Muscular System

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. The capacity of a muscle cell to shorten forcefully is known as

A. contractility.
B. excitability.
C. extensibility.
D. elasticity.
E. flexibility.

2. Muscles exhibit the property of excitability. This means that the muscle

A. shortens its length.

B. recoils to its original resting length.
C. stretches beyond its normal length.
D. responds to stimulation by the nervous system.
E. excites itself.

3. Identify the statement concerning general functional characteristics of muscle that is true.

A. Muscle tissue shortens forcefully but lengthens passively.

B. Muscle tissue shortens passively but lengthens forcefully.
C. Muscle tissue can get shorter, but can not get longer.
D. Muscle tissue can get longer, but can not get shorter.
E. None of these statements is true.

4. Identify the statement concerning skeletal muscle that is true.

A. It comprises about 20% of the body's weight.

B. It propels urine through the urinary tract.
C. Its function is largely under involuntary control.
D. It is a kind of connective tissue.
E. It is responsible for locomotion.

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5. Which of the following actions is caused by contraction of skeletal muscle?

A. contraction of the heart

B. moving your feet in walking
C. movement of food through the G.I. tract
D. emptying of the urinary bladder
E. vasoconstriction

6. Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are similar in that they both

A. are under involuntary control.

B. are striated.
C. are widely distributed in the body.
D. have multiple nuclei.
E. are under voluntary control.

7. Which of the following is true?

A. Skeletal muscle is capable of spontaneous contraction.

B. Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs.
C. Cardiac muscle cells have multiple nuclei.
D. Smooth muscle cells are long and cylindrical.
E. There is a small amount of smooth muscle in the heart.

8. Hypertrophy of skeletal muscles from weight lifting is caused by an increase in the

A. number of muscle fibers.

B. size of muscle fibers.
C. number of striations.
D. number of nuclei within the muscle fibers.
E. number of muscle cells.

9. Skeletal muscle fibers

A. possess striations.
B. can contract but are not extensible or excitable.
C. do not require nerve innervation to contract.
D. increase dramatically in number after birth.
E. are found in the walls of the stomach.

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10. A fasciculus

A. is a bundle of reticular fibers.

B. is surrounded by perimysium.
C. is only found in smooth muscle.
D. possesses an external lamina.
E. is a bundle of collagen fibers.

11. Fascia

A. surrounds individual muscles.

B. separates muscle fibers.
C. connects muscles to bone.
D. is a type of muscle tissue.
E. is a type of nerve tissue.

12. Endomysium is a delicate network of loose connective tissue that

A. surrounds each muscle fiber.

B. forms a sheath around a fasciculus.
C. is composed of elastic fibers.
D. separates individual muscles.
E. penetrates muscle fibers.

13. Which of the following connective tissue layers is outside all the others?

A. perimysium
B. endomysium
C. epimysium
D. paramysium
E. sarcolemma

14. Muscle myofibrils

A. are found in the sarcolemma.

B. extend from the sarcolemma to the T-tubule.
C. contain myosin and actin myofilaments.
D. hold muscle cells together.
E. do not appear striated.

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15. The region of the sarcomere that contains both actin and myosin myofilaments is called the

A. I band.
B. A band.
C. Z disk.
D. H zone.
E. M line.

16. A sarcomere extends from

A. one Z disk to an adjacent Z disk.

B. one T tubule to the next T tubule.
C. the middle of the I band to the middle of the A band.
D. the H zone to the I band.
E. M line to the next M line.

17. Which of the following is composed of myosin molecules?

A. thick myofilaments
B. I Bands
C. Z disks
D. sarcolemma
E. tropomyosin

18. Actin myofilaments

A. resemble bundles of minute golf clubs.

B. contain both myosin and tropomyosin.
C. are held in place by the M line.
D. contain strands of fibrous actin.
E. are the thickest proteins in muscle.

19. The active sites to which cross-bridges attach are found on the

A. sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B. actin myofilaments.
C. Z disks.
D. T tubules.
E. myosin myofilaments.

