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com
Contents
Ultimate UGC NET 2025 Master Stroke ............................................................................................................... 3

UGC NET Paper I (19 June 2023 SHIFT-1)........................................................................................................... 4

UGC NET Paper - I (13 December Shift – 1) ..................................................................................................... 18

UGC NET Paper-I (06 December 2023 Shift 1) ............................................................................................... 35

UGC NET Paper-I (11 December 2023 Shift 1) ............................................................................................... 51

UGC NET Paper-I (14 June 2023 Shift 1) .......................................................................................................... 65

UGC NET Paper-I (14 June 2023 Shift 2) .......................................................................................................... 80

UGC NET Commerce (07 December 2023 Shift 1) ......................................................................................... 94

UGC NET Hindi (17 June 2023 Shift 1) ............................................................................................................ 125

UGC NET English (06 December 2023 Shift 1) .............................................................................................. 177

UGC NET Political Science (11 December 2023 Shift 1) ............................................................................. 201

UGC NET Home Science (13 December 2023 Shift 1) ................................................................................. 225

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 Ultimate UGC NET 2025 Master Stroke
The UGC NET Notification 2025 for the June Cycle has been released on the official website of the National
Eligibility Test. Conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA), UGC NET assesses candidates for Junior
Research Fellowship (JRF), Assistant Professor and makes candidates eligible for PHD admission across
various subjects. Here we are providing UGC NET Paper 1 Questions with detailed solutions for 5 yr to help
candidate in better exam preparation.

UGC NET Exam 2025 for June Cycle: Highlights

UGC NET 2025 will be conducted in online mode across various centers in India. The exam consists of two
papers: Paper I, which assesses teaching and research aptitude, and Paper II, which is subject-specific. Both
papers are mandatory. The duration of the exam is 3 hours without any break. Successful candidates will
be eligible for the post of Assistant Professor and/or Junior Research Fellowship (JRF)/ Phd Admission.
• Exam Conducting Body: National Testing Agency (NTA)
• Exam Mode: Online
• Exam Shift: 2
• Total Subjects: 85
• Papers: Two Papers - Paper I (Teaching and Research Aptitude) and Paper II (Subject-Specific)
• Exam Duration: 3 hours (No break between papers)
• Frequency: Twice a year (June and December)
• Eligibility: Assistant Professor and/or Junior Research Fellowship (JRF)/PhD
• Languages: Conducted in both English and Hindi (except for language subjects)
• Total Marks: 300 marks (Paper I: 100 marks, Paper II: 200 marks)
• Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
• Negative Marking: No negative marking
• Official Website: https://ugcnet.nta.ac.in/

UGC NET 2025 Exam Pattern

UGC NET Exam Pattern has been released, candidates must check the exam pattern and syllabus of UGC
NET to get an in-depth idea of the structure of the exam. Candidates will have to appear for both Paper I
and Paper II with a total of 150 questions worth 300 marks mandatorily. Paper I is a General Aptitude Test,
while Paper II is a subject-specific paper.
Paper Marks Questions No Duration (Shift-1) Duration (Shift-2)
I 100 50 1 Hr (9 am to 10 am) 1 Hr (3:00 pm to 4:00 pm)
II 200 100 2 Hr (10:00 am to 12:00 pm) 2 Hr (4 pm to 6 pm )

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 UGC NET Paper I (19 June 2023 SHIFT-1)
Q1. The following table shows the number of employees Q3. The following table shows the number of employees
working in four different colleges A-D, along with number working in four different colleges A-D, along with number
of males, females teaching males, teaching females, non- of males, females teaching males, teaching females, non
teaching males and non-teaching females among them in a teaching males and non-teaching females among them in a
given year. Some values are missing in the table (marked given year. Some values are missing in the table (marked
as ‘–’) that you are expected to calculate if required. Based as ‘–’) that you are expected to calculate if required. Based
on the data in the table answer the questions that follow: on the data in the table answer the questions that follow:
College-wise details of employees College-wise details of employees

In collage D, if the number of teaching females and non- The number of teaching males in College D is 46. If 124
teaching females are equal and the number of teaching males from college A of whom 62 are non-teaching, are
males is 5 more than the number of teaching females, then transferred to collage D, then the new number of non-
the difference between non-teaching males and non- teaching males in college D is.
teaching females is (a) 124
(a) 224 (b) 62
(b) 102 (c) 158
(c) 55 (d) 166
(d) 79
Q4. The following table shows the number of employees
Q2. The following table shows the number of employees working in four different colleges A-D, along with number
working in four different colleges A-D, along with number of males, females teaching males, teaching females, non
of males, females teaching males, teaching females, non teaching males and non-teaching females among them in a
teaching males and non-teaching females among them in a given year. Some values are missing in the table (marked
given year. Some values are missing in the table (marked as ‘–’) that you are expected to calculate if required. Based
as ‘–’) that you are expected to calculate if required. Based on the data in the table answer the questions that follow:
on the data in the table answer the questions that follow: College-wise details of employees
College-wise details of employees

If the number of females in college C is 147 more than the

In College A, if the number of non teaching females is 2 number of females in Collage A and the sum of teaching
more than half the number of teaching females, then the males and teaching females in Collage C is 15, then the sum
difference between non-teaching males and non-teaching of non-teaching males and non-teaching females in college
females is C is
(a) 130 (a) 421
(b) 123 (b) 415
(c) 120 (c) 467
(d) 118 (d) 435

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Q5. The following table shows the number of employees Q9. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
working in four different colleges A-D, along with number Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
of males, females teaching males, teaching females, non Assertion A: Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), replacements of
teaching males and non-teaching females among them in a ozone depleting substances chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
given year. Some values are missing in the table (marked were also decided to be phased out during Copenhagen-
as ‘–’) that you are expected to calculate if required. Based 1992 conference
on the data in the table answer the questions that follow: Reason R: HFCs have shorter lifetime than CFCs and
College-wise details of employees contain non Chlorine and bromine
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A
In college B, if the number of non-teaching males is 26 (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
more than the teaching males, the difference between the explanation of A
number of non teaching males and non teaching females is (c) A is true but R is false
122, and the number of males is greater than the number (d) A is false but R is true
of females, Then the number of employees is
(a) 768 Q10. The Aim of National Education Policy, 2020, is to
(b) 867 increase the Gross Enrollment Ratio in higher education by
(c) 748 2035 to:
(d) 829 (a) 35%
(b) 26.3%
Q6.Given below are two statements: (c) 50%
Statement I: A dependent variable can never be (d) 40%
dichotomous.
Statement II: An independent variable is always Q11. Former UN General Secretary Kofi Anna once stated
dichotomous. that “perhaps the single most successful international
In the light of the above statement, choose the most environmental agreement to date has been the”
appropriate answer from the options given below. (a) Rio Summit
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (b) Montreal protocol
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (c) Kyoto protocol
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (d) Paris agreement
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Q12. Which of the following statements is correct about
Q7. Which of the following terms is used to describe Internet of Things (IOT) that can create a smart
human communication behavior related to personal environment by having an interconnected network of
space? hardware devices, sensors, connectivity and required
(a) Contextuality software?
(b) Referentiality (a) Every IOT device or item must be connected using UTP
(c) Confidentiality cables.
(d) Territoriality (b) IOT environments cannot be monitored and controlled
remotely.
Q8. In studies involving human subjects, there could be (c) The Internet connectivity is not essential for an IoT
short or long term changes in participants because of setup to function.
psychological changes like boredom and fatigue. This (d) Modern smart mobile phones cannot be connected to
would constitute which of the following threats to internal an IoT setup.
validity?
(a) Maturation threat Q13. Given below are two statements:
(b) History threat Statement I: Biodiesel can be created from vegetable oils
(c) Selection threat and animal fats.
(d) Instrumentation threat Statement II: Biodiesel viscosity is significantly lower than
that of petroleum diesel.
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In the light of the above statement, choose the most Statement II: In immediate memory, sensory information
appropriate answer from the options given below. is subject to a process of encoding for being retained in the
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct form of special visual and auditory impressions, symbols,
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect signs and words.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect In the light of the above statement, choose the most
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct appropriate answer from the options given below.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Q14. In waste water treatment, biological processes are (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
employed to remove mainly (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
A. Bacteria (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
B. Suspended solids
C. Fungi Q19. The study of the behavior of humans and non humans
D. Colloidal in the natural environment without any manipulation of
E. Soluble organic compound variables is called
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) Quasi-experimental research
(a) A, B and C only (b) Observational research
(b) D and E only
(c) Subjective research
(c) B and D only
(d) Anthropometric research
(d) C, D and E only
Q20. “Switzerland is 48 percent protestant. Heidi Gilsing is
Q15. A train leaves station P at 6 AM and reaches station Q
a swiss. Therefore. Heidi Gilsing is 48 protestant. Which
at 10 AM. At the same time (i.e. at 6 AM) another train
fallacy is committed in this argument?
leaves station Q and reaches station P at 9:30 AM. The two
(a) Hasty Generalisation
trains cross each other at
(b) Fallacy of composition
(a) 8 AM
(b) 8.12 AM (c) Ad Hominem
(c) 7.40 AM (d) Begging the question
(d) 7.52 AM
Q21. Who among the following ancient India Thinkers
Q16. Identify the formal fallacy committed in the following propounded five steps for the realization of the meaning of
argument. “All household pets are domestic animals. No religious truth (tattvakatha) which closely resembles
unicorns are domestic animals. Therefore some unicorns notion of learning in Dewey’s theory of estuation?
are not household pets.” (a) Gotama
(a) Existential fallacy (b) Vasubandhu
(b) Denying the antecedent (c) Kapila
(c) Affirming the consequent (d) Vachaspatimista
(d) Drawing affirmative conclusion from negative
premises Q22. Match List I with List II

Q17. Which of the following commission/committee

recommended the closure of substandard colleges before
Independence?
(a) Raleigh Commission
(b) Hunter Commission
(c) Sadler Commission
(d) Hartog commission Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
Q18. Given below are two statements: (b) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Statement I: In short term memory, the sensory (c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
information is preserved and retained in the form and (d) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
shape as it was originally received

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Q23. A statistical test that permits assessment of possible Q28. Which of the following are the prominent features of
significance of difference across mean of multiple group, is self-directed learning?
(a) Student’s t-test A. Self monitoring
(b) Analysis of variance B. Taking ownership learning
(c) Paired t-test C. Remedial teaching
(d) Chi-square test D. Teacher oriented
E. Extension of learning
Q24. Given below are two statements: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement I: The Buddhist communication theory is simple (a) C and E only
and one sided. (b) A, B and E only
Statement II: The Buddhist understand communication as (c) A, B and C only
social and moral act. (d) C, D and E only
In the light of the above statement, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below. Q29. Two numbers are such that their product is equal to
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 21 and the sum of their squares is 58. Find the difference
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false between the two numbers
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (a) 4
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (b) 5
(c) 6
Q25. Which of the following memory/storage devices are (d) 8
considered as offline storage?
A. Hard disk drive (HDD) Q30. Which of the following are true of kinesics, a type of
B. Blu-ray disk non-verbal communication?
C. DVD/CD A. Kinesics does not covey any meaning.
D. USB memory stick B. Kinesics does not reflect the social system of an
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: individual.
(a) A, B and C only C. Body movements of an individual have potential
(b) A, C and D only meanings.
(c) B, C and D only D. Kinesics can be subject to systematic analysis.
(d) A, B, C and D only E. A person’s body language is part of his social system
shared with others.
Q26. The communicative structure, according to the Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Frankfurt school, that reflects the social order is called (a) A, B and C only
(a) Custom (b) B, C and D only
(b) Public sphere (c) C, D and E only
(c) Convention (d) A, D and E only
(d) Culture
Q31. Given below are two statements:
Q27. Given below are two statements: Statement I: The earliest part of the British policy on
Statement I: According to classical Indian School of logic education was to withdraw from higher education
(Nyaya) all fallacies are material fallacies. Statement II: The British policy completely supported the
Statement II: Nyaya syllogism is deductive-inductive but idea of mother tongue as the medium of instruction as
not formal-material against English.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most In the light of the above statement, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below. appropriate answer from the options given below.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Q32. A man purchased some oranges at 4 oranges for Rs.7 Q36. Arrange the following group of terms in order of
and sold them at 7 oranges for Rs.13. thus, he gained Rs.30 decreasing extension.
in all. The number of oranges he bought is: A. Mammal
(a) 252 B. Animal
(b) 280 C. Tiger
(c) 308 D. Feline
(d) 336 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, A, C, D
Q33. Which of the following are the examples of Learning (b) A, B, D, C
Management System (LMS)?
(c) C, D, A, B
A. Kahoot
(d) B, A, D, C
B. Canvas
C. Canva
Q37. Full form of PCB, an air pollutant, is
D. Moodle
(a) Poly chlorinated Biphenyl
E. Padlet
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options (b) poly chlorinated Benzene
given below: (c) Per chloro Biphenyl
(a) B and D only (d) Per chloro Benzene
(b) A, B and C only
(c) B, C and E only Q38. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
(d) B and C only Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Deductive arguments are either invalid or
Q34. In the submission of thesis, if a student is found to valid.
commit plagiarism of level 3 as per UGC Regulations 2018 Reason R: A valid deductive argument that also has all true
on Plagiarism. The following penalty will be imposed- premises is called a “sound” argument.
(a) Student shall be debarred from submitting the revised In the light of the above statements, choose the most
thesis for a of one year appropriate answer from the options given below:
(b) Student’s registration for the programme shall be (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
cancelled explanation of A
(c) Student shall be debarred from submitting the revised (b) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct
thesis for 6 months explanation of A
(d) Students shall be asked to submit the revised thesis (c) A is correct but R is not correct
within 6 months
(d) A is not correct but R is correct

Q35. Match List I with List II

Q39. If ‘TABLE’ is coded as ‘45’ in certain coding scheme
how the word ‘CHAIR’ will be coded?
(a) 44
(b) 43
(c) 42
(d) 40

Q40. Find the correct sequence of five (5) missing letters

which will complete the following letter series:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: d c c _ ba_ ad_ccba_a
(a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (a) b a c a
(b) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (b) c a c b
(c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (c) c b c a
(d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (d) c a c a

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Q41. The absenteeism related behavior in which children Q45. In the following MS-EXCEL spreadsheet you are given
willingly make themselves absent from the classroom or a list of 100 customers. Column ‘A’ represents their names,
outside classroom activities of the school without the prior ‘B’ is for customer category, ‘C’ for payment category (0
permission of their parents is called as: Means discounted price and 1 means full price), ‘D’
(a) Cheating indicates price that customer pay. The example
(b) Tantrums spreadsheet below is not the complete list and simply
(c) Lying shown different categories.
(d) Truancy

Q42. Which of the following were visualized by the

National Policy of Education, 1986 vis-à-vis higher
education?
A. Complete privatization of higher education
Statement I: The formula = COUNTIFS (C2:C101, “0”)
B. Consolidation and expansion of institutions
counts all customers who get discounted price.
C. Training of teachers Statement II: The formula = COUNTIF (C2:C101, “=0”)
D. Development of autonomous colleges Counts all customers who get discounted price.
E. Strengthening of research In the light of the above statement, choose the correct
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) A, C and D only (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) B, C, D and E only (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) A, D and E only (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q43. Identify the correct square of the following computer Directions (46-50): Read the following passage and
storage components A-D in the descending order of their answer question that follows:
access speed (from faster to slowest) One well-known description of parenting styles is based on
A. Cache memory the research of Diane Baumrind. Here early work focused
B. Main memory on a careful longitudinal study of 100 (mostly European
C. Magnetic disk America, middle class) preschool children. Though
D. CPU Registers observation of children and parent and interviews with
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: parents. Baumrind and the other researchers who built on
(a) A, B, C, D her findings identified four parenting style based on the
(b) C, B, A, D parents’ high or low levels of warmth and control.
(c) C, B, D, A Authoritative parents (high warmth, high control) set clear
(d) D, A, B, C limits, enforce rules, and expect mature behavior, but they
are warm with their children. They listen to concerns,
given reasons for rules and allow more democratic
Q44. Which of the following factors influencing learning
decision making. There is less strict punishment and more
are not related to content?
guidance Parents help children think through the
A. Readiness and will power
consequences of their actions.
B. Organization of the contents or learning experiences
Authoritarian parents (low warmth, high control) seem
C. Basic potential of the learner cold and controlling in their interactions with their
D. Nature of the contents or learning experiences children. The children are expected to be mature and to do
E. Mastery over the subject matter what the parent sys, “Because I said so” There is not much
Choose the correct appropriate answer from the options talk about emotions. Punishments are strict, but not
given below: abusive. The parents love their children, but they are not
(a) A, B and D only openly affectionate.
(b) A, D and E only Permissive parents (high warmth, love control) are warm
(c) C and D only and nurturing, but they have few rules or consequences for
(d) A, C and E only their children and except little in the way of mature
behavior because they are just kids.
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Rejecting/ Neglecting/uninvolved parents (low warmth,
low control) don’t seem to care at all and can’t be bothered Q48. Baumrind’s research study focused on
with controlling, communicating or teaching their children (a) all children
Authoritarian, authoritative, and permissive parents love (b) high school children
their children and are trying to do their best: they simple (c) Pre-school children
have different ideas about the best ways to parent. (d) Middle school children

Q46. Given below are two statements: Q49. Authoritarian, authoritative and permissive parents
Statement I: Baumrind’s study mostly focused on American have:
middle class school children. (a) similar parenting styles
Statement II:Authoritative parents allow greater (b) highly aggressive parenting styles
democratic decision making. (c) Dissimilar parenting styles
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct (d) Highly mild parenting styles
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true Q50. Uninvolved parents.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false A. do not show warmth towards their children
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false B. are non-communicative with their children
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true C. do not care for their children
D. are affectionate towards their children
Q47. Authoritarian parents in their interaction with their E. do not bother about controlling their children
children are all of the following EXCEPT Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) Not openly affectionate (a) A and B only
(b) Clod and controlled (b) A, B, C and E only
(c) Expect to be obeyed (c) C, D and E only
(d) Do not love their children (d) B and D only

Solutions
S1. Ans.(c) Sum of non-teaching males and non-teaching females in
Sol. Total Female employees = 82 college C = 377 + 159 - 115 = 421
Non-teaching females = 82 ÷ 2 = 41
Non-teaching males = 142 - (41 + 5) = 96 S5. Ans.(d)
Required Difference = 96 - 41 = 55 Sol. Number of male employees = 215 + (215 + 26) = 456
Number of female employees = 254 + (215 + 26 - 122) =
S2. Ans.(b) 373
Sol. In College A, Non-teaching male = 526 - 325 = 201 Total Employees = 456 + 373 = 829
Let, Non-teaching female = x
x = 2 + (0.5 × (756 - 526 - x)) S6. Ans.(b)
x = 2 + 115 - 0.5x Sol. Statement I is incorrect because a dependent variable
can be dichotomous. A dichotomous variable is one that
1.5x = 117
takes on one of only two possible values, often labeled as
x = 78
"0" and "1" or "True" and "False". There's no inherent
Difference = 201 - 78 = 123
reason why a dependent variable, which is the variable
being tested and measured in an experiment, can't be
S3. Ans.(c) dichotomous.
Sol. Non-teaching males in college D = 142 - 46 = 96 Statement II is also incorrect. An independent variable,
New number of non-teaching males in college D = 96 + 62 which is manipulated to observe its effect on the
= 158 dependent variable, does not have to be dichotomous.
Independent variables can be dichotomous, continuous,
S4. Ans.(a) categorical, etc., depending on the nature of the study and
Sol. Total females in college C = 147 + (756 - 526) = 377 what is being measured or tested.
Males in College C = 159
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S7. Ans.(d) • NEP 2020 proposes reforms at all levels of education,
Sol. The term used to describe human communication from school to higher education, with the aim of
behavior related to personal space is "territoriality." making India a global knowledge superpower. It
Territoriality in human communication refers to the way includes the development of a flexible curriculum
people use space to communicate ownership or occupancy structure, multiple entry and exit options, and an
of areas and possessions. It involves behaviors and emphasis on skill-based education to make students
attitudes that individuals or groups exhibit based on their more employable.
perceived or actual claim to physical spaces and objects. • The policy also focuses on inclusivity and increasing
This can be seen in personal space preferences, how access to education for all, including socio-
individuals arrange their work or living spaces, and how economically disadvantaged groups.
• A multi-disciplinary approach, holistic education, and
they respond to the presence of others in these spaces.
research-intensive universities are among the key
highlights to achieve the target GER of 50%.
S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. Maturation threat is a threat to internal validity that
S11. Ans.(b)
occurs when changes in the participants themselves, Sol. The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty that
rather than the treatment or intervention being studied, has been widely praised for its success in protecting the
account for the observed results. In the context of the given ozone layer. The protocol was signed in 1987 and has since
scenario, participants may become bored or fatigued over been ratified by 196 countries. The protocol has been
time, which could lead to changes in their behavior or credited with phasing out the production and consumption
performance on the measures being used in the study. of ozone-depleting substances (ODS), which are chemicals
These changes could then be misinterpreted as being due that can break down the ozone layer. As a result of the
to the treatment or intervention, when in fact they are protocol, the ozone layer is now slowly recovering.
simply due to the natural process of maturation.
S12. Ans.(c)
S9. Ans.(d) Sol. The Internet connectivity is not essential for an
Sol. This assertion is false. The Copenhagen conference, IoT setup to function." This highlights that IoT can use
held in 1992, was a preparatory meeting for the Montreal various forms of connectivity, including local networks
Protocol, an international treaty designed to protect the like Bluetooth, Zigbee, or other proprietary
ozone layer. The Montreal Protocol did not originally call communication protocols that do not necessarily require
for the phasing out of HFCs, but it did call for a freeze on internet access to function.
their production. Information Booster:
This reason is true. HFCs have a shorter lifetime in the • (a) Every IoT device or item must be connected
atmosphere than CFCs, which means they break down using UTP cables: This is incorrect because IoT
devices can connect wirelessly via Wi-Fi, Bluetooth,
more quickly. They also do not contain chlorine or
Zigbee, etc., in addition to using cables.
bromine, the two elements that are responsible for ozone
• (b) IoT environments cannot be monitored and
depletion.
controlled remotely: This is incorrect as one of the
primary features of IoT is the ability to monitor and
S10. Ans.(c) control devices remotely through internet
Sol. The correct answer is (c) 50%. The National connectivity.
Education Policy (NEP) 2020, announced by the • (d) Modern smart mobile phones cannot be
Government of India, aims to increase the Gross connected to an IoT setup: This is incorrect because
Enrollment Ratio (GER) in higher education to 50% by the modern smartphones are often integral to IoT setups,
year 2035. Currently, the GER in higher education is acting as controllers and interfaces for IoT devices.
around 26.3%, and the NEP 2020 envisions a significant
increase in this ratio to ensure that more students have S13. Ans.(c)
access to quality higher education. Sol. Statement I is correct: Biodiesel can indeed be
• The Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) is a statistical created from vegetable oils and animal fats. Biodiesel is a
measure used in the education sector to determine the renewable, biodegradable fuel that is made through a
number of students enrolled in a particular level of chemical process called transesterification, where oils or
education (higher education in this case) as a fats are converted into fatty acid methyl esters (FAME).
percentage of the total eligible population in that age Common sources for biodiesel production include soybean
group. oil, rapeseed oil, palm oil, and waste animal fats.

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Statement II is incorrect: Biodiesel has a higher S16. Ans.(a)
viscosity compared to petroleum diesel, not lower. Sol. The argument commits the existential fallacy. This
Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's resistance to flow. fallacy occurs when a conclusion is drawn about the
Biodiesel's higher viscosity can affect the fuel injection existence of a certain type of thing (e.g., unicorns) based on
process and atomization in engines, especially in cold premises that don't actually assert the existence of that
conditions. This difference in viscosity is why biodiesel thing. In this case, the premises talk about the categories of
needs to be blended with petroleum diesel in certain ratios household pets and domestic animals, but they do not
(such as B20, which is 20% biodiesel and 80% petroleum assert that unicorns (or any specific example of the
diesel) to optimize engine performance and reliability. categories discussed) exist. Therefore, the conclusion that
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). Statement I is correct "some unicorns are not household pets" assumes the
but Statement II is incorrect. existence of unicorns, which is not warranted by the
premises.
S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. Biological processes in wastewater treatment S17. Ans.(a)
primarily target the removal of colloidal and soluble Sol. The recommendation for the closure of substandard
organic compounds. These processes involve the use of colleges before Independence in India was made by the
microorganisms to break down organic matter and other Raleigh Commission. The Raleigh Commission, also known
contaminants. as the Indian Universities Commission of 1902, focused on
• D. Colloidal: Biological treatment helps in the higher education in India and made several
reduction of colloidal particles as microorganisms recommendations to improve the quality and standards of
consume the organic colloids. university education, including the closure of colleges that
• E. Soluble organic compounds: These are effectively
did not meet certain standards
removed by biological treatment as microorganisms
break down these compounds into simpler substances.
S18. Ans.(b)
Information Booster:
Sol. Statement I is incorrect because sensory information
• A. Bacteria: Biological processes involve bacteria to
is not preserved and retained in its original form in short-
treat wastewater but do not primarily aim to remove
term memory. Instead, it is subject to a process of
bacteria.
encoding, which means that it is converted into a more
• B. Suspended solids: These are typically removed
durable form. This encoded information is then stored in
through physical processes like sedimentation and
short-term memory.
filtration rather than biological processes.
Statement II is also incorrect because immediate memory
• C. Fungi: Similar to bacteria, fungi can be part of the
is not a sub-system of short-term memory. Instead, it is a
biological process but are not the primary target for
synonym for short-term memory. Therefore, the
removal.
information that is stored in immediate memory is the
S15. Ans.(d) same as the information that is stored in short-term
Sol. memory.
Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

S19. Ans.(b)
Sol. Observational research is a type of research in which
the researcher does not manipulate any variables. Instead,
the researcher simply observes and records the behavior
of the participants. This type of research is often used to
study human and animal behavior in natural settings.
Information booster: Quasi-experimental research is a
type of research in which the researcher manipulates one
or more variables, but the manipulation is not as rigorous
as in a true experiment. This type of research is often used
when it is not possible or ethical to conduct a true
experiment.
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Subjective research is a type of research in which the range of emotions from happiness to irritation. In
researcher collects data on people's subjective this context, mimics are specifically about facial
experiences. This type of research can be used to study a movements intended to irritate or mock someone.
wide range of topics, such as people's attitudes, beliefs, and Therefore, it is correctly matched with IV.
feelings. Movement of face only to irritate someone.
Anthropometric research is a type of research in which the 3. C. Pantomimics - I. Movement and Position of the
researcher collects data on people's physical Whole Body to Tell a Story:
characteristics. This type of research is often used to study o Pantomimics involves the use of gestures and
human evolution and adaptation. bodily movements to communicate, often used in
The correct answer is (b) Observational research. drama or storytelling. It encompasses the entire
body's movement and positioning to convey
S20. Ans.(b) meaning without spoken words, such as in mime
Sol. The argument commits the fallacy of composition. This performances. Therefore, Pantomimics is
fallacy occurs when a characteristic of a whole (in this case, correctly matched with I. Movement and
Switzerland being 48 percent Protestant) is incorrectly position of the whole body to tell a story.
attributed to its individual members (Heidi Gilsing being 4. D. Gesture - II. Movement of Arms and Hands Only
48 percent Protestant). The error lies in assuming that to Tell Something:
what is true of the whole is also true of its parts in the same o Gestures are movements of the hands, arms, or
way, which is not logically valid in this context. other parts of the body used to convey messages.
They can be intentional (like waving or pointing)
S21. Ans.(d) or unintentional and are a crucial part of non-
Sol. Vachaspatimista, an 9th-century Indian philosopher, verbal communication. Gestures like a thumbs-up
proposed five steps for the realization of the meaning of or a handshake are examples of communicating
religious truth (tattvakatha) that closely resemble the without words. Hence, Gesture is correctly
notion of learning in Dewey's theory of estuation. These matched with II. Movement of arms and hands
five steps are: only to tell something.
1. Shravana: Hearing or listening to the teachings of a guru
or teacher. S23. Ans.(b)
2. Manana: Reflection and contemplation on the teachings. Sol. Analysis of variance (ANOVA) is a statistical test that
3. Nididhyasana: Deep contemplation on the teachings. permits assessment of possible significance of difference
4. Yukti-nistha: Logical analysis and reasoning. across mean of multiple group. It is used to determine
5. Samadhi: Direct realization or experience of the truth. whether there are statistically significant differences
These five steps are similar to Dewey's theory of estuation between the means of two or more groups. ANOVA is a
in that they both emphasize the importance of active versatile statistical tool that can be used to compare means
engagement with the material being learned. across a variety of groups and factors.

S22. Ans.(b) S24. Ans.(d)

Sol. Non-Verbal Communication Types and Their Sol. Statement I is false because Buddhist communication
Descriptions: theory is a complex and nuanced system of thought. It is
1. A. Oculesics - III. Eye Movement: based on the four Buddhist principles of truthfulness,
o Oculesics is the study of eye movement, eye kindness, usefulness, and peace. These principles inform
behavior, gaze, and eye-related non-verbal all aspects of Buddhist communication, from the way that
communication. It involves how eye contact, people speak to each other to the way that they interact
direction, and pupil dilation convey messages. Eye with the world around them.
movements can express interest, attraction, Statement II is true because Buddhists understand
hostility, or other emotions. Hence, Oculesics is communication as a social and moral act. They believe that
correctly matched with III. Eye movement. the way that we communicate with others can have a
2. B. Mimics - IV. Movement of Face Only to Irritate profound impact on their well-being. Therefore, Buddhists
Someone: strive to communicate in a way that is kind, compassionate,
o Mimics refers to the use of facial expressions to and supportive.
communicate emotions or reactions. Facial Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Statement I is false but
movements can include frowning, smiling, raising Statement II is true.
eyebrows, or other expressions that convey a

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S25. Ans.(c) A. Self-monitoring: Learners monitor their progress and
Sol. Offline storage refers to any storage media that can be adjust their learning strategies.
physically removed from a device and used on other B. Taking ownership of learning: Learners take
systems. HDDs are typically internal, while Blu-ray disks, responsibility for their own learning process.
E. Extension of learning: Self-directed learners extend their
DVDs/CDs, and USB sticks can be removed and
learning beyond formal educational settings.
transported easily. The correct answer is (c) B, C and D
only. S29. Ans.(a)
S26. Ans.(d) Sol.
Sol. The Frankfurt School was a group of critical theorists
associated with the Institute for Social Research in
Frankfurt, Germany, who were noted for their critiques of
society, culture, and mass media. They argued that the
communicative structure that reflects the social order is
culture. Culture, according to the Frankfurt School, is not
simply a collection of shared beliefs and values, but is also
a system of power that can be used to maintain the status
quo.
Information booster: The other options are incorrect:
Custom: A custom is a social norm that is often based on
tradition. Customs can be related to communication, but
they do not reflect the social order in the same way as
culture.
Convention: A convention is a rule or agreement that is
made by a group of people. Conventions can also be related
to communication, but they are more specific and limited
in scope than culture.
S30. Ans.(c)
Public sphere: The public sphere is a space where
Sol. C is correct. Body movements of an individual indeed
individuals can engage in rational discourse and debate have potential meanings. Kinesics studies these meanings
about issues of public concern. According to the Frankfurt to interpret non-verbal cues in communication, making
School, the public sphere is essential for a democratic this statement true.
society, but it is not the only communicative structure that D is correct. Kinesics can be subject to systematic analysis,
reflects the social order. which involves studying and interpreting different body
movements and gestures. Researchers in psychology,
S27. Ans.(c) sociology, and anthropology often analyze kinesics to
understand human behavior and communication.
Sol. Based on the context of Classical Indian logic (Nyaya),
E is correct. A person’s body language is part of their social
the correct answer to the question provided would be (c)
system shared with others. Body language is shaped by
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. cultural and social contexts, and individuals from similar
In Nyaya logic, it is recognized that all fallacies could be backgrounds tend to exhibit common kinesic behaviors.
considered material fallacies as they pertain to errors in Information booster: A is incorrect. Kinesics, which deals
the substance of the arguments rather than merely their with body movements, gestures, and facial expressions,
form. This supports Statement I as being correct. does indeed convey meaning. Non-verbal cues like body
However, Statement II's assertion that Nyaya syllogism is posture, gestures, facial expressions, and eye contact are
deductive-inductive but not formal-material is incorrect significant in communication.
because Nyaya does engage with both the structure (form) B is incorrect. Kinesics often reflects an individual's social
system, cultural background, and personal experiences.
and content (material) of arguments. Nyaya's detailed
The way a person moves, gestures, or maintains eye
attention to the logical structure of arguments does involve contact can be influenced by social norms and cultural
considerations that are both formal and material. upbringing.

S28. Ans.(b) S31. Ans.(c)

Sol. Prominent features of self-directed learning include:
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Sol. Statement I is true as the earliest part of the British • A. Kahoot: An educational platform primarily used for
policy on education in India did involve limited support for creating and playing learning games and quizzes, not a
full LMS.
higher education and a focus on elementary education.
• C. Canva: A graphic design tool used for creating visual
Statement II is false because the British policy initially content, not an LMS.
favored English as the medium of instruction in higher • E. Padlet: A digital board used for collaboration and
education and government institutions, not the mother sharing content, not an LMS.
tongue. So, the correct answer is (a) B and D only.

S34. Ans.(b)
S32. Ans.(b) Sol. Level 3 plagiarism is the most severe level of
Sol. plagiarism, and it is defined as "copying more than 60% of
the thesis from published or unpublished sources without
proper citation." The penalty for level 3 plagiarism is
cancellation of the student's registration for the program.

S35. Ans.(a)
Sol.
The correct match between the type of computer network
and their descriptions is:
LAN (Local Area Network): III. This type of network is
found in a building but is connected with cables.
MAN (Metropolitan Area Network): IV. This type of
network is found in a geographic region of the size of a
metropolitan area.
WAN (Wide Area Network): I. The Internet is an example
of this type of network.
WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network): II. This type of
network is found in a building but is connected without
cables.
So, the correct answer is (a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

S36. Ans.(d)
Sol. Animals represent the most comprehensive category,
encompassing all living organisms that possess
multicellular, eukaryotic, heterotrophic, and locomotive
characteristics.
Mammals form a subset of animals, distinguished by their
fur or hair, live birth, and milk-based nursing of their
young.
Felines constitute a subset of mammals belonging to the cat
S33. Ans.(a) family, including lions, tigers, leopards, jaguars, and
cougars.
Sol. Canvas and Moodle are both well-known Learning Tigers represent a specific type of feline, being the largest
Management Systems (LMS) that provide platforms for member of the Felidae family.
delivering educational courses and training programs.
They offer features like course management, content S37. Ans.(a)
Sol. PCB stands for Polychlorinated Biphenyl. It is a man-
delivery, and assessment tools.
made organic chemical that was once widely used in
• B. Canvas: A robust LMS used by educational industrial and commercial applications. PCBs are
institutions to manage and deliver online courses. persistent organic pollutants (POPs), meaning they are
• D. Moodle: An open-source LMS used widely for resistant to degradation and can accumulate in the
creating online courses and managing educational environment over time. PCBs are known to be harmful to
human health and the environment.
content.
Information Booster: S38. Ans.(b)
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Sol. The correct answer is (b) Both A and R are correct, and Sol. The National Policy of Education, 1986 (NPE 1986)
R is NOT the correct explanation of A. outlined several key goals for higher education in India,
Assertion A correctly states that deductive arguments can including:
be either invalid or valid. Reason R correctly defines a Consolidation and expansion of institutions: NPE 1986
sound deductive argument as one that is both valid and has recognized the need to expand access to higher education,
all true premises. However, Reason R does not provide an and it called for the establishment of new colleges and
explanation for Assertion A; it provides additional universities, as well as the expansion of existing
information about the concept of a sound deductive institutions.
argument. Training of teachers: NPE 1986 emphasized the
importance of high-quality teacher training for higher
S39. Ans.(a) education. The policy called for the establishment of
Sol. To determine the code for 'CHAIR' based on how teacher training institutes and the development of new
'TABLE' is coded as '45', let's analyze the coding scheme teacher training programs.
likely used: Development of autonomous colleges: NPE 1986
1. Alphabet Value Assignment: Assign each letter a recognized the benefits of autonomy for higher education
numeric value corresponding to its position in the institutions. The policy called for the granting of greater
alphabet: A = 1, B = 2, ..., Z = 26. autonomy to colleges, allowing them to set their own
2. Coding 'TABLE': curricula and admissions standards.
• T = 20, A = 1, B = 2, L = 12, E = 5 Strengthening of research: NPE 1986 emphasized the
• Sum = 20 + 1 + 2 + 12 + 5 = 40 importance of research for higher education. The policy
However, 'TABLE' is coded as '45', which suggests there called for increased funding for research and the
might be an additional constant added to the sum of development of new research institutions.
these values. The difference here is 5, so the rule could
be "Sum of positions + 5". S43. Ans.(d)
3. Coding 'CHAIR': Sol. The correct order of computer storage components in
• C = 3, H = 8, A = 1, I = 9, R = 18 descending order of their access speed is:
• Sum = 3 + 8 + 1 + 9 + 18 = 39 CPU Registers (D): These are the fastest storage
Following the presumed rule (Sum of positions + 5): components within a computer system. Registers are small
• 39 + 5 = 44 storage locations directly within the CPU used to store
Therefore, 'CHAIR' would be coded as '44'. temporary data and instructions. Since they are closest to
the CPU, they have the highest access speed.
S40. Ans.(d) Cache Memory (A): Cache memory is slightly slower than
Sol. The given series is: d c c _ ba_ ad_ccba_a. CPU registers but faster than the main memory (RAM). It
1. Identify the repeating pattern: "c c b a" repeats. stores frequently accessed data and instructions to speed
o After "d c c," the missing letter is 'c'. up processes and improve overall CPU performance. It acts
o After "ba," the missing letter is 'a'. as a buffer between the CPU and the main memory.
o After "ad," the missing letter is 'c'. Main Memory (B): Main memory, also known as Random
o After "ccba," the missing letter is 'a'. Access Memory (RAM), is slower than cache memory but
Thus, the sequence "c a c a" fits perfectly, making option faster than magnetic disks. It temporarily stores data and
(d) c a c a the correct answer. instructions currently being used by the CPU.
Magnetic Disk (C): Magnetic disks, such as Hard Disk
S41. Ans.(d) Drives (HDDs), have the slowest access speed among these
Sol. Truancy refers to the behavior of children willingly components. They are used for long-term storage of data
making themselves absent from school or school-related and programs. The access time is slower because it
activities without obtaining prior permission from their involves mechanical movement to read/write data.
parents or guardians. It is a form of absenteeism where
students skip classes or skip school altogether without a S44. Ans.(d)
legitimate reason. Truancy can have various underlying Sol.
causes, including disengagement from school, academic • A. Readiness and will power: This pertains to the
difficulties, or personal issues. It is a concern for educators learner's personal preparedness and motivation, not
and parents as it can negatively impact a child's education directly linked to the content itself.
and future prospects. Schools and authorities often have • C. Basic potential of the learner: This involves
measures in place to address and prevent truancy. inherent abilities or innate qualities of the learner,
which do not depend on the specific content.
S42. Ans.(c)
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• E. Mastery over the subject matter: This factor However, authoritative parents also set clear limits and
relates to the teacher’s knowledge and expertise in a expectations, and they are not afraid to enforce those limits
subject, rather than the content being taught to the when necessary.
learners. Therefore, the correct answer is (d). Statement I is false but
Options B and D directly relate to the content since they Statement II is true.
involve how the content is structured and the nature of the
content itself. S47. Ans.(d)
Thus, the correct answer is: (d) A, C and E only Sol. Authoritarian parents may not openly express their
affection for their children, but they do love them. They
S45. Ans.(a) simply have different ideas about the best ways to parent.
Sol. Given Data: Authoritarian parents believe that children need to be
• Column A: Customer Name strictly controlled in order to learn how to behave
• Column B: Customer Category responsibly. They may not be openly affectionate, but they
• Column C: Payment Category (0 means discounted do care about their children's well-being.
price, 1 means full price)
• Column D: Price that the customer pays S48. Ans.(c)
Statements: Sol. Diana Baumrind's research on parenting styles was
• Statement I: The formula = COUNTIFS (C2:C101,"0")’ primarily focused on preschool children. Her early work
counts all customers who get discounted price. involved a longitudinal study of 100 preschoolers,
observing their behavior and conducting interviews with
• Statement II: The formula = COUNTIF (C2:C101, "=0")
their parents. Based on these observations, Baumrind
counts all customers who get discounted price.
identified four parenting styles: authoritative,
Analysis:
authoritarian, permissive, and uninvolved.
Statement I: Formula: COUNTIFS (C2:C101, "0")
• COUNTIFS function is used to count the number of cells
S49. Ans.(c)
that meet multiple criteria. However, in this case, there
Sol. Authoritarian, authoritative, and permissive parenting
is only one criterion. styles are all distinct approaches to child-rearing, each
• The formula will count the number of cells in the range characterized by different levels of warmth and control.
C2:C101 that contain the value 0, which corresponds to Authoritarian parenting: Authoritarian parents exhibit low
customers who received a discounted price. warmth and high control. They set strict rules and
• Conclusion: This statement is correct because the expectations, demanding obedience from their children
formula accurately counts the customers with a without providing much explanation or opportunity for
discounted price. discussion.
Statement II: Formula: COUNTIF (C2:C101, "=0") Authoritative parenting: Authoritative parents
• COUNTIF function is used to count the number of cells demonstrate high warmth and high control. They establish
that meet a single criterion. clear guidelines and expectations while also being
• The formula will count the number of cells in the range responsive to their children's needs and allowing them
C2:C101 that are equal to 0, which also corresponds to some autonomy.
customers who received a discounted price. Permissive parenting: Permissive parents show high
• Conclusion: This statement is correct because the warmth and low control. They impose few rules or
formula accurately counts the customers with a consequences, granting their children considerable
discounted price. freedom and autonomy but providing limited guidance or
structure.
S46. Ans.(d) Therefore, the three parenting styles represent different
Sol. Statement I is false. Baumrind's study was not limited approaches to child-rearing, with varying levels of warmth
to American middle-class school children. Her early work and control, making them dissimilar parenting styles.
focused on a sample of 100 preschool children, but she
later conducted research on children of all ages and S50. Ans.(b)
socioeconomic backgrounds. Sol. Rejecting/ Neglecting/uninvolved parents (low
Statement II is true. Authoritative parents do allow for warmth, low control) don’t seem to care at all and can’t be
greater democratic decision-making. They believe in bothered with controlling, communicating or teaching
involving their children in decisions that affect them, and their children.
they encourage their children to express their opinions. Therefore, the correct answer is (b) A, B, C and E only.

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 UGC NET Paper - I (13 December Shift – 1)
Direction (1-5): The following table shows the Q4. What is the ratio of the number of boys of school C
percentage (%) distribution of 12th class students who scored between 90-95% marks to the number of
scoring (i) 95% and above marks, and (ii) between 90- boys who scored 95% and above marks in the same
95marks, along with ratio of Girls to Boys among them school?
(a) 5:9
from six schools A-F of Delhi. Total number of students
(b) 10:17
scoring 95% and above marks and between 90-95%
(c) 10:13
marks are 6000 and 10000, respectively. Based on the (d) 12:17
data in the table, answer the questions that follow.
School-wise Distribution of Students Based on Marks Q5. The number of girls of schools B who scored between
School Scoring 95% and Scoring between 90- 90-5% marks is approximately________% of the number of
above marks (6000) 95% marks (10000) girls of school D Who scored 95% and above marks.
Percentage Girls : Percentage Girls : (a) 28.57
of students Boys of students Boys (b) 22.46
(c) 29.95
A 13% 11:5 16% 3:2 (d) 32.46
B 18% 5:7 6% 1:4
C 17% 3:5 10% 5:3 Q6. Which of the following statements is/are true?
D 8% 7:1 28% 2:3 A. BIOS is an example of Application Software
E 24% 5:4 21% 9:5 B. A utility software is an example of firmware
F 20% 5:3 19% 3:4 C. Spyware is an example of malware
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A only
Q1. The number of boys of schools E and F together who (b) B only
scored 95% and above marks is approximately (c) C only
___________% less than the number of girls of schools B and (d) B and C only
E together who scored between 90-95% marks.
(a) 24 Q7. Businesses use ICT to build positive customer
(b) 26 relations by:
(c) 20 (a) Calling customers at home
(d) 22 (b) Creating targeted marketing campaigns
(c) Placing pop-up advertisements on web sites
(d) Sending unsolicited e-mails
Q2. For school E, the difference between the numbers of
boys who scored 95% and above marks and boys who Q8. Which of the following statements regarding guided
scored between 90-95% marks is: and unguided media in computer Networking are
(a) 115 correct?
(b) 120 A. Guided media transmission supports higher data
(c) 110 speeds than unguided media transmission
(d) 105 B. Guided media is subjected to less interference than
unguided media
C. Unguided media transmission is more secure than
Q3. Average number of boys who scored between 90-
guided media transmission
95% marks from the schools A-E together is: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) 746 (a) A and B only
(b) 718 (b) A and C only
(c) 745 (c) B and C only
(d) 785 (d) A, B and C

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Q9. Certain books are bought at prices ranging from Q14. The western communication concept is
₹400 to ₹500 per book and are sold at prices ranging characterized by:
from ₹500 to ₹700 per book. Find the greatest possible A. Polydirectionality
profit that might be made in selling 10 books. B. Unidirectionality
(a) ₹4000 C. Transfer of meaning
(b) ₹3000 D. Message centredness
(c) ₹3800 E. Flexible sequencing
(d) ₹7000
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
Q10. In 1948, under whose chairpersonship a University
(b) B, C and E only
Commission was appointed with the purpose of
reconstruction of university education to meet the (c) A, B and E only
demand for scientific, technical and other manpower (d) B, C and D only
needed for the socio-economic development of the
country? Q15. A researcher givens the following options to a
(a) Dr. Zakir Husain respondent while asking a question during a survey.
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan Identify the options which suffer from ambiguity:
(c) Dr. A.L Mudaliar A. Very often
(d) Dr. D.S. Kothari B. Quite often
C. Not very often
Q11. Identify the advantages of close-ended questions in D. Not at all
survey research: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. They allow unusual responses to be derived. (a) A, B and C only
B. It is easy to process their answers. (b) B, C and D only
C. They reduce the possibility of variability in the
(c) A, C and D only
recording of answer.
(d) A, B, C and D
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only Q16. Given below are two statements:
(c) A and c only Statement I: Due to technological developments,
(d) A, B and C communication has become mass communication.
Statement II: With the arrival of satellites and computers,
Q12. Which of the following were established during the communication has become more efficient and complex
rule of East India company in India? than ever before.
A. St. Stephen’s College, Delhi In the light of the above statements, choose the most
B. Hislop College, Nagpur appropriate answer from the options given below:
C. Fort William College, Calcutta (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Serampore College, Serampore (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
E. Poona Sanskrit College, Pune (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II incorrect
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
Q17. Identify the measures of dispersion:
(c) A, B and E only
A. Range
(d) C, D and E only
B. Quartile deviation
Q13. If the statement- “No professors are materialists” is C. Sum of the deviations about mean
given as true, then which of the following statements D. Standard deviation
could be inferred to be true? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) All professors are materialists. (a) A, B and C only
(b) Some professors are materialists. (b) B, C and D only
(c) Some professors are not materialists. (c) A, B and D only
(d) Some materialists are professors. (d) A, C and D only

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Q18. Which of the following propositions are so related Q22. Given below are two statements:
that they cannot both be true, although they can both be Statement I: Environmental communication includes
false? human representation of nature.
A. No professors are materialists Statement II: For the purpose of promoting
B. Some professors are materialists environmental communication, only mainstream
C. All professors are materialists conventional media should be employed.
D. Some professors are not materialists In the light of the above statements, choose the most
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(a) A and C only
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) B and D only
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II incorrect
(c) B and C only
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) A and D only

Q23. Mr. Johnson wants to create a mind map for his

Q19. Given below are two statements:
students to help them understand the concept of
Statement I: Teacher centred methods of teaching are
photosynthesis. Which of the following tools would be
more effective than learner centred methods in most suitable?
promoting deep learning. (a) Mindmeister
Statement II: Lecture method involves the use of open- (b) Edpuzzle
ended problems to encourage critical thinking and (c) Nearpod
problem solving. (d) Hot potato
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below: Q24. When two variable are related in such a way that
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct when one increases, so does the other, you can conclude
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect that;
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II incorrect (a) There is no problem with directionality.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (b) The two variables are positively associated.
(c) There are no latent variables affecting the
Q20. In a certain code: relationship.
A. ‘3245’ means ‘you must study hard’ (d) There is a third variable responsible for the causation
B. ‘567’ means ‘hard work pays’ between them.
C. ‘614’ means ‘work and study’
Q25. The first Indian Universities Commission (1902)
Which of the following are the codes for ‘pays’ and ‘work’
was headed by:
respectively?
(a) Gurudas Bannerjee
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(b) Syed Hasan Bilgrami
(a) 1 & 5
(c) William Adam
(b) 5&6
(d) Thomas Raleigh
(c) 7&6
(d) 4&5 Q26. A woman, while introducing a man, says “His wife
is the only daughter of my father”. How is that man
Q21. What is the full form of CBOD? related to the woman?
(a) Comparative Biochemical Oxygen Demand (a) Father in law
(b) Common Biochemical Oxygen Demand (b) Brother in law
(c) Carbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Demand (c) Husband
(d) Classified Biochemical Oxygen Demand (d) Brother

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Q27. Identify the advantages of content analysis: Q32. Given below are two statements:
A. It is a vary transparent research method. Statement I: RSPM are those suspended particulate
B. It is often referred to favourably as an unobtrusive matters (SPM) whose aerodynamic diameter is more
than 10 micron.
method.
Statement II: Fine particles are those SPM whose
C. It is a highly flexible method. aerodynamic diameter is less than 2.5 micron.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(a) A and B only appropriate answer from the options given below:
(b) B and C only (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(c) A and C only (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II incorrect
(d) A, B and C
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q28. Given below are two statements: Q33. Which one of the following is responsible for the
Statement I:Problem based learning is a leaner centered negative radiative forcing or cooling of the atmosphere?
approach. (a) Water vapour
Statement II: In guided discovery learning students are (b) Troposheric Ozone
(c) Stratospheric Ozone
encouraged to construct their understanding without the
(d) Black carbon
assistance of teacher guided questions and directions
In the light of the above statements, choose the most Q34. Given below are two statements:
appropriate answer from the options given below: Statement I: (25)16 = (00100101)2
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Statement II: (00011011)2 = (1𝐵)16
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II incorrect (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II incorrect
Q29. Which of the following pair of acronym and its (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
expansion are incorrectly matched?
Q35. Which DTH channel deals with social science-1,
(a) LED-Light Emitting Diode
social and behavioural sciences?
(b) CRT-Cathode Ray Tube (a) Channel-02-Sanskriti
(c) LCD-Liquid Control Display (b) Chhanel-06-Vidhik
(d) VDU-Video Display Unit (c) Channel-03-Prabodh
(d) Vhannel-052-Prabandhan
Q30. In analog media, contents are:
Q36. “To solve our transportation problems, we to put
(a) Non-linear
more money into production of bicycles.”
(b) Linear The CEO of ABCD Company limited says so. “Which of the
(c) Interactive following fallacy is committed in the above argument?
(d) Customised (a) Slippery Slope
(b) Appeal to Inappropriate Authority
Q31. A policeman goes 20 meters towards South and (c) Ad Hominem
(d) Hasty Generalisation
then turns to his right and walks 40 meters. He again
turns to his left and walks 10 meters. How far is he now Q37. Which of the following statements is logically
from his starting point? equivalent to the statement- “No professors are
(a) 37.5 meters materialists”?
(b) 50 meters (a) Some non-materialists are not non-professors
(b) Some professors are non-materialists
(c) 30√2 meters
(c) All professors are non-materialists
(d) 40 meters (d) All non-materialists are non-professors

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Q38. Given below are two statements: Q42. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The ancient university of Sridhanya katak Statement I: Montreal protocol is a multi-lateral
was situated on the banks of river Yamuna. environmental agreement that regulates the production
Statement II: Sridhanya katak attained celebrity as the and consumption of nearly 100 man made chemicals.
seat of both Brahmanical and Buddist learning during the Statement II: Montreal protocol is an international treaty
time of Sidhha Nagarjuna. designed to protect the environment.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Q43. Which of the following statements are true about
Q39. Match List –I with List –II hardness in water?
List I List II A. It is caused by ions of calcium and magnesium
(Committee/Commission) (Chairman) B. It is of two types-temporary and permanent
A. Scientific Manpower I. K.L. Shrimali C. Permanent hardness can easily be removed by heating
the water
Committee (1947)
D. Hardness causes scales in hot water pipe systems
B. Committee on Higher II. S.S.
E. Hardness decreases the soap consumption
Education in rural areas Bhatnagar Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
C. Committee on Model Act for III. Sunith (a) A, B, C and D only
universities, 1961 kumar (b) A, B and D only
chatterji (c) B, C, D and D only
D. Sanskrit Commission IV. D.S Kothari (d) C, D and E only

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Q44. “When a pin pricks our finger we withdraw the pin”.
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV Such kind of behavior is termed as:
(b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (a) Emotional Instincts
(b) Reflex Actions
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(c) Biological Instincts
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(d) Intellectual Instincts

Q40. According to Classical Indian School of logic Q45. The process by which a message is transmitted via
(Nyaya) which fallacy is committed in the following some form of medium is identified as________
statement? communication
“The sky rose is fragrant, because it is a rose like the rose (a) Formative
on the earth”. (b) Inter-connective
(a) Asadharana (c) Mediated
(b) Badhita (d) Formal
(c) Viruddha
(d) Asraya siddha Direction (46-50): Read the passage and answer the
questions that follow:
Project Tiger turned 50 years recently. An often repeated
Q41. Find the number that can replace questions mark
headline was how the numbers have increased from
(?) in the series given below.
2,967 individuals in 2018 to 3,167 in 2022. This hides the
1, 3, 2, 5, 3, 7, 4, 9, 5, 11, 6, 13? bitter truth: Indians aren’t going to compromise Western
(a) 15 lifestyles for the survival of the Tiger. Most middle class
(b) 7 Indians a would loathe to given up their second,
(c) 19 investment home or driving to the hills on a multilaned
(d) 8 highway for the national animal.

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You also can’t change the needs of tiger- it is a large, Q47. According to the writer, the 75th Anniversary of
solitary animal. A female tiger needs about 15 square project Tiger should not aim at the following:
kilometres with a good prey base. If she reproduces, A. Keep the protected habitats intact
B. Keep the tiger population about the same as at present
those cubs will require additional space. Data shows
C. Love stock killed by tigers should be adequately
30% of the tigers live outside protected areas, i.e in our
compensated for
midst. The more we fragment their habitat with D. Focus on quantity instead of quality
urbanization, highways and industrial parks, the more Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
they will be forced into unprotected areas. (a) A and B only
Let’s modify our approach. I advocate of three results by (b) B, C and D only
the 75th anniversary of project Tiger. First, instead of (c) C and D only
endlessly increasing tiger population, India can identify (d) D only
and achieve a metric, not much higher than the current
Q48. “The bitter truth” refers to:
numbers. Remember, 1000 tigers already roam around (a) Tigers living outside protected areas
in farms and villages, more will be a disaster. Second, (b) Humans killing tigers
let’s better protect what we have. Keeping protected (c) The conflicting needs of human beings and tigers
tiger habitat undisturbed is key. Investment in keeping (d) Tigers killing human beings
unprotected ecosystems intact should be financially
viable and part of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Q49. According to the writer, one of the aims of project
Tiger in the next quarter century should be:
and more. Third, reducing confrontation with humans is
(a) Increasing tier population
essential. Monitoring and communications technology
(b) Training the tiger population
are key to this. Compensation for live stock killed must (c) Protecting the existing tiger population
be rapidly assessed and pegged to market rates. For the (d) Ensuring that the government stops building
next quarter century, let’s think quality. highways

Q46. An increase in tiger population will result in: Q50. Over the last few years, the population of the tiger
has:
(a) Tigers killing each other
(a) Decreased
(b) Tigers dying
(b) Remained static
(c) Tigers posing a threat to the farms and village nearly (c) Increased
(d) Tigers eating their own cubs (d) Declined substantially

Solutions
S1. Ans.(b) S2. Ans.(c)
Sol. According to question Sol. Boys of school E who scored 95% and above =
Boys of school E who scored 95% and above = 24/100 × 24/100 × 6000 × 4/9 = 640
6000 × 4/9 = 640 Boys of school E who scored between 90 - 95% = 21/100
Boys of school F who scored 95% and above = 20/100 × × 10000 × 5/14 = 750
Difference = 750-640 = 110
6000 × 3/8 = 450
Girls of school B who scored between 90 - 95% = 6/100
S3. Ans.(d)
× 10000 × 1/5 =120
Sol. Number of boys in school A = 16/100 × 10000 × 2/5
Girls of school E who scored between 90 - 95% = 21/100 =640
× 10000 × 9/1 = 1350 Number of boys in school B = 6/100 × 10000 × 4/5 = 480
Required percentage = (1470 - 1090) / 1470 × 100 = Number of boys in school C = 10/100 × 10000 × 3/8 =
380/1470 × 100 = 26% 375

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Number of boys in school D = 28/100 × 10000 × 3/5 = S7. Ans.(b)
1680 Sol. Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
Number of boys in school E = 21/100 × 10000 × 5/14 = plays a significant role in modern business strategies,
750 particularly in building positive customer relations. One
Average = (640 + 480 + 375 + 1680 + 750) / 5 = 3925 /
of the most effective methods businesses use is creating
5 = 785
targeted marketing campaigns. This involves using
S4. Ans.(b) data analytics and customer insights to design
Sol. According to question campaigns tailored to the specific needs and preferences
Boys in school C who scored between 90 - 95% = 10/100 of different customer segments. This personalized
× 10000 ×3/8 = 375 approach ensures that customers receive relevant
Boys of school C who scored 90% and above = 17/100 × information and offers that match their interests,
6000 × 5/8 = 1275/2 enhancing their experience with the brand and fostering
Ratio = 375 : 1275/2 = 10:17 a stronger relationship.
Targeted Marketing Campaigns:
S5. Ans.(a)
Targeted marketing campaigns are a strategic approach
Sol.Girls of school B who scored between 90 - 95% =
6/100 × 10000 × 1/5 = 120 where businesses use customer data to create and
Girls of school D who scored 95% and above = 8/100 × deliver personalized content, offers, and advertisements
6000 × 7/8 =420 that are specifically tailored to the individual
Percentage = 120/420 × 100 = 28.57 preferences and needs of customers. This is done
through various channels such as social media, emails,
S6. Ans.(c) websites, and mobile apps. The use of data analytics
Sol. C. Spyware is an example of malware. (True): allows businesses to understand customer behavior,
Spyware is a type of malicious software (malware) that
demographics, and purchasing patterns, which in turn
is designed to secretly monitor and collect information
helps in creating more effective and meaningful
about a user's activities on a computer system without
their knowledge or consent. It can track keystrokes, communication strategies.
capture screenshots, record browsing habits, and
transmit sensitive data to third parties. Spyware is S8. Ans.(a)
considered harmful and intrusive, and its presence on a Sol. A. Guided media transmission supports higher
computer can compromise user privacy and security. data speeds than unguided media transmission.
Information Booster: A. BIOS is an example of (True): Guided media, such as twisted pair cables,
Application Software. (False): BIOS (Basic coaxial cables, and fiber optic cables, are physical
Input/Output System) is a type of firmware, not
channels that directly guide the transmission of signals.
application software. It is a set of built-in software
These media provide a controlled environment for signal
instructions stored on a motherboard chip that
initializes hardware components during the boot transmission, allowing for higher data speeds compared
process and provides basic input/output services to the to unguided media, such as wireless transmission, which
operating system and other software. It operates at a is susceptible to environmental factors like interference
lower level than application software and is responsible and attenuation.
for the fundamental functions of a computer system. B. Guided media is subjected to less interference
B. A utility software is an example of firmware. than unguided media. (True): Guided media, being
(False): Utility software, such as antivirus programs, physically bound channels, are generally less susceptible
disk cleanup tools, and backup utilities, are examples of
to interference compared to unguided media. Unguided
application software, not firmware. Application software
refers to programs designed to perform specific tasks or media, such as wireless transmission, can be affected by
provide specific functionality for users. Firmware, on the various sources of interference, including
other hand, refers to software that is embedded into electromagnetic interference (EMI), radio frequency
hardware devices and is responsible for controlling the interference (RFI), and physical obstacles like buildings
device's operation. and walls, which can degrade the quality of the signal.

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Information Booster: C. Unguided media S11. Ans.(b)
transmission is more secure than guided media Sol. The correct answer is (b) B and C only. Close-ended
transmission. (False): Unguided media, such as questions are those that provide respondents with a set
wireless transmission, is inherently less secure than of predefined answers from which they must choose.
guided media transmission. Wireless signals can be These questions are particularly useful in survey
intercepted by unauthorized users, leading to potential research due to their structured nature, making data
security breaches such as eavesdropping, data theft, and collection and analysis more straightforward.
unauthorized access to networks. In contrast, guided Advantages of Close-Ended Questions:
media transmission, especially fiber optic cables, can • (B) Easy to Process Answers: Since the responses
offer greater security because the physical medium are predefined, it is simpler to categorize and
restricts access to the signal, making it harder for analyze the data. This allows for efficient data
unauthorized parties to intercept. processing and statistical analysis.
• (C) Reduced Possibility of Variability in
S9. Ans.(b) Recording Answers: Close-ended questions
Sol. According to question minimize the subjective interpretation by the
The lowest cost price of 10 books = 10 × 400 = 4000 interviewer or data recorder, leading to more
consistent data recording and less variability.
The greatest selling price of 10 books = 10 × 700 = 7000
Information Booster:
Now,
• (A) They allow unusual responses to be derived:
The required profit = (SP - CP)
This is not an advantage of close-ended questions.
= 7000 - 4000 = 3000
Close-ended questions limit responses to the given
options, which reduces the likelihood of capturing
S10. Ans.(b)
unique or unexpected answers. Unusual or detailed
Sol. The correct answer is (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan. In responses are more likely to be captured through
1948, Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan chaired the open-ended questions, where respondents can
University Education Commission, also known as the freely express their thoughts.
Radhakrishnan Commission. The commission was
tasked with the comprehensive review and restructuring S12. Ans.(d)
of the patterns of university education in India to ensure Sol. The correct answer is (d) C, D, and E only. The
it met the country's demands for scientific, technical, and institutions established during the rule of the East India
cultural development. This commission played a pivotal Company in India were:
role in shaping modern higher education in India by 1. Fort William College, Calcutta: Established in 1800
recommending significant changes to align university by Lord Wellesley, the Governor-General of India,
education more closely with the country's socio- Fort William College was set up to train civil servants
economic needs. of the East India Company. It played a significant role
Information Booster: Dr. Zakir Husain: in developing Indian languages, literature, and
• Chaired the Zakir Husain Committee for Basic translations, becoming a key center for oriental
Education, promoting craft-based, self-reliant studies and linguistic training.
learning. 2. Serampore College, Serampore: Founded in 1818
• Focused on vocational and adult education. by the Baptist missionaries William Carey, Joshua
• Dr. A.L. Mudaliar Commission (Secondary Marshman, and William Ward, Serampore College
Education Commission, 1952-53): was established with the support of the East India
Company. Its primary aim was to provide education
• Addressed secondary education.
to both European and Indian students. The college
• Recommended curriculum diversification, the
was significant in promoting Western education
three-language formula, better school
alongside traditional subjects, including theology
infrastructure, and examination reforms.
and liberal arts.
• Dr. D.S. Kothari Commission (Education 3. Poona Sanskrit College, Pune: Established in the
Commission, 1964-66): early 19th century (1821) during the rule of the East
• Comprehensive review of the entire education India Company, Poona Sanskrit College (also known
system. as the Poona College of Sanskrit Learning) was
• Introduced the "10+2+3" structure, advocated the founded to promote traditional Sanskrit learning in
Common School System, emphasized science and India. Although it was an Indian initiative, it operated
vocational education, and recommended teacher under the overall colonial framework of education at
training. the time.

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Information Booster: 3. Message Centeredness: This is the focus on the
St. Stephen’s College, Delhi: Founded in 1881, St. content of the message rather than the relationship
Stephen’s College was established well after the East between the communicators. In Western models,
India Company ceased to exist (following the revolt of such as the linear model of communication (e.g.,
1857 when the British Crown took over the governance Shannon-Weaver Model), the message's clarity,
of India). Therefore, it does not belong to the institutions
structure, and effectiveness are prioritized to ensure
founded during the East India Company's rule.
the intended meaning is communicated accurately.
Hislop College, Nagpur: Established in 1883 by a
Information Booster:
Scottish missionary, Hislop College also came into
existence after the British Crown had taken control, and • Polydirectionality: This concept refers to
it is not associated with the East India Company period. communication flowing in multiple directions, which
is not typical of the traditional Western
S13. Ans.(c) communication model.
Sol. The statement “No professors are materialists” • Flexible sequencing: This implies a non-linear
implies a complete disassociation between professors approach to communication, which is more common
and materialists; thus, it establishes that there is no in non-Western communication contexts where the
overlap between the two groups. This logically confirms structure can be more adaptable and less rigid.
that some professors are not materialists because, in fact,
according to the given statement, all professors are not
S15. Ans.(a)
materialists. This direct exclusion makes option (c) the
Sol. The correct answer is (a) A, B, and C only. The
only valid inference among the given choices.
Information Booster: options provided to the respondent—"Very often,"
(a) All professors are materialists. This is directly "Quite often," "Not very often," and "Not at all"—are
contradictory to the given statement that no professors used to measure the frequency of an event or action.
are materialists. However, some of these options suffer from ambiguity
(b) Some professors are materialists. This option also because they are not clearly defined, leading to different
contradicts the given information, as it suggests an interpretations by different respondents. Here’s why
overlap which the original statement denies. each option may or may not be ambiguous:
(d) Some materialists are professors. Similar to options 1. Very Often: This option is ambiguous because it is a
(a) and (b), this choice contradicts the given statement subjective term that can mean different things to
by implying a relationship between the two groups that different people. For example, what one person
the statement explicitly denies.
considers "very often" might be seen as "often" by
another, leading to inconsistent data collection.
S14. Ans.(d)
Sol. The Western communication concept is 2. Quite Often: This is another ambiguous option
characterized by: because "quite often" is not a standardized measure
1. Unidirectionality: This means communication of frequency. It could be interpreted in various ways
flows in a single direction without immediate depending on the respondent's perception, thus
feedback. It is common in mass communication lacking precision.
models, where information is delivered from a 3. Not Very Often: Similar to the above, "not very
sender to a receiver without expecting an interactive often" is vague and ambiguous. It leaves room for
response. For example, news broadcasts or public varied interpretation as it lacks a clear, quantifiable
announcements follow this pattern. definition. One respondent may consider an
2. Transfer of Meaning: In Western communication,
occurrence once a month as "not very often," while
the focus is on effectively transferring meaning from
another might think the same for once a year.
the sender to the receiver. This concept is crucial in
Information Booster:
ensuring that the message's content is understood as
intended by the sender. The Shannon-Weaver Model Not at All: This option is clear and unambiguous because
of Communication emphasizes the transfer of it explicitly means that the event or action never occurs.
meaning as a critical component of effective There is no room for varied interpretation, and hence, it
communication. is a precise response option.

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S16. Ans.(a) S18. Ans.(a)
Sol. Both statements accurately describe the impact of Sol. A and C only are the propositions that cannot both
technological advancements on communication. be true but can both be false. This is because proposition
Statement I is correct as technological developments, A ("No professors are materialists") and proposition C
including the internet, television, and radio, have ("All professors are materialists") are direct negations of
significantly broadened the reach of communication, each other. If no professors are materialists (A), it is
transforming it into mass communication where impossible for all professors to be materialists (C).
information can be disseminated to large audiences However, they can both be false if some but not all
simultaneously. professors are materialists, which would neither fully
Statement II is also correct; the introduction of satellites
exclude nor include all professors as materialists,
and computers has made communication more efficient,
aligning with the logical middle ground.
allowing for instant global connectivity, and more
Information Booster:
complex due to the vast amount of data and the
(b) B and D only. Proposition B ("Some professors are
sophisticated technologies involved in managing and
materialists") and D ("Some professors are not
transmitting information.
materialists") can both be true simultaneously if there is
S17. Ans.(c) a division within the group of professors where some are
Sol. The correct answer is (c) A, B, and D only. Measures materialists and some are not.
of dispersion are statistical tools used to describe the (c) B and C only. These cannot both be true since if all
spread or variability within a data set. They provide professors are materialists (C), there cannot be just some
insights into how data points are distributed around a who are materialists (B); however, both could be false if
central value (such as the mean). The correct measures no professors are materialists.
of dispersion among the given options are: (d) A and D only. These can both be false, but they can
1. Range: The range is the simplest measure of also both be true, as A (no professors are materialists)
dispersion, calculated as the difference between the does not conflict with D (some professors are not
highest and lowest values in a data set. It gives a materialists) — in fact, A implies D.
quick sense of the spread but is highly sensitive to
outliers. S19. Ans.(b)
2. Quartile Deviation (Interquartile Range, IQR): Sol. Statement I: Teacher-centered methods of
This is a measure of statistical dispersion, being teaching are more effective than learner-centered
equal to the difference between the upper and lower methods in promoting deep learning.
quartiles (Q3 - Q1). It represents the range within • Incorrect. Teacher-centered methods, such as
which the central 50% of the data lies and is less lectures, are typically more focused on the
affected by outliers compared to the range.
transmission of factual knowledge rather than
3. Standard Deviation: This is one of the most widely
promoting deep understanding. In contrast,
used measures of dispersion. It shows the average
learner-centered methods—such as group
distance of each data point from the mean. The
discussions, problem-solving, and project-based
standard deviation is more informative because it
learning—are generally more effective in promoting
takes into account all the data points and provides a
clear picture of the data's variability. deep learning. These methods encourage active
Information Booster: engagement, critical thinking, and a deeper
Option C (Sum of the deviations about mean): This is not understanding of the material. Research in
considered a measure of dispersion because it is always educational psychology supports the idea that
zero for any dataset (since the sum of deviations of learner-centered approaches facilitate deeper
scores from their mean is zero). This attribute does not comprehension and retention of knowledge.
provide any information about the spread of the data. Statement II: Lecture method involves the use of
Thus, this option is not correct in the context of measures open-ended problems to encourage critical thinking
of dispersion. and problem solving.

