it
end tip of diameter 2cm, calculate the velocity of water at this free end :-

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
(3) 32 m/s
(4) 64 m/s

35) When 106 smaller drops of a liquid are combined to form a new bigger drop, then its -

(1) density will decrease

(2) density will increase
(3) temperature will increase
(4) temperature will decrease

36) Assertion (A) :- For best contrast between maxima and minima in the interference pattern of
Young's double slit experiment, the intensity of light emerging out of the two slits should be equal.
Reason (R) :- The intensity of interference pattern is directly proportional to the square of
amplitude.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

37) In a heat engine, the temperature of the source and sink are 500 K and 375 K. If the engine
consumes 25 × 105 J per cycle, the work done per cycle is:

(1) 6.25 × 105 J

(2) 3 × 105 J
(3) 2.19 × 105 J
(4) 4 × 104 J

38) A mass M is performing linear simple harmonic motion, then correct graph for acceleration 'a'
and corresponding linear velocity 'v' is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Column-II corresponds to the graph of magnitude of electric field v/s distance from centre of
charge distribution in Column-I

Column-I Column-II
 (A) Charged ring along its axis (P)

Uniformly charged
(B) (Q)
non-conducting solid sphere

Uniformly charged
(C) (R)
spherical shell

(D) Point charge (S)

(T)

(1) A-P, B-S, C-R, D-T

(2) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-T
(3) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-T
(4) A-Q, B-S, C-R, D-T

40) A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200V and 3kW power supply. If the
current in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the
primary coil respectively are :-

(1) 300 V, 15A

(2) 450 V, 15A
(3) 450V, 13.5A
(4) 600V, 15A

41) A body is thrown up in a lift with a velocity u relative to the lift and the time of flight is found to
be ‘t’. The acceleration with which the lift is moving up will be-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Find acceleration of given system.

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 3 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 5 m/s2

43) Statement-I:- A person walking on a horizontal road with a load on his head does no work on
the load against gravity.
Statement-II:- No work is said to be done, if directions of force and displacement are perpendicular
to each other.

(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(4) Both statements I and II are correct

44) What is the angular velocity of particle P w.r.t. the particle Q in the arrangement shown in figure

(1) 3 rad/s
(2) 7 rad/s
(3) 10 rad/s
(4) 15 rad/s

45) A body is projected up with th the escape velocity from earth's surface. The height reached by
the body is:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following species are amphoteric :

(I) Al(OH)3 (II) Ba(OH)2 (III) Zn(OH)2

(1) I only
(2) I, II only
(3) I & III only
(4) II & III only

2) Assertion :- Group 17 elements (Halogens) have very high negative electron gain enthalpies.
Reason :- They can attain stable noble gas electronic configuration by picking up an electron.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

3) Match the column -

Order Property

(a) Cl > P > S > Si (i) Electronegativity

(b) B > Tl > In > Aℓ (ii) Ionisation energy

(c) Cl > F > S > O (iii) Electron-affinity

(d) Cl > P > Na > Cs (iv) Non-Metallic character

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii

4) The incorrect representation of hydrogen bonding in :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) F– -------- H – F

5) Which of the following complex show geometrical isomerism?

+
(1) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
+
(2) [Pt(NH3)3Cl]
+3
(3) [Co(NH3)6]
–3
(4) [(Co(CN)5(NC)]

6) If Cr(CO)x follows Sidwick EAN rule then value of x is :

(1) x = 4
(2) x = 5
(3) x = 3
(4) x = 6

7)
True Statement is -

(1) X can't be MnO2

(2) Y can be KMnO4
(3) Z can be K2MnO4
(4) X is MnO2 & Y is K2MnO4

8) Formula of oxide and halide of lanthanoid may be :

(1) Ln2O3, LnX3

(2) LnO, LnX
(3) Ln2O5, LnX2
(4) Ln2O5, LnX5
9) Peroxo bond (–O–O–) is present in
(i) Na2O2 (ii) CrO5
(iii) PbO2 (iv) SrO2

(1) (i, ii, iv)

(2) (i, ii, iii, iv)
(3) (i, ii, iii)
(4) (ii, iii, iv)

10) On flame test Ba+2 give __________ Colour :-

(1) Golden yellow

(2) Violet
(3) Apple Green
(4) Crimson Red

11) A sodium salt on treatment with MgCl2 gives white precipitate only on heating. The anion of the
sodium salt is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Consider the following sets of quantum numbers :-

n ℓ m s
(i) 3 0 0 +1/2
(ii) 2 2 1 +1/2
(iii) 4 3 –2 –1/2
(iv) 1 0 –1 –1/2
(v) 3 2 3 +1/2

Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible ?