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20. ATPase is found in

A. F-actin strands.
B. G-actin globular units.
C. myosin heads.
D. tropomyosin grooves.
E. troponin molecules.

21. T tubules are invaginations of the

A. sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B. sarcomere.
C. myofibril.
D. sarcoplasm.
E. sarcolemma.

22. The sarcoplasmic reticulum

A. stores calcium ions.

B. shortens during muscle contraction.
C. transmits nerve impulses to the myofibrils.
D. connects adjacent sarcomeres.
E. covers the muscle fiber.

23. Which of the following statements regarding the sliding filament model is false?

A. Actin and myosin do not shorten during contraction.

B. Both actin and myosin myofilaments shorten during contraction.
C. The sarcomere shortens.
D. The I band and H zones become narrower during contraction.
E. The A band remains constant in length.

24. The length of the resting sarcomere is

A. longer than the length of a contracted sarcomere.

B. shorter than the length of a contracted sarcomere.
C. the same length as a contracted sarcomere.
D. the same length as the muscle fiber.
E. the same length as the myofibril.

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25. The sites where a chemical substance is transmitted from the presynaptic terminal of an axon to the
postsynaptic membrane of a muscle fiber are called

A. neuromuscular junctions.
B. sarcomeres.
C. myofilaments.
D. Z disks.
E. cell body of neuron.

26. Electric signals called action potentials

A. cause a muscle cell to contract.

B. transfer information from cell to cell.
C. make complex mental processes possible.
D. send information to the brain.
E. All of these choices are correct.

27. The outside of the resting plasma membrane is __________ relative to the inside of the resting plasma
membrane.

A. positively charged
B. negatively charged
C. electrically neutral
D. recharged
E. None of these choices is correct.

28. Which of the following changes have the potential to dramatically affect the potential difference across the
plasma membrane?

A. increased permeability of the membrane to sodium ions

B. increased intracellular concentration of potassium ions
C. any change in the rate at which the sodium-potassium pump works
D. increased permeability of the membrane to sodium ions and increased intracellular concentration of
potassium ions
E. increased permeability of the membrane to sodium ions, increased intracellular concentration of
potassium ions and any change in the rate at which the sodium-potassium pump works

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29. In which of the following situations does a resting membrane potential exist?

A. a relaxed muscle fiber

B. a conducting neuron
C. a stimulated sensory receptor in the skin
D. a contracting cardiac muscle cell
E. the eye seeing an image

30. Which of the following situations occurs in electrically excitable cells?

A. When Na+ ion channels open, K+ ion channels close.

B. The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium into the cell.
C. Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open.
D. Sodium ion channels are opened by high extracellular calcium levels.
E. The opening and closing of ligand-gated channels cause depolarization.

31. Depolarization of the cell membrane occurs when there is a rapid influx (inflow) of

A. potassium ions.
B. chloride ions.
C. calcium ions.
D. sodium ions.
E. amino acids.

32. An action potential

A. occurs when the local potential reaches threshold level.

B. is not propagated.
C. has no repolarization phase.
D. is an example of negative feedback.
E. can be of varying strengths depending on strength of the stimulus.

33. A stimulus either causes an action potential or it doesn't. This is called

A. an all-or-none response.
B. a graded response.
C. a latent period response.
D. a relative refractory response.
E. arbitrary response.

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34. When repolarization of the cell membrane is complete, the

A. cell dies.
B. cell regenerates.
C. cell no longer has a potential difference across its membrane.
D. cell is no longer responsive.
E. original polarity of the cell is restored.

35. Synaptic vesicles in the neuromuscular junction contain

A. calcium.
B. ATP.
C. acetylcholine.
D. acetylcholinesterase.
E. sodium.

36. Which of the following structures contains the other four items listed?

A. postsynaptic membrane
B. presynaptic terminal
C. synaptic cleft
D. neuromuscular junction
E. receptors on postsynaptic membrane

37. Acetylcholine binds to a membrane bound receptor and causes ligand-gated sodium channels to open and
results in

A. hyperpolarization.
B. depolarization.
C. hypoplarization.
D. no change in membrane potential.
E. There is not enough information to predict the outcome.