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• Incorrect. The lecture method is a teacher- S22. Ans.(c)
centered approach where the instructor delivers Sol. Statement I is correct because environmental
content to the students in a one-way communication communication often involves the way humans
format. It primarily involves the delivery of represent, interpret, and interact with nature through
information and facts, often in a structured and various forms of media and discourse. Statement II is
sequential manner. It does not typically involve incorrect as effective environmental communication can
open-ended problems or promote critical thinking utilize a wide range of media, including social media,
and problem-solving in the same way that alternative media, community media, and digital
interactive or learner-centered methods (like case platforms, in addition to mainstream conventional
studies, problem-based learning, or discussions) do. media. Using diverse media ensures broader reach and
Open-ended problems are generally used in more engagement across different audiences.
interactive or experiential learning environments
S23. Ans.(a)
where students can engage in discussion, debate, or
Sol. Mindmeister is an online mind mapping tool that
collaborative activities.
allows users to create, share, and collaborate on mind
maps. It is highly suitable for creating a visual
S20. Ans.(c)
representation of complex concepts such as
Sol. To find the codes for "pays" and "work," we need to photosynthesis, helping students to organize and
analyze the provided codes and their corresponding integrate information effectively.
meanings: Information Booster:
1. Analyzing the given codes: • Edpuzzle: This tool is primarily used for creating
o ‘3245’ means ‘you must study hard’ interactive video lessons, not mind maps.
o ‘567’ means ‘hard work pays’ • Nearpod: This platform is used for creating
o ‘614’ means ‘work and study’ interactive presentations and lessons but is not
2. Breaking down the common words: specifically designed for mind mapping.
o The word "hard" appears in both ‘3245’ and ‘567’. • Hot potato: This software suite is used for creating
▪ In the code ‘3245’, “hard” is one of the numbers. interactive quizzes and activities, not mind maps.
▪ In the code ‘567’, “hard” is also one of the numbers.
▪ The common number between these codes is ‘5’, so S24. Ans.(b)
‘5’ must be the code for “hard”. Sol. The correct answer is (b) The two variables are
o The word "work" appears in both ‘567’ and ‘614’. positively associated. This conclusion directly describes
▪ In the code ‘567’, “work” is one of the numbers. the nature of the relationship where both variables move
▪ In the code ‘614’, “work” is also one of the numbers. in the same direction, meaning that as one increases, so
▪ The common number between these codes is ‘6’, so does the other. This type of relationship indicates a
‘6’ must be the code for “work”. positive correlation or positive association between the
o The word "pays" only appears in the code ‘567’. two variables.
▪ Since we have determined that ‘5’ is the code for Information Booster:
“hard” and ‘6’ is the code for “work”, the remaining Option A (There is no problem with directionality): This
option might be misleading as it addresses the issue of
number ‘7’ must be the code for “pays”.
directionality in causation, which isn't directly inferred
3. Finalizing the codes:
solely from a positive association.
o Code for "pays": 7
Option C (There are no latent variables affecting the
o Code for "work": 6
relationship): This cannot be concluded without further
analysis to rule out hidden or confounding variables that
S21. Ans.(c) might influence both of the observed variables.
Sol. CBOD stands for Carbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Option D (There is a third variable responsible for the
Demand. It measures the amount of oxygen required by causation between them): Known as a confounding
microorganisms to break down organic carbon variable, this also cannot be concluded from the simple
compounds in water. This is a crucial parameter for observation of a positive association. This would require
assessing water quality and pollution levels, particularly additional investigation to identify any potential third
in relation to organic pollutants. variables impacting the relationship.

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S25. Ans.(d) Information Booster:
Sol. The correct answer is (d) Thomas Raleigh. The first (a) Father in law: This would be the case if the man were
Indian Universities Commission was established in the father of the woman's spouse, which is not suggested
1902 under the British rule in India to evaluate the by the description.
conditions of universities in India and suggest reforms (b) Brother in law: This would be correct if the man were
for improving the education system. This commission married to the woman's sibling, but here the woman
was significant in shaping the higher education policy of implies she herself is the wife.
colonial India. (d) Brother: This would be the case if the woman's father
• Thomas Raleigh was appointed as the head of the had a son, not a son-in-law, with the relationship being
Indian Universities Commission of 1902. He was directly familial through blood.
a legal scholar and had served in several educational
and administrative roles. The commission under S27. Ans.(d)
Raleigh's leadership reviewed the existing state of Sol. The correct answer is (d) A, B, and C. Content
universities and proposed a number of reforms analysis does hold advantages that include being
aimed at improving the quality of higher education unobtrusive, flexible, and transparent:
in India. The report led to the Indian Universities Act Option A (It is a very transparent research method):
of 1904, which brought about significant changes, Content analysis, when conducted rigorously, involves a
including tighter government control over systematic approach to coding and categorizing content,
universities. which can be replicated and reviewed by others, offering
• The 1902 Indian Universities Commission, also transparency in methodology and analysis.
known as the Raleigh Commission, focused on Option B (It is often referred to favorably as an
reforming university administration, improving the unobtrusive method): As stated, it does not require the
standards of teaching and examinations, and researcher to interact with the subjects being studied,
increasing the relevance of education to Indian which avoids influencing them and allows for the
society. analysis of communication and interactions as they
• The recommendations of the Raleigh Commission naturally occur.
led to the Indian Universities Act of 1904, which Option C (It is a highly flexible method): This method is
aimed to curb the over-production of graduates and adaptable to various types of data—textual, visual, or
enhance the quality of education by introducing multimedia—across different platforms and time
stricter controls and regulations. periods, making it versatile for numerous research
Information Booster: domains.
Option A (Gurudas Bannerjee): He was an Indian scholar Information Booster:
and judge but not associated with heading this Transparency in content analysis is achieved through
commission. clear documentation of the methods and criteria used for
Option B (Syed Hasan Bilgrami): Although an influential coding data, which is crucial for the validity and
figure in education, he was not the head of the 1902 reproducibility of the research.
Universities Commission. Unobtrusiveness ensures that the research does not alter
Option C (William Adam): He was an earlier educational the phenomena being studied, particularly important in
reporter on Indian education in the 1830s, well before analyzing communications or historical content.
the 1902 commission. Flexibility allows researchers to apply content analysis
to a variety of data forms, adapting to different
S26. Ans.(c) theoretical frameworks and accommodating diverse
Sol. To determine the relationship between the woman research questions, making it a powerful tool across
and the man based on the statement, consider the phrase disciplines.
"His wife is the only daughter of my father." This implies
that the man's wife is the woman's only sister. However, S28. Ans.(c)
since the woman claims that the man's wife is the only Sol. Statement I is correct because problem-based
daughter of her father, it means that the man's wife must learning (PBL) is indeed a learner-centered approach
be the woman herself, as there are no other daughters. that encourages students to learn by engaging with and
Therefore, the man is the woman's husband. This makes solving real-world problems. It promotes active learning,
option (c) the correct answer. critical thinking, and the application of knowledge.

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Statement II is incorrect because guided discovery S31. Ans.(b)
learning does involve teacher guidance. In guided Sol.
discovery, the teacher provides scaffolding in the form of To solve this problem, we will trace the path of the
guided questions, directions, and prompts to help policeman step by step and use the Pythagorean theorem
to calculate the distance from his starting point.
students construct their understanding. It contrasts with
1. Starting Point: Let the starting point be O.
pure discovery learning, where students receive little to 2. First Move: The policeman walks 20 meters south.
no guidance. o His position after the first move is A (20 meters
south of O).
S29. Ans.(c) 3. Second Move: He turns right and walks 40 meters
Sol. (a) LED-Light Emitting Diode (Correct): LED west.
stands for Light Emitting Diode. LEDs are semiconductor o His new position is B (40 meters west of A).
devices that emit light when an electric current passes 4. Third Move: He turns left and walks 10 meters
through them. They are commonly used in various south.
applications such as indicators, displays, and lighting. o His final position is C (10 meters south of B).
Now, we need to find the distance between the starting
(b) CRT-Cathode Ray Tube (Correct): CRT stands for
point O and the final position C.
Cathode Ray Tube. CRTs are vacuum tubes that use
electron beams to create images on a fluorescent screen.
They were commonly used in older television sets and
computer monitors.
(d) VDU-Video Display Unit (Correct): VDU stands for
Video Display Unit. It refers to a device that displays
video and graphics output from a computer. This term is
synonymous with a computer monitor or display screen.
Information Booster: (c) LCD-Liquid Control Display
(Incorrect): LCD actually stands for Liquid Crystal
Display. LCDs use liquid crystal molecules to control the
passage of light through them, thus creating images.
They are commonly used in modern electronic devices
such as smartphones, tablets, and flat-screen monitors.

S30. Ans.(b) S32. Ans.(d)

Sol. In analog media, contents are linear. This means that Sol. Statement I: RSPM are those suspended
information is arranged in a sequential manner, and the particulate matters (SPM) whose aerodynamic
user experiences it in a fixed order from beginning to diameter is more than 10 micron.
end. Examples of analog media include traditional print • Incorrect. RSPM (Respirable Suspended Particulate
media like books, newspapers, and magazines, as well as Matter) refers to particulate matter with an
older forms of audio and video recordings such as vinyl aerodynamic diameter of 10 microns or less
records, cassette tapes, and VHS tapes. These media (PM10). These particles are small enough to be
formats present content in a continuous, unbroken inhaled into the respiratory system and can cause
health issues such as respiratory problems,
stream that cannot be easily skipped or rearranged
cardiovascular diseases, and lung damage.
without losing context. Therefore, RSPM does not have a diameter more
Information Booster: than 10 microns; it actually refers to particles with
• Non-linear: Content that can be accessed in a non- a diameter of 10 microns or less.
sequential manner, common in digital media like Statement II: Fine particles are those SPM whose
hypertext and websites. aerodynamic diameter is less than 2.5 micron.
• Interactive: Media that allows user interaction and • Correct. Fine particles, also known as PM2.5, are
engagement, typical of digital platforms and suspended particulate matters with an aerodynamic
multimedia applications. diameter of 2.5 microns or less. These particles are
• Customised: Media that is tailored to the specific
even smaller than PM10 and can penetrate deep into
the lungs and even enter the bloodstream, posing
preferences or needs of individual users, often found serious health risks. Fine particles originate from
in digital and online environments where algorithms various sources, such as vehicle emissions, industrial
personalize content delivery. processes, and combustion.

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S33. Ans.(c) S36. Ans.(b)
Sol. Radiative forcing refers to the change in energy Sol. The statement by the CEO of ABCD Company
balance in the Earth's atmosphere due to factors such as suggesting that investing more money in the production
greenhouse gases, aerosols, or changes in solar radiation. of bicycles will solve transportation problems commits
It can be positive (leading to warming) or negative the Appeal to Inappropriate Authority fallacy. This
(leading to cooling). fallacy occurs when an argument relies on the authority
of someone who is not an expert in the relevant field. In
Stratospheric Ozone:
this case, being a CEO does not necessarily qualify as
• Stratospheric ozone, which is found in the ozone expertise in transportation solutions or infrastructure,
layer, plays a critical role in absorbing the Sun's thus making the appeal to this authority inappropriate
harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation. for supporting the argument about solving
• When there is depletion in stratospheric ozone transportation issues.
(caused by substances like chlorofluorocarbons Information Booster:
(CFCs)), less UV radiation is absorbed, and more (a) Slippery Slope: This fallacy argues that a relatively
reaches the Earth's surface. small first step leads to a chain of related events
• This depletion leads to negative radiative forcing culminating in some significant impact, often negative
or cooling because less energy is trapped in the and far-fetched. This is not what is argued here.
stratosphere, cooling the atmosphere. The cooling (c) Ad Hominem: This fallacy would involve attacking the
character of the person making the argument rather than
effect is due to the reduction in the amount of UV
addressing the argument itself, which is not applicable in
radiation absorbed in the stratosphere.
this context.
• In contrast, if stratospheric ozone is present in its (d) Hasty Generalisation: This occurs when a conclusion
normal levels, it helps protect life by absorbing UV is drawn from insufficient or biased evidence. While it
radiation. could be argued here, the primary issue is the appeal to
the CEO’s authority rather than the generalization based
S34. Ans.(a) on limited data.
Sol.
S37. Ans.(c)
Sol. The statement "No professors are materialists"
logically asserts that all members of the group identified
as professors lack the property of being materialists. This
directly translates to the statement that all professors
are non-materialists, meaning there is no overlap
between the group of professors and the group of
materialists. This makes option (c) the only correct and
equivalent rephrasing of the original statement,
asserting that every single professor is a non-materialist.
Information Booster:
(a) Some non-materialists are not non-professors. This
S35. Ans.(c) statement complicates the relationship by introducing
Sol. Channel-03-Prabodh is the DTH channel that deals double negatives, which doesn't clearly equate to the
with social science-1, social, and behavioural sciences. original statement's clear exclusion of any overlap
The DTH (Direct-to-Home) channels in India have between professors and materialists.
specific programming dedicated to different academic (b) Some professors are non-materialists. While this
subjects, and Channel-03-Prabodh is focused on content statement is true, it is not strong enough as it suggests
related to social sciences and behavioural studies. that only some, not all, professors are non-materialists.
Information Booster: It doesn't cover the full extent of exclusion stated in the
original.
• Channel-02-Sanskriti: Typically focused on Indian
(d) All non-materialists are non-professors. This
culture and heritage.
statement reverses the groups involved, suggesting an
• Channel-06-Vidhik: Likely deals with legal studies
incorrect and broader exclusion than what is specified in
and law. the original statement. It would imply that no non-
• Channel-05-Prabandhan: Typically associated with materialists can be professors, which is not a required
management and administration studies. conclusion from the original statement.

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S38. Ans.(d) Information Booster:
Sol. The correct answer is (d) Statement I is incorrect but (a) Asadharana: This fallacy occurs when a reason is too
Statement II is correct. The ancient university referred to uncommon or peculiar, not allowing for a generalizable
is likely Nalanda or a similar historical institution,
commonly mistaken in casual references. Nalanda, conclusion.
famous for its position as a center of Brahmanical and (b) Badhita: This refers to a fallacy where there is a
Buddhist learning, was actually situated near the town of contradiction of the conclusion by another more reliable
Rajgir in Bihar, India, and not on the banks of the Yamuna source or evidence.
River. It indeed gained prominence during the time of (c) Viruddha: Also known as contradictory reason, this
Siddha Nagarjuna as a center for both Brahmanical and
Buddhist scholarly activities, which aligns with the claim fallacy happens when the reason itself is in direct
in Statement II. Therefore, Statement II is correct in opposition to the conclusion. In this scenario, the reason
recognizing the university's significant scholarly provided is not contradictory but based on an incorrect
contributions, but Statement I incorrectly identifies its assumption (non-existent subject).
location relative to the Yamuna River.
Information Booster:
Yamuna River is in a completely different geographical S41. Ans.(b)
area, far from the actual historic sites of ancient Sol.
universities known for Buddhist and Brahmanical
learning like Nalanda or Vikramashila, which were
located in Bihar.
Siddha Nagarjuna was a philosopher and scholar who is
credited with founding the Madhyamaka school of S42. Ans.(a)
Mahāyāna Buddhism, enhancing the academic and
Sol. To determine the correctness of the statements, let's
philosophical status of the centers like Nalanda during
his time, contributing extensively to both Brahmanical analyze each in the context of the Montreal Protocol.
and Buddhist learning. 1. Statement I: Montreal Protocol is a multilateral
environmental agreement that regulates the
S39. Ans.(b) production and consumption of nearly 100 man-
Sol. The correct answer is (b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III. Here's
a brief on the chairmen and their respective committees: made chemicals.
S.S. Bhatnagar as chairman of the Scientific Manpower o Correct. The Montreal Protocol on Substances
Committee (1947) focused on assessing and planning for that Deplete the Ozone Layer is an international
India's needs in scientific education and research post- treaty agreed upon in 1987. It aims to phase out the
independence. production and consumption of substances that are
K.L. Shrimali headed the Committee on Higher Education
responsible for ozone depletion, particularly
in rural areas, aiming to extend higher educational
opportunities in India's rural landscapes. chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, and other
D.S. Kothari chaired the Committee on Model Act for ozone-depleting substances (ODS). The protocol
universities, 1961, which was crucial in shaping policies covers nearly 100 such man-made chemicals,
and frameworks for university governance in India. specifying a timeline for reducing and eventually
Suniti Kumar Chatterji led the Sanskrit Commission to
eliminating their use globally.
evaluate and promote the role of Sanskrit in education
and its broader cultural implications. 2. Statement II: Montreal Protocol is an
international treaty designed to protect the
S40. Ans.(d) environment.
Sol. The statement commits the Asraya siddha fallacy, o Correct. The Montreal Protocol is indeed an
also known as the fallacy of a non-existent subject. In
international treaty specifically designed to protect
Nyaya logic, this fallacy occurs when the subject of the
statement does not exist or is unreal. The argument the stratospheric ozone layer by controlling the
presented implies that 'sky rose' is a real entity similar to production and use of ozone-depleting substances.
earthly roses and possesses their qualities, such as By phasing out these harmful chemicals, the protocol
fragrance. However, 'sky rose' is a mythical or imaginary helps in protecting the environment from the
object and does not exist in reality. Hence, making any
harmful effects of ultraviolet (UV) radiation, which
assertion about its characteristics based on the
comparison with real roses leads to a logical error where can cause skin cancer, cataracts, and other
the premise is based on an unreal, non-existent subject. environmental impacts.

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S43. Ans.(b) • Biological Instincts: These are innate behaviors that
Sol. Statement A: It is caused by ions of calcium and occur in response to specific stimuli, often related to
magnesium. survival and reproduction, but they are not as
• True. Hardness in water is primarily caused by the immediate and automatic as reflex actions.
presence of calcium (Ca²⁺) and magnesium (Mg²⁺) • Intellectual Instincts: These involve cognitive
ions. These ions come from dissolved minerals like processes and reasoning, not immediate physical
limestone and dolomite in water sources. responses.
Statement B: It is of two types—temporary and
permanent. S45. Ans.(c)
• True. Hardness is classified into two types: Sol. The process by which a message is transmitted via
o Temporary hardness: Caused by the presence of
some form of medium is identified as mediated
dissolved bicarbonate minerals (calcium
communication. This term refers to any communication
bicarbonate and magnesium bicarbonate). It can be
that is carried out using some channel or medium, such
removed by boiling the water.
as television, radio, newspapers, the internet, or any
o Permanent hardness: Caused by the presence of
other technology that transmits information between
sulfate or chloride compounds of calcium and
the sender and the receiver.
magnesium. It cannot be removed by boiling.
Statement D: Hardness causes scales in hot water Information Booster:
pipe systems. • Formative Communication: Typically refers to
• True. Hard water causes the formation of scale communication that occurs during the development
(deposits of calcium carbonate or other compounds) or implementation of a process, often aimed at
in hot water systems, boilers, and kettles. These improvement or feedback.
scales can clog pipes, reduce heat efficiency, and • Inter-connective Communication: Not a standard
cause other issues in plumbing systems. term in communication studies.
Information Booster: • Formal Communication: Refers to structured
Statement C: Permanent hardness can easily be communication that follows organizational
removed by heating the water. hierarchies and protocols, often found in
• False. Permanent hardness cannot be removed by professional settings.
heating. Heating or boiling can remove only
temporary hardness (by precipitating S46. Ans.(c)
bicarbonates as carbonates), but it does not affect Sol. An increase in tiger population will lead to tigers
the sulfate or chloride salts that cause permanent encroaching on farms and villages. Tigers are territorial
hardness. animals and require large areas for hunting and living.
Statement E: Hardness decreases soap consumption. With the fragmentation of their habitats due to
• False. Hardness increases soap consumption urbanization, highways, and industrial parks, more
because calcium and magnesium ions react with tigers will be forced into unprotected areas, increasing
soap to form insoluble precipitates (soap scum), the likelihood of conflicts with human populations living
reducing the soap's effectiveness. More soap is in these regions. This poses a significant threat to both
needed to produce lather in hard water. the tigers and the local communities.

S44. Ans.(b)
S47. Ans.(d)
Sol. This type of behavior is termed a reflex action. Reflex
Sol. The writer advocates for focusing on the quality of
actions are involuntary and nearly instantaneous
tiger conservation rather than merely increasing the
movements in response to a stimulus. They are
quantity of tigers. The suggested approach includes
automatic responses that do not involve conscious
better protection of current tiger habitats, keeping tiger
thought and are essential for protecting the body from
harm. population stable, and ensuring adequate compensation
Information Booster: for livestock losses due to tiger attacks. The emphasis is
• Emotional Instincts: These involve complex on sustainable conservation measures rather than
responses to emotional stimuli, not immediate aiming for higher numbers of tigers which could lead to
physical reactions to pain. more conflicts with humans.

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S48. Ans.(c) habitats and investing in unprotected ecosystems. This
Sol. The "bitter truth" mentioned in the passage involves reducing human-tiger conflicts and ensuring
highlights the conflicting needs of humans and tigers. the current population is well-protected rather than
Humans are unwilling to give up their lifestyle for the merely focusing on increasing their numbers.
sake of tiger conservation. As human activities continue
to encroach upon tiger habitats, it becomes increasingly S50. Ans.(c)
difficult for tigers to find the large, undisturbed Sol. The tiger population has increased over the last few
territories they need, leading to potential conflicts. years, as indicated by the rise from 2,967 individuals in
2018 to 3,167 in 2022. This increase is often highlighted
S49. Ans.(c) as a success of conservation efforts under Project Tiger,
Sol. The writer emphasizes the importance of protecting although it also brings about new challenges in managing
the existing tiger population by maintaining undisturbed human-tiger conflicts.

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 UGC NET Paper-I (06 December 2023 Shift 1)
Directions (1-5): The following table shows the income (a) 17%
and expenditure (in Rs. millions) of a certain Company (b) 22%
during the five years from 2018-2022, along with (c) 25%
profit% and loss% incurred in all these years. Some (d) 23%
values are missing in the table (indicated by ‘–’) that you
are expected to calculate if required. Based on the data in Q6. Identify the correct reasons for writing a literature
the table, answer the questions that follow. review:
Year-wise income, Expenditure and Profit/Loss of a A. You need to know what is already known in
Company connection with your research area.
B. It many help you to develop an analytic framework.
C. It will help with the interpretation of your findings.
D. It many suggest further research questions for you.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B Only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, C and D only
Q1. In 2021, if the profit percent (%) of the company was
(d) A, B, C and D
higher by 60% of the profit percent (%) in 2018, then the
percent increase (approximately) in the expenditure of
Q7. Given below are two statements:
the Company in 2021 as compared to the previous year
Statements I: According to Buddhism, linguistic
would be:
(a) 46% communication should be used to adopt moral stance.
(b) 45% Statements II: Critical introspection is not preferred by
(c) 41% Buddhists as part of intra-personal communication.
(d) 38% In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
Q2. What is the average of the income of the Company in (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2018 and 2020 (in Rs. million)? (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(a) 220.8 (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(b) 236.4 (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(c) 252.2
(d) 246.6 Q8. The organized bodies of information stored in
memory that bias the way new information is
Q3. Profit in 2020 is_____________% more than in 2018: interpreted, stored, and recalled is known as:
(a) 56.76 (a) Constructive process
(b) 44.98 (b) Schemas
(c) 45.83 (c) Chunks
(d) 59.82 (d) Association

Q4. In 2022, if the expenditure of company was 15% Q9. Given below are two statements:
more as compared to 2019, then the income of the Statements I: Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)
company in 2022 was (in Rs. million): were mainly targeted at developing or poor countries.
(a) 250.976 Statements II: Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
(b) 248.976 are targeted at all countries whether developed,
(c) 250.936 developing or poor.
(d) 230.936 In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
Q5. If the loss incurred by the Company in 2019 was (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Rs.33.2 million more than the profit of the Company in (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
2018, then the loss percent incurred by the Company in (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
2019 was: (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

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Q10. As per square of opposition which of the following Q14. Given below are two statements:
propositions are so related that if one of them is true, the Statements I: The ability to generate unusual, yet
other must be false and vice-vessa? appropriate, responses to problems or questions is
A. All mammals are vertebrates. known as convergent thinking.
Statements II: the ability to produce responses that are
B. No mammals are vertebrates.
based primarily on knowledge and logic is known as
C. Some non mammals are not vertebrates.
divergent thinking.
D. Some mammals answer from the options given below: In the light of the above statements, choose the most
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A and D Only (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) A and C Only (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) A and B Only (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) C and D Only (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q15. One of the four maxims of conversation, quantity

Q11. Find the next term (?) in the following letters series
maxim, reflects the right amount of:
Am, GJ, MG, SD, ?,……..
(a) Paradigms
(a) XZ (b) Systangms
(b) YC (c) Similes
(c) XA (d) Information
(d) YA
Q16. The convention on biological diversity is dedicated
Q12. Given below are two statements: to promote sustainable development conceived as a
Statements I: IPv6 address in computer networking is 4 practical tool for translating the principles of:
(a) Agenda 20
times larger than an IPv4 address
(b) Agenda 21
Statements II: The IP address gives the location of a
(c) Agenda 22
device on the Internet, whereas the MAC address (d) Agenda 23
identifies the device connected to the Internet
In the light of the above statements, choose the most Q17. Which among the following is an open source
appropriate answer from the options given below: software for data analysis?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (a) SPSS
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (b) MATLAB
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (c) R
(d) MINITAB
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q18. Identify the similarities between quantitative and

Q13. What is the correct sequence of steps followed from qualitative research:
initial to last during water treatment process? A. Both are concerned with data reduction.
A. Coagulation B. Both are concerned with variation in data.
B. Filtration C. Both lay emphasis on contextual understanding.
C. Screening D. Both lay emphasis on generalization.
D. Sedimentation E. Both are concerned with answering research
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: questions.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) D, C, B, A
(a) A and D Only
(b) D, C, A, B
(b) A, B, D and E Only
(c) C, A, D, B (c) B, D and E Only
(d) C, D, B, A (d) A, B and E only

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Q19. If the statement “Some rectangles are not squares” Q24. Given below are two statements:
is given as true, then according to the square of Statements I: In teacher centred learning the teacher
opposition which of the following statements can by gives up the traditional decision making role and chooses
immediately inferred to be false?
instead the role of a facilitator who focuses on students
(a) All rectangles are squares.
(b) Some rectangles ae squares. feelings.
(c) No rectangles are squares. Statements II: In learner centred method the teacher
(d) Some squares are not rectangles. attempts to see the world as the students see it, creating
an atmosphere of empathetic communication.
Q20. Which of the following research institutes were
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
established between the first and third five year plans?
A. Indian Institute of Science appropriate answer from the options given below:
B. Saha Institute of Nuclear physics (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
C. Lok Bharati (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
D. Gandhi Gram Rural Institute (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
E. Raman Research Institute
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C Only
(b) A, D and E Only Q25. A security system records video footage. One
(c) B, C and E Only minute of video required 180 MegaBytes of storage.
(d) B, C and D Only The recording system can store several hours of video
footage. How much storage would be needed for 2 hours
Q21. A certain sum of money doubles in 4 years at a
compound rate of interest per annum. The rate of of video footage? (1 k=1024):
(a) 19.2 Giga Bytes
interest is (b) 20.3 Giga Bytes
(a) ~14.9%
(c) 21.1 Giga Bytes
(b) ~16.8%
(c) ~18.9% (d) 22.4 Giga Bytes
(d) ~12.9%
Q26. A train moving at a speed of 63 km/hr enters a
Q22. Which of the following steps were taken by the railway station and crosses the platform in 20 s. if the
university grants commission during the second five
length of the train is 100m, what is the length of the
year plan?
A. Introduction of three-year degree course platform?
B. Improvement in libraries and laboratories (a) 150m
C. Increase in the salaries of university teaches (b) 200m
D. No new departments were approved in the (c) 250m
universities
(d) 300m
E. Hindi was made the optional medium of instruction
besides local languages in all Indian universities.
Choose the correct answer from the options given Q27. Which of the following are the components of
below: pedagogical analysis of teaching and learning?
(a) A, B and C Only A. Objective formulation
(b) B, C and D Only B. Selection of teaching methods and materials
(c) C, D and E Only
(d) A, D and E Only C. Content analysis
D. Selection of evaluation devices
Q23. When the primary function of communication is to Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
convey new information, it is known as: (a) B, C and D only
(a) Subliminal function (b) A and D only
(b) Single task function
(c) A, B, C and D
(c) Referential function
(d) Differential function (d) B and C only

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Q28. Match List –I with List –II Q32. Given below are two statements:
Statements I: The Nalanda University of ancient India
attracted students from various parts of Asia.
Statements II: The Nalanda University was
overshadowed by the universities in Europe and Arabia
immediately after its establishment.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(b) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III appropriate answer from the options given below:
(c) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Q29. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): DDT bioaccumlates in tissues of many Q33. “More laws have been added on the books in past
species including humans. five years than even before, yet the number of crimes
Reason (R): DDT is relatively insoluble in water but
committed during the same period had significantly
readily soluble in fats and oils.
increased. Therefore, to bring the crime rate down, we
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
must eliminate the laws”. Which fallacy is committed in
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct the above statement?
explanation of A (a) Red herring
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct (b) Straw man
explanation of A (c) Slippery slope
(c) A is correct but R is not correct (d) False cause
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
Q34. In an arithmetic series having 50 terms, the first
Q30. Given below are two statements: and last terms are 3 and 199, respectively. What is the
Statements I: According to classical Indian school of sum of the series?
logic (Nyaya) the argument “Sound is eternal because it
(a) 4950
is audible” is fallacious.
(b) 5050
Statements II: According to classical Indian school of
(c) 5150
logic the argument “Sound is eternal because it is
audible” commits the fallacy of irregular middle term (d) 4850
where the middle term is too wide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most Q35. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
appropriate answer from the options given below: Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. Assertion (A): No test provides a perfect picture of a
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. student’s abilities and skills.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. Reason (R): A test is only one small sample of a student’s
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. performance.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
Q31. Which of the following was recommended by the
appropriate answer from the options given below:
Hunter Commission?
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
(a) Abolition of higher education in India
explanation of A
(b) Restricting women’s entry into colleges
(c) Participation of private enterprise in higher (b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct
education explanation of A
(d) Encouraging establishment of more and more public (c) A is correct but R is not correct
universities in rural India (d) A is not correct but R is correct

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Q36. Which of the following belong to the field of Q41. Identify the sampling issues that are problematic in
proxemics in communication? online surveys:
A. Facial expressions A. Many people use more than one internet service
B. Crowding provider.
C. Territoriality B. Every person has only one (unique) email address.
D. Personal space C. A house hold many have one computer but several
users.
E. Eye contact
D. Internet users are a biased sample of the population.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) C, D and E only (c) A, B and D only
(d) A, D and E only (d) A, C and D only

Q37. An epistemological position that advocates the Q42. The sum and difference of two numbers are 19 and
application of the methods of the natural sciences to the 7, respectively. What is the sum of their squares?
study of social reality and beyond, refers to: (a) 190
(a) Positivism (b) 200
(b) Interpretivism (c) 205
(c) Objectivism (d) 210
(d) Constructionism
Q43. Which of the following contextual factors
determine meaning in communication behavior?
Q38.
A. Physical location
(a) B. Participants
(b) C. Preceding events
(c) D. Nonfunctional goals
E. Absence of audience
(d)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
Q39. The University of Punjab was established at Lahore (b) B, C and D only
in 1882 to reduce the burden of the university of: (c) C, D and E only
(a) Bombay (d) A, D and E only
(b) Calcutta
(c) Madras Q44. Which of the following are true about Producer
(d) Himachal Pradesh Gas?
A. It is the result of conversion of solid biomass into
Q40. In comparison to secondary computer storage, gaseous fuels.
primary storage is: B. It is done at lower temperature.
(a) Slower, more expensive per unit of storage and C. It can be used as fuel in internal combustion engines.
D. It is produced in the complete absence of oxygen.
persistent
E. Hydrogen and methane present in Producer Gas
(b) Faster, less expensive per unit of storage and
determine its heating value.
persistent
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(c) Faster more expensive per unit of storage and not
(a) A, B and C only
persistent (b) B and D only
(d) Faster, less expensive per unit of storage and not (c) C, D and E only
persistent (d) A, C and E only

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Q45. Which of the following statements are logically Q47. A good examination system should:
equivalent? A. Recognize a child’s creativity
A. No liquids are beverages. B. Recognize a child’s individuality
B. No beverages are liquids. C. Encourage rote learning
C. All non-beverages are non-liquids. D. Encourage new thinking
D. All non-liquids are non-beverages. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) A, B and D only
(a) A and B only (b) B and C only
(b) A and C only (c) A, B and C only
(c) B and D only (d) C and D only
(d) C and D only
Q48. A child becomes an enlightened human being as a
Directions (46-50): Read the following passage result of the value based education received:
carefully and answer the questions. A. At home only
The most important part of a person’s life is his B. In school only
childhood. The learning our young citizens receive at C. At home, in school and in society
home, in school and in society between the ages of five D. In society only
and sixteen will shape them for the rest of their lives. E. Between the ages of five and sixteen
During this phase, they need a good value based Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
education to become enlightened human beings. (a) A and E only
Parents and teachers need to have an integrated mission: (b) A, D and E only
education with a good value system at home and in (c) C and E only
school. Education is fundamental to building the nation (d) A and B only
of our dreams. All our aspirations as a society are tied to
the capabilities of our youngsters, who form such a large Q49. Given below are two statements:
part of our population. Statements I: School should only be centres of
A child’s individuality and creativity need to be given due education.
importance in our education. The curriculum needs to be Statements II: Youngsters form a minimal part of our
innovative and the examination system overhauled so population.
that it recognizes and evaluated creativity and new In the light of the above statements, choose the most
thinking rather than the memorization of facts. Schools appropriate answer from the options given below:
must move away from being centres of education alone, (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
instead becoming centres of knowledge and skill (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
development. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Q46. Who need to have an integrated mission: education
with a good value system at home and in school? Q50. What is essential for building the nation of our
(a) Politicians dreams?
(b) Philanthropists (a) More schools
(c) Parents and Teachers (b) Value based education
(d) Businessmen (c) Democracy
(d) Rapid Urbanization

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 Solutions
S1. Ans.(d) S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. According to questions Sol. A literature review is a comprehensive overview of
P2021 = P2018 + 60% of P2018 all the knowledge available on a specific topic till date.
P2021 = 15% + 60% × 15% When you decide on a research topic, usually the first
P2021 = 24% step you take in the direction of conducting research is
Income = Expenditure + Profit Percentage × Expenditure to learn more about the previous research published on
Income2021 = E2021 + 24% × E2021 the topic, and this process includes the literature review.
359.6 = E2021 + 24% × E2021 The purpose of writing a literature review is to establish
1.24 × E2021 = 359.6 your authority in your research. The reasons for writing
E2021 = 290 (approx.)
a literature review are multifaceted and encompass all
Percentage of expenditure increases from 2020 to 2021
the options provided:
= ((290−210) / 210) ×100
= (80 / 210) ×100 A. Knowing what is already known in your research area
= 38.1 % is essential to identify the gap in the literature that your
The correct answer is "38%". research aims to fill. This helps to avoid duplication and
ensures that you are building upon the foundation
S2. Ans.(b) established by previous research.
Sol. Income in 2018 = 192 + 15% of 192 B. Developing an analytic framework through a literature
= 220.8 review helps in structuring your research. It provides
Income in 2020 = 210 + 20% of 210 theoretical underpinning for your chosen research topic
= 252 and helps to align your research with existing theories.
The average income of 2018 and 2020 C. The literature review aids in the interpretation of your
= [(220.8+252)/2] findings by comparing and contrasting them with the
= 236.4 findings of previous studies. It enables you to position
your contributions within the broader academic
S3. Ans.(c) discourse.
Sol. Profit in 2018 = 0.15 × 192 D. Suggesting further research questions is another
=28.8 critical outcome of a literature review. It highlights the
Profit in 2020 = 0.20 × 210 limitations of the existing literature and identifies areas
= 42
that require further investigation, thereby contributing
Required percentage = {(42 - 28.8) / 28.8} × 100
to the continuity of scholarly research.
= (13.2 / 28.8) × 100
Therefore, all the reasons given (A, B, C, and D) are
= 45.83%
correct and integral to the process of writing a literature
S4. Ans.(a) review, making option (d) the correct answer.
Sol. Expenditure in 2022 Information Booster:
= (100 % + 15 %) Expenditure in 2019 • Literature reviews are not just for background
=115 % of 24 information; they also provide a solid foundation for
=285.2 understanding the current state of knowledge on a
Income in 2022 topic, identifying the strengths and weaknesses of
= 285.2 + (−12%) × 285.2 existing studies, and highlighting the need for new
= 285.2 − 34.224 research.
= 250.976 • Analytic frameworks are critical for conceptualizing
research design, guiding data collection, and framing
S5. Ans.(c) analysis.
Sol. • Interpretation of findings within the context of
existing literature adds depth to the research,
allowing for a nuanced understanding of the study's
contributions.
• Further research questions underscore the evolving
nature of academic inquiry, pushing the boundaries
of knowledge and opening new avenues for
exploration.

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S7. Ans.(c) On the other hand, the Sustainable Development Goals
Sol. According to Buddhism, linguistic communication is (SDGs) were adopted by the United Nations in 2015 as a
indeed encouraged to adopt a moral stance. This is universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet,
aligned with the Buddhist precept of Right Speech, which and ensure that all people enjoy peace and prosperity by
is part of the Noble Eightfold Path. Right Speech 2030. The SDGs are targeted at all countries—developed,
encourages speaking truthfully, avoiding slander, gossip, developing, and poor alike. Unlike the MDGs, the SDGs
and harmful speech, and thus plays a critical role in recognize that challenges such as climate change,
adopting and promoting a moral stance in life. Therefore, inequality, and sustainable consumption and production
Statement I is correct. are global issues that require action from every country,
On the other hand, Statement II is incorrect. Buddhism regardless of their economic status.
places a significant emphasis on critical introspection as Information Booster:
part of intra-personal communication. Mindfulness and
• The MDGs focused on eight goals that were primarily
meditation are core practices in Buddhism, encouraging
oriented towards addressing extreme poverty and
individuals to observe their thoughts and emotions
its various dimensions. They served as a blueprint
critically without attachment. This introspection is vital
for governments and development institutions
for understanding the nature of the self, achieving
worldwide to tackle the urgent needs of the poorest.
personal growth, and attaining enlightenment. Hence,
critical introspection is not only preferred but essential • The SDGs consist of 17 goals that are interconnected
in Buddhist practice. and cover a broad range of social, economic, and
environmental challenges facing the world today.
S8. Ans.(b) The inclusivity and comprehensive nature of the
Sol. The correct answer is: (b). Schemas are mental SDGs reflect a global consensus on the need for a
frameworks that organize our knowledge and holistic approach to sustainable development that
experiences. They influence how we interpret new leaves no one behind.
information, how we store it in memory, and how we
recall it later. S10. Ans.(a)
• Constructive process is a broader term referring to Sol. In traditional logic, the square of opposition outlines
how we actively build memories, incorporating our relationships between four types of statements: A
existing knowledge and biases. Schemas are a type of (universal affirmative), E (universal negative), I
constructive process. (particular affirmative), and O (particular negative).
• Chunks are groups of related information stored Here's a simplified explanation:
together in memory. While schemas can involve • Proposition A makes a universal affirmative
chunks, they are more about the overall framework statement about mammals and vertebrates. It claims
of knowledge. that all mammals are vertebrates.
• Association is the linking of ideas or concepts in • Proposition D makes a particular affirmative
memory. Schemas involve associations, but they also statement. It claims that some mammals are not
encompass a broader understanding of a topic. vertebrates.
• Therefore, schemas best capture the concept of • The contradiction between these statements arises
organized bodies of information that bias how we as follows:
process new information.
• If Proposition A is true (all mammals are
vertebrates), then there cannot be any mammals that
S9. Ans.(a)
are not vertebrates, making Proposition D false.
Sol. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. The
• Conversely, if Proposition D is true (some mammals
Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were indeed
are not vertebrates), it contradicts Proposition A's
primarily focused on addressing the needs of developing
or poorer countries. Introduced in the year 2000, these claim that all mammals are vertebrates.
goals aimed at combating poverty, hunger, disease, This means that if one of these propositions is true, the
illiteracy, environmental degradation, and other must be false. Thus, Propositions A and D are
discrimination against women by 2015. The emphasis contradictories according to the square of opposition,
was predominantly on improving conditions in countries which describes their relationship as one where the
that were lagging behind in these critical areas. truth of one necessitates the falsehood of the other.

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S11. Ans.(d) S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. The pattern in the series involves two different Sol. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
sequences for the first and second letters. The first letter
• Convergent thinking is about finding a single, best
follows a pattern of moving 6 positions forward in the
alphabet with each step, while the second letter solution to a problem. It involves logic and analysis
decreases by 3 positions in the alphabet. Based on this to arrive at the most effective answer.
pattern, the letter after S (moving forward by 6 positions • Divergent thinking is about generating a wide
from M to S) is Y, and the letter 3 positions before D range of creative ideas and possibilities. It
(moving backward from G to D) is A. Thus, the next term
emphasizes exploration and coming up with unusual
in the series is YA.
solutions.
S12. Ans.(a) Therefore, Statement I is incorrect because convergent
Sol. IPv4 addresses consist of 32 bits, divided into 4 thinking doesn't involve unusual responses, while
octets, to represent a device's address on a network. IPv6 Statement II is incorrect because divergent thinking
addresses, which are the next generation of IP
doesn't prioritize logic alone.
addressing, use 128 bits, split into 16 octets, for their
addresses. Because 128 is four times larger than 32, IPv6
addresses are four times the size of IPv4 addresses. S15. Ans.(d)
Hence, statement I is correct. Sol. The Quantity Maxim is one of the four maxims
An IP address not only serves as a unique identifier for a proposed by the philosopher H.P. Grice in his
device but also helps direct network traffic to and from
Cooperative Principle, which guides effective and
the device within a network. While it can give a general
idea of the device's location, its main function is to cooperative communication in conversations. The
manage the network interface and direct the flow of Quantity Maxim specifically deals with the amount of
traffic. information to be provided in communication. It
MAC Address: suggests that one should provide as much information as
A Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique is needed, and no more. This means that the information
identifier that's built into a device's network interface
card (NIC). It is used within local networks, such as your given should be sufficient to understand the context or
home Wi-Fi, to identify individual devices as they the matter being discussed but should not include
communicate with each other. unnecessary details that may confuse or overwhelm the
Hence, statement II is correct. listener. Thus, the correct answer is (d) Information.

S13. Ans.(c)
Sol.The correct sequence of steps in the water treatment S16. Ans.(b)
process typically starts with larger particles being Sol. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is
removed and ends with finer filtration to ensure clean directly aligned with the principles of Agenda 21. Agenda
water. Here is a brief overview of each step mentioned: 21 is a comprehensive plan of action to be taken globally,
1. Screening (C) - This is the first step where water is nationally, and locally by organizations of the United
passed through screens to remove large debris such as
sticks, leaves, rags, and other large particles that could Nations System, Governments, and Major Groups in
impede the treatment process. every area in which human impacts on the environment.
2. Coagulation (A) - After screening, chemicals with a It was adopted by more than 178 Governments at the
positive charge are added to the water. These chemicals United Nations Conference on Environment and
neutralize the negative charge of dirt and other dissolved Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in
particles in the water, causing them to bind together into
larger particles called flocs. 1992. The CBD, established during the same Earth
3. Sedimentation (D) - During sedimentation, due to their Summit, seeks to address the global challenges of
weight, the flocs settle to the bottom of the water supply, biodiversity loss, promoting sustainable development
due to gravity. This process is aided by the coagulation through the conservation and sustainable use of
step which makes the particles heavier and larger. biological diversity and equitable sharing of benefits
4. Filtration (B) - After sedimentation, the clear water on
arising from genetic resources. This connection makes
top will pass through filters of varying compositions
(sand, gravel, and charcoal) and pore sizes, to remove Agenda 21 the correct answer, as it embodies the global
dissolved particles, such as dust, parasites, bacteria, commitment to environmental sustainability and is the
viruses, and chemicals. foundation upon which the CBD's objectives are built.

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S17. Ans.(c) B. Variation in Data: Understanding variation in data is a
Sol. Among the options given, R is the only open-source central concern of both quantitative and qualitative
software designed for data analysis and statistical research. Quantitative methods often focus on
computing. Open-source software is characterized by its
license, which allows users to freely use, modify, and measuring and analyzing the variance or differences
distribute the software. within and between datasets to draw conclusions about
• SPSS (Statistical Package for the Social Sciences) is a the relationships between variables. Qualitative
widely used program for statistical analysis in social research, while not typically engaging in statistical
science but is proprietary software. analysis of variance, is deeply concerned with exploring
• MATLAB (Matrix Laboratory) is a programming and
the diversity of experiences, perceptions, and meanings
numeric computing platform used for algorithm
development, data visualization, data analysis, and across different contexts or participants. This
numerical computation. MATLAB is proprietary exploration helps researchers understand the range and
software. nature of phenomena under study.
• R is a free software environment for statistical E. Answering Research Questions: The ultimate goal of
computing and graphics. It compiles and runs on a
both quantitative and qualitative research is to answer
wide variety of UNIX platforms, Windows, and
MacOS. R is not only open-source, which means its research questions posed at the outset of the study.
source code is freely available for modification and Whether through statistical analysis of numerical data or
redistribution, but it also has a comprehensive through the thematic analysis of text and observations,
ecosystem of packages for various statistical both methodologies aim to generate findings that
analyses and graphical representations.
contribute to knowledge in a specific field. The research
• MINITAB is statistical software that helps companies
and institutions to spot trends, solve problems, and questions guide the study design, data collection, and
discover valuable insights in data by delivering a analysis, leading to conclusions that address the
comprehensive and best-in-class suite of machine inquiries that motivated the research.
learning, statistical analysis, and process The emphasis on generalization (D) is where
improvement tools. Like SPSS and MATLAB, quantitative and qualitative research diverge
MINITAB is proprietary software.
Therefore, R (option c) is the correct answer as it is the significantly. Quantitative research often seeks to
only open-source software among the ones listed, generalize findings from a sample to a larger population,
making it a popular choice for statisticians, researchers, relying on the representativeness of the sample and
and data analysts across various industries and academic statistical significance of the results. In contrast,
fields.
qualitative research typically focuses on depth and
S18. Ans.(d) richness of understanding within specific contexts, with
Sol. Quantitative and qualitative research less emphasis on generalizability. Thus, generalization is
methodologies, while distinct in their approach and not a shared emphasis across both methodologies.
emphasis, share several fundamental similarities that Similarly, while contextual understanding (C) is crucial
underpin their utility in exploring various research
in qualitative research for interpreting data within its
questions. These commonalities reflect the core
principles of scientific inquiry and underscore the socio-cultural and environmental settings, quantitative
complementary nature of these research strategies. research may not always emphasize context to the same
A. Data Reduction: Both quantitative and qualitative extent, focusing instead on the quantifiable aspects of
research involve data reduction as a critical step in their data and their relationships. Therefore, C is not a shared
analytical processes. In quantitative research, data
emphasis in the strict sense.
reduction might involve statistical analysis to summarize
vast datasets into comprehensible results. Similarly, In summary, the similarities between quantitative and
qualitative research entails distilling large volumes of qualitative research methodologies—specifically, their
textual or observational data into themes or categories focus on data reduction, variation in data, and the
to facilitate understanding and interpretation. The overarching goal of answering research questions—
objective in both approaches is to make sense of the
highlight their roles as complementary approaches to
collected data by identifying patterns, trends, or insights
that can be communicated effectively. scientific inquiry, making option (d) the correct answer.

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S19. Ans.(a) 2. Raman Research Institute:
Sol. The Square of Opposition is a diagram representing o Founded by Nobel Laureate Sir C.V. Raman in 1948,
the relations between four categorical propositions. this institute is dedicated to research in pure
According to this framework, if it's stated that "Some sciences.
3. Gandhi Gram Rural Institute:
rectangles are not squares," we're acknowledging the
o Established in 1956, this institute was part of India's
existence of rectangles that do not conform to the efforts during the second Five-Year Plan to expand
definition of squares (rectangles with equal sides). This rural education and develop community-centric
immediately contradicts the universal affirmative education systems.
statement that "All rectangles are squares," as it's
logically impossible for both statements to be true S21. Ans.(c)
simultaneously. The given statement highlights Sol. A = P(1 + r/100)t
particularity and negation, directly opposing the Let the principal be P
absolute inclusivity suggested by "All rectangles are A = 2P
2P = P(1 + r/100)4
squares." Therefore, if "Some rectangles are not squares" 2 = (1 + r/100)4
is true, then the statement "All rectangles are squares" ⇒ 21/4 = (1 + r/100)
must be false, as it fails to account for the existence of ⇒ 21/4 - 1 = r/100
non-square rectangles, thus directly violating the ⇒ 1.1892 - 1 = r/100
principles of logical consistency and the specific ⇒ r = 18.92%
relational dynamics outlined in the Square of Opposition.
S22. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct answer is: (a) A, B and C Only
S20. Ans.(d)
• A. Introduction of a three-year degree course:
Sol. The correct answer is: (d) B, C and D only. This change would streamline education and
Establishment Timeline of Institutes: potentially increase efficiency.
1. Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics was established • B. Improvement in libraries and laboratories:
in 1949. This falls just before the beginning of the Enhancing resources is a likely focus for the UGC.
first Five-Year Plan (1951-1956). • C. Increase in the salaries of university teachers:
2. Lok Bharati was founded during the period of the Improving faculty compensation can attract and
second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961). It was set up to retain qualified educators.
promote rural development and education based on • D. No new departments were approved in the
Gandhian principles. universities: This seems counterintuitive for a
commission aiming to improve higher education.
3. Gandhi Gram Rural Institute was established in
• E. Hindi was made the optional medium of
1956, during the second Five-Year Plan, aimed at
instruction: This might be a later initiative. The
promoting rural higher education. second five-year plan (1956-1961) focused more on
Given the timeline, these institutions (B, C, and D) align immediate improvements in infrastructure and
with the period between the first and third Five-Year attracting talent.
Plans. Therefore, options A, B, and C align best with the UGC's
Information Booster: goals during the second five-year plan to improve the
Five-Year Plans in India: quality of higher education.
• First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956): Focused on the
agricultural sector and initiated the planning era in S23. Ans.(c)
Sol. The referential function of communication, a
India. concept introduced by Roman Jakobson, focuses on the
• Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961): Known for context or the referent, meaning it is primarily
emphasizing industrialization under the influence of concerned with delivering information, facts, or content.
the Mahalanobis model. This function is central to most forms of communication,
• Third Five-Year Plan (1961-1966): Focused on especially in educational, journalistic, and informative
establishing a self-sufficient economy and building contexts where the main goal is to convey new
infrastructure. information to the recipient. The referential function
Additional Knowledge: operates on the assumption that messages have a
content that can be directly related to the external world
1. Indian Institute of Science (IISc):
or to certain facts, making it the foundation for factual
o Established in 1909 in Bangalore, IISc is one of and informative communication. Therefore, when the
India’s premier institutions for research and higher primary function of communication is to convey new
education in science and engineering. information, it is known as the referential function.

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S24. Ans.(d) • C. Content analysis: This involves examining the
Sol. The most appropriate answer is: (d) Statement I is subject matter to understand its complexity,
incorrect but Statement II is correct. prerequisite knowledge, and how it can be presented
• Statement I: This is incorrect. In teacher-centered for optimal learning.
learning, the teacher traditionally holds most of the • D. Selection of evaluation devices: Choosing
decision-making power, focusing on delivering appropriate assessments (like tests, projects,
information rather than student feelings. observations) allows teachers to gauge student
• Statement II: This is correct. Learner-centered understanding and the effectiveness of the teaching
approach.
methods encourage teachers to empathize with
Therefore, all options (A, B, C, and D) are components of
students' perspectives and create a communication
pedagogical analysis for effective teaching and learning.
style that considers their experiences.
Therefore, while teacher-centered learning doesn't S28. Ans.(c)
prioritize student feelings, learner-centered learning Sol.
emphasizes empathetic communication from the A. Window - IV: A window is a graphical control element
teacher's perspective. in the form of a rectangular area on the screen that
displays information for a specific program. This is
S25. Ans.(c) where you interact with the software's multiple
Sol. To figure out how much storage is needed for 2 functions and data.
hours of video footage, you start by finding out how B. Icon - I: An icon represents a folder, a program, or
much storage one minute of video uses, then multiply by another function. It can be found within a window or as
the total minutes in 2 hours. a free-standing element on the desktop.
Here's how it breaks down: C. Menu - II: A menu is a GUI element that contains lists
• One minute of video uses 180 MB. of options for a specific program. It's used to access
• Therefore, 60 minutes (which is 1 hour) requires various functions within the software.
180 MB multiplied by 60, totaling 10,800 MB. D. Pointer - III: The pointer, or cursor, is a graphical tool
used to select options within menus, icons, or to
• For 2 hours, you need twice that amount, which is
close/open windows. It’s controlled by the mouse or
10,800 MB multiplied by 2, giving you 21,600 MB. another pointing device.
• To convert from megabytes (MB) to gigabytes (GB),
where 1 GB equals 1,024 MB, you divide 21,600 MB S29. Ans.(a)
by 1,024. This gives you approximately 21.09375 GB. Sol. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and
Rounded off, the storage needed is about 21.1 GB. Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
DDT, a synthetic pesticide, is known for its tendency to
S26. Ans.(c) bioaccumulate in the tissues of organisms. This
Sol. Let the length of the platform be 'x' m phenomenon occurs because DDT is lipophilic (fat-
Train's length = 100 m loving), meaning it dissolves readily in fats and oils but
Train's speed = 63 km/hr not in water. Due to its chemical properties, DDT
Train's speed in m/s = 63 × 5/18 = 17.5 m/s accumulates in the fatty tissues of animals and humans,
According to the question, leading to bioaccumulation and even biomagnification
(100 + x)/17.5 = 20 through the food chain. The insolubility in water and
100 + x = 350 solubility in fats explain why DDT persists in the
x = 250 environment and accumulates in organisms, posing
significant health risks and ecological impacts.
Information Booster:
S27. Ans.(c)
• DDT's bioaccumulation can lead to toxic effects in
Sol. The correct answer is: (c) A, B, C and D
various species, including humans, affecting the
• A. Objective formulation: This involves defining nervous system, reproduction, and potentially
what students should learn from the lesson. It's causing cancer.
crucial for planning effective teaching and • The environmental persistence and accumulation of
assessment. DDT prompted global actions to restrict its use,
• B. Selection of teaching methods and materials: highlighted by the Stockholm Convention on
The chosen methods (like lectures, discussions, Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), which aims to
simulations) and materials (like textbooks, videos, eliminate or restrict the production and use of
activities) should align with objectives and content. persistent organic pollutants.

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S30. Ans.(c) • Statement II: This is incorrect. Nalanda University
Sol. In Nyaya, one of the classical Indian schools of logic, flourished from the 5th to 12th centuries CE,
the argument "Sound is eternal because it is audible" is predating the rise of major European universities.
considered fallacious. This is because the premise While some universities in the Arab world existed
"Sound is audible" does not logically lead to the during Nalanda's peak, Nalanda wasn't
conclusion "Sound is eternal." The argument commits a overshadowed by them.
fallacy known as "ignorance of cause," where the Therefore, Statement I is true while Statement II is false.
connection between audibility and eternity is not
logically justified. In Nyaya, arguments are evaluated S33. Ans.(d)
based on their logical validity, and this argument does Sol. The fallacy committed in the statement is False
not meet the criteria for sound reasoning. Hence, cause, also known as non causa pro causa. This fallacy
Statement I is correct occurs when it is assumed that because two events occur
In classical Indian logic, the concept of "irregular middle together, one must be the cause of the other without
term" typically refers to a situation where the middle sufficient evidence to support such a causal connection.
term in a syllogism (the term that connects the subject In the given statement, the increase in the number of
and predicate) is not properly defined or is too broad, laws is incorrectly linked as the cause of the rise in crime
leading to an invalid conclusion. However, in the given rates. The argument fails to consider other variables that
argument, the issue is not with the middle term being too could be influencing the crime rate, such as economic
wide; instead, it's about the lack of logical connection conditions, social changes, or enforcement practices. The
between audibility and eternity. Therefore, Statement II assertion that eliminating laws would reduce the crime
does not accurately describe the fallacy committed in rate is a misinterpretation of the relationship between
this argument according to classical Indian logic. laws and crime, making it a classic example of the false
cause fallacy.
S31. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct answer is: (c) Participation of private S34. Ans.(b)
enterprise in higher education Sol. According to the question,
• (a) Abolition of higher education in India: This 50th term = 3 + (50 - 1)d
goes against the purpose of an education ⇒ 199 = 3 + 49d
commission. ⇒ 196 = 49d
• (b) Restricting women’s entry into colleges: The ⇒d=4
Hunter Commission aimed to improve education, Sum of 50 terms = 50/2[2 × 3 + (50 - 1) × 4]
and restricting women's access would contradict ⇒ 25[6 + 49 × 4]
that goal. ⇒ 25 × 202
• (d) Encouraging establishment of more and more ⇒ 5050
public universities in rural India: While the
Hunter Commission might have supported this S35. Ans.(a)
indirectly, its primary focus wasn't on establishing Sol. The most appropriate answer is: (a) Both A and R are
new universities but on improving the existing correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
system. • Assertion (A): This statement is true. Tests can only
The Hunter Commission (1882) aimed to improve the assess a specific set of knowledge or skills under
educational system in British India. One of its key specific conditions. They may not capture a student's
recommendations was to encourage private full potential, anxiety during testing, or performance
participation in funding and managing secondary in different contexts.
schools, alongside government support. This aligns with • Reason (R): This statement is also true. A test only
option (c). represents a single snapshot of a student's ability at
a particular time. It doesn't necessarily reflect their
S32. Ans.(c) overall knowledge or how they might perform in
Sol. The most appropriate answer is: (c) Statement I is other situations.
correct but Statement II is incorrect. Reason (R) directly explains why Assertion (A) is
• Statement I: This is well-documented. Nalanda true. Tests being a limited sample explains the lack of a
University was a renowned center of learning in perfect picture of a student's abilities. Therefore, both
ancient India, attracting scholars from China, Korea, statements are true, and the reason correctly explains
Japan, Tibet, and Southeast Asia. the assertion.

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S36. Ans.(b) • Constructionism (Option d), also known as social
Sol. Proxemics refers to the study of how space and constructivism, suggests that reality is socially
distance influence communication. It encompasses constructed through human interaction and
aspects such as personal space, territoriality, and how
language. It emphasizes the subjective construction
crowding affects behavior and communication. Personal
of meaning rather than the objective discovery of
space is the physical space immediately surrounding
someone, into which encroachment can feel truth.
uncomfortable, threatening, or intimate depending on Therefore, Positivism (Option a) is the correct answer, as
the relationship. Territoriality is the perceived it directly advocates for the application of natural science
ownership of a space that can influence interpersonal methods to the study of social realities, aligning with the
interactions. Crowding refers to the feeling or situation principles of empirical observation, hypothesis testing,
that arises when one's personal space is invaded beyond and the pursuit of objective knowledge about social
comfort levels, affecting communication and behavior.
phenomena.
Therefore, options B, C, and D directly relate to
proxemics.
Information Booster: S38. Ans.(b)
• Facial expressions and Eye contact are aspects of Sol. (144)8 = 1*82+ 4*81 + 4*80 = 64 +32 +4= (100)10
nonverbal communication but do not directly (175)8= 1*82+ 7*81 + 5*80 = 64 +56 +5 = (125)10
pertain to proxemics. Facial expressions convey (100)10 + (125)10 = (225)10
emotions and reactions without the use of words, To convert the decimal number 225 into octal, follow
playing a crucial role in interpersonal these steps using division by 8:
communication. Eye contact, on the other hand, can
1. Start by dividing 225 by 8. You get a quotient of 28 and
regulate the flow of communication, signal interest
a remainder of 1.
or dominance, and establish connections between
people, but it is not a spatial consideration. 2. Next, divide the quotient (28) by 8. This gives a
quotient of 3 and a remainder of 4.
S37. Ans.(a) 3. Then, divide the new quotient (3) by 8. The quotient
Sol. The epistemological position that advocates for the now is 0 with a remainder of 3.
application of methods from the natural sciences to the 4. Finally, to find the octal number, write the remainders
study of social reality and beyond is known as Positivism. in reverse order from how they appeared: 341.
This position holds that the same scientific principles
Hence the correct answer is (341)8
and methods used in the natural sciences can be applied
to the social sciences to observe, explain, and predict
social phenomena. Positivism relies on empirical S39. Ans.(b)
evidence obtained through observation and Sol. The correct answer is: (b) Calcutta
experimentation, emphasizing objectivity, • The University of Punjab was established in present-
quantification, and the search for universal laws or day Pakistan in 1882.
theories that govern social behavior. • At that time, the University of Calcutta was the main
• Interpretivism (Option b) contrasts with positivism, university overseeing a vast area of British India,
as it focuses on understanding the subjective
including much of northern India.
meaning and complexity of human experience rather
than seeking objective truths or laws. Interpretivists • By establishing the University of Punjab, the British
emphasize the importance of context, culture, and aimed to:
the researcher's interpretation in the study of social • Reduce the administrative burden on the University
phenomena. of Calcutta by creating a separate university for the
• Objectivism (Option c) is a philosophical stance Punjab region.
asserting that certain truths exist independently of • Cater to the growing educational needs of the region.
human perception or beliefs. While related to the
While universities in Bombay and Madras also existed in
debate on research methodology, it doesn't
British India, the University of Calcutta had jurisdiction
specifically advocate the application of natural
science methods to social studies in the way over the area where the University of Punjab was
positivism does. established.

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S40. Ans.(c) S43. Ans.(a)
Sol. Primary storage, often referred to as main memory Sol. The meaning in communication behavior can be
or RAM, is Faster, more expensive per unit of storage, significantly influenced by various contextual factors,
and not persistent compared to secondary storage. This among which Physical location, Participants, and
is due to its ability to allow very fast access to data by the Preceding events are pivotal. Physical location affects the
CPU, facilitating quick read and write processes essential context and appropriateness of certain types of
for system operations and application execution. communication, influencing how messages are
However, it is volatile, meaning all data is lost when the interpreted. Participants in the communication process
system is powered off, thus it is not persistent. bring their own perceptions, backgrounds, and attitudes,
Information Booster: which shape the meaning of the exchanged messages.
Preceding events also play a crucial role as they set the
• (a) & (b) Persistent Storage: Terms such as
stage for the current communication, influencing
"persistent" usually apply to secondary storage like
expectations and interpretations. These three factors
hard drives and SSDs, where data remains stored
together form a critical part of the communication
even when the device is powered off. context, determining the meaning of communication
• (d) Less Expensive: Primary storage is generally behavior effectively.
more expensive per unit than secondary storage due Information Booster:
to the faster and more complex technology it uses to • Non functional goals refer to objectives of
allow rapid data access and processing. communication that do not relate directly to the task
at hand but rather to social or relational aspects of
S41. Ans.(d) interaction, which, while influential, are not primary
Sol. The correct answer is A,C, and D only. Many people determinants of meaning in the context of this
use more than one internet service provider (ISP): question.
This doesn't directly affect sampling. It might influence • The Absence of an audience might affect the
how someone finds the survey but doesn't impact who dynamics of communication but does not directly
participates. Every person has only one (unique) determine the meaning in communication behavior
email address (Not true): People can have multiple as much as the specific context of physical setting,
email addresses, and this isn't a major sampling issue. A participants, and events leading up to the
household may have one computer but several users communication do.
(True): This is a concern. With one computer, only one
person might participate, even if others in the house are S44. Ans.(d)
eligible. Internet users are a biased sample of the Sol. Producer gas is a type of fuel gas that is generated
population (True): This is a major issue. People without through the gasification of carbonaceous materials, such
internet access can't participate, leading to a biased as coal or biomass, under controlled conditions. It is
sample. indeed the result of the conversion of solid biomass into
Therefore, options A, C and D are problematic for online gaseous fuels (A), making it a versatile and renewable
energy source. One of its applications includes being
surveys as they can lead to sampling bias.
used as fuel in internal combustion engines (C), where it
serves as an alternative to conventional fossil fuels. The
S42. Ans.(c)
heating value of producer gas is significantly determined
Sol.
by the presence of hydrogen and methane (E), which are
x + y = 19 --- [1] combustible gases contributing to its energy content.
x - y = 7 --- [2] Information Booster:
By the method of elimination • Gasification, which produces producer gas, typically
2x = 26 requires a controlled amount of oxygen; it is not
x = 26/2 = 13 done in the complete absence of oxygen (D), but
Put x = 13 in equation 1 rather with limited oxygen to ensure partial
13 + y = 19 combustion. This process facilitates the production
y = 19 - 13 of a gas rich in carbon monoxide and hydrogen.
y=6 • The process occurs at higher temperatures
Therefore, the two numbers are 13, 6 necessary for gasification, not at lower temperatures
Sum of their squares = 132 + 62 (B). This high-temperature environment is crucial
⇒ 169 + 36 = 205 for breaking down the biomass or coal into simpler,
Hence, the correct answer is 205. gaseous components.

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S45. Ans.(a) S48. Ans.(c)
Sol. Logically equivalent statements are those that can be Sol. A child becomes an enlightened human being as a
proven to be true or false together. In this case, result of the value-based education received at home, in
statements A and B are logically equivalent because they school, and in society (C), particularly during the
formative years between the ages of five and sixteen (E).
convey opposite meanings. Therefore, the correct
This holistic approach integrates the influence of all
answer is (a) A and B only. primary environments that contribute to a child's
development, emphasizing the importance of consistent
S46. Ans.(c) value education across all areas of a child's life during
Sol. Parents and Teachers need to have an integrated these crucial years.
mission: education with a good value system at home
and in school. This collaborative approach is essential S49. Ans.(b)
Sol. Statement I is incorrect as modern educational
because both play critical roles in shaping a child's
philosophy advocates for schools to be more than just
character and learning environment. Parents set the
centers of traditional education; they should also foster
foundation at home, while teachers reinforce and expand creativity, individuality, and skill development.
on these values in school, ensuring a cohesive Statement II is incorrect because youngsters typically
development of the child's moral and educational form a large part of the population, especially in
growth. developing nations, where they constitute a significant
demographic component.
S47. Ans.(a)
S50. Ans.(b)
Sol. A good examination system should recognize a
Sol. Value-based education is essential for building the
child’s creativity (A), individuality (B), and encourage
nation of our dreams. The passage underscores that
new thinking (D). These elements are crucial for education isn't just about academic learning but should
fostering an educational environment that values and also instill good values, which are fundamental to
nurtures different aspects of a student's capabilities nurturing enlightened human beings. These individuals
beyond rote memorization. Encouraging rote learning ultimately contribute to creating a better society and
(C) is generally seen as a less effective method in modern achieving the collective aspirations of a nation. This
educational practices that aim to develop critical approach to education fosters a well-rounded
development that equips young citizens to contribute
thinking and problem-solving skills.
positively to society.

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 UGC NET Paper-I (11 December 2023 Shift 1)
Directions (1- 5): Table -1 below shows the state-wise Q5. The foreign investment in Insurance sector in
foreign investments (in Rs. crore) in the year 2022 and Rajasthan is approximately _________% of the foreign
Table -2 shows the percentage (%) distribution of investment in Construction sector in Haryana.
investments in different sectors for each state. Based on (a) 101
the data in the tables, answer the questions that follow. (b) 108
(c) 107
(d) 103

Q6. According to the Hindu tradition, the purpose of

good communication is to
(a) create social groups
(b) produce tasteful entertainment
(c) make people seek enlightenment
(d) offer an insight into materialism

Q7. Discovery of Ozone hole was first made over

(a) Arctic
(b) Equator
(c) Antarctic
(d) Tropics
Q1. For which of the following pair of states, the ration of
foreign investment in Defence sector is 52:23? Q8. Match List –I with List –II
(a) Rajasthan, TN
(b) Haryana, TN
(c) MP, AP
(d) MP, TN

Q2. The foreign interments in Pharmaceutical sector in

AP is approximately ____________% less than the foreign
investment in Telecom sector in Delhi.
(a) 47.6
(b) 44.6
(c) 49.6 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(d) 45.8 (a) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Q3. What is the difference (in Rs. crore) between the (c) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
foreign investment in Defence sector in Gujarat and in (d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Constructions and insurance sectors together in MP?
(a) 142.8 Q9. Which of the following facilities are available in
(b) 184.4 word-processing software such as MS-WORD?
(c) 176.2 A. Find and Replace
(d) 162.6 B. Mail Merge
C. Spell check and thesaurus
Q4. What is the total foreign investment (in Rs. crore) in D. Automatic Recalculation
‘Others’ sector in all the seven states together? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) 3297 (a) A, B and C only
(b) 3505 (b) B and C only
(c) 3705 (c) C and D only
(d) 3905 (d) A, B and D only

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Q10. According to UGC regulations 2018 on plagiarism, Q16. Given below are two statements:
level 3 plagiarism refers to similarities Statement I: In a reference written in APA style, the first
(a) above 60% name of an author is written first.
(b) below 10% Statement II: In a reference written in APA style, the year
(c) above 10% to 30% of the publication is written after the page number.
(d) above 40% to 60% In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
Q11. Which of the following statements is equivalent to (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
the statement- “Some non-realists are not non-
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
philosophers”?
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(a) Some philosophers are not realists.
(d) Statement I is false Statement II is true.
(b) No philosophers are realists.
(c) Some realists are philosophers.
(d) Some philosophers are realists. Q17. In 1902 in a telegram to Hamilton who among the
following proposed to appoint Indian Universities with
Q12. When a water body is deficient in nutrients, it is six Permanent members?
known as (a) S.H. Wood
(a) Oligotrophic (b) A. Abbott
(b) Eutrophic (c) Lord Curzon
(c) Mesotrophic (d) Lord Macaulay
(d) Dystrophic
Q18. What is the correct increasing order of prescribed
Q13. Which of the following is not a benefit of Mind limits for following pollutants on 24 hours basis in
Mapping? residential areas by CPCB?
(a) Improving memory retention A. Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM)
(b) Enhancing creativity and problem solving skills B. Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM)
(c) Reducing stress and anxiety C. Lead (pb)
(d) Making information more difficult to comprehend
D. Ammonia (NH3)
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
Q14. Given below are two statements:
(a) A, B, C, D
Statement I: Edpuzzle is a tool used for mind mapping in
education. (b) B, A, C, D
Statement II: Mindmeister is a tool used for creating (c) C, D, B, A
interactive videos in education. (d) C, B, A, D
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below. Q19. Which among the following types of variables can
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. NOT be rank ordered?
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (a) nominal
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (b) ordinal
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (c) interval
(d) ratio
Q15. Identify the characteristics of open ended
questions in survey research: Q20. A girl walks straight in the opposite direction of the
A. The questions suggest certain kinds of answer to the front door of her house. The front door of the house is
respondents. facing towards south. After walking for 50 meters, the
B. They are useful for exploring new areas.
girl turns to her left and walks 100 meters, thereafter the
C. They are time consuming for interviewers to
girl turns right and stops after walking for 100 meters.
administer.
Which direction the girl is facing now?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) North
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only (b) South
(c) A and C only (c) North-west
(d) A, B and C only (d) North-east

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Q21. Which of the following statements are so related Q25. If the statement “All trucks are polluting vehicles”
that if one of them is false, the other must be true, even is given as true, which of the following statements could
though both of them can be true? be immediately inferred to be false?
A. Some cars are e-vehicles A. Some trucks are polluting vehicles.
B. Some cars are not e-vehicles B. Some polluting vehicles are trucks.
C. No cars are e-vehicles C. Some trucks are not polluting vehicles.
D. All cars are e-vehicles D. No trucks are polluting vehicles.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) A and B only (a) C and D only.
(b) B and C only (b) A and B only
(c) A and C only (c) B and C only
(d) A and C only
(d) C and D only

Q26. Given below are two statements.