(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii), (iv) and (v)

13) Assuming the reaction A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ C(g) to be exothermic, the yield of the product (C)
increases with :-
(a) Increase of temperature
(b) Increase of pressure
(c) Addition of catalyst
(d) Addition of inert gas at constant volume
(e) Removal of (C)
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) Only b
(3) b & e
(4) a & e

14) The rate of disappearance of Q in the reaction: 2P + Q → 2R + 3S is 2 × 10–2 mol L–1s–1. Which of
the following relation is not true ?

(1)
= 4 × 10–2 mol L–1s–1

(2)
= 6 × 10–2 mol L–1s–1

(3)
= 2 × 10–2 mol L–1s–1

(4)
= 2 × 10–2 mol L–1s–1

15) Assertion (A) :- For mercury cell, the cell potential is approximately 1.35 V and remains
constant during its life.
Reason (R) :- The overall cell reaction of mercury cell does not involve any ion in solution whose
concentration can change during its life time.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

16) The Ksp of PbCl2 is 4 × 10–6. Its solubility in 0.1 M NaCl solution is :-

(1) 4 × 10–4 M
(2) 4 × 10–5 M
(3) 4 × 10–6 M
(4) 4 × 10–7 M

17) The total number of atoms present in 56 millilitre of phosphine gas (PH3) at STP is :-

(1) 6.02 × 1022

(2) 6.02 × 1021
(3) 1.505 × 1021
(4) 4.515 × 1021

18) What is colour of starch iodine complex formed in kinetic study of reaction between I– & H2O2 at
room temperature ?

(1) Yellow
(2) Blue
(3) Green
(4) Red

19) Match the column :-

Column-B
Column-A
(Oxidation number of
(Compound)
underline elements)

(p) Na2O2 (i) –3

(q) NH3 (ii) –1

(r) SO2 (iii) –4

(s) CH4 (iv) +4

(1) p-(i), q-(ii), r-(iii), s-(iv)
(2) p-(ii), q-(iii), r-(iv), s-(i)
(3) p-(ii), q-(i), r-(iv), s-(iii)
(4) p-(iii), q-(ii), r-(i), s-(iv)

20) Which of the following reactions satisfy following conditions?

(a) Heat of combustion reaction
(b) Heat of formation reaction
(c) An exothermic reaction
(d) Not a Neutralization reaction

(1) Cgraphite + O2(g) → CO2(g)

(2) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(ℓ)
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
(4) Cdiamond + O2(g) → CO2(g)

21) The elevation in boiling point of a solution containing 1.8 g of glucose in 100 g of a solvent is
0.1°C. The molal elevation constant of the solvent is :-

(1) 10 K kg/mol
(2) 1 K kg/mol
(3) 0.01 K kg/mol
(4) 0.1 K kg/mol

22) In which of the following reaction, phenol is not obtained :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) α-D-(+) glucopyranose and β-D-(+) glucopyranose are :-

(1) homomers
(2) anomers
(3) enatiomers
(4) conformers

24) Statement-1: Ammonolysis of alkyl halides is not a suitable method for the preparation of pure
primary amines.
Statement-2: Ammonolysis of alkyl halides yields mainly secondary amines.

(1) Both the statements are true and statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1.
(2) Both the statements are true but statement-2 is not the correct explanation of statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True and statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False and statement-2 is True.

25)
The end product in the above sequence is :

(1) Toluene
(2) Ethyl Benzene
(3) Nitrobenzene
(4) None

26) Match list - I and List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)

(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
(3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)

27) End products of the following sequence of reactions are :-

(1)
yellow ppt. of CHI3,

(2)
yellow ppt. of CHI3,

(3)
yellow ppt. of CHI3,

(4)
yellow ppt. of CHI3,

28) Major product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

29)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The IUPAC name of is -

(1) 2-Bromo-4-isopropylpentane
(2) 2, 3-Dimethyl-5-bromohexane
(3) 2-Bromo-4, 5-dimethylhexane
(4) 5-Bromo-2, 3-dimethylhexane

31) Correct match the column-I and column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(molecule) (shape)

(a) XeF4 (p) Trigonal planar

(b) BF3 (q) Linear

(c) PCl5 (r) Square planar

Trigonal
(d) (s)
bipyramidal
(1) (a)-(p), (b)-(q), (c)-(r), (d)-(s)
(2) (a)-(r), (b)-(p), (c)-(s), (d)-(q)
(3) (a)-(r), (b)-(s), (c)-(p), (d)-(q)
(4) (a)-(q), (b)-(p), (c)-(r), (d)-(s)
32) The INCORRECT order is :

(1) Covalent character : MgCl2 > CaCl2 > SrCl2 > BaCl2
(2) Ionic character : PbF4 > PbCl4 > PbBr4 > PbI4
(3) Melting point : KF > KCl > KBr > KI
(4) Boiling point : He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe

33) Number of t2g and eg electrons in [NiF6]–2 are -

(1) 6 and 2
(2) 6 and 0
(3) 4 and 2
(4) 3 and 3

34) Select the correct match :-

(1) α sulphur → Stable above 369 K

(2) White Phosphorous → Poisonous & insoluble in water
(3) Diamond → Thermodynamically most stable allotrope of C.
(4) All of these

35) In which of the dimerisation process, the achievement of the octet is not the driving force.