38. When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal,

A. calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated ion channels.
B. acetylcholine moves into the presynaptic terminal.
C. a local potential is generated in the presynaptic terminal.
D. ligand-gated ion channels in the presynaptic terminal are opened.
E. nothing else happens.

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39. Lack of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft would result in

A. a decrease in acetylcholine production by the motor neuron.

B. continuous stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane.
C. rapid degradation of acetylcholine.
D. relaxation of the muscle.
E. continuous stimulation of the presynaptic membrane.

40. Too much acetylcholinesterase causes

A. continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber.

B. rapid degradation of acetycholine.
C. voltage-gated calcium ion channels opening in the presynaptic terminal.
D. an increase in sodium uptake by the muscle fiber.
E. exocytosis of synaptic vesicles.

41. Curare blocks acetylcholine receptors at the motor end plate. This would result in

A. increased stimulation of the muscle.

B. more acetylcholinesterase production.
C. lack of calcium uptake by the muscle fiber.
D. inability of the muscle fiber to respond to nervous stimulation.
E. sustained contraction of the muscle.

42. A child ingested an organophosphate poison used to kill insects. Soon the child's muscles began tetanic
contractions. Predict what occurred at the synaptic cleft.

A. decreased release of acetylcholine from presynaptic neurons

B. increased accumulation of acetylcholine in the synapse
C. the poison binds to acetycholine receptors and stimulates them
D. increased breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft
E. Both increased accumulation of acetylcholine in the synapse and increased breakdown of acetylcholine
in the synaptic cleft occurred.

43. Which of the following events occurs on the postsynaptic membrane?

A. acetylcholine production
B. rapid degradation of acetylcholine
C. release of neurotransmitter
D. neurotransmitter combines with a receptor molecule
E. release of calcium ions

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44. One cause of spastic paralysis might be

A. inhibition of acetylcholine molecules.

B. blockage of acetylcholine receptors.
C. inhibition of acetylcholinesterase.
D. destruction of synaptic vesicles.
E. increase in amount of acetylcholinesterase.

45. The model that describes the contraction of the muscle is called the

A. contraction cycle.
B. power stroke.
C. sliding filament model.
D. slipping flbril mechanism.
E. paddle model.

46. In order for muscle relaxation to occur,

A. calcium ions must be transported to troponin.

B. power strokes slow down.
C. the active sites on actin must be blocked.
D. sodium ions must be actively transported to troponin.
E. the active sites on myosin must be uncovered.

47. If sodium ions cannot enter a muscle fiber in response to a stimulus,

A. contraction cannot occur.

B. relaxation cannot occur.
C. sodium ions will be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum instead.
D. the active sites are left exposed.
E. the action potential travels into the muscle anyway.

48. During the contraction phase of a muscle twitch,

A. acetylcholine stimulates the pre-synaptic terminal.

B. sodium ions diffuse into the muscle fiber.
C. actin-myosin cross-bridges form.
D. calcium ions are transported back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
E. the action potential travels down the T tubule.

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49. A muscle fiber will respond to a stimulus when that stimulus reaches the _____ level.

A. threshold
B. relaxation
C. rigor mortis
D. recruitment
E. resting

50. The time between application of the stimulus to a motor neuron and the beginning of contraction is called
the _____ phase.

A. contraction
B. relaxation
C. latent or lag
D. refractory
E. threshold

51. Which of the following will respond to a threshold stimulus with an all-or-none contraction?

A. a single muscle fiber

B. a single motor unit
C. a whole muscle
D. a single muscle fiber and a single motor unit
E. a single muscle fiber, a single motor unit and a whole muscle

52. Which of the following is true?

A. Muscle fatigue has no influence on the force of contractions.

B. A threshold stimulus will cause contraction of a muscle fiber.
C. A subthreshold stimulus causes a muscle contraction.
D. Motor units do not obey the "all or none" law.
E. A threshold stimulus will not affect motor units.