Q22. A media Access Control (MAC) address refers to a
Statement I: A nuclear power reactor is a system
number which uniquely identifies a device on the
designed to sustain a fission chain reaction and extract
internet and is usually made up of ______________ bits.
useful energy.
(a) 16 Statement II: Light water reactors use ordinary water as
(b) 32 the moderator.
(c) 48 In light of the above statements, choose the most
(d) 128 appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Q23. Which of the following autonomous scientific (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
institutions come under the financial umbrella of the (c) Statement I is true but Statement II are false.
Department of Science and Technology? (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
A. Bose Institute, Kolkata.
B. Agarkar Research Institute, Pune Q27. Given below are two statements.
C. Raman Research Institute, Bangalore Statement I: Communication media are neither neutral
D. Wadia Institute of Himalayan Geology, Dehradun nor vale free containers that carry information of
E. Indian Council of Astrological science, Bangalore different places.
Choose the correct answer from the options given Statement II: No Communication technology has its own
below: unique set of physical, technical, symbolic and
(a) A, B and E only environmental characteristics.
(b) B, D and E only In light of the above statements, choose the most
(c) C, D and E only appropriate answer from the options given below:
(d) A, B, C and D only (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II are false.
Q24. Which VLOOKUP in MS-EXCEL, when entered into
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
cell L2 and then dragged to cell L5, returns the average
number of calls for representative IDs listed in coloum J?
Q28. Who among the following are said to have had their
education at Takshila?
A. Sri Chaitanya
B. Panini
C. Nagarjuna
D. Chanakya
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) =VLOOKUP (A2,J2:L5, 1 FALSE) (a) A and C only.
(b) =VLOOKUP (J2,A$2:C$7, 1 FALSE) (b) B, C and D only
(c) =VLOOKUP (J2,A$2:C$7, 3 FALSE) (c) A, B and C only
(d) =VLOOKUP (J2,A2:C5, 3 FALSE) (d) B and D only

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Q29. Which of the following are the National Q34. Which of the following are not the characteristics of
coordinators for the production of best quality content in Adolescent learners?
SWAYAM? A. They have uniformity in their physical development.
A. NCTE B. They have stable self-concepts
B. AICTE C. They often experience mood swings and emotional
C. IGNOU turmoil.
D. UGC D. They have high hopes and aspirations for their future.
E. CEC E. They have increased peer group pressure.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, D and E only (a) A, C, D and E only
(b) B, C, D and E only (b) C and D only
(c) B and C only (c) B, C and E only
(d) A and D only (d) A and B only

Q30. Two persons X and Y can do a piece of work in n Q35. Which of the following statements are logically
days. If X alone can complete the work in (n+3) days and equivalent?
Y alone can do the work in (n+12) days. Find the value of A. All saints are materialists.
n. B. No saints are non- materialists.
(a) 6 C. All non- materialists are non-saints.
(b) 10 D. No materialists are saints.
(c) 7
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
(d) 5 given below:
(a) B, C and D only
Q31. Which of the following is not the objective of
(b) A and C only
teaching?
(c) A and B only
(a) To help students to become better thinkers
(d) A, B and C only
(b) To facilitate the development of problem solving
ability among students.
Q36. Which of the following statements about quantum
(c) To follow a rigid teaching plan
computing are correct?
(d) To help learner, adjust his perceptions to reality,
A. Principles of quantum physics are applied in it.
attaining harmony between internal and external
experiences B. Quantum bits (qubits) are used as the information unit
C. Quantum Computers emit radiation fatal to
Q32. The maximum amount of information sent over a humans/users.
channel within a specific period of time reflects Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Communication process (a) A and B only.
(b) Information overload (b) A and C only
(c) Transmission barriers (c) B and C only
(d) Channel capacity (d) A, B and C only

Q33. Given below are two statements. Q37. The Indian university Act, 1904, was passed during
Statement I: Composting is aerobic degradation of the period of _________ as viceroy.
organic materials under controlled conditions, yielding a (a) Lord wellesly
marketable manure. (b) Lord Ripon
Statement II: In such composts, concentrations of key (c) Lord Curzon
nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorous and potassium (d) Lord Chelmsford
are sufficient enough to compete with commercial
fertilizers. Q38. What number would replace equation mark (?) in
In light of the above statements, choose the most the series given below?
appropriate answer from the options given below: 1, 6, 18, 44, 98, 208, 430,?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (a) 638
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (b) 876
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II are false. (c) 896
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (d) 999

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Q39. “No one has been ever able to prove that Glaciers in Q44. A man, whole pointing towards a lady, said, “Her
the arctic region are melting because of Global warming. husband is the only son of my mother”. How is the man
Therefore. Glaciers in the arctic region must be melting related to the lady?
on their own.” Which fallacy is committed in the above (a) Husband
statement? (b) Son
(a) Fallacy of Accident (c) Father-in-law
(b) Slippery Slope (d) Brother-in-law
(c) Hasty Generalization
(d) Appeal to Ignorance Q45. In a certain coding language:
A. ‘AMAN’ is coded as 29
Q40. Given below are two statements. B. ‘RAMAN’ is coded as 47
Statement I: Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is the large How ‘SHAM’ will be coded in that language?
number of requests sent at the same time to the web (a) 43
server, thereby causing the server to crash. (b) 28
Statement II: Virus is a self-replicating malicious (c) 41
software causing computer to run slowly. (d) 37
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below: Directions (46-50): Read the passage and answer the
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. questions that follow:
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. Based on molecular evidence, we know life evolved from
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II are false. one common ancestor around three billion years ago.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. From then, evolution progressed, slowly to begin with –
in the last billion years, we see very rapid diversification
Q41. Given below are two statements. of life forms on Earth as multiple components clicked
Statement I: In the modern day world, language is an into place, including multicellularity or multiple cells
effective instrument of communication coming together to form one organism, etc. against this
Statement II: The Buddhists regard language as an backdrop, we find all insects share a relationship with
important social practice. each other-they have a certain body plan, cellular
In light of the above statements, choose the most functions, genetically encoded features (many have six
appropriate answer from the options given below: legs, for instance) and the information of how these
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. features are formed encoded in their genome. Butterflies
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. share many evolutionary features with insects.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II are false. Butterflies are also specialized moths, the two separating
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. from their sister group of insects 150 to 200 million
years ago. Thereafter, months themselves evolved
Q42. Who among the following opposed the significantly before butterflies emerged as a separate
implementation of western system of education in India? group about 85 million year ago, around when dinosaurs
(a) William Adam went extinct. All the characteristics butterflies have-
(b) Lord Canning including much more acute vision compared to moths
(c) Mrs. Annie Besant who rely more on smell-grew thereon. Visual cues are
(d) B.L. Rice extremely important for butterflies which explains why
many are so attractive. Their appealing colours evolved
Q43. Which of the following are true in the case of to help them either evade predators or attract mates,
metacommunication? dark colours developing to help butterflies maintain
A. It is intentional. body temperature. Being cold blooded.
B. It is not always intentional. Some species developed fascinating traits. Aposematism
C. It often takes place spontaneously. is a combination of two features-one is a defence against
D. It can modify itself. predators, like a chemical cover, some butterflies being
E. It decontextualizes itself. toxic to birds, spiders, etc. these caterpillars feed on toxic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. plants which are difficult, if not deadly, for predators to
(a) A, B and C only digest. Being protected thus is an internal property-but
(b) B, C and D only butterflies with toxins then developed bright wing
(c) C, D and E only patterns to show predators they are dangerous.
(d) A, D and E only Signaling the risk they bear.

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Q46. Aposematism is a combination of Q49. Appealing colours of butterflies serve all these
A. Defence against predators by emitting a bad Smell. purposes:
B. Bright wing patterns for camouflage. A. Repel mates
C. Defence against predators by butterflies with toxins.
D. Bright wing patterns to show predators they are B. Evade predators
dangerous. C. Maintain body temperature
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: D. Attract predators.
(a) A and D only E. Attract mates
(b) B and C only Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(c) C and D only
(a) A, B and C only
(d) D only.
(b) A, B, C and D only
Q47. Butterflies and Insects separated (c) B, C, D and E only
(a) 1 million year ago (d) B, C and E only
(b) 85 million year ago
(c) 150-200 million year ago
Q50. Compared to moths, butterflies
(d) 3 billion, year ago
A. have better vision
Q48. Given below are two statements. B. rely more on smelling power
Statement I: Butterflies are specialized moths. C. are less attractive
Statement II: Butterflies emerged as a separate group D. are more colorful
about the time when dinosaurs went extinct:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below: (a) A and C only.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (b) B, C and D only
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (c) A and D only
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II are false. (d) A, C and D only
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Solutions
S1. Ans.(a) S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. According to question Sol.
Ratio of foreign investment of Rajasthan in the Defence
sector and Tamil Nadu in the Defence sector = 25.6% of
3120 : 25.6% of 1380 = 52 : 23

S2. Ans.(b) S5. Ans.(d)

Sol. Sol.

S6. Ans.(c)
S3. Ans.(d) Sol. In Hindu tradition, the ultimate purpose of good
Sol. communication is to guide individuals toward
The foreign investment in the Defence sector in Gujarat enlightenment and spiritual growth. This aligns with the
= 25.6% of 3940 broader goals of Hindu philosophy, which emphasize the
Construction and Insurance sectors together in MP = pursuit of knowledge, self-realization, and the
(14.4% + 18.5%) of 3560 understanding of one’s true nature (Atman) in relation to
Difference = 1,171.24 - 1,008.64 = 162.6 the universe (Brahman).

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Communication in this context is not merely about S9. Ans.(a)
exchanging information or creating social bonds but is Sol. Find and Replace: MS Word provides the facility to
seen as a means to elevate the mind and spirit. Through search for specific text and replace it with other text
effective communication, one can share wisdom, teach throughout the document.
moral values, and encourage others on their spiritual Mail Merge: This feature allows users to create multiple
documents, such as letters or labels, by combining a
journey, ultimately helping them seek enlightenment.
template document with a data source, such as a list of
names and addresses.
S7. Ans.(c)
Spell Check and Thesaurus: MS Word includes a spell
Sol. The discovery of the ozone hole was first made over check tool to correct spelling errors and a thesaurus to
the Antarctic in the mid-1980s. Scientists observed a find synonyms and antonyms for words.
significant depletion of the ozone layer in the Information Booster: Automatic Recalculation is a
stratosphere over Antarctica, particularly during the feature associated with spreadsheet software like MS
Southern Hemisphere’s spring season (September to Excel, not word-processing software like MS Word.
November). This depletion was primarily caused by
human-made chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), S10. Ans.(a)
which break down ozone molecules, leading to the Sol. The correct answer is (a); above 60%
formation of the “ozone hole.” This discovery highlighted The UGC (University Grants Commission) regulations
2018 on plagiarism categorize plagiarism into levels
the environmental impact of CFCs and led to global
based on the percentage of similarity between the
efforts, such as the Montreal Protocol, to phase out the
submitted work and existing sources. Here's what each
use of ozone-depleting substances.
option represents in the context of these regulations:
(a) above 60%: This represents Level 3 plagiarism,
S8. Ans.(b) which is the most severe category under the UGC
Sol. The correct answer is (b): A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III regulations. It indicates a very high degree of similarity
The correct match between the types of research/study to existing sources, suggesting that a significant portion
and their descriptions is: of the work may have been copied without appropriate
A. Basic Research is fundamentally about expanding citation or acknowledgement. The penalties for Level 3
knowledge and understanding, often without immediate plagiarism are the most severe and may include
practical application. It's closely associated with theory dismissal of students from the program, termination of
development or enhancement. So, it matches with IV. A faculty, and other disciplinary actions.
study/research that tests or expands on theory. Information Booster:
(b) below 10%: Similarities below 10% are often
B. Correlational Research investigates the relationship
considered acceptable or minor in many academic
between two or more variables to determine whether
contexts, including under the UGC regulations. Such a
they covary in a systematic way. Hence, it aligns with I.
low percentage of similarity typically does not constitute
Investigations meant to discover whether variables plagiarism and may be attributed to the use of common
covary. phrases or technical terms that are not unique to a single
C. Case Study involves an in-depth examination of a source. However, academic integrity still requires proper
single subject or a small group, offering detailed insight citation and acknowledgement of direct quotes or
into aspects of their lives or conditions. This method is specific ideas even within this range.
described by II. An in-depth study of a single or a few (c) above 10% to 30%: This range may be considered
individuals to see how changes affect the person’s for Level 1 plagiarism under the UGC regulations,
behavior. depending on the specific context and the nature of the
D. Longitudinal Study entails observing and measuring similarities. Level 1 plagiarism is less severe than Level 3
but still requires corrective actions. The penalties might
a group of participants over a period to track changes or
include mandatory revision of the work, a warning, or
developments, which matches III. A group of participants
other educational interventions designed to address and
is observed and measured over time.
correct the issue.

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(d) above 40% to 60%: This range likely corresponds S14. Ans.(b)
to Level 2 plagiarism under the UGC regulations, Sol. The correct answer is (b), Both Statement I and
indicating a substantial amount of similarity to existing Statement II are false.
• Edpuzzle is a tool used for mind mapping in
sources that raises significant concerns about the
education: Edpuzzle is a tool used for creating
originality of the work. Penalties for Level 2 plagiarism interactive videos in education, not for mind
are more severe than for Level 1 but less severe than for mapping. It allows educators to add questions,
Level 3. They may include more stringent corrective voiceovers, and annotations to existing videos to
actions, such as the requirement to withdraw the make them more interactive and engaging for
manuscript or a bar on publishing work for a certain students.
period. • Mindmeister is a tool used for creating interactive
videos in education: Mindmeister is a tool used for
mind mapping in education. It allows users to create,
S11. Ans.(a) share, and collaboratively edit mind maps, which can
Sol. The original statement “Some non-realists are not be useful for brainstorming, planning, and
non-philosophers” can be rephrased as “Some organizing information.
philosophers are non-realists.” When we negate the
statement, it means that these philosophers are not S15. Ans.(b)
realists, leading to the equivalent statement “Some Sol. The correct answer is (b); B and C only
Open-ended questions in survey research have specific
philosophers are not realists.”
characteristics that distinguish them from closed-ended
questions. Here's how the options relate to those
S12. Ans.(a) characteristics:
Sol. Oligotrophic: A water body that is deficient in B. They are useful for exploring new areas. This is true
nutrients, particularly nitrogen and phosphorus, is for open-ended questions. They allow respondents to
termed oligotrophic. Such water bodies typically have provide detailed answers in their own words, offering
richer data and insights into areas that might not be well
clear water, low productivity of algae and other
understood or anticipated by the researcher.
organisms, and are often deep with a high level of C. They are time-consuming for interviewers to
dissolved oxygen. In contrast: administer. Open-ended questions can indeed be more
Information Booster: Eutrophic water bodies are rich time-consuming to administer and analyze compared to
in nutrients and support high levels of biological closed-ended questions because the responses are more
productivity. varied and require more effort to categorize and
Mesotrophic water bodies have an intermediate level of interpret.
Information Booster: A. The questions suggest certain
productivity, falling between oligotrophic and eutrophic
kinds of answers to the respondents. This is more
conditions. characteristic of closed-ended questions, where the
Dystrophic water bodies are typically acidic, with high responses are limited or suggested by the structure of
levels of organic matter and low levels of oxygen, often the question itself. Open-ended questions do not suggest
found in bogs and swamps. specific answers but allow respondents to answer in
their own words.
S13. Ans.(d)
S16. Ans.(b)
Sol. The option that is not a benefit of Mind Mapping is
Sol. The correct answer is (b); Both Statement I and
(d); Making information more difficult to Statement II are false.
comprehend. In APA style referencing:
Mind Mapping is a technique used to visually organize • Statement I is false. In a reference written in APA
information, which typically aids in memory retention, style, the author's surname is written first, followed
enhances creativity and problem-solving skills, and can by the initials of their first and middle names (if
provided), not their full first name.
even help in reducing stress and anxiety by organizing
• Statement II is also false. In APA style, the year of
thoughts clearly. It does not make information more publication is written immediately after the authors'
difficult to comprehend; on the contrary, it is designed to names, before the title of the work and certainly
make comprehension easier by structuring information before the page number of the article or the book
in a more accessible and visually appealing way. chapter.

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S17. Ans.(c) (d) Ratio: Ratio variables are similar to interval
Sol. The correct answer is (c); Lord Curzon variables, but they do have a meaningful zero point,
In 1902, it was Lord Curzon who proposed reforms in which allows for the calculation of ratios. Examples
the administration of universities in India, including the include age, height, weight, or income. You can say that
appointment of Indian Universities with six permanent someone who earns $100,000 earns twice as much as
members. This was part of a broader set of educational someone who earns $50,000, making meaningful
reforms aimed at improving higher education in India comparisons of ratios possible.
during his tenure as the Viceroy of India. Lord Curzon's
proposals were intended to strengthen university S20. Ans.(a)
governance and improve standards of teaching and Sol.
research.

S18. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct order of increasing prescribed limits
starts with Lead (Pb) due to its high toxicity even at low
levels, followed by Respirable Suspended Particulate
Matter (RSPM) which has a lower limit than SPM, then
Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM), and lastly
Ammonia (NH3) which has a higher allowable
concentration. This reflects the prioritization based on
health impacts and environmental persistence.
Lead (Pb): 1 µg/m³
S21. Ans.(a)
Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM or
Sol. If statement A, "Some cars are e-vehicles," is true, it
PM₁₀): 100 µg/m³
indicates that there exist cars that are e-vehicles. If
Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM): 200 µg/m³
statement B, "Some cars are not e-vehicles," is false, it
Ammonia (NH₃): 400 µg/m³
suggests that all cars must be e-vehicles. This conclusion
is necessary if statement A is true because the presence
S19. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct answer is (a); Nominal Scale of some e-vehicles means that not all cars can be e-
(a) Nominal: Nominal variables represent categorical vehicles. Therefore, if statement A is true, statement B
data without any intrinsic ranking or order. Examples must also be true.
include gender (male, female), types of animals (dog, cat,
bird), or colors (red, blue, green). You cannot logically S22. Ans.(c)
say that one category is higher or lower than another. Sol. A MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to
Information Booster: network interfaces for communications at the data link
(b) Ordinal: Ordinal variables represent categories with layer of a network segment and is typically made up of
a natural order or ranking, but the intervals between the 48 bits.
ranks may not be equal. Examples include education
level (high school, bachelor’s, master’s, Ph.D.), S23. Ans.(d)
satisfaction ratings (unsatisfied, neutral, satisfied), or Sol. The correct answer is (d) A, B, C, and D only
economic status (low income, middle income, high Among the institutions listed, those that are autonomous
income). You can rank these from lowest to highest, but scientific institutions and come under the financial
you can't precisely quantify the differences between umbrella of the Department of Science and Technology
ranks. (DST) include:
(c) Interval: Interval variables are numeric scales where 1. Bose Institute, Kolkata: The Bose Institute is an
both the order and the exact differences between the autonomous research institution funded by the
values are meaningful. However, they do not have a true Department of Science and Technology (DST). It focuses
zero point. Examples include temperature scales on fundamental research in various scientific fields.
(Celsius, Fahrenheit), where you can say that 30 degrees 2. Agarkar Research Institute, Pune: The Agarkar
is hotter than 20 degrees, and the difference between 20 Research Institute is also under the financial support of
and 30 degrees is the same as between 30 and 40
DST. It specializes in research in the fields of biological
degrees. You can rank these values, and the intervals are
sciences and environmental sciences.
equal.

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3. Raman Research Institute, Bangalore: The Raman S27. Ans.(c)
Research Institute is funded by DST and is known for its Sol. Statement I is true but Statement II are false.
research in the areas of physics and engineering. • Statement I: Communication media are neither neutral
4. Wadia Institute of Himalayan Geology, Dehradun: This nor value-free containers that carry information of
institute, dedicated to the study of Himalayan geology, is different places. This statement is true because
supported by the DST as well. communication media influence how information is
Information Booster: 5. Indian Council of Astrological structured, delivered, and received. Media are not
Science, Bangalore: This organization is not funded by passive carriers; they shape the content, highlight
DST. It is not recognized as an autonomous scientific certain aspects, and can introduce biases based on their
institution under the DST’s financial umbrella. design and underlying values. For example, social media
platforms might emphasize brevity (like Twitter’s
S24. Ans.(c) character limit) or visual content (like Instagram), thus
affecting how messages are conveyed and perceived.
Sol. VLOOKUP means 'Vertical Lookup'. It is a function
• Statement II: No communication technology has its own
that allows Excel to search for a specific value in a
unique set of physical, technical, symbolic, and
column (called the table array), in order to return a value
environmental characteristics. This statement is false
from a different column in the same row. VLOOKUP
because every communication technology indeed
[Value], [Range], [Column number], [False or True]
possesses its own unique characteristics. For example,
The average number of calls for the listed display ID in the physical medium (like paper for print or digital
column (J) = VLOOKUP (J2, A$2:C$7, 3, FALSE) screens for online content), technical aspects (such as
bandwidth requirements for video streaming), symbolic
S25. Ans.(a) cues (emoticons, visuals), and environmental factors
Sol. C. Some trucks are not polluting vehicles - This (e.g., noise in broadcasting) all vary from one medium to
contradicts the given statement because if all trucks are another. These characteristics influence the way
polluting vehicles, then there cannot be any trucks that communication occurs, making each technology distinct.
are not polluting vehicles.
D. No trucks are polluting vehicles - This directly S28. Ans.(d)
contradicts the given statement, as it implies that trucks Sol. Takshila, also known as Taxila, was a prominent
are not polluting vehicles, which contradicts the claim ancient center of learning in India.
that all trucks are polluting vehicles Panini: A renowned Sanskrit grammarian and scholar,
Panini is well-known for his work on Sanskrit grammar,
S26. Ans.(a) and it is believed that he studied at Takshila.
Sol. Statement I: A nuclear power reactor is a system Chanakya (Kautilya): The ancient Indian scholar and
designed to sustain a fission chain reaction and extract advisor, Chanakya, also known as Kautilya, is believed to
useful energy: True: A nuclear power reactor’s primary have studied and taught at Takshila.
function is to maintain a controlled fission chain Information Booster: Nagarjuna: An influential
reaction. In this process, the nuclei of heavy atoms (like Buddhist philosopher and scholar, Nagarjuna is
uranium-235 or plutonium-239) are split into smaller traditionally associated with learning centers of his time,
nuclei, releasing a large amount of energy. This energy is but there is no specific historical evidence linking him
then used to produce steam, which drives turbines to directly to Takshila.
generate electricity. The reactor must manage and Sri Chaitanya: A 15th-16th century saint and proponent
of the Gaudiya Vaishnavism tradition, Sri Chaitanya lived
sustain this reaction to ensure continuous energy
much later and was not associated with Takshila.
production.
Statement II: Light water reactors use ordinary water as
S29. Ans.(b)
the moderator: True: Light water reactors (LWRs) are
Sol. The correct answer is (b); B, C, D, and E only
the most common type of nuclear reactors. They use
SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young
ordinary water (also known as light water) as both the Aspiring Minds) is an Indian program designed to
moderator and the coolant. The moderator slows down provide high-quality, accessible education online. The
the neutrons produced during fission to sustain the chain national coordinators for the production of best quality
reaction. Light water reactors include pressurized water content in SWAYAM include various educational and
reactors (PWRs) and boiling water reactors (BWRs), professional bodies responsible for different types of
both of which use ordinary water in this capacity. educational content. These coordinators are:

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B. AICTE (All India Council for Technical Education): Information Booster: •Communication process refers
Responsible for self-paced and international courses. to the overall exchange of information between sender
C. IGNOU (Indira Gandhi National Open University): and receiver.
Tasked with developing courses for high school students • Information overload occurs when too much
to post-graduation levels and also responsible for information is provided, making it difficult to process
certification and diploma courses. effectively.
D. UGC (University Grants Commission): Oversees • Transmission barriers are obstacles that hinder the
non-technical post-graduation education. successful transmission of information, such as physical
interference or signal degradation.
E. CEC (Consortium for Educational Communication):
Responsible for undergraduate courses.
S33. Ans.(c)
Information Booster: The NCTE (National Council for Sol. Statement I is true but Statement II are false:
Teacher Education) is not a coordinator for content • Statement I is true. Composting is indeed the aerobic
production in SWAYAM. Hence, the correct answer (requires oxygen) biological process that breaks
includes AICTE, IGNOU, UGC, and CEC. down organic materials such as leaves, grass
trimmings, and food wastes into a darker, crumbly,
S30. Ans.(a) earthy-smelling soil conditioner. This process is
Sol. controlled to optimize the conditions for aerobic
decomposition and yields a product used in
agriculture and gardening.
• The statement suggests that composts have
concentrations of key nutrients (nitrogen,
phosphorus, potassium) that are "sufficient enough
to compete with commercial fertilizers."
• False: While composts are valuable for improving
soil structure, water retention, and organic matter
content, they typically do not have nutrient
concentrations as high as those found in commercial
fertilizers. Commercial fertilizers are specifically
S31. Ans.(c)
formulated to deliver concentrated doses of
Sol. The option that is not typically considered an
essential nutrients, whereas compost provides more
objective of teaching is: (c) To follow a rigid teaching balanced, but generally lower, levels of these
plan nutrients. Compost is more about enhancing soil
Teaching aims to foster critical thinking, problem- health in the long term rather than providing
solving abilities, and help learners adjust and make sense immediate high concentrations of nutrients.
of their internal and external experiences. A rigid
teaching plan does not align with these objectives as it S34. Ans.(d)
may not allow for the flexibility needed to address the Sol. The options that are not characteristics of
diverse needs and learning styles of students. Effective adolescent learners are: (d) A and B only
teaching often involves adaptability and responsiveness Adolescent learners exhibit a variety of characteristics
to ensure that learning is meaningful and engaging for all due to the physical, emotional, and psychological
students. changes they undergo during this stage of development.
Among the options provided, the statements that do not
S32. Ans.(d) accurately represent characteristics of adolescent
Sol. Channel capacity: learners are:
A. They have uniformity in their physical development.
Channel capacity is a measure of the maximum rate at
Adolescents do not have uniformity in their physical
which information can be transmitted over a
development. There is considerable variability in the
communication channel without error. It is determined
timing and rate of physical development among
by the channel’s bandwidth and the signal-to-noise ratio. adolescents due to factors like genetics, nutrition, and
Channel capacity specifically deals with the maximum environmental conditions.
rate of successful information transfer, making it the B. They have stable self-concepts. Adolescents often
correct answer for reflecting the highest amount of experience changes and instability in their self-concept
information that can be sent over a channel in a given as they explore different aspects of their identity and
time. how they fit into the world around them.

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S35. Ans.(d) S38. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct answer is (d) A, B, and C only. Sol. 1, 6, 18, 44, 98, 208, 430, ?
Statement A: All saints are materialists. Let's start by examining the differences between
This statement implies that there are no saints who are consecutive terms:
not materialists.
6 - 1 = 5, 18 - 6 = 12, 44 - 18 = 26, 98 - 44 = 54, 208 - 98 =
Statement B: No saints are non-materialists.
This statement is logically equivalent to Statement A 110, 430 - 208 = 222
because it is the contrapositive of Statement A. The Now let's look at the differences between these
contrapositive of a statement is formed by negating both differences:
the hypothesis and the conclusion of the original 12 - 5 = 7, 26 - 12 = 14, 54 - 26 = 28, 110 - 54 = 56, 222 -
statement. In this case, the original statement is "All 110 = 112
saints are materialists," and the contrapositive is "No Here we see each difference doubling the previous one.
saints are non-materialists." This suggests that the next difference in this sequence
Statement C: All non-materialists are non-saints.
should be double 112, which is 224. So:
This statement is also logically equivalent to Statement A
because the contrapositive of a statement is always 222 (previous difference between terms) + 224 (next
logically equivalent to the original statement. difference of differences) = 446
Information Booster: Statement D: No materialists are Adding this 446 to the last term in the series:
saints. 430 + 446 = 876
This statement is not logically equivalent to Statement A
because it is the converse of Statement A. The converse S39. Ans.(d)
of a statement is formed by swapping the hypothesis and Sol. The statement commits the Appeal to Ignorance
the conclusion of the original statement. In this case, the
fallacy. This fallacy occurs when it is assumed that a
original statement is "All saints are materialists," and the
claim is true because it has not been or cannot be proven
converse is "No materialists are saints." The converse of
a statement is not always logically equivalent to the false, or vice versa. In this case, the statement suggests
original statement. that because no one has been able to prove that glaciers
Therefore, the only statements that are logically are melting due to global warming, they must be melting
equivalent are A, B, and C. on their own. This reasoning incorrectly assumes that
the lack of evidence for one cause automatically validates
S36. Ans.(a) an alternative cause without direct evidence supporting
Sol. (a) A and B only. it.
• Statement A is correct. Quantum computing
fundamentally relies on the principles of quantum
mechanics, including superposition, entanglement, S40. Ans.(a)
and quantum interference. Sol.
• Statement B is correct. Quantum bits or qubits are • Statement I is true. Denial-of-Service (DoS) Attack: A
the basic unit of quantum information in quantum DoS attack aims to make a network resource, such as
computing. Unlike classical bits, which are binary a web server, unavailable to its intended users by
and can be either 0 or 1, qubits can exist in multiple temporarily or indefinitely disrupting services. This
states simultaneously thanks to quantum is typically achieved by overwhelming the server
superposition.
with a flood of requests at the same time, which
Information Booster:
exhausts its resources (like CPU, memory, or
• Statement C is false. Quantum computers do not emit
radiation that is fatal to humans. This statement is a bandwidth), leading to slow responses or crashes.
misconception and does not reflect the true nature of • Statement II is also true. Virus: A computer virus is a
quantum computing technology. type of malicious software (malware) that attaches
itself to a host program or file and can replicate itself
S37. Ans.(c) to infect other files or programs. When executed, it
Sol. The correct answer is (c); Lord Curzon can cause harm, such as slowing down the computer,
The Indian Universities Act, 1904, was passed during the corrupting data, or damaging the system's
period of Lord Curzon as the Viceroy of India. Lord
functionality. The replication and payload activity of
Curzon's tenure is notable for various educational
reforms, including this Act, which aimed at improving a virus can consume system resources, leading to a
the standards of higher education in India. decrease in computer performance.

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S41. Ans.(a) • Statement C (It often takes place spontaneously):
Sol. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. True. Metacommunication frequently occurs as a
• Statement I is true as language is universally natural part of interaction, where individuals react
acknowledged as a fundamental tool for to and comment on communication styles and
communication, enabling individuals to express content beyond the explicit verbal message.
thoughts, convey information, and foster • Statement D (It can modify itself): This is true.
understanding among groups. Metacommunication can modify the meaning of the
• Statement II is also true. In Buddhism, language is messages being communicated. For example, tone of
considered an important aspect of social interaction voice or facial expressions can change the perceived
and ethical practice. It is seen as a means to express meaning of words spoken.
and share teachings, moral precepts, and to engage Information Booster:
in community and spiritual practices. Language's • Statement A (It is intentional): Metacommunication
role in shaping perceptions and ethical conduct is can be both intentional and unintentional. It
highlighted in many Buddhist texts and teachings. encompasses the ways in which communication is
interpreted, not just how it is intended, so it's not
S42. Ans.(c) always a deliberate act.
Sol. The correct answer is (c); Mrs. Annie Besant • Statement E (It decontextualizes itself): Generally,
Mrs. Annie Besant opposed the implementation of the this statement is less accurate regarding
Western system of education in India. She believed that metacommunication. Metacommunication is more
the Western education system undermined the Indian about adding context rather than removing it,
culture, values, and traditional educational methods. helping to clarify or adjust the understanding of the
Besant was an advocate for reviving India's ancient primary communication rather than stripping away
educational systems, emphasizing the importance of its contextual framework.
Sanskrit and the Vedas, and promoting the development Given these considerations, the combination of
of a national education system rooted in Indian Statements B, C, and D being true best fits the nature of
traditions. metacommunication.
Information Booster:
• William Adam: He was a Scottish missionary who, S44. Ans.(a)
in fact, supported the introduction of Western Sol. The man states, "Her husband is the only son of my
education in India. He conducted extensive surveys mother." This means the man himself is the only son of
on indigenous education in Bengal and Bihar and his mother. Therefore, he must be speaking about his
advocated for educational reforms. own relationship to the lady, indicating that he is the
• Lord Canning: He was the Governor-General of husband of the lady he is pointing to.
India during the period when the Western education
system was being implemented. He supported S45. Ans.(c)
various educational initiatives, including the Sol. Given:
establishment of universities in India. • 'AMAN' is coded as 29
• B.L. Rice: He was a British official who contributed • 'RAMAN' is coded as 47
significantly to the promotion of Western education Let's begin by assigning numerical values to each letter
in India. He was involved in the compilation of based on their position in the alphabet:
educational reports and the development of • A=1
educational infrastructure in Mysore. • M = 13
• N = 14
S43. Ans.(b) • R = 18
Sol. B, C, and D only • S = 19
• Statement B (It is not always intentional): This is • H=8
true. As stated, metacommunication can happen We need to find a pattern in the given codes:
without the conscious intention of the
communicators, often being an interpretive
response to the primary communication.

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From the above, it appears the coding simply sums the S49. Ans.(d)
alphabetical values of the letters. Let's apply this to Sol. B, C, and E only:
"SHAM": • Option B (Evade predators): The appealing colours
of butterflies, as noted in the passage, often serve as
• S + H + A + M = 19 + 8 + 1 + 13 = 41 a defense mechanism, either through camouflage or
Thus, 'SHAM' would be coded as 41 based on the pattern by signaling toxicity (aposematism), which helps
observed. Answer: (c) 41 them evade predators.
• Option C (Maintain body temperature): The passage
mentions that dark colours help butterflies maintain
S46. Ans.(c)
their body temperature. This is an adaptive feature
Sol. C and D only: that allows them to thermoregulate.
The passage describes Aposematism as a combination of • Option E (Attract mates): Bright and appealing
butterflies having toxins as a defense against predators colours are also crucial in mating rituals, helping
and their development of bright wing patterns to signal butterflies attract mates.
Incorrect Options:
to predators that they are dangerous. Thus, options C and
• Option A (Repel mates) is incorrect as butterflies use
D accurately reflect the description of Aposematism their colours to attract, not repel, mates.
given in the passage. • Option D (Attract predators) is also incorrect. While
bright colours may make butterflies more visible, in
S47. Ans.(c) the context of aposematism, these colours are meant
to warn predators of toxicity, not attract them in a
Sol. The passage specifies that butterflies and moths
harmful way.
(which are both insects) separated from their sister
group of insects between 150 to 200 million years ago. S50. Ans.(c)
Therefore, the correct answer is that butterflies and the Sol.
broader group of insects diverged 150-200 million years • Option A (have better vision): The passage notes that
butterflies have much more acute vision compared
ago. to moths, who rely more on their sense of smell.
• Option D (are more colorful): Butterflies are
S48. Ans.(a) generally more colorful than moths, which is an
Sol. Statement I is true. The passage states that evolutionary trait that serves multiple functions
such as attracting mates and evading predators
butterflies are indeed specialized moths, indicating that
through aposematism.
they evolved from the general group of moths and then • Incorrect Options:
became distinct. • Option B (rely more on smelling power) is incorrect
• Statement II is also true according to the passage, for butterflies as the passage states that moths rely
which mentions that butterflies emerged as a more on smell.
separate group around 85 million years ago, • Option C (are less attractive) is also incorrect as
butterflies are noted in the passage and generally
approximately aligning with the time when recognized for their attractive and colorful
dinosaurs went extinct. appearance.

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 UGC NET Paper-I (14 June 2023 Shift 1)
Q1. The following table shows the number of males (M) Q3. The following table shows the number of males (M)
and females (F) (in thousands) in Towns X and Y during and females (F) (in thousands) in Towns X and Y during
the five years from 2018 to 2022. Based on the data in the five years from 2018 to 2022. Based on the data in
the table, answer the questions 1-5 Year wise numbers the table, answer the questions 1-5 Year wise numbers
of Males and Females in two Towns (in thousands) of Males and Females in two Towns (in thousands)

In which of the following pairs of years, the difference in

Find the number of years in which the number of females
the number of males and females is maximum for town Y
in Town X and Y is less than their respective average
numbers in these two towns. and minimum for Town X respectively?
(a) One, two (a) 2018 and 2021
(b) Two, Two (b) 2022 and 2018
(c) Three, Two (c) 2022 and 2021
(d) Two, one (d) 2020 and 2022

Q2. The following table shows the number of males (M) Q4. The following table shows the number of males (M)
and females (F) (in thousands) in Towns X and Y during and females (F) (in thousands) in Towns X and Y during
the five years from 2018 to 2022. Based on the data in the five years from 2018 to 2022. Based on the data in
the table, answer the questions 1-5 Year wise numbers the table, answer the questions 1-5 Year wise numbers
of Males and Females in two Towns (in thousands) of Males and Females in two Towns (in thousands)

For town Y, the percentage increase in the number of What is the ratio of the average number of males in Town
female for a given year with reference to the previous X to the average number of male in Town Y for the given
year is maximum in the year_____________ period?
(a) 2022 (a) 269:282
(b) 2021 (b) 265:281
(c) 2020 (c) 265:283
(d) 2019 (d) 265:282

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Q5. The following table shows the number of males (M) Q8. The simple interest on a certain principal amount for
and females (F) (in thousands) in Towns X and Y during 4 years at 10% per annum is half of the compound
the five years from 2018 to 2022. Based on the data in interest on Rs.1000 for 2 years at 20% per annum. Find
the table, answer the questions 1-5 Year wise numbers the principal amount
of Males and Females in two Towns (in thousands) (a) Rs.500
(b) Rs.450
(c) Rs.650
(d) Rs.550

Q9. In the light of nature of reasoning and argument pick

out the incorrect statement(s)
A. An invalid argument can have any combinations of
truth of falsity in the premise or conclusion
B. No valid argument can have true premises and a false
The population of Town X in 2018 and 2019 together conclusion
approximately ___________% of the population of Town Y C. Deductive arguments can be ‘almost valid’
in 2021 and 2022 together? D. Valid does not mean true.
(a) 86.6
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(b) 89.6
below:
(c) 81.6
(a) A & B
(d) 84.5
(b) B & C
(c) C
Q6. Given below are two statements:
(d) D
Statement I: The Upanayana Ceremony which marked
the initiation of a child into a study of the Vedas was
Q10. Which of the following is a major advantage of
performed for boys as well as for girls.
online learning over offline learning?
Statement II: Both boys and girls received education in
‘Ashrams’ and ‘Gurukulas’ in ancient India. (a) Limited access
(b) Flexibility
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below (c) High cost
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (d) Inter-activity
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false Q11. If man invested Rs.20,000 in some shares in the
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true ratio 2:3:5 which pay dividends of 10%, 30% and 20%
respectively, on the investment in that year. Find the
Q7. Match List I with List II total divided income of the man.
(a) Rs.4200
(b) Rs.4500
(c) Rs.4800
(d) Rs.5000

Q12. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Moodle is an example of a Learning
Management System (LMS)
Statement II: Mentimeter is a tool used for creating
online surveys.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: answer from the options given below
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (a) Both statement I and statement II are true
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (b) Both statement I and statement II are false
(c) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Q13. Vladimir Zworykin was associated with the Q18. Given below are two statements: in the context of
invention of NEP 2020:
(a) Colour printing Statement I: High performing Indian Universities will be
encouraged to set up campuses in other countries.
(b) Radio
Statement II: Selected universities from among the top
(c) Television 500 universities in the world will be facilitated to
(d) Internet operate in India
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
Q14. According to Samkhya school of thought a word answer from the options given below
signifies (a) Both statement I and statement II are true
(a) Vyakti (b) Both statement I and statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(b) Akriti
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(c) Jati
(d) Vyakti-Akriti-Jati Q19. In a certain coded languages:
A. ‘Best way to win’ is written as ‘bau mau shau sa’
Q15. A computer processor will operate faster when the B. ‘The way to hell’ is written as ‘tau mau sa hau’
data that it wants is in the C. ‘Win of the day’ is written as ‘shau fau tau dau’
(a) Cache Memory What is the code for ‘hell’ in this language?
(a) ‘hau’
(b) Hard Disk
(b) ‘mau’
(c) Optical Disk (c) ‘shau’
(d) Main Memory (d) ‘tau’

Q16. Given below are two statements: Q20. In the light of changes introduced to the existing
Statement I: Bio magnification occurs when the toxic universities under the Indian Universities Act 1904;
which among the following is incorrect.
burden of large number of organisms at higher trophic
A. An enlargement of the functions of the universities
level is accumulated and concentrated in the organisms B. The introduction of the new principle of election to the
at lower trophic level. senate
Statement II: The effect of toxins are magnified in C. Easier conditions for affiliation of colleges to a
environment through food webs. universities
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct D. Definition of the territorial units of the universities
answer from the options given below E. Increase in the size of the universities senate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true
(a) A & B
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false (b) A & D
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (c) B & D
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (d) C & E

Q17. Given below are two statements: Q21. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Statement I: The purpose of a blind study is to prevent Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Experimental research allows you to
the participants from figuring out what the experimental
eliminate the influence of many extraneous factors.
wants. Reason R: In experimental research variable are
Statement II: Interaction between the experimenter and actively manipulated and environment is as controlled as
the participants is always beneficial in social science possible
research. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
answer from the options given below
of A
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true (b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false explanation of A
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (c) A is true but R is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (d) A is false but R is true

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Q22. The property of data such that research results Q26. Given below are two statements:
apply to situations beyond the particular sample of Statement I: Exposure to noise pollution adversely
individuals/items observed in a single research setting, affects the physiological health of a person.
refers to Statement II: Exposure to noise pollution adversely
(a) Internal Validity affects the psychological health of person.
(b) Convergent Validity In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below
(c) Divergent Validity
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true
(d) External Validity
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Q23. Danny is buying a new computer that has an LED (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
display. Which of the following statements about LED
displays are true? Q27. Match List I with List II
A. It is a flat panel display
B. It creates images using red, green and blue diodes.
C. It is not very energy efficient and gives off heat
D. It can be used in mobile devices such as smartphones
and tables
E. It is always a front-lit display
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B & D only Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(b) A, C & E only (a) A-III, B-I, C-II
(b) A-I, B-III, C-II
(c) B, D & E only
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I
(d) A, B, D & E only
(d) A-II, B-I, C-III

Q24. Given below are two statements: Q28. Most of the countries in International Solar Alliance
Statement I: According to NEP 2020, at present the lie
investment in research and innovation in India is (a) Above tropic of cancer
only<1% of GDP. (b) Below tropic of cancer
Statement II: NEP 2020 recommends the establishment (c) Between tropic of cancer and capricorn
of National curriculum framework for Teacher Education (d) In the Southern hemisphere
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below Q29. A researcher computes sample correlation
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true coefficients 𝑟1 , 𝑟2 , 𝑟3 and 𝑟4 from four different samples
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false and obtains their p-values 0.99, 0.999, 0.05 and 0.005,
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false respectively. Correlation coefficient significant at 1%
level is
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(a) r₁
(b) r₂
Q25. Identify the fallacy committed in the following
(c) r₃
argument:
(d) r₄
“Capital punishment is morally wrong because it is
ethically impermissible to inflict death as punishment for
Q30. What is the binary equivalent of the decimal
crime” number 85.125?
(a) Two wrongs make a right (a) (1001001.111)
(b) Look who is talking (b) (1010101.101)
(c) Begging the question (c) (1100101.001)
(d) Scare tactics (d) (1010101.001)

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Q31. Given below are two statements: Q35. What number would replace question mark (?) in
Statement I: Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) has the series below?
been adopted only in the central universities of India. 1. 5, 4, 7.5, 12, 17.5, 24, 31.5,?
Statement II: Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) (a) 55.5
assigns credits based on the learning outcomes of a (b) 38
course.
(c) 40
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
(d) 45
answer from the options given below
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false Q36. The first Education commission of India also
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false adhered to
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (a) The one-language formula
(b) The two-language formula
Q32. Given below are two statements: (c) The three-language formula
Statement I: Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are (d) The four-language formula
emitted from vehicles.
Statement II: Volatile Organic Compounds are emitted Q37. Light Water Reactars (LWR) are nuclear reactors
from some trees (a) Which use heavy water as a coolant
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
(b) Which use graphite rod as moderator
answer from the options given below
(c) Which use ordinary water as moderator
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false (d) Which use steam as moderator
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Q38. What are the advantages of digital media?
A. Network communication is avoided.
Q33. Given below are two statements: B. People can create and distribute media content.
Statement I: Propagandic communication at the C. The end-product can be delivered in real time.
National level is supposed to recognized the fact that D. Reproduction and distribution of information
truth need not be separated from falsehood. products are less expensive.
Statement II: The mediated propaganda process blurs E. Online political involvement is of no importance.
truth and falsehood in order to be persuasive. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
(a) A, B, C only
answer from the options given below
(b) B, C, D only
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false (c) C, D, E only
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) A, B, E only
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q39. Which of the following are the benefits of
Q34. Which of the following are the basic requirements collaborative learning environment?
for effective teaching? A. Improved communication skills
A. Teaching only what is included in the curriculum B. Decreased understanding of different perspectives
B. Good communication skills C. Increased motivation
C. Using a rigid teaching approach D. More opportunities for personal feedback
D. Excellent subject knowledge E. Enhanced problem solving abilities
E. Ability to connect with students
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
below:
(a) A and C only (a) B, C and D only
(b) C and E only (b) A and E only
(c) B, D and E only (c) A, C, D and E only
(d) A, C and D only (d) A, B and D only

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Q40. Given below are two statements: Q44. Which of the following factors affect mediated
Statement I: The jar does not exist’ is common to all persuasion?
kinds of non-existence. A. Extended media reach
B. Round-the-clock communication
Statement II: The jar will exist’ refers to previous non-
C. Media differences
existence. D. Audience fragmentation
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct E. Message characteristics
answer from the options given below Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true (a) A, B, C only
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false (b) B, C, D only
(c) C, D, E only
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) A, B, E only
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q45. A man travels from his home to his office at a speed
Q41. Given below are two statements: of 4 km/h and reaches his office 30 minutes late. If his
Statement I: Shareware is software that the users can speed had been 6 km/h, he would have reached office 5
try out for a trial period only, before being charged. minutes early. Find the distance of his office from the
home.
Statement II: Freeware is a software that the users can
(a) 8.5 km
download free of charge, but the cannot modify the (b) 7 km
source code in any way. (c) 8 km
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct (d) 9 km
answer from the options given below
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true Directions(46-50): Read the passage and answer the
text five questions. Choose the most appropriate
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false
options from the options given:
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true As part of the great cultural renaissance generated
during the post-independence period, there has
occurred a most meaningful encounter with tradition in
Q42. Arrange the following steps involved in a research
various fields of creative activity. The return to and
process in correct order discovery of tradition was inspired by a search for roots
A. Collecting the data and a quest for identity. This was a part of the whole
B. Reviewing the literature process of decolonization of our lifestyle, values, social
C. Reporting the research outcome institutions, creative forms and cultural modes.
The modern Indian theatre, product of a colonial
D. Identifying a research problem
theatrical culture, felt the need to search for roots most
E. Analyzing and interpreting the data
intensely to match its violent dislocation from the
Choose the correct answer from the options given traditional course. Directors like B.V. karanth, K.N.
below: Panikar and Ratan Thiyam have had a most meaningful
(a) A, D, B, E, C encounter with tradition and, with their work, have
(b) D, A, B, C, E reversed the colonial course of contemporary theatre
(c) B, D, A, E, C and put it back on the track of the great Natyashastra
tradition. It sounds paradoxical but their theatre is both
(d) D, B, A, E, C
avant-garde in the context of conventional realistic
theatre, and still belongs to the Natyashastra theatrical
Q43. Feedback is immediate in _______________ tradition.
communication.
(a) Print Q46.Decolonization is the process of
(b) Broadcast (a) Becoming independent from
(b) Becoming dependent on
(c) Top-Down
(c) Relying on
(d) Face-to Face (d) Learning from

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Q47. The return to and discovery of traditional in post- Q49. Post- Independence cultural renaissance in Indian
independence era was inspired by theatre focused on
A. Search for values (a) Development of Western theatre
B. Search for roots (b) Return to traditional Western theatre
C. Search for realism (c) Search for traditional Indian theatre
D. Search for identity
(d) Modern Western theatre
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) D and C only Q50. The most significant contribution of Directors like
(c) B, C and D only B.V Karanth, K.N. Panikkar and Ratan Thiyam was
(d) B and D only (a) Making Indian theatre totally traditional
(b) Making Indian theatre backward
Q48. The Natyasastra tradition refers to (c) Dislocating Indian theatre from the traditional Indian
(a) The colonial tradition theatre
(b) Avant-garde theatre (d) Bringing about an amalgamation of the Indian
(c) Conventional realistic theatre theatrical tradition with Western realistic theatre
(d) Indian theatrical tradition

Solutions
S1. Ans.(b) S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. For Town X: Average number of females in Town X = Sol.
49+49+52+53+52 255
= = 51
5 5
For Town Y: Average number of females in Town Y =
50+52+54+56+55 267
= = 53.4
5 5
Now, let's compare the number of females in each year
with their respective averages:
For Town X:

S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. S4. Ans.(d)
Sol.

The maximum percentage increase is in 2019, which is

approximately 4%. Therefore, the correct answer is (d)
2019.

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S5. Ans.(a) S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. Sol. The incorrect statement is (c) C. Deductive
arguments are either valid or invalid. There is no such
thing as an "almost valid" deductive argument.
Information Booster:
Statement A is correct. An invalid argument can have any
combinations of truth of falsity in the premise or
conclusion. For example, the following is an invalid
argument:
All dogs bark.
S6. Ans.(a)
Fido is a dog.
Sol. Statement I: The Upanayana Ceremony, which
Therefore, Fido barks.
marked the initiation of a child into the study of the
This argument is invalid because the conclusion does not
Vedas, was indeed performed for both boys and girls in
necessarily follow from the premises. Even if all dogs
ancient India. This ceremony, known as the 'sacred
bark, it is possible that Fido does not bark.
thread ceremony', was traditionally a part of the
Statement B is correct. No valid argument can have true
Brahmanical education system and marked the premises and a false conclusion. This is because a valid
beginning of formal education. In ancient times, this argument is one in which the conclusion necessarily
ceremony was not limited to boys; girls also participated follows from the premises. If the premises are true, then
in it, especially in the early Vedic period. the conclusion must also be true.
Statement II: Both boys and girls received education in Statement D is correct. Valid does not mean true. A valid
‘Ashrams’ and ‘Gurukulas’ in ancient India. This is also argument can have true premises and a false conclusion.
correct statement. In the early Vedic period, education For example, the following is a valid argument:
was more inclusive, and both boys and girls were All men are mortal.
educated in ashrams and gurukulas. Girls were allowed Socrates is a man.
to study the Vedas and participate in intellectual Therefore, Socrates is mortal.
discussions. The concept of co-education existed during This argument is valid because the conclusion
this period, although it changed in the later years with necessarily follows from the premises. However, the
the evolution of societal norms. conclusion is false because Socrates is dead.
Hence, Both Statement I and Statement II are true. Therefore, the only incorrect statement is (c) C.
Deductive arguments are either valid or invalid. There is
S7. Ans.(d) no such thing as an "almost valid" deductive argument.
Sol.
S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. The major advantage of online learning over offline
learning is (b) Flexibility.
Online learning offers unparalleled flexibility, enabling
students to access educational materials at their
convenience. This flexibility extends to time, location,
and the pace of learning, accommodating diverse
schedules and individual preferences. Unlike traditional
S8. Ans.(d)
offline methods, online learning mitigates limitations
Sol.
posed by geographical constraints and rigid schedules. It
promotes a personalized, self-paced approach, fostering
a more adaptable and accessible educational experience.
While offline learning may have its merits, the inherent
flexibility of online learning stands out as a key factor in
meeting the dynamic needs of modern learners.

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S11. Ans.(a) S16. Ans.(d)
Sol. Sol. Statement I: Bio magnification occurs when the toxic
burden of a large number of organisms at a higher
trophic level is accumulated and concentrated in
organisms at a lower trophic level. This statement is
false. Biomagnification, or bioaccumulation, actually
occurs in the opposite way – it is the process by which
the concentration of toxins increases as you move up the
S12. Ans.(a) trophic levels in a food chain. Toxins and pollutants are
Sol. The correct answer is (a) Both statement I and
accumulated in higher concentrations in organisms at
statement II are true.
higher trophic levels, not lower.
Moodle is indeed an example of a Learning Management
Statement II: The effect of toxins is magnified in the
System (LMS), widely used for online education, course
environment through food webs. This statement is true.
management, and collaboration.
Mentimeter, on the other hand, is a tool primarily utilized Biomagnification refers to the process where toxins
for creating interactive presentations and engaging become more concentrated in successive trophic levels
online surveys. Both platforms serve distinct purposes in of a food web. As a result, organisms at the top of the food
the realm of digital education and are recognized tools in chain generally suffer greater exposure to toxins and
their respective domains. pollutants than those at lower levels.
Hence, The correct answer is (d) Statement I is false but
S13. Ans.(c) Statement II is true.
Sol. Vladimir Zworykin was a key figure in the
development of television technology. He is particularly S17. Ans.(c)
renowned for inventing the iconoscope and the Sol. Statement I is true. A blind study, particularly a
kinescope. The iconoscope was the first successful single-blind study, is designed to prevent participants
television camera tube, used to transform visual images from knowing certain details of the experiment, such as
into electrical signals. The kinescope, on the other hand, whether they are in the control or experimental group.
was the first practical cathode ray tube used for the This is done to prevent bias in the responses of the
reception of television images. His contributions were participants, which can occur if they know what the
fundamental to the early development of electronic experimenter is looking for. This helps in maintaining
television. the integrity of the research and ensures that the results
are due to the experimental conditions and not due to
S14. Ans.(a) participants' preconceived notions or expectations.
Sol. According to the Samkhya school of thought, a word Statement II, however, is false. While interaction
signifies a Vyakti, which is a particular individual or between the experimenter and participants can
entity. A Vyakti is a composite of the three Gunas, or
sometimes be beneficial, especially in qualitative
qualities: sattva, rajas, and tamas. Sattva is the quality of
research, it is not always beneficial in social science
purity, rajas is the quality of activity, and tamas is the
research. In some cases, particularly in quantitative
quality of inertia.
research, too much interaction can introduce bias or
influence participants' responses, thereby affecting the
S15. Ans.(a)
Sol. Cache memory is a small, high-speed memory that is validity of the results. Therefore, the level and nature of
located closer to the processor than the main memory. It interaction should be carefully managed depending on
stores copies of the data that the processor is most likely the research design and objectives.
to need, so that the processor can access it quickly. This
can significantly improve the performance of the S18. Ans.(c)
computer, especially for applications that require a lot of Sol. Statement I: High performing Indian Universities
data access. will be encouraged to set up campuses in other countries.
Information Booster: This is correct statement as per NEP 2020. The policy
The hard disk, optical disk, and main memory are all encourages internationally competitive Indian
slower than cache memory, so the processor will operate universities to expand their global presence, which
faster when the data it wants is in cache memory. includes setting up campuses abroad.

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Statement II is not correct. According to the NEP 2020, S22. Ans.(d)
selected universities from among the top 100 Sol. External validity refers to the extent to which the
universities in the world will be facilitated to operate in results of a study can be generalized or applied to
India. The NEP 2020 is founded on five guiding pillars, contexts outside the specific conditions of the research.
including access, equity, quality, affordability, and This includes different populations, settings, times, and
accountability measures. External validity addresses the question of
Hence, correct answer is (c) Statement I is true but whether the research findings can be applied to real-
Statement II is false. world situations beyond the particular sample or
environment used in the study.
S19. Ans.(a) Information Booster:
Sol. A. "Best way to win" is written as "bau mau shau sa." • Internal Validity (Option a) refers to how well a
B. "The way to hell" is written as "tau mau sa hau." study is conducted, specifically whether it accurately
C. "Win of the day" is written as "shau fau tau dau." measures what it is intended to measure without
From these statements, we can identify the code for being influenced by other factors.
'hell': • Convergent Validity (Option b) and Divergent
In statement B, "The way to hell" is written as "tau mau Validity (Option c) are types of construct validity.
sa hau." Therefore, the code for 'hell' is 'hau.'
Convergent validity checks if measures that are
supposed to be related are actually related.
S20. Ans.(d)
Divergent validity ensures that measures that are
Sol. Easier conditions for affiliation of colleges to
not supposed to be related are indeed unrelated.
universities: This statement is incorrect. The 1904 Act
Thus, the property of data that allows research results to
actually made the conditions for the affiliation of colleges
apply to situations beyond the specific sample observed
more stringent, not easier. The Act aimed to improve the
in a single research setting is External Validity (Option
standards of education and examination in affiliated
d).
colleges, thereby raising the bar for affiliation.
E. Increase in the size of the university senate: This
S23. Ans.(a)
statement is also incorrect. The Act actually reduced the
size of university senates. The intention behind this Sol. A. LED displays are flat panel displays. This means
change was to make the senates more effective and that they are thin, lightweight, and can be mounted on a
efficient in their decision-making processes. wall or other surface.
Hence, Option (d) is correct answer. B. LED displays create images using red, green, and blue
(RGB) diodes. These diodes are arranged in a grid, and
S21. Ans.(a) each diode can be turned on or off to create a pixel. The
Sol. Assertion A states that experimental research allows color of a pixel is determined by which diodes are turned
for the elimination of the influence of many extraneous on.
factors. This is true as experimental research typically D. LED displays can be used in mobile devices such as
involves the manipulation of one or more independent smartphones and tablets. This is because they are thin,
variables and the measurement of their effect on lightweight, and have a long lifespan.
dependent variables, while controlling for extraneous Information Booster:
variables. This control is what helps in eliminating the C. LED displays are very energy efficient. They use much
influence of external factors that are not part of the less power than traditional CRT displays, and they
study. produce very little heat.
Reason R explains that in experimental research, E. LED displays are not always front-lit displays. Some
variables are actively manipulated and the environment LED displays are edge-lit, which means that the light
is controlled as much as possible. This is also true and source is located on the edge of the display panel. This
directly relates to the assertion. By actively manipulating can create a more uniform image, but it can also make the
variables and controlling the environment, researchers display more expensive.
can isolate the effects of the independent variable on the Therefore, the only statements that are true about LED
dependent variable, thus eliminating the influence of displays are that they are flat panel displays, they create
extraneous factors. Therefore, R is the correct images using RGB diodes, and they can be used in mobile
explanation of A. devices.

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S24. Ans.(a) S27. Ans.(d)
Sol. Statement I: According to NEP 2020, at present the Sol. A. Simplex (A-II): In this mode, data can only be sent
investment in research and innovation in India is only or received, not both. It is a one-way communication
<1% of GDP. This statement is true. NEP 2020 notes that mode.
India’s current investment in research and innovation is B. Duplex (B-I): In this mode, data can be sent and
significantly lower than desirable at less than 1% of GDP. received at the same time. It allows for two-way
This is a concern addressed in the policy, which
communication simultaneously.
emphasizes the need to increase investment in research
C. Half-duplex (C-III): In this mode, data can be sent and
and innovation.
received, but not at the same time. Communication is
Statement II: NEP 2020 recommends the establishment
two-way but not simultaneous.
of a National Curriculum Framework for Teacher
Education. This statement is also true. NEP 2020
proposes the creation of a new and comprehensive S28. Ans.(c)
National Curriculum Framework for Teacher Education Sol. The International Solar Alliance (ISA) primarily
(NCFTE) by 2021. The aim is to revamp teacher includes countries located between the Tropic of Cancer
education and prepare teachers to meet the and the Tropic of Capricorn. The ISA is an alliance of
requirements of a high-quality, equitable education more than 120 countries, most of them being sunshine
system. countries, which come either completely or partly
Hence, Option (a) Both statement I and statement II are between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of
true is correct answer. Capricorn. The primary objective of the alliance is to
work for efficient exploitation of solar energy to reduce
S25. Ans.(c) dependence on fossil fuels. This geographical region is
Sol. The fallacy of begging the question occurs when the
chosen because countries located in this belt receive
conclusion of an argument is simply rephrased or
abundant sunlight throughout the year, making them
assumed to be true in the premises of the argument. In
ideally suited for solar energy production.
this case, the conclusion of the argument is that capital
punishment is morally wrong, and the premise of the Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Between tropic of
argument is that it is ethically impermissible to inflict cancer and Capricorn
death as punishment for crime. However, the premise
simply rephrases the conclusion, and therefore the S29. Ans.(d)
argument is circular and does not provide any support Sol. The significance of a correlation coefficient is
for the conclusion. typically determined by its p-value. A p-value is a
measure of the probability that an observed difference
S26. Ans.(a) could have occurred just by random chance. The lower
Sol. Statement I: Exposure to noise pollution adversely the p-value, the greater the statistical significance of the
affects the physiological health of a person. This is true. observed difference.
Prolonged exposure to high levels of noise can lead to • When we say a result is "significant at the 1% level,"
various physiological health issues, including hearing
it means we are looking for a p-value that is less than
loss, sleep disturbances, cardiovascular problems, and
0.01 (which is 1% expressed as a decimal).
more.
• Examining the given p-values, r_1 has a p-value of
Statement II: Exposure to noise pollution adversely
affects the psychological health of a person. This 0.99, r_2 has a p-value of 0.999, r_3 has a p-value of
statement is also true. Noise pollution can lead to 0.05, and r_4 has a p-value of 0.005.
increased stress levels, anxiety, disturbances in mental • Among these, only r_4 has a p-value less than 0.01,
peace, and other psychological issues. making it significant at the 1% level.
Hence, the correct answer is (a) Both statement I and • Therefore, the correlation coefficient r_4 is the one
statement II are true. that is significant at the 1% level.

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S30. Ans.(d) S33. Ans.(a)
Sol. Sol. Statement I suggest that propagandic
communication at the national level does not need to
distinguish between truth and falsehood, implying that
both can be used together for propaganda purposes. This
aligns with the general nature of propaganda, which
often blends truth and falsehood to create a persuasive
narrative.
Statement II states that the mediated propaganda
process intentionally blurs the line between truth and
falsehood to be persuasive. This is a characteristic of
effective propaganda, where the distinction between
what is true and what is false is often deliberately
obscured to manipulate public perception.
S31. Ans.(d) Both statements are saying that propaganda often blends
truth and lies to persuade people. So, both statements
Sol. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
are true.
The Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) has not been
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Both statement I and
exclusively adopted in central universities; it is statement II are true.Therefore, the correct answer is (a)
implemented across a broad spectrum of universities Both statement I and statement II are true.
and educational institutions in India. CBCS is a flexible
system that allows students to choose courses from a S34. Ans.(c)
wide range of options, and it considers the learning Sol. The correct answer is (c) B, D, and E only.
outcomes when assigning credits. The allocation of Effective teaching involves a multifaceted approach that
credits in CBCS is based on the notional learning hours, goes beyond a rigid adherence to the curriculum. Good
encompassing various educational activities such as communication skills (B) are essential for conveying
lectures, tutorials, practicals, and self-study. This information clearly and fostering a positive learning
ensures that credits reflect the overall effort and time environment. Excellent subject knowledge (D) is crucial
commitment required for a student to achieve the for providing accurate and comprehensive information
learning objectives of a course. Therefore, while to students. Additionally, the ability to connect with
Statement I is inaccurate regarding CBCS students (E) is vital for creating a supportive and
engaging learning atmosphere, encouraging student
implementation, Statement II accurately captures the
participation, and addressing individual needs.
credit assignment methodology based on learning
Information Booster:
outcomes.
Teaching only what is included in the curriculum
(A) and using a rigid teaching approach (C) are not
S32. Ans.(a) considered effective strategies in contemporary
Sol. Statement I: Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are education. Effective teaching requires flexibility,
emitted from vehicles. This is true. VOCs are a group of creativity, and responsiveness to the diverse needs of
chemicals that vaporize easily and have significant vapor students. Therefore, options (A) and (C) are not included
pressures, which contribute to air pollution. Motor in the basic requirements for effective teaching.
vehicles are a major source of VOC emissions, with these
compounds being released from fuel combustion. S35. Ans.(c)
Sol. 1. 5
Statement II: Volatile Organic Compounds are emitted 2. 4 (5 - 1)
from some trees. This statement is also true. Certain 3. 7.5 (4 + 3.5)
trees and plants naturally emit VOCs as a part of their 4. 12 (7.5 + 4.5)
metabolic processes. These natural VOCs play a role in 5. 17.5 (12 + 5.5)
6. 24 (17.5 + 6.5)
plant communication and defense but can also
7. 31.5 (24 + 7.5)
contribute to the formation of ground-level ozone and
It seems like each term is obtained by adding consecutive
secondary organic aerosols. integers alternately. Let's continue the pattern:
Hence the correct answer is option (a) Both statement I 8. 31.5 + 8.5 = 40
and statement II are true. So, the next number in the series is 40.

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S36. Ans.(c) S39. Ans.(c)
Sol. The first Education Commission of India, also known Sol. The correct answer is (c) A, C, D, and E only.
as the Kothari Commission (1964-1966), recommended Collaborative learning environments offer a range of
the three-language formula. This formula included: benefits that contribute to a holistic educational
1. The regional language or the mother tongue. experience. Improved communication skills (A) are a key
2. Hindi, for non-Hindi speaking states. advantage as students engage in discussions, share ideas,
3. English, or any other modern Indian language, in and work together on projects, enhancing their ability to
Hindi-speaking states. express thoughts effectively. Increased motivation (C) is
another benefit, as collaboration often fosters a sense of
S37. Ans.(c) shared responsibility and encourages students to
Sol. Light Water Reactors (LWRs) are a type of nuclear participate in their learning actively.
reactor that use ordinary water (light water) as both a More opportunities for personal feedback (D) are
coolant and a moderator. There are two types of LWRs: provided in collaborative settings, as students can
the Pressurized Water Reactor (PWR) and the Boiling receive input not only from the instructor but also from
Water Reactor (BWR). In both types, light water peers. This enriches the learning experience by offering
performs the critical function of slowing down the diverse perspectives and constructive criticism.
neutrons produced by nuclear fission, making them Additionally, collaborative learning enhances problem-
more likely to cause further fission when they collide
solving abilities (E) by promoting teamwork and the
with the fuel's atomic nuclei. This moderation process is
exploration of different solutions through collective
essential for sustaining the nuclear chain reaction.
effort.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Which use ordinary
Information Booster:
water as moderator
Decreased understanding of different perspectives (B) is
not a benefit of collaborative learning; in fact, such
S38. Ans.(b)
Sol.The advantages of digital media are numerous, and environments aim to enhance understanding and
among the options provided: appreciation of diverse viewpoints. Therefore, option (b)
• B. People can create and distribute media content: is not included in the benefits of a collsaborative learning
This is true. Digital media has made it easier for environment.
individuals and organizations to create and share
content widely. The barrier to entry for content S40. Ans.(a)
creation and distribution is significantly lower in the Sol. Statement I, "The jar does not exist," is a statement
digital age. of current non-existence. It asserts that the jar does not
• C. The end-product can be delivered in real time: currently exist in the world.
This is also true. Digital media allows for the Statement II, "The jar will exist," refers to future
immediate delivery of content, such as streaming existence. It asserts that the jar will exist at some point
services, online news, and social media platforms. in the future. Future existence is a type of non-existence,
• D. Reproduction and distribution of information as it is something that does not currently exist.
products are less expensive: Digital media reduces Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are true
the costs associated with reproduction and statements of non-existence.
distribution compared to traditional media. Digital It is important to note that non-existence is not the same
copies can be made and distributed at a fraction of as nothingness. Nothingness is the absence of
the cost of physical copies. everything, while non-existence is the absence of
Information Booster: something specific. For example, the statement "The jar
• A. Network communication is avoided: This is not an does not exist" is a statement of non-existence, while the
advantage of digital media. In fact, digital media statement "Nothing exists" is a statement of nothingness.
relies heavily on network communication for its
operation and distribution. S41. Ans.(a)
• E. Online political involvement is of no importance: Sol. Statement I: Shareware is software that users can try
This statement is false. Online political involvement out for a trial period only, before being charged.
has become increasingly important in the digital age, This statement is true. Shareware is a type of software
as social media and other digital platforms have that is distributed for free, but users must pay for a
become crucial spaces for political discourse and license to continue using it after a certain period of time.
activism. The trial period is typically limited to a few days or
Therefore, the correct answer is B, C, D only, which are weeks, and during this time, users can fully evaluate the
true advantages of digital media. software to determine if it is worth buying.

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Statement II: Freeware is software that users can Information Booster:
download free of charge, but they cannot modify the • Print communication (Option a) typically involves a
source code in any way. delay in feedback as it requires the reader to process
This statement is also true. Freeware is a type of software the information and then possibly respond at a later
that is distributed at no cost, and users are free to use it time.
for as long as they like. However, the source code for • Broadcast communication (Option b) also does not
freeware is typically not available, which means that allow for immediate feedback since it is usually a
users cannot modify the software to suit their own needs. one-way form of communication.
This is in contrast to open-source software, which is • Top-Down communication (Option c) is a
distributed with its source code, allowing users to hierarchical form of communication where the
modify it and redistribute it. information flows from higher levels of an
Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are true organization to lower levels. This form of
communication also does not inherently involve
statements about software distribution models.
immediate feedback.
Therefore, face-to-face communication (Option d) is the
S42. Ans.(d)
correct answer.
Sol. The correct sequence of steps in a research process
is as follows: S44. Ans.(c)
• Identifying a research problem (D): This is the first Sol. Mediated persuasion, which is the process of
step where the researcher identifies what problem persuading through media channels, is influenced by
or area they wish to study or explore. various factors, including:
• Reviewing the literature (B): After identifying the • C. Media differences: Different media have different
problem, the researcher reviews existing literature characteristics and capabilities, affecting how
to understand what has already been studied and messages are delivered and received. For example,
where there are gaps in knowledge. television can use visuals and sound, whereas print
• Collecting the data (A): Once the literature review is media relies solely on text and images.
complete and the research problem is clearly • D. Audience fragmentation: With a wide array of
defined, the next step is to collect data relevant to the media channels available, audiences are more
research question. fragmented than ever. This means that messages
• Analyzing and interpreting the data (E): After data must be tailored to specific segments of the audience,
collection, the researcher analyzes and interprets each with its unique preferences and media
the data to draw conclusions. consumption habits.
• Reporting the research outcome (C): Finally, the • E. Message characteristics: The content, style, and
presentation of the message itself significantly
findings are reported and shared with the scholarly
influence its persuasive power. This includes the use
community or other stakeholders.
of visuals, language, the credibility of the source, and
Thus, the correct order is D (Identifying a research
the emotional appeal of the message.
problem), B (Reviewing the literature), A (Collecting the
• Information Booster:
data), E (Analyzing and interpreting the data), and C
• A. Extended media reach: While extended media
(Reporting the research outcome).
reach can impact the scope of persuasive efforts, it's
more about the breadth of distribution rather than a
S43. Ans.(d) direct factor in how media persuades.
Sol. Feedback is immediate in face-to-face • B. Round-the-clock communication: Similar to
communication. This type of communication allows for extended media reach, 24/7 communication is about
instant feedback and response from the listener. In face- availability rather than a direct factor in the process
to-face interactions, non-verbal cues such as body of persuasion.
language, facial expressions, and tone of voice play a Therefore, the factors that directly affect mediated
significant role in conveying and understanding persuasion are media differences (C), audience
messages, allowing for immediate clarification and fragmentation (D), and message characteristics (E),
adjustment in communication. making option (c) the correct choice.