(1) 2AlCl3 → Al2Cl6

(2) BeCl2 → BeCl2 (Solid)
(3) 2ICl3 → I2Cl6
(4) 2NO2 → N2O4

36) In a reaction, PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), degree of dissociation is 30%. If initial moles of PCl5(g) is 1,
then total moles at equilibrium is :-

(1) 1.3
(2) 0.7
(3) 1.6
(4) 1.0

37) In a certain gaseous reaction between X and Y, X + 3Y → XY3, the initial rates are reported as
follows –

[X] [Y] Rate

0.1 M 0.1 M 0.002 Ms–1

0.2 M 0.1 M 0.002 Ms–1

0.3 M 0.2 M 0.008 Ms–1

 0.4 M 0.3 M 0.018 Ms–1

The rate law is –

(1) r = k[X][Y]3
0
(2) r = k[X] [Y]2
(3) r = k[X][Y]
0
(4) r = k[X] [Y]3

38) In the equation , the value of A will be same for :

(1) NaCl and CaCl2

(2) CaCl2 and MgSO4
(3) NaCl and KCl
(4) KCl and MgSO4

39) An aqueous solution at room temperature contains 0.1 M NH4Cl and 0.01 M NH4OH (pKb = 5),
the pH of the solution is :-

(1) 7.5
(2) 6.8
(3) 6.5
(4) 8.0

40) On the basis of thermochemical equations (i), (ii) and (iii), find out which of the following
algebric relationships is correct ?
(i) C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ; ΔH = x kJ mol–1

(ii) C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO(g) ; ΔH = y kJ mol–1

(iii) CO(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ; ΔH = z kJ mol–1

(1) z = x + y
(2) x = y – z
(3) x = y + z
(4) y = 2z – x

41)

Which one/ones of the following reactions will yield 2-propanol ?

(i) CH3CH = CH2 + H2O

(ii) CH3CHO

(iii) HCHO
Choose the right answer :
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (i)
(4) None of these

42) Which of the following is/are correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

43) Which one of the following is the most acidic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH2=CH–CH3

44)
Choose the incorrect statement -

(1) A is more basic than B

(2) B is more basic than A
(3) B is more basic than C
(4) All are aromatic bases

45) CH3–CH=CH CH(Br) (Et)

Total no. of stereo isomers is :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5

BIOLOGY

1) Taxonomic categories are distinct biological ______ and not merely morphological _____

(1) aggregates, entities

(2) entities, aggregates
(3) entities, category
(4) aggregates, taxon

2) Statement-1 : Gonyaulax is one of the example of red dinoflagellate.

Statement-2 : Gonyaulax releases toxins that may even kill other marine animals.

(1) Both statement-1 and 2 are correct.

(2) Both statement-1 and 2 are incorrect.
(3) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct.

3) Site for protein synthesis in prokaryotic cell is -

(1) Mesosome
(2) Ribosome
(3) Nucleoid
(4) Pili

4) Assertion :- Gymnosperms are naked seed bearing plants.

Reason :- Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall in Gymnosperms.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) Bryophytes are not characterised by :-

(1) Rhizoids
(2) Meiosis in spore mother cell
(3) Reductional division in zygote
(4) Dependent sporophyte

6) Flower is a modification of :-

(1) Root
(2) Leaf
(3) Shoot
(4) Leaf primordia

7) Select the incorrect statement ?

(1) The stem bears nodes and internodes.

(2) Leaves originate from shoot apical meristems and are arranged in acropetal order.
The stem of maize and sugarcane have supporting roots coming out of the lower nodes of the
(3)
stem.
(4) Leaf, flower and fruit are included in root system.

8) Xylem and phloem are situated at the same radius of vascular bundle. Then, such a
vascular bundle is called :-

(1) Radial
(2) Exarch
(3) Concentric
(4) Conjoint

9)

Endodermis of dicot stem is also known as :-

(1) Starch sheath

(2) Casparian strip
(3) Limiting layer
(4) Exodermis

10)

Which of the following statement is not correct?