53. Which of the following would occur as a result of a single muscle contraction?

A. tetanus
B. tone
C. treppe
D. twitch
E. paralysis

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54. A sustained muscle contraction is known as

A. tetanus
B. tone
C. treppe
D. twitch
E. paralysis

55. Tetanus of a muscle is thought to be caused by

A. high calcium ion concentrations in the sarcoplasm.

B. the rapid movement of sodium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
C. an increase in stimulus strength.
D. increased temperature in the active muscle.
E. decreased amounts of calcium ions in muscle tissue.

56. A condition in which stimuli occur so rapidly that there are no intervening relaxations between
contractions is called

A. complete tetanus.
B. incomplete tetanus.
C. involuntary paralysis.
D. all or none tetanus.
E. treppe.

57. Treppe

A. can contribute to improved muscle efficiency.

B. may be due to an increase in the level of calcium ions around the myofibril.
C. is an example of a graded response.
D. is achieved during warm-up exercises.
E. All of these choices are correct.

58. A proper definition of muscle tone is

A. constant tension produced by muscles for long periods of time.

B. a feeling of well-being following exercise.
C. the ability of a muscle to maintain a contraction against an outside force.
D. muscles contracting together.
E. warm-up of muscle tissue.

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59. Movements of the body are usually smooth and occur at differing rates because

A. they are a mixture of isotonic and isometric contractions.

B. motor units contract out of phase at their own particular rates.
C. most muscle contractions closely resemble individual muscle twitches.
D. muscles of different sizes contract at different rates.
E. of the all or none principle.

60. Which of the following would contribute to muscular fatigue in the muscle fiber?

A. the emotional state of an individual

B. depletion of ATP reserves
C. inability of the motor neuron to produce sufficient quantities of acetylcholine
D. depletion of neurotransmitter
E. blocked receptors in the postsynaptic membrane

61. The type of muscle fatigue known as "psychological fatigue" is the result of

A. depleted ATP reserves.

B. increased calcium ion concentration in the sarcoplasm.
C. decreased levels of acetylcholine.
D. the emotional state of an individual.
E. None of these choices is correct.

62. Rigor mortis occurs after death because

A. cross-bridges form but can't release.

B. calcium is actively transported back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
C. anaerobic respiration is occurring.
D. myosin levels decline at death.
E. cross-bridges never form.

63. During resting conditions, _________ is synthesized to store energy?

A. calcium
B. creatine phosphate
C. creatine
D. lactic acid
E. pyruvic acid

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64. Aerobic respiration

A. produces ATP molecules faster than anaerobic respiration.

B. yields as many as 38 ATP per glucose molecule metabolized.
C. occurs whether oxygen is present or not.
D. occurs entirely in the cytoplasm.
E. occurs in the ribosomes.

65. A waste product of anaerobic respiration in muscle cells is

A. uric acid.
B. hydrochloric acid.
C. lactic acid.
D. carbonic acid.
E. pyruvic acid.

66. During short periods of intense exercise, energy in muscles is primarily derived from

A. aerobic respiration.
B. anaerobic respiration.
C. gas exchange.
D. nuclear reactions.
E. both aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration.

67. You are hired to work in a laboratory to measure the rate of human muscle contraction. Which of the
following might decrease in quantity in muscle cells undergoing contractions?

A. ATP
B. carbon dioxide
C. water
D. lactic acid
E. sodium

68. Which of the following occurs during recovery from oxygen debt?

A. an elevated level of anaerobic metabolism

B. depletion of reserves of creatine phosphate
C. conversion of excess lactic acid to glucose
D. glycogen degradation to provide creatine
E. depressed level of aerobic respiration

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69. Oxygen debt represents

A. the amount anaerobic metabolism must increase after exercise.

B. the amount of oxygen converted to lactic acid during exercise.
C. the amount of carbon dioxide that cells need to eliminate.
D. conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid.
E. the amount of oxygen that cells need to replenish ATP supplies after exercise.

70. Which of the following statements concerning fast-twitch muscle fibers is true?

A. They split ATP rapidly.

B. They have large deposits of myoglobin.
C. They are well adapted to aerobic metabolism.
D. They have a well-developed blood supply.
E. They have many mitochondria.