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S45. Ans.(b) S48. Ans.(d)
Sol. Sol. Indian theatrical tradition.
The passage indicates that directors like B.V. Karanth,
K.N. Panikkar, and Ratan Thiyam have reversed the
colonial course of contemporary theatre and put it back
on the track of the great Natyashastra tradition. The
Natyashastra tradition, therefore, refers to the Indian
theatrical tradition.
S46. Ans.(a)
Sol. Becoming independent from colonial influences.
In the post-independence period, various creative fields, S49. Ans.(c)
including the modern Indian theatre, underwent a Sol. Search for traditional Indian theatre.
significant cultural renaissance. This was driven by a The passage suggests that the post-independence
desire to rediscover and reconnect with traditional roots cultural renaissance in Indian theatre involved a
as a means of establishing a distinct identity and meaningful encounter with tradition, specifically a
breaking away from the colonial legacy. Theatrical return to and discovery of tradition. This implies a focus
directors such as B.V. Karanth, K.N. Panikar, and Ratan on searching for and reconnecting with traditional
Thiyam engaged in a meaningful encounter with Indian theatre forms.
tradition to address the profound dislocation from
conventional theatrical norms imposed during the S50. Ans.(d)
colonial era. Sol. Bringing about an amalgamation of the Indian
theatrical tradition with Western realistic theatre.
S47. Ans.(d)
The directors mentioned in the passage are credited with
Sol. B and D only
having a meaningful encounter with tradition and
The passage mentions that the return to and discovery of
reversing the colonial course of contemporary theatre.
tradition was motivated by a "search for roots and a
Their theatre is described as both avant-garde and
quest for identity," highlighting the profound connection
belonging to the Natyashastra tradition, indicating a
between the reconnection with tradition and the desire
fusion of traditional Indian theatrical elements with
to establish a cultural identity in the post-independence
period. contemporary, Western-influenced avant-garde forms.

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 UGC NET Paper-I (14 June 2023 Shift 2)
Q1. The following table shows the Income (in Rs. lakh) Q3. The following table shows the Income (in Rs. lakh)
and percentage (%) profit of a company over the six and percentage (%) profit of a company over the six
years form 2017 to 2022. Based on the data in the table, years from 2017 to 2022. Based on the data in the table,
answer the questions that follow. answer the questions that follow.
Year-wise Income and Profit of Company Year-wise Income and Profit of Company

The median income of the company in the six years from

Approximately what was the average expenditure during
2017 to 2022 was
the year from 2017 to 2022?
(a) Rs.155 lakh
(a) Rs.110 lakh
(b) Rs.150 lakh
(b) Rs.130 lakh
(c) Rs.160 lakh
(c) Rs.120 lakh (d) Rs.153.33 lakh
(d) Rs.140 lakh

Q4. The following table shows the Income (in Rs. lakh)
Q2. The following table shows the Income (in Rs. lakh) and percentage (%) profit of a company over the six
and percentage (%) profit of a company over the six years from 2017 to 2022. Based on the data in the table,
years from 2017 to 2022. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow.
answer the questions that follow. Year-wise Income and Profit of Company
Year-wise Income and Profit of Company

If the percentage profit in 2021 was 25% instead of 20%

Approximately what was the expenditure in 2018? that what would have been the expenditure in that year?
(a) Rs.120 lakh (a) Rs.130 lakh
(b) Rs.160 lakh (b) Rs.148 lakh
(c) Rs.140 lakh (c) Rs.120 lakh
(d) Rs. 180 lakh (d) Rs.152 lakh

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Q5. The following table shows the Income (in Rs. lakh) Q10. Which of the following statements is logically
and percentage (%) profit of a company over the six equivalent to the statement- “No saints are materialists”?
years from 2017 to 2022. Based on the data in the table, (a) No materialists are saints.
answer the questions that follow. (b) Some materialists are saints.
Year-wise Income and Profit of Company (c) All non- materialists are non-saints.
(d) Some non- materialists are non- saints.

Q11. Given below are two statements:

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct

The positive increase in percent profit in comparison to answer from the options given below
the previous year was minimum in the year (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(a) 2018 (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(b) 2020 (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(c) 2021 (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(d) 2022
Q12. The coming together of computing,
Q6. The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers in telecommunication and media in a digital environment is
descending order is 95. Find the fourth number in the technically known as
descending order. (a) Integration
(a) 95
(b) Amalgamation
(b) 97
(c) 99 (c) Merger
(d) 93 (d) Covergence

Q7. Which of the following commissions suggested the Q13. Given below are two statements:
establishment of National Universities in India? Statement I: The concentration Chloroflurocarbons
(a) Kothari commission (CFCs) in the atmosphere has increased in the past few
(b) Radhakrishnan commission years.
(c) Knowledge commission Statements II: CFCs already present in the atmosphere
(d) Planning commission will persist for many years.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
Q8. Which of the following statements are so related that
answer from the options given below
they can neither both be true nor can they be false
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
together?
A. No saints are materialists. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
B. All saints are materialists. (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
C. Some saints are not materialists. (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
D. Some saints are materialists.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Q14. Which of the following are the requirements of
(a) A and C only good teaching?
(b) B and D only A. Responsive human environment to foster exploration
(c) A and D only B. Appropriate responsiveness to the child and the group
(d) C and D only C. Knowledge of subject matter
D. Maintaining interpersonal relationship
Q9. If South-east becomes east and North west becomes
E. Strict adherence to a rigid teaching plan.
West and all other directions are changed in the same
manner, then what will be the direction for north? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) South-west (a) A, C and E only
(b) North-west (b) A, B, C and D only
(c) South-east (c) B, D and E only
(d) North-east (d) C and E only

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Q15. Find the number that can replace question mark (?) Q21. Which of the following are features of mass
in the series given below: communication?
5, 9, 3, 11, 1, 13, –1? A. Structured institutional system
(a) –13
(b) –12 B. Complex process of reproduction
(c) 10 C. Commodification of messages
(d) 15 D. personalized way of communication
E. Space-time constraint
Q16. In which of the following sampling methods, the (a) A, B, C only
sample is also known as an accidental sample and a
(b) B, C, D only
haphazard sample?
(a) Purposive sampling (c) C, D, E only
(b) Quota sampling (d) B, D, E only
(c) Stratified random sampling
(d) Convenience sampling Q22. Arrange the following steps pertaining to
quantitative research in correct order:
Q17. The term ‘Correlation’ in mass communication
refers to the function of A. Analyze data
(a) Information gathering B. Hypothesis
(b) Socialization C. Process data
(c) Interpretation D. Findings
(d) Investigation E. Research Design
Q18. Which among the following is NOT a characteristic Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
of the closed ended questions in survey research? (a) B, C, D, E, A
(a) They allow unusual responses that the survey (b) B, E, C, A, D
researcher may not have contemplated. (c) C, D, A, B, E
(b) They are easy for interviewers and/or respondents (d) E, B, C, A, D
to complete.
(c) They reduce the possibility of variability in the
recording of answers. Q23. Given below are two statements:
(d) There is loss of spontaneity in respondents answers. Statement I: Because of technological strides in recent
times, words and times as related to communication
Q19. Arrange the stages of Piaget’s theory of cognitive have become money.
development in ascending order?
A. Concrete operational stage Statement II: The technological convergence has
B. Pre-operational stage contributed to the control of mass communication by a
C. Sensorimotor stage few corporates.
D. Formal operation stage In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: answer from the options given below
(a) B, C, D, A
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) C, B, A, D
(c) A, B, C, D (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(d) D, C, A, B (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q20. Match List I with List II
Q24. “The most effective way to increase government
revenue would be to raise the corporate income tax,
since opinion polls show wide spread support for this
approach”. Which of the following fallacies is committed
in the above statement?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) Appeal to emotion
(a) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(b) Slippery slope
(b) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (c) Appeal to inappropriate authority
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (d) Appeal to Majority

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Q25. Which of the following are codes of reception in Q29. According to Nyaya (Classical Indian School of
communication? logic) the fallacy of irregular middle is called:
A. Bystander (a) Anaikantika
B. Dominant (b) Asiddha
C. Negotiated (c) Satpratipaksa
D. oppositional (d) Badhita
E. Channel
Q30. Which one of the following is not a National Action
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Plan on climate change?
(a) A, B, C only
(a) National Solar Mission
(b) B, C, D only (b) National Mission on Indian Ocean
(c) C, D, E only (c) National Mission for Green India
(d) A, D, E only (d) National Water Mission

Q31. In a certain coding language ‘KANPUR’ is coded as

Q26.
‘JBMQTS’. How ‘BOMBAY’ will be coded in that language?
A. is a green house gas
(a) ALPCZZ
B. is a polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbon (b) APLCZZ
C. is a component in determining Air quality Index (AQI) (c) APCLZZ
D. helps in formation of Ozone (d) APLZCZ
E. is a Volatile Organic Compound (VOC)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Q32. An article is sold at a certain price by selling the
(a) A, B and C only article at 2/3 (two third) of that price, there is a loss of
(b) A, D and E only 10%. Find the gain percent at its original price.
(c) A and E only (a) 35%
(d) C, D and E only (b) 25%
(c) 33%
(d) 30%
Q27. Which of the following components are part of the
central processing unit (CPU) of the Von Neumann model
Q33. The graphical representation of a frequency
for a computer system?
distribution is called
A. Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) (a) Bar chart
B. Hard Disk Drive (HDD) (b) Line chart
C. Memory Address Register (MAR) (c) Histogram
D. Solid State Drive (SSD) (d) Pie chart
E. Control Unit (CU)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Q34. If the statements “No saints are materialists” is
(a) A and E only given as false which of the following statements could be
(b) B, C and D only immediately inferred to be true?
(c) A and C only A. All saints are materialists.
(d) A, C and E only B. Some saints are materialists.
C. Some saints are not materialists.
D. All materialists are saints.
Q28. Which assessment will be given learners during the
Choose the correct answer from the options given
course of instructions rather than after it is completed
below:
(a) Diagnostic assessment
(a) A and D only
(b) Formative assessment (b) B only
(c) Summative assessment (c) C and D only
(d) Placement assessment (d) A and B only

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Q35. Match List I with List II Q38. Which of the following affects the downloading
speed of a web page the least?
(a) Number of hyperlink in the page
(b) Number and size of images in the web page
(c) Processing power of the server computer that stores
the web page
(d) The bandwidth of Internet connection which is used
to access the web page

Q39. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Compared to word processors, simple text-
editors such as Notepad and Emacs have limited editing
features.
Statement II: Files created with simple text editors
cannot be opened with word processors.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I answer from the options given below
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (a) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (b) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (c) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
Q36. To calculate gross pay, hours are multiplied by the
hourly rate. What MS. EXCELL formula would you put in
Q40. Given below are two statements:
cell C4 and then you are able to copy that cell down to the
rest of the column C? Statement I: Mentimeter is a tool used for creating
interactive videos in education.
Statement II: Kahoot is a tool used for assessment in
education.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(b) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true.

(a) = B1*$B$4 Q41. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(b) =$B1*B4 Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R
(c) =B1*B4 Assertion A: Children are much more vulnerable than
(d) =$B$1*B4 adults to environmental toxins.
Q37. Some of the major recommendations of the Kothari Reason R: For each kilogram of body weight, children
commission on Higher education are: drink more water, eat more food and breathe more air
A. Avoid introducing new courses than adults.
B. Select teachers at the national level In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
C. Restrict the expansion of higher education answer from the options given below:
D. Provide autonomy to the universities (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
E. Abolish the continuous evaluations system of A
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C only (b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct
(b) B, D, E only exhalation of A
(c) B, C, D only (c) A is true but R is false
(d) A, D, E only (d) A is false but R is true

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Q42. Which of the following universities were response of the mind overcome by some sudden and
established in the year 1916? violent emotions. Laughter is the same sort of convulsive
A. Delhi University and involuntary movement, occasioned by mere surprise
B. Banaras University or contrast.
C. Mysore University The serious is the stress which the mind lays upon the
D. S. N. D. T woman University expectations of a given order of events and the weight
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: attached to them. When this stress is increased beyond
(a) A, B and C only its usual intensity and strains the feelings by the violent
(b) A and D only opposition of good and bad, it becomes the tragic. The
(c) A and C only ludicrous is the unexpected relaxing of this stress below
(d) B, C and D only its usual intensity, by an abrupt transposition of ideas
that takes the mind by surprise and startles it into lively
Q43. From the fourth five year plan onwards, the focus sense of pleasure.
on technical education was to According to the passage which of the following is not
(a) Improve its quality and standard true is case of tears and laughter?
(b) Encourage its unrestricted expansion in public sector (a) They are both involuntary reaction
(c) Weed out non-performing institutions (b) They are both the result of violent emotions
(d) Restrict the entry of private players into the field (c) They are both natural emotions.
(d) They are both reaction to experiences of the world
Q44. Which of the following are physical parameters to
decide the water quality? Q47. It can be inferred from the passage that the
A. pH ludicrous is most opposite to the
B. Temperature (a) Serious
C. Total Suspended Solids (TSSs) (b) Surprise
D. Hardness (c) Pleasure
E. Conductivity (d) Unexpected
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D only Q48. The author develops the passage primarly by
(b) A, B, D, E only (a) Disproving a theory
(c) C, D, E only (b) Citing authorities
(d) B, C, E only (c) Presenting counter example
(d) Defining terms
Q45. The question of whether the results of a study can
be generalized beyond the specific research context, Q49. We shed tears when
relates to A. Something is tragic
(a) Measurement validity B. Something is ludicrous
(b) Internal validity C. Something is surprising
(c) External validity D. Seriousness exceeds our expectations
(d) Ecological validity Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C and only
Q46. Man is the only animal that laughs and weeps, for (b) A and B only
he is the only animal that is struck with the difference (c) A and D only
between what things are and what they ought to be. We (d) A, B and D only
weep at what exceeds our expectations in serious
matters; we laugh at what disappoints our expectations Q50. The author implies that animals lack the ability to
in trifles. We shed tears from sympathy with real and (a) Perceive emotional changes in humans
necessary distress; as we burst into laughter from want (b) laugh or weep
of sympathy with that which is unreasonable and (c) evoke sorrow or laughter in humans
unnecessary. Tears are the natural and involuntary (d) respond strongly to external stimuli

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 Solutions
S1. Ans.(b) S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. Sol.

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. The National Knowledge Commission (NKC)
S2. Ans.(c) recommended establishing 50 new national universities
Sol. in India. The NKC was established in 2005 by former
Prime Minister Manmohan Singh. The commission's goal
was to improve India's education system

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. Statements A and D are contradictory statements,
which means that they cannot both be true and they
cannot both be false. If statement A is true, then
statement D must be false, and vice versa. For example, if
the statement "No saints are materialists" is true, then
the statement "Some saints are materialists" must be
S3. Ans.(a) false.
Sol. Statements B and C are contrary statements, which
means that they cannot both be true, but they can both
be false. For example, if the statement "All saints are
materialists" is false, then the statement "Some saints are
not materialists" may also be false.
Therefore, the only pair of statements that cannot both
S4. Ans.(d) be true nor can they be false together is A and D.
Sol.
S9. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol.

If we change the directions as described:

• South-east becomes east
• North-west becomes west
The remaining directions are changed similarly. Since
the order of the directions is being preserved, the
direction for north after the transformation would be the
new north-east.

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S10. Ans.(a) S13. Ans.(d)
Sol. The statement "No saints are materialists" is a Sol. Statement I: The concentration of
universal negative statement. This means that it is Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in the atmosphere has
making a claim about all saints and it is saying that no
increased in the past few years. This statement is false.
saints are materialists. The statement "No materialists
are saints" is also a universal negative statement and it is The concentration of CFCs in the atmosphere has been
saying that all materialists are saints. Therefore, the two declining, not increasing, in recent years. This decrease
statements are logically equivalent. is largely due to the Montreal Protocol, an international
Statement (b) "Some materialists are saints" is the treaty agreed upon in 1987, which led to the phase-out
contrapositive of the original statement, but it is not of the production and use of CFCs and other ozone-
logically equivalent. The contrapositive is always true if depleting substances. Since then, there has been a
the original statement is true, but it is not the only
significant reduction in the release of CFCs into the
logically equivalent statement.
Statement (c) "All non-materialists are non-saints" is not atmosphere.
logically equivalent to the original statement. This Statement II: CFCs already present in the atmosphere
statement is making a claim about all non-materialists will persist for many years. This statement is true. CFCs
and it is saying that no non-materialists are saints. This have a long atmospheric lifetime, ranging from 20 to over
statement is not the same as the original statement, 100 years. This means that even after their production
which is making a claim about all saints and it is saying and use have been significantly reduced, the CFCs
that no saints are materialists.
Statement (d) "Some non-materialists are non-saints" is previously emitted into the atmosphere will continue to
not logically equivalent to the original statement. This exist and impact the ozone layer for many years.
statement is making a claim about some non-materialists The correct answer is (d) Statement I is false but
and it is saying that some non-materialists are not saints. Statement II is true.
This statement is not the same as the original statement,
which is making a claim about all saints and it is saying S14. Ans.(b)
that no saints are materialists.
Sol. The correct answer is (b) A, B, C, and D only
Therefore, the only statement that is logically equivalent
to the original statement is (a) No materialists are saints. A. Responsive human environment to foster exploration:
This is crucial for creating a positive and engaging
S11. Ans.(a) learning atmosphere. A teacher should encourage
Sol. students to explore and inquire, fostering a responsive
and interactive classroom environment.
This statement is true. The decimal number 167 is equal B. Appropriate responsiveness to the child and the
to the binary number 10100111.
group: Effective teaching involves understanding the
This statement is also true. The binary number needs and abilities of individual students as well as the
11010110 is equal to the decimal number 214. dynamics of the group. Being responsive to both
Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are true. individual and group needs helps in adapting teaching
methods for better comprehension.
S12. Ans.(d) C. Knowledge of subject matter: A teacher must have a
Sol. The coming together of computing, solid understanding of the subject matter being taught.
telecommunication, and media in a digital environment
This knowledge forms the basis for effective instruction
is technically known as "Convergence." This term
describes the blending of various forms of media, and enables the teacher to answer questions, provide
communication technologies, and information systems explanations, and guide students through the learning
into an integrated network, facilitated by the digital process.
revolution. Convergence allows for the seamless sharing D. Maintaining interpersonal relationships: Building and
and interaction of content across different platforms. maintaining positive relationships with students is
Integration, amalgamation, and merger are general
crucial for effective teaching. A supportive and
terms that describe the combining of elements but do not
specifically capture the unique aspects of the digital encouraging relationship between the teacher and
blending of computing, telecommunications, and media. students enhances the learning experience and
Hence, the correct answer is (d) Convergence. contributes to a positive classroom environment.

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S15. Ans.(d) S19. Ans.(b)
Sol. The given series alternates between adding 4 and Sol. The correct order of Piaget's stages of cognitive
subtracting 8: development in ascending order is: (b) C, B, A, D
· Sensorimotor stage (C): This is the first stage,
typically occurring from birth to around 2 years old.
During this stage, infants and toddlers learn about the
world through their sensory perceptions and motor
activities.
Following this pattern, the next term in the series can be · Pre-operational stage (B): This stage usually spans
found by subtracting 8 from the last term: from about 2 to 7 years old. Children in this stage begin
−1+16= 15 to use symbols (such as language and drawings) to
represent objects, but their thinking is still egocentric
S16. Ans.(d) and lacks logical operations.
Sol. The sampling method in which the sample is also
· Concrete operational stage (A): This stage typically
known as an accidental sample or a haphazard sample is
occurs from around 7 to 11 years old. During this stage,
"Convenience sampling." In convenience sampling,
participants are selected based on their easy accessibility children begin to think more logically, understand
and proximity to the researcher. This method does not conservation, and grasp concrete concepts.
follow a structured approach to sample selection, often · Formal operational stage (D): This is the final stage,
resulting in a non-random and potentially biased sample. usually beginning around 11 years old and continuing
It's termed "accidental" or "haphazard" due to the casual into adulthood. In this stage, individuals can think
manner in which participants are chosen. Purposive,
abstractly, use hypothetical reasoning, and engage in
quota, and stratified random sampling are more
deductive thinking.
structured methods with specific selection criteria,
making (d) Convenience sampling the correct answer. So, the correct order is Sensorimotor (C), Pre-
operational (B), Concrete operational (A), and Formal
S17. Ans.(c) operational (D).
Sol.In the context of mass communication, the term
'Correlation' refers to the function of interpretation. This S20. Ans.(c)
involves the media's role in interpreting and discussing
Sol. Each item in List I is a traditional field of study in
the significance and impact of news events and
ancient Indian education, and each item in List II is the
information. This function helps the audience
understand and make sense of the information corresponding meaning or area of study:
presented to them. It goes beyond just presenting news A. Siksha: Siksha is the field of study dealing with
or information (information gathering), influencing phonetics and pronunciation. It's concerned with the
social behaviors or norms (socialization), or probing and instructions for proper articulation and intonation of
examining events or issues in depth (investigation). Vedic texts.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Interpretation.
B. Nirukta: Nirukta is the study of etymology, especially
concerning the interpretation of Sanskrit words. It deals
S18. Ans.(a)
Sol. Closed-ended questions in survey research do not with the explanation of difficult Vedic words.
allow for unusual responses that the survey researcher C. Kalpa: Kalpa is a discipline that deals with the
may not have contemplated. These questions typically procedures and rituals of religious practices. It provides
offer predefined answers, which limit the respondents' detailed instructions on performing rituals and
ability to provide unique or unexpected responses. On ceremonies.
the other hand, they are easier for interviewers and
D. Chhandas: Chhandas relates to the study of Vedic
respondents to complete, reduce variability in recording
meter. It concerns the rhythmic composition of verses, a
answers, and may lead to a loss of spontaneity in
respondents' answers due to the limited response key aspect of the Vedic scriptures.
options. Therefore, option (a) is not a characteristic of According to these matches, the correct answer is (c) A-
closed-ended questions. II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

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S21. Ans.(a) S24. Ans.(d)
Sol.Features of mass communication include: Sol. The statement commits the fallacy of appeal to
• Structured Institutional System (A): Mass majority, also known as ad populum. This fallacy occurs
communication typically involves large, organized when someone argues that something is true or good
entities like media corporations. because a majority of people believe it to be so. In this
• Complex Process of Reproduction (B): This refers to case, the statement is arguing that raising the corporate
the technical and organizational complexities income tax is the best way to increase government
involved in producing and disseminating mass revenue because a majority of people support it.
media content. However, the fact that something is popular does not
• Commodification of Messages (C): In mass necessarily make it correct. There may be other, better
communication, messages are often commodified, ways to increase government revenue that do not have
meaning they are created, packaged, and distributed majority support.
for consumption in a market-driven environment.
Information Booster: The other fallacies are not
Information Booster:
committed in this statement. Appeal to emotion occurs
Personalized Way of Communication (D) and Space-
Time Constraint (E) do not align with the traditional when someone tries to sway the audience's emotions
features of mass communication. Personalized rather than their reason. Slippery slope occurs when
communication is more characteristic of interpersonal someone argues that taking a certain action will lead to a
or direct marketing communications, and space-time series of negative consequences, even though there is no
constraint is not a defining feature of mass media, which evidence to support this claim. Appeal to inappropriate
often transcends these constraints. Hence, the correct authority occurs when someone cites an expert or
answer is (a) A, B, C only. authority who is not qualified to speak on the topic at
hand.
S22. Ans.(b) Therefore, the only fallacy committed in this statement is
Sol. B. Hypothesis - Formulating the hypothesis to be appeal to majority.
tested.
E. Research Design - Designing the research S25. Ans.(b)
methodology to test the hypothesis. Sol.The codes of reception in communication refer to the
C. Process data - Collecting and processing the data. ways in which audiences interpret and understand
A. Analyze data - Analyzing the processed data. media messages. These include:
D. Findings - Presenting the findings based on the • Dominant (B): Where the audience accepts the
analysis. intended meaning of the message.
Therefore, the sequence B, E, C, A, D correctly represents • Negotiated (C): Where the audience partly agrees
these steps in quantitative research, making option (b) with the message but also has its own
the correct answer. interpretations.
• Oppositional (D): Where the audience understands
S23. Ans.(a) the intended meaning but disagrees or opposes it.
Sol. Both Statement I and Statement II reflect accurate Information Booster: Bystander (A) and Channel (E)
observations about the impact of technology on are not typically categorized as codes of reception.
communication.
Bystander refers to someone who is present but not
Statement I: It states that due to technological
involved, and Channel refers to the medium through
advancements, words and time have become analogous
to money in communication. This is true as in the digital which communication is transmitted. Therefore, the
age, the efficient and impactful use of words and time can correct answer is (b) B, C, D only.
have significant economic implications, especially in
media, marketing, and information dissemination where S26. Ans.(b)
content and its timing can greatly influence revenue and Sol. A. Methane is a greenhouse gas: This is true. Methane
engagement. (CH_4) is a potent greenhouse gas, known for its
Statement II: This statement points out that significant impact on global warming. It has a higher
technological convergence has led to the control of mass global warming potential than carbon dioxide, although
communication by a few corporates. This is a valid it stays in the atmosphere for a shorter time.
observation as well, given that major technology and D. Methane contributes to ozone formation on a global
media companies have gained significant control over scale. This is true. The oxidation of methane is
mass communication channels and content due to their responsible for the majority of ozone formation in the
technological capabilities and infrastructures. troposphere. Methane has a much shorter atmospheric
Therefore, both statements are true, making (a) the lifetime than carbon dioxide. It absorbs much more
correct answer. energy while it exists in the atmosphere.

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E. Methane is a Volatile Organic Compound (VOC): This Information Booster:
is true. Methane is considered a VOC. VOCs are The other answer choices are also types of hetvabhasa in
compounds that have high vapor pressure and low water Nyaya logic. Asiddha means "unproved" and refers to the
solubility, and methane falls into this category due to its fallacy of unproved middle. Satpratipaksa means
chemical properties. "contradictory" and refers to the fallacy of contradictory
middle. Badhita means "contradicted" and refers to the
Hence the correct option is (b) A, D and E.
fallacy of contradicted middle.
Therefore, the only answer choice that is the Sanskrit
S27. Ans.(d) term for the fallacy of irregular middle in Nyaya logic is
Sol. In the Von Neumann model, the central processing Anaikantika.
unit (CPU) consists of several components. The correct
components that are part of the CPU include: S30. Ans.(b)
Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU): Responsible for performing Sol. The National Action Plan on Climate Change
mathematical operations (such as addition, subtraction, (NAPCC) of India outlines several missions that focus on
and logical operations) on data. the promotion of understanding, adaptation, and
Memory Address Register (MAR): Holds the memory mitigation strategies to deal with climate change. Among
address of data that the CPU needs to access. the options given:
Control Unit (CU): Manages the execution of instructions, (a) National Solar Mission: This is part of the NAPCC. The
coordinates data movement, and controls other National Solar Mission aims to promote the use of solar
energy for power generation and other uses to reduce
hardware components.
the country's dependence on fossil fuels.
Therefore, the answer is (d) A, C, and E only. The ALU,
(c) National Mission for Green India: This is a part of the
MAR, and CU are essential parts of the CPU in the Von NAPCC. The Green India Mission focuses on increasing
Neumann architecture. forest cover, combating climate change, and increasing
Information Booster: The other options (B and D) are forest-based livelihood opportunities.
not part of the CPU itself. Hard Disk Drives (HDDs) and (d) National Water Mission: This is also part of the
Solid State Drives (SSDs) are storage devices, not CPU NAPCC. The National Water Mission's goal is to conserve
components. water, minimize wastage, and ensure its more equitable
distribution both across and within states.
S28. Ans.(b) Information Booster:
Sol. The correct answer is: (b) Formative assessment (b) National Mission on Indian Ocean: This is not part of
Formative assessment is conducted during the course of the NAPCC. There is no mission under the NAPCC
instruction to provide ongoing feedback and monitor the specifically named "National Mission on Indian Ocean."
Therefore, the option that is not a part of the National
progress of learners. Unlike summative assessment,
Action Plan on Climate Change is (b) National Mission on
which is typically given at the end of a course or a
Indian Ocean
significant portion of instruction, formative assessment
is designed to shape and inform the ongoing learning S31. Ans.(b)
process. Sol. +1, - 1 pattern
· Examples of formative assessments include KANPUR’ is coded as ‘JBMQTS’
classroom discussions, quizzes, polls, short written BOMBAY is coded as ‘APLCZZ’
assignments, observations, and peer assessments. These
assessments help both teachers and students make real- S32. Ans.(a)
time adjustments to enhance the learning experience. Sol.

S29. Ans.(a)
Sol. Anaikantika is the Sanskrit term for the fallacy of
irregular middle in Nyaya logic. It is one of the five types
of hetvabhasa, or fallacies of inference, in Nyaya.
Anaikantika occurs when the middle term of an inference
is not universally related to the major term. This means
that the middle term does not always have the same
property that the major term has. As a result, the
inference is not valid.

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S33. Ans.(c) S36. Ans.(d)
Sol. A histogram is the graphical representation of a Sol.The correct formula to calculate gross pay in cell C4
frequency distribution. It is used to depict the and copy it down to the rest of the column C is
distribution of a set of continuous data points by dividing
the data into bins or intervals and showing the frequency
of observations within each bin. Unlike bar charts, which S37. Ans.(c)
represent categorical data with discrete bars, histograms Sol. The Kothari Commission, also referred to as the
National Education Commission (1964-1966), was
use adjacent bars to represent the frequency of ranges of
established by the Government of India to thoroughly
values. Line charts are typically used for showing trends
examine the Indian educational system. Its main
over time, and pie charts represent proportions of a objectives were to devise a comprehensive framework
whole. Thus, the correct answer is (c) Histogram. for education, propose regulations and policies, and
provide guidelines for the education sector in India. Led
S34. Ans.(b) by Daulat Singh Kothari, the Commission made
Sol.When the statement "No saints are materialists" is significant recommendations for higher education, such
given as false, it means that some saints are materialists. as the national selection of teachers, regulating the
This is the converse of the original statement, and it is the expansion of higher education, and granting autonomy to
only statement that can be immediately inferred to be universities.
true.
Information Booster: S38. Ans.(a)
Statement (a) "All saints are materialists" is the Sol. The number of hyperlinks in a web page has a
negligible impact on the downloading speed of the page.
contrapositive of the original statement, but it cannot be
Hyperlinks are simply pointers to other web pages, and
immediately inferred to be true. The contrapositive is they do not require much data to be downloaded.
only true if the original statement is true, but we know Information Booster:
that the original statement is false. The other answer choices have a more significant impact
Statement (c) "Some saints are not materialists" is the on the downloading speed of a web page. The number
contradictory of the statement "Some saints are and size of images in a web page can increase the
materialists". The contradictory of a statement is always download time significantly, as images require more
false if the statement is true, and it is always true if the data to be transferred than text. The processing power of
statement is false. Since we know that the statement the server computer that stores the web page can also
"Some saints are materialists" is true, we know that its affect download times. If the server is overloaded, it may
contradictory, "Some saints are not materialists", must take longer to process requests and send the web page to
be false. the user's computer. Finally, the bandwidth of the
internet connection that is used to access the web page
Statement (d) "All materialists are saints" is not related
is a major factor in download times. The higher the
to the original statement and cannot be inferred from it.
bandwidth, the faster the web page will download.
Therefore, the only statement that can be immediately Therefore, the number of hyperlinks in a web page is the
inferred to be true when the statement "No saints are least important factor in determining the downloading
materialists" is given as false is "Some saints are speed of the page.
materialists".
S39. Ans.(c)
S35. Ans.(b) Sol. Statement I is true because simple text editors
Sol. The correct answer is (b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III, then typically have fewer editing features than word
the correct matches are: processors. For example, simple text editors may not
A. Factual (II): The basic elements students must know have features such as spell checking, grammar checking,
to be acquainted with a discipline. or the ability to format text with different fonts and
B. Conceptual (IV): The inter-relationships among the styles.
Statement II is false because files created with simple
basic elements within a larger structure to function
text editors can be opened with word processors. Word
together.
processors are designed to be able to open and read a
C. Procedural (I): How to do something, methods of variety of file formats, including simple text formats like
inquiry, and criteria for using skills. plain text (TXT) and Rich Text Format (RTF).
D. Metacognitive (III): Knowledge of cognition and one’s Therefore, the only correct answer is (c) Statement I is
cognition. true but statement II is false.

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S40. Ans.(d) C. Mysore University: Mysore University was also
Sol. The correct answer is (d) Statement I is false but established in 1916, making it one of the oldest
statement II is true. universities in India.
Statement I: Mentimeter is a tool used for creating D. S. N. D. T. Women's University (Shreemati Nathibai
interactive videos in education.
Damodar Thackersey Women's University): This
This statement is false. Mentimeter is not specifically
designed for creating interactive videos. Mentimeter is a university was established in 1916 as well, and it was
tool used for creating interactive presentations and India's first women's university.
engaging the audience through live polls, quizzes, and Therefore, the correct answer is (d) B, C, and D only
other interactive features. It is more focused on audience
engagement during presentations rather than video S43. Ans.(a)
creation. Sol. From the fourth Five Year Plan onwards, the focus
Statement II: Kahoot is a tool used for assessment in
on technical education in India was to improve its quality
education.
This statement is true. Kahoot is an educational platform and standard. The main objectives of the subsequent
that allows teachers to create quizzes, surveys, and plans in the field of education, especially technical
discussions to assess and engage students in a fun and education, included enhancing the quality and relevance
interactive way. It is commonly used for formative of education at all levels. There was a growing
assessment, where teachers can gauge student recognition of the importance of producing skilled
understanding in real-time through quizzes and games. professionals who could contribute effectively to the
nation's development. The emphasis was on upgrading
S41. Ans.(a)
educational standards, modernizing curriculum,
Sol. Both Assertion A and Reason R are true, and Reason
R is the correct explanation of Assertion A: enhancing faculty skills, and improving infrastructure
Assertion A: Children are much more vulnerable than and research facilities.
adults to environmental toxins. This is true. Children's
bodies are still developing, and their detoxification and S44. Ans.(d)
immune systems are less mature than those of adults, Sol. There are three main water quality parameters to
making them more susceptible to environmental toxins. measure the quality of water: Physical, chemical and
Reason R: For each kilogram of body weight, children
biological. Physical water quality parameters include
drink more water, eat more food, and breathe more air
than adults. This is also true. Children have higher eight principle indicators: electrical conductivity,
metabolic rates, which means they consume more air, salinity, total suspended solids (TSSs), turbidity,
water, and food relative to their body weight compared temperature, color, and taste and odor.
to adults. This higher rate of consumption relative to Hence, option (d) is correct.
body size means that children have a greater exposure,
on a per kilogram basis, to any toxins present in air, S45. Ans.(c)
water, or food.
Sol.The concept of generalizing the results of a study
The reason correctly explains the assertion because the
beyond the specific research context is directly related to
higher rate of intake of air, water, and food in children,
combined with their developing bodies, leads to "external validity." External validity refers to the extent
increased vulnerability to environmental toxins. to which the findings of a study can be generalized to
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Both A and R are other settings, populations, and times. It assesses the
true and R is the correct explanation of A. applicability of the research results to real-world
scenarios. Measurement validity concerns the accuracy
S42. Ans.(d) of the measurement tools, internal validity refers to the
Sol. The universities that were established in the year
correctness of the study's design within its context, and
1916 are Banaras Hindu University, Mysore University,
and S. N. D. T. Women's University. ecological validity is a form of external validity that
B. Banaras Hindu University (Banaras University): It was focuses specifically on the naturalness of the setting.
established in 1916 by Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya. Hence, the correct answer is (c) External validity.

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S46. Ans.(b) S48. Ans.(d)
Sol. "They are both the result of violent emotions. Sol. Defining terms.
The author defines and contrasts terms such as tears
" This statement is consistent with the passage. If you
and laughter, serious and ludicrous, providing a
have a specific reason for choosing (b) as not true, please conceptual framework for understanding these
provide more details, and I'll do my best to address them. phenomena.

S49. Ans.(c)
S47. Ans.(a) Sol. A and D only
Sol. Serious. The passage suggests that tears are shed when
The passage contrasts the serious (tragic) with the something is tragic (serious) or when seriousness
exceeds our expectations.
ludicrous, indicating that the ludicrous is the unexpected
relaxation of stress, while the serious involves the stress S50. Ans.(b)
and weight attached to expectations of a given order of Sol. laugh or weep
The passage explicitly states, "Man is the only animal that
events.
laughs and weeps," indicating that laughing and weeping
are unique to humans.

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 UGC NET Commerce (07 December 2023 Shift 1)
Q1. Which one of the following is invalid for the List I List II
relationship among the agent, the sub-agent and the Asset Government securities
principal?
B. Class II. and state development
(a) Sun-agent works under the control and on the
C loans
directions of the agent
(b) Sub-agent is responsible to be agent only Asset
(c) Privity of contract exists between the principle and the C. Class III. Alternate Assests
sub-agent E
(d) Agent is responsible to the principle for the acts of the Corporate bonds/
sub-agent Asset
debentures which are
D. Class IV.
listed and rated not
Q2. Given below are two statements: G
below A
Statement I: The ordinary treasury bills that are
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
marketable and have a secondary market are issued to the
public and financial institutions. (a) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
Statement II: Ad hoc treasury bills are issued only in favour (b) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
of the Reserve Bank of India which is authorized to issue (c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
currency notes against them. (d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below: Q5. Which amongst the following methods is not a method
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. of generating sales leads in personal selling?
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(a) Referrals
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(b) Networking
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(c) Coupons
Q3. Arrange the following steps of a well planned (d) Cold calls
experiment in the sequential order.
A. Specify the treatment levels Q6. The concept product life cycle is based on which of the
B. Assign subject to groups and conduct pilot test following key assumptions?
C. Choose an experimental design suited to the hypotheses A. Profits remain stable at different stages of product life
D. Control the environmental and extraneous factors cycle
E. Select relevant variables for testing
B. Products have an unlimited life
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C, D, E, A, B C. Product sales pass through stages, each posing different
(b) A, C, D, E, B challenges, opportunities and problems to the seller
(c) E, A, C, B, D D. Product require different marketing, financial,
(d) D, C, B, A, E manufacturing, purchasing and human resource strategies
in each of the cycle stages
Q4. Match List –I with List –II E. Products have a limited life
List I List II Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given
Assert Type of below:
Classes Investments (a) B, C and D only
Equity shares of (b) A, B and C only
Asset
companies traded in
A. Class I. (c) A, C and D only
futures and options
A (d) C, D and E only
segments

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Q7. Which of the following will be clubbed into the income Q11. Which of the following are objectives of Immediate
of Mr. Q whose Income from Profession is Rs. 85,000? Payment Service (IMPS)?
A. Income from Mrs. Q’s profession, Rs. 45,000 A. To enable bank clients to use mobile instruments as a
B. Mrs. Q’s salary as a clerk, Rs,66,000 channel for accessing their bank accounts and remit funds
C. Minor son’s earned interest on deposits of money gifted B. To build the foundation for a full range of mobile based
to him by his uncle, Rs.15,000 banking services
D. Minor daughter’s earnings from sports, Rs,85,000 C. To sub-serve the goal of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in
E. Minor son’s winnings from lottery, Rs. 1,05,000 digital payments.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: D. To make payments simpler with the mobile number of
(a) A, C, D and E only the beneficiary
(b) C, D and E only E. To restrain a nation-wide payment system facilitating
(c) C and D only one-to-one funds transfer
(d) C and E only Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given
below:
Q8. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as (a) A, C, D and E only
Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R). (b) A, B, C and D only
Assertion (A): Consumes may prefer to choose the (c) B, C, D and E only
channels based on their own shopping goals as well as (d) B, A, E and D only
price, product assortment and label
Reason (R): Some consumers are unwilling “Trade-up” to Q12. In which ratio, will the remaining partners
retailers offering higher-end goods, and “Trade down” to compensate the retiring partner for a share of goodwill?
discount retailers for private. (a) Profit-sharing ratio
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer (b) Sacrificing ratio
from the options given below: (c) Gaining ratio
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct (d) Capital ratio
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct Q13. Which one of the following is the allowable deduction
explanation of A as per the Income Tax Act, 1961 in respect of
(c) A is correct but R is not correct entertainment allowance paid a government employee?
(d) A is not correct but R is correct (a) Lower of one-fourth of basic salary or Rs.5000 or
entertainment allowance received
Q9. In case of anti-competitive activities by a firm, the (b) Lower of one-fifth of basic salary of Rs.5000 or
Competition Commission of India can impose a penalty entertainment allowance received
which shall be not more than (c) Lower of one-fifth of salary or Rs.500 or entertainment
(a) Five percent of the average turnover/income of the firm allowance received
of the three preceding financial years. (d) Lower of one-fifth of salary or Rs.50 or entertainment
(b) Ten percent of the average turnover/income of firm of allowance received
the three preceding financial years
(c) Fifteen percent of the average turnover/income of firm Q14. Which of the following frameworks is considered as
of the three preceding financial years the Open International Standard for Digital Business
(d) Five percent of the average turnover/income of firm of Reporting?
the five preceding financial years (a) CSR reporting
(b) TBL reporting
Q10. The present value of future profits, the individual of (c) XBRL reporting
segment will generate over a lifetime relationship with a (d) PPP reporting
brand or firm, is known as
(a) Lifelong Value Q15. Which of the following are relavant in technological
(b) Lifetime Value innovations?
(c) Longlife Value A. Most innovations are incremental
(d) Longterm Value B. Most innovations involve the commercial utilization of
ideas
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C. Innovations cannot be explained with isoquants Q19. Which one of the following beliefs and behaviors does
D. Introduction of innovations is not stimulated by strong not characterize ‘collectivism’?
domestic rivalry and geographic concentrations (a) Relations are moral not contractual
E. The risk in introducing innovations is usually high (b) Relations take precedence over tasks
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (c) Individual opinions are independent of collective
(a) B, D and E only opinions
(d) Maintaining harmony is highly valued
(b) A, C and E only
(c) A, B and E only
Q20. Match List –I with List –II
(d) A, B and C only
List I List II
Q16. Which one of the following accounting concepts and Description Identifies Research design
conventions consider it reasonable to use the historical Exploratory
A. The time dimension I.
cost to record long-lived assets? study
(a) The entity concept B. The purpose of the study II. Statistical study
(b) Going concern convention The topical scope of the Descriptive
C. III.
(c) Materiality convention study study
(d) The periodicity convention The degree to which the
Cross-sectional
D. research question has IV.
study
Q17. Match List –I with List –II been crystallized
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
List I List II
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Remedies for (b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Features breach of (c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
contract (d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Breach of promise to Suit for
A. I.
marry injunction Q21. Sequentially arrange the following impacts of the
Part performance (as Rescission of evolving global monetary system on the economics
B. II. A. Protectionism and nationalism
much as earned) contract
Absolution from all Sue for B. Capital flows driving economic development
C. III. C. Increased world trade with limited capital flows
obligations quantum meruit
D. Expanded open economies
Mode of securing the
Vindictive E. Industrial economies increasingly open and emerging
D. specific performance of IV.
damage nations open slowly
negative terms of contract Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, D, A, C, E
Choose the correct answer from the options given below (b) C, A, D, E, B
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (c) C, E, D, A, B
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (d) E, B, D, A, C
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III Q22. Arrange the following rounds for multilateral trade
negotiations under GATT/WTO in a chronological order.
Q18. Mr. X is holding equity shares of ABC Ltd with voting A. Kennedy
power of 26 per cent Mrs. X is working in ABC Ltd at a B. Doha
C. Annecy
salary of Rs.20,000 p.m. the other income of Mr. X and Mrs.
D. Torquay
X are Rs.6,00,000 and Rs. 3,00,000 respectively. The gross
E. Tokyo
total income of Mr.X and Mrs. X are____________.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Rs. 6,00,000 and Rs.5,40,000 (a) C, D, A, E, B
(b) Rs.7,90,000 and Rs.3,00,000 (b) D, C, E, A, B
(c) Rs.6,00,000 and Rs.4,90,000 (c) B, A, E, C, D
(d) Rs.8,40,000 and Rs.3,00,000 (d) B, E, A, D, C

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Q23. In order to conduct exploratory data analysis, which Choose the correct answer from the options given below
of following are used by a researcher in the five number (a) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
summary? (b) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
A. Median (c) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
B. First quartile (d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
C. Mean
D. Third quartile Q26. SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Agreement)
E. Smallest and largest values categorizes member nations as Non-Least Developed
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Contracting States (NLDCS) and Least Developed
(a) A, C, D and E only Contracting States (LDCS). Identify the NLDSC states from
(b) A, B, D and E only the following
A. Bangladesh
(c) B, C, D and E only
B. Pakistan
(d) A, B, C and E only
C. Bhutan
D. India
Q24. Arrange the following group member’s behavior E. Sri Lanka
outcomes in a sequence as per the successive stages of Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
group building process. (a) A, B and D only
A. Eager, Anxious, Gather data about similarities and (b) A, C and E only
differences among members and keep things simple (c) E, A and B only
B. Upset and Depressed (d) E, D and B only
C. Less dissatisfied and a feeling of belongings to the group
D. confront the differences, feel angry of frustrated, lot of Q27. In International Commercial Terms (INCOTERMES),
competition and hostilities identify the one, under which the delivery of goods to the
E. Inter dependence in personal relations, tendency to get named place of destination (discharge) takes place at the
involved in and problem solving seller’s expense. Buyers assumes the cargo insurance,
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: import custom clearance, payment of custom duties, taxes
(a) A, D, C, E, B and other costs and risk.
(b) A, B, C, D, E (a) Carriage and Insurance Paid To (CIP)
(c) E, C, D, B, A (b) Cost, Insurance and Freight (CIF)
(d) B, C, E, A, D (c) Carriage Paid To (CPT)
(d) Cost and Freight (CFR)
Q25. Match List –I with List –II
Q28. Which one of the following committees has suggested
List I List II
the establishment of NBFC’s regulatory framework?
Bond (a) Raj Study Group (1975)
rates (b) Chakkravarty Committee(1985)
Description
and (c) Vaghul Committee (1987)
risk (d) Shah Committee (1992)
The interest rate
Coupon
A. I. required in the Q29. Which one of the following instruments is often used
rate
market on a bond to protect the value of a foreign currency denominated
It is obtained by transaction?
dividing annual (a) Forward contract
Yield to (b) Forward swap
B. II. coupon (stated
maturity (c) Forward hedge
interest payment) by
the bond price (d) Forward premium
It germinates and
Interest originates from Q30. Companies use _____________ when they lack financial
C. III. resources to carry out direct marketing and when they can
rate risk fluctuating interest
earn more by doing so.
rates
(a) Intermediaries
The annual coupon
Current (b) Internationalization
(state interest (c) Influencers
D. (bond) IV.
payment) divided by (d) Innovation
yield
the face value of bond

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Q31. Honeywell Inc’s move from a hierarchical Q36. As per the sub-section (8A) of Section 139 of the
management structure to a much flatter and team-based Income Tax Act, a person may furnish an updated return of
structure is a good description of which one of the his income for the previous year relevant to such
following? assessment year, within _________________ from the end of
(a) Centralization assessment year?
(b) Decentralization (a) 6 months
(c) Span of control (b) 12 months
(d) Work specialization (c) 24 months
(d) 36 months
Q32. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R). Q37. Which of following are pre-experimental designs?
Assertion (A): Persons with high self-esteem are less A. One-group pre test-post test
susceptible to influence, more confident of achieving goals B. Pre-test post-test control group
and more effective in social networking C. Quasi-experiments
Reason (R): Self-esteem manifests in several behaviours. D. Static group comparison
Persons with high self-esteem tend to report fewer E. After-only study
negative emotions than persons with low self-esteem Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
(a) D, B, C only
from the options given below:
(b) A, D, E only
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(c) A, C, E only
of A
(d) E, B, D only
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
Q38. Which of the following factors are attributed to the
(c) A is true but R is false
weakening of Indian rupee?
(d) A is false but R is true
A. Rupee payment for international trade
B. Rising cost of imports
Q33. A discrete probability distribution____________.
C. Widening trade deficit
(a) is a listing of all possible values of the random variable
(b) assigns a probability to each possible value of the D. Opening of Rupee Vostro accounts
random variable E. Rupee UPI payments for overseas transactions
(c) can assume the value between –1 and +1 Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
(d) is independent of the parameters of the distribution given below:
(a) A, B and C only
Q34. The price earning ration for firms in a certain (b) C, D and E only
industry follows the normal distribution. A firm’s price- (c) A, D and E only
earnings ration has a standardized value (Z) = 1.0 and it is (d) B, C and D only
included in the highest ____________ of firms in the industry.
(a) 99.73% Q39. The trademarks can be broadly classified into which
(b) 68.27% of the following categories?
(c) 15.87% A. Descriptive
(d) 34.13% B. Normative
C. Generic
Q35. Every seller who receives an amount D. Explanatory
exceeding__________ as consideration for sale of a motor E. Invented
vehicle, shall collect tax @1% of the sale consideration Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given
from the buyer at the time of receipt of such an amount. below:
(a) Rs. 25 lakhs (a) A, B and D only
(b) Rs. 15 lakhs (b) D, E and C only
(c) Rs. 10 lakhs (c) B, C and E only
(d) Rs. 50 lakhs (d) C, A and E only

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Q40. When a target company makes a counter bid for the Q44. In one-factor ANOVA, the computed F-value will be
stock of the bidder, the defensive strategy in reference is negative:
called? (a) when there is no difference in the treatment of means.
(a) Greenmail (b) when there is no difference within treatments.
(b) Poison pill (c) when SST (total variance) is larger than SSE (error
(c) Pacman defense variance)
(d) Golden parachute (d) under no circumstances

Q41. Arrange the following steps in the investigation Q45. Match List –I with List –II
process of combinations by the Competition Commission List I List II
of India in the correct order. Costs
A. Call for a report from the Director General Activity
incurred
B. Invite and person, affected parties to file written Based
and
objections Cost
accounted
C. Direct the parties of combination to publish details of the Centers
for
combination
Unit-level Patent,
D. Call for additional information from the parties of the
A. activity I. trademark and
combination
center copyright fees
E. Issue a notice for show-cause to the parties of the
Batch
combination
level Direct material
Choose the correct answer from the option given below: B. II.
activity and labour costs
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) E, A, C, B, D center
(c) B, A, C, D, E Plant
Product
(d) C, A, D, E, B depreciation
level
C. III. and
activity
Q42. Which of the following managerial actions are maintenance
center
followed to reduce resistance to change? expenses
A. Education and communication are strong tools for Facility
resistance to change level Material
D. IV.
B. Allows participation to those who oppose a change to activity handling costs
participate in decision making center
C. Negotiation may become vital when resistance comes Choose the correct answer from the options given below
from a powerful source (a) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
D. Employee counseling does not serve the purpose (b) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
E. Coercion can be used to get support easily (c) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (d) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only Q46. Place the following service differentiators in a logical
(c) B, C and E only sequence:
(d) A, C and D only A. Speed and timing of delivery
B. Maintenance and repair
Q43. Which one of the following concepts measures the C. Returns
amount of capital that the firm can give up by using one D. Installation, training and consulting
additional unit of labour and still remain on the same E. Ease of ordering
isoquant? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution (a) E, D, B, C, A
(b) Economic Trade-off Region (b) E, A, D, B, C
(c) Diminishing Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution (c) E, D, A, C, B
(d) Diminishing Marginal Utility (d) E, C, A, B, D

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Q47. For Forigen Direct Investment, it is argued that a Q50. Which of the following are the reasons for
location in question attracts FDI because it combines the substitution between domestic and MNC goods?
unique advantage of which of the following conditions? A. Increased knowledge of foreign products due to
A. Internalization Advantage international information revolution
B. First Mover Advantage B. No need to conduct advertising campaigns
C. Knowledge Advantage C. Transportation costs having fallen to very low levels for
most products
D. Ownership Advantage
D. Restricted international travel
E. Location Advantage
E. Testes are consistent at the global level
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Choose the correct answer the options given below:
(a) E, A and C only (a) A and C only
(b) E, A and D only (b) D and E only
(c) C, B and D only (c) C and D only
(d) C, E and D only (d) A and B only

Q48. The earning per share for Avanti corporation is Q51. _______________ is a marketing term for any design to
Rs.4.0. The rate of return on investments is 16 per cent and prompt an immediate response or encourage an
the return by its shareholders is 12 percent. What will be immediate sale.
the price share as per the Walter model, if the payout ratio (a) Call for Promotion
is 40 per cent? (b) Call for Activity
(a) Rs. 24 (c) Call to Action
(d) Call to Aspiration
(b) Rs.36
(c) Rs.40
Q52. Which one of the follo` ` wing digital payment systems
(d) Rs.72 is developed and managed by the National Payments
Corporation of India?
Q49. Match List –I with List –II (a) Paytm
List I List II (b) Bhartpay
Exemptions of (c) Mastercard
capital gains (d) RuPay
Assets
Sections 54-
Transferred Q53. The sequential stages of moral development in
54 EC Income
business organisations are characterized by:
Tax Act
(a) Conceptualized disposition, consistency and harmony,
Agricultural Section
A. I. principled oriented
Land 54 B (b) Consistency and harmony, conceptualized disposition,
Residential Section principled oriented
B. II.
House 54 EC (c) Principled oriented, conventional and preconventional
Land of (d) Preconventioal, conventional, principled oriented
Section
C. Building or III.
54 D
Both Q54. Which of the following are consider as the limitations
Land and of Cost-Volume-Profit analysis?
Building A. Constant selling price regardless of sales volume
forming part Section B. Firm efficiency and productivity are constant and the
D. IV. costs are liner
of an 54
C. Margin of safety is constant at varied levels of sales
industrial
D. Sales mix and inventory levels are constant
undertaking
E. Profit is constant at varied levels of sales price
Choose the correct answer from the options given below Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (a) A,B and C only
(b) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (b) B, C and D only
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (c) C, D and E only
(d) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (d) A, B and D only

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Q55. Effective mentoring required trust and the level of Q59. In a certain population, 22% of people are smokers,
trust reflects the montor’s 57% of people are males and 12% males are smokers. If a
(a) Competence, consistency, communication abilities and person is chosen at random from the population, what is
control sharing readiness that probality that selected person is either a male or a
(b) Concerned, cooperativeness, communication abilities smoke?
and coordination skills (a) 0.79
(c) Competence, consistency, complexity and (b) 0.22
communication abilities (c) 0.45
(d) Communication abilities, competence, concerned (d) 067
behavior, control sharing readiness
Q60. Which one of the following are disposed to promote
Q56. Which one of the following statements does not financial inclusion?
supports the concept of third degree price discrimination? (a) Poor quality of services rendered
(a) The firm must have monopoly power (b) High transaction costs
(b) This type of price discrimination is most likely to occur (c) Universal access to financial services
in the manufacturing industries (d) Lack of trust in the system
(c) The firm must be able to keep the two markets separate
(d) The price elasticity and demand for the commodity Q61. A charitable trust (registered under section 12 AB of
must be different in the two markets the Income Tax Act) is registered under GST in New Delhi.
It Provided yoga training to middle-aged people, coaching
for Basket-ball to teenagers and skill development services
Q57. By reducing the sales price from Rs.80 per unit to
Rs.78 per unit, the sales manager has succeeded in selling to persons over the age of 65 years residing in New Delhi
in the month of July. This trust is liable to pay GST on:
1000 units more of a product.
(a) Yoga training
Which of the following decisive conclusions can be drawn
(b) Skill-development services
from this?
(c) Coaching for basket-ball
A. Sales price variance is unfavourable
(d) Coaching for basket-ball and Yoga training
B. Sales volume variance is unfavourable
C. Total sales variance is unfavourable
Q62. Identify the source of oligopoly which is also
D. Sales activity variance is Rs.80000 (favourable)
application to monopoly firms:
E. Sales price variance is Rs. 2000 (unfavourable)
(a) Economies of scale may operate over a small range of
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
outputs
(a) A, B and C only
(b) Huge capital investments and specialized inputs are
(b) C, D and E only
required to enter the market
(c) A, B and D only (c) Large firms may own a patent for the exclusive right to
(d) B, D and E only produce a commodity
(d) New firms have chances to win customer loyalty
Q58. Which of the following are relevant in deciding
among different courses of action, the manager needs to Q63. Match List –I with List –II
consider the differential revenue and costs of alternatives?
List I List II
A. Opportunity costs and economic profits
Types of
B. Fixed and Sunk Costs Description
Effect
C. Marginal Revenue and Marginal Cost
Veblen
D. Incremental and marginal costs A. I. Conspicuous consumption
effect
E. Economies and dis-economies of scale
Reduction in relative price of
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: B. Snob effect II.
commodity
(a) A and D only
Bandwagon
(b) B and C only C. III. Negative network externality
effect
(c) D and E only
Substitution
(d) A and B only D. IV. Positive network externality
effect

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below Q68. Given below are two statements:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV Statement I: For a given sample size and level of
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I significance (𝛼), the critical value of Student’s always
(c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I exceeds that of z
(d) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II Statement II: For a given level of significance (𝛼), the
critical value of Student’s increases as n increases.
Q64. Channel power is the ability to alter channel In light of the above statements, choose the most
members’ behavior so that they take actions they would appropriate answer from the options given below:
not have taken otherwise. From the following channel (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
powers, list the ones which are subjective in nature. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
A. Legal Power (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
B. Coercive Power (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
C. Expert Power
D. Referent Power Q69. Which one of the following consists of physical
E. Reward Power working conditions, work schedule, incentives and the
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: number of people with whom the employee would
(a) D, A and C only normally intract?
(b) D, A and B only (a) Joh profile
(c) A, B and E only (b) Job content
(d) A, C and E only (c) Jon context
(d) Job specification
Q65. When a country’s currency is accepted as a reserve
currency, the potential conflict may arise between which of Q70. Which of the following are deemed to be dividend for
following policy objectives? the purpose of computing income chargeable under the
A. Domestic monetary policy head, Income from other sources, a per the Income Tax Act,
B. Domestic fiscal policy 1961?
A. Payment on buy-back of shares
C. External currency policy
B. Payment to shareholders on reduction of capital
D. Foreign trade policy
C. Distribution of debentures to shareholders
E. Inland trade policy
D. Loan granted to shareholders in the ordinary course of
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
business
(a) A, B and C only
E. Loan granted to shareholders by a closely held company
(b) A, C and D only
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(c) B, D and E only
(a) B and C only
(d) C, D and E only
(b) B, C and E only
(c) A, B and C only
Q66. _____________ takes into account a host of inputs, such
(d) A and C only
as buyer’s image of the product performance, the channel
deliverables, the warranty quality, customer support and
Q71. Match List –I with List –II
softer attributes such as the suppliers reputation, trust
List I List II
worthiness and esteem.
(a) Target rate-of-return pricing Management
Approach Dimensions
(b) Auction-type pricing Thinkers
(c) Economic-value-to-customer pricing Position power, Task
(d) Competitive pricing A. Kurt Lewin I. structure, Leader member
relations
Q67. Which one of the following is an exception to the Authority and Responsibility,
Fred E
doctrine of Constructive Notice. B. II. Unity of command, Scalar
Fiedler
(a) Doctrine of Subrogation chain
(b) Doctrine of Ultra Vires Power, Affiliation,
C. Henri Fayol III.
(c) Corporate Veil Achievement
(d) Turquand Rule David C. Unfreezing, Moving,
D. IV.
McClelland Refreezing

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below D. Preparation and filing of red herring prospectus with the
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV SEBI for approval
(b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III E. Allotment and listing of shares on stock exchange(s)
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(d) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (a) C, D, B, A, E
(b) D, C, A, B, E
Q72. Which of the following are functions of the Reserve (c) A, B, C, D, E
Bank of India? (d) B, C, D, E, A
A. Bank of issue
B. Banker’ bank and lender of the last resort Q76. Match List –I with List –II
C. Regulator of fiscal policy List I List II
D. Controller of credit
FDI
E. Custodian of foreign exchanger reserves Nature
Permitted
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given of
under
below: Business
Automatic
(a) A, B, C and D only Activity
Route
(b) A, B, D and E only
Trading in
(c) B, C, D and E only
Transferable
(d) A, B and D only A. I. 49%
Development
Right (TDR
Q73. Which of the following theories of capital structure
articulates that firm borrows up to the point where the fax Multi-Brand
B. II. Prohibited
benefit extra debt is exactly equal to the cost that comes Trading
from the increased probability of financial distress? Satellite
(a) The static theory C. (Establishment III. 51%
(b) Net income approach and Operations)
(c) Modigliani-Miller theory Petroleum
(d) Net operating income approach D. Refining (by IV. 100%
PSUs)
Q74. ____________ as defined under the Foreign Trade Policy Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(FTP), implemented by Director General of Foreign Trade (a) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
has the main aim to “mentor new and potential exporters (b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
on the intricacies of foreign trade through counselling, (c) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
training and outreach programmes” so that they can get (d) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
into international trade.
(a) Niryat Bharat Scheme Q77. Emotional appeal is one of the types of advertising
(b) Niryat Bandhu Scheme appeals, based on three ideas, namely
(c) Niryat Benefit Scheme A. Rational appeal general go unnoticed
(d) Niryat Border Scheme B. Consumers watch all ads
C. It can capture attention and foster an attachment
Q75. Arrange the steps in the book building process for D. Consumers ignore most ads
public issue of shares in India. E. Rational appeal generally gets noticed
A. Determine issue price, market clearing price and price Choose the correct answer from the options given below
discovery (a) C, E and D only
B. Book runner and syndicate members generate (b) C, E and B only
awareness, create demand and run the order book (c) C, A and D only
C. Appointment of the merchant banker and syndicate (d) C, A and B only
members (SEBI register intermediaries) as underwriters

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Q78. Match List –I with List –II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
List I List II (a) A, B and C only
Concepts (b) C, D and E only
Definition (c) B, C and E only
(Targeting)
Reflects the (d) A, C and D only
ability of a
Q80. Arrange the following in the ascending order of
market
application TDS (Tax deducted at source) rates for the
segment to
Target Financial Year, 2023-24.
A. I. create
Compatibility A. Payment of Rs.6,55,000 rent by an individual in a year
superior
B. Payment of Rs.20,000 on winnings from horse races
value for
C. Payment of Rs.8,000 as dividend by cheque
the
D. Payment of Rs.35,000 to an individual contractor for
company
repair by university
A reflection E. Payment of Rs.38,000 as fees for professional and
of the technical services by a call center
company’s Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Tactical ability, to (a) A, B, C, D, E
B. II.
Targeting create (b) D, E, A, C, B
superior (c) E, d, C, B, A
customer (d) A, E, C, D, B
value
Focuses on Q81. Which of the following rations are critically
customizing significant for an investor
company’s A. Debt-Equity ration
Target offering B. Price-Earning ration
C. III.
Attractiveness according to C. Dividend yield
the D. Asset turnover ration
customer’s E. Debtor turnover ration
needs Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ways in (a) A, B and C only
which the (b) D and E only
company (c) B, C and D only
Strategic (d) A, D and E only
D. IV. can reach
Targeting
strategically
important Q82. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
customers Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer from the options given below Assertion (A): A promoter, invariable is the one who has
been associated with formation of the company
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Reason (R): A promoter is the one who undertakes to form
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
a company with reference to a given object and who takes
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
necessary steps to accomplish that purpose
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
Q79. Which of the following are constituents of the
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
trilemma of international finance?
of A
A. Fixed exchange rate
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
B. Independent monetary policy
explanation of A
C. Free mobility of capital (c) A is true but R is false
D. Global recessionary tendency (d) A is false but R is true
E. Rising inflationary conditions

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Q83. The exporting firm is termed ‘rider’ where the other Q87. Luxmi industries issued shares of Rs.1000 at a
firm with an established distribution channel in the target premium of Rs.10 per share, payable Rs.20 on application,
country is termed as ‘Carrier’. Rs.35 allotment (including premium) and the balance on
This phenomenon is known as: the first and final call. Mr.X who held 200 shares has paid
(a) Counter Trade only the application money and these shares were
(b) Barter subsequently forfeited by the company. In this regard, by
(c) Piggy Backing which amount share forfeiture account will be credited?
(d) Switch Trading (a) Rs.4000
(b) Rs.2000
Q84. Arrange the following SBI-sponsored RRBs in an (c) Rs.3000
increasing order of their existence since formation (d) Rs.200
A. Rajasthan Marudhara Gramin Bank
B. Telangana Gramin Bank Q88. which of the following are considered while avoiding
C. Sausashtra Gramin Bank conflict?
D. Madhyachal Gramin Bank A. Conflict based on interpersonal relationships
E. Arunachal Pradesh Rural Bank B. All conflict are not bad and can be taken positively
Choose the correct answer from the option given below: C. Conflict over content and goals of the work
(a) A, D, B, E, C D. Conflict do not support a group’s goal and improve its
(b) C, E, D, A, B performance
(c) B, A, C, E, D E. Conflict over how work gets done
(d) D, E, A, B, C Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
Q85. Which of the following can become the member of an (b) A, B and E only
LLP? (c) A, C and E only
A. Resident Indians (d) B, C and D only
B. Limited Liability Partnership
C. Corporation Sole Q89. Arrange the following in a sequence with regard to
D. Co-operative society price leadership sustainability?
E. Companies (including foreign companies) A. Small firms in the industry are allowed to sell all they
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options want at that price
given below: B. Dominant firm acts act the residual supplier of the
(a) A, B and C only commodity
(b) A, C and D only C. The dominant firm sets the price for the commodity that
(c) A, B and D only maximized its profits
(d) A, E and B only D. Small firms in the industry behave as price takers
E. Dominant firm then comes into fill the market
Q86. Which are the states where every supplier of goods Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
and/or services is required to obtain registration if his (a) A,B, C, D, E
aggregate turnover exceeds the threshold limit of Rs.20 (b) E, D, C, B, A
lakh for supply of goods and/or services? (c) A, C, B, D, E
A. Arunachal Pradesh (d) C, A, E, B, D
B. Meghalaya
C. Manipur Q90. Which one of the following statements is the most
D. Mizoram relevant to the substitution effect?
E. Sikkim (a) In the real world, substitution effect is much larger than
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options the income effect
given below: (b) Most of the goods are not reasonable substitutes
(a) B, C and A only (c) In reality, the income effect represents its
(b) C, D and E only predominance over the substitution effect
(c) E, B and A only (d) Substitution and income effects cannot be separated
(d) All of the above easily

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Direction (91-95): Read the given passage and answer Q92. Match List –I with List –II
the questions that follow List I List II
For most of its existence as a modern field of study since
Phenomenon Reasons
the 18th century, economics has fared reasonably well at
explaining consumer and producer behavior. It explained Better
why buyers choose the products they do, how markets Economics understanding
A. I.
discover the most efficient prices. This changed with the defines of aggregate
Great Depression, when aggregated variables came into variables
play that needed a better understanding than an Learning GDP,
assumption that markets return to equilibrium after B. of Great II. Employment,
shocks. Thus came into existence macroeconomic, the Depression and Inflation
most dismal aspect of the dismal science. Economics has Human beings
since diversified into quite a few other branches, such as
Macro- are rational
those employing statistics and psychology, but most of its
C. economic III. and
disrepute originates from its failure to predict financial
crises. variables information is
‘macro’ by its very nature-dealing with GDO, employment, free
inflation and other important but soporific and How markets
Pitfalls of
parameters,-is headline-grabbing stuff. Governments come discover the
D. Micro IV.
into play here, as do international relations. Yet, macro most efficient
eludes the scientific method of testing hypotheses with economics
prices
repeated experiments: one can’t conceivably wreck an Choose the correct answer from the options given below
economy to establish the effects of shock. Instead,
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
macroeconomists can only back-test their models against
(b) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
data may be questionable provenance. This makes
prediction of the next stock market crash forever (c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
embarrassingly less exact than the return of Halley’s (d) a-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Comet.
Microeconomics, the reputable part of the endeavor, Q93. Which one of the following is the reason, as per the
suffers from fewer limitations to controlled parameter given passage, for crises economic modelling?
experiments and delivers less equivocal insights. The (a) Aggregating billions of micro truths into one macro
explosion of commerce in the modern world owes itself in truth
no small measure to predicting actions by the smallest (b) Only equalization factors are considered in economic
economic insights. Agents: humans. Here, too, heroic models
assumptions are made, the foremost being that human
(c) Economic activities are not sufficient to study the macro
beings are rational and information is free. The crisis in
environment
economic modelling arises from aggregating billions of
micro truths into one macro truth. Models are improving, (d) Human beings behave irrationally
so are quantitative capabilities, and the qualitative
judgements that drive macro policy will become more Q94. Which of the following ,as per passage, are the major
refined. contribution of economics?
A. Buyers behavior towards the products
Q91. Which of the following is the reason, as per the B. Firm’s behaviors for maximizing profit
passage, for driving more effective macro policies? C. Retailers behavior to maximize sale
(a) Assumption that markets return to equilibrium after D. Market behavior to the most efficient prices
shocks E. Stakeholder’s behaviors to maximize wealth
(b) Improved economic models are capable to understand
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
qualitative and quantitative factors
(a) A, B and D only
(c) Economics has fared reasonably well during financial
crises. (b) A, B and C only
(d) Every small measure is not capable to predict economic (c) B, D and E only
outcomes (d) A, B and E only