(1) In monocot root, polyarch condition is found

(2) Radial vascular bundle is found in dicot roots
(3) Pith is large & well developed in dicot roots
In roots, the parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem & phloem are called conjuctive
(4)
tissue

11) First discovered molecule as a result of carbon fixation by Melvin calvin was -

(1) PGA
(2) Malate
(3) OAA
(4) RuBP

12) The incomplete oxidation of glucose is achieved under anaerobic conditions by set of reaction
where pyruvic acid is converted to -

(1) In CO2 and lactic acid

(2) In Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
(3) In CO2 and enthanol
(4) In citrate and CO2

13) Complex-IV of ETS is :

(1) NADH dehydrogenase

(2) Succinate dehydrogenase
(3) Cytochrome-C-oxidase
(4) Cytochrome C1

14) Spraying of which of the following phytohormones on sugarcane crop increases the length of the
stem, thus increasing the yield?

(1) Indole-3-butyric acid

(2) Abscisic acid
(3) Ethephon
(4) Gibberellic acid

15) Zinc is co-factor for -

(1) NADP
(2) Carboxypeptidase
(3) Pepcase
(4) Phosphofructokinase

16) Which of the following pair has haploid structures ?

(1) Nucellus and antipodal cells

(2) Antipodal cells and egg cell
(3) Antipodal cells and megaspore mother cell
(4) Nucellus and primary endosperm nucleus

17) A dioecious flowering plant prevents :-

(1) Geitonogamy and xenogamy

(2) Autogamy and xenogamy
(3) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Cleistogamy and xenogamy

18) Pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the -

(1) One male gamete in cytoplasm of synergids and other in cytoplasm of central cell
(2) Both in cytoplasm of central cell
(3) Cytoplasm of antipodal cell
(4) Both in cytoplasm of synergids

19) Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by :-

(1) Sutton and Boveri

(2) T.H. Morgan
(3) Alfred Sturtevant
(4) William Bateson

20) Which one of the following statement is wrong about sickle cell anaemia ?

(1) Valine is replaced by glutamic acid

(2) In this disease 6th A.A of β globin chain changes
(3) It is an autosomal recessive disease
(4) Polymerisation under low O2 tension of Hb molecule

21) Which one of the following is example of Co-dominance ?

(1) Carrier of colour blindness

(2) AB blood group in human
(3) Carrier of sickle cell anaemia
(4) Both (2) and (3)

22) Which of the following is exception to Mendel's law of dominance?

(1) Co-dominance
(2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Linkage
(4) Both (1 & 2)

23) Which of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel's law of segregation?

(1) Factor occur in pairs.

(2) Factor never show any blending.
(3) Characters are controlled by unit factor.
(4) Out of one pair of factor one is dominant factor while another is recessive factor.

24) True-breeding pea plant varieties are obtained by –

(1) Self pollination

(2) Cross-pollination
(3) Often cross pollination
(4) Emasculation
25) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding colorblindness ?

(1) It is sex linked recessive disorder

(2) It is due to mutation in certain genes present on X-chromosome
(3) It occurs in about 8% in female and about 0.4 % in males
(4) A daughter will not be colourblind unless her mother is carrier and her father is colourblind

26) Identify the correct statement :-

(A) In case of incomplete dominance phenotypic ratio has changed from 1 : 2 : 1 to 3 : 1
(B) In co-dominance the F1 generation resembles both of the parents.
(C) Size of starch grains in pea plant is an example of incomplete dominance.
(D) In pleiotropy many genes exhibit single phenotype.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) A and D only

(2) B and C only
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) B, C and D only

27) Which of the following plant employs 'Sexual deceit' to get pollinated by a species of bee ?

(1) Fig tree

(2) Orchid on Mango
(3) Yucca plant
(4) Ophrys Orchid

28) Barnacles growing on the back of a whale is an example of -

(1) Mutualism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Competition
(4) Predation

29) The thorn as morphological defendes against herbivores are found in which plant :

(1) Cactus
(2) Acacia
(3) Calotropis
(4) Both (1) and (2)

30) The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is :-

(1) 10 billion tons

(2) 170 billion tons
(3) 55 billion tons
(4) 1 billion tons
31) What is bioprospecting ?

(1) Increasing production of useful products by using bio resources.

(2) Monitoring the loss of biodiversity in different geographical areas.
(3) Exploring molecular genetics and species level diversity for products of economic importance.
(4) Selecting useful species for commercial utilization of them or their product.

32) Match the column :

Leads to
accumulation of a
(a) Fragmentation (i) dark coloured
amorphous
substance.