71. Which of the following correctly describes myoglobin's special function in muscle tissue?

A. breaks down glycogen

B. synthesizes ATP
C. acts as a reservoir for oxygen
D. produces action potentials
E. stores glucose.

72. Aerobic exercise

A. increases vascularity of muscle.

B. develops fatigue-resistant fast-twitch fibers.
C. can increase the efficiency of slow-twitch fibers.
D. can increase the number of mitochondria in muscle cells.
E. All of these choices are correct.

73. Muscle hypertrophy results from increased numbers of

A. myofibrils and sarcomeres.

B. muscle fibers.
C. motor units.
D. muscles.
E. muscle cells.

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74. Increased strength of a trained muscle is due to

A. an increased number of muscle fibers.

B. the nervous system's ability to recruit a large number of motor units simultaneously.
C. elimination of unnecessary enzymes and metabolic pathways.
D. elimination of all fat deposits.
E. elimination of unnecessary connective tissue.

75. Muscle atrophy

A. involves an increase in the number of muscle fibers.

B. is characterized by a decrease in muscle size.
C. results from aerobic exercise.
D. causes an increase in blood flow to the affected muscle.
E. is characterized by an increase in muscle size.

76. Body temperature

A. is raised by sweating.
B. results from the heat produced when muscles contract.
C. will increase after blood vessels in the skin constrict.
D. is lowered by shivering.
E. decreases when the rate of the chemical reactions increase.

77. Shivering

A. increases heat loss from the skin.

B. is a response of the nervous system to a high fever.
C. helps raise body temperature.
D. causes vasoconstriction.
E. occurs when body temperature is slightly elevated.

78. When comparing smooth and skeletal muscle cells, which of the following statements is true?

A. Smooth muscle cells have striations.

B. The myofilaments in smooth muscle do not form sarcomeres.
C. Smooth muscle cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells.
D. Smooth muscle has a lot of actin and myosin.
E. Smooth muscle cells are multinucleated.

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79. The condition of painful, spasmodic contractions of muscles is referred to as

A. cramps.
B. fibrositis.
C. fibromyalgia.
D. muscular dystrophy.
E. paralysis.

80. Muscular dystrophy is characterized by

A. chronic muscle pain.

B. decreased size of muscle fibers.
C. spastic contractions of muscles.
D. replacement of muscle cells by connective tissue.
E. hypertrophy of muscle tissue.

81. Which of the following is NOT a known effect of illegal use of anabolic steroids in large dosages?

A. increased muscle size

B. kidney damage
C. diminished testosterone secretion
D. increased cardiovascular fitness
E. sterility

82. Skeletal muscles

A. cross at least two joints.

B. extend from a joint to a bone.
C. extend from one joint to another joint.
D. extend from one bone to another bone.
E. do not involve joints.

83. The sternocleidomastoid muscle extends from the mastoid process of the temporal bone to the sternum and
medial clavicle. When both sternocleidomastoid muscles contract, the head is flexed. The end of the
muscle that connects to the sternum is the

A. origin.
B. belly.
C. body.
D. insertion.
E. fixator.

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84. When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a given movement, the more movable end of attachment of the
muscle is termed its

A. origin.
B. insertion.
C. antagoist.
D. synergist.
E. fixator.

85. The type of muscle that functions as a sphincter is

A. pennate.
B. parallel.
C. circular.
D. rhombohedral.
E. convergent.

86. The muscle shape that has the capacity to shorten to the greatest degree is

A. pennate.
B. parallel.
C. circular.
D. convergent.
E. multipennate.

87. Muscles that have their fasciculi arranged like barbs of a feather along a common tendon are called

A. pennate.
B. parallel.
C. convergent.
D. rhombohedral.
E. divergent.

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88. When you "pull your tummy in" and compress your abdomen, you use the rectus abdominis, external
abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblique, and transversus abdominis muscles. This is an example of
muscles working as

A. fixators.
B. synergists.
C. antagonists.
D. prime movers.
E. cooperatives.

89. The type of muscle that can contract with the greatest force is the

A. parallel.
B. circular.
C. convergent.
D. rhomboidal.
E. pennate

90. The adductor longus is named for its

A. function and orientation.

B. origin and insertion.
C. location and size.
D. type and shape.
E. function and size.

91. The brachioradialis is named for its

A. function and orientations.

B. origin and insertion.
C. locations and size.
D. function and size.
E. type and shape.

92. Which of the following muscles is named for its shape?

A. pectoralis major
B. adductor pollicis
C. vastus lateralis
D. trapezius
E. pectoralis minor

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93. Which of the following muscles is named for its location?