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Q95. Given below are two statements: This revolution has been largely possible because of Gol's
Statement I: Macroeconomists can only back-test their thrust towards attracting capital. The frameworks of
models against data that may be questionable provenance. alternative investment funds (AlFs), GIFT City IFSC,
Statement II: Macroeconomic variables elude the scientific Startup India programme and budget allocations, coupled
method of testing hypotheses with repeated experiments with progressive amendments such as GST and India Stack
In light of the above statements, choose the most have made India an attractive destination for investment
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. Q96. According to the passage, which of the following is
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. now being accepted as a way of life and livelihood?
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (a) PE/VC ecosystem
(b) Risk and uncertainly
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(c) Innovation and achievement
(d) Entrepreneurship
Direction (96-100): Read the given passage and
answer the questions that follow
Q97. Which of following, according to the passage, have
Over $350 billion of private capital has been deployed over
made India and attractive destination for investments?
the last decade, which has propelled more than 5,000 A. Startup India program
enterprises. These new businesses are anchored in B. Make in India program
innovative business models combining the full potential of C. Goods and services Tax facilitation
technology, facilitating every Indian to fulfil their D. Alternative Investment funds
aspirations. E. Standup India program
The big shift in the last decade is the reimagination of India Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
as an addressable market of 300 million households, a given below:
massive shift from only 20 million households in tier-1 (a) A, B and C only
cities earlier. This has been propelled by the strong (b) A, C and D only
partnership between entrepreneurs and the PE/VC (c) A, D and E only
ecosystem The share of FDI funnelled into PE/VC has (d) C, D and E only
surged to 50-60%, up from 20-30% two decades back.
Besides the tremendous focus on value creation, the PE/VC Q98. The principles of responsible investing to which
industry has brought about multidimensional progress in private equity and venture capital industry is committed
the economy. The principles of responsible investing that have resulted in which of the following outcomes for the
this industry is committed to have enabled the building of Indian economy?
a more equitable, inclusive economy, and one that has A. Democratic decentralization
earned the trust of large global investors as an attractive B. Balanced regional growth
investment destination. C. Inclusive and equitable economy
D. Larger export orientation
The PE/VC ecosystem sparked a renaissance, empowering
E. Earned the trust of global investors
young minds to take a bold leap. This led to a change in
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
mindset where entrepreneurship is now an accepted
(a) B and C Only
livelihood and, , a proud way of life. Today, startups and
(b) A and D Only
new businesses are celebrated, and many are giving up
(c) C and E Only
established careers to follow their heart, with families (d) B. C and D Only
standing as stalwart supporters of entrepreneurship. The
proportionality of risk and reward has been embraced, Q99. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
forging a harmonious relationship between uncertainly Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
and achievement. Assertion A: The private equity and venture capital
Stories at home and those that went global are a testament ecosystem has sparked a renaissance, empowering young
to the power of partnerships between the capital provider minds to take a bold leap
and entrepreneurs. Transforming a large democracy to be Reason R: Today, startups and new business are celebrated
self-reliant, and elevating over a billion people to a new and many are given up their established careers to follow
world of greater aspirations and confidence. their heart, with families standing as stalwart supporters.
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In the light of the above statements, choose the correct (d) A is false but R is true.
answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation Q100. In the recent years, the focus of private equity and
venture capital in India, has been on
of A.
(a) Self-reliance
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(b) Job creation
explanation of A (c) Inclusive growth
(c) A is true but R is false (d) Value creation

Solutions
S1. Ans.(c) S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. Privity of contract does not exist between the principal Sol. Select relevant variables for testing (E): This is the
and the sub-agent, which makes option (c) incorrect. first step, where you determine what variables are relevant
Privity of contract exists between the principal and the to test according to your research question or hypothesis.
agent, and between the agent and the sub-agent, but not 1. Specify the treatment levels (A): Once the variables
directly between the principal and the sub-agent unless the are selected, the next step is to specify what treatments
principal expressly consents. This is because the sub-agent or conditions these variables will undergo in the
is appointed by and acts under the control of the agent, not experiment.
directly under the authority or instruction of the principal. 2. Choose an experimental design suited to the
Information Booster: hypotheses (C): After defining the variables and their
• Option (a) and (d) are valid as the sub-agent acts treatments, you select an appropriate experimental
under the agent's direction and the agent remains design that will allow you to test your hypotheses
responsible for the sub-agent's acts to the principal. effectively.
• Option (b) is also valid as the sub-agent's 3. Assign subjects to groups and conduct a pilot test
accountability is primarily towards the agent who (B): With your design in place, you can then assign
appointed them, not directly to the principal. subjects to different groups or treatment conditions.
Conducting a pilot test at this stage helps identify any
S2. Ans.(a) potential issues before the full-scale experiment
Sol. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. Ordinary begins.
treasury bills, also known as regular or marketable
4. Control the environmental and extraneous factors
treasury bills, are indeed issued to the public and financial
(D): Finally, it's essential to control for any
institutions, and they have a secondary market where they
environmental or extraneous variables that could
can be traded. This ensures liquidity and marketability for
affect the outcome of your experiment. This step
investors. Ad hoc treasury bills, on the other hand, are
ensures the validity and reliability of your
issued only to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI
experimental results.
uses these bills to manage the government’s short-term
liquidity needs and can issue currency notes against them. Following this analysis, the correct sequence of steps is:
Therefore, both statements correctly describe the nature • Select relevant variables for testing
and purpose of ordinary and ad hoc treasury bills • Specify the treatment levels
respectively. • Choose an experimental design suited to the
Information Booster: hypotheses
1. Ordinary Treasury Bills: These are short-term debt • Assign subjects to groups and conduct a pilot test
instruments issued by the government to meet its • Control the environmental and extraneous factors
immediate financial requirements. They are Therefore, the correct answer is: (c) E, A, C, B, D
marketable and can be traded in the secondary market,
providing liquidity to investors. S4. Ans.(a)
2. Ad hoc Treasury Bills: These are special types of Sol. Asset Class A - I: Equity shares of companies traded in
treasury bills issued only to the RBI. They are used for futures and options segment - Asset Class A is matched
government borrowing and liquidity management. The with investments in equity shares that are traded in futures
RBI can issue currency notes against these bills, and options segments. This is a fitting match as equity
ensuring that the government has sufficient funds for shares represent ownership in companies and often form
its operations. the backbone of aggressive investment portfolios. Futures
and options trading adds a layer of complexity and risk
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management to equity investing, suggesting that Asset Information Booster:
Class A is intended for dynamic and possibly more • Options (a), (b), and (d) are all valid methods for
speculative investments. This classification targets generating leads in personal selling. Referrals leverage
investors who are familiar with and capable of navigating existing relationships, networking expands
the higher volatility and potential returns offered by such professional contacts, and cold calls involve direct
markets. communication to initiate sales opportunities.
Asset Class B - IV: Corporate bonds/debentures which are
listed and rated not below A - Asset Class B is associated S6. Ans.(d)
with corporate bonds and debentures that are listed and Sol. The product life cycle theory holds that products have
have a minimum rating of 'A'. Corporate bonds are debt a limited life (E), sales pass through distinct stages (C), and
securities issued by corporations to raise capital. Bonds each stage presents unique challenges and requires
rated 'A' are considered upper-medium grade and are different strategies across various business functions
subject to low credit risk. This match positions Asset Class including marketing, financial management, and human
B as a safer, income-generating investment suitable for resources (D). The key here is recognizing that the life of a
conservative investors seeking stable returns with product is finite, and its journey through introduction,
moderate risk. It reflects a strategic choice for risk-averse growth, maturity, and decline stages necessitates tailored
investors focused on capital preservation and steady
strategies to manage the challenges and opportunities of
income.
each stage effectively.
Asset Class C - II: Government securities and state
development loans - Matching Asset Class C with
S7. Ans.(d)
Government securities and state development loans is
Sol. To determine which incomes will be clubbed with Mr.
quite straightforward. These instruments are among the
Q's income, it's essential to understand the relevant tax
safest investment options available, as they are backed by
laws pertaining to the clubbing of incomes under the
the full faith and credit of the issuing government. This
Indian Income Tax Act. Here’s an explanation for each
category attracts investors who prioritize security and
scenario:
stability over high returns. It's an excellent match for a
A. Income from Mrs. Q’s profession, Rs. 45,000
classification that caters to risk-averse individuals or
• Not Clubbed: The income earned by Mrs. Q from her
entities, such as pension funds or conservative personal
profession is her independent income and will not be
portfolios.
clubbed with the income of Mr. Q unless it is proven
Asset Class D - III: Alternate Assets - Asset Class D is aligned
with Alternate Assets, which include investments outside that the income was substantially facilitated by Mr. Q's
of traditional stocks, bonds, and cash. Examples include finances.
real estate, commodities, private equity, and hedge funds. B. Mrs. Q’s salary as a clerk, Rs. 66,000
This match is appropriate for a category aimed at • Not Clubbed: Similar to A, salary income earned by
diversification and potentially higher returns at increased Mrs. Q from employment as a clerk is considered her
risk levels. Alternate Assets can offer unique benefits not own income and is not subject to clubbing with Mr. Q’s
correlated with traditional markets, providing income.
opportunities for portfolio enhancement and risk C. Minor son’s earned interest on deposits of money
management. This classification is suitable for more gifted to him by his uncle, Rs. 15,000
experienced investors or those with specific investment • Clubbed: Income earned by a minor child is generally
needs that traditional assets cannot fulfill. clubbed with the income of the parent whose total
income (excluding the child's income) is higher. This is
S5. Ans.(c) applicable unless the income is on account of manual
Sol. Coupons are generally used as promotional tools to work done by the minor or from an activity involving
encourage purchases and are not used to generate sales his skill, talent, or specialized knowledge and
leads in personal selling. Referrals, networking, and cold experience.
calls are all common methods used in personal selling to D. Minor daughter’s earnings from sports, Rs. 85,000
generate leads. Referrals involve leveraging existing clients • Not Clubbed: Income earned by a minor from skills,
or contacts to gain new ones, networking involves talents, or specialized knowledge and experience like
connecting with potential clients in various settings, and sports is not clubbed with the income of the parents. It
cold calls involve contacting potential clients directly is considered the result of the child's own efforts and
without prior interaction. ability.
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E. Minor son’s winnings from lottery, Rs. 1,05,000 S11. Ans.(b)
• Clubbed: Section 64(1A): Clubbing of Income of Minor Sol. IMPS aims to facilitate real-time payments through
Child (Less than 18 years) Any money received by a mobile devices, contribute to the expansion of mobile and
minor kid is combined and given to one or both of his electronic payment services as envisioned by the RBI, and
or her parents, whose income (without including the simplify payments using the beneficiary’s mobile number,
income from minor children) is higher which aligns with options A, B, C, and D. The option E's
• Based on these explanations, the correct answer mention of restraining a system seems out of context and
regarding which incomes will be clubbed into the contradictory to the objectives of IMPS, which aims to
income of Mr. Q is:
enhance and not restrain payment systems.
(d) C and E only
S12. Ans.(c)
S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. Assertion (A): Consumers may prefer to choose the Sol. When a partner retires, the remaining partners often
channels based on their own shopping goals as well as compensate for the retiring partner's share of goodwill
price, product assortment, and label. based on the gaining ratio. This ratio represents the benefit
• Analysis: This statement is correct. Consumers select that the continuing partners will gain from the retirement,
shopping channels that align with their personal goals, usually in proportion to the increase in their share of future
which can include considerations of price, the variety profits.
and type of products offered (product assortment), and
the brand or label. These factors influence consumer S13. Ans.(b)
decisions regarding where to shop, whether online, in Sol. Section 16(ii) of the Income Tax Act outlines
brick-and-mortar stores, or through other retail deductions applicable to entertainment allowances for
formats. government employees. They can claim a deduction
Reason (R): Some consumers are unwilling to “trade-up” capped at the lesser of: Rs. 5,000, 20% of their gross salary,
to retailers offering higher-end goods, and “trade down” to or the actual entertainment allowance received in the fiscal
discount retailers for private. year.
• Analysis: This statement appears to be partially cut off
but implies that consumer behavior includes a
S14. Ans.(c)
reluctance to move to higher-end goods or switch to
Sol. XBRL (eXtensible Business Reporting Language) is the
lower-cost alternatives based on personal or economic
open international standard for digital business reporting.
considerations. This is a true observation as
consumers often make trade-offs between cost and It is used globally for communicating business and
quality, choosing different retailers based on their financial data and is essential for financial reporting,
current financial status or perceived value of the goods. business information exchange, and regulatory reporting.
However, the final part of the sentence seems
truncated ("for private"), which could imply a missing S15. Ans.(c)
context. Sol. Technological innovations are incremental (A), as they
Thus, the correct answer is: (a) Both A and R are correct often involve modest adjustments and improvements over
and R is the correct explanation of A. existing technologies. They usually involve the commercial
utilization of new ideas (B) and carry a high risk due to
S9. Ans.(b) uncertainties in market acceptance and technical
Sol. Under Indian law, particularly the Competition Act, the feasibility (E). Option D is incorrect because strong
Competition Commission of India has the authority to domestic rivalry and geographic concentrations often
impose a penalty of up to ten percent of the average stimulate, not deter, innovation.
turnover for the last three preceding financial years upon a
firm found to be involved in anti-competitive activities.
S16. Ans.(b)
Sol. The going concern convention assumes that an entity
S10. Ans.(b)
will continue to operate indefinitely, which justifies the use
Sol. The term "Lifetime Value" is commonly used in
marketing and finance to denote the present value of the of historical cost for recording long-lived assets. This
future income stream generated from a customer accounting convention underlies the rationale for not
relationship. This metric helps businesses understand the regularly revaluing such assets under normal business
total worth of a customer over the entire period of their circumstances, assuming the business will continue to use
relationship with the brand or firm. them rather than liquidate them.

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S17. Ans.(a) However, the belief that "individual opinions are
Sol. The correct matches are as follows: independent of collective opinions" does not align with
A-IV: Breach of promise to marry is typically remedied by collectivist principles. In collectivist cultures, individual
vindictive damage because it involves personal harm and opinions are often shaped by and reflect the group's views
emotional distress. to maintain harmony and cohesion. Therefore, option (c)
does not characterize collectivism.
B-III: Part performance (as much as earned) can be
addressed by suing for quantum meruit, which allows a
S20. Ans.(c)
party to recover the value of the work performed.
Sol. A-IV The time dimension in research design often
C-II: Absolution from all obligations typically involves the refers to how the data is captured, such as in cross-
rescission of contract, where the contract is canceled and sectional studies, which look at data at a single point in
parties are restored to their original positions. time.
D-I: The mode of securing the specific performance of • B-III The purpose of the study aligning with
negative terms of contract is a suit for injunction, which descriptive research implies describing features of a
orders a party to do or refrain from doing certain acts. population or phenomenon.
Therefore, the correct option is (a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I. • C-II The topical scope might relate to a statistical study
which involves analyzing data to identify trends or
S18. Ans.(b) relationships.
• D-I The degree of crystallization of a research question
Sol. For the tax year 2023-24:
fits an exploratory study, where less is known and
• Mr. X has an income from other sources amounting to
exploratory methods are used to clarify and define the
Rs. 6,00,000.
nature of a problem.
• Mrs. X has an income from other sources totaling Rs.
3,00,000. S21. Ans.(b)
Clubbing of Income: Sol. The correct sequence is option (b): C, A, D, E, B
• Mr. X’s total income includes his own Rs. 6,00,000. • C. Increased world trade with limited capital
• Additionally, he has to include Rs. 1,90,000 of Mrs. X's flows: This step indicates the initial stages of global
income. This comes from her salary of Rs. 2,40,000 for economic integration where trade barriers are lowering
the year (Rs. 20,000 per month), reduced by a Rs. and trade volumes are increasing, yet capital mobility
50,000 tax rebate. across countries remains restricted. This would occur as
• Therefore, Mr. X’s total (gross) income for the year is countries begin to engage more with the global economy
but still maintain controls over financial movements.
Rs. 7,90,000.
• A. Protectionism and nationalism: Following initial
Mrs. X’s income that is reported under her name is Rs.
globalization trends, a backlash often occurs with
3,00,000 because her salary income has been clubbed with
rising sentiments of protectionism and nationalism.
Mr. X’s income due to tax rules. This arises as economies and societies react to the
According to Section 64(1)(ii) of the Income Tax Act, if a rapid changes and challenges brought about by
husband holds more than 20% voting rights in a company, increased foreign competition and economic
any monetary benefits his wife receives from the company integration.
will be added to his income for tax purposes. This is why • D. Expanded open economies: Overcoming the phase
Mrs. X’s salary after rebates is added to Mr. X’s income. of protectionism, economies might then move towards
more open economic policies. This broadening
S19. Ans.(c) openness involves greater liberalization of trade and
Sol. Collectivism emphasizes the importance of the group investment policies, allowing for more extensive
over the individual. It values relationships, group harmony, economic interactions across borders.
• E. Industrial economies increasingly open and
and the prioritization of group goals over personal ones. In
emerging nations open slowly: As the process of
collectivist cultures, relationships are seen as moral
economic opening continues, established industrial
obligations rather than mere contracts, and maintaining economies often lead by further opening up their
harmony within the group is highly valued. Tasks are often markets. Meanwhile, emerging economies may
approached with the group’s well-being in mind, and proceed more cautiously, slowly liberalizing their
personal opinions are usually aligned with the collective economic frameworks to adapt to global standards and
consensus. practices.
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• B. Capital flows driving economic development: S27. Ans.(c)
Ultimately, as global economic integration reaches a Sol. Under the INCOTERM "Carriage Paid To (CPT)," the
more advanced stage, capital flows become a seller pays for the carriage of the goods to the named place
significant driver of development. Financial capital of destination, but the buyer assumes the risk as soon as
moving freely across borders facilitates investment in the goods are handed over to the first carrier. The buyer
various sectors, enhancing growth and development also assumes responsibilities for additional costs including
across participating economies. insurance, customs clearance, duties, and taxes.

S28. Ans.(b)
S22. Ans.(a)
Sol. The Chakkravarty Committee (1985) suggested the
Sol. The correct chronological order of GATT/WTO
establishment of NBFC's regulatory framework. The
negotiation rounds is: Annecy (1949), Torquay (1950-
committee was appointed by the Reserve Bank of India to
1951), Kennedy (1964-1967), Tokyo (1973-1979), and provide recommendations on the regulation of the banking
Doha (commenced in 2001). sector including non-banking financial companies
(NBFCs).
S23. Ans.(b)
Sol. The five number summary used in exploratory data S29. Ans.(c)
analysis includes the median (A), the first quartile (B), the Sol. The term "forward hedge" refers to a strategy used to
third quartile (D), and the smallest and largest values (E). manage or mitigate the risk associated with currency
The mean (C) is not part of the five number summary. fluctuations in foreign exchange markets. This type of
hedge involves using forward contracts to lock in a
S24. Ans.(a) currency exchange rate for a transaction that will occur at
Sol. The stages in the group building process usually a future date.
follow: Forming, where members are eager and anxious 1. Purpose of Forward Hedging: The primary goal of a
(A); Storming, where members confront differences and forward hedge is to protect the financial interests of a
company or individual from adverse movements in
experience frustration (D); Norming, where dissatisfaction
exchange rates. By locking in a rate, the party ensures
decreases and a sense of belonging develops (C);
financial stability and predictability in their
Performing, where members work interdependently and
international transactions, regardless of market
solve problems (E); Adjourning, where feelings such as
volatility.
being upset or depressed might occur (B), if the group 2. Using Forward Contracts in Hedging:
dissolves. • A forward contract is an agreement between two
parties to exchange a specific amount of one currency
S25. Ans.(a) for another at a predetermined rate on a specified
Sol. A-IV: Coupon rate is the annual coupon divided by the future date.
face value of the bond. • The rate agreed upon is the forward rate, which may
• B-I: Yield to maturity is the interest rate required in the differ from the current spot rate (the rate at which
market on a bond. currencies could be exchanged immediately).
• C-III: Interest rate risk originates from fluctuating • For example, if a U.S. company expects to receive EUR
interest rates. 1 million in three months from a European customer, it
• D-II: Current yield is obtained by dividing the annual could enter into a forward contract to exchange EUR 1
coupon by the bond price. million for USD at a fixed rate. This rate would be set at
the time of contract agreement, thereby eliminating
S26. Ans.(d) the risk that the euro weakens against the dollar before
the funds are converted.
Sol. Within SAFTA, the Non-Least Developed Contracting
States (NLDCS) include more economically developed
S30. Ans.(a)
countries in the region. These include India (D), Pakistan
Sol. Companies use intermediaries to reach customers
(B), and Sri Lanka (E). Bangladesh and Bhutan are
more efficiently when direct marketing is not feasible due
categorized among the Least Developed Contracting States to resource constraints or when using intermediaries is
(LDCS). more profitable or effective.

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S31. Ans.(b) S37. Ans.(b)
Sol. Decentralization describes the process where Sol. Pre-experimental designs include simpler and more
decision-making authority is distributed throughout lower basic setups such as the one-group pre-test-post-test (A),
levels of the organization, associated with flatter and more static group comparison (D), and after-only study (E),
team-based structures. where the rigorous control found in true experimental
designs is lacking. This makes option (b) the correct
S32. Ans.(a)
answer.
Sol. Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are true, and
R is the correct explanation of A. High self-esteem indeed
results in a number of positive behaviors, such as being less S38. Ans.(d)
susceptible to external influence, being more confident in Sol. The weakening of the Indian rupee can be attributed
achieving goals, and being more effective in social to several economic factors. To determine the most
networking. The reason for these behaviors is that accurate choices from the options provided:
individuals with high self-esteem tend to experience fewer A. Rupee payment for international trade does not
negative emotions and possess a more positive outlook on necessarily weaken the rupee; it might actually reduce
life, which directly contributes to their confidence and demand for foreign currencies.
social effectiveness. Thus, R correctly explains why A is B. Rising cost of imports definitely impacts the rupee as it
true. increases the outflow of rupees to buy foreign goods,
leading to a higher demand for foreign currency and thus
S33. Ans.(b)
weakening the rupee.
Sol. A discrete probability distribution assigns a specific
C. Widening trade deficit signifies that the country is
probability to each possible value of the random variable.
importing more than it exports. This leads to higher
S34. Ans.(c) demand for foreign currency to pay for imports, which
Sol. A Z-score of 1.0 corresponds to being higher than weakens the rupee.
approximately 84.13% of the data in a normal distribution D. Opening of Rupee Vostro accounts is aimed at increasing
(this is the percentage below the score). Thus, it is in the the use of the rupee in international trade and potentially
highest 15.87% of the firms. reducing dependency on other foreign currencies like USD.
This should theoretically strengthen the rupee, not weaken
S35. Ans.(c) it.
Sol. The specific threshold for when a seller must collect E. Rupee UPI payments for overseas transactions also aims
tax from a buyer at the sale of a motor vehicle, triggering a at promoting the use of the rupee internationally and could
1% tax collection at source (TCS), was set at Rs. 10 lakhs. help in stabilizing or strengthening the rupee rather than
This regulation is part of India's Income Tax rules designed
weakening it.
to capture tax at the point of transaction on high-value
Therefore, the most appropriate answer from the options
purchases.
given, which correctly identifies the factors leading to the
Therefore, the answer is: (c) Rs. 10 lakhs
This rule applies when the total consideration for the weakening of the Indian rupee, is (d) B, C and D only
vehicle exceeds Rs. 10 lakhs, requiring the seller to collect
a 1% tax from the buyer. This helps ensure tax compliance S39. Ans.(d)
and captures revenue from significant transactions in the Sol. Trademarks are classified into several types, including
economy. Generic (C), Descriptive (A), and Invented (E) trademarks.
Generic terms are common descriptions and cannot be
S36. Ans.(c) protected, Descriptive marks describe a product’s features,
Sol. As per the latest provisions under the Income Tax Act and Invented marks are made-up names.
in India, particularly the updates related to sub-section
(8A) of Section 139, a person is allowed to furnish an S40. Ans.(c)
updated return of income for any reason not covered under
Sol. The Pacman defense is a strategy used by a target
a return previously filed. This updated return can be filed
company in a takeover situation where it turns around and
within 24 months from the end of the relevant assessment
year. tries to acquire the company that is attempting to take it
Therefore, the correct answer is: (c) 24 months over.

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S41. Ans.(b) S44. Ans.(d)
Sol. E. Issue a notice for show-cause to the parties of the Sol. The F-value in ANOVA (Analysis of Variance) is
combination - Issuing a show-cause notice first would computed as the ratio between the variance between the
imply that there is already a presumption or preliminary group means (Mean Square Between) and the variance
finding of potential issues with the combination, within the groups (Mean Square Error). Since both these
suggesting the process is initiated due to specific concerns. variances are squared terms, they cannot be negative, and
A. Call for a report from the Director General - Following a hence, the F-value computed will also not be negative
show-cause notice, calling for a detailed investigation under any circumstances.
report from the Director General could be a logical next Information Booster:
step to explore the concerns raised in the show-cause • An F-value is fundamentally a measure of how much
notice. the variance among the means of various groups
C. Direct the parties of combination to publish details of the exceeds the variance within these groups. It helps in
combination - This could be a subsequent step to ensure determining whether the differences between group
transparency and inform the public about the combination means are statistically significant.
details after internal preliminary actions (like show-cause
and investigative reporting).
S45. Ans.(a)
B. Invite any person, affected parties to file written
Sol.
objections - After publishing the details, the next logical
• A-II: Unit-level activities deal with costs incurred on a
step would be to invite public comments or objections,
per-unit basis, such as direct materials and labor.
allowing stakeholders to provide inputs based on the
• B-IV: Batch-level activities often include costs like
published details.
material handling that are incurred for each batch
D. Call for additional information from the parties of the
combination - Finally, based on the objections and regardless of the size.
responses received, the Commission might require • C-I: Product-level activities include costs incurred for
additional information from the combining parties to specific products like patents or copyrights.
address specific issues or concerns raised during the • D-III: Facility-level costs encompass broader costs
objection phase. such as plant depreciation and maintenance which
affect the entire manufacturing facility.
S42. Ans.(c) Information Booster:
Sol. B. Allows participation of those who oppose a change • Activity-based costing provides a more accurate
to participate in decision making: This involves individuals method of product/service costing, leading to more
in the decision-making process to enhance their precise decision-making.
acceptance and reduce resistance.
C. Negotiation may become vital when resistance comes S46. Ans.(b)
from a powerful source: Negotiation is important when Sol.
dealing with resistance from powerful stakeholders or 1. E. Ease of ordering - This initial step remains crucial
groups, as it can help to address their concerns and secure as the first point of contact between the customer and
their buy-in for the change. the business, ensuring a smooth and hassle-free
E. Coercion can be used to get support easily: Traditionally, ordering experience.
coercion is viewed negatively in change management 2. A. Speed and timing of delivery - Once the order is
contexts, as it involves using force or threats to secure made, the next logical step in this sequence is the
compliance. While this can result in immediate adherence, delivery of the product or service. This highlights the
it often leads to increased resistance, resentment, and importance of timeliness in meeting customer
lower morale over the longer term. This is generally not expectations.
considered a best practice in effective change management. 3. D. Installation, training, and consulting - Following
delivery, installation or the initiation of the service
S43. Ans.(c) occurs, including any necessary training or consulting
Sol. The Diminishing Marginal Rate of Technical to ensure the customer can effectively use and benefit
Substitution (MRTS) describes how many units of capital from the product or service.
can be replaced by one additional unit of labor, maintaining 4. B. Maintenance and repair - After the product has
the same level of output, hence remaining on the same
been installed and is in use, maintenance and repair
isoquant. This concept is crucial in production theory,
services become relevant to ensure the product
illustrating the trade-offs between inputs in the production
remains functional and meets the ongoing needs of the
process.
customer.

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5. C. Returns - The final step in this sequence involves Information Booster:
handling returns, which can occur if the customer is • Understanding these sections can significantly benefit
dissatisfied with the product or if issues arise that individuals in planning their taxes and making
require the product to be returned. informed decisions about property investments and
sales.
S47. Ans.(b)
Sol. According to the eclectic paradigm or OLI (Ownership, S50. Ans.(a)
Location, Internalization) framework often used to explain Sol. Reasons for the substitution between domestic and
FDI, the unique advantages are: multinational corporation (MNC) goods often include:
• E: Location Advantage - qualities of a specific location • A: The international information revolution has
that attract FDI. increased consumer knowledge and awareness of
• A: Internalization Advantage - benefits gained from foreign products.
• C: Reduced transportation costs make it economically
internalizing business operations.
feasible to import and purchase foreign goods.
• D: Ownership Advantage - competitive advantages of
Information Booster:
owning proprietary resources.
• These factors contribute to the globalization of
Information Booster:
consumer markets, where consumers have access to a
• The OLI paradigm provides a comprehensive
broader range of products beyond their domestic
framework to understand why companies choose to
markets, influencing purchasing behaviors and market
invest overseas, considering factors internal and dynamics.
external to the firm.
S51. Ans.(c)
S48. Ans.(c) Sol. Call to Action (CTA) is a marketing term used to
Sol. To calculate the price of a share according to the Walter describe any design, phrase, or button intended to prompt
model, you need to use the formula: an immediate response or encourage an immediate sale.
CTAs are commonly found on websites, advertisements,
and emails, and they are designed to lead the audience
towards taking a specific action, such as making a
purchase, signing up for a newsletter, or downloading a
resource. Effective CTAs are clear, compelling, and create a
sense of urgency, thereby driving the desired action from
the target audience.

S52. Ans.(d)
Sol. RuPay is a card payment scheme launched by the
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to compete
Therefore, the price of the share as per the Walter model is with international card schemes like Visa and Mastercard.
Rs. 40. It is used in India and accepted at ATMs, POS devices, and
e-commerce websites across India.
Information Booster:
S49. Ans.(b)
• RuPay cards are designed to integrate into the Indian
Sol.
financial system providing a card payment network
• A-I: Section 54B relates to the exemption on capital
that is accepted domestically with lower processing
gains from the sale of agricultural land.
fees.
• B-IV: Section 54 pertains to the exemption on capital
gains from the sale of a residential house. S53. Ans.(d)
• C-II: Section 54EC offers exemptions for capital gains Sol. The model developed by Lawrence Kohlberg outlines
from the sale of land or buildings if invested in specific moral development as progressing through three broad
bonds. stages: preconventional, conventional, and post-
• D-III: Section 54D covers exemptions for industrial conventional or principled oriented. This model is applied
undertakings. across various settings, including business ethics.
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Information Booster: S57. Ans.(c)
• Understanding these stages helps organizations in Sol. By lowering the price per unit from Rs. 80 to Rs. 78, a
structuring their corporate ethics programs and in sales manager successfully sold an additional 1,000 units.
training leaders to manage ethical dilemmas From this, it is clear that the reduction in price led to an
effectively. unfavorable sales price variance, meaning the revenue per
unit decreased. However, the increase in the number of
S54. Ans.(d) units sold resulted in a favorable sales volume variance,
Sol. Cost-Volume-Profit (CVP) analysis assumes that the improving total sales revenue. Additionally, the sales
selling price, cost structure, and sales mix are constant, activity cycle saw a positive impact, with a favorable
which are its limitations. This simplification can lead to variance of ₹80,000.
inaccuracies when these factors vary in reality.
Information Booster: S58. Ans.(a)
• CVP analysis is useful for short-term economic Sol. In decision-making, managers need to consider costs
decision-making but should be used with caution when and revenues that will differ among alternatives. These are
applying to more complex, dynamic business often referred to as differential, relevant, or incremental
environments where conditions change frequently. costs and revenues. Among the given options:
Opportunity costs and economic profits (A) are relevant as
S55. Ans.(a) they help to measure the potential benefits lost when one
Sol. Effective mentoring is built on a foundation of trust alternative is chosen over another.
between the mentor and the mentee. Trust within a
Incremental and marginal costs (D) are also relevant since
mentoring relationship is influenced by several key
they represent the additional costs incurred and benefits
attributes of the mentor, which include:
obtained from choosing a particular course of action.
• Competence: The mentor's ability to provide
On the other hand:
guidance, share knowledge, and offer solutions,
Fixed and sunk costs (B) are not relevant because they do
demonstrating expertise and capability in their field.
not change with the decision and are already incurred.
• Consistency: The mentor's reliability and
Marginal revenue and marginal cost (C) are important for
predictability in actions and responses, which help to
deciding the optimal level of output but are not directly
create a secure and dependable relationship.
related to differential analysis.
• Communication abilities: The mentor's skill in
Economies and dis-economies of scale (E) are long-term
conveying information clearly and listening effectively,
factors affecting cost structures but do not directly address
facilitating open and honest dialogue.
• Control sharing readiness: The willingness of the
the differential costs and revenues for specific decisions.
mentor to empower the mentee, encouraging
autonomous decision-making and fostering growth by S59. Ans.(d)
sharing control rather than maintaining dominance. Sol. To find the probability that a randomly selected person
Hence, the correct answer is (a) Competence, consistency, is either a male or a smoker, we need to find the union of
communication abilities, and control sharing readiness the probabilities of being a male and being a smoker
using the formula:
S56. Ans.(b) P(male or smoker) = P(male) + P(smoker) - P(male and
Sol. Third-degree price discrimination occurs when prices smoker)
vary between different customer segments, seen in Given that 57% of the people are males, P(male) = 57% =
services rather than manufacturing due to the easier 0.57, and 22% of the people are smokers, P(smoker) = 22%
segmentation in services (e.g., student discounts, senior = 0.22. Additionally, 12% of the people are males who
citizen rates). smoke, P(male and smoker) = 12% = 0.12. Plugging these
Information Booster: values into the formula:
• Price discrimination requires the ability to segment P(male or smoker) = 0.57 + 0.22 - 0.12 = 0.67
markets and enforce different pricing without leakage Therefore, the probability that a randomly selected person
between segments. is either a male or a smoker is 0.67 or 67%.

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S60. Ans.(c) • (d) New firms have chances to win customer
Sol. Universal access to financial services (c) is a key goal loyalty: This statement actually contradicts the typical
of financial inclusion initiatives, aiming to make financial nature of oligopoly and monopoly markets where
services available and affordable to all individuals and existing firms have strong customer loyalty due to
businesses, regardless of net worth or company size. brand recognition, making it difficult for new entrants
Information Booster: to win over customers.
• Financial inclusion strategies often focus on extending Based on these assessments, the best answer that identifies
financial services to marginalized and underserved a source common to both oligopoly and monopoly settings
communities, promoting the use of technology to is:
enhance access and reduce costs. The ultimate goal is • (b) Huge capital investments and specialized
to ensure that all segments of society can benefit from inputs are required to enter the market
financial services such as savings, credit, insurance, This factor is a critical barrier to entry in both market
and payments. structures, allowing the dominant firms to maintain their
market position without facing significant competition
S61. Ans.(b) from new entrants.
Sol. A charitable trust, registered under section 128 of the
Indian Tax Act and also registered under GST in New Delhi, S63. Ans.(d)
offers yoga training for senior citizens, basketball coaching Sol. Matching the Lists:
• A. Veblen Effect should be matched with I.
for teenagers, and skill development services for residents
Conspicuous Consumption, as it involves purchasing
above 65 years old in July. This trust must pay GST on the
expensive items to display wealth.
skill development services. This is because, except for
• B. Snob Effect should be matched with III. Negative
specifically exempted services, all services provided by a
network externality, since the desire for exclusivity
charitable trust are subject to GST. There are no
increases as more people use a product.
exemptions for the supply of goods by charitable trusts.
• C. Bandwagon Effect should be matched with IV.
Positive network externality, because the value of a
S62. Ans.(b)
product increases as more people use it.
Sol. The characteristics that could contribute to limiting
• D. Substitution Effect should be matched with II.
competition in a market, allowing only a few firms (in the
Reduction in relative price of commodity, as
case of oligopoly) or just one firm (in the case of monopoly)
changes in price influence consumers to substitute one
to dominate. product for another.
• (a) Economies of scale may operate over a small Therefore, the correct match according to the given
range of outputs: This statement is more relevant to descriptions is:
firms in competitive markets where economies of scale • (D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
can be achieved quickly but do not necessarily create
barriers to entry that would lead to monopoly or S64. Ans.(a)
oligopoly. Sol. To determine which channel powers are subjective in
• (b) Huge capital investments and specialized nature, we need to understand each type of power and how
inputs are required to enter the market: This is a it influences behavior within a channel.
significant barrier to entry, applicable to both oligopoly A. Legal Power - This is based on formal rights and
and monopoly markets. High capital requirements authority derived from legal or official means. It is
prevent new entrants from easily entering the market, subjective in nature, rooted in law and formal authority
thus preserving the market power of existing firms or structures.
a single firm. B. Coercive Power - Coercive power is based on fear of the
• (c) Large firms may own a patent for the exclusive negative results from failing to comply. It's often
right to produce a commodity: This directly considered objective, as it relies on tangible threats or
contributes to a firm's ability to maintain a monopoly punishments rather than subjective perceptions.
by legally protecting their ability to be the sole C. Expert Power - This power comes from possessing
producer of a commodity. In oligopoly, while not all knowledge or expertise that others do not have. It is
firms may own patents, the ownership of key patents subjective, as its effectiveness depends on the perception
by few firms can also limit competition significantly. by others of the individual’s expertise.

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D. Referent Power - This type of power stems from Information Booster:
personal characteristics that command others' admiration, • (a) Target rate-of-return pricing: Sets the price
loyalty, or desire to emulate. This is highly subjective, based based on achieving a specific return on investment.
on others' perceptions and feelings about the individual. • (b) Auction-type pricing: Pricing is determined
E. Reward Power - This power is based on the ability to through a bidding process, often used in scenarios
confer rewards. It can be seen as somewhat objective where demand exceeds supply or unique items are
because the rewards are tangible; however, the value or sold.
desirability of the rewards can be subjective.
• (d) Competitive pricing: Prices are set based on the
Therefore, the correct answer, listing the channel powers
pricing of competitors, rather than internal costs or
that are subjective in nature, is: (a) D, A and C only
customer value considerations.
S65. Ans.(b)
Sol. When a country’s currency is accepted as a reserve S67. Ans.(d)
currency, it can lead to conflicts between: Sol. The Turquand Rule, also known as the "indoor
• Domestic monetary policy (A): The country may face management rule," provides an exception to the doctrine of
challenges in balancing domestic economic conditions Constructive Notice. This rule protects external parties
with the international demand for its currency. doing business with a company in good faith, without the
• External currency policy (C): Managing the value of need to inquire into the regularity of internal proceedings.
the currency in foreign exchange markets can become According to the rule, as long as the transactions are within
more complicated. the bounds of the authority conferred by the company's
• Foreign trade policy (D): The strength of the reserve public documents, third parties are not required to ensure
currency can impact the country's trade balance, that the company's internal procedures are followed.
making exports more expensive and imports cheaper. Therefore, this protects those who deal with the company
Domestic fiscal policy (B) and inland trade policy (E) are from being affected by any irregularities or internal
less directly affected by the currency's status as a reserve
mismanagement that they are unaware of.
currency.
Information Booster:
Information Booster:
• (a) Doctrine of Subrogation: A legal right transferred
• A reserve currency is held in significant quantities by
governments and institutions as part of their foreign to another party, used in insurance claims to allow the
exchange reserves. insurer to "step into the shoes" of the insured and seek
• Domestic monetary policy involves controlling the recovery from third parties.
money supply and interest rates to manage economic • (b) Doctrine of Ultra Vires: Refers to acts conducted
stability. beyond the powers of a corporation as defined in its
• External currency policy focuses on managing the corporate charter or articles of incorporation.
exchange rate and international financial relations. • (c) Corporate Veil: A legal concept that separates the
• Foreign trade policy governs a country's personality of a corporation from the personalities of
international trade, affecting tariffs, trade agreements, its shareholders, and protects them from being
and export-import balance. personally liable for the company's debts and other
obligations.
S66. Ans.(c)
Sol. Economic-value-to-customer pricing (EVC) is based on S68. Ans.(c)
the assessment of the economic value a product or service
Sol. Statement I is true but Statement II is false. The first
provides to the customer, compared to its alternatives. EVC
statement correctly identifies that the critical values from
calculates what a customer might be willing to pay by
quantifying the product's economic value to them. This is Student's t-distribution are generally larger than those
done by comparing the total costs (including purchase from the z-distribution (normal distribution) for the same
price, operational costs, etc.) and benefits (like level of significance and sample size. This difference occurs
performance improvements, reduced operational because the t-distribution accounts for the additional
expenses, etc.) of the product against its closest uncertainty due to estimating the population standard
competitive alternative. This method leverages the deviation from a sample, particularly noticeable with
economic advantages a product offers over competing smaller sample sizes. As the sample size increases, the t-
items, making it a more tailored and competitive approach distribution approaches the z-distribution, and their
to pricing. critical values converge.
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Statement II, however, is false. The critical value of C. Distribution of debentures to shareholders - This can
Student’s t-distribution does not increase as the sample be considered as a distribution of accumulated profits akin
size increases; rather, it decreases and converges towards to dividends, especially if the distribution of debentures or
the z-distribution's critical value as the sample size grows other non-cash assets to shareholders represents a return
larger. This is because the t-distribution becomes less on their investment beyond the nominal value of shares.
spread out (narrower) as the degrees of freedom increase E. Loan granted to shareholders by a closely held
(which is tied directly to sample size), thus getting closer company - Under certain conditions, loans or advances by
to the normal distribution. a closely held company to its shareholders (where the
Information Booster: shareholder holds a significant stake) are deemed as
• z-distribution: Used when the population standard dividends under Section 2(22)(e) of the Income Tax Act.
deviation is known and the sample size is large. It has This is especially true if the company has accumulated
a fixed shape and does not depend on the sample size. profits, and such loans are not returned in a stipulated
• Student’s t-distribution: Used when the population time.
standard deviation is unknown and the sample size is
small. Its shape depends on the degrees of freedom, S71. Ans.(b)
which are related to the sample size; the t-distribution Sol. The correct match is: A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
has heavier tails, indicating more variability in sample A. Kurt Lewin - IV. Unfreezing, Moving, Refreezing: Lewin's
estimates. famous change model consists of these three stages.
B. Fred E Fiedler - I. Position power, Task structure, Leader
S69. Ans.(c) member relations: Fiedler's contingency model of
leadership focuses on these three situational elements.
Sol The term job context includes the physical working
C. Henri Fayol - II. Authority and Responsibility, Unity of
conditions, work schedule, incentives, and the number of
command, Scalar chain: These are part of Fayol's 14
people with whom the employee would normally interact.
principles of management.
It describes the environment and conditions in which the
D. David C. McClelland - III. Power, Affiliation, Achievement:
job is performed.
McClelland's theory of needs identifies these three
Information Booster:
motivating drivers.
• (a) Job profile: Describes the purpose, scope, and
responsibilities of a job, detailing what is expected
S72. Ans.(b)
from the job holder.
Sol. The correct functions of the Reserve Bank of India are:
• (b) Job content: Refers to the specific tasks and
• A. Bank of issue: RBI has the sole authority to issue
responsibilities associated with the job itself,
banknotes in India.
essentially what the employee is expected to do. • B. Banker’s bank and lender of the last resort: RBI
• (d) Job specification: Outlines the qualifications, acts as a banker to the government and other banks,
skills, and experience required from an employee to providing necessary banking services to the
perform the job effectively. This includes education, government and financial institutions. It also acts as a
experience, personal traits, and physical requirements. lender of the last resort by providing emergency funds
to financial institutions during financial distress.
S70. Ans.(b) • D. Controller of credit: RBI controls the credit
Sol. Under the Income Tax Act, 1961 in India, certain through the monetary policy implemented by
payments or distributions made by a company to its instruments like repo rate, reverse repo rate, cash
shareholders can be deemed as dividends for tax purposes, reserve ratio, etc.
especially under the head "Income from Other Sources." • E. Custodian of foreign exchange reserves: RBI
This can include not just actual dividends declared from manages the foreign exchange Management Act, 1999
profits but also other distributions or deemed dividends and thus, acts as the custodian of foreign exchange
under specific conditions laid out by the Act. reserves.
B. Payment to shareholders on reduction of capital - C. Regulator of fiscal policy is not a function of the RBI.
While payments to shareholders upon capital reduction Fiscal policy, which involves government spending and tax
aren't treated as dividends under the Income Tax Act, they policies, is managed by the government of India. The RBI
could be considered as such if the payment is not does not regulate fiscal policy but may influence it through
proportionate to the shareholder's equity in the company its monetary policy.
or if it's seen as a distribution of accumulated profits.
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S73. Ans.(a) S75. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct answer is the static theory of capital Sol. The correct sequence for the book building process is:
structure, also known as the trade-off theory. This theory 1. C. Appointment of the merchant banker and
articulates that there is an optimal level of debt for a syndicate members (SEBI registered
company, where the tax benefits derived from debt intermediaries) as underwriters - This is the first
financing are balanced against the costs of financial step where the company appoints merchant bankers
distress that increase with higher levels of debt. The trade- and other underwriters registered with SEBI to
manage the issue.
off theory suggests that firms manage their capital
2. D. Preparation and filing of red herring prospectus
structures to balance these two effects — the tax shield
with the SEBI for approval - After appointing the key
obtained from issuing debt and the increased probability of
intermediaries, the next step is to prepare and file a red
financial distress or bankruptcy costs as more debt is taken herring prospectus with SEBI. This document contains
on. all essential details about the issuer company and the
Information Booster: issue, serving as a preliminary registration document.
• (b) Net income approach: Suggests that the value of 3. B. Book runner and syndicate members generate
the firm can be increased or the cost of capital can be awareness, create demand and run the order book
decreased by increasing the proportion of debt in the - Once the red herring prospectus is filed, the book
capital structure because interest is tax-deductible. runners and syndicate members begin marketing the
• (c) Modigliani-Miller theory: Originally postulated issue to potential investors to generate demand and
that in perfect markets, without taxes, bankruptcy build the order book.
costs, and asymmetric information, the value of a firm 4. A. Determine issue price, market clearing price,
is unaffected by how that firm is financed. and price discovery - After receiving bids and based
• (d) Net operating income approach: Suggests that on the demand generated, the issue price and market
the value of the firm is not affected by changes in the clearing price are determined through the price
discovery process.
capital structure. It states that the overall cost of capital
5. E. Allotment and listing of shares on stock
remains constant with changes in the degree of
exchange(s) - Finally, the shares are allotted to
leverage.
investors, and the shares are listed on the designated
stock exchanges for trading.
S74. Ans.(b) This sequence ensures that all regulatory and market-
Sol. The Niryat Bandhu Scheme was introduced by the driven processes are appropriately addressed for a
Director General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) with the successful public issue of shares.
objective to reach out to the new and potential exporters
and mentor them through orientation programs, S76. Ans.(b)
counseling sessions, and individual facilitation. The Sol. The correct matches for the nature of business
scheme is designed to enhance the export capabilities of activities and the FDI permitted under the automatic route
India's entrepreneurs and assist them in expanding into are:
global markets by providing necessary knowledge and • A. Trading in Transferable Development Right
support systems. (TDR): II. Prohibited - Trading in TDRs does not
Information Booster: generally allow for FDI, as it's a specialized financial
• The scheme is part of India’s efforts to increase the service related to the real estate sector, which has
specific restrictions.
export-oriented business activities by guiding
• B. Multi-Brand Trading: III. 51% - FDI in multi-brand
inexperienced exporters through the complexities of
retail trading is permitted up to 51% under the
international trading regulations and market
automatic route, subject to specific conditions,
dynamics. including approval from the respective state
• The scheme also includes handholding for potential government where the store will be located.
exporters in areas such as how to execute export • C. Satellite (Establishment and Operations): IV.
transactions, understanding market dynamics, 100% - FDI in the establishment and operation of
managing risks, and leveraging opportunities in the satellites is allowed up to 100% under the automatic
international markets. route, which encourages international and domestic
companies to invest in this high-tech sector.
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• D. Petroleum Refining (by PSUs): I. 49% - In the case S79. Ans.(a)
of petroleum refining by Public Sector Undertakings Sol. The correct constituents of the trilemma of
(PSUs), FDI is permitted up to 49% under the international finance are:
automatic route, facilitating investment without • A. Fixed exchange rate: This involves pegging the
needing direct governmental approval. local currency to a foreign currency or a basket of
This arrangement reflects the strategic economic controls currencies, limiting the central bank's ability to adjust
India maintains over sensitive sectors while promoting monetary policy independently.
• B. Independent monetary policy: The ability of a
foreign investment in others.
country to set its interest rates and monetary policy
independently, which can be constrained by a fixed
S77. Ans.(c)
exchange rate and capital mobility.
Sol. The correct ideas that relate to emotional appeal in • C. Free mobility of capital: The unrestricted flow of
advertising are: capital across borders, allowing for investment and
• C. It can capture attention and foster an attachment disinvestment without any controls or restrictions
- Emotional appeal can grab the consumer's attention from national governments.
effectively by connecting on a personal or emotional D. Global recessionary tendency and E. Rising
level, thus fostering a deeper emotional attachment to inflationary conditions are significant economic
the brand. conditions or challenges but are not part of the trilemma's
• A. Rational appeal generally goes unnoticed - This three traditional elements. These factors might impact or
statement is often true in the context of emotional be influenced by the choices made within the trilemma, but
appeal, as emotional messages tend to be more they are not constitutive parts of the trilemma itself.
engaging and memorable than purely rational, fact-
based appeals. S80. Ans.(b)
• D. Consumers ignore most ads - In a world
Sol. The correct order reflecting ascending TDS rates for
the specified transactions is:
overloaded with advertising, emotional appeals can
• D. Payment of Rs.35,000 to an individual contractor
stand out more effectively because they are designed to
for repair by university - 1%
strike a chord with personal feelings and experiences, • E. Payment of Rs.38,000 as fees for professional
making them less likely to be ignored. and technical services by a call center - 10%
These points highlight how emotional appeal differs from • A. Payment of Rs.6,55,000 rent by an individual in
rational appeal and why it is often more effective in a year - 10%
capturing consumer interest and fostering brand loyalty. • C. Payment of Rs.8,000 as dividend by cheque - 10%
• B. Payment of Rs.20,000 on winnings from horse
S78. Ans.(b) races - 30%
Sol. The correct matches is option (b) are: A-II, B-IV, C-I, D- This order correctly sorts the payments by their TDS rates,
III starting from the lowest to the highest.
A. Target Compatibility - II. A reflection of the company’s
ability, to create superior customer value: This refers to S81. Ans.(a)
how well a company's capabilities align with the needs of a • Sol. A. Debt-Equity ratio: This ratio is crucial as it
specific market segment to deliver value. shows the proportion of equity and debt the company
B. Tactical Targeting - IV. Ways in which the company can uses to finance its assets, indicating the financial
leverage and risk level.
reach strategically important customers: This includes
• B. Price-Earning ratio: This ratio is a primary
strategies and methods that a company employs to engage
indicator of a stock's market performance relative to its
with crucial customer segments. earnings, helping investors assess the value and
C. Target Attractiveness - I. Reflects the ability of a market potential growth or overvaluation.
segment to create superior value for the company: This • C. Dividend yield: This shows how much a company
evaluates the potential profitability and value a specific pays out in dividends each year relative to its stock
segment offers if targeted. price, essential for income-focused investors.
D. Strategic Targeting - III. Focuses on customizing These ratios (A, B, and C) are significantly valuable for
company’s offering according to the customer’s needs: This investors as they provide a comprehensive view of a
involves a long-term perspective on aligning business company's financial stability, growth potential, and
strategies with the evolving needs of targeted customers. attractiveness as an investment.

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S82. Ans.(d) S87. Ans.(a)
Sol. Assertion (A): It is incorrect to say that a promoter is Sol.
always someone who has been with a company from the
beginning. In reality, a promoter is involved even before the
company is formed, helping to establish it.
Reason (R): A promoter is someone who sets up a company
to achieve a specific goal and takes the required actions to
meet that goal. This statement is true. S88. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct answer is option (c), which focuses on
S83. Ans.(c) factors considered when trying to avoid conflict in a work
Sol. Piggybacking: This is the correct term for the environment:
situation described, where an "exporting firm" (rider) • A. Conflict based on interpersonal relationships:
utilizes another firm's (carrier) distribution network to Minimizing interpersonal conflicts is essential as they
access a new or foreign market. It's an effective strategy for often disrupt collaboration and the work environment.
firms seeking to expand internationally with lower direct • C. Conflict over content and goals of the work: This
costs and risks associated with establishing new type of conflict relates to disagreements on what the
distribution channels. work entails or what the team aims to achieve, and
avoiding such disagreements can streamline processes
S84. Ans.(b) and enhance team alignment.
Sol. The correct answer is option (b): C, E, D, A, B • E. Conflict over how work gets done: Differences in
Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) sponsored by the State Bank opinions on methods and procedures can cause
of India (SBI), listed from the oldest to the newest by their significant delays and friction, hence addressing these
establishment year: proactively helps in avoiding conflict.
(c) Saurashtra Gramin Bank was established in 1978.
(e) Arunachal Pradesh Rural Bank was set up in 1983. S89. Ans.(d)
(d) Madhyanchal Gramin Bank was founded in 2012. 1. Sol. C. The dominant firm sets the price for the
(a) Rajasthan Marudhara Gramin Bank 2014 commodity that maximized its profits: The
(b) Telangana Gramin Bank were both established in 2014. dominant firm determines the most beneficial price
point for its profits, effectively setting the standard for
S85. Ans.(d) the industry.
Sol. 2. A. Small firms in the industry are allowed to sell all
• A. Resident Indians: Individuals, provided they meet
they want at that price: Following the price set by the
the requirements of the LLP Act, can be members of an
dominant firm, smaller firms adjust their sales
LLP.
strategies, operating under the price established
• E. Companies (including foreign companies):
without attempting to undercut.
Companies, whether domestic or international, can be
3. E. Dominant firm then comes into fill the market:
members of an LLP if they satisfy legal stipulations
regarding foreign ownership and participation in After allowing smaller firms to sell at the set price, the
Indian businesses. dominant firm enters the market to fill any remaining
• B. Limited Liability Partnership: Another LLP can be demand, often adjusting its supply to maintain price
a member of an LLP, allowing for complex business control.
structures and partnerships. 4. B. Dominant firm acts as the residual supplier of
Entities such as a Corporation Sole (C) and Co-operative the commodity: As the market fluctuates, the
Society (D) do not qualify to be members of an LLP due to dominant firm continues to act as the residual supplier,
different organizational structures and governance adjusting its output to stabilize the market price and
requirements that do not align with the LLP framework. maintain profitability.
5. D. Small firms in the industry behave as price
S86. Ans.(d) takers: Throughout this process, smaller firms
Sol. Businesses located in special category states like continue to act as price takers, accepting the price set
Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, by the dominant firm without influencing it.
Nagaland, Tripura, and Sikkim have different thresholds for This sequence effectively illustrates how a dominant firm
GST registration. For these states, the turnover limit is Rs. can sustain price leadership by strategically managing
20 lakhs annually for goods and Rs. 10 lakhs annually for supply and allowing smaller firms limited flexibility within
services. a controlled pricing structure.

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S90. Ans.(a) S93. Ans.(a)
Sol. Sol. Aggregating billions of micro truths into one macro
• (a) In the real world, substitution effect is much truth
larger than the income effect: This statement is most Explanation: The passage explains that the crisis in
relevant because the substitution effect often plays a economic modeling arises from the difficulty of
significant role in consumer decision-making. As prices aggregating numerous individual economic behaviors
change, consumers will substitute away from higher- (micro truths) into a coherent overall macroeconomic
priced goods to lower-priced alternatives, reflecting model (macro truth). This aggregation is challenging
changes in relative prices rather than changes in because it combines numerous individual decisions and
income. This effect is a crucial component in behaviors, which may not scale linearly or predictably to
understanding consumer behavior and market the macro level.
dynamics.
Information Booster: S94. Ans.(a)
• The substitution effect occurs when consumers react Sol. (a) A, B, and D only
to a price change by consuming less of a higher-priced Explanation:
good and more of a lower-priced alternative. • A. Buyers behavior towards the products - The
• The income effect reflects how changes in a consumer's passage mentions how microeconomics has
purchasing power (due to price changes) affect the contributed to understanding consumer behavior.
quantity of goods they can buy. • B. Firm’s behaviors for maximizing profit -
• Together, these effects explain how changes in prices Economic models also explain how firms behave to
maximize profits.
influence consumer choices in terms of both quantity
• D. Market behavior to the most efficient prices - One
and types of goods purchased.
of the core achievements of economics has been
explaining how markets discover efficient pricing
S91. Ans.(b)
mechanisms.
Sol. Improved economic models are capable of
understanding qualitative and quantitative factors.
S95. Ans.(a)
Explanation: The passage suggests that advancements in
Sol. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
macroeconomic modeling, which incorporate both
Explanation:
qualitative and quantitative assessments, are enhancing
• Statement I is true as it highlights that
the capability for more effective macro policies. This
macroeconomists can only back-test their models
understanding aids in refining the judgements that drive
against historical data, which may not always be
these policies, indicating that better models lead to more
reliable or from a clear source.
refined and effective macroeconomic strategies.
• Statement II is true and explains that macroeconomic
studies cannot employ the scientific method of
S92. Ans.(d)
repeated experiments due to the impossibility of
Sol. Explanation:
experimenting with real economies without causing
• A. Economics defines (IV) - Economics helps in
real and potentially severe consequences.
discovering the most efficient prices.
• B. Learning of Great Depression (I) - Led to a better S96. Ans.(d)
understanding of aggregate variables which influenced Sol. Entrepreneurship
macroeconomic developments. Explanation: The passage highlights how
• C. Macro-economic variables (II) - include GDP, entrepreneurship is now embraced as both a viable way of
Employment, and Inflation. life and a livelihood. This change is supported by the PE/VC
• D. Pitfalls of Microeconomics (III) - Are based on ecosystem, which has empowered young minds to pursue
assumptions that humans are rational and information entrepreneurship, making it a respected and celebrated
is freely available. choice.

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S97. Ans.(b) investors. These outcomes align directly with options C and
Sol. A, C and D only E.
Explanation:
• A. Startup India program - Specifically mentioned as S99. Ans.(a)
a program that contributes to making India an Sol. Assertion (A): The private equity and venture capital
attractive investment destination. ecosystem has sparked a renaissance, encouraging young
• C. Goods and Services Tax (GST) - Mentioned as part people to take bold steps forward. Thus, Statement (A) is
of the progressive amendments that have facilitated correct.
investment. Reason (R): Nowadays, starting new businesses is highly
• D. Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) - Listed valued, and many people are choosing to leave established
among the frameworks that have bolstered investment careers to pursue their passions, supported by their
attractiveness.
families. Therefore, Reason (R) is also correct and provides
• B. Make in India program and E. Standup India
a clear explanation for Statement (A).
program are not mentioned in the passage.

S100. Ans.(d)
S98. Ans.(c)
Sol. The passage mentions the tremendous focus on value
Sol. C and E Only
Explanation: The passage states that responsible creation by the PE/VC industry, emphasizing its central
investing has contributed to creating a more equitable and role in fostering economic and business development,
inclusive economy and has earned the trust of large global which aligns with option D.

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 UGC NET Hindi (17 June 2023 Shift 1)
Q1. निम्नांकित िनटिों िो निन्दी में उििे प्रथम प्रदर्शि वर्श िे आधनर D. स्वनमी दयनिांद सरस्वती निन्दुओं िी मूर्श्तशपूजन िन समथशि िरते थे।
पर पिले से बनद िे क्रम में लगनइए E. भनरतीय िवजनगरण िे जिि रनजन रनममोिि रनय िो जीवि में
A. बिरी आरांनभि िनल में िी रूकढ़वनकदयों िे प्रबल नवरोध िन सनमिन िरिन
B. मिनबली पिन।
C. आगरन बनजनर िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सबसे उपयुि उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
D. मनधवी (a) िे वल A, C और E
E. अर्नढ़ िन एि कदि (b) िे वल A, C और D
िीचे कदए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः (c) िे वल B, D और E
(a) E, A, C, B, D (d) िे वल C, D और E
(b) A, C, E, D, B
(c) C, E, A, D, B
Q5. सूची I िन सूची II से नमलनि िीनजए
(d) D, E, C, A, B
सूची –I िनव सूची –II अध्येतन
Q2. सूची I िन सूची II से नमलनि िीनजए A. नवद्यनपनत I. िजनरी प्रसनद निवेदी
सूची –I िनमिरण सूची –II वणश B. सूरदनस II. बच्चि नसांि
A. मिनप्रनण ध्वनि I. ज C. नबिनरी III. इमरै बांघन
B. घोर् ध्वनि II. ल D. घिनिांद IV. नर्व प्रसनद नसांि
C. पनर्श्वशि व्यांजि III. र निम्नलनखत नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
D. लोनित व्यांजि IV. ख (a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
निम्नलनखत नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः (b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(b) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(c) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(d) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III Q6. ‘एि रूप निि्इू तुरुि दूजी दर्न ि िोय।
मि िी निनवध मनििर भये एि सों दोय।।’
Q3. “पूणश क्लननसि िृ नत वि नजसमें किसी मनिव-समनज िी पूणश र्नि यि िनवतन किस िनव िी िै?
निनित िो”। यि िथि किसिन िै? (a) िरोत्तम दनस
(a) आई.ए.ररचर्डसश (b) वली दक्किी
(b) टी.एस. इनलयट (c) िवल दनस
(c) बेनिनिटो क्रोचे (d) बिनरसी दनस
(d) मैथ्यू अिनशल्ि
Q7. िॉ. तुलसीरनम िे िनििनल में स्वतांत्रतन आांदोलि िन िेतृत्व किसिे
Q4. भनरतीय िवजनगरण िे सांबांध में उपयुि िथि िैं कियन थन?
A. िवजनगरण िन जमनिन सथ्यतनओं िी टिरनिट िन ि िोिर (a) तेजबिनदुर नसांि
सभ्यतनओं िे आत्म निरीक्षण िन थन। (b) मुर्नकिर लनल
B. ईवरचांद्र नवद्यनसनगर िे स्त्री अनधिनर आांदोलिों िी निांदन िी। (c) परर्ुरनम नसांि
C. औपनिवेनर्ि मनिौल में भनरत िन िवजनरण बुनिवनदी जनगरूितन (d) िररिर दनस
िे अलनवन रनष्ट्रीय आत्म पिचनि िन सांघर्श भी थन।

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Q8. सूची I िन सूची II से नमलनि िीनजए ‘गोदनि’ उपन्यनस में यि िथि किसिन िै?
सूची –I पुस्तिों में उद्धृत िनव्य पांनियनाँ सूची –II पुस्तिें (a) गोबर
A. उठ गए आज बनपू िमनरे झुि गयन आज I. सांस्िृ नत िे (b) धनियन
झांिन िमनरन। चनर अध्यनय (c) र्ोभन
B. सोिे िी थनरी में जेविन परोसो रनमन II. आवनरन (d) नसनलयन
जेविन पन जेवै िमनर बलमन मसीिन
Q13. िीचे दो िथि कदए गए िैंः
C. तुलसी गांग दोऊ भये, सुिनवि िो III. क्यन भूलूां क्यन
िथि-I: ‘झूठन सच’ ‘तमस’ और ‘नजन्दगी िनमन’ आकद उपन्यनसों में
सरदनर नतििे िनव्यि में नमली,भनर्न यनद िरू अििे पनत्र पांजनबी पृष्ठभूनम िे िैं। इसनलए इि उपन्यनसों में निन्दी और
नवनवध प्रिनर उदूश िे अनतररि ििीं-ििीं पांजनबी िे भी सांवनद उपयोग में लनए गए िैं।
D. जीवि मांथि से नििलन नवर्, वि जो IV. मुदशनियन िथि-II: ‘आपिन बांटी’ िे अिुसनर बांटी िन पूरन िनम अरूप बत्रन िै।
तुमिे पनि कियन और अमृत िो बनिर उपरोि िथि िे आलोि में, िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सबसे उपयुि
आयन, उसे जगत िो दनि कदयन उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
निम्नलनखत नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः (a) िथि I और II दोिों सत्य िैं
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (b) िथि I और II दोिों असत्य िैं
(b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (c) िथि I सत्य िै, लेकिि िथि II असत्य िै
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (d) िथि I असत्य िै लेकिि िथि II सत्य िै
(d) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Q14. भनि आन्दोलि पर किस िनव िे गांभीरतन से नवचनर कियन िैः
Q9. ‘नप्रय प्रवनस िन प्रथम सगश एि िी छन्द में रचन गयन िै।’ नप्रय प्रवनस (a) मुनिबोध
िन प्रथम सगश एि िी छन्द में रचन गयन िै। यि छांद िैः (b) रघुवरी सिनय
(a) र्नदूशलनवक्रीनित छन्द (c) रनजेर् जोर्ी
(b) द्रुतनवलनबबत छन्द (d) ओम प्रिनर् वनल्मीकि
(c) मांदनक्रनन्तन छन्द
Q15. िनगरी प्रचनररणी सभी िे सांस्थनपि िैंः
(d) वसन्तनतलिन छन्द
A. नर्व िु मनर नसांि
B. मेितन लज्जनरनम
Q10. ‘लनल पनि िी बेगम’ ििनिी में स्त्री -पनत्र िैः
C. रनमिनरनयण नमश्र
A. सुिनसी
D. बनलिृ ष्ण भट्ट
B. चनबपयन
E. श्यनम सुांदर दनस
C. जोनतयन िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
D. मखिी िु आ (a) िे वल A, B और D
E. सुिरी (b) िे वल A, C और E
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः (c) िे वल B, C और D
(a) िे वल A, B और D (d) िे वल B, D और E
(b) िे वल A, D और E
(c) िे वल B, C और E Q16. उपन्यनसें में गीतों-िनवतनओं िे प्रयोग पर सत्य िथि िैंः
(d) िे वल B, D और E A. ‘झूठन सच’ में पांजनबी िनवयों बुल्लेर्नि-बनबन िरीद िी िनवतनएाँ
प्रयुि िैं।
Q11. सूफ़ी प्रेमनख्यनि ििी िैः B. ‘नजन्दगीिनमन’ में निन्दी िनवयों तुलसी, सूर िे पदों िन प्रयोग िै।
(a) श्यनम सगनई C. ‘मैलन आाँचल’ में सुनमत्रनिांदि पन्त िी िनवतन िन इस्तेमनल कियन
गयन िै।
(b) इन्द्रवती
D. ‘मनिस िन िांस’ में मोनििी रैदनस िन एि भजि गनती िै।
(c) युसुफ़ जुलखन
E. ‘तमस’ में ‘सवे भवन्तु सुनखिः---’ िन उपयोग कियन गयन िै।
(d) िांस जवननिर
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
(a) िे वल A, B और C
Q12. ‘ये ित्यनरे गनाँवद िे मुनखयन िैं, गरीबों िन खूि चूसिे वनले!
(b) िे वल B, C और D
सूद-ब्यनज, िेढ़ी-सवनई, िजर-जिरनिन, घूस-घनस जैसे भी िो, गरीबों िो
(c) िे वल C, D और E
लूटो। उस पर सुरनज चननिए जेल जनिे से सुरनज ि नमलेगन। सुरनज (d) िे वल A, C और D
नमलेगन धरम से, न्यनय से।’
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Q17. सत्य िथि िैंः निम्नलनखत नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
A. भरत िे ‘िनट्यर्नस्त्र’ िे 16 वें अध्यनय में अलांिनरी िन निरूपण कियन (a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-III
िै। (b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
B. उद्भव, जयदेव और प्रनतिनरेन्दुरनज अलांिनर सबप्रदनय िे आचनयश िै। (c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(d) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
C. ‘िनव्यनदर्श’ िे दूसरे और तीसरे पररच्छेदों में अलांिनर-निरूपण िैं
D. ‘िनव्यनलांिनर’ में 6 पररच्छेद िैं।
Q22. ‘रनमचररतमनिस िे उत्तरिनांि में उन्िोंिे ज्ञनि िी अपेक्षन भनि
E. ‘िनव्यनलांिनर-सनर सांग्रि’ रुद्रट िन ग्रन्थ िै।
िो ििीं अनधि सुसनध्य और आर्ुिलदननयिी ििन िै।’ -यि िथि किस
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
इनतिनसिर िन िै?
(a) िे वल A, B और C
(a) रनमचांद्र र्ुक्ल
(b) िे वल B, C और D
(b) नवविनथप्रसनद नमश्र
(c) िे वल C, D और E
(c) िजनरीप्रसनद निवेदी
(d) िे वल B, D और E
(d) रनमिु मनर वमनश

Q18. निम्नांकिम िनटिों िो उििे प्रथम प्रिनर्ि वर्श िे अिुसनर पिले

Q23. ‘अाँधेरे में’ िनवतन में पनगल िनरन गनये गए गनि िी पांनियनाँ िैंः
से बनद िे क्रम में लगनइएः
A. मर गयन देर्, अरे जीनवत रि गये तुम
A. रनज्यश्री
B. जि-मि-िरुणन सी मनाँ िो िाँिनल कदयन
B. चरणदनस चोर
C. स्वनथों िे पिनि खिे िर नलए
C. भनरत सौभनग्य
D. नववेि िो मनर िनलन, तिश िी जबनि बांद िर दी
D. बटोिी
E. अब ति क्यन कियन, जीवि क्यन नजयन
E. पिलन रनजन
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
(a) िे वल A, B और E
(a) E, C, A, D, B
(b) िे वल B, C और E
(b) C, A, D, E, B
(c) D, C, A, E, B (c) िे वल A, C और E
(d) C, A, E, B, d (d) िे वल B, C और D

Q19. ‘मनलवी’ िन िें द्र िै? Q24. “चांचल किर्ोर सुन्दरतन िी िरती रिती रखवनली, मैं वि िलिी
(a) जयपुर सी मसलि हाँ जो बिती िनिों िी लनली।”
(b) इांदौर यि किसिन सांवनद िै?
(c) जोधपुर (a) नचांतन
(d) जबलपुर (b) इिन
(c) श्रिन
Q20. ‘िबीर िन घर नसखर पर, जिनाँ नसलिली गैल’- इस वनक्यनांर् में (d) लज्जन
‘नसलिली’ र्ब्द िन क्यन अथश िैः
(a) निलती हुई नसल Q25. ‘सांस्िृ नत िे चनर अध्यनय’ में नतलि िे बनरे में उपयुि बनतें िौि
(b) किसलिे लनयि सी िैं?
(c) प्रिनर् युि A. गीतन रिस्य में नतलि जी िे सुस्पष्ट घोर्णन िी कि गीतन ि उद्देश्य
(d) सुििरी निवृनत्त ििीं प्रवृनत्त िन प्रनतपनदि कियन िै।
B. िमशण गृिस्थ िो योगी, सन्यनसी औ भि समिक्ष ििीं मनपन जन
Q21. सूची I िन सूची II से नमलनि िीनजए सितन िै।
सूची –I स्त्री पनत्र सूची –II पनत/प्रेमी C. नतलि िे उपदेर् तत्िनलीि समय में वीरतन, निभीितन और सच्चनई
A. र्ीलो I. असद िे सबसे बिे उपदेर् थे।
B. तनरन II. रनजेन्द्र D. गीतन िन मनगश सांन्यनस िन मनगश िै, सांसनर त्यनग और िमश न्यनस िनम
C. ििि III. रति मनगश िै।
D. ऊर्न IV. पुरी E. नतलि जी िे बतनयन कि योग िन अथश गीतन में िमश िै।

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िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः Q30. सत्य िथि िैंः
(a) िे वल A, C और E A. वैदभी रीनत में ओजगुण-प्रिनर्ि वणों िी अनधितन िोती िै।
(b) िे वल B, D और E B. भरत िे िनट्यर्नस्त्र में रीनत िे नलए ‘प्रवृनत्त’ र्ब्द िन उल्लेख िै।
(c) िे वल A, C और D C. वनमि िे रीनत िे पनाँ प्रिनर मनिे िैं- वैदभी, गौिी, पनांचनली, र्रेसैिी
(d) िे वल B, C और E और लनटीयन।
D. िुां ति िे रीनत िो मनगश ििन िै।
Q26. ‘भनरत दुदशर्न’ िनटि में निम् पनत्रों िे मांच पर आिे िन सिी क्रम E. भोज िे ‘अवनन्तिन’ और ‘मनगधी’ िनमि दो िई वृनत्तयों िी उद्भनविन
क्यन िै? िी।
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
A. आलस्य
(a) िे वल A, B और C
B. रोग
(b) िे वल B, C और D
C. भनरत दुदैव
(c) िे वल C, D और E
D. मकदरन
(d) िे वल B, D और E
E. भनरत
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः Q31. ‘देर् िी बनत’ निबांध िे लेखि िौि िैं?
(a) B, C, D, E, A (a) प्रतनपिनरनयण नमश्र
(b) E, B, D, A, C (b) मैनथली र्रण गुप्त
(c) E, C, B, A, D (c) मिनवरी प्रसनद निवेदी
(d) C, E, D, B, A
(d) भनरतेंदु िररश्चन्द्र