Water-soluble
(b) Humification (ii) inorganic nutrients go
down into soil horizon

Bacterial and
fungal enzymes
(c) Catabolism (iii) degrade detritus into
simpler organic and
inorganic substances

Detrivores
(d) Leaching (iv) break down detritus
into smaller particles
(1) a–iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

33)

Which of the following is not correct pair for Mangifera indica?

(1) Division - Dicotyledonae

(2) Order - Sapindales
(3) Family - Anacardiaceae
(4) Genus - Mangifera

34) Viruses that infect plants usually have :

(1) Double stranded RNA

(2) Single stranded RNA
(3) Double stranded DNA
(4) Single stranded DNA

35) In the member of phaeophyceae which part of body functions as photosynthetic part ?
(1) Rhizoids
(2) Stipe
(3) Hold fast
(4) Frond

36)

Palmately compound leaf is found in -

(1) Neem
(2) Silk cotton
(3) Banana
(4) Rose

37) Select the incorrect statements :

(a) Cornelius van Neil inferred that the O2 evolved by green plant comes from carbon dioxide, not
from H2O.
(b) Joseph Priestley performed a series of experiments to describe action spectrum of
photosynthesis.
(c) T.W. Engelmann used green alga, cladophora for his experiment.
(d) In green plants H2S is the hydrogen donor in photosynthesis.

(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d

38) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Some organisms do not release O2 during photosynthesis.
Reason (R) : When H2S is the hydrogen donor in photosynthesis the oxidation product is sulphur or
sulphate instead of O2.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

39) Given below are two statement :-

Statement I :- Two molecules of NADH are produced from the metabolism of two molecules of
pyruvic acid during link reaction.
Statement II :- Acetyl CoA enters a cyclic pathway, more commonly called as kreb's cycle which
scientifically elucidated by Hans Kreb at first.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only statement I is correct.
(4) Only statement II is correct.

40) In the expression of exponential growth (W1 = W0ert) 'r' is referred to as :-

(1) Growth rate

(2) Effeciency index
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Time of growth

41) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below :-

Column-I Column-II

Removal of stamens
a from the flower bud before (i) Polyembryony
the anther dehisces

Occurance of more than

b (ii) Embryogeny
one embryo in a seed

The residual and

c (iii) Emasculation
peristent nucellus

Early stage of embryo

d (iv) Perisperm
development

a b c d

(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Select the incorrect statement(s) from the options given below with respect to dihybrid cross.
I. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations.
II. Genes far apart on the same chromosomes show very few recombinations.
III. Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.

(1) I and II
(2) III and II
(3) I and III
(4) All of these
43) Assertion: India is one of the 12 mega diversity countries of the world.
Reason: India has only 2.4 percent of world's land area, but its share of the global species diversity
is an impressive 8.1 percent.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

44) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Predators acts as a conduits for energy transfer across trophic levels.
Statement II : The prickly pear cactus introduced into Australia in the early 1920's caused havoc by
spreading rapidly into millions of hectares of rangeland.
In the light of above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

45) If in a pond there are 48 fishes last year and through reproduction 10 new fishes are added
taking the current population to 58. What will be the birth rate per fish per year :

(1) 0.172
(2) 0.827
(3) 0.208
(4) 4.8

46)

Electric organs are present in

(1) Torpedo
(2) Carcharodon
(3) Exocoetus
(4) Clarias

47) Sexual dimorphism is found in :-

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Porifera
(4) Ctenophora

48) Pheretima is :-

(1) Sterile
(2) Hermaphrodite
(3) Radially symmetrical
(4) Dioecious

49) Assertion (A) :- Members of phylum platyhelminthes are called flatworms.

Reason (R) :- They have dorso-ventrally flattened body.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (R) is true but (A) is false

50) Germinal Epithelium of ovary is formed of :-

(1) Columnar Epithelium

(2) Squamous Epithelium
(3) Cuboidal Epithelium
(4) Stratified Epithelium

51) In cockroach, walking legs arises from :-

(1) prothorax and mesothorax and are two pairs.

(2) mesothorax and metathorax and are two pairs.
(3) All the thoracic segments and are three pairs.
(4) first three abdominal segments and are three pairs.

52) In frog respiration takes place through :

(1) Skin
(2) Lungs
(3) Buccal cavity
(4) All of these

53) Chordae tendinae are found in :-

(1) Ventricles of heart

(2) Atria of heart
(3) Joints of legs
(4) Ventricles of brain

54) Which layer of blood vessels consist of smooth muscle and elastic fibres–

(1) Tunica intima

(2) Tunica media
(3) Tunica externa
(4) All of above
55) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately how much ml of CO2 to the alveoli :

(1) 5 ml
(2) 4 ml
(3) 7 ml
(4) 8 ml

56) Which of the following substances are reabsorbed actively in nephron ?