A. rhomboideus major
B. quadriceps femoris
C. trapezius
D. deltoid
E. teres major

94. Of the following muscles of the head, which one wraps around the orbits?

A. nasalis
B. temporalis
C. orbicularis oculi
D. masseter
E. orbicularis oris

95. Contracting the right sternocleidomastoid muscle would

A. raise the head.

B. lower the head.
C. rotate the head toward the right.
D. rotate the head toward the left.
E. hyperextend the head.

96. Raising the eyebrows is the action of the _____ muscles.

A. auricular
B. procerus
C. occipitofrontalis
D. levator palpebrae superioris
E. temporalis

97. Closing or puckering the lips is the action of the _____ muscle.

A. auricularis
B. orbicularis oris
C. orbicularis oculi
D. levator anguli oris
E. zygomaticus

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98. Facial muscles are unusual in that they

A. represent a combination of first-class and second-class lever systems.

B. insert and sometimes originate on skin and connective tissue.
C. are smooth muscles rather than skeletal muscles.
D. are not involved in movement.
E. are not involved in facial expression.

99. Which of the following muscles is involved in chewing gum?

A. masseter
B. splenius capitus
C. orbicularis oris
D. zygomaticus major
E. orbicularis oculi

100. Muscles that elevate the jaw and close the mouth include the

A. stylohyoid and procerus.

B. temporalis and digastric.
C. sternothyroid and buccinator.
D. masseter and medial pterygoid.
E. zygomaticus and buccinator.

101. In humans

A. back muscles are strong to maintain erect posture.

B. deep back muscles extend from the vertebrae to the ribs.
C. most of the muscle mass in the lower back is from the spinalis muscle.
D. back muscles are not very strong.
E. back muscles are similar in strength to the back muscles of cattle.

102. The major movement produced during quiet breathing is accomplished by the

A. scalenes.
B. diaphragm.
C. external intercostals.
D. internal intercostals.
E. transverses thoracis.

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103. Which of the following muscles contracts during forced expiration?

A. scalenes
B. diaphragm
C. linea alba
D. internal intercostals
E. external intercostals

104. If abdominal muscles are contracted while the vertebral column is fixed this will aid in

A. vomiting.
B. childbirth.
C. urination.
D. defecation.
E. All of these choices are correct.

105. The abdominal muscle that has its origin at the pubic crest and symphysis pubis is the

A. rectus abdominis.
B. transversus abdominis.
C. external abdominal oblique.
D. internal abdominal oblique.
E. linea alba.

106. Which of the following muscles of the chest has its insertion on the humerus?

A. pectoralis major
B. pectoralis minor
C. serratus anterior
D. subclavius
E. internal intercostals

107. Which of the following muscles moves the scapula?

A. trapezius
B. biceps brachii
C. latissimus dorsi
D. pectoralis major
E. triceps brachii.

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108. The arm is attached to the thorax by the

A. pectoralis major and teres major.

B. supraspinatus and latissimus dorsi.
C. pectoralis minor and pectoralis major.
D. latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major.
E. biceps brachii and triceps brachii

109. Which of the following muscles is part of the rotator cuff?

A. deltoid
B. teres major
C. infraspinatus
D. coracobrachialis
E. trapezius

110. The rotator cuff muscles

A. fix the scapula in place.

B. attach the arm to the thorax.
C. attach the clavicle to the humerus.
D. hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa of the scapula.
E. attach at the distal end of the humerus.

111. The infraspinatus

A. extends the shoulder and laterally rotates the arm.

B. adducts and laterally rotates the arm.
C. medially rotates the arm.
D. abducts the arm.
E. flexes the shoulder.

112. Raising your arm to shoulder level is accomplished almost entirely by the

A. pectoralis major.
B. biceps brachii.
C. trapezius.
D. deltoid.
E. triceps brachii.

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113. The teres major and teres minor are not involved in

A. extension of the arm.

B. adduction of the arm.
C. medial rotation of the arm.
D. lateral rotation of the arm.
E. flexion and abduction of the arm.