Q27. ‘भोलनरनम िन जीवि’ ििनिी िे अिुसनर भोलनरनम िो ररटनयर Q32. किस रचिन िे एि पनत्र िी जबनि पर उठते-बैठते निम्नलनखत
िोिे िे कितिे वर्श बनद ति पेंर्ि ि नमली थी? दोिन रितन थन?
(a) 3 “पुरुर् नसांि जो उद्यमी, लक्ष्मी तनिरर चेरी।
(b) 5 भनग्य भरोसे जे रिैं िु पुरुर् भनर्नि टेरी।।”
(c) 7
(a) प्रेमचांद घर में
(d) 9
(b) आवरन मसीिन
(c) क्यन भूलूां क्यन यनद िरूां
Q28. ‘तीसरी िसम’ ििनिी िे अिुसर िीरबनई िन सांबांध किि दो
(d) मुदशनियन
िां पनियों से हुआ?
(a) रौतन िां पिी-जगमोिि िां पिी Q33. सूची I िन सूची II से नमलनि िीनजए
(b) मथुरन मोिि - जगमोिि िां पिी सूची –I आचनयश सूची –II पुस्ति
(c) सगुि िां पिी-रौतन िां पिी A. भनिुदत्त I. भनव प्रिनर्ि
(d) मथुरनमोिि िां पिी - रौतन िां पिी B. रनमचन्द्र गुणचन्द्र II. व्यनि नववेि
C. र्नरदनतिय III. िनट्यदपशण
Q29. ‘स्िां दगुप्त’ िे स्त्री पनत्र िैंः D. मनिमभट्ट IV. रस मांजरी
A. जेतन निम्नलनखत नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
B. देविी (a) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
C. मननलिी (b) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
D. रनमन
(d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
E. चांदन
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः Q34. स्मृनत-आख्यनि (सांस्मरण) िी पुस्तिें िैंः
(a) िे वल A, B और C A. िांगनतलनई िन गनाँव
(b) िे वल B, C और D B. मुखिन क्यन देखे
(c) िे वल C, D और E C. लौट आ ओ धनर
(d) िे वल A, C और D D. यनद िो कि ि यनद िो
E. गोलमेज
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िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः Q38. िनगनजुशि िी ‘िननलदनस’ िनवतन में निम् में से किसिन उल्लेख िै?
(a) िे वल A, C और D A. नवक्रम
(b) िे वल A, D और E B. यक्ष
(c) िे वल B, C और D C. र्िु न्तलन
(d) िे वल B, D और E D. इन्दुमती
E. अज
Q35. पनश्चनत्य िनव्य नचांतिों िो उििे जन्म वर्श िे अिुसनर पिले से िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
बनद िे क्रम में व्यवनस्थत िीनजएः (a) िे वल A, B और C
(b) िे वल B, C और E
A. आई.ए.ररचिश
(c) िे वल A, D और E
B. मैथ्यू अिनशल्ि
(d) िे वल B, Dऔर E
C. िॉलररज
D. नवनलयम वर्डस्वशथश Q39. रनम, िृ ष्ण और नर्व िे व्यनित्व पर किस समनजवनदी नचांति िे
E. टी.एस.इलीयट नवचनर कियन िै?
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः (a) जयप्रिनर् िनरनयण
(a) D, B, C, A, E (b) रनममिोिर लोनियन
(b) C, D, E, B, A (c) आचनयश िरेंद्र देव
(c) C, D, A, B, E (d) मधु नलमये
(d) D, C, B, E, A
Q40. “अजी िजरत, यिी चोरी िरनते िैं। र्िर िे नजतिे चोर-िनिू िैं,
Q36. सूची I िन सूची II से नमलनि िीनजए सब इिसे नमले रिते िैं। रनत िो ये लोग से चोरों से ििते िैं, चोरो िरो
सूची –I सूची –II और आप दूसरे मुिल्ले में जनिर ‘जनगते रिो! जनगते रिो।।’ पुिनरते िैं।”
A. िृ पी I. मिनभोज यि सांवनद ‘ईदगनि’ ििनिी िे किस पनत्र िन िै?
B. किन्नी II. चन्द्रगुप्त (a) मिमूद
C. जमिन बिि III. आधे अधूरे (b) मोिसीि
D. िल्यनणी IV. एि और द्रोणनचनयश (c) िूरे
निम्नलनखत नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः (d) सबमी
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(b) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II Q41. ‘आगरन बनजनर’ िनटि िन आरांभ किस िज़्म से िोतन िै?
(c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (a) िन्िैयन िन बनलपि
(d) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (b) बलदेव जी िन मेलन
(c) आदमीिनमन
Q37. देविनगरी नलनप िे सांबांध में निम्निनलखत बनते उपयुि िैं (d) र्िर आर्ोब
A. जैसे बोजन जनतन िै देविनगरी में वैसन िी नलखन जनतन िै।
Q42. िीचे दो िथि कदए गए िैंः
B. एि नलनप नचन्् से अिेि ध्वनियों िो व्यि िरिे िी क्षमतन िै।
िथि-I: वर्डस्वशथश िे अिुसनर िनवतन ‘स्वतः स्िू तश अनभव्यनि िै।
C. सांनवधनि में देविनगरी नलनप में नलनखत निन्दी िो रनजभनर्न मनिन
िथि-II: िॉलररज िे अिुसनर रबय िल्पिन िे वल स्मृनत पर निभशर िै
गयन िै।
जबकि िल्पिन प्रेरणन और अवधनरणन आकद अिेि स्त्रोतों से सनमग्री
D. देविनगरी नलनप में पांजनब और उनियन भनर्न नलखी जनती िै।
सांचय िरती िै।
E. ध्वनि और सांिेत में निनश्चततन िै। उपरोि िथि िे आलोि में, िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सबसे उपयुि
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
(a) िे वल A, B और E (a) िथि I और II दोिों सत्य िैं
(b) िे वल A, B और D (b) िथि I और II दोिों असत्य िैं
(c) िे वल A, C और E (c) िथि I सत्य िै, लेकिि िथि II असत्य िै
(d) िे वल B, Dऔर E (d) िथि I असत्य िै लेकिि िथि II सत्य िै

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Q43. सूची I िन सूची II से नमलनि िीनजए िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
सूची –I ‘उसिे ििन थन’ में आए पांजनबी सूची –II निन्दी अथश (a) िे वल A, B और E
र्ब्द (b) िे वल B, C और D
(c) िे वल B, D और E
A. िु िमनई I. गधन
(d) िे वल C, Dऔर E
B. घुमनव II. मांगिी
C. खोते III. तीनमयों/तीमी Q47. भनरतीय लोितांत्र िी आलोचिन िरिे वनलन िनटि-युग्म िैंः
D. नस्त्रयों/स्त्री IV. जमीि िी िनप (a) बिरी - आगरन बनजनर
निम्नलनखत नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः (b) अांधनयुग - एि और द्रोणनचनय्र
(a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (c) बिरी - मिनभोज
(b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (d) अांधनयुग - आधे अधूरे
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(d)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-III Q48. निम्नलनखत घटिनओं िो पिले से बनद िे क्रम में व्यवनस्थत
िीनजएः
Q44. िीचे दो िथि कदए गए िैंः A. आयशसमनज िन स्थनपिन वर्श
िथि-I: ‘रोज’ उफ़श गैंग्रीि’ ििनिी िे अिुसनर मनलती िे पनत िन िनम B. आिांद मठ िन प्रिनर्ि वर्श
नववेवर िै और वे एि छोटे से रेलवे स्टेर्ि िे स्टेर्ि मनस्टर िैं। C. गीतनांजनल िन प्रिनर्ि वर्श
D. नवव धमश सभी में नववेिनिांद सांबोधि
िथि-II: ‘चीि िी दनवत’ ििनिी में चीि िे आग्रि पर मनाँ िे एि
E. ब्रह्म समनज िन स्थनपिन वर्श
पुरनिन टप्पन ‘दो पत्तर अिनरनाँ दे’.... गनिर सुिनयन
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
उपरोि िथि िे आलोि में, िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सबसे उपयुि (a) E, B, C, A, D
उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः (b) E, B, D, A, C
(a) िथि I और II दोिों सिी िैं (c) E, A, B, D, C
(d) A, E, B, D, C
(b) िथि I और II दोिों गलत िैं
(c) िथि I सत्य िै, लेकिि िथि II गलत िै Q49. किस स्थनि िे लोग बिे-बिे िखों िो पसांद िरते थे?
(d) िथि I गलत िै लेकिि िथि II सत्य िै (a) दनक्षणनत्य
(b) गौि देर्
Q45. र्रत् िे सांबांध में उपयुि िथि िैं। (c) उज्जनयिी
A. र्रत् बचपि में िरपोि स्वभनव िे थे। (d) स्थनणवीवर
B. गृिस्थी से र्रत् िन िभी लगनव ििीं रिन।
C. र्रत् बनबू िी रचिनओं पर ‘नबरजबह’ और ‘नवजयन’ िनटि िन Q50. ‘आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि’ में पतांजनल िन उल्लेख िौि सन पनत्र िरतन
िै?
रूपनांतरण हुआ।
(a) अिुस्वनर
D. अपिे भनई िी समननध र्रत् िे घर िे पनस िदी िे तट पर बिवनई
(b) अिुिननसि
थी।
(c) रांनगणी
E. र्रत् िे िोई वसीयतिनमन ििीं नलखन थन। (d) सांनगिी
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
(a) िे वल A, B और C Q51. रनमचन्द्र र्ुक्ल िे अिुसनर रीनतग्रांथिनर िनव िैः
(b) िे वल B, D और E A. िु लपनत नमश्र
(c) िे वल B, C और D B. बेिी बांदीजि
(d) िे वल A, Bऔर D C. बख्र्ी िांसरनज
D. गुमनि नमश्र
E. ग्वनल िनव
Q46. िबीर-सननित्य िे अध्येतन िैंः
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
A. इमरै बांघन
(a) िे वल A, B और C
B. पुरुर्ोत्तम अग्रवनल (b) िे वल A, B और E
C. वीरेन्द्र यनदव (c) िे वल B, C और D
D. धमशवीर (d) िे वल B, D और E
E. िेनवि लॉरेंजि
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Q52. निम्नांकित अिुवनदों िो उििे निन्दी में पिली बनर प्रिननर्त िोिे िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
िे वर्श िे अिुसनर पिले से बनद िे क्रम में लगनइएः (a) िे वल A, B और D
A. खनियन िन घेरन (b) िे वल B, C और E
B. एिनांतवनसी योगी (c) िे वल C, D और E
C. श्रनांत पनथि (d) िे वल A, B और E
D. िनमदेव िन अपिन बसांत ऋतु िन सपिन
E. नवव प्रपांच Q56. िीचे दो िथि कदए गए िैः एि अनभिथि (Assertion A) िे रूप
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः में नलनखत िै तो दूसरन उसिे (Reason R) िनरण िे रूप मेंः
(a) B, C, D, E, A, अनभिथि अांग्रेजों िे पुरनिी आर्श्थि श सांरचिन िो बदलन, जमीि िन ियन
(b) C, B, D, A, E बांदोबस्त कियन। िये बांदोबस्त िे िनरण िो क्रय-नवक्रय िरिे िी छू ट
(c) E, B, C, A, D नमल गई।
(d) D, A, B, C, E िनरण बदलती हुइर पररनस्थनतयों में बुनिजीवी वगश िे लोगों िे समनचनर
पत्रों िे मनध्यम से अांग्रेजों िे अत्यनचनरों िन नवरोध िरिन आरां भ िर
Q53. ‘उत्तरन िनल्गुिी िे आस पनस’ निबन्ध िे आधनर पर कदए गए
कदयन।
नववरणों में आयु िो छोटे से बिे िमश में सांयोनजत िरें।
उपरोि िथि िे आलोि में, िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सबसे उपयुि
A. ..... ज़रन और जीणशतन िी आगमिी िन समनचनर िनल तुरांत दूर से िी
उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
नििनििनिर दे जनतन िै।
(a) A और R दोिों सिी िैं और R, A िी सिी व्यनख्यन िै
B. .... से ज्यनदन असभ्यतन िै, अश्लीलतन अिैनतितन िै।
(b) A और R दोिों सिी िैं और R, A िी सिी व्यनख्यन ििीं िै
C. .... जीवि िे सबमुख िण उठनये एि प्रश्न नचह्ि िन उपनस्थत िरतन
(c) A सिी िै, लेकिि R सिी ििीं िै
िै।
(d) A असिी ििीं िै, लेकिि R सिी िै
D. ..... इसमें जीणशतन और जजशरतन ििीं िै। यि ज़रन और वृित्व िन
प्रतीि ििीं। Q57. ‘मैलर आाँचल’ िे अिुसनर बनविदनस िे मृत्यु-स्थल िो ग्रनमीणों िे
E. ..... तब में व्यवस्थन िे पुतलीधर िी इि यांत्र िन्यनओं से मनिी मनांग क्यन रूप दे कदयन?
िर उत्तर पुरुर् िी जयजयिनर बोलते हुए मांच से बनिर आ जनऊाँगन। (a) बनवि िी िीि िन
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः (b) र्िीद स्मनरि िन
(a) A, C, B, D, E
(c) भनरत मनथन िन थनि िन
(b) C, B, D, A, E
(d) चेथररयन पीर िन
(c) C, D, B, A, E
(d) C, B, D, E, A
Q58. “लख िर अिथश आर्श्थि श पथ पर
Q54. ‘कदल्ली दरबनर दपशण’ निबांध िे अिुसनर किलनत िे खनाँ िो सब िनरतन रिन मैं स्वनथश - समर।”
नमलनिर कितिी िीमत िी वस्तुएाँ तुििे में नमलीं? -इस पांनियों में ‘मैं’ िन अथश िैः
(a) 20000 रुपये (a) निरनलन
(b) 25000 रुपये (b) रनम
(c) 30000 रुपये (c) मिु
(d) 35000 रुपये (d) पूरुरवन

Q55. निम्नलनखत में से िौि से िथि नववेिनिांद िे िैं? Q59. निम्नलनखत पुस्तिों िो उििे प्रथम प्रिनर्ि वर्श िे अिुसनर
A. “मजबूत बिो! िनयर और नलबनलबे ि बिे रिो! सनिसी बिो! िनयरों पिले से बनद िे क्रम में लगनइएः
िी जरूरत ििीं िै।” A. दुलशभ बन्धु
B. “समूचन सांसनर जब ति एि सनथ आगे िदम ििीं बढ़नतन, तब ति B. पनथि
िोई प्रगनत सांभव ििीं िै।” C. आदर्श निन्दू
C. “नर्क्षन से उत्पन्न ज्ञनि जितन िो नब्ररटर् र्नसि िन सबमनि िरिन D. इनतिनस नतनमरिनर्ि
नसखनएगी और उिमें एि िद ति इस र्नसि िे प्रनत अपित्व िी भनविन E. चन्द्रिनांतन सांतनत
भी पैदन िरेगी।” िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
(a) E, D, A, B, C
D. “मनिव हृदय से मैं सांगीि िी िोि िे बूते बुरनई िो िटनिे में यिीि
(b) D, A, E, C, B
ििीं िरतन।” (c) C, B, D, E, A
E. “समनज िे सभी सदस्यों िो सांपनत्त, नर्क्षन अथवन ज्ञनि प्रनप्त िरिे िे (d) D, E, A, B, C
नलए समनि अवसर नमलिे चननिए।”
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Q60. सूची I िन सूची II से नमलनि िीनजए Q64. निम्नलनखत में से अनविनरी र्ब्द िैं।
सूची –I पांनि सूची –II (a) सांज्ञन
पुस्ति/िनवतन (b) नवर्ेर्ण कक्रयन
A. पूछेगन जग किन्तु, नपतन िन िनम ि I. सनिे त (c) कक्रयन
बोल सिें गे (d) नवर्ेर्ण
B. ि िु छ िि सिी अपिी, ि उन्िीं िी II. गीत फ़रेर्
पूछ मैं सिी भय से Q65. सूची I िन सूची II से नमलनि िीनजए
C. तोि दो यि नक्षनतज मैं भी देख लूाँ उस III. रनश्मरथी सूची –I सूची –II
ओर क्यन िै A. आयु और ऋतुओं िन सांबांध I. उठ जनग मुसनकिर
D. जी, लोगों िे तो बेच कदये ईमनि IV. सनांध्यगीत B. मनतन, मनतृभूनम और II. मेरे रनम िन मुिुट भीग
निम्नलनखत नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः जन्मभूनम प्रेम रिन िै
(a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II C. िल्यनण िन रूप III. उत्तरन िनल्गुि िे आस-
(b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III पनस
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I D. िई पीढ़ी िे प्रनत पुरनिी पीढ़ी IV. नर्व मूर्श्तश
(d)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
िी नचांतन
Q61. रनमचन्द्र र्ुक्ल िे आकदिनल िे ‘अपभ्रांर् िनव्य’ र्ीर्शि प्रिरण में निम्नलनखत नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
(a) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
निम् िनवयों िन उल्लेख कियन िैः
(b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
A. मुधिर िनव
(c) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
B. श्रीधर (d)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
C. देवसेि
D. सोमप्रभ सूरी Q66. ‘परीक्षनगुरु’ उपन्यनस िे नवनवध प्रिरणों िे र्ीर्शि िैंः
E. नवद्यनधर A. दुजशितन
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः B. ईवर प्रेम
(a) िे वल A, C और E C. प्रनमननणितन
(b) िे वल A, D और E D. अदनलत
(c) िे वल B, C और D E. प्रेत भय
(d) िे वल C, D और E िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
(a) िे वल A, B और C
Q62. िीचे दो िथि कदए गए िैंः (b) िे वल C, D और E
िथि-I: ‘नगररधर’ बहुब्रीिी समनस िन उदनिरण िै।
(c) िे वल B, C और D
िथि-II: ‘रनमिृ ष्ण’ तत्पुरुर् समनस िन उदनिरण िै। (d) िे वल B, C और E
उपरोि िथि िे आलोि में, िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सबसे उपयुि
उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः Q67. निम्नलनखत िनवतनओं िो रचिनिनल-प्रथम प्रिनर्ि वर्श िे
(a) िथि I और II दोिों सत्य िैं आधनर पर पिले से बनद िे क्रम में लगनइएः
(b) िथि I और II दोिों असत्य िैं A. असनध्यवीणन
(c) िथि I सत्य िै, लेकिि िथि II असत्य िै B. पररवतशि
(d) िथि I असत्य िै लेकिि िथि II सत्य िै C. िु िु रमुत्तन
D. मोचीरनम
Q63. जयर्ांिर प्रसनद िे िनटिों िो मांच पर सिलतनपूवशि प्रस्तुत िरिे
E. अाँधेरे में
वनले निदेर्ि िैं?
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
(a) िबीब तिवीर - इब्रननिम अलिनजी
(a) B, C, A, E, D
(b) बी. वी. िनांरत - र्नांतन गनाँधी (b) C, B, E, A, D
(c) सत्यदेव दुबे - श्यनमनिांद जनलनि (c) B, A, C, D, E
(d) रनजेन्द्रिनथ - ओम नर्वपुरी (d) C, A, B, E, D

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Q68. िनांग्रेस िनयशिनररणी सनमनत िी ििनाँ िी बैठि में ‘सनविय अवज्ञन िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
आांदोलि’ वनपस लेिे िी स्वीिृ नत दी गई? (a) िे वल A, B और C
(a) सूरत (b) िे वल B, C और D
(b) बनरिोली (c) िे वल B, D और E
(c) िलित्तन (d) िे वल A, D और E
(d) िनिपुर
Q74. ‘इांस्पेक्टर मनतनदीि चनाँद पर’ ििनिी िे अिुसनर इांसपेक्टर
मनतनदीि िे चनाँद पर जनिर जो िनम किए, उन्िें पिले से बनद िे क्रम में
Q69. ‘भनरत वर्श िी उन्ननत िै से िो सिती िै?’ निबन्ध्प में भनरतेंदु जी
लगनइएः
िे सब उन्ननतयों िन मूल किसे मनिन िै?
A. ििली चश्मदीद गवनि बिनिन नसखनयन
(a) धमश B. जनि बचनिे वनले आदमी िो अपरनधी बिनिर जेल में िनल कदयन
(b) सांस्िृ नत C. थनिों में ििुमनि मांकदर बिवनए
(c) भनर्न D. पुनलस िन मनिवतनवनद-इस अवधनरणन में पुनलस वनलों िन नववनस
(d) िृ नर् जगनयन
E. पुनलसवनलों िी तिख्वनिें िम िरनईं
Q70. ‘पररांदे’ ििनिी िे प्रनरबभ में अांगरेजी भनर्न में एि उिरण िै। यि िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
किस लेखि िन िै? (a) C, E, B, D, A
(a) अन्तोि चेखव (b) D, E, B, A, C
(c) E, A, B, D, C
(b) िै थरीि मेन्सिील्ि
(d) A, C, B, E, D
(c) ज्यनाँ पॉल सनत्रश
(d) ओ. िेिरी Q75. “इििन जीवि बिश िी पनवत्रतन से पूणश और वि िी सुगध
ां से
सुगनन्धत िै” िथि किसिे बनरे में िै?
Q71. सूची I िन सूची II से नमलनि िीनजए (a) नजल्दसनज
सूची –I सूची –II (b) बनग़ िन मनली
A. देर् िन धि I. बनल गांगनधर नतलि (c) िल चलनिे वनलन
B. गुलनमगीरी II. तनरनबनई नर्ांदे (d) भेि चरनिे वनले
C. स्त्री-पुरुर् तुलिन III. रनधनमोिि गोिु ल
Q76. ‘मिुष्य िे मि से सुन्दर और िु छ ििीं िोतन।’ ईवर यकद िैं तो
D. गीतन रिस्य IV. जोनतबन िु ले
मिुष्य िे मि में िी समनए िैं। ‘मनिस िन िांस’ उपन्यनस में यि सांवनद
निम्नलनखत नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः किसिन िै?
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (a) तुलसी
(b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (b) गांगनरनम
(c) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (c) िरिरर दनस
(d)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(d) मोनििी

Q72. निम्नलनखत मेंसे अधश सांवृत स्वर िैं Q77. ‘नवज्ञनि और िनवतन’ (Science and poetry) पुस्ति िे लेखि
(a) आ िौि िैंः
(b) ऐ, औ (a) आई. ए. ररचर्डसश
(c) ए, ओ (b) टी.एस.ईनलयट
(d) उ, ऊ (c) मैथ्यू अिनशल्ि
(d) रेमांि नवनलयबस
Q73. स्वनिम िे सांबांध में उपयुि िथि िैं।
A. वनक्य में र्ब्दों िे सांबांध निधनशररत िरते िैं। Q78. ‘आलोचिन’ पनत्रिन िे सबपनदि ििीं रिे िैं?
B. इसिन सांबांध मौनखि भनर्न से िै। (a) अरुणन िमल
C. सनथशितन िी दृनष्ट से र्ब्द लघुतम इिनई िै। (b) परमनिन्द श्रीवनस्तव
(c) िनमवर नसांि
D. यि उच्चररत भनर्न िी लघुतम इिनई िै।
(d) िमलन प्रसनद
E. इसिन ज्ञनि भनर्न िे र्ुि उच्चनरण िो जनििे में सिनयि िै।

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Q79. निम्नलनखत में से भनरतेंदु िे निबांध िौि से िैं? Q84. िनटिों में गीतों िे प्रयोग िे बनरे में सत्य िथि िैंः
A. वैष्णवतन और भनरत वर्श A. ‘अांधेर िगरी’ में िबनब वनलन, िनरांगी वनलन, िुाँ जनिि, िलवनई और
B. देर्ोन्ननत ब्रनह्मण गीत गनिर अपिी बनत ििते िैं।
C. लेवी प्रनण लेवी B. दोिन छांद िन प्रयोग ‘अांधेर िगरी’ और ‘बिरी’ िनटिों में कियन गयन
D. सुनर्नक्षतों िन ितशव्य िै।
E. भनरत वर्श िी उन्ननत िै से िो सिती िै? C. ‘मिनभोज’ ‘आधे अधूरे’ और ‘आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि’ में िोई भी पनत्र
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः गीत ििीं गनतन िै।
(a) िे वल A, B और C D. ‘स्िां दगुप्त’ में ‘आि वेदिन नमली नवदनई’ गीत देवसेिन गनती िै।
(b) िे वल B, C और D E. ‘भनरत दुदशर्न’ में कितनबखनिन वनले दृश्य में छि सभ्य लोग नमलिर
(c) िे वल A, C और E एि गीत गनते िैं।
(d) िे वल A, D और E िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
(a) िे वल A, B और C
Q80. ‘मुझे अपिी िनवतनओं िे नलए (b) िे वल B, C और D
दूसरे प्रजनतांत्र िी तलनर् िै’ (c) िे वल C, D और E
यि िथि किस िनवतन में िै? (d) िे वल B, D और E
(a) िक्सलबनिी
Q85. निम्नांकित पनत्र अलग-अलग उपन्यनसों िे िैं। पनत्रों िो तत्सांबांधी
(b) मोचीरनम
उपन्यनसों िे प्रथम प्रिनर्ि वर्श िे अिुसनर पिले से बनद िे क्रम में
(c) अिनल दर्शि
लगनइएः
(d) पटिथन
A. भैरवी
B. लीजन
Q81. निम्नलनखत में से किस नविनि िे बीसवीं सदी में भनरतीय
C. बेलन
िनव्यर्नस्त्र सांबांधी िोई पुस्ति ििीं नलखी?
D. सरस्वती
(a) रनममूर्श्तश नत्रपनठी
E. बांती
(b) भोलनर्ांिर व्यनस
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
(c) रनमचन्द्र र्ुक्ल (a) C, A, D, E, B
(d) रनमनवलनस र्मनश (b) D, A, E, C, B
(c) B, A, E, D, C
Q82. आिनरनांत एिवचि पुनल्लांग सांज्ञनओं िे नविृ त रूप िन प्रत्यय क्यन (d) A, E, d, C, B
िै?
(a) आ Q86. ‘बनिष्िृ त भनरत’ पत्र िन प्रिनर्ि किस वर्श आरांभ हुआ?
(a) 1919
(b) ए
(b) 1927
(c) र्ून्य प्रत्यय (c) 1930
(d) ई (d) 1938

Q83. सरदनर पूणश नसांि िे निबांध िै? Q87. निम्नांकित पुस्तिों िो उििे प्रथम प्रिनर्ि वर्श िे अिुसनर पिले
A. ियिों िी गांगन से बनद िे क्रम में लगनइएः
B. पनवत्रतन A. दूसरी परबपरन िी खोज
C. आचरण िी सभ्यतन B. इनतिनस और आलोचि
D. जय जमुिन मैयन जी C. िनवतन िी ज़मीि ओश्र ज़मीि िी िनवतन
E. िम िनर िनर तुम पनत पनत D. िनवतन िे िए प्रनतमनि
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः E. आलोचि और नवचनरधनरन
(a) िे वल B, C और D िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः
(b) िे वल A, C और D (a) B, D, A, C, E
(b) D, B, A, E, C
(c) िे वल A, B और C
(c) C, B, D, A, E
(d) िे वल C, D और E (d) B, A, C, E, D

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Q88. ‘िोसी िन घटवनर’ ििनिी में लछमन िे सांदभश में आये र्ब्द ‘िनलन धमश, दर्शि, रीनत ररवनजों और रुनचयों िो िसिन सीखन। मैिॉले िे सोचन
चरेऊ’ िन क्यन अथश िे? कि उसिी नर्क्षन-प्रणली भनरतीयों िी रनष्ट्रीय चेतिन िो िुां रठत िर देगी
(a) सुिनग नचह्ि और उन्िें वफ़नदनर गुलनम बिनिे में सिल िोगी। किन्तु, उसिे दर असल
(b) नबांकदयन जीवि िे प्रनत एि िए वैज्ञननिि दृनष्ट नबांदु िन आधनर तैयनर कियन और
(c) िरधिी िये रनष्ट्रीय जनगरण में भी सिनयमन पहुांचनयी। दूसरे र्ब्दों में, अांग्रेजों िी
(d) िां गि नर्क्षन िीनत िे भनरतीय बुनिजीनवयों िन एि ऐसन ियन वगश पैदन कियन,
जो पनश्चमी नवज्ञनि िे मूल तत्वों पनश्चम िे अनधि उन्नत सनांस्िृ नति
Q89. ‘अरे यनयनवर रिेगन यनद’ में मनझुली िीप किस रनज्य में नस्थत िै? मनिदांिों िो समझते और आत्मसनत िरते थे, औथ िी स्वयां अपिी
(a) उत्तर प्रदेर् मनतृभूनम िी उन्ननत िे नलए उििन उपयोग िरते थे। पनश्चमी नर्क्ष्ज्ञन िे
(b) असम भनरत में िये प्रिनर िी नवचनरधनरन िे नविनस िो सुगम बिनयन। इस
(c) मिनरनष्ट्र नवचनरधनरन िे अांग थेः युनियुितन, उदनरवनद, स्वांतत्रतन और जिवनद,
(d) निमनचल मनिवतनवनद तथन समनितन िे नवचनर, आधुनिि भनरतीय नचांति िो
र्ैली, बनयरि, िौबिि, नमल, स्पेंसर, िनलनशईल, रनस्िि, मोरले, नमल्टि,
Q90. ‘िनगमती नवयोग’ खांि में िनगमती िी नवरि-व्यथन िी अनभव्यनि लॉि, तथन बिश िे जो प्रोत्सनिि और बल प्रदनि कियन, उसे िम िरिे
िे नलए जनयसी िनरन रनचत पांनियनाँ िैंः ििीं आांिन जन सितन। वनस्तव में, आधुनिि भनरत िे मनस्तष्ि िो ढनलिे
A. घरी घरी नजउ आवश, घरी घरी नजउ जनई में पनश्चमी नवचरों िे निणनशयि भूनमिन अदन िी।
B. पनिि जरनिां, िोनिां सब चूिन
C. रित आाँसु घुाँघुची बि बोई Q91. उपयुशि अिुच्छेद िे अिुसनर आधुनिि नचांति िे नजि पनश्चमी
D. निरदय पैरठ नवरि िटांिांसन रचिनिनरों-नवचनरिों िे प्रोत्सनिि प्रदनि कियन उिमें ििीं िैः
E. सिस सिस दुख एि एि सनाँसन (a) नमल
िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से सिी उत्तर िन चयि िीनजएः (b) स्पेंसर
(a) िे वल A, B और C (c) िीत्र्े
(b) िे वल B, C और D (d) लॉि
(c) िे वल C, D और E
(d) िे वल A, C और E Q92. उपयुि श अिुच्छेद में किस ऐनतिननसि व्यनि िन उल्लेख ििीं िैः
(a) मैिॉले
निम्नलनखत अवतरण िो ध्यनिपूवि
श पकढ़ए और सांबनां धत प्रश्नों िे उत्तर (b) बनयरि
दीनजएः (c) नमल्टि
अांग्रेजी रनज में नर्क्षन सांबांधी सुधनर अांग्रेजों िी मिनितन िन िांिन पीटिे (d) मनक्सश
िे नलए र्ुरू किए गए थे। उपनिवेर्वनकदयों िे आर्न िी थी कि ‘नर्क्षन
से उत्पन्न ज्ञनि, जितन िो नब्ररटर् र्नसि िन सबमनि िरिन नसखनएगी Q93. उपयुशि अिुच्छेद िे अिुसनर पनश्चमी नर्क्षन िनरन भनरत में
और उसमें एि िद ति इस र्नसि िे प्रनत अपित्व िी भनविन भी पैदन नविनसत नवचनरधनरन िन अांग ििीं थनः
िरेगी।’ और, जैसन कि एनल्िन्स्टि िे ििन, नब्ररटर् नर्क्षन “भनरतीय (a) सवशधमशसमसभनव
जितन िो नब्ररटर् र्नसि िो प्रसन्नतन से स्वीिनर िरिे योग्य बिनयेगी।” (b) उदनरवनद
किन्तु यि अिुमनि से पूणशतः गलत सननबत हुआ। नब्ररटर् िीनत में (c) समनितन िन नवचनर
अनिवनयशतः िु छ ऐसे अन्तर्श्वशरोध थे नजन्िें सुलझनयन ििीं जन सितन थन। (d) जिवनद
उसिन उद्देश्य थन नविनर्, किन्तु पररणनम हुआ पुिरुज्जीवि। नर्क्षन
प्रणनली िे प्रयत्न तो कियन भनरत िोई आत्मन िो िु चल देिे िन, किन्तु Q94. उपयुशि अिुच्छेद िे अिुसनर अांग्रेजी रनज में नर्क्षन सांबांधी सुधनरों
वनस्तव में यि एि ऐसे आन्दोलि िे बीच बो रिी थी, नजसिे अन्ततः िन उद्देश्य ििीं थनः
स्वयां नब्ररटर् र्नसि िो िी उखनि िें िन। नब्ररटर् नर्क्षन िे भनरतीय (a) नब्ररटर् र्नसि िे प्रनत अपित्व पैदन िरिे िे नलए
बुनिजीनवयों िे सनमिे और रनजीिनति स्वनतांय्त्त्र िे अन्य नक्षनतज (b) अांग्रेजों िी मिनितन िन िांिन पीटिे िे नलए
उद्घनरटत किए। नर्नक्षत भनरतीयों िे एि ओर तो दूसरे देर्ों िे (c) भनरत िी आत्मन िो िवजीवि देिे िे नलए
प्रगनतर्ील नवचनरों और उििी वैज्ञननिि उपलनब्ध्यों िी सरनििन िरिन (d) जितन में नब्ररटर् र्नसि िे प्रनत सबमनि पैदन िरिे िे नलए
सीखन और दूसरी ओर िए ज्ञनि िी िसौटी पर स्वांय अपिी परबपरनओं
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Q95. उपयुि
श अिुच्छेद िे अिुसनर अांग्रेजी नर्क्षन से भनरतीयों में जो िई Q96. यकद पुरनिे नववनस खांनित िो जनएाँ तो, उपयुशि उिरण िे अिुसनर
चतिन जनगी, उसिे भनरतीयों पर क्यन प्रभनव िनलन? यथनथशवनदी व्यनि िन पिलन िनम क्यन िोगन?
(a) भनरतीयों में जीवि प्रनत िये वैज्ञननिि दृनष्टनबांदु िन आधनर बिनयन। (a) मिुष्यों िो मूढ़ और प्रनतकक्रवनदी बिनिन
(b) भनरतीयों िे दूसरे देर्ों िे प्रगनतर्ील नवचनरों िी सरनििन िरिन (b) पुरनिे नववनसों िी पुिः स्थनपिन िन प्रयनस िरिन
नसखन (c) पुरनिे नववनसों िे स्थनि पर िए दर्शि िी स्थनपिन िे नलए जगि
(c) भनरतीयों में पनश्चम िे प्रनत घृणन िन भनव जनगन सनफ़ िरिन
(d) भरतीयों में िए ज्ञनि िी िसौटी पर भनरतीय परबपरन िो िसिन (d) पुरनिे नववनसों िी आलोचिनओं िन जवनब देिन
सीखन
Q97. उपयुि श उिरण िे अिुसनर यथनथशवनदी व्यनि िो क्यन िरिन
निम्नलनखत अवतरण िो ध्यनिपूवि श पकढ़ए और सांबनां धत प्रश्नों िे उत्तर िोगन?
दीनजएः (a) सभी प्रनचीि नववनसों िो चुिौती देिन
मेरे नवचनर से िोई भी नववेि र्नि िै, वि अपिे वनतनवरण िो तनर्िश ि (b) पुरनिे नववनसों िे नलए जगि सनफ़ िरिन
रूप से समझिन चिेगन। दुभनशग्य िी बनत िै कि बजनय इसिे िम अपिे (c) पुरनिे नववनसों िो तिश से बचनिन
पुरनिे नविनिों एवां नवचनरिों िे अिुभवों तथन नवचनरों िन भनवष्य में (d) िए नववनसों िे निमनशण िी प्रकक्रयन िो बननधत िरिन
अज्ञनितन िे नवरूि लिनई िन आधनर बिनएां और इस रिस्यमय प्रश्न िो
िल िरिे िी िोनर्र् िरें, िम आलनसयों िी तरि, जो कि िम नसि िो Q98. उपयुि श उिरण िे अिुसनर नविनस िे नलए मिुष्य िो क्यन ििीं
चुिे िैं, नववनस िी -उििे िनन ि में अनवचल एवां सांर्यिीि नववनस िी िरिन िोगन?
चीख-पुिनर मचनते रिते िैं। इस प्रिनर मनिवतन िे नविनस िो जि (a) रूकढ़गत नववनसों िी चुिौती देिी िोगी।
बिनिे िे अपरनधी िैं। प्रत्येि मिुष्य िो, जो नविनस िे नलए खिन िै, (b) प्रचनलत मतों िो तिश िी िसौटी से बचनिन िोगन।
रूकढ़गत नववनसों िे िर पिलू िी आलोचिन तथन उिपर अनववनस (c) रूकढ़गत नववनसों िी लोचिन िरिी िोगी।
िरिन िोगन और चुिौती देिी िोगी। प्रत्येि प्रचनलत मत िी िर बनत (d) रूकढ़यों पर अनववनस िरिन िोगन
िो िर िोिे से तिश िी िसौटी पर िसिन िोगन। यकद िनिी तिश िे बनद
भी वि किसी नसिनांत अथवन दर्शि िे प्रनत प्रेररत िोतन िै, तो उसिे Q99. उपयुशि उिरण िे अिुसनर मनिवतन िे नविनस िो जि बिनिे
नववनस िन स्वनगत िै। इसिन तशि असत्य, भ्रनमत यन छलनवन और िभी- वनले अपरनधी िौि िैं?
िभी नमथ्यन िो सितन िै लेकिि उसिो सुधनरन जन सितन िै, क्योंकि (a) वे जो रिस्यमनय प्रश्नों िो सुलझनते िैं।
नववेि उसिे जीवि िन कदर्न‘-सूचि िै। पुरनिे नववनस और अांधनववनस (b) वे जो अज्ञनितन िे नवरुि लिनई लिते िैं।
खतरिनि िै। यि मनस्तष्ि िो मूढ़ तथन मिुष्य िो प्रनतकक्रयनवनदी बिन (c) वे जो रूकढ़यों पर प्रश्न उठनते िैं।
देतन िैं जो मिुष्य अपिे िो यथनथशवनदी िोिे िन दनवन िरतन िै, उसे सभी (d) वे जो पुरनिे नववनसों िी चीख-पुिनर मचनते रिते िैं।
प्रनचीि नववनसों िो चुिौती देिी िोगी, यकद वे तिश िन प्रिनर ि सि सिें
तो टुििे-टुििे िोिर नगर पिेंग।े तब उस व्यनि िन पिलन िम िोगन, Q100. उपयुशि उिरण िे अिुसनर नववेिवनि व्यनि क्यन चनिेगन?
तमनम पुरनिे नववनसों िो धनरनर्यी िरिे िए दर्शि िी स्थनपिन िे नलए (a) नववनस िी चीख-पुिनर मचनते रििन
जगि सनफ़ िरिन। यि तो ििनरनत्मि पक्ष हुआ। इसिे बनद सिी िनयश (b) यथनथशवनदी िोिे िन दनवन मनत्र िरिन
र्ुरू िोगन, नजसमें पुिर्श्िशमनशण िे नलये पुरनिे नववनसों िी िु छ बनतों िन (c) पुरनिे नवचनरों पर आाँख मूाँद िर भरोसन िरिन
प्रयोग कियन जन सितन िै। (d) वनतनवरण िो तनर्िश ि रूप से समझिन

SOLUTION
S1. Ans.(c) आगरन बनजनर-
Sol. िनटिों िो निांदी में उििे प्रथम प्रिनर्ि वर्श िे आधनर पर पिले से • आगरन बनजनर िनटि में इसिन स्थनि 'आगरन' िे 'कििनरी बनजनर'
बनद िन सिी क्रम िै- C, E, A, D, B िन एि 'चौरनिन' िै।
िनटि प्रिनर्ि वर्श लेखि • िनटि िे दो अांि िै।िनटि में िनस्य रस िन प्रयोग।
आगरन बनजनर 1954 िबीब तिवीर • इस िनटि में सनमननजि और सनांस्िृ नति समस्यनओं िन नचत्रण कियन
आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि 1958 मोिि रनिे र् गयन िै िनटि में स्थनिीय सांस्िृ नत लोि जीवि और लोि परांपरनओं
बिरी 1974 सवेवर दयनलसक्सेिन िन भी नचत्रण िै।
मनधवी 1985 भीष्म सनििी • व्यनपनररयों िन ददश इनतिनस िे िलि पर आधुनिि समस्यनओं िे
मिनबली 2009 असगर वजनित रूप में नचत्रण कियन गयन।
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आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि – भीष्म सनििी सनििी िे िनटि-
• आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि एि ऐनतिननसि िनटि िै। • िनिूर् 1977, िबीरन खिन बनजनर में 1981, मनधवी 1984,
• इसिे पुरुर् पनत्र िै िननलदनस नवलोम, मनतूल,दांतुल। मुआवजे 1993, रांग दे बसांती चोलन 1996, आलमगीर 1999.
• इस िनटि िे स्त्री पनत्र िै अांनबिन और मनल्लिन। असगर वजनित िे िनटि -
• इस िनटि में अपिे पररवेर् से िटिर दूसरे से जुि पनिे िन अांतिंद • किरांगी लौट आये, इन्नन कि आवनज 1986, वीरगनत 1981, सनमधन,
सननित्यिनर िी पीिन िो उभनरतन िै। नजस लनिौर ििीं देख्यन ओ जबयनइ िई 1991, अिी
• आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि मिनिनव िननलदनस िे पररवेर् रचिन प्रकक्रयन
S2. Ans.(c)
प्रेरणन स्रोत और उििे अचूि जनिे िी सांबांध िी िथन िो प्रस्तुत
Sol. सूची l िन सूचीll से सिी नमलनि िै - A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
िरिे वनलन िनटि िै।
• िननलदनस िी रचिन िी प्रेरणन अपिे गनांव से पररवेर् से और प्रिृ नत सूची I िनमिरण सूची II वणश
से प्रनप्त िोती िै इस प्रेरणन िन सबसे प्रभनवी स्रोत िै मनल्लिन, किां तु A. मिनप्रनण ध्वनि IV. ख
रनज आश्रय प्रनप्त िोिे पर िननलदनस अपिे पररवेर् से उखि गयन B. घोर् ध्वननि I. ज
िै। C. पनर्श्श्वशि व्यांजि II. ल
बिरी – D. लोनित व्यांजि III. र
• बिरी एि प्रतीि िनटि िै।
मिनप्रनण ध्वनि –
• इसिे 2 अांि िै। इसमें 6 दृश्य िै प्रत्येि अांत में 3 -3 दृश्य िै।
• प्रत्येि वगश िन नितीय व चतुथश वणश िोतन िै।
• इस िनटि िी र्ैली प्रतीिनत्मि और व्यांग्यनत्मि िै।
• बिरी गरीब जितन िन प्रतीि िै। • ख, घ , छ, झ , ठ, ढ, थ, ध, ि, भ, र्, स, र्, ि मिनप्रनण िै।
• इसमें आम आदमी िी पीिन िन नचत्रण िै.। • नजि वणों िे उच्चनरण में वनस वनयु अनधि मनत्रन में मुख नववर से
• भ्रष्टनचनर और नवसांगनतयों िन नचत्रण िै। समिनलीि रनजिीनत िी बनिर नििलती िैं उन्िें मिनप्रनण ध्वनियनाँ ििते िैं।
िु रूपतन पर व्यांग्य िै। घोर् ध्वनि –
मनधवी – • घोर् िन अथश िै िनद यन गूांज।
• यि 3 अांिों िन एि िनटि िै। • ि वगश, च वगश आकद सभी वगों िे अांनतम तीि वणश ग, घ, ि, ज, झ,
• यि िनटि मिनभनरत िे रनजन ययननत िी बेटी मनधवी िी एि आकद। तथन य, र, ल, व, ि घोर् वणश ििलनते िैं।
प्रनचीि ििनिी िन वणशि िरतन िै। • इसिे अनतररि सभी स्वर भी घोर् वणश िोते िैं। इििी िु ल सांख्यन
मिनबली – 30 िै।'
• मिनबली िनटि में भनरतीय इनतिनस िे दो मिनि पनत्रों अिबर और • घोर् िन अथश िै िनद यन गूांज। नजि वणों िन उच्चनरण िरते समय
तुलसीदनस िो िल्पिन िें द्र में रखिर रचन िै। गूांज (स्वर तांत्र में िां पि) िोती िै मैं घोर् वणश ििते िै।
• गोस्वनमी तुलसीदनस गांगन तट पर बैठे अपिन सनरन समय ध्यनि पनर्श्वशि व्यांजि –
भनि और सननित्य में लगनते थे जबकि बनदर्नि अिबर चनिते थे • नजििे उच्चनरण में जीिवन िन अगलन भनग मसूिे िो छू तन िै और
कि मैं उििे दरबनर िी र्ोभन में रिे। वनयु पनवश आस - पनस से नििल जनती िै वे पनर्श्वशि िै। जैसे - 'ल '
• मिनबली िनटि पर 2021 में व्यनस सबमनि नमलन िै लुांरठत व्यांजि / प्रिनबपत व्यांजि व्यांजि –
िबीब तिवीर िे िनटि – • इसे प्रिनबपत व्यांजि भी ििते िैं। नजि व्यांजिों िे उच्चनरण में जीिवन
• आगरन बनजनर 1954, र्तरांज िे मोिरे 1954, लनलन र्ोिरत रनय िो दो तीि बनर िां पि िरिन पितन िै,वे प्रिनबपत व्यांजि यन लुांरठत
1954,नमट्टी िी गनिी 1958, गनांव िन िनम ससुरनल िमनरन िनम व्यांजि ििलनते। जैसे - 'र
दनमनद- 1973, चरणदनस चोर 1975
मोिि रनिे र् िे िनटि- S3. Ans.(b)
• आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि 1958, लिरों िे रनजिांस 1963, आधे अधूरे Sol. "पूणश क्लननसि िृ नत” वि नजसमें किसी मनिव समनज िी पूणश र्नि
1969, पैर तले िी जमीि (अधूरन) निनित िोती िो "यि िथि टी.एस. इनलयट िन िै।
सवेवर दयनल सक्सेिन िे िनटि - टी. एस. इनलयट (1888- 1965 ई.)-
• बिरी 1974 (सभी भनरतीय भनर्नओं में अिुवनद तथन मांचि हुआ • टी. एस. इनलयट िे निवैयनिितन िन नसिनांत, वस्तुनिष्ठ समीिरण
िै), लिनई 1989, अब गरीबी िटनओ 1981, िल भनत आएगन, िन नसिनांत, और परांपरन िन नसिनांत और उपन्यनस िन अांत िन
िवनलनत 1989 (यि एिनांिी िनटि िै) नसिनांत कदए
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रचिनएां - • नवधवन नववनि िो उनचत बतनयन और बनल नववनि िो अिुनचत
• द सैक्रेि वुि 1920 ई., द वेस्टलैंि 1922 ई., िोममेज टू जॉि बतनयन। सती प्रथन पर रोि लगनई गई।
ड्रनयिेि 1924 ई., एनलजनबेथि एसेज 1932 ई., द यूजऑि पोयट्री • देर् िी उन्ननत िे नलए अछू तोंिनर िन प्रयनस कियन गयन।
एांि द यूज ऑि कक्ररटनसज्म 1933 ई., सलेक्टि एसेज 1934 ई., • ब्रह्मसमनज रनजन रनममोिि रनय 1828 ईसवी में स्थननपत कियन।
ऐसज एर्ेंट एांि मॉििश 1936 ई., पोयट्री एांि ड्रनमन 1951 ई., ऑि • प्रनथशिन समनज िी िे र्व चांद्रसेि िे 1857 ई. स्थनपिन िी िी।
पोयट्री एांि पोएट्स 1957 ई., िॉलेज एांि एक्सपीररयांस • रनमिृ ष्ण नमर्ि नववेिनिांद जी िे चलनयन।
आई. ए. ररचर्डसश (1893- 1979 ई.)- • आयश समनज िी स्थनपिन स्वनमी दयनिांद सरस्वती िे 1875 ई. में
• ररचर्डसश िे सांप्रेर्ण नसिनांत, मूल्य नसिनांत और अथश मीमनांसन नसिनांत बांबई में िी।
कदए • नथयोसॉकििल सोसनयटी मैिम ब्लनवत्सिी िे 1875 ईस्वी में
रचिनएां - न्यूयॉिश में स्थनपिन
• द िनउां िेर्ि ऑफ़ एसथेरटि 1922 ई., द मीनिांग ऑफ़ मीनिांग • ईवर चांद्र नवद्यनसनगर – िे स्त्री अनधिनर आांदोलिों िन समथशि
1923 ई., नप्रांनसपल ऑफ़ नलटरेरी कक्ररटनसजम 1924 ई., सनइांस
कियन थन। उन्िोंिे नवधवन नववनि िै पर जोर कदयन
एांि पोयट्री 1926 ई., प्रैनक्टिल कक्ररटनसज्म 1929 ई., द
• स्वनमी दयनिांद सरस्वती – िे निांदओं ु िी मूर्श्तश पूजन िन नवरोध कियन
किलोसोिी ऑि रेटोररिन 1936 ई., िॉलरीज ऑि इमीजेर्ि
थन। इन्िोंिे निांदू धमश और सांस्िृ नत िे उन्नयि िेतु आयश समनज िनमि
बेिेदेतो क्रोचे (1866- 1952 ई.)
सांस्थन िी स्थनपिन िी।
• क्रोचे िे अनभव्यांजिनवनद िन नसिनांत कदयन
• समूचे देर् में रनष्ट्रीय भनविन िन सांचनर िरिे रनष्ट्रभनर्न निांदी िन
रचिनएां -
प्रचनर िरिे िन श्रेय स्वनमी दयनिांद सरस्वती िो जनतन िै।
• एसथेरटि 1909 ई., लॉनजि 1917 ई.
• स्वनमी दयनिांद सरस्वती िे 'सत्यनथश प्रिनर्' िी रचिन निांदी में िी
मेथ्यु अिनशल्ि - जन्म - 1822 ई., मृत्यु - 1888 ई.-
और आयश समनज िन सनरन िनमिनज निांदी में प्रनरांभ कियन।
• रचिनएाँ - एसेज इि कक्ररटनसज्म 1865 ई., ऑि द स्टिी ऑि
सेनल्टि नलटरेचर 1867 ई., िल्चर एांि अिनिी 1869 ई., • आयश समनज में अिेि नर्क्षन सांस्थनओं िी स्थनपिन िी तथन पुस्तिों,
नलटरेचर एांि ड्रनमन 1873 ई.,द िां क्र्ि ऑफ़ कक्ररटनसज्म एट द पत्र-पनत्रिनओं, उपदेर्ों, प्रवचिों र्नस्त्रोंथो िे अिुवनद ग्रांथों िे
प्रेजेंट टनइम 1877 ई., एसेज ऑि चचश एांि स्टेट मनध्यम से निांदी िे प्रचनर प्रसनर में मित्वपूणश योगदनि कदयन।

S4. Ans.(a) S5. Ans.(c)

Sol. भनरतीय िवजनगरण िे सांबांध में उपयुि िथि िै- िे वल A, C और Sol. सूची l और सूची ll िन सिी नमलनि िै - A - IV, B - I, C - II, D –
E III
A. िवजनगरण िन जमनिन सभ्यतनओं िी टक्कर आिट िन ियन िोिर सूची I िनव सूची II अध्येतन
सभ्यतनओं िे आत्मनिरीक्षण िन थन। A. नवद्यनपनत Iv. नर्व प्रसनद नसांि
C. औपनिवेनर्ि मनिौल में भनरत िन िवजनगरण बुनिवनदी जनगरूितन B. सूरदनस I. िजनरी प्रसनद निवेदी
िे अलनवन रनष्ट्रीय आत्म पिचनि िन सांघर्श भी थन। C. नबिनरी II. बच्चि नसांि
E. भनरतीय िवजनगरण िे जिि रनजन रनममोिि रनय िो जीवि में D. घिनिांद III. इमरै बांधन
आरांनभि िनल में िी रूढ़ीवनकदयों िन प्रबल नवरोध िन सनमिन िरिन
नवद्यनपनत (1350-1450 ई.)
पिन।
• नवद्यनपनत िी उपननध िै – अनभिव जयदेव, िनव र्ेखर िनव िां ठ
• 'रेिेसनां' िवजनगरण यन पुिजनशगरण र्ब्द िन प्रयोग सवशप्रथम प्रनसि
िनर ,िव िनव र्ेखर, खेलि िनव ,दर्नवधनि ,पांचनिि मैनथल
फ्नांसीसी इनतिनसिनर नमर्ेसेट 19वीं सदी िे पूवनशधश में कियन। निांदी
िोकिल आकद।
में िवजनगरण यन पुिजनशगरण िे नपतनमि भनरतेंदु िररश्चांद्र िो मनिन
नवद्यनपनत िी रचिनएां –
जनतन िै।
• सांस्िृ त भनर्न िी रचिनएां – र्ैव सवशस्व सनर, गांगन वनक्यनवली, दुगनश
• ईसनई धमश प्रचनरि भनरतीय धमश समनज िी मनन्यतनओं िी नखल्ली
उिन रिे थे वि भनरतीय धमश तथन समनज में व्यनियों िन मजनि भि तरांनगणी, भू पररक्रमन दनि – वनक्यनवली, पुरुर् परीक्षन नवभनग
उिन िर िीचन कदखनिे िन प्रयनस िर रिे थे। भोले भनले भनरतीयों सनर, नलखिनवली, गयन पतलि -वणश िृ त्य.
िो इसनई धमश स्वीिनर िरिे िे नलए लनलननयत भी िरे थे। • अविट्ट िी रचिनएां – िीतशलतन (इसमें िीर्श्तश नसांि िी वीरतन िै),
• रनजन रनममोिि रनय देवेंद्रिनथ ठनिु र िे र्व चांद्र सेि ईवर चांद्र िीर्श्तश पतनिन (नर्व नसांि िी वीरतन और उदनरतन िन नचत्रण िै।)
नवद्यनसनगर दयनिांद सरस्वती नववेिनिांद आकद मिनपुरुर्ों िे • मैनथली भनर्न िी रचिनएां – नवद्यनपनत िी पदनवली, गोरक्ष नवजय
सनांस्िृ नति एवां सनमननजि रूप से भनरतीय जितन िो जनगृत िरिे िनटि गोरक्ष नवजय िन गद्य भनग सांस्िृ त में तथन पद्य भनग में मैनथल
िन मित्वपूणश िनयश कियन। में िै।
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सूरदनस (1478- 1583 ई.) • ये जौिपुर िे रििे वनले एि जैि जोिरी थे जो आमेर में भी रिन
• ये प्रनरांभ में 'दनस्य' एवां 'नविय' भनव पिनत से लेखि िनयश िरते थे िरते थे।
परांतु बनद में गुरु वल्लभनचनयश िी आज्ञन पर इन्िोंिे 'सख्यन, वनत्सल्य, • इन्िोंिे सांवत 1698 ति िन अपिन जीविवृत 'अिशिथनिि' िनमि
मनधुयश भनव िी पिनत िो अपिनयन। ग्रांथ में कदयन िै। पुरनिे निांदी सननित्य में रनचत यिी एि आत्मचररत्र
सूरदनस िी प्रमुख रचिनएां – िै।
• सूरसनगर - यि इििी सवशश्रेष्ठ िृ नत मनिी जनती िै। इसिन मुख्य • पिले यि र्ृांगनर रस िी िनवतन कियन िरते थे पर पीछे ज्ञनि िो
आधनर स्त्रोत श्रीमद्भनगवत पुरनण िे दर्म स्िां ध िन 46 वनां व 47 जनिे पर इन्िोंिे वे सब िनवतनएां गोमती िदी में िें ि दी और
वनाँ अध्यनय िै। भनगवत पुरनण िी तरि इसिन नवभनजि भी बनरि ज्ञनिोपदेर् पूणश िनवतनएां िरिे लगे।
स्िां धों में कियन गयन िै इसिे दसमें में स्िां ध में सवनशनधि पद • इििे िु छ उपदेर् ब्रजभनर्न गद्य में भी िै। जैि धमश सांबांधी अिेि
भ्रमरगीत िे िै। पुस्तिों िे सनरनांर् निांदी में ििें।
• सननित्य लिरी- यि इििन गीनतपरि िनव्य िै इसमें दृष्ट िू ट पदों में • बिनरसी दनस िी रचिनएां – बिनरसी नबलनस - िु टिल िनवतों िन
रनधन-िृ ष्ण िी लीलनओं िन वणशि िै और अलांिनर निरूपण िै। सांग्रि, िनटि समयसनर - िुां दिुां दनचनयश िृ त ग्रांथ िन सनर िै, िनममनलन
• सुर सरनवली – यि इििी नववनकदत यन अप्रमननणि रचिन मनिी - िोर् ग्रांथ िै।, अधश िथनिि, बिनरसी पिनत मोक्षपदी, ध्रुववांदिन,
जनती िै। िल्यनण मांकदर भनर्न, वेद निणशय पांचननर्िन, मनरगि नवद्यन.
नबिनरी - (1595- 1663 ई.) • इििी रचिन र्ैली पुष्ट िै और इििी िनवतन दनदूपांथी सुांदर दनस
• इििी भनर्न ब्रज िै और इििी र्ैली मुिि िनव्य र्ैली िै। नबिनरी िी िनवतन से नमलती जुलती िै।
सतसई इि िी प्रमुख रचिनएां नजसमें 713 दोिे िै। नबिनरी सतसई िरोत्तमदनस –
िन आधनर ग्रांथ गनथन सप्तर्ती, आयनश सप्तर्ती एवां अमरुि र्ति िै। • इििन 'सुदनमन' चररत्र ग्रांथ बहुत प्रनसि िै। सुदनमन चररत ग्रांथ िे
घिनिांद – सवैयन बहुत लोगों िे मुांि पर सुिनई पिते िैं।'ध्रुव चररत्र ' इििन
रीनतमुि िनव्य धनरन िे प्रमुख िनव, 'ब्रजभनर्न िन प्रवीण' और 'प्रेम िी एि खांििनव्य िै।
यनतिन िन िनव' ििन जनतन िै। वली दक्किी -
• इििन िनम बली मोिबमद थन। पुरनिी प दनखिी धनरन िी
घिनिांद िी प्रमुख रचिनएां –
परसमननप्त और उदूश िनव्य धनरन िे आरांभ युग िे सांनध िनल िे
• सुजनि सनगर, िृ पन िनांि, रस िे लीवल्ली, नवरिलीलन, लोिसनर,
मिनिनव िै। इन्िें उदूश िनवतन िे नपतन िे रूप में जनिन जनतन िै। उदूश
इश्ि लतन, सुजनि नित प्रबांध, नवयोग वेली।
भनर्न में ग़ज़ल बिनते थे। इन्िोंिे अपिी गजलों में भनरतीयों नवर्यों
नर्व प्रसनद नसांि िे आलोचिन ग्रांथ - मुिनवरों और इमेजरी िन भी प्रयोग कियन िै।
• नवद्यनपनत, आधुनिि पररवेर् और िवलेखि, आधुनिि पररवेर् और
िवल दनस –
अनस्तत्ववनद • िवल सांप्रदनय िे सांस्थनपि सांत िवल दनस िै। सांत िवल दनस जी
िजनरी प्रसनद निवेदी िी आलोचिन ग्रांथ - िन जन्म िसोलनव गनांव िनगौर में हुआ िवल सांप्रदनय िी मुख्य पीठ
• सूर सननित्य, िननलदनस िी लननलत्य योजिन, निांदी सननित्य िी जोधपुर में िै। इििे भनर्णों िन सांग्रि 'िवले वर अिुभव वनणी' में
भूनमिन, प्रनचीि भनरत में िलनत्मि नविोद, िबीर, िनथ सांप्रदनय, िै।
निांदी सननित्य, निांदी सननित्य िन आकदिनल, सननित्य सिचर, निांदी
सननित्य िन उद्भव और नविनस, मध्यिनलीि बोध िन स्वरूप, S7. Ans.(a)
सननित्य िन ममश. Sol. िॉ तुलसीरनम िे िनििनल में स्वतांत्रतन आांदोलि िन िेतृत्व तेज
बच्चि नसांि िे प्रमुख आलोचिन ग्रांथ – बिनदुर नसांि िे कियन।
• क्रनांनतिनरी िनव निरनलन, रीनतिनलीि िनवयों िी प्रेम व्यांजिन, मुदशनियन-
निांदी िनटि, नबिनरी िन ियन मूल्यनांिि 1960 ई., आलोचिन और • िॉ तुलसीरनम िी दनलत आत्मिथन मुदशनियन अिुठी सननिनत्यि िृ नत
आलोचिन, समिनलीि सननित्य आलोचिन िी चुिौती, निांदी िै। मुदशनियन िन 2010 में प्रथम भनग प्रिननर्त हुआ एवां मनणिर्श्णशिन
आलोचिन िे बीज दूसरन भनग 2014 में
• मुदशनियन सांभवत निांदी िी पिली आत्मिथन िै नजसमें िे वल दनलत
S6. Ans.(d) िी ििीं अनपतु गनांव िन सांपूणश लोग जीवि िी िें द्र में िै।
Sol. "एि रूप निांदू तुरि दूजी दर्न ि िोय! मि िी निनवधन मनििर • मुदशनियन दनलत समनज िी त्रनसदी और भनरतीय समनज िी
भये एि सों दोय!"- यि िनवतन बिनरसीदनस िनव िी िै। नविांबिन िन सनांस्िृ नति, सनमननजि, आर्श्थि श और रनजिीनति
बिनरसी दनस- (1643 सांवत) आख्यनि िै।
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• अांधनववनस निांदू सनांस्िृ नति सत्तन िो बिनए रखिे िे नलए रचे गए मैं क्यन भूलूां क्यन यनद िरूां-
िैं मुदशनियन इसिन पदनशिनर् िरती िैं।184 पृष्ठों िी आत्मिथन में • िररवांर् रनय बच्चि िी आत्मिथन िै जो 1969 ई. में प्रिननर्त हुई।
उन्िोंिे अपिी आरांनभि पढ़नई से लेिर मैरट्रि ति िी पढ़नई िन मुदशनियन-
नचत्रण कियन िै। दनलत आत्मिथन आत्मिथन तुलसीरनम िी िै। मुदशनियन िन प्रथम भनग
2010 में प्रिननर्त हुआ और इसिन दूसरन भनग मनणिर्श्णशिन 2013 में
• िॉ तुलसीरनम िे अपिी आत्मिथन िो 7 उपर्ीर्शि िे मनध्यम से
प्रिननर्त।
अपिे जीवि िे एि पिनव िो पनठिों िे सनमिे रख कदयन िै-
सांस्िृ नत िे चनर अध्यनय-
o भुतिी पनररवनररि पृष्ठभूनम
• रनमधनरी नसांि कदििर िी प्रनसि पुस्तिें जो 1956 में प्रिननर्त हुई
o मुदशनियन और स्िू ली जीवि और नजस पर 1959 में सननित्य अिनदमी पुरस्िनर नमलन।
o अिनल में अांधनववनस आवनरन मसीिन-
o मुदशनियन िे नगि तथन लोिजीवि • नवष्णु प्रभनिर िी जीविी िै जो 1974 में प्रिननर्त हुई यि र्रत
o भूतनियन िननगि चांद्र िे जीवि पर नलखी हुई िै।
o चले बुध िी रि • िररवांर् रनय बच्चि िी अन्य आत्मिथनएां – िीि िन निमनशण किर-
o आजमगढ़ में िनिनिर्ी 1970, बसेरे से दूर -1978, दस िनर से सोपनि ति -1985
• पूवी उत्तर प्रदेर् िे दनलतों िी जीवि नस्थनतयों तथन 60 और 70 • तुलसी रनम – तुलसी रनम िे अचेति पर बुि िन गिरन प्रभनव िै।
उििे जीवि िे िर एि पल खनसिर निणनशयि क्षणों में बुि िमेर्न
िे दर्ि में इस क्षेत्र में वनम आांदोलि िी सरगर्श्मशयनां िन जीनवत
सनमिे आते िैं। मुदशनियन और मनणिर्श्णशिन उििी आत्मिथन िै। गीत
खजनिन िै।
और िनवतन भी तुलसीरनम िे जीवि िन अनभन्न अांग रिे िैं।
• मुदशनियन िे प्रमुख पनत्र – परर्ुरनम नसांि -प्रधनिनध्यनपि (
• रनमधनरी नसांि कदििर िी रचिनएां - बांधि गीत 1940, समनधिी
िेिमनस्टर),धीरज - लेखि िी मनां सनधनरण ग्रनमीण और ग्रिणी, 1947, सांस्िृ नत िे चनर अध्यनय 1959, िु रुक्षेत्र 1946, रनश्मरथी
जूठि - लेखि िे दनदनजी जी िे अांधनववनस िे अिुसनर भूतों िे पीट- 1952, उवशर्ी 1961, परर्ुरनम िी प्रतीक्षन 1963 ई., सांस्िृ नत िे
पीटिर मनर िनलन, मूसररयन -र्तनयु अवस्थन में जीनवत लेखि िी चनर अध्यनय रचिन में मनिव सभ्यतन िे इनतिनस िो चनर मांनजलों
दनदी, सोबमर - लेखि िे नपतन िे बिे भनई जो 112 गनांव िे चमनरों में बनांटिर अध्ययि कियन िै।
िे चौधरी थे।, मुन्नेसर िनिन - लेखि िे नपतन िे दूसरे िांबर िे भनई • नवष्णु प्रभनिर िी प्रमुख रचिनएां – अधशिनरीवर, आवनरन मसीिन,
'नर्व िनरनयण पांथी' धमशगुरु, िग्गर िनिन - लेखि िे नपतन िे तीसरे क्षमनधनि तथन पांख िीि ( आत्मिथन), सत्तन िे आर-पनर, ज्योनतपुांज
भनई स्वभनवत: गुस्सैल और निांसि सभनव िे थे यि भी 'नर्व निमनलय, ऊांचन पवशत गिरन सनगर, मेरे श्रेष्ठ रांग एिनांिी
िनरनयण पांथी 'धमश गुरु थे।, मुन्ननर िनिन- लेखि िे नपतन िे सबसे
S9. Ans.(b)
छोटे भनई यि सिज और सनमांजस्यवनदी तथन पूरे सांयुि पररवनर िे Sol. नप्रयप्रवनस िन प्रथम सगश एि िी छांद में रचन गयन िै, वि छांद िै-
मुनखयन थे। द्रुतनवलनबबत छांद
नप्रय प्रवनस –
S8. Ans.(c)
• 1914 मे रनचत अयोध्यन नसांि उपनध्यनय िररऔध िन खिी बोली
Sol. सूची एि िन सूची दो से सिी नमलनि िै - A - III, B - IV, C - I, D
निांदी िन प्रथम मिनिनव्य मिनिनव्य िै।
- II
• इसमें 17 सगश िै।
सूची I सूची II
• इस पर मांगलन प्रसनद पनररतोनर्ि नमलन िै।
पुस्तिों में उधृत िनव्य पांनियनाँ पुस्तिें • इसमें रनधन िो लोि नितिनरी और समनजसेवी कदखनयन गयन िै।
उठ गए आज बनपू िमनरे झुि गयन आज झांिन क्यन भूलूां क्यन • नप्रयप्रवनस िन प्रथम सगश एि िी छांद द्रुतनवलनबबत छांद में रचन गयन
A. III.
िमनरन। यनद िरू िै।
सोिे िी थनरी में जेविन परोसो रनमन जेविन िन द्रुतनवलनबबत छांद-
B. IV. मुदशनियन
जेवे िमनर बलमन • यि वर्श्णशि छांद िै। इसिे प्रत्येि चरण में 12 वणश िोते िैं प्रत्येि चरण
तुलसी गांग दोउ भये, सुिनवि िो सरदनर सांस्िृ नत िे में क्रमर्ः िगण, भगण, भगण, रगण िन क्रम रितन िै। िभभर िन
C. I. क्रम
नतििे िनव्यि में नमली, भनर्न नवनवध प्रिनर चनर
मांदनक्रनांतन-
जीवि मांथि से नििलन नवर्, वि जो तुमिे पनि
आवनरन • मांदनक्रनांतन वर्श्णशि छांद िै। इसिे चनर चरण िोते िैं और प्रत्येि चरण
D. कियन और अमृत िो बनिर आयन, उसे जगत िो II.
मसीिन में 17 वणश िोते िैं। जो एि मगण,एि भगण, एि िगण और दो
दनि कदयन तगणऔर अांत में दो गुरु िे क्रम में रखे गए िोते िैं।
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र्नदुशल नवक्रीनित छांद – • िांददनस िो जनियन िनव िी उपननध उििी रनसपांचनध्यनई िै रचिन
• इस छांद में चनर चरण िोते िैं। प्रत्येि चरण में 19 वणश िोते िैं। 12 िे आधनर पर नमली िै. और िांददनस िे यर् िन आधनर यिी 'रनस
वणों िे बनद तथन चरणनन्त में यनत िोती िै। गणों िन िमश इस प्रिनर पांचनध्यनई' िै।
िै - मगण, सगण, जगण, सगण, तगण, तगण और गुरु िोतन िै। िांददनस िी अन्य रचिनएां –
वसन्त नतलिन छांद – • मनि मांजरी, रसमांजरी, रूपमांजरी, श्यनम सगनई, रुिमणी मांगल,
• सम वणश व्रत छांद िै। यि 14 वणों वनलन छांद िै। तगण, भगण, जगण, भांवर गीत, नसिनांत पांचनध्यनई, दर्म स्िां ध भनगवत, गोवधशि लीलन,
जगण और दो गुरुओं िे क्रम में इसिन प्रत्येि चरण बितन िै िनम नचांतनमनण मनलन, िांददनस पदनवली, जोग लीलन
• रनस पांचनध्यनई रचिन - यि पनाँच अध्यनयों में नवभि िै। रनधन िृ ष्ण
S10. Ans.(d) और गोनपयों िी रनसलीलन से सांबांनधत िै। इसे निांदी िन गीत गोनवांद
Sol. लनल पनि िी बेगम ििनिी िे स्त्री पनत्र िै- िे वल B, D और E िन जनतन िै।
• चांनपयन, मखिी बुआ, सुांिरी इांद्रनवती-
• िूर मोिबमद िी रचिन जो 1744 ई. में रची गई। इसिी भनर्न
लनल पनि िी बेगम-
अवनध िै।
• िणीवर िनथ रेणु िी चर्श्चशत ििनिी िै। यि 1957 मे प्रिननर्त हुई।
• सूिी प्रेमनख्यनिो िी अखांनित परांपरन िी समननप्त इसी से िोती िै।
• इस ििनिी िे मनध्यम से रेणु जी िे िनरी िे स्वननभमनि और
यूसुि जुलेखन –
आत्मसबमनि िे चनि िो जगजननिर कियन िै।
• गनांव में मनिलनओं िे मध्य िोिे वनले मखोल िन जीवि नचत्रण • र्ेख निसनर िी रचिन िै जो 1790 ईस्वी में रची गई।
नमलतन िै। पनत पत्नी िे ररश्तो िे मध्य खट्टी- मीठी िोि -झोंि िांस जिनांवीर –
• िननसम र्नि िी रचिन िै जो 1736 ई. में रची गई। अवधी भनर्न में
रूठिन और पल मे मनि जनिन।
िै। आचनयश र्ुक्ल जी इसे निबम िोरट िी रचिन मनिते िैं।
• इस ििनिी में ग्रनमीण जीवि में मेलों और िनच िन मित्व कदखनयन
गयन िै नजसे लेिर बिे से बच्चों ति में उत्सनि िोतन िै। S12. Ans.(b)
• इस ििनिी में रेणु जी िे स्थनिीय भनर्न और मुिनवरों िन प्रयोग Sol. 'यि ित्यनरे गनांव िे मुनखयन िै, गरीबों िन खूि चूसिे वनले! सूद -
कियन िै ब्यनज, िेढी- सवनई िजरनिन, घुस -घनस जैसे भी िो, गरीबों िो लूटो! उस
• वनतनवरण एवां पररनस्थनत िन पररनस्थनत िन सममोिि एवां पर सुरनज चननिए जेल जनिे से सुरनज ि नमलेगन सुरनज नमलेगन धरम से,
जीवनन्त नचत्रण हुआ िै न्यनय से!'-' गोदनि उपन्यनस में यि िथि धनियन िन िै।
• ििनिी िे अन्य पनत्र – गोदनि -
o नबरजू िी मनां - िननयिन और एि सर्ि मनिलन जो कि सबिो • 1936 में रनचत प्रेमचांद जी िन मित्वपूणश उपन्यनस िै।
सनथ लेिर चलिे में नववनस रखते िैं। • इसमें किसनि जीवि िी मिनगनथन एवां ऋण िी समस्यन िन अांिि
o नबरजू िे नपतन - एि िरपोि किस्म िे इांसनि जो खुद िी कियन गयन िै।
चनित िो सदैव दबनिर रखते िैं। • गोदनि ग्रनमीण जीवि और िृ नर् सांस्िृ नत िन मिनिनव्य मनिन जनतन
o नबरजू और चांनपयन - भनई और बिि िै इसमें प्रगनतवनद गनांधीवनद और मनक्सशवनद िन पूणश पररप्रेक्ष्य में
नचत्रण हुआ िै।
o मखिी बुआ- नजििन िोई ििीं िै।
धनियन-
o जांगी िी पुतोंहां - एि मुाँि जोर िवनववननित स्त्री जो नबरजू िी
• िोरी िी पत्नी िै उपन्यनस िी िननयिन िै गोबर रूपन और सोिन िी
मनां से ििीं िरती िै।
मनां िै झूनियन िी सनसू िै मांगल िी दनदी िै।
o सुिरी - गनांव िी एि िी स्त्री
• िृ र्ि स्त्री वगश िन प्रनतनिनध पनत्र िै। धनियन िे नववनि िो 20 वर्श
िणीवर िनथ रेणु (1921 - 1977 ई.) - अन्य ििननियनाँ - िो गयन िै इि वर्ों मे में धनियन िे 6 सांतनि में िे वल तीि सांतनि
• ठु मरी 1959 ई., आकदम रननत्र िी मिि 1967 ई., अनिखोर 1973 िै। धनियन पररश्रमी मनिलन िै पनत िे प्रनत पूणश समर्श्पत श निभीि
ई., एि श्रनवणी दोपिर िी धूप 1984 ई.,अच्छे आदमी 1986 ई. और नििर िै।
• लिनिू स्वभनव वनली र्ोर्ण िन नवरोध िरिे वनली िै सांघर्श से
S11. Ans.(a) झूांझती िनरी िै। व्यविनर िु र्ल िै भनरतीय आदर्श िनरी िै।
Sol. श्यनम सगनई सूिी प्रेमनख्यनि ििीं िै। गोदनि िे प्रमुख पनत्र –
श्यनम सगनई – • िोरी, रनय सनिब अमरपनल नसांि, प्रोिे सर मेितन, गोबर,पांनित
• िांददनस जी िी प्रमुख रचिन िै। इसमें रनधन और िृ ष्ण िी सगनई िन दनतनदीि,धनियन,मनलती, झूनियन गोनवांदी.
वणशि िै • गोण पनत्र – भोलन, िीरन, र्ोभन सोिन, रूपन ,पांनित ओिनरिनथ,
• िांददनस अष्टछनप िनव मांिल में सूरदनस िे पश्चनत सवनशनधि श्रेष्ठ श्यनम नबिनरी तखन, नमस्टर खन्नन, सरोज, पांनित िोखेरनम, नझगूरी
रचिन िरिे वनले िनव िै। नसांि, गांिन नसांि, िोिरी, मगरू, दुलनरी सहआइि, चुनियन।
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गोबर – आपिन बांटी-
• िोरी और धनियन िन पुत्र िै 16 वर्श िन युवि िै झूनियन िन पनत • यि सनमननजि प्रधनि उपन्यनस िै। आपिन बांटी िी िथनवस्तु बांद
िै। इस पर आधुनिि पीढ़ी िन असर पितन िै। गोबर तनर् और जुआ दरवनजों िे सनथ ििनिी िे बीज रूप में कदखनई देते िैं।
खेलतन िै र्रनब पीतन िै। • आपिन बांटी उपन्यनस में मिु िे िनरी जीवि से सांबांनधत दनांपत्य,
र्ोभन – तलनि, मनतृत्व,अिे लनपि से उत्पन्न उलझिों िो सिलतनपूवशि
• िोरी िन छोटन भनई िै िोरी गनांव िन नवदूर्ि बनल्ि िनरद िर एि व्यि कियन।
बनत िी टोि लगनतन िै। सििर्ील आदमी िै लिनई झगिे से िोसों यर्पनल िे अन्य उपन्यनस –
दूर भनगिे वनलन। • दनदन िनमरेि 1941, देर्द्रोिी 1942, कदव्यन 1945, पनटी िनमरेि
नसनलयन – 1946, मिुष्य िे रूप 1949, अनमतन 1956, बनरि घांटे 1962,
• चमनररि जननत िी िै। पांनित मनतनदीि िी प्रेनमिन िै जननत प्रथन अप्सरन िन श्रनप 1965, क्यों िसे?1968, मेरी तेरी उसिी बनत
1974.
िी नर्िनर युवती िै। मनतनदीि िनरन अांत में पत्नी रूप में स्वीिनर
भीष्म सनििी िे उपन्यनस -
िर नलयन गयन िै।
• झरोखन 1967, िनियनां 1970, बसांती 1980, बयनदनस िी मनिी
S13. Ans.(a) 1986, िुां तो 1993, िीलू िीनलमनां िीलोिर 2000.
Sol. उपरोि िथि िे आलोि में िीचे कदए गए नविल्पों में से िथि I िृ ष्णन सोबती िे उपन्यनस -
और II दोिों सत्य िैं • नमत्रो मरजनिी 1967, सूरजमुखी अांधेरे िे 1972, कदलो दननिर्
• िथि - I : 'झूठन सच' 'तमस' और 'नजन्दगी िनमन' आकद उपन्यनसों 1993, समय सरगम 2000
में अिेि पनत्र पांजनबी पृष्ठभूनम िे िैं। इसनलए इि उपन्यनसों में मन्नू भांिनरी िन उपन्यनस -
निन्दी और उदूश िे अनतररि ििीं - ििीं पांजनबी िे भी सांवनद • मिनभोज 1979.
उपयोग में लनए गए िैं।
• िथि I सत्य िैं। S14. Ans.(a)
• िथि - II : 'आपिन बांटी' िे अिुसनर बांटी िन पूरन िनम अरूप बिन
Sol. भनि आांदोलि पर मुनिबोध िे गांभीरतन से नवचनर कियन िै।
• गजनिि मनधव मुनिबोध िे अपिे आलोचिन ग्रांथ 'भनरतीय
िै।
• िथि II सत्य िैं। इनतिनस और सांस्िृ नत में ' भनि आांदोलि पर गांभीरतन से नवचनर
झूठन सच- कियन।
• 'झूठन सच' यर्पनल िन उपन्यनस िै। नजसिन भनग 1 -1958 में
इििे अन्य आलोचिन ग्रांथ िै -
• तनर सप्ति िे िनव, िनमनयिी एि पुिर्श्वशचनर, िई िनवतन िन आत्म
प्रिननर्त हुआ।
• इसमें रनष्ट्र नवभनजि अब त्रनसदी िन नचत्रण िै। झूठन सच भनग 2 - सांघर्शऔर अन्य निबांध, िए सननित्य िन सौंदयशर्नस्त्र
1960 में प्रिननर्त हुआ • मुनिबोध िी अन्य िनव्य िृ नतयनां िैं – चनांद िन मुांि टेढ़न, भूरी भूरी
• इसमें स्वतांत्रतन प्रननप्त एवां देर् िे नविनस तथन देर् िे भनवी निमनशण खनि धूल, ििनिी सांग्रि – नवपनत्र, सति से उठतन आदमी,
में बुनिजीनवयों िी भूनमिन िन यथनथश नचत्रण िै। प्रगनतवनदी दृनष्टिोण िै।, ब्रह्मरनक्षस और अांधेरे में प्रनसि िनवतन िे
• झूठन सच दो भनगों में प्रिननर्त उपन्यनस िै इसिन प्रथम भनग िन रचनयतन
िनम'वति और देर्' तथन दूसरे भनग िन िनम' देर् िन भनवष्य ' • र्ोनर्तो िे प्रनत गिरन लगनव जीवि से जुिी िनवतन िे सजशि, नबांब
तमस – नवधनि एवां नर्ल्प सजगतन िे िनव प्रतीि नवधनि में ियनपि ,
• 'तमस' भीष्म सनििी िन उपन्यनस िै जो 1973 में प्रिननर्त हुआ। िनवतन मे नक्लष्टतन एवां जरटलतनएां िै।
• भनरत नवभनजि िी सनांप्रदननयि नवभीर्िन िन मिनिनव्यनत्मन अिि रघुवीर सिनय िी रचिनएां -
हुआ िै। • सीकढ़यों पर धूप में1960, आत्मित्यन िे नवरुि 1967, िांसो िांसो
नजांदगीिनमन- जल्दी िांसो 1975, लोग भूल गए िैं 1982, िु छ पत्ते िु छ
• 'नजांदगीिनमन' िृ ष्णन सोबती िन उपन्यनस िै जो 1989 में प्रिननर्त नचरियनां1989, एि समय थन
हुआ। ओमप्रिनर् वनल्मीकि-
• सननित्य अिनदमी पुरस्िनर से 1980 में सबमननित हुआ। • िी आत्मिथन जूठि िै जो 1997 में प्रिननर्त हुई।
• नवभनजि से पूवश पांजनब प्रदेर् िे सनांस्िृ नति रीनत -ररवनजों लोि
रनजेर् जोर्ी िी रचिनएां -
िथनओ और लोिोनियों आदी िन नचत्रनिि िै। • समर गनथन (लांबी िनवतन), एि कदि बोलेंगे पेि, नमट्टी िन चेिरन,
• िेरन जट्टन गनांव िे आांचनलि पररवेर् िी ििनिी िै। इस उपन्यनस पर
िेपथ्य में िांसी, दो पांनियों िे बीच, चनांद िी वतशिी
बिी किल्म 'ट्रेि टू पनकिस्तनि' िै।
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S15. Ans.(b) • यर्पनल (1903 -1976 ई.)िे उपन्यनस - दनदन िनमरेि(1941 ई.),
Sol. िनगरी प्रचनररणी सभन िे सांस्थनपि िै - A, C, और E देर्द्रोिी(1943 ई.), कदव्यन(1945 ई.), पनटी िनमरेि(1946 ई.),
• नर्विु मनर नसांि, रनम िनरनयण नमश्र, श्यनमसुांदर दनस क्यों िां से(1968 ई.), मेरी तेरी उसिी बनत(1973 ई.)
िनगरी प्रचनररणी सभन- नजांदगीिनमन -
• वनरनणसी िी स्थनपिन 1893 ई. में िनर्ी में हुई।
• इस उपन्यनस में िेरन जट्टन िनमि गनांव में 20वीं र्तनब्दी िे आरांनभि
• श्यनमसुांदर दनस रनम िनरनयण नमश्र और नर्व िु मनर नसांि िे प्रयनसों
बीस वर्ों िे घटिनक्रम िो व्यि कियन गयन िै। इस उपन्यनस में
से िनगररि प्रचनररणी सभन वनरनणसी िी स्थनपिन हुई यि तीिों
बनदर्नि और ििीर र्िर, र्िांर्नि,दरवेर् और किसनि एि सनथ
इस सभन िे सांस्थनपि सदस्य थे
खेतों िी मुांिेरों पर खिे नमलेंगे
• 1896 ई.में इस सभन िे िनरन ' िनगररि प्रचनररणी पनत्रिन' िन
• िृ ष्णन सोबती (1925 -2019 ई.)िे उपन्यनस - नमत्रों
सांपनदि प्रनरांभ हुआ।
मरजनिी(1967 ई.), सूरजमुखी अांधेरे िे (1972 ई.),
• 1910 ई. में िनगरी प्रचनररणी सभन वनरनणसी िे िनरन 'निांदी
सननित्य सबमेलि प्रयनग' िी स्थनपिन िी गई। कदलोंदननिर्(1993 ई.), समय सरगम(2000 ई.), चन्नन (2019 ई.)
• श्यनमसुांदर दनस िे 'िबीर ग्रांथनवली' िन सांपनदि कियन मैलन आांचल -
बनलिृ ष्ण भट्ट • इसमें पूर्श्णशयन नजले िे मेरीगांज गनांव िी नवस्तृत तथन समग्र िथन
• भनरतेंदु युग िे आयु िनल िी दृनष्ट से सबसे वररष्ठतम सदस्य िै। ििी गई िै। इसिन उद्देश्य अांचल िी समस्यनओं िो प्रिननर्त िरिे
इन्िोंिे सननित्य िो "जि समूि िी हृदय िन नविनस" ििन िै। इन्िें िन िै। इसमें अांचल िी सुांदरतन और िु रुपतन दोिों िन गिरन नचत्रण
निांदी िन स्टील ििन जनतन िै। िै। जननतवनद, अिसरर्निी,अवसरवनदी रनजिीनत, मठो और
• बनलिृ ष्ण भट्ट िे 1878 ई. इलनिनबनद से निांदी प्रदीप पत्र नििनलन। आश्रमों िन पनखांि भी इसमें कदखनयन गयन िै।
• इििी रचिनएां - िनलरनज िी सभन, बनल नववनि, चांद्रसेि रिस्य • िणीवर िनथ रेणु(1921 -1977 ई.)िे उपन्यनस - परती
िथन। पररिथन(1957 ई.), दीघशतपन(1963 ई.), जुलूस(1965 ई.), कितिे
• उपन्यनस - सो अजनि एि सूजनि, िूति ब्रह्मचनरी चौरनिे(1966 ई.), पलटू बनबू रोि(1979 ई.), रनम रति
मेितन लज्जनरनम – रनय(1971 ई. अपूणश )
• िन उपन्यनस आदर्श निांदू िै। यि निांदी िी प्रथम नत्रिथन िै। मनिस िन िांस-
• इस उपन्यनस में लेखि िे रनमबोलन से तुलसी ति िी यनत्रन िो
S16. Ans.(c)
Sol. उपन्यनस में गीतों िनवतनओं िे प्रयोग पर सत्य िथि िै- िे वल C, प्रस्तुत कियन िै। इसमें तत्िनलीि समनज एवां सांस्िृ नत तथन उििे
D और E बीच एि मिनिनव िन जीवि तमनम िांदों एवां अांतर्श्वशरोधों िे बीच
C. 'मेलन आांचल' में सुनमत्रनिांदि पांत िी िनवतन िन इस्तेमनल कियन गयन उभरिर सनमिे आयन। उपन्यनसिनर िे तुलसी िी मित्वपूणश
D. 'मनिस िन िांस' में मोनििी रनवदनस िन एि भजि गनती िै। रचिनओं िी रचिन प्रकक्रयन िो भी इस उपन्यनस िे मनध्यम से
E.' तमस' में सवे भवांतु सुनखि: 'िन उपयोग कियन गयन िै। समझनिे िन प्रयनस कियन।
उपन्यनस उपन्यनसिनर प्रिनर्िवर्श • अमृतलनल िनगर (1916-1990 ई.)िे उपन्यनस - मिनिनल(1947
झूठन सच यर्पनल दो भनग 1958 और 1960 ई. ई.), सेठ बनांिेलनल(1955 ई.), बूांद और समुद्र(1956 ई.), र्तरांज िे
नजांदगीिनमन िृ ष्णन सोबती 1979 ई. मोिरे (1959 ई.), सुिनग िे िूपुर(1960 ई.), अमृत और
मैलन आांचल िणीवर िनथ रेणु 1954 ई. नवर्(1966 ई.), सनत घूांघट वनलन मुखिन(1968 ई.)
मनिस िन िांस अमृतलनल िनगर 1972 ई. तमस -
तमस भीष्म सनििी 1973 ई. • इस उपन्यनस िी िथनवस्तु (1947 ई.)में पांजनब में हुए भयनिि
झूठन सच उपन्यनस - सनांप्रदननयि दांगों पर आधनररत िै। इसमें लनिौर िे आसपनस िी
• यि उपन्यनस नवभनजि िी त्रनसदी िन नचत्रण िरतन िै मनिवीय नसिश पनाँच कदि िी ििनिी वर्श्णशत िै। यि उपन्यनस दो खांिो में
जीवि िी त्रनसदी िन प्रत्यक्ष दर्शि िै। नवभननजत िै पिले खांि में सनांप्रदननयि तिनव िी ििनिी ििी गई
• झूठन सच उपन्यनस सनमननजि- रनजिीनति पृष्ठभूनम पर नलखन गयन औ र दूसरे खांि में अिेि गनांव उपन्यनस िी पररनध में आ जनते िैं।
िै। उपन्यनस में (1942 से 1957 ई.) ति अथनशत देर् नवभनजि से • भीष्म सनििी(1915 -2003 ई.)िे उपन्यनस - झरोखन(1967 ई.),
पिले और उसिे बनद िे उतनर -चढ़नव िो दर्नशयन गयन। इस िनियनाँ (1970 ई.), बसांती(1980 ई.), मय्त्यनदनस िी मनिी (1988
उपन्यनस िे प्रथम खांि िन िनम 'वति और देर्' (1958 ई.)और ई.), िुां तो(1993 ई.), िीलू िीनलमन िीलोिर(2000 ई.)
दूसरे खांि िन िनम 'देर् िन भनवष्य' (1960 ई.) िै