(1) Glucose, Ammonia

(2) Glucose, Na+
(3) Amino acid, Urea
(4) Na+, Uric acid

57) Nissl’s granules are not found in :-

(1) Cell body

(2) Axon
(3) Dendrites
(4) Both 2 and 3

58) α-cells of islet of Langerhans of pancreas are related to which secretion ?

(1) Glucagon
(2) Insulin
(3) Somatostatin
(4) Pancreatic polypeptide

59) The hypothalamus is the basal part of structure 'X' in forebrain while pituitary is located in a
bony cavity called 'Y'.
Select the correct option for X and Y respectively.

(1) Diencephalon, Sella turcica

(2) Corpora quadrigemina, Thalamus
(3) Sella turcica, Diencephalon
(4) Thalamus and Cerebral aqueduct

60) Assertion : Methods of locomotion performed by animals vary with their habitats and the
demand of the situation.
Reason : Locomotion is generally for search of food, shelter, mate, suitable breeding grounds,
favourable climatic conditions or to escape from enemies/predators.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
61) ATP-ase needed for muscle contraction is present over :-

(1) Tropomyosin
(2) Troponin
(3) Myosin
(4) Actin

62) Which accessory sex gland in human being is unpaired ?

(1) Bartholin's gland

(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Cowper gland
(4) Prostate gland

63) The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce :-

(1) Estrogen only

(2) Progestrone
(3) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(4) Relaxin only

64) Statement-I : The placenta helps in transport of all essential substance to and from foetus.
Statement-II : After implantation, trophoblast gets differentiated into outer ectoderm and inner
endoderm.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

65) Which of the following ions plays an effective role in the activity of IUDs :

(1) Copper
(2) Zinc
(3) Iron
(4) Ammonium

66) Which antibody found abundant in colostrum.

(1) IgG
(2) IgA
(3) IgM
(4) IgD

67) Which of the following statement is false for the structure labelled as "A" in the figure given
below?

(1) Here maturation of T-lymphocytes takes place

(2) Here immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes
(3) Here lymphocytes interact with antigen and become effector cells
(4) It is an example of primary lymphoid organ.

68) Stellar distances are measured in :-

(1) Meter
(2) Kilometers
(3) Light years
(4) Meter/second

69) Who explained that cells divide and new cells are formed from pre-existing cells :

(1) Schleiden
(2) Schwann
(3) R. Virchow
(4) R. Brown

70) Non-membrane bound organelle found in all cell is :-

(1) Lysosome
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Ribosome
(4) Vacuole

71) (A) Well defined nucleus is present

(B) Genetic material is absent
(C) Nuclear membrane absent
(D) Mesosome present
(E) Circular DNA is present
Which of the above mentioned are correct for Prokaryotic cell ?

(1) C,D,E
(2) A,C,E
(3) A,B,D
(4) B,C,E

72) Identify the given structure and their nature :-

Structure Nature

(1) Glucose Reducing

(2) Glucose Non reducing

(3) Maltose Reducing

(4) Fructose Reducing

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) How many of the following statements [A-D] are correct :-

(A) Tyrosine & Valine are neutral amino acids
(B) Lysine & Arginine are basic amino acids
(C) Alanine is basic amino acid
(D) Tryptophan is the simplest amino acid

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) "Molecular scissors" are :-

(1) Lygase
(2) Restriction enzymes
(3) Methylase
(4) Exonuclease

75) Which of the following is the last step in PCR method :

(1) Denaturation
(2) Annealing
(3) Extension
(4) Attachment of primers

76) A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the problem of acquired night blindness in
developing countries is–

(1) Bt-rice
(2) Bt-Brinjal
(3) Golden rice
(4) Both (1) and (3)

77) Assertion : Aschelmintheses possessing pseudocoelom and are called pseudocoelomate.

Reason : Body cavity of aschelminthese is not lined by mesoderm, instead, the mesoderm is present
as scattered pouches in between ectoderm and endoderm.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

78) Goblet cells of alimentary canal, is example of :-

(1) Unicellular endocrine gland

(2) Multicellular exocrine gland
(3) Unicellular glandular cells
(4) Multicellular glandular cells

79) Which one of the following statement is correct regarding cockroach?

(1) Head is oval in shape

(2) There are 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs of thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)
(3) Heart is differentiated into funnel shaped chambers with setae on either side
(4) Each eye consists of 1000 hexagonal ommatidia

80) Largest WBC is

(1) Basophil
(2) Monocyte
(3) Eosinophil
(4) Neutrophil

81) Statement - I : Glomerular fillrate contain all the constituent of blood plasma except the
proteins.
Statement - II : The epithelial cells of inner layer of Bowman's capsule called podocytes.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Only Statement II is correct.