114. All of the following muscles are rotators of the arm. Which is a lateral rotator of the arm?

A. pectoralis major
B. latissimus dorsi
C. teres major
D. deltoid
E. coracobrachialis

115. Which of the following muscles extends the forearm and has its insertion on the ulna?

A. deltoid
B. biceps brachii
C. triceps brachii
D. brachialis
E. coracobrachialis

116. Which of the following muscles flexes the wrist?

A. anconeus
B. coracobrachialis
C. flexor pollicis brevis
D. extensor carpi radialis brevis
E. flexor carpi radialis

117. The gluteus maximus

A. does most of the work in "sit-ups."

B. accounts for a sprinter's stance.
C. allows one to sit cross-legged.
D. is used in the knee-jerk reflex.
E. is a common site for injections.

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118. The largest buttocks muscle is the

A. iliopsoas.
B. psoas major.
C. gluteus maximus.
D. tensor fascia latae.
E. piriformis.

119. A common site for injections is the

A. biceps femoris.
B. gluteus medius.
C. vastus lateralis.
D. gluteus maximus.
E. psoas major.

120. When an intramuscular injection is given in the anterior aspect of the thigh, the injection is in the

A. soleus.
B. gastrocnemius.
C. rectus femoris.
D. gluteus minimus.
E. biceps femoris.

121. Which of the following is a part of the quadriceps femoris muscle group?

A. pectineus
B. sartorius
C. vastus lateralis
D. tensor fasciae latae
E. iliotibial tract

122. The biceps femoris is part of the

A. hamstrings.
B. quadriceps group.
C. anterior thigh compartment.
D. medial thigh compartment.
E. thigh and hip adductors.

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123. The muscle that is used to cross the legs is the

A. sartorius.
B. gastrocnemius.
C. vastus lateralis.
D. gluteus maximus.
E. biceps femoris.

124. Which of the following muscles would be considered an antagonist to the rectus femoris?

A. sartorius
B. biceps femoris
C. vastus intermedius
D. gracilis
E. vastus lateralis

125. Of the following muscles of the leg, which one is on the anterior side of the leg?

A. gastrocnemius
B. soleus
C. tibialis anterior
D. tibialis posterior
E. peroneus longus

126. Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the posterior side?

A. rectus femoris
B. sartorius
C. adductor magnus
D. biceps femoris
E. gracilis

127. Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is NOT part of the quadriceps group?

A. biceps femoris
B. rectus femoris
C. vastus lateralis
D. vastus medialis
E. vastus intermedius

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128. Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one does NOT pull the leg forward?

A. biceps femoris
B. rectus femoris
C. vastus lateralis
D. vastus medialis
E. vastus intermedius

129. The term "shin splints" is applied to

A. injuries resulting from excessive stress on the tibialis posterior.

B. stress fractures of the fibula 2 to 5 cm distal to the knee.
C. inflammation of the gastrocnemius.
D. posterior compartment syndrome.
E. blood accumulation around the gastrocnemius.

130. The bulge of the calf is caused by the ___ and___ muscles.

A. sartorius and piriformis

B. gastrocnemius and soleus
C. peroneus longus and plantaris
D. extensor hallucis longus and flexor hallucis longus
E. calcaneal and peroneal

131. Which of the following muscles is used when walking on your tiptoes?

A. gastrocnemius
B. tibialis anterior
C. peroneus tertius
D. extensor digitorum longus
E. calcaneal tendon

132. Which of the following is inserted on the calcaneus by the Achilles tendon?

A. tibialis posterior
B. peroneus longus
C. peroneus brevis
D. extensor digitorum longus
E. gastrocnemius

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133. If a man exercises by doing push-ups every day, he would strengthen or enlarge which of the following
muscles?

A. deltoid
B. gastrocnemius
C. thenar muscles
D. triceps brachii
E. biceps brachii

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