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S17. Ans.(a) भनरत सौभनग्य -
Sol. सत्य िथि िै- िे वल A, B और C • 1886 में िनांग्रेस िे मिननधवेर्ि िे अवसर पर खेले जनिे िे नलए
A.भरत िे 'िनट्यर्नस्त्र' िे 16 वें अध्यनय में अलांिनरों िन निरूपण कियन नलखन गयन थन।
िै। • भनरत सौभनग्य मिनरनिी नवक्टोररयन िे 50 वर्श रनज िरिे िे
B. उद्भट, जयदेव और प्रनतिनरेन्दुरनज अलांिनर सबप्रदनय िे आचनयश िैं। मिोत्सव पर िनटि िै।
C. 'िनव्यनदर्श' िे दूसरे और तीसरे पररच्छेदों में अलांिनर - निरूपण िै। • बद्रीिनरनयण चौधरी प्रेमघि िे िनटि - भनरतीय सौभनग्य 1889,
भरतमुनि - प्रयनग रनम गमि 1904, वरनांगिन रिस्य (अपूणश), वृि नवलनप
• सांस्िृ त िनव्यर्नस्त्र िे इनतिनस में सबसे प्रनचीि आचनयश िै। इििन रनजश्री –
'िनट्य र्नस्त्र' िनव्यर्नस्त्र िन सबसे प्रनचीि उपलब्ध ग्रांथ िै। िे • 1915 इसिन आधनर िर्श चररत्र तथन चीिी यनत्री ह्वेिसनांग िन
‘िनट्य र्नस्त्र’ िो पांचम वेद भी ििन िै। िनट्य र्नस्त्र में श्लोि 36 ऐनतिननसि नववरण िै।
अध्यनय तथन लगभग 5000 िै। • जयर्ांिर प्रसनद िे िनटि – सज्जि 1910, िल्यनणी पररणय 1912,
• भरतमुनि िे 'िनट्य र्नस्त्र' में 10 गुण,10 दोर् तथन चनर अलांिनर िरुणनलय 1912, प्रनयनश्चत 1913, रनजश्री 1915, नवर्नख 1921,
(यमि,उपमन, रूपि तथन दीपि) िी मीमनांसन िी िै। अजनतर्त्रु 1922, जिमेजय िन िनग यज्ञ 1926, िनमिन 1927,
उदभट – स्िां दगुप्त 1928, एि घूांट 1930, चांद्रगुप्त 1931, ध्रुवस्वनमीिी
• अलांिनर से सांबांनधत आचनयश िै इििन समय आठवीं सदी उत्तरनधश िै 1933.
'िनव्य अलांिनर सनर सांग्रि' ग्रांथ िै िनव्य अलांिनर सनर सांग्रि' ग्रांथ में पिलन रनजन –
अलांिनरों िन आलोचिनत्मि एवां वैज्ञननिि ढांग से नववेचि कियन िै। • 1969 मे नलखन। इसमें इनतिनस िे मनध्यम से िेिरू युग िी समस्यन
जयदेव – िन नचत्रण कियन गयन।
• जयदेव िे 'चांद्रनलोि' िनमि अलांिनर र्नस्त्र िी रचिन िी िो • जगदीर् चांद्र मनथुर िे िनटि- िोणनिश 1951, र्नरकदयन 1959,
सननित्य िे क्षेत्र में 'नपयूर् वर्श' तथन न्यनय िे क्षेत्र में 'पक्षधर' िी पिलन रनजन 1969, रघुिुल रीनत 1985, दर्रथ िांदि 1974.
उपननध से प्रख्यनत थे। इििे चांद्रलोि िमि अलांिनर र्नस्त्र िी रचिन चरणदनस चोर –
10 मयूखो तथन 35 अिुस्टूप श्लोिो में िी िै • 1975 श्यनम बेिेगल िनरन बिनई गई एि प्रनसि किल्म िै जो िबीब
दांिी – तिवीर िे प्रनसि िनटि पर बिी िै। इसिन मूल स्रोत नवजय दनि
• अलांिनर सांप्रदनय से सांबांनधत िै और 'िनव्यदर्श' िनमि ग्रांथ िी रचिन
देथन िनमि लोि िथन िै। इस किल्म िे गीत िबीब तिवीर िे कदए
िी - िे 'िनव्यनदर्श' में चनर पररच्छेद तथन लगभग 650 श्लोि िै।
• िबीब तिवीर िे िनटि- आगरन बनजनर 1954, र्तरांज िे मोिरे
इि िे िनव्यदर्श िन नितीय पररच्छेद अथनशलांिनर िन निरूपण िरतन
1954, लनलन र्ोिरत रनय 1954, नमट्टी िी गनिी 1958, गनांव िन
िै। तृतीय पररच्छेद र्ब्दनलांिनर िन निरूपण िरतन िै इसमें
िनम ससुरनल मोर िनम दनमनद 1973, चरणदनस चोर 1975, पोंगन
नवर्ेर्त: यमि िै
पांनित, दी ब्रोिि नब्रज 1995, जिरीली िवन 2002, रनज रि
• 'िनव्य अलांिनर 'िनमि ग्रांथ िे रचनयतन भनमि िै। जो 6 पररच्छेद में
2006
नवभि िै। इसिन नितीय एवां तृतीय पररच्छेद अलांिनर निरूपण से ऋनर्िे र् सुलभ –
सांबांनधत िै। • अपिे िए िनटि बटोिी िे मनध्यम से नभखनरी ठनिु र िे रचिनत्मि
• 'िनव्यनलांिनर सनर - सांग्रि' उदभट िन ग्रांथ िै।
सांघर्श िे नवनभन्न पक्षों से दर्शिों िो रूबरू िरनते िैं। नजससे आज
• रूद्रट - िी रचिन िन िनम 'िनव्यलांिनर' िै। इस ग्रांथ में 16 अध्यनय
भी लोिधर्श्मशतन से जुिन िर रांगिमी झुन्झतन िै।
तथन िु ल 734 श्लोि िै।
• ऋनर्िे र् सुलि िे िनटि – अमली, बटोिी, धरती आबन, तीि रांग
िनटि
S18. Ans.(d)
Sol. निम्नलनखत िनटिों िो उििे प्रथम प्रिनर्ि वर्श िे अिुसनर पिले
S19. Ans.(b)
से बनद िन सिी िम िै- C, A, E, B, D
Sol. मनलवी बोली िन िें द्र इांदौर िै।
• भनरत सौभनग्य, रनज्यश्री, पिलन रनजन, चरणदनस चोर, बटोिी
मनलवी बोली-
िनटि रचिन िनल रचिनिनर
• यि रनजस्थनिी उपभनर्न िी बोली िै। यि मनलवन क्षेत्र िी बोली
1. भनरत सौभनग्य 1888 ई. बद्रीिनरनयण चौधरी प्रेमघि
िै।
2. रनजश्री 1915 ई. जयर्ांिर प्रसनद
• इांदौर, उज्जैि, देवनस, रतलनम,भोपनल िे क्षेत्र िी प्रमुखतन से बोली
3. पिलन रनजन 1969 ई. जगदीर् चांद्र मनथुर
जनती िै।
4. चरण दनस चोर 1975 ई. िबीब तिवीर
• रनजस्थनिी उपभनर्न िी बोनलयनां - मनरवनिी, जयपुरी,
5. बटोिी 2007 ई. ऋनर्िे र् सुलभ
मेवनती,मनलवी िै।
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जयपुर • यि उपन्यनस दो खांिो में नवभि िै 'वति और देर्' 1958 ई., और
• जयपुर में जयपुरी बोली बोली जनती िै। इस बोली िन िनम ढू ांढनिी 'देर् िन भनवष्य' 1960 ई.
भी िै • मुख्य पनत्र - तनरन, जयदेव पूरी और ििि
जोधपुर- • गौण पनत्र - असद, र्ीलन, िॉक्टर प्रनणिनथ, सोमरनज, पांनित
• जोधपुर में मनरवनिी बोली बोली जनती िै जो रनजस्थनिी उपभनर्न नगरधनरी लनल, मिेंद्र िनयर, िमशचांद िनर्र्, दोलू मनमन, रति, गोस
िी बोली िै मोिबमद, मिनजि, िृ ष्ण िनरनयण अवस्थी, मेिर, िब्बू,िनकिज
जबलपुर- इिनयत अली, नवविनथ सूद, उर्श्मशलन, बांती,एस.पी एनिटर यन
• जबलपुर में बघेली बोली बोली जनती िै। बघेली पूवी निांदी िी प्रमुख िनयरेक्ट सरदनर पत्र,प्रसनद,अग्रवनल सनिब, पुरुर्ोत्तम,िरोत्तम,
बोली िै नमस्टर रनवत, पी.एस. नगल, निरांजि चढ़न, मनथुर,जयन, सीतन, पुरण
• पनश्चमी निांदी उपभनर्न िी प्रमुख बोनलयनां- खिी बोली देई, िॉक्टर श्यनमन
(िोरवी),ब्रजभनर्न, बुांदेली, िररयनणवी (बांगनरू),िन्नौजी. • झूठन सच यर्पनल िन मित्वपूणश उपन्यनस िै अपिी प्रिृ नत में यि
• पूवी निांदी उपभनर्न िी प्रमुख बोनलयनां - अवधी,बघेली, छत्तीसगढ़ी एि मिनिनव्यनत्मि उपन्यनस िै
• पिनिी उपभनर्न िी प्रमुख बोनलयनां - गढ़वनली, िु मनऊिी, िेपनली. • जो भनरत िे नवभनजि िी पृष्ठभूनम पर नलखन गयन िै
• नबिनरी उपभनर्न िी प्रमुख बोनलयनां - मैनथली, मगिी, भोजपुरी • पिले खांि वति और देर् में नवभनजि िे वनस्तनवि िनरणों
नवभनजि िे समय िी ददशिनि नस्थनतयनां और नवस्थननपतों एवां
S20. Ans.(b) र्रणनर्श्थशयों िी समस्यनओं िो प्रस्तुत कियन गयन िै
Sol. 'िबीर िन घर नसखर पर, जिनाँ नसलिली गेल - इस वनक्यनांर् में • तनरन जैसे चररत्रों िे मनध्यम से बतनयन गयन कि नवभनजि िे समय
'नसलिली' र्ब्द िन अथश िै - किसलिे लनयि मनिलनओं िी दुदशर्न िन आलम क्यन थन
• नसलिली र्ब्द िन अथश िै किसलि। • दूसरे खांि देर् िन भनवष्य में आजनदी िे बनद िी नस्थनतयनां िै
• सांत िबीर िे अिुसनर जीव िी नचरांति नस्थनत सवोच्च िोती िै। उस • इसमें एि और िु छ बुनिजीनवयों में िेतनओं िो प्रगनतर्ील भूनमिन
ति पहुांचिन आसनि ििीं िै। उस ति पहुांचिे िन रनस्तन किसलि िन नचत्रण िै तो दूसरी और सूद और सोमरनज जैसे उि तत्वों िी
भरन िै। अगर रनस्तन सरल िै तो िोई बनत ििीं िै लेकिि परमनत्मन भी चचनश जो रनजिीनत और पत्रिनररतन िो र्ुि व्यवसनय बिनिर
ति पहुांचनिे िे रनस्ते में चढनि िै। सवोच्च पद ऊांचनई पर िै। परम भ्रष्टनचनर व बेईमनिी िे मनध्यम से समनज िो लूटिे में लगे िै
पद पनिे िे नलए अपिे मोि मनयन िो त्यनगिन िोगन। • उििी तुलिन में तनरन, िॉक्टर िनथ, श्यनमन, पत्रिनर, ििि तथन
• यि पद िजनरी प्रसनद निवेदी िे आलोचिन ग्रांथ िबीर से नलयन गयन इांजीनियर िरोत्तम जैसे चररत्र भी िै जो देर् िी आजनदी िन सबमनि
िै। नजसिन रचिनिनल 1942 िै। िरते हुए अपिी दननयत्वों िे निवशिि में ईमनिदनरी से जुिे िैं
• झूठन सच में यर्पनल िे देर् नवभनजि िे नलए मूल रूप से अांग्रेजों
• िबीर िे सनखी , र्ब्द और रमैिी िी रचिन िी िै। नजसिन सांिलि
िो उत्तरदनई ठिरनयन िै उििे अिुसनर अांग्रेजों िे अपिी सत्तन िे
उििे नर्ष्य धमशदनस िे बीजि िनमि ग्रांथ में कियन िै। िबीर बीजि
नलए निांदू मुसलमनि में िू ट िनली
में 353 सनखयनां िबीर ग्रांथनवली में सननखयों िो 58अांगों में बनांटन
यर्पनल (1903 - 1976 ई.) िे अन्य उपन्यनस -
गयन। सनखी र्ब्द र्ननब्दि अथश िै सनक्षी। यि दोिन छांद में िै और
• दनदन िनमरेि 1941 ई., देर्द्रोिी 1943 ई., कदव्यन 1945 ई., पनटी
पूवी पि िन प्रभनव िै और खिी बोली िै। सबद - पद िै और ब्रज िन
िनमरेि 1946 ई.,मिुष्य िे रूप 1949 ई., अनमतन1956 ई., बनरि
प्रभनव रमैिी - दोिन व चौपनई िै ब्रज िन प्रभनव िै।
घांटे 1962 ई., अप्सरन िन श्रनप 1965 ई., क्यों िां से 1968 ई., मेरी
S21. Ans.(b) तेरी उसिी बनत 1973 ई.
Sol. सूची I िन सूची II से नमलनि िीनजए - A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
S22. Ans.(a)
सूची –I स्त्री पनत्र सूची –II पनत/प्रेमी
Sol. "रनमचररतमनिस िे उत्तरिनांि में उन्िोंिे ज्ञनि िी अपेक्षन भनि िो
A. र्ीलो III. रति
ििीं अनधि सुसनध्य और आर्ुिलदननयिी ििन िै" - यि िथि आचनयश
B. तनरन I. असद रनमचांद्र र्ुक्ल िन िै।
C. ििि IV. पुरी
रनमचररतमनिस –
D. ऊर्न II. रनजेन्द्र
• रनचयतन - तुलसीदनस , रचिनिनल - 1574 ई. (सांवत् 1631) चैत्र
• यि सभी पनत्र 'झूठन सच' उपन्यनस िे िै
र्ुक्ल रनमिवमी मांगलवनर िो हुआ। समय - 2 वर्श 7 मनि और 26
• यि यर्पनल िन उपन्यनस िै जो नवभनजि िी त्रनसदी िन नचत्रण
कदि लगे।
िरते िैं और मनिवीय जीवि िी त्रनसदी िन प्रत्यक्ष दर्शि िै
• रनमचररतमनिस में सनत िनांि यन सोपनि िै - 1. बनलिनांि, 2.
• इस उपन्यनस में यर्पनल िे सि 1942 - 1957 ई. ति अथनशत देर् अयोध्यन िनांि, 3. अरण्यिनांि,4. किनष्िां धन िनांि, 5. सुांदरिनांि, 6.
नवभनजि से पिले और उसिे बनद िे उतनर - चढ़नव िो कदखनयन िै लांिनिनांि, 7. उत्तरिनांि
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• तुलसीदनस िे सवशप्रथम रनमचररतमनिस रसखनि िो सुिनयन। अांधेरे में-
• रनमचररतमनिस िी प्रथम टीिन अयोध्यन िे बनबन रनम चरण दनस • रचिनिनर- गजनिि मनधव मुनिबोध, नवधन- िनव्य, प्रिनर्ि वर्श -
िे नलखी। 1964 ई., यि िल्पिन पनत्रिन में प्रिननर्त हुई।
• आठ खांिों में नवभि निांदी िी सबसे लांबी िनवतन िै। यि 40 पृष्ठों
• अयोध्यन िनांि िो रनमचररतमनिस िन हृदय स्थल ििन जनतन िै।
में िै।
• इस िनांि में नचत्रिू ट सभन िो आचनयश रनमचांद्र र्ुक्ल िे एि • 'चनांद िन मुांि टेढ़न' िनव्य सांग्रि में सांिनलत िै।
अध्यननत्मि घटिन िी सांज्ञन प्रदनि िी िै। • पिले इसे 'आर्ांिन िे दीप :अांधेरे में' िनम से प्रिननर्त कियन गयन
• रनमचररतमनिस िी रचिन गोस्वनमी िे स्वनन्त सुखनय िे सनथ-सनथ लेकिि बनद में 'अांधेरे में' र्ीर्शि िर कदयन गयन।
लोिनित लोिमांगल िे नलए कियन। • अांधेरे में िनवतन िो व्यि नवचनरों िो तीि भनगों में बनांटन जन सितन
तुलसीदनस जी िी रचिनएां- िैं-1.अनस्मतन िी खोज, 2. मृति दल िी र्ोभनयनत्रन, 3. सैनिि
• वैरनग्य सांदीपिी 1626, रनमनज्ञन प्रश्ननवली 1627, रनमललन ििछु र्नसि तथन जिक्रनांनत
गजनिि मनधव मुनिबोध-
1628, जनििी मांगल 1629, रनमचररतमनिस 1631, पनवशती मांगल
• जन्म-1917 (ग्वननलयर)
1643, िृ ष्ण गीतनवली 1643, गीतनवली 1630, नविय पनत्रिन • यि िें टेसी िे िनव, भयनिि खबरों िे िनव और आत्ममांथि िे िनव
1631, दोिनवली 1631, बरवै रनमनयण 1626, िनवतनवली 1631. िैं, ज्ञनिनत्मि सांवेदिन और सांवेदिनत्मि ज्ञनि िे िनव िै।
रनमचांद्र र्ुक्ल िे – आलोचिनत्मि ग्रांथ – • िॉ.बच्चि नसांि िे इन्िें प्रगनतवनद और प्रयोगवनद िन रनसनयनिि
समीिरण िन िै।
• सूर, तुलसी, जनयसी पर िी गई आलोचिनएाँ, िनव्य में रिस्यवनद,
• इििे नलए िें टेसी अिुभव िी िन्यन िै।
िनव्य में अनभव्यांजिनवनद, रसमीमनांसन
• िनव्य सांग्रि – चनांद िन मुांि टेढ़न (1964) - इस सांग्रि में ब्रह्मरनक्षस
• निबन्धनत्मि ग्रन्थ- उििे निबन्ध नचांतनमनण िनमि ग्रांथ िे दो भनगों
(मध्यमवगीय बुनि जीव िन प्रतीि) और अांधेरे में िनवतन िै। भूरी
में सांग्रिीत िैं। नचांतनमनण िे निबन्धों िे अनतररि र्ुक्ल िे िु छ अन्य भूरी खनि धूल (1980)
निबन्ध भी नलखे िैं, • जि-मि िरुणन सी मनां िो िाँिनल कदयन।, नववेि िो मनर िनलन तिश
आचनयश नवविनथ प्रसनद नमश्र िी रचिनएां – िी जवनि बांद िर दी। यि दोिों पांनियनां अांधेरे में िनवतन में पनगल
िनरन ििीं गयी गई िै।
• वनिमय नवमर्श, निांदी िन सनमनयि सननित्य, नबिनरी िी वननग्वभूनत,
िीलिनव्यनग िोमुदी, गोस्वनमी तुलसीदनस, S24. Ans.(d)
िजनरी प्रसनद निवेदी िी आलोचिनत्मि िृ नतयनां – Sol. "चांचल किर्ोर सुांदरतन िी िरती रिती रखवनली, मैं वि िल्िी सी
मसलि हां जो बिती िनिों िी लनली!" - यि सांवनद लज्जन िन िै
• सूर सननित्य (1936), निन्दी सननित्य िी भूनमिन (1940), िबीर
• यि पांनियनां जयर्ांिर प्रसनद िी रचिन िनमनयिी से िै।
(1942),िनथ सांप्रदनय (1950), निन्दी सननित्य िन आकदिनल
िनमनयिी-
(1952), आधुनिि निन्दी सननित्य पर नवचनर (1949), सननित्य िन • रनचयतन - जयर्ांिर प्रसनद, रचिनिनल -1936 ई., रस - अांगीरस
ममश (1949), मध्यिनलीि बोध िन स्वरूप (1970), निन्दी सननित्य र्नांत (निवेद) रस िै।, दर्शि- समरसतनवनद यन आिांदवनद िै।
िन उद्भव और नविनस (1952) • पनत्र - मिु, श्रिन, इिन और िु मनर िै। मुख्य छांद - तोटि छांद िै।
• इसमें 15 सगश िै - नचांतन, आर्न, श्रिन, िनम,वनसिन, लज्जन, िमश,
रनमिु मनर वमनश िी रचिनएां –
ईष्यनश, इिन, स्वप्न , सांघर्श, निवेद, दर्शि, रिस्य, आिांद।
• वीर िमीर (िनव्य ; सि 1922 ई.), नचत्तौि िी नचन्तन (िनव्य सि्
• प्रतीि – पनत्र - मि - मिु, हृदय - श्रिन, बुनि – इिन, मनिव – िु मनर
1929 ई.), सननित्य समनलोचिन (सि 1929 ई.), पृथ्वीरनज िी
िन प्रतीि िै।
आाँखें (एिनांिी सांग्रि ; सि 1938 ई.), िबीर पदनवली (सांग्रि • आचनयश र्नांनतनप्रय निवेदी िे िनमनयिी िो छनयनवनद िन उपनिर्द
सबपनदि ; सि 1938 ई.), निन्दी सननित्य िन आलोचिनत्मि िन िै।
इनतिनस (सि 1939 ई.), आधुनिि निन्दी िनव्य (सांग्रि सबपनदि ; • नचांतन - यि िनमनयिी िन प्रथम सगश िै।
सि 1939 ई.) • इिन - यि िनमनयिी िन 9 वन सगश िै।
• श्रिन - यि िनमनयिी िन तीसरन सगश िै।
S23. Ans.(c) जयर्ांिर प्रसनद (1889- 1937) –
Sol. 'अांधेरे में' िनवतन में पनगल िनरन गनए गए गनि िी पांनियनां िैं - • िृ नतयनां - उवशर्ी 1909, वि नमलि 1909, प्रेमरनज्य 1909,
अयोध्यन िन उिनर 1910, र्ोिोच्छवनस 1910, बभ्रूवनिि 1911,
िे वल A, C और E
िनिि िु सुम 1913, प्रेम पनथि 1914, मिनरनणन िन मित्व 1914,
A. मर गयन देर् अरे जीनवत रि गए तुम नचत्रनधनर 1918, झरिन 1918, आांसू 1925, लिर 1933,
C. स्वनथों िे पिनि खिे िर नलए िनमनयिी 1935.
E. अब ति क्यन कियन, जीवि क्यन नजयन
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S25. Ans.(a) • भनरतेंदु इस िनटि में अपिी युगीि समस्यनओं िो उजनगर िरतन िै
Sol. सांस्िृ नत िे चनर अध्यनय में नतलि िे बनरे में उपयुि बनतें िै - िे वल और उििन समनधनि िरतन िै इसमें भनरतेंदु िे अपिे सनमिे प्रत्यक्ष
A, C और E कदखनई देिे वनले वतशमनि लक्ष्यिीि पति िी ओर उन्मुख भनरत िन
A. गीतन रिस्य में नतलि जी िे सुस्पष्ट घोर्णन िी कि गीतन िे उद्देश्य वणशि कियन िै।
निवृनत ििीं प्रवती िन प्रनतपनदि कियन िै। • भनरतेंदु नब्ररटर् रनज और आप सीख ले िो भनरत िी दुदशर्न िन
C. नतलि िे उपदेर् तत्िनलीि समय में वीरतन, निभशितन और सच्चनई िे मुख्य िनरण मनिते िैं तत्पश्चनत वे िु रीनतयों, रोग , आलस्य, मकदरन,
सबसे बिे उपदेर् थे। अांधिनर, धमश, सांतोर्, अपव्यय, िै र्ि, नसिनररर्, लोभ, भय
E. नतलि जी िे बतनयन कि योग िन अथश गीतन में िमश िै। स्वनथशपरतन, अनतवृनष्ट,अिनवृनष्ट, अिनल, बनढ़ आकद िो भनरत दुदशर्न
सांस्िृ नत िे चनर अध्यनय – िन िनरण मनिते िैं लेकिि सबसे बिन िनरण अांग्रेजों िो भनरत िी
• रनचयतन - रनमधनरी नसांि कदििर , रचिनिनल - 1956 में प्रिननर्त, लूटिे िी िीनत िो मनिते िैं।
पुरस्िनर - 1959 में सननित्य अिनदमी पुरस्िनर नमलन। • भनरत दुदशर्न िनटि में 6 अांि िैं।
• इस पुस्ति िी प्रस्तनविन िेिरू िनरन नलखी गई िै। • भनरतेंदु िे समस्त मौलीि अिुकदत िनटिों िी सांख्यन 17 िैं।
• इस पुस्ति में कदििर जी िे भनरत िे सनांस्िृ नति इनतिनस िो चनर
मौनलि िनटि –
भनगों में बनांट िर नलखिे िन प्रयत्न कियन िै।
• वैकदिी निांसन निांसन ि भवनत 1873, नवर्स्य नवर्मौर्धम् 1876,
• इस रचिन में वे स्पष्ट िरिन चनिते िैं कि भनरत िन आधुनिि
प्रेम जोनगिी 1875, भनरत दुदशर्न 1880, िील देवी 1881, अांधेर
सननित्य प्रनचीि सननित्य से किि-किि बनतों में नभि और इस
िगरी 1881, सती प्रतनप 1883.
नभन्नतन िन िनरण क्यन िै।
• रनमधनरी नसांि कदििर िन नववनस िै कि भनरतीय सांस्िृ नत में चनर अिुकदत िनटि –
बिी क्रनांनतयनां हुई िै और िमनरी सांस्िृ नत िन इनतिनस इन्िीं चनर • रत्ननवली 1868, नवद्यन सुांदर 1868, पनखांि नविांबि 1872, धिांजय
क्रनांनतयों िन इनतिनस िै। नवजय 1873, मुद्रनरनक्षस 1878, दुलशभ बांधु 1880, िपूशर मांजरी
रनमधनरी नसांि कदििर िे निबांध सांग्रि - 1875, सत्य िररर्चांद्र 1875, भनरत जििी 1877.
• नमट्टी िी और 1996, अधशिनरीवर 1952, रेती िे िू ल 1954, • चौथे अांि में गुलनम, िीि एवां ितदपश बििे िे िनरणों िन उल्लेख िै।
िमनरी सनांस्िृ नति एितन 1956, वेणुवि 1958, उजली आग िनरण िै आलस्य, अपव्यय, रोग, मकदरन, अांधिनर। ये अमूत्तश,
1956, रनष्ट्रभनर्न और रनष्ट्रीय एितन 1958, धमश िैनतितन और प्रतीिनत्मि पनत्र नवस्तनर से दुदशर्न िे िनरणों िन खुलनसन िरते िैं।
नवज्ञनि 1959, वटपीपल 1961, सननित्य मुखी 1968, आधुनिितन इििी बोलीबनिी एवां वेर्भूर्न िनस्यरसोत्पनदि िै। इििे सांवनदों
बोध 1973. से भनरत पर िमले िे निनमत्त िी गई इििी सैन्य तैयनरी िन पतन
• सांस्िृ नत िे चनर अध्यनय में नतलि िे बनरे में उपयोनग बनते सिी चलतन िै।
ििीं िै –
S27. Ans.(b)
• िमशण गृिस्थ िो योगी, सन्यनसी और भिों िे समिक्ष ििीं मनिन
Sol. 'भोलनरनम िन जीव ििनिी िे अिुसनर भोलनरनम िो ररटनयर िोिे
जन सितन।
िे 5 वर्श बनद ति पेंर्ि में नमली थी।
• गीतन िन मनगश सन्यनस िन मनगश िै सांसनर त्यनग और िमशन्यनस िन
भोलनरनम िन जीव-
मनगश िै।
• रनचयतन - िररर्ांिर परसनई, नवधन - ििनिी
S26. Ans.(c) • भोलनरनम िो जीते - जीते उसिन अनधिनर ििीं नमलतन वि 5 सनल
Sol. 'भनरत दुदशर्न' िनटि में निम् पनत्रों िे मांच पर आिे िन सिी क्रम िै ति दफ्तर िे चक्कर िनटतन िै, उसिे बनद भी उसे पेंर्ि ििीं
- E, C, B, A, D नमलती।
• भनरत, भनरत दूदेव, रोग, आलस्य, मकदरन • पररणनम स्वरूप यि ििनिी भ्रष्टनचनर पर आधनररत िै।
भनरत दुदशर्न- • इस ििनिी िन मुख्य उद्देश्य भ्रष्टनचनर पर रोर्िी िनलिन तथन
• रनचयतन - भनरतेंदु िररश्चांद्र जी, नवधन - िनटि िै।, रचिनिनल - समनज िी इस बनत से अवगत िरनिन कि भ्रष्टनचनर िे पररणनम
1875 ई. स्वरूप जब किसी सनमनन्य िनगररि िो अनधिनरी यन न्यनय ििीं
• इस रचिन में भनरतेंदु िे प्रतीिों िे मनध्यम से भनरत िी तत्िनलीि नमलतन तो क्यन िोतन िै।
नस्थनत िन नचत्रण कियन िै। • इस ििनिी में भोलनरनम िन जीव भोलनरनम िी आत्मन िै जो
• वे भनरतवननसयों से भनरत िी दुदशर्न पर रोिे और किर इस दुदशर्न भोलनरनम िे मरिे िे बनद यमदूत िे सनथ िै यमलोि जन रिी थी
िन अांत िरिे िन प्रयनस िरिे िन आह्वनि िरते िैं। लेकिि रनस्ते में यमदूत िो चिमन देिर भनग गई।

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िररर्ांिर परसनई िी प्रमुख रचिनएां- िणीवर िनथ रेणु (1921-1977 ई.)-
• ििनिी–सांग्रि - िाँसते िैं रोते िैं, जैसे उििे कदि किरे, भोलनरनम िन • िथन-सांग्रि - ठु मरी (1958 ई.), एि आकदम रननत्र िी मिि (1967
जीव। ई.), अनिखोर (1973 ई.), एि श्रनवणी दोपिर िी धूप (1984 ई.),
• उपन्यनस - रनिी िनगििी िी ििनिी, तट िी खोज, ज्वनलन और अच्छे आदमी (1986 ई.) आकद।
जल। • प्रनसि ििननियनाँ - मनरे गये गुलिनम (तीसरी िसम), एि आकदम
रननत्र िी मिि, लनल पनि िी बेगम, पांचलनइट, तबे एिलन चलो रे,
• सांस्मरण- नतरछी रेखनएाँ।
ठे स, सांवकदयन।
• निबांध-सांग्रि - पगिांनियों िन जमनिन (1966ई०), जैसे उििे कदि
• िणीवर िनथ रेणु िो उििे उपन्यनस मैलन आांचल िे नलए पदमश्री
किरे (1963ई०), सदनचनर िी तनबीज (1967ई०), नर्िनयत मुझे
सबमननित कियन गयन िै
भी िै (1970ई०), रठठु रतन हुआ गणतांत्र (1970ई०), अपिी-अपिी
बीमनरी (1972ई०), वैष्णव िी किसलि (1967 ई०), नविलनांग S29. Ans.(b)
श्रिन िन दौर (1980ई०), भूत िे पनाँव पीछे, बेईमनिी िी परत, Sol. स्िां द गुप्त िे स्त्री पनत्र िैं - B, C और D
सुिो भनई सनधो (1983ई०), तुलसीदनस चांदि नघसे (1986ई०), • देविी, मननलिी, रनम
िित िबीर (1987ई०), िाँसते िैं रोते िैं, तब िी बनत और थी, ऐसन स्िां दगुप्त-
भी सोचन जनतन िै (1993ई०), पनखण्ि िन अध्यनत्म (1998ई०), • रनचयतन - जयर्ांिर प्रसनद, नवधन - िनटि, प्रिनर्ि - 1928
आवनरन भीि िे खतरे (1998ई०), प्रेमचांद िे िटे जूते। • स्िां द गुप्त िनटि में िु मनरगुप्त िे नबलनसी सनम्रनज्य िी उस नस्थनत
िन नचत्रण हुआ िै जिनां आांतररि िलन सांघर्श और नवदेर्ी आक्रमण
• परसनई रचिनवली (छि खण्िों में; रनजिमल प्रिनर्ि, ियी कदल्ली
िे िलस्वरूप उसिे भनवी क्षय िे लक्षण प्रिट िोिे लगे थे।
से प्रिननर्त)
• स्िां द गुप्त िनटि में 5 अांि और 33 दृश्य िै।
• 'िई दुनियन पनत्रिन' में इििी 'सुिो भनई सनधो ' तथन 'ियी
स्िां द गुप्त िनटि िे स्त्री पनत्र –
ििननियनां' में 'पनांचवन िनलम' और 'िल्पिन पनत्रिन' में 'और अांत में'
• देविी - िु मनरगुप्त िी बिी रनिी स्िां द िी मनतन
ििननियनां प्रिननर्त हुई।
• अिांत देवी - िु मनरगुप्त िी छोटी रनिी पुरगुप्त िी मनतन
• परसनई जबलपुर में रनयपुर से प्रिननर्त अखबनर 'देर्बांध'ु में पनठिों
• जय मनलन - बांधुवमनश िी स्त्री मनलव िी रनिी
िे प्रश्नों िे उत्तर देते थे उििे िॉलम िन िनम थन 'परसनई से पूछे'।
• देवसेिन - बांधु बमनश िी बिि
• नवजयन - मनलव िे धििु बेर िी िन्यन
S28. Ans.(d)
• िमलन - भटनिश िी जििी
Sol. 'तीसरी िसम' ििनिी िे अिुसनर िीरनबनई िन सांबांध मथुरनमोिि
• रनमन - र्वशिनग िी स्त्री
िां पिी - रौतन िां पिी से हुआ।
• मननलिी - मनतृगुप्त िी पत्नी
तीसरी िसम – • अन्य - सखी, दनसी इत्यनकद
• रचिनिनर - िणीवर िनथ रेणु, प्रिनर्ि वर्श - 1956 ई. , नवधन - • स्िां द गुप्त िनटि िे पुरुर् पनत्र - स्िां दगुप्त - युवरनज (नवक्रमनकदत्य),
ििनिी िु मनरगुप्त - मगध िन सम्रनट, गोनवन्दगुप्त - िु मनरगुप्त िन भनई,
• पनत्र- िीरनमि , िीरनबनई पणशदत्त - मगध िन मिनिनयि, चक्रपननलत - पणशदत्त िन पुत्र,
• यि उििी 'मनरे गए गुलिनम' पर आधनररत ििनिी िै। बन्धुवमनश - मनलव िन रनजन, भीमवमनश - उसिन भनई, मनतृगुप्त -
• इस ििनिी पर 1966 ई. में किल्म भी बि चुिी िै। िनव्यितनश (िननलदनस), प्रपांचबुनि - बौि िनपननलि, र्वशिनग -
अन्तवेद िन नवर्यपनत, िु मनरदनस (धनतुसेि) - नसांिल िन
• िीरनमि वि िीरनबनई इस ििनिी िे प्रमुख पनत्र िै।
रनजिु मनर, पुरगुप्त - िु मनरगुप्त िन छोटन पुत्र, भटनिश - िवीि
• िीरनमि एि देिनती ग्रनमीण िै जो नबिनर िे एि सुदरू गनांव िन
मिनबलननधिृ त, पृथ्वीसेि - मांत्री िु मनरनमनत्य, नखनगल - हण
बेलगनिी चनलि िै।
आक्रमणिनरी, मुगल - नवदूर्ि, प्रख्यनतिीर्श्तश - लांिनरनज-िु ल िन
• िीरनबनई मथुरन प्रसनद िी िौटांिी में लैलन िन किरदनर निभनती िै। श्रमण, मिन - बोनधनबिनर - स्थनवर, अन्य - मिनप्रनतिनर,
इस ििनिी िे पनत्र िीरनमि में 3 िसमें खनई िै – मिनदांििनयि, िन्दी - ग्रनम िन दांििनयि, प्रिरी, सैनिि इत्यनकद
• उसिे पिली िसम तब खनई अब चोरी िन मनल गनिी में ििीं ले जयर्ांिर प्रसनद िी रचिनएां –
जनएगन क्योंकि पुनलस िे पिि नलयन। • िनटि- सज्जि 1910, िल्यनणी पररणय 1912, िरुणनलय 1912,
• िीरनमि िो अपिे बैलों िी नचांतन थी उसिे दूसरी िसम तब खनई प्रनयनश्चत 1913, रनजश्री 1915, नवर्नल भनरत 1922, जन्मेजय
जब किसी िे बैलगनिी पर लदिी लनदे थे। िन िनग यज्ञ 1926, िनमिन 1927, चांद्रगुप्त 1928, ध्रुवस्वननमिी
• तीसरी िसम उसिे तब खनई जब िौटांिी वनली बनई िीरनबनई 1933.
उसिी गनिी में बैठी नजससे उसे लगनव (प्रेम) िो गयन। • जेतन और चांदन स्िां द गुप्त िनटि िे स्त्री पनत्र ििीं िै।

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S30. Ans.(d) मिनवीर प्रसनद निवेदी(1864-1938ई.) िे मित्वपूणश निबांध -
Sol. सत्य िथि िै - िे वल B, D और E • िैर्ध चररत्र चचनश(1900ई.), िननलदनस िी समनलोचिन (1901
• B. भनरत िे िनट्य र्नस्त्र में रीनत िे नलए 'प्रवृनत्त' र्ब्द िन उल्लेख ई.), वैज्ञननिि िोर् (1906 ई.), सांपनत्तर्नस्त्र (1907 ई.), िौरटल्य
हुआ। िु ठनर (1907 ई.), नवक्रमनांिदेव चररत्र चचनश (1907ई.), निांदी भनर्न
• D. िुां ति िे रीनत िो मनगश ििन िै। िी उत्पनत्त (1907ई.), िनट्यर्नस्त्र (1912 ई.), वनितन नवलनस
• E. भोज िे 'अवनन्तिन' और 'मनगधी' िनमि दो िई वृनतयों िी (1918 ई.), रसज्ञ रांजि (1920 ई.), िननलदनस और उििी िनवतन
उद्भनविन िी । (1920 ई.), सुिनव सिीतशि (1924 ई.).
आचनयश भरतमुनि- प्रतनप िनरनयण नमश्र (1856- 1894 ई.)िे निबांध -
• इन्िोिे अपिे ग्रांथ 'िनट्यर्नस्त्र' में रीनत िे नलए 'प्रवृनत्त' र्ब्द िन • धोखन, दनांत, बनलि, वृि, खुर्नमद, मिोयोग, समझदनर िी मौत,
उल्लेख कियन िै। िननस्ति, टेढ़ जनि र्ांिन सब िनहां, िोली िै अथवन िोरी.
आचनयश िुां ति- मैनथली र्रण गुप्त (1886 -1964 ई.) िे निबांध –
• स्वप्नवनसवदत्तन, प्रनतमन, अनभर्ेि, अनवमनरि.
• इन्िोिे अपिे ग्रांथ 'िनव्यदर्श' में रीनत िो 'मनगश ' ििनां िै।
भनरतेंदु िररश्चांद्र (1850- 1885 ई.) िे निबांध-
आचनयश भोजरनज-
• िश्मीर िु सुम,लेवी प्रनण लेवी(1870 ई.), उदय पुरोदय (1877ई.),
• इन्िोिे अपिे ग्रांथ 'सरस्वती िां ठनभरण' में दो िई िनव्यरीनत
वैद्यिनथ िी यनत्रन(1880ई.), िनलचक्र(1884ई.), बनदर्नि दपशण,
'अवनन्तिन' और 'मनगधी' रीनतयों िी पररिल्पिन प्रस्तुत िी
लेवी प्रनण लेवी, स्वगश में नवचनर सभन िन अनधवेर्ि, पनांचवे पैगांबर,
'रीनत' र्ब्द िी व्युत्पनत्त-
अांग्रेज स्त्रोत, िां िि स्त्रोत.
• 'रीनत' र्ब्द सांस्िृ त िी 'रीि' धनतु में किति् प्रत्यय िे योग से बिन
िै नजसिन मूल अथश िोतन िै 'मनगश ' S32. Ans.(c)
• रीनत र्ब्द िे अथश - र्ब्दिोर् िे अिुसनर 'रीनत' र्ब्द िे Sol. "पुरुर् नसांि जी उधमी, लक्ष्मी तनिरर चेरी! भनग्य भरोसे जे रिैं
मनगश,पथ,नवनथ,पिनत, प्रणनली, र्ैली इत्यनकद अिेि अथश ग्रिण किए िु पुरुर् भर्नि टेरी!!"
जनते िैं। क्यन भूलूां क्यन यनद िरूां रचिन िे पनत्र िी जबनि पर उठते बैठते यि दोिन
• िनव्य रीनत िन अथश - किसी भी िनव्य िी रचिन िरते समय िनव िे रितन िै।
िनरन िनव्य लेखि िे नलए जो र्ैली िनम में ली जनती िै उसे िी 'क्यन भूलू क्यन यनद िरूां –
िनव्य रीनत ििन जनतन िै । • ' िररवांर् रनय बच्चि जी िी आत्मिथन िै।
• रीनत सांप्रदनय िे प्रवतशि आचनयश वनमि िे रीती िो िनव्य िी आत्मन • जो 1969 मे प्रिननर्त हुई।
िे रूप में स्वीिनर कियन िै।- "रीनतरनत्मन िनव्यस्य " • इििी आत्मिथन 4 भनगो मे प्रिननर्त हुई। क्यन भूलूां क्यन यनद िरू
• आचनयश िुां ति िे रीनत िे तीि भेद मनिे - सुिुमनर मनगश, नवनचत्र मनगश, - प्रथम -1969, िीि िन निमनशण किर - नितीय - 1970, बसेरे से
दूर -तृतीय - 1978, दर्िनर से सोपनि ति - चतुथश 1985
मध्यम मनगश
• इििे चनर आत्मिथनत्मि खांिों िे नलए 1991 में प्रथम सरस्वती
• आचनयश वनमि िनरन कदए गए रीनत िे 3 भेदों िो सनमनन्य रूप से
सबमनि नमलन िै।
स्वीिनर कियन गयन - वैदभी, गौिी, पांचनली
• चनर खांिों में प्रिननर्त िनव बच्चि िी आत्मिथन निांदी सननित्य िी
• वैदभी रीनत में सुिोमल एवां सुिुमनर (श्रुनत मधुर सांगीतनत्मि) वणों
िनलजयी रचिनओं में नगिी जनती िै।
िन प्रयोग कियन जनतन िै- इस रीनत में सांयुि अक्षरों िन अभनव
• इििी आत्मिथन िन प्रथम खांि प्रिननर्त िोिे िे बनदअपिी
पनयन जनतन िै। इस रीनत में सनमननसि पदों िन पूणश अभनव िोतन िै।
स्पष्टवनकदतन िे िनरण चचनश िन नवर्य बिन रिन।
इस रीनत में 'ट' वगीय वणों िन भी अभनव पनयन जनतन िै। • िॉ धमशवीर भनरती िे इििी आत्मिथन िे नलए ििन िै - "निांदी िे
िजनर वर्ों िे इनतिनस में ऐसी पिली घटिन बतनयन जब अपिे बनरे
S31. Ans.(c)
में सब िु छ इतिी बेबनिी, सनिस और सद्भनविन से िि कदयन गयन।
Sol. 'देर् िी बनत' निबांध िे लेखि मिनवीर प्रसनद निवेदी िैं।
• िजनरी प्रसनद निवेदी िे ििन िै कि," इसमें िे वल बच्चि जी िन
• यि निबांध पिली बनर (1923ई.) में नमजनशपुर से प्रिननर्त हुआ।
पररवनर और व्यनित्व िी ििीं उभरन बनल्ि उििे सनथ समूचे िनल
• इसिन दूसरन सांस्िरण नमजनशपुर से (1929ई.) में प्रिननर्त हुआ।
और क्षेत्र भी अनधि गिरे रांग से उभरे िैं "।
• तीसरन सांस्िरण (1932ई.) में िोलिनतन से प्रिननर्त हुआ तब • रनमधनरी नसांि कदििर िे अिुसनर, " निांदी प्रिनर्िों में इस
सरिनर िे इस पर प्रनतबांध लगन कदयन। आत्मिथन िन अत्यांत ऊांचन स्थनि िै "।
• 'देर्ेर िथन' िन जब निांदी में अिुवनद ' देर् िी बनत िनम' से हुआ तब • िॉ नर्वमांगल नसांि सुमि िे क्यन भूलूां क्यन यनद िरूां िे नलए ििन िै,
उसे भी नब्ररटर् र्नसि िे िोप भनजि िोिन पिन और कितनब भी " ऐसी अनभव्यनियन िई पीढ़ी िे नलए पनथेय बि सिे गी इसी में
प्रनतबांनधत िो गई । इििी सनथशितन िै।
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प्रेमचांद घर में – र्नरदनतिय िन भनव प्रिनर्ि –
• नर्वरनिी देवी िनरन नलखी गई प्रेमचांद िी जीविी िै। • र्नरदनतिय िनटयर्नस्त्र िे आचनयश िै।
• नर्वरनिी िे इसमें प्रेमचांद िे सांपूणश जीवि िो दर्नशयन िै • 'भनव प्रिनर्ि' सांस्िृ त में रनचत ग्रांथ िै।
• इसिन प्रिनर्ि वर्श 1944 ई. िै • इस ग्रांथ में िु ल दस अनधिनर (अध्यनय) िै।
आवनरन मसीिन – • नजसमें क्रमर्ः भनव, रसस्वरूप, रसभेद, िनयि - िननयिन
• नवष्णु प्रभनिर िनरन नलखी गई जीविी िै। निरूपण,िननयिन भेद, र्ब्दनथश सांबध ां , िनट्य इनतिनस,
• जो उन्िोंिे र्रतचांद्र िे जीवि पर नलखी िै। दर्रूपि,िृत्यभेद, एवां िनट्य प्रयोगों िन प्रनतपनदि कियन गयन िै।
• इसिन प्रिनर्ि वर्श 1974 ई िै
• इस ग्रांथ में भोज िे 'श्रृांगनर प्रिनर् 'तथन आचनयश मबमट िनरन रनचत
• यि तीि भनगों में नवभननजत िै - कदर्निनरन, कदर्न िी खोज, कदर्नांत
'िनव्य प्रिनर्' से अिेि उदनिरण नमलते िैं।
मुदशनियन –
• 'रसनणशवसुधनिर' िै इस ग्रन्थ में तीि उल्लनस िै।
• तुलसीरनम िी नलखी आत्मिथन िै।
• इन्िोंिे अचनयश र्नगश देव िनरन रनचत सांगीत रत्ननिर और सांगीत
• यि दनलत आत्मिथन िे अांतगशत आती िै।
सुधनिर िनमि टीिन भी नलखी िै।
• यि आत्मिथन दो खांिो में नवभि िै प्रथम खांि िन िनम 'मुदशनियन'
2010 ई. तथन नितीय खांि िन िनम 'मनणिर्श्णशिन' 2014 ई. िै मनिमभट्ट िन व्यनि नववेि –
• मनिमभट्ट िन समय 11वीं र्ती िन मध्य भनग स्वीिनर कियन जनतन
S33. Ans.(b) िै।
Sol. सूची l िन सूची ll से सिी नमलनि िै - A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II • मनिमभट्ट िे ध्वनिमत िे खांिि िे नलए 'व्यनि नववेि' िनमि ग्रांथ
सूची I आचनयश सूची II पुस्ति िी रचिन िी।
A. भनिुदत्त IV. रस मांजरी • व्यनि नववेि तीि (नवमर्श) अध्यनयों में नवभि िै।
B. रनमचन्द्र गुणचन्द्र III. िनट्यदपशण
C. र्नरदनतिय I. भनव प्रिनर्ि S34. Ans.(a)
D. मनिमभट्ट II. व्यनि नववेि Sol. स्मृनत -आख्यनि (सांस्मरण) िी पुस्तिें िैं - िे वल A, C और D
भनिु दत्त िी रसमांजरी – • िांगन तलनई िन गनांव
• यि श्रृांगनर रस से सांबांनधत ग्रांथ िै। • लोट आ ओ धनर
• यि िनव्य रस से सांबांनधत ग्रांथ िै। • यनद िो कि ि यनद िो
• इसिे अिुसनर रस नविीि िनव्य रनसि सह्रदयों िो प्रभननवत ििीं िांगन तलनई िन गनांव –
िर सितन इसनलए िनव्य जगत में रस िी मित्तन सनवशजनिि िै। • यि नवविनथ नत्रपनठी िन सांस्मरण िै।
• इसिन प्रिनर्ि गांगनिनथ झन िें द्रीय सांस्िृ त नवद्यनपीठ से हुआ िै • यि 2004 में प्रिननर्त हुआ।
इसमें 122 पृष्ठ िै • 'िांगन तलनई िन गनांव' नवविनथ नत्रपनठी िन स्मृनत आख्यनि िै।
• इििन अन्य ग्रांथ 'रस तरांनगणी' िै। • िांगनतलनई िन गनांव 'नबस्िोिर' िे बिनिे भनरतीय ग्रनमीण जीवि-
• भनिु दत्त िी रसमांजरी िी रचिन धिांजय िे दर्रूपि िे आधनर पर सभ्यतन िी मिोरम झनांिी प्रस्तुत िी िै।
िी गई िै। • नवविनथ नत्रपनठी िे अन्य सांस्मरण - व्योमिे र् दरवेर् 2010, गांगन
• रसमांजरी में नवभनव िे 2 भेदों में आलांबि और उद्दीपि में और श्रृांगनर
स्ननि िरिे चलोगे 2012
रस िे आलांबि नवभनव िनयि िन और िननयिन भेद पर नवस्तृत
लौट आओ धनर-
नववेचि प्रस्तुत कियन गयन िै।
• यि दूधिनथ नसांि िन सांस्मरण िै।
रनमचांद्र गुणचांद्र िन िनट्य दपशण –
• जो 1995 में प्रिननर्त हुआ।
• िनट्यदपशण िनट्य र्नस्त्र िन प्रनसि ग्रांथ िै।
• दूधिनथ नसांि िन अन्य सांस्मरण - एि र्मर्ेर भी िै 2012.
• रनमचांद्र और गुणचांद्र आचनयश िेमचांद्र िे नर्ष्य थे।
• आचनयश गुणचांद्र िन िनटि दपशण िे अलनवन िोई दूसरन ग्रांथ ििीं िै। यनद िो िे ि यनद िो –
• िनटि दपशण िी रचिनिनर िररिन र्ैली में िी गई िै। • यि िनर्ीिनथ नसांि िन सांस्मरण िै।
• िनटि दपशण िी वृनत्त भी इि दोिों आचनयों िे िी नलखी िै। • यि 1992 में रनचत िै।
• िनटि दपशण चनर 'नववेिो' में नवभि िै। • िनर्ीिनथ नसांि िे अन्य सांस्मरण - आच्छे कदि पनछे भये 2004, घर
• इसमें िनटि, प्रिरण आकद रूपि,रस,अनभिव एवां रूपि से सांबांनधत िन जोगी जोगिन 2006
अन्य नवर्यों िन भी निरूपण कियन गयन। मुखिन क्यन देख-े
• इििे िनरन रनचत 11 िनटिों िे उिरण 'िनटि दपशण' में देखिे िो • अब्दुल नबनस्मल्लनि जी िन उपन्यनस िै।
नमलते िै • यि 1996 में प्रिननर्त हुआ।