82) The neural system is composed of highly specialised cells which can detect, receive and transmit
different kinds of stimuli are called as.

(1) Neuroglial cells

(2) Neuron
(3) Dendritic cells
(4) Axon

83) Which of the following cause an increase in water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule ?

(1) Increase in insulin levels

(2) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
(3) Decrease in aldosterone levels
(4) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels

84) Consider the following four statement (A–D) and select option which include all the correct ones
only :-
(A) Acromegaly is due to hyper secretion of STH in childhood stage.
(B) In adult female hypothyroidism cause irregular menses.
(C) Hyper secretion of glucocorticoids cause "Addison's disease".
(D) At the time of physical labour or fasting taking of insulin injection can cause ‘insulin shock’ in
diabetic patient.

(1) Statements B & C

(2) Statements B & D
(3) Statements A & B
(4) Statements A & C

85) Spermatogenesis starts at the time of :-

(1) Puberty
(2) Reproduction
(3) After birth
(4) Life time

86) There are some events associated with reproduction and embryonic development. Arrange these
from first to last and select the correct answer.
(a) Start formation of corpus luteum
(b) Cleavage
(c) Fertilisation
(d) Ovulation
(e) Implantation
(f) Formation of Graafian follicle
(g) Blastocyst
(h) Morula
(i) Zygote

(1) f, d, a, c, i, b, h, g, e
(2) f, d, i, c, a, b, h, g, e
(3) a, f, d, c, b, i, h, g, e
(4) i, h, g, f, d, c, b, e, a

87) Read the following statements :-

(A) Rheumatoid arthritis is an auto immune disease.
(B) Antibodies produced during allergy are of IgA type.
(C) Injection given against snake venom is a type of passive immunisation.
(D)The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1

88) Match the columns -

Column-I Column-II
(A) Rosie (i) α-1 antitrypsin
(B) ELISA (ii) Protein enriched milk
(C) rop (iii) Test to detect antigen or antibody
(D) Emphysema (iv) Codes for protein involved in plasmid replication
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

89) Adult frog is :-

(1) Uricotelic
(2) Ureotelic
(3) Ammonotelic
(4) Guanotelic

90) Which pigment carries oxygen in the blood of human ?

(1) Haemoglobin
(2) Bilirubin
(3) Biliverdin
(4) Hemocyanin
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 2 3 3 2 2 3 3 3 4 4 4 1 4 3 2 2 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 3 2 3 2 3 1 3 3 2 3 2 4 3 1 1 2 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 4 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 3 3 1 4 4 1 1 3 1 4 3 4 4 1 2 2 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 2 3 2 3 3 3 1 4 2 4 2 2 3 1 2 3 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 2 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 2 1 3 3 4 4 1 3 1 3 3 4 2 2 3 4 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 2 1 3 2 4 2 4 2 3 4 1 2 4 2 3 4 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 1 1 3 1 2 2 1 3 3 4 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 2 3 1 2 3 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 3 1 3 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 2 2 1 1 4 1 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

I.E. = 13.6

4)

λ=

5) For longer frequency

v=
K.E.max. = hν – ϕ

K.E.max. =
= 5.27 – 2 = 3.27 eV

6) Truth table

Here C = 1 only when A = 1, B = 1 & C = 0 for all other cases so It is C = A.B AND gate

0
7) E = ⇒ V = Ed
= (6 × 105) × (500 × 10–9)
= 0.3 V
K.E. = qV0
= e(0.3V)
= 0.3 eV

8)
⇒ ⇒
Fnet = 10 cm

Now ⇒ v = 20 cm

9) u = + 0.2m V = –0.5 m

⇒ R = 2f = cm

10) d = sin(i – r)
For small angles sin(i – r) i – r; cosr 1

d = t(i –r), d = it

12)

13) E ∝ T4

E2 =

E2 =

14) x = 3sin 2t + 4cos 2t = 5 sin(2t + ϕ)

⇒ a = 5, vmax = aω = (5)(2) =10

15) Put –x in place of x,

phase will be differ by π

amplitude will become

y = 0.06 sin 8π [t+ ]

y = – 0.06 sin 8π
17)

20) Inet =

21)
fnet = f1 – f2

= 1 × 10–3 N/m
force on 25 cm length of wire
FC = fnet × 25 × 10–2 N or 2.5 × 10–4 N

22)

24)

26)

Average speed = =

Av. velocity =

27)

y= ...(i)

y=
y= ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
R = 64m

28) ΣFx = 0

ΣFy = 0

30)

31)
= mℓ2

32)

∵g= = 2%
increases by 2%

33) ⇒

34)

A1V1 = A2V2

v2 =
 = 64 ms–1

35)

Area ↓
Surface energy ↓
Internal energy ↑
Temperature ↑

36)

For best contrast we require perfect black or zero as minima which is only possible for equal
intensity of light.

37)

If Q1 is for per cycle then

⇒ W = 6.25 × 105 J per cycle

38) v = A ωcos ωt, a =–ω2A sinωt

⇒ Straight line in v2 and a2

40)

η= ⇒ 0.9 = ⇒ VS = 450V

As VPIP = 3000 so IP = = 15A

41) We have, Srel = urelt + arel t2

⇒ 0 = ut – (a + g) t2

⇒a= –g=

42)
 43) When [θ = 90°]
∴W= Fdcosθ
∴W=0 [cos90° = 0]

44)

w.r.t. Q

45)

Apply C.O.E.

....(I)

....(II)
From (I) and (II)

h=

CHEMISTRY

47) NCERT-XI Pg. # 86 (Part-I)

54) (i) Na2O2 → 2Na+ + O2–2 peroxo

(ii) here 2 peroxo linkage

(iii) PbO2 is a normal oxide
(iv) SrO2 → Sr+2 + O2–2 peroxo

55) NCERT Pg. No. # 231

60) NCERT-XII, Part-I, Pg # 89, Ist paragraph

61)
PbCl2 Pb+2 + 2Cl–
Ksp = [Pb+2] [Cl–]2
NaCl Na+ + Cl–
0.1 M 0.1 M
+2 – 2
Ksp = [Pb ] [Cl ]
4 × 10–6 = S × (0.1)2
S = 4 × 10–4 M

62)

Moles of PH3 =
= 2.5 × 10–3
Moles of atoms = 4 × 2.5 × 10–3
= 10–2
Number of atoms = 6.02 × 1023 × 10–2
= 6.02 × 1021

66)

ΔTb = i Kb.m

0.1 = 1 × Kb ×
⇒ Kb = 1 K kg/mol

68) The configuration of α-and β-forms differ only at the anomeric carbon, i.e., C-1.

72)
73)

76) NCERT-XI Pg. # 110 (Part-I)

81)

PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2

1 – –
1–x x x
given x = 0.3
Total moles at equilibrium
=1–x+x+x
= 1 + x = 1.3

83) NCERT-XII, Part-I, Pg # 81, Last Para.

84)

pOH = pKb + log

pOH = 5 + log
pOH = 6 ⇒ pH = 8

86)
 88) After giving H+; becomes aromatic.

90)

S.I. = 2n
= 22 = 4

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg # 6

92)

NCERT-XI Pg.15

93) NCERT Pg. No. # 13

94) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 33

95) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 30

96) NCERT Pg. No.62

97) NCERT XI Pg # 59,60,61

98) NCERT Pg. 73

99)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 75

100)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 74

101) NCERT Pg. No. # 144

102) NCERT XI, Pg.No.157

103) NCERT, Pg. # 160

104) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 176

105)

NCERT XI, pg # 118

109) NCERT-XII Pg. # 67

110)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 74

111) NCERT-XII Pg. # 61

112) NCERT XII, Pg. # 60,61

113) NCERT XII, Pg. # 59

114) NCERT XII, Pg. # 54

115) NCERT-XII Pg. # 73,74

116) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 60,61

117) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 202

118) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 220

120)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 207

121) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 223

122)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 243

123) NCERT-XI Pg.#8

124)

XI NCERT Pg. No. # 20

125) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 26

126) NCERT Pg. No.60

127) NCERT XI, Pg.No.#135

128) NCERT XI, Pg.No.#208

129) XI NCERT, Pg No - 231

130) NCERT, Pg. # 243

132) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 67

133) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 219

134) NCERT XII, Pg.No.#198

135) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 191

136)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 57

137) NCERT Pg. # 52

144) NCERT, Pg. # 286

145) NCERT Pg. # 275

148) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 336

150) NCERT Pg. No. # 302(E), 303(H)

152) NCERT-P.No. 44
154) NCERT Pg. # 53,54

156) NCERT–XII Pg. # 151, Para-8.2.2

158) NCERT pg.# 126, para 2

159) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

160) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

161) NCERT XI- Pg. No. # 127,128,129

162) NCERT XI Pg # 145

163) NCERT Pg. # 144, 2rd para

167) NCERT Pg # 48

168) NCERT XI Pg # 102

170) NCERT, Pg # 279

171) NCERT Pg. No. # 293

172) NCERT (XI) E Pg. # 316

173) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 332,333

177) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 136 & 137

178)

NCERT XII Pg # 183, 184, 169

179) NCERT Pg # 118