150 Teaching Jobs Exam | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

गोलमेज रचिन – S36. Ans.(a)
• अरुण िमल िी िै। Sol. सूची l िन सूची ll से सिी नमलनि िै - A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
• इसमें अरुण जी िे लांबे समय से नलए गए सनक्षनत्िनरो िो तीि खांिों सूची I सूची II
में नवभननजत कियन िै। A. िृ पी IV. एि और द्रोणनचनयश
• गोलमेज रचिन आलोचिन और िनव्यनस्वनद दोिों रसों से पररपूणश B. किन्नी III. आधे -अधूरे
िै। C. जमिन बिि I. मिनभोज
D. िल्यनणी II. चन्द्रगुप्त
S35. Ans.(d) एि और द्रोणनचनयश -
Sol. पनश्चनत्य िनव्य नचांतिों िन उििे जन्म वर्श िे अिुसनर पिले से बनद • िनटि र्ांिर र्ेर् िन िै।
िन सिी क्रम िै - D, C, B, E, A • यि 1972 में प्रिननर्त हुआ।
• नवनलयम वर्डसशवथश, िॉलररज, मैथ्यू अिनशल्ि, टी. एस. इनलयट, आई. • इस िनटि में दो समस्यन िो दर्नशयन गयन िै पिलन नर्क्षन व्यवस्थन
ए.ररचिश में िदनचनर और दूसरन वेति भोगी मध्यवगश िे अध्यनपि िे अनस्तत्व
नवनलयम वर्डसशवथश – िी समस्यन।
• िथनिि में एि नर्क्षि िी तुलिन द्रोणनचनयश से िी जनती िै नजसमें
• जन्म - 1770 ई. इांग्लैंि में, मृत्यु -1850
एि नर्क्षि िो अन्यनय सिि िरिे िी परांपरन कद िै।
• नवनलयम वर्डसशवथश िी रचिनएां- एि इवनिांग वॉि एांि निनस्क्रनप्टव
• एि और द्रोणनचनयश िनटि िे पनत्र - िृ नप, अरनवांद, नवमलेन्दू,
स्िे चेज - 1793 ई., नलररिल बैलेर्डस - 1798 ई. ( िॉलररज िे
अिुरनधन, अध्यक्ष, अध्यक्ष िन पुत्र ,चांद,ू द्रोणनचनयश
सिलेखि में ), अांनतम सांग्रि - द नप्रल्यूि
दुयोधि,अवत्थनमन, द्रोपदी आकद।
िॉलररज –
आधे अधूरे -
• इििन पूरन िनम सैमुअल टेलर िॉलररज थन, जन्म - 1772 इांग्लैंि • मोिि रनिे र् िन िनटि िै।
में, मृत्यु - 1834 • जो 1969 में प्रिननर्त हुआ।
• िॉलररज िी रचिनएां - द फ्ें ि 1817, एर्डस टू ररफ्लेक्र्ि 1825, • इस िनटि में समनज िी नवसांगनतयों िन नचत्रण कियन गयन और यि
चचश एांि स्टेट 1830, िन्िे र्ि ऑि एि इिक्वनयररांग नसपररट बतनिे िन प्रयनस कियन कि प्रत्येि व्यनि अधूरन िै।
1840 • आधे अधूरे एि स्त्री और एि पुरुर् िे बीच लगनव और तिनव िी
मैथ्यू अिनशल्ि- ििनिी िै।
• जन्म - 24 कदसांबर 1822 लेलिम, नमिलेसेक्स इांग्लैंि में।, मृत्यु - • पुरुर् पनत्र- मिेंद्र िनथ, नसांघननियन, जगमोिि, अर्ोि
1888 • स्त्री पनत्र - सननवत्री,नबन्नी, किन्नी, जुिेजन
• मैथ्यू अिनशल्ि िी रचिनएां - िल्चर एांि अिनिी 1869, नलटरेचर एांि मिनभोज –
ड्रनमन 1873, एसेज ऑि चनजश एांि स्टेट, द िां क्र्ि ऑि कक्ररटनसजम • मिनभोज मन्नू भांिनरी िन िनटि उपन्यनस दोिों िी िै।
एट द प्रेजेंट टनइम 1877 • मिनभोज िनटि सबसे पिले उपन्यनस िे रूप में 1979 में प्रिननर्त
टी. एस. इनलयट – हुआ।
• जन्म 1888 अमेररिन में, मृत्यु - 1965 • उपन्यनस िो िनटि िे रूप में 1983 में प्रिननर्त कियन गयन।
• टी.एस. इनलयट िी रचिनएां - द सेक्रेि बुि 1920, िोमेज टू जॉि • मिनभोज रनजिीनत पर आधनररत यथनथश परि िनटि िै।
ड्रनयिि 1924, एनलजनबेथेि एसेज, द यूज़ ऑि पोएट्री एांि द यूज़ • मिनभोज िे पुरुर् पनत्र - दन सनिब, सुिुल बनबू ,अप्पन सनिब, पनांिे

ऑि कक्ररटनसजम 1934, सेलेक्टेि एसेज 1934, एसेज एर्ेट एांि जी,लखि ,सक्सेिन, नसन्िन, दत्तन बनबू, भवनिी, िरोत्तम,मिेर्, रनत,
मोिि नसांि, बीर्ु,िीरन,नबांदन, जोरनवर,िनर्ी,
मॉििश 1936, िॉलेज एांि एक्सपीररयांस (र्ोध प्रबांध)
थनिेदनर,लठे त,जोगेवर सनह
आई ए ररचिश –
• स्त्री पनत्र -जमुिन बिि (दन सनिब िी पत्नी ), रुिमन (नबांदन िी पत्नी)
• इििन पूरन िनम ईवर आमशस्ट्रनांग ररचर्डसश थन।, जन्म - 1893, मृत्यु
लििी (जोरनवर िी लििी)।
- 1979
चांद्रगुप्त
• आई ए ररचिश िी रचिनएां- द िनउां िेर्ि ऑि ईस्थैरटि 1922, दी
• जयर्ांिर प्रसनद जी िन िनटि िै।
मीनिांग ऑि मीनिांग 1923, द नप्रांनसपुल्स ऑि नलटरेरी कक्ररटनसजम • यि 1931 में प्रिननर्त हुआ।
1924, प्रैनक्टिल कक्ररटनसजम 1929, सनइांस एांि पोएट्री 1926, द • इसिन िथनिि प्रनसि ऐनतिननसि घटिनओं अलक्षेंद्र िन आक्रमण
किलोसोिी ऑि ररटनररिन 1936 िांद वांर् िन िनर् सेल्यूिस िन प्रभनव चांद्रगुप्त िी प्रनतष्ठन िे आधनर
पर निर्श्मशत िै।
151 Teaching Jobs Exam | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
• चांद्रगुप्त िनटि िे पनत्र - चनणक्य (नवष्णुगुप्त ), चांद्रगुप्त, िांद,रनक्षस, S38. Ans.(d)
वररुनच, र्िटनर, अबभीि, पवशतेवर, नसांििरण, नसिां दर, Sol. िनगनजुशि िी िननलदनस िनवतन में िे वल B, D और E िन उल्लेख
किनलप्स,मोयश सेिनपनत, देवबल, िनगदत्त,गण मुख्य, सनइबटीयस, हुआ िै।
मेगस्थिीज गांधनर िरेर्,नसल्यूिस , दण्ियनि। • B. यक्ष, D. इांदम
ु ती, E. अज
• स्त्री पनत्र - अलिन, सुवननर्िी, िल्यनणी (मगध िी रनजिु मनरी), िननलदनस िनवतन-
िीलन,लीलन, मनलनविन,िनिेनलयन, मौयश पत्नी, एनलस। • िनगनजुशि िी 'िननलदनस' िनवतन 'सतरांगे पांखों वनली' िनवतन सांग्रि
में सांिनलत िै। जो 1959 में प्रिननर्त हुआ।
S37. Ans.(c)
• िननलदनस िनवतन िन सनर - इस िनवतन में िनगनजुशि सांस्िृ त िे
Sol. देविनगरी नलनप िे सांबांध में निम्नलनखत बनतें उपयुि िै - िे वल
मिनिनव िननलदनस िे मनध्यम से िनवतन िी रचिन िी बनत िरते
A, C और E
• जैसे बोलन जनतन िै देविनगरी में वैसन िी नलखन जनतन िै। िैं। िननलदनस जी िे स्वयां अपिे िनव्य में नजि पनत्रों िी पीिन िो
• सांनवधनि में देविनगरी नलनप में नलनखत निांदी िो रनजभनर्न मनिन अपिे हृदय में अिुभव कियन िै उन्िीं पनत्रों िन उदनिरण िनगनजुशि
गयन िै। िे कदयन िै। िननलदनस िनवतन िन प्रथम अिुच्छेद 'रघुवांर् मिनिनव्य'
• ध्वनि और सांिेत में निनश्चत िै। िे प्रसांग पर आधनररत िै। इसिन पिलन प्रसांग रघुवांर् मिनिनव्य पर
देविनगरी नलनप - आधनररत िै।
• प्रत्येि भनर्न िी अपिी नलनप िोती िै नजसे उस भनर्न िो नलखन • िनव िनगनजुशि िे 'िननलदनस' िनमि िनवतन में मिनिनव िननलदनस
जनतन िै नलनखत ध्वनि सांिेतों िो नलनप ििते िैं। से यि प्रश्न पूछन िै। "िननलदनस यि सच सच बतलनिन इांदम
ु ती िे
• निांदी नजस नलनप में नलखी जनती िै उसे िनगरी देविनगरी नलनप ििन मृत्य र्ोि से अज रोयन यन तुम रोए थे!" िननलदनस िे मिनिनव्य
जनतन िै। रघुवांर्म में िननलदनस िे इां दम
ु ती स्वयांबर िन वणशि कियन िै। उसमें
• देविनगरी नलनप िन समुनचत नविनस आठवीं सदी में हुआ गुजरनत िनव िे इांदम
ु ती िी मृत्यु िे अवसर पर रनजन अज िो उसिे वीरि
िे रनष्ट्रिु ट िरेर्ो िी यिी नलनप थी।
में नवलनप िरते हुए दर्नशयन िै।
• देविनगरी िन सवशप्रथम प्रयोग गुजरनत िे रनजन जय भट्ट िे एि
• इसिन दूसरन प्रसांग 'िु मनरसांभव मिनिनव्य' पर िै। दूसरे प्रसांग िन
नर्लनलेख में हुआ िै।
िथि िै - "घृतनमनश्रत सुखी सनमधन - सम िनमदेव जब भष्म िो
• देविनगरी नलनप अक्षररि , देविनगरी में एि वणश िे नलए ध्वनि िै
गयन - रनत रोई यन तुम रोए थे!"
अथनशत प्रत्येि अक्षर उच्चनररत िोते िैं।
• इसिन तीसरन प्रसांग मेघदूत मिनिनव्य पर आधनररत िै। नजसिी
• देविनगरी िी वणशमनलन िन वणशक्रम वैज्ञननिि िै। देविनगरी िे वणश
नवभनजि में वैज्ञननिितन - िु ल 52 वणश िोते िैं। पांनि िै - "पुष्िरनवतश मेघो िन सनथी बििर....रोयन यक्ष कि तू
• देविनगरी नलनप ध्वन्यनत्मि नलनप िन िोिर अक्षरनत्मि यन रोए थे? "
वणशिनत्मि नलनप िै। िनगनजुशि - (जन्म 30 जूि 1911)-
• देविनगरी नलनप में समग्र ध्वनियों िो अांकित िरिे िी क्षमतन िै। • िनगनजुशि िे बचपि िन िनम 'ढक्कि नमनसर' थन उििन वनस्तनवि
• देविनगरी नलनप िे उच्चनरण एवां लेखि में एिरूपतन िै। यि इसिी िनम वैद्यिनथ नमश्र थन निांदी में िनगनजुशि, मैनथली व यनत्री िनम से
वैज्ञननिितन िो पुष्ट िरतन िै। नलखते थे।
• देविनगरी नलनप में प्रत्येि ध्वनि िे नलए एि नचह्ि नियत िै। • िनगनजुशि प्रगनतवनदी िनव्य धनरन िे प्रनतनिनध िनवयों में से एि िै।
देविनगरी नलनप में प्रत्येि वरण िन निनश्चत उच्चनरण िै। • उपन्यनस -nरनतिनथ िी चनची, बनबन बटेवर िनथ, दु:ख मोचि,
• मनत्रनओं िे िनरण देविनगरी नलनप रोमि नलनप िी तुलिन में िम वलचिनमन,वरुण िे बेटे,िई पौधे.
स्थनि घेरती िै। इसनलए वि िम खचीली िै। • िनवतन सांग्रि - यूगधनरन 1953, सतरांगे पांखों वनली 1959, प्यनसी
• देविनगरी नलनप सरल िलनत्मि एवां सुांदर िै इसमें व्यांजि सांयोग िे
पथरनई आांखें 1962, तनलनब िी मछनलयनां 1974, नखचिी नवपलब
सरल नियम िै अतः वतशिी िी भूलो िी सांभनविन िम रिती िै।
देखन िमिे 1980, तुमिे ििन थन 1953, िजनर - िजनर बनिो
• देविनगरी नलनप एि ध्वनि िे नलए एि िी नचन्ि व्यि कियन जनतन
बनली 1981, आनखर ऐसन क्यन िि कदयन मैंिे 1982, पुरनिे जूतीयों
िै। इसमें जो नलखन जनतन िै विी बोलन जनतन िै। देविनगरी नलनप
िन िोसश 1983, रति गभनश 1984, ऐसे भी िम क्यन ऐसे भी तुम
में अिुच्चनररत अक्षर ििीं िोते िैं।
क्यन 1985, इस गुब्बनरे िी छनयन में 1990, भूल जनओ पुरनिे सपिे
• देविनगरी नलनप िन प्रयोग निांदी' मरनठी, िेपनली भनर्नओं िो
नलखिे में िोतन िै। पांजनबी भनर्न िो नलखिे में गुरुमुखी नलनप िन 1994, पिन िै यि िटिल अपिे खेत में 1998, में नमनलट्री िन बुड्ढन
प्रयोग िोतन िै। अांग्रेजी रोमि नलनप में और उदूश िनरसी नलनप में घोिन।
नलखी जनती िै। • खांििनव्य- भस्मनसुर और भूनमज्ञन

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S39. Ans.(b) आचनयश िरेंद्र देव-
Sol. रनम िृ ष्ण और नर्व िे व्यनित्व पर रनम मिोिर लोनियन • भनरत िे प्रमुख स्वतांत्रतन सांग्रनम सेिनिी, पत्रिनर,सननित्यिनर एवां
समनजवनदी नचांति िे नवचनर किए िैं। नर्क्षन नवद थे।
• रनम मिोिर लोनियन- • िनर्ी नवद्यनपीठ िे आचनयश बििे िे बनद से यि उपननध उििे िनम
• िे निबांध 'रनम, िृ ष्ण और नर्व ' िनम से नलखन। िन अांग बि गए।
• िॉक्टर लोनियन ििते िैं कि रनम,िृ ष्ण व नर्व िो िमिो ििीं • देर् िी स्वतांत्र िरनिे िन जुिूि उन्िें स्वतांत्रतन आांदोलि में खींच
बिनयन िमिे इन्िें बिनयन िै और यि एि कदि िे बिनए ििीं िै सच लनयन और भनरत िी आर्श्थि श दर्न में गरीबों िी दुदशर्न िे उन्िें
समनजवनदी बिन कदयन।
यिी िै कि िरोिों निांदस्ु तननियों िे युग युगनांतर में िजनरों वर्ों में
मधु नलमये –
रनम िृ ष्ण और नर्व िो बिनयन िै उिमें अपिी िांसी और सपिों िे
• भनरत िे समनजवनदी नवचनरों िे निबांध िनयश िनयशितनश थे। रनम
रांग भरे तब रनम िृ ष्ण और नर्व जैसी चीजें सनमिे आई िै।
मिोिर लोनियन िे अिुयनई एवां रनम सेवि यनदव व जॉजश ििनंिीस
• रनम मिोिर लोनियन िी दृनष्ट में यूां तो िर एि देर् िन अपिन
िे सििमी थे।
इनतिनस िोतन िै इनतिनस िी रनजिीनति सननिनत्यि और दूसरी • पुतशगननलयों से गोवन िो मुि िरनिर भनरत में र्ननमल िरिे में
तरि िी िई घटिनएां िोती िै। अिम भूनमिन अदन िी।
• इनतिनस िी घटिनओं िो लेिर एि लांबी जांजीर िोती िै उसिो
लेिर िी िोई सभ्यतन और सांस्िृ नत बिती िै उििन कदमनग पर S40. Ans.(b)
असर रितन िै। Sol. "अजी िजरत यिी चोरी िरनते िैं र्िर िे नजतिे चोर- िनिू िै.
• लेकिि इिसे अलग एि और जांजीर िोती िै वि किस्से ििननियों सब इिसे नमले रिते िैं! रनत िो यि लोग चोरों से ििते िैं,चोरी िरो
और आप दूसरे मोिल्ले में जनिर 'जनगते रिो'! जनगते रिो!! पुिनरते िैं
वनली।
" - यि सांवनद ईदगनि ििनिी में मोिनसि िन िै।
• रनम िृ ष्ण और नर्व सचमुच इस दुनियन में िभी हुए यन ििीं िोई
ईदगनि –
ििीं जनितन असली बनत यि िै कि इििी नजांदगी िे किस्से िे छोटे-
• इस ििनिी िे लेखि प्रेमचांद िै।
छोटे पिलू भी निांदस्ु तनि िे िरोिों लोग जनिते िैं।
• यि उदूश और निांदी दोिों भनर्न में नलखी गई।
• रनम मिोिर लोनियन िन जन्म 23 मनचश 1910 िो तमसन िदी िे • यि ििनिी 1933 में 'चनांद' पनत्रिन में प्रिननर्त हुई।
कििनरे अिबरपुर िै जनबनद में हुआ। • ईदगनि ििनिी में एि अिनथ बनलि िी ििनिी बतनई गई िै।
• उििे नपतनजी श्री िीरनलनल पेर्े से अध्यनपि वि हृदय सच्चे • ईदगनि ििनिी िे पनत्र - अमीिन (दनदी), िननमद (पोतन) ििनिी िन
रनष्ट्रभि थे। मूल पनत्र, मोिनसि (दोस्त), मिमूद (दोस्त), िूरे (दोस्त), सबमी
• उििे नपतनजी गनांधी जी िे अिुयनई थे जब गनांधी जी से नमलिे जनते (दोस्त), चौधरी सनिब
तो रनम मिोिर लोनियन िो भी अपिे सनथ ले जनयन िरते थे। इसिे • प्रेमचांद जी िे लगभग 300 ििननियनां नलखी जो मनिसरोवर र्ीर्शि
िनरण गनांधी जी िे नवरनट व्यनित्व िन उि पर गिरन असर हुआ। से 8 भनगों में प्रिननर्त हुई।
• लोनियन जी अपिे नपतनजी िे सनथ 1918 में अिमदनबनद िनांग्रेस • प्रेमचांद जी िी प्रथम ििनिी 'सौत' जो सि 1915 में सरस्वती में
अनधवेर्ि में पिली बनर र्ननमल हुए। प्रिननर्त हुई।
• िु छ आलोचि प्रेमचांद िे 'पांच परमेवर' 1916 िौि िी प्रथम
• इन्िोंिे भनरत छोिो आांदोलि में भनग नलयन 20 मई 1944 गोवन
ििनिी मनिते िैं और 'ििि' 1936 िो अांनतम।
मुनि आांदोलि िे दौरनि जेल गए। इि निांदी, जमशिी और अांग्रेजी
प्रेमचांद जी िे प्रमुख ििनिी सांग्रि –
भनर्न िन ज्ञनि थन।
• सप्त सरोज 1917, िवनिनध 1917, प्रेम पूर्श्णशमन 1918, प्रेम पचीसी
जयप्रिनर् िनरनयण
1923, प्रेम प्रसूि 1924, प्रेम िनदर्ी 1926, प्रेम प्रनतमन 1926,
• भनरतीय स्वतांत्रतन सेिनिी और रनजिेतन थे। प्रेम प्रनतज्ञन 1929, प्रेम चतुथी 1936, प्रेम िुां ज 1930, सप्त सुमि
• 1970 में इांकदरन गनांधी िे नवरुि नवपक्ष िन िेतृत्व िरिे िे नलए 1930, ििि 1936
जनिन जनतन िै। प्रेमचांद जी िी प्रमुख ििननियनां-
• इांकदरन गनांधी िो पदच्युत िरिे िे नलए इन्िोंिे सांपूणश क्रनांनत िमि • िमि िन दरोगन 1913, सज्जितन िन दांि 1916, ईवरीय न्यनय
आांदोलि चलनयन। 1917, दुगनश िन मांकदर 1917, बूढ़ी िनिी 1920, र्नांनत 1921, सवन
• वे समनज सेवि थे इन्िें 'लोििनयि' िे िनम से भी जनिन जनतन िै। सेर गेहां 1924, र्तरांज िे नखलनिी 1924, मुनि मनगश 1924, मुनि
1998 में मरणोपरनांत भनरत रत्न से सबमननित हुए। धि 1924, सौभनग्य िे िोिे 1924, दो सनखयनां 1928, पूस िी रनत
• समनज सेवन िे नलए इन्िें रमि मैग्सेसे पुरस्िनर नमलन िै। इन्िोंिे 1930, दो बैलों िी िथन 1931, िोली िन उपिनर 1931, ठनिु र िन
नविोबन भनवे िे सवोदय आांदोलि िे नलए जीवि समर्श्पत
श कियन। िु आां 1932, ईदगनि 1933, बिे भनई सनिब 1934, ििि 1936

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S41. Ans.(d) S42. Ans.(a)
Sol. 'आगरन बनजनर' िनटि िन आरांभ 'र्िर र्ोआब िज्म से िोतन िै। Sol. सिी उत्तर िै- िथि l और ll दोिों सत्य िै
आगरन बनजनर – • िथि - I : विशस्वथश िे अिुसनर िनवतन स्वतः स्िू तश अनभव्यनि िै।
• िनटि िन आरांभ दो ििीर 'र्िर र्ोआब' (िगर िी दुदशर्न िन वणशि • िथि - II : िॉलररज िे अिुसनर रबय िल्पिन िे वल स्मृनत पर निभशर
िरिे वनली) गनते हुए प्रवेर् िरतन िै। िै जबकि िल्पिन प्रेरणन और अवधनरणन आकद अिेि स्रोतों से
• आगरन बनजनर िनटि िन रचिनिनल 1954 िै स्थनि 'आगरन' िे सनमग्री सांचय िरती िै।
वर्डसशवथश-
'कििनरी बनजनर' िन एि 'चौरनिन'
• िे िनवतन िो पररभननर्त िरते हुए नलखन िै,-"िनवतन प्रबल भनवों
• िनटि िे 2 अांि िे िनटि में िनस्य रस िन प्रयोग अनधि िै।
िन सिज उच्छलि िै" वर्डसशवथश िे अिुसनर िनवतन स्वत : स्िु तश
• िबीब तिवीर िे इस िनटि िन 2 बनर सांर्ोधि 1970 और 1989
अनभव्यनि िै।
में कियन।
• वर्डसशवथश में िनव्य भनर्न िे सांबांध में तीि मनन्यतन प्रस्तुत िी –
• आगरन बनजनर िनटि िी रचिन िबीब तिवीर िे 18वीं सदी िे o िनव्य में ग्रनमीणों िे दैनिि बोलचनल िी भनर्न िन प्रयोग िोिन
भनरतीय र्नयर एवां िजम िे नपतन ििे जनिे वनले िजीर चननिए।
अिबरनबनदी िो प्रनतनष्ठत िरिे िे नलए कियन िै। o िनव्य और गद्य िी भनर्न में िोई तननत्वि भेद ििीं िै।
• आगरन बनजनर िनटि िबीब तिवीर िन मौनलि िनटि ििीं िै यन o प्रनचीि िनवयों िन भनवोदोध नजतिन सिज थन भनर्न उतिी िी
िजीर अिबरनबनदी िे िज्मो पर आधनररत िै 'मेरे बांद' रचिन सरल थी भनर्न में िृ नत्रमतन और आिांबर बनद िे िनवयों िी देि
ग़ननलब िे गजलो पर आधनररत िै। िै।
• इस िनटि में सनमननजि और सनांस्िृ नति समस्यनओं िन नचत्रण कियन • वर्डसशवथश िन यि भी मनििन िै कि िनव्य और गद्य में अांतर िे वल
गयन। िनटि में स्थनिीय सांस्िृ नत लोि जीवि और लोि परांपरनओं छांद िे िनरण िोतन िै।
िन भी नचत्रण िै। • िनवयों िन भनव नजतिे सिज थन, उििी भनर्न उतिी िी सरल थी
• इसमें पुनलस व्यवस्थन िी िनयशर्ैली और व्यनपनररयों िे ददश िन भनर्न में िृ नत्रमतन और आिांबर आकद बनद िे िनवयों िी देि िै।
नचत्रण िै। व्यनपनररयों िन ददश इनतिनस िे िलि पर आधुनिि • नवनलयम वर्डसशवथश िन जन्म 1770 इांग्लैंि में हुआ।
• इििन प्रथम िनव्य सांग्रि 'एि इवनिांग वॉि एांि निनस्क्रनप्टव स्िे चेज
समस्यनओं िे रूप में नचत्रण कियन गयन िै।
' 1793 मे प्रिननर्त। िॉलररज िे सिैलेखि में 'नलररिल बैलेिस'
• इस िज्म िे नपतनमि िजीर अिबरनबनदी िो प्रनतनष्ठत िरिन थन।
1798 में प्रिननर्त।
इस िनटि िो जब ओखलन में खेलन गयन तब 75 आदमी मांच पर
िॉलररज-
आए थे।
• इन्िोिे िल्पिन और रबय िल्पिन में निम् अांतर रेखनांकित किए िै ।
आगरन बनजनर िनटि • 'िल्पिन' नबांबो िो नवघरटत नवगनलत िर िये रूप में पररवर्श्तशत
• इसमें िरीमि और चमेली दोिों निजिे बनजनर में आते िैं दोिों िृ ष्ण िरती िै। 'रबय' िल्पिन नबांबो िो नसिश आसपनस रख देती िै िोई
िे ऊपर गीत गनते िैं- "ऐसन थन बनांसुरी िन बजैयन िन बनलपि क्यन पररवतशि ििीं िरते।
-क्यन िहां किर्ि िन्िैयन िन बनलपि!" • िल्पिन अन्त :प्रेरणन प्रत्यक्ष आकद से सनमग्री ग्रिण िरती िै। रबय
• आगरन बनजनर िनटि में दूसरी तरि निांदू टोली 'बलदेव िन मेलन' िल्पिन प्रधनित: स्मृनत से सनमग्री ग्रिण िरती िै।
र्ीर्शि वनली िज्म गनती हुई बनएां तरि से घूसती िै- "क्यन वि • िल्पिन जैव िनयश पिनत पर आधनररत िै। रबय िल्पिन यनांनत्रि िनयश
कदलबर िोई िवेलन िै, िनथ िै ििीं वि चेलन िै "। प्रनत पर आधनररत िै।
• आगरन बनजनर िनटि िे दूसरे अांि में- ििीर 'आदमी िनमन' गनते • िल्पिन प्रनतभन िी उपज िै। रबय िल्पिन प्रज्ञन िी उपज िै।
हुए बनजनर में प्रवेर् िरते िैं और सभी लोग इस िोरस में र्ननमल • िॉलररज प्रत्यवनदी थे उि और उििी िनव्य सांबांधी धनरणन जैव
िोिर गनते िैं। "दुनियन में बनदर्नि िै सो भी आदमी, र मुिनलसों - वनदी नसिनांत पर आधनररत।
• िॉलररज िे अिुसनर िनव्य सृजि िन मूलनधनर िल्पिन िै। िल्पिन
गदन िै सो िै वि भी आदमी
िे दो भेद िैं मुख्य िल्पिन और गौण िल्पिन।
िबीब तिवीर िे मुख्य िनटि-
• 'इमैनजिेर्ि' र्ब्द िी उत्पनत्त लेरटि िे 'इमननजिननतयो' से हुई िै
• आगरन बनजनर 1954, नमट्टी िी गनिी 1958, चरणदनस चोर
नजसिन निांदी रूपनांतरण 'िल्पिन' िै। 'िैं सी' र्ब्द िी उत्पनत्त ग्रीि
1975, र्तरांज िे मोिरे 1954, लनलन र्ोिरत रनय 1954, नमट्टी
िी िे 'िनांतननसयन' से हुई िै, नजसिन निांदी रूपनांतरण में
िी गनिी 1958, गनांव िन िनम ससुरनल िमनरन िनम दनमनद 1973, 'रबयिल्पिन' यन 'लनलत िल्पिन' िै।
निरमन िी अमर ििनिी उत्तररनमचररत 1977, पोंगन पांनित 1990, • अांग्रेजी में व्यविनररि आलोचिन िन सूत्रपनत िोलररज िे कियन थन।
नजि लनिौर ििीं देख्यन 1990, िनमदेव िन अपिन बसांत ऋतु िन • िॉलररज िी मित्वपूणश रचिनएां- द फ्ें ि 1817, एर्डस टू ररफ्लेक्र्ि
सपिन 1993, ब्रोिि नब्रज 1995, जिरीली िवन 2002, रनज रि 1825, चचश एांि स्टेट 1830, िां िे र्ज ऑि एि इांक्वनयररांग नसपररट
2006. 1840.

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S43. Ans.(c) • मनलती िन एि बच्चन टीटी िै।
Sol. सूची I सूची llसे सिी नमलनि िै - A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III • मनलती िी कदिचयनश रोज में व्यि िोती िै उसिे पनत िॉ मनिेवरी
सूची I सूची II 2:30 बजे अस्पतनल से लौटते िैं और उसिे बनद 3:00 बजे खनिन
'उसिे ििन थन' में आए पांजनबी र्ब्द निन्दी अथश खनती िै।
A. िु िमनई II. मांगिी • इस ििनिी में मनलती िो यनांनत्रि मनिनसितन िन नववनि िी स्त्री
B. घुमनव IV. जमीि िी िनप िी िीरसतन यनांनत्रिन िन नचत्रण कियन गयन िै। वि खुलिर अपिन
C. खोते I. गधन दुख यन सुख प्रिट ििीं िरती।
D. तीनमयों / तीमी III. नस्त्रयों / स्त्री • वैवननिि िनरी िन जीवि गैंग्रीि से पीनित व्यनि जैसन िो जनतन िै।
वैवननिि जीवि िे बनद स्त्री िन जीवि किस प्रिनर भूर्ण िीरसतन
उसिे ििन थन – से भरन िोतन िै इसिन नचत्रण मनलती िे जीवि िे मनध्यम से लेखि
• यि ििनिी 1915 में प्रिननर्त सरस्वती पनत्रिन में प्रिननर्त हुई िे बखूबी कदखनयन िै
थी। चीि िी दनवत।
• यि ििनिी मूलत : एि प्रेम ििनिी िै नजसे त्यनग और बनलदनि िे • यि ििनिी भीष्म सनििी िी िै।
प्रेम िन आदर्श मनिन गयन। • चीि िी दनवत ििनिी िे मनध्यम से भीष्म सनििी िे श्यनमिनथ िे
• उसिे ििन थन प्रथम नववयुि िी पृष्ठभूनम पर नलखी गई प्रेम मनध्यम से नर्नक्षत युवन पीढ़ी पर िरनरन व्यांग्य कियन िै।
• आज िे नर्नक्षत युवन वगश अपिे मनतन-नपतन िो बहुत समझते िैं
सांवेदिन िी ििनिी िै।
अपिे सुख सुनवधन िे नलए अपिे मनतन नपतन िो छोि देते िैं।
• उसिे ििन थन ििनिी िन मुख्य पनत्र लििन नसांि िै। लििन नसांि
• चीि िी दनवत एि ऐसी िी ििनिी िै नजसमें स्वनथश िी बेटे
पनठि िे हृदय पटल पर सदैव िे नलए अांकित िो जनते िैं। लििन
श्यनमिनथ िो अपिी नवधवन बूढ़ी मनां िन बनलदनि िजश िी िजर
नसांि में प्रेम,त्यनग, बनलदनि,नविोद वृनत्त, बुनिमतन एवां सतिश तन
आतन िै।
आकद नवनवध गुण नमलते िैं।
अज्ञेय िी प्रमुख ििनिी सांग्रि –
• अन्य पनत्र - सूबेदनरिी िोरन, सूबेदनर िजनरन नसांि ,बोधन नसांि,
• नवपथगन 1937, परांपरन 1940, िोठरी िी बनत 1945, र्रणनथी
बजीरन नसांि, लप्टि सनिब आकद।
1948, जयदोल 1951, यि तेरे प्रनतरूप 1961, अमर वल्लरी
• चांद्रधर र्मनश गुलेरी िी प्रमुख ििननियनां- सुखमय जीवि 1911,
1945
बुद्धू िन िनांटन 1914, उसिे ििन थन 1915
• अज्ञेय िी प्रनसि ििनिी - रोज यन गैंग्रीि, मेजर चौधरी, िनव नप्रयन,
• निबांध- मनरेनस मोनि िु ठनाँव, िछु आ धमश
रमन्ते तांत्र देवतन, रांगीयन, मिसो, पठनर िन धीरज, पुरुर् िन भनग्य.
• आलोचिन- पुरनिी निांदी भीष्म सनििी िी प्रमुख ििननियनां -
• भटिती रनख, खूि िन ररश्तन, चीि िी भी दनवत, नसर िन सदिन,
S44. Ans.(d)
पिलन पनठ
Sol. सिी उत्तर िै - िथि I गलत िै. लेकिि िथि II सिी िै
• िथि - I : 'रोज' उफ़श गैंग्रीि' ििनिी िे अिुसनर मनलती िे पनत िन S45. Ans.(c)
िनम नववेवर िै और वे एि छोटे से रेलवे स्टेर्ि िे स्टेर्ि मनस्टर Sol. र्रत सांबांध में उपयुि िथि - िे वल B, C और D सिी िै
िैं। • B.गृिस्थी से र्रत िन िभी लगनव ििीं रिन।
• िथि - II : 'चीि िी दनवत' ििनिी में चीि िे आग्रि पर मनाँ िे एि • C. र्रत् बनबू िी रचिनओं पर 'नबरजबह' और 'नवजयन' िनटि िन
पुरनिन टप्पन दो पत्तर अिनरों दे'..... गनिर सुिनयन रूपनांतरण हुआ।
• िथि I गलत िै. लेकिि िथि II सिी िै • D. अपिे भनई िी समननध र्रत् िे घर िे पनस िदी िे तट पर
रोज उिश गैंग्रीि – बिवनई थी।
• यि अज्ञेय जी िी प्रमुख ििनिी िै। इस ििनिी िो मैं र्ैली में नलखन आवनरन मसीिन
गयन िै यि स्त्री िे सरोिनरों से जुिी िै। • जीविी नवष्णु प्रभनिर िी िै जो उन्िोंिे प्रनसि रचिनिनर र्रत चांद्र
• मनलती इस ििनिी िी िननयिन िै। ििनिी दो भनगों में बांटी िै इसिे चट्टोपनध्यनय िे जीवि पर नलखी।
सांवनदों में िीरसतन उदनसी निरनर्न मि नस्थनत िन नचत्रण कियन िै। • आवनरन मसीिन िन प्रिनर्ि 1973 ई. में पूरन हुआ।
• पिले जब यि ििनिी प्रिननर्त हुई थी तब गैंग्रीि िनम से प्रिननर्त • आवनरन मसीिन नलखिर प्रभनिर जी िे निांदी और बनांग्लन सननित्य
हुई थी परांतु बनद में अज्ञेय जीिे इसे रोज िनम से प्रिननर्त कियन। िे बीच एि सेतु िन निमनशण कियन जो समूचे रनष्ट्र िी एितन िन
• मनलती िन पनत मिेवर िै जो िॉक्टर िै। प्रतीि िै।
• मनलती लेखि िी ररश्ते में बिि लगती िै वि बिि िम और सखी • र्रत् यनयनवर परवती िे व्यनि थे उन्िें एि जगि बांध िर रििन
ज्यनदन िै। पसांद ििीं थन उन्िें गृिस्थी से भी िभी लगनव ििीं रिन।
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• आवनरन मसीिन पुस्ति िी सनमग्री िे तीि प्रमुख स्रोत िै। प्रथम उि • पुरुर्ोत्तम अग्रवनल िे सबपनदि - 'निांदी िई चनल में ढली' पुस्ति िन
व्यनियों िन सनक्षनत्िनर जो किसी ि किसी रूप से र्रत बनबू से सांपनदि।
सांबांनधत िै।, दूसरे उि समिनलीि नमत्रों िे लेख सांस्मरण आकद।, • आलोचिन पुस्ति - तीसरन रुख
तीसरन उििी अपिी रचिनओं में इधर-उधर नबखरे हुए प्रसांग • 'नजज्ञनसन' पनत्रिन िन सांपनदि कियन।
नजििन उििे जीवि से सीधन सांबांध रिन। धमशवीर भनरती-
• आवनरन मसीिन िे नलए नवष्णु प्रभनिर िो सननित्य अिनदमी • इन्िोंिे िबीर िी आलोचिन 'िबीर िे आलोचि' िनम से िी
पुरस्िनर नमलन िै िेनवि एांि लॉरेिजि –
• नवष्णु प्रभनिर िी आवनरन मसीिन जीविी 3 पवों में नवभननजत िै। • िबीर िी आलोचिन 'निगुशण सांतो िे स्वपि' िनम से िी
• कदर्निनरन कदर्न िी खोज और कदर्नांत ये तीिों पवश उपर्ीर्शि में • इििी रचिन 'निगुशण सांतो िे स्वपि ' िन निांदी अिुवनद पुरुर्ोत्तम
नवभननजत िै- कदर्निनरन’ (18 उप-र्ीर्शि िैं) 75 पृष्ठों में, ‘कदर्न िी अग्रवनल िे कियन
खोज’ (18 उप-र्ीर्शि िैं) 91 पृष्ठों में, कदर्नांत में (30 उप-र्ीर्शि िैं) िबीर-
271 पृष्ठों में • निगुशण धनरन िे प्रमुख सांत िै इििन जन्म 1398 ई. में हुआ। िबीर
• कदर्निनरन - यि प्रथम पवश िै। इसमें र्रदचांद्र िी बनल्यनवस्थन से िे वननणयों िन सांग्रि उििे नर्ष्य धमशदनस िे ' बीजि' िनम से
किर्ोरनवस्थन ति िी घटिनओं िन वणशि िै। उििे बचपि िे सांिनलत कियन। इसमें सनखी, सबद और रमेिी िन सांिलि िै।
र्रनरतों में भी एि अत्यांत सांवेदिर्ील और गांभीर व्यनित्व िे दर्शि • िबीर सननित्य िे अध्येतन अिेि लेखि िै नजन्िोंिे िबीर उििे
िोते िै। सननित्य पर आलोचिन नवस्तृत से िी िै।
• कदर्न िी खोज - सननिनत्यि जीवि और कदर्न िी खोज िै। नितीय इमरे बांघन िी रचिन -
पवश में र्रद िे लेखि, नविनस िे प्रेरणन िे स्त्रोत, रचिनओं िी • ' सिेि िो मनरग - आिदघि िन जीवि वृत्त ' इििी इस पुस्ति िन
पृष्ठभूनम और पनत्रों से समरसतन, रांगूि प्रवनस, गृिदनि, सृजि िन
प्रिनर्ि भनरत में हुआ िै।
आवेग, चररत्रिीि, आरोप, नबरनज बह और आवनरन, श्रीिनांत िी
वीरेंद्र यनदव –
चचनश िै।
• िी पुस्ति िै 'उपन्यनस और देर्'
• कदर्नांत - इसमें रांगूि से स्वदेर् लौटिे िन वणशि िै। सनमननजि िनयश
सननिनत्यि नवधनओं में रचिनर्ीलतन आकद। S47. Ans.(c)
• र्रतचांद्र िी बहुत-सी बनल सुलभ चांचलतनओं और र्रनरतों से भरन Sol. भनरतीय लोितांत्र िी आलोचिन िरिे वनलन िनटि युग्म िै: - बिरी
पिन िै। उििन नततली पिििन, तनलनब में ििनिन, उपवि लगनिन, - मिनभोज
पर्ु-पक्षी पनलिन, नपतन िे पुस्तिनलय से पुस्तिें पढ़िन और पुस्तिों बिरी-
में दी गई जनििनरी िन प्रयोग िरिन। एि बनर तो उन्िोंिे पुस्ति • सवेवर दयनल सक्सेिन िन प्रमुख िनटि िै जो 1974 में प्रिननर्त
में सनाँप िे वर् में िरिे िन मांत्र ति पढ़िर उसिन प्रयोग िर िनलन। हुआ।
• र्रत् िे अपिे समय में वसीयतिनमन नलखन थन • इस िनटि िे दो अांि िै दोिों अांि िे तीि-तीि दृश्य िै।
नवष्णु प्रभनिर िी प्रमुख रचिनएां- • इस िनटि िी रचिन उत्तर प्रदेर् िी िौटांिी र्ैली में हुई िै।
• आत्मिथन- पांखिीि िनम से उििी आत्मिथन तीि भनगों में
• इसमें दोिन, चौबोलन, बिरेतबील, ििरवन आकद छांदों िन प्रयोग
रनजिमल प्रिनर्ि से प्रिननर्त हुई िै।
कियन गयन िै।
• जीविी- आवनरन मसीिन,
• इस िनटि में जिवनदी चेतिन, रनजनिनति व्यांग्य, आम आदमी िी
• यनत्रन वृतनन्त्- ज्योनतपुन्ज निमनलय, जमुिन गन्गन िे िैिर मै।
व्यथन, भ्रष्टनचनर और नवसांगनत िन नचत्रण िै।
• ‘बिरी’ आम आदमी िन प्रतीि िै।
S46. Ans.(c)
Sol. िबीर सननित्य िे अध्येतन िै - िे वल B, D और E • इस िनटि में (रनजिीनत िनटि) में गनाँधी जी िे िनम एवां नसिनांतों
• B. पुरुर्ोत्तम अग्रवनल िी आि में अपिी स्वनथश पूर्श्तश िरिे वनले िेतनओं िी पोल खोलिे
• D. धमशवीर िन भरसि प्रयनस कियन गयन िै।
• E. िेनवि लनाँरेजि • यि िनटि ग्रनमीणों और आम आदमी िे जीवि में जनगृनत लनिे िे
पुरुर्ोत्तम अग्रवनल- उद्देश्य से नलखन गयन िै।
• निांदी िे प्रमुख आलोचि, िनव, नचांति और िथनिनर िै। मिनभोज-
• इििी िबीर पर नलखी गई आलोचिन िै - 'िबीर: सनखी और सबद', • यि मन्नू भांिनरी िन प्रमुख उपन्यनस एवां िनटि िै।
'अिथ ििनिी प्रेम िी िबीर िी िनवतन और उििन समय’ • इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1979 में उपन्यनस िे रूप में तथन 1983 में िनटि
• "अिथ ििनिी प्रेम िी: िबीर िी िनवतन और उििन समय” िे नलए िे रूप में प्रिननर्त हुआ।
2009 में रनजिमल प्रिनर्ि िन 1 लनख रुपये िन प्रथम रनजिमल • इस िनटि में अपरनध और रनजिीनत िे गठजोि िो बहुत िी
प्रिनर्ि िृ नत सबमनि नमलन। यथनथशवनदी दृनष्ट से कदखनयन गयन िै।
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• इस िनटि में 9 पररच्छेद िै। • छु आछू त पर जननतगत भेदभनव िन नवरोध कियन तथन नस्त्रयों में र्ूद्रों
• रनजिीनति पृष्ठभूनम पर आधनररत िनटि िै। िो भी यगोपनवत धनरण िरिे व वेद पढ़िे िन अनधिनर कदयन।
• मिनभोज उपन्यनस िन िनटि में रूपनांतररत 1983 ई. में हुआ। • स्वनमी दयनिांद सरस्वती िे 'सत्यनथश प्रिनर्' िनमि ग्रांथ िी रचिन
• इस िनटि में नबर्ु िनमि िररजि युवि िी ित्यन िी जनती िै वि िी जो आयश समनज िन मूल ग्रांथ िै।
ित्यन किस प्रिनर िोती िै और उसे नछपनिे िे नलए िौि-िौि से आिांदमठ –
रनजिीनति र्ड्यांत्र रचे जनते िैं इसिन लेखन-जोखन प्रस्तुत कियन • यि बनांग्लन भनर्न िन एि उपन्यनस िै।
गयन िै। • इसिी रचिन बांकिमचांद्र चट्टोपनध्यनय िे 1882ई. में िी थी।
• इस िनटि िे मनध्यम से चुिनव िे बीच मनिवीय त्रनसदी िरुणन • इस िृ नत िन भनरतीय स्वतांत्रतन सांग्रनम और स्वतांत्रतन िे क्रनांनतयों
और पीढ़ी िी नियनत िी सच्चनई िी अनभव्यनि िी िै।
पर बहुत गिरन प्रभनव पिन।
आगरन बनजनर
• भनरत िन रनष्ट्रीय गीत वांदे मनतरम इसी उपन्यनस से नलयन गयन िै।
• िबीब तिवीर िन िनटि िै
• आिांदमठ रनजिीनति उपन्यनस िै इस उपन्यनस में उत्तर बांगनल में
• इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1954 में हुआ
1773 िे सन्यनसी नवद्रोि िन वणशि कियन गयन िै।
अांधन युग –
• आिांदमठ उपन्यनस िी िथन बांगनल िे भीर्ण अिनल तथन सन्यनसी
• धमशवीर भनरती िन िनटि िै।
नवद्रोि पर आधनररत िै। इसमें वर्श 1770 से 1774 ति िे बांगनल
• इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1954 में हुआ यि 5 अांिों िन गीनतिनट्य िै।
आधे अधूरे- िन नचत्र िै।
• यि मोिि रनिे र् िन िनटि िै नजसिन प्रिनर्ि 1969 में हुआ नवव धमश सभन में नववेिनिांद िन सांबोधि –
एि और द्रोणनचनयश – • 11 नसतांबर 1893ई. िो नर्िनगो में नवव धमश सबमेलि में भनर्ण
• यि र्ांिर र्ेर् िन िनटि िै। कदयन
• इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1977 में हुआ। • नववेिनिांद जी िे ििन मुझे गवश िै कि मैं ऐसे धमश से हां नजसिे दुनियन
िो सििर्ीलतन और सनवशभौनमितन स्वीिृ नत िन पनठ पढ़नयन।
S48. Ans.(c) • िम नसिश सनरन भौनमि सििर्ीलतन में िी नववनस ििीं रखते
Sol. निम्नलनखत घटिनओं िन पिले से बनद िन सिी क्रम िै - E, A, B, बनल्ि िम भी सब िे सभी धमों िो सत्य िे रूप में सरिनर िरते
D, C िैं।
ब्रह्म समनज –
• नववेिनिांद िन मूल िनम िरेंद्र दत्त थन।
• इसिी स्थनपिन 20 अगस्त 1828ई. में रनजन रनममोिि रनय और
गीतनांजनल िन प्रिनर्ि वर्श –
िनरिनिनथ टैगोर िे िी।
• गीतनांजनल रनवांद्र िनथ ठनिु र िनरन रनचत प्रनसि िनवतनओं िन सांग्रि
• ब्रह्म समनज िी स्थनपिन िन उद्देश्य थन।
िै।
• नभन्न-नभन्न धनर्श्मशि आस्थनओं में बांटी हुई जितन िो एिजुट िरिन
• प्रिनर्ि नतनथ 1910ई. िै और अांग्रेजी में इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1912 ई.में
• समनज में िै ली िु रीनतयों िो दूर िरिन
• धनर्श्मशि रुढ़ीयन जैसे -सती प्रथन, बनल नववनि, जननत तांत्र िो बांद हुआ।
िरवनिन • इसिन मूल सांस्िरण बनांग्लन भनर्न में थन नजसमें अनधिनांर् थे भनि
• 1815 में रनजन रनममोिि रनय िे 'आत्मीय सभन' िी स्थनपिन िी में गनिे थे
नजसे बनद में ब्रह्म समनज िे िनम से जनिन गयन। बनद में से देवेंद्र • प्रिृ नत प्रेम ईवर िे प्रनत निष्ठन और मनिवतनवनदी मूल्यों िे प्रनत
िनथ ठनिु र िे आगे बढ़नयन समपशण भनव से सांपन्न गीतनांजनल िे गीत नपछली एि सदी से
• देवेंद्र िनथ ठनिु र और िे र्व चांद्र सेि में मतभेद िोिे िे िनरण िे र्व बांगलनवनसी जिों िी आत्मन में बसे हुए िै।
चांद्र सेि िे सि 1866 में 'भनरतवर्ीय ब्रह्मसमनज' िनम िी सांस्थन • नवनभन्न भनर्न में हुए इस िे अिुवनद में िे मनध्यम से नवव भर में
िी स्थनपिन िी। मुिेर् िै िरदेव पनठि इसिन रसनस्वनद िरते िैं
आयश समनज – • गीतनांजनल रचिन पर 1913 में रनवांद्र िनथ ठनिु र िो िोबेल पुरस्िनर
• इसिी स्थनपिन स्वनमी दयनिांद सरस्वती िे 1875 ई. नवरजनिांद िी नमलन िै।
प्रेरणन से िी थी
• यि आांदोलि पनश्चनत्य प्रभनवों िी प्रनतकक्रयन स्वरूप निांदू धमश में S49. Ans.(b)
सुधनर िे नलए प्रनरांभ हुआ। Sol. गोि देर् िे लोग बिे-बिे िखो िो पसांद िरते थे।
• आयश समनज में र्ुि वैकदि परांपरन में नववनस िरते थे तथन मूर्श्तश िनखूि क्यों बढ़ते िैं-
पूजन, अवतनरवनद, बली, झूठे िमशिनांि व अांधनववनसों िो अस्वीिनर • िजनरी प्रसनद निवेदी िन निबांध िै।
िरते थे। • यि निबांध 1951 में प्रिननर्त हुआ।
157 Teaching Jobs Exam | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
• यि िजनरी प्रसनद निवेदी िे 'िल्पलतन' निबांध सांग्रि से नलयन गयन आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि िनटि िे पनत्र -
िै। • िननलदनस -िनव और िनयि ,अांनबिन - गनांव िी एि वृिन और
• यि नवचनर प्रधनि व्यनि निष्ठ निबांध िै। मनल्लिन िी मनां ,मनल्लिन - अांनबिन िी पुत्री और िननलदनस िी
• इसमें िनखूि िन बढ़िन पर्ुतन िन प्रतीि िै और िनखूि िन िनटिन प्रेनमिन ,दांतुल - रनजगुर ,मनतूल - िनव ,निक्षेप - गनांव िन पुरुर् ,
मनिवतन िन प्रतीि मनिन गयन िै नवलोम - गनांव िन पुरुर् ,नप्रयांगुमांजरी - रनजिरनजिन्यन और िनव
• िजनरी प्रसनद निवेदी लनलत निबांधिनर िै। पत्नी
• िल्पलतन निबांध सांग्रि में 20 निबांध सांिनलत िै जैसे - आम किर • आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि िनटि में रांगीिी और सांनगिी दोिों िनगरी थे।
बोरन गए,ठनिु र जी िन बटोर, वि चलन गयन, िम क्यन िरें, सननित्य • अिुस्वनर और अिुिननसि दोिों इस िनटि में अनधिनरी थे।
लन ियन िदम आकद। मोिि रनिे र् जी िे अन्य िनटि -
• िनखूि क्यों बढ़ते िैं निबांध- िु छ िजनर सनल पिले मिुष्य िे िनखूि • लिरों िे रनजिांस 1963, आधे अधूरे 1969, पैर तले िी जमीि
िे सुिुमनर नविोद िे नलए उपयोग में लनिन र्ुरू कियन थन। (अधूरन िनटि)
• वनत्स्यनयि िे िनमसूत्र से पतन चलतन िै कि आज से 2000 वर्श • एिनांिी - अांिे िे नछलिे , नसपनिी िी मनां, प्यननलयनाँ टूटती िै।, बहुत
पिले िन भनरतवनसी िनखूिों िो जमिे सवनरतन थन। बिन सवनल
• उििो िनटिे िी िलन िनिी मिोरांजि बतनई गई िै। • ध्वनि िनटि - रनत बीतिे ति
• नत्रिोण, वतुशल आिनर, चांद्रनिनर, दांतल ु आकद नवनभन्न आिृ नतयों िे • पनवश िनटि - छतररयनां
िनखूि इि कदिों नबलनसी िनगररिों िे िनरन िनटे जनते थे। • बीज िनटि- र्नयद हाँ:
• िखो िो नसक्थि( मोम )और अलिि (आलतन ) से यति पूवशि
S51. Ans.(b)
रगि िर लनल और नचििन बिनयन जनतन थन और गोि देर् िे लोग
Sol. आचनयश रनमचांद्र र्ुक्ल िे अिुसनर रीनतग्रांथिनर िनव िै- िे वल A,
उि कदिों में बिे-बिे िखो िो पसांद िरते थे।
B और E
• दनक्षणनत्य लोग छोटी िखों िो पसांद िरते थे ।
• िु लपनत नमश्र
िजनरी प्रसनद निवेदी िे प्रमुख निबांध सांग्रि- • बेिी बांदीजि
• अर्ोि िे िू ल 1948, मध्यिनलीि धमश सनधिन 1952, नवचनर और
• ग्वनल िनव
नवतिश 1957,िु टज 1964 ,आलोि पवश 1972 आकद
िु लपनत नमश्र –
• प्रमुख निबांध - अर्ोि िे िू ल, बसांत आ गयन िै, मेरी जन्मभूनम,
• यि आगरन िे रििे वनले मनथुर चौबे थे और मिनिनव नबिनरी िे
िु टज, देवदनरू, िनखूि क्यों बढ़ते िैं आकद।
भनांजे थे।
S50. Ans.(d) • यि रीनतिनल िे िनवयों में सांस्िृ त िे अच्छे नविनि थे।
Sol. 'आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि' में पतांजनल िन उल्लेख सांनगिी िरती िै। • इििन 'रस रिस्य' मबमट 'िनव्यनप्रिनर्' िन छनयनिुवनद िै।
आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि – • इििे ग्रन्थ - रसरिस्य - सांवत 1727, द्रोण पवश - सांवत 1737, युनि
• रनचयतन - मोिि रनिे र्, नवधन - ऐनतिननसि िनटि िै।, रचिनिनल तरांनगणी - सांवत 1743, िखनर्ख सांग्रनम सनर - सांवत 1724
- 1958 में प्रिननर्त हुआ बेिी बांदीजि –
• आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि िनटि में 3 अांि और 3 दृश्य िै। • यि रनयबरेली िे रििे वनले और अवध िे प्रनसि वजीर मिनरनज
• आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि िनटि िी िथनवस्तु सांस्िृ त िे प्रनसि िनव रटिे त रनय िे आश्रय में रिते थे।
िनटििनर िननलदनस जो िश्मीर िे र्नसि िे रूप में मनतृगुप्त िे • इििे भाँिोवन एि सांग्रि 'भाँिोवन सांग्रि' िे िनम से 'भनरत जीवि
रूप में प्रनसि हुए िी ििनिी िै। प्रेस' िनरन प्रिननर्त हुआ।
• मनल्लिन और िननलदनस िे प्रेम िो आधनर बिनिर िनटििनर • भाँिोवन िनस्य रस िे अांतगशत आतन िै इसमें किसी िी उपिनस पूणश
मोिि रनिे र् जी िे यथनथश और भनविन िे िांि िो कदखनयन िै। निांदन रिती िै।'
• इस िनटि में मोिि रनिे र् जी िे भौनति दर्शि और प्रवृनत्त मनगश • इििन 'रटिे त रनय प्रिनर्' अलांिनर ग्रांथ िै। और 'रस नवलनस' रस
और निवृनत्त मनगश िे घिीभूत िांि िन नचत्रण कियन िै। निरूपण सांबांनधत ग्रांथ िै
• मोिि रनिे र् जी िे इस िनटि में यि कदखनयन कि जीवि में भोग • इििी रचिनएां - रटिै त रनय प्रिनर् 1849, रसनवलनस 1874
िु छ समय िे नलए आिृ स्ट तो िरतन िै किां तु अांत में वि अपिन ग्वनल िनव –
मित्व िो देतन िै। • यि मथुरन िे रििे वनले बांदीजि सेवनरनम िे पुत्र थे।
• इस िनटि में इनतिनस और िल्पिन िन सुांदर समन्वय िै। • 'िनवहृदय नविोद' इििी बहुत सी िनवतनओं िन सांग्रि
• आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि िनटि में रांगीिी और सांनगिी दोिों िनगरी थे। • इिमें रीनतिनल िी सिि इतिी अनधि थी कि इन्िोंिे 'यमुिन
• अिुस्वनर और अिुिननसि दोिों इस िनटि में अनधिनरी थे। लिरी' िनमि देव स्तुनत में भी िवरस और र्ट ऋतु वणशि कियन िै।
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• इििी बहुत सी िनवतन बनजनरी थी। नवव प्रपांच –
• रचिनएां - यमुिन लिरी 1879, सनसिनिांद (अलांिनर ग्रांथ), रसरांग • रचिनिनर - आचनयश रनमचांद्र र्ुक्ल, निांदी अिुवनद 1997 ई. में
1904, िृ ष्ण जु िो लखनर्ख 1884, दूर्ण दपशण 1891, िमीर िठ कियन।
1881, गोपी पच्चीसी, भि भनविन 1919, रनधन मनधव नमलि, • यि जमशिी िे प्रनसि प्रनणीर्नस्त्री और भौनतिवनदी दनर्शनिि एांि
रनधन अष्टि
एन््ट िैक्कले िी पुस्ति 'रीिल ऑि द यूनिवसश' िन अिुवनद िै।
बख्र्ी िांसरनज – • जो आचनयश र्ुक्ल िे नवव प्रपांच िनम से कियन।
• यि ब्रज िी व्यनस गद्दी िे 'नवजय सखी' िनमि मिनत्मन िे नर्ष्य • आचनयश रनमचांद्र र्ुक्ल िे अिुवनद - िल्पिन िन आिांद, रनज्य प्रबांध
थे। इििन सनांप्रदननयि िनम 'प्रेम सखी' थन। नर्क्षन, आदर्श जीवि, मेगस्थिीज िन भनरत नवर्यि वणशि, बुि
• सखी भनव िे उपनसि िोिे िे िनरण इन्िोंिे अत्यांत प्रेम मनधुयश पूणश चररत्र, र्र्नांि, निांदी सननित्य िन इनतिनस 1929 ई., िनरस िन
रचिनये िी। प्रनचीि इनतिनस।
• ग्रन्थ - स्नेि सनगर, वीरिनवलनस, रनमचांकद्रिन, बनरिमनसन खनियन िन घेरन –
• स्नेि सनगर' इसिन सांपनदि लनलन भगवनिदीि िे कियन िै। स्नेि
• रचिनिनर - िमलेवर, अिुवनद 2002 ई. में हुआ।
सनगर में 9 तरांगे िैं।
• यि प्रख्यनत िनटििनर बटोल्ट ब्रैस्ट िे बहुचर्श्चशत िनटि 'िॉिे नर्यि
गुमनि नमश्र-
चनि सर्िश ल' िन निांदी अिुवनद िै। जो निांदी िे प्रनसि िथनिनर
• यि नपिनिी िे रनजन अिबर अली खनि िे आश्रय में थे।
िमलेवर िे कियन।
• इन्िोंिे श्री िर्शिृत 'िैर्द' िनव्य िन पदनिुवनद िनिन छांदों में 1800
• िमलेवर िे उपन्यनस- एि सिि सतनवि गनलयनां 1957, तीसरन
मे कियन िै।
आदमी 1976, िनिबांगलन 1959, समुांदर में खोयन हुआ आदमी
• अन्य ग्रन्थ - िृ ष्ण चांकद्रिन 1838, छांदनटनव (नपांगल)
1967, िनली आांधी 1974, आगनमी 1976, सुबि दोपिर र्नम
S52. Ans.(a) 1982 ,कितिे पनकिस्तनि 2000.
Sol. निम्नांकित अिुवनदों िन उििन निांदी में पिली बनर प्रिननर्त िोिे
S53. Ans.(a)
िे वर्श िे अिुसनर पिले से बनद िन सिी क्रम - B, C, D, E, A
Sol. 'उत्तरन िनल्गुिी िे आस पनस' निबांध िे आधनर पर कदए गए
• एिनांतवनसी योगी, श्रनत पनथि, िनमदेव िन अपिन बसांत ऋतु िन
नववरणों में आयु िो छोटे से बिे िन सिी क्रम िै- A, C, B, D, E
सपिन, नवव प्रपांच, खनियन िन घेर
'उत्तरनिनल्गुिी िे आसपनस'-
एिनांतवनसी योगी –
• रनचयतन - िु बेरिनथ रनय जी, नवधन - निबांध िै। प्रिनर्ि - 1973 ई
• रचिनिनर - श्रीधर पनठि, अिुवनद 1886 ई. में कियन। • यि निबांध 'नवर्नद योग' निबांध सांग्रि में सांग्रनित िै।
• यि गोल्िनस्मथ िनरन रनचत 'िरनमट' िन अिुवनद िै। • इस निबांध में िु बेर िनथ जी िनरन मिुष्य िी आयु िो ऋतुओ तथन
• इसिी भनर्न भी खिी बोली िै। िक्षत्रों िे समनि िी बतनिर, देिीि यौवि िे क्षीण िोिे पर भी
• श्रीधर पनठि िी अन्य अिुवनकदत रचिन - उजि ग्रनम िै जो 1889 मनिनसि यौवि िे निरांतर नचरांजीव बिनए रखिे िी
में प्रिननर्त हुई। यि गोल्ि नस्मथ िे ' िेजटश नवलेज' िन अिुवनद िै।
• सांभनविनओं पर नवचनर कियन गयन िै।
इसिी भनर्न ब्रज िै।
• इस निबांध में सूजि िे नलए पुरनति तथन िूति दोिों नवचनरधनरन
श्रनत पनथि – िो सनथ लेिर चलिे पर बल कदयन गयन।
• रचिनिनर - श्रीधर पनठि, इसिन अिुवनद 1902 ई. में कियन। • वर्नश ऋतु िे अांनतम िक्षत्र िै उत्तरनिनल्गुिी
• यि गोल्िनस्मथ िी रचिन 'ट्रेवलर' िन अिुवनद िै। 'उत्तरन िनल्गुिी िे आस-पनस' निबांध िे आधनर पर आयु से छोटे से बिे
• इसिी भनर्न खिी बोली िै क्रम में सिी सांयोजि इस प्रिनर िै-
िनमदेव िन अपिन बसांत ऋतु िन सपिन – • ..... जरन और जीणशतन िी आगमिी िन समनचनर िनल तुरांत दूर से
• रचिनिनर - िबीब तिवीर, अिुवनद 1993 ई. में कियन। िी नििनििनिर दे जनतन िै।
• यि नवनलयम र्ेक्सनपयर िे िनटि िन अिुवनद िै जो िबीब तिवीर • ..... जीवि िे सबमुख िण उठनएां एि प्रश्न नचन्ि िो उपनस्थत िरतन
िे कियन। िै।
• िबीब तिवीर िी रचिनएाँ - आगरन बनजनर 1954, र्तरांज िे मोिरे • ..... से ज्यनदन असभ्यतन िै, अश्लीलतन िै, अिैनतितन िै।
1954, लनलन र्ोिरत रनय 1954, नमट्टी िी गनिी 1958, गनांव िन • ..... इसमें जीणशतन और जजशरतन ििीं िै यि जरन और वृित्व िन
िनम ससुरनल मोरन िनम दमनद 1973, चरणदनस चोर 1975, प्रतीि ििीं।
उत्तररनमचररत 1997, बिनदुर िलनररि 1978, पोंगन पांनित • ..... तब मे व्यवस्थन िे पुतलीघर िी इि यांत्र िन्यनओं से मनिी मनांग
1960, नजस लनिौर ििीं देख्यन 1990, टूटन हुआ पुल 1995, िर उत्तर पुरुर् िी जयजयिनर बोलते हुए मांच से बनिर आ जनऊांगन।
जिरीली िवन 2002, रनज रि 2006 • िु बेरिनथ रनय लनलत निबांधिनर िै।
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िु बेरिनथ रनय जी िे प्रनसि निबांध सांग्रि - • "समूचन सांसनर जब ति एि सनथ आगे िदम ििीं बढ़नतन, तब ति
• नप्रयन िीलिां ठी 1968, रस आखेटि 1970, गांधमनदि 1972, िोई प्रगनत सांभव ििीं िै"।
नवर्नद योग 1973, निर्नद बनांसुरी 1974, पणश मुिुट 1978, • "समनज िे सभी सदस्यों िी सांपनत्त, नर्क्षन अथवन ज्ञनि प्रनप्त िरिे
मिनिनव िी तजशिी 1979, िनमधेिु 1980, पत्र मनण पुतल ु िे िनम िे नलए समनि अवसर नमलिे चननिए"।
1980, मि पवि िी िौिन 1982, किरनत िदी में चांद्र मधु 1983, स्वनमी नववेिनिांद-
दृनष्ट अनभसनर 1984, त्रेतन िन वृिद मनस- 1986 आकद। • इििन मूल िनम िरेंद्र िनथ दत्त थन।
• इििन जन्म 12 जिवरी 1863 िो िोलिनतन में हुआ।
S54. Ans.(b)
• इििे गुरु रनमिृ ष्ण परमिांस थे।
Sol. 'कदल्ली दरबनर दपशण' निबांध िे अिुसनर किलनत िे खनाँ िो सब
• इन्िोंिे रनमिृ ष्ण मठ और रनमिृ ष्ण नमर्ि िी स्थनपिन िी।
नमलनिर 25000 रुपये िी वस्तुएां तोििे में नमली
• इन्िोंिे रनजयोग,िमशयोग, भनियोग, मेरे गुरु आकद पुस्तिों सांपनदि
कदल्ली दरबनर दपशण-
कियन।
• रनचयतन - भनरतेंदु िररश्चांद्र जी, नवधन - निबांध िै।
• रचिनिनल -1877 ई. िो प्रिननर्त हुआ। • इन्िोंिे 11 नसतांबर 1893 िो नर्िनगो धमश सबमेलि में भनग नलयन
• इस निबांध िे अिुसनर किलनत िे खनाँ िो भी झांिन ििीं नमलन। नववेिनिांद जी िे अन्य मित्वपूणश िथि –
• उन्िें एि िनथी नजस पर 4000 िी लनगत िन िोंदन थन। • "उठो जनगो और तब ति मत रुिो जब ति अपिे लक्ष्य िी प्रननप्त
• जिनऊ गििे, घिी, िनरचोबी िपिे, िमखनब िे थनि वगैरि सब िन िो जनए"।
नमलनिर 25000 िी चीजें तोििे में नमली। • "कदि में एि बनर स्वयां से बनत जरूर िरो अन्यथन आप सांसनर िे
भनरतेंदु िररश्चांद्र – सवशश्रेष्ठ व्यनि से नमलिे से चूि जनएांगे"।
• "िमनरे देर् िो िनयिों िी जरूरत िै िनयि बिो तुम अपिन ितशव्य
• इन्िे आधुनिि निांदी सननित्य िे नपतनमि ििे जनते िैं।
िरते जनओ तुबिनरे अिुसरण िरतन खुद बढ़ जनयेंगे"।
• इन्िोंिे िररश्चांद्र चनन्द्रिन, बनलन बोनधिी तथन िनव वचि सुधन
पनत्रिनओं िन सांपनदि कियन। • "आप भगवनि में तब ति नववनस ििीं िर सितन िर सिते जब
• कदल्ली दरबनर भनरत में औपनिवेनर्ि िनल में रनजसी दरबनर िोतन ति कि आप खुद में नववनस ििीं िरते "।
थन। इांग्लैंि िे मिनरनजन यन मिनरनिी िे रनजनतलि पर पर लगनयन • पिली बनर में बिी योजिनओं िो मत बिनओ,लेकिि धीरे-धीरे र्ुरू
जनतन थन। िरो,अपिे पैर जमीि पर रखिर आगे ओर आगे िी तरि बढ़ते
• नब्ररटर् सनम्रनज्य िे चरम िनल में सांथनरन 1877 से 1971िे बीच रिो"।
3 कदल्ली दरबनर लगे।
• 1877 िन दरबनर मुख्यत एि-एि अनधिनरी घटिनएां। S56. Ans.(b)
• इस निबांध में भनरतेंदु िी रनज भनि और देर्भनि िी नमनश्रत Sol. सिी उत्तर िै- A और R दोिों सिी िैं ओर R, A िी सिी व्यनख्यन
भनविन देखी जनती िै। ििीं िै
• अनभिथि A : अांग्रेजों िे पुरनिी आर्श्थि
श सांरचिन िो बदलन, जमीि
भनरतेंदु जी िे निबांध सांग्रि –
िन ियन बांदोबस्त कियन। िये बांदोबस्त िे िनरण जमीि िो क्रय
• पुरनतत्व सांबांधी - मनणिर्श्णशिन, िनर्ी, रनमनयण िन समय
नवक्रय िरिे िी छू ट नमल गई।
• इनतिनस सांबांधी - बनदर्नि दपशण, िश्मीर िु सुम, उदयपुरोदय
• िनरण R : बदलती हुई पररनस्थनतयों में बुनिजीवी वगश िे लोगों िे
• िलन सांबांधी - सांगीत सनर,जनतीय सांगीत
समनचनर पत्रों िे मनध्यम से अांग्रेजों िे अत्यनचनरों िन नवरोध िरिन
• यनत्रन सांबांधी - वैजिनथ िी यनत्रन
• जीवि चररत्र सांबांधी - पनांचमें पैगांबर, बीबी िननतमन, सूरदनस िन आरांभ िर कदयन।
जीवि चररत्र। • यि अनभिथि(A) सिी िै इसमें इसमें भूनम िे स्थनई बांदोबस्त िे
• िनस्य व्यांग्य - स्वगश में नवचनर सभन िन अनधवेर्ि , िां िि स्रोत बनरे में बतनयन गयन ।
,अांग्रेज स्त्रोत • तिश (B) सिी िै। क्योंकि स्वतांत्रतन सांग्रनम सेिननियों िी भनविन
उििे रनष्ट्रप्रेम त्यनग और बनलदनि िे जुिूि िन सांभलते अिुमनि भी
S55. Ans.(d) िन लगन सिे कि उन्िोंिे किस प्रिनर धैयश और सनिस िे सनथ पत्र-
Sol. निम्नलनखत िथिों में से नववेिनिांद जी िे िथि िै - िे वल A, B पनत्रिनओं िन प्रिनर्ि व सांपनदि कियन और उसिे नलए कितिे
और E आर्श्थि श र्नरीररि मनिनसि और पनररवनररि िष्ट झेले ।
नववेिनिांद जी िे िथि – • अांग्रेजी सरिनर िी िठोर िीनत में दमि तथन अथश आभनव िे िनरण
• "मजबूत बिो! िनयर और नलबनलबे ि बिे रिो! सनिसी बिो अिेि पत्र पनत्रिनएां बांद भी िोती रिी परांतु से अनधि ििीं प्रिनर्ि
िनयरों िी जरूरत ििीं िै"। भी सनमिे आते गए ।
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• 1793 मे लॉिश िनिशवननलस में भूनम िे स्थनई बांदोबस्त कियन । • इस प्रिनर बुनिजीनवयों िनरन नििनले गए समनचनर पत्रों िन
• स्थनई बांदोबस्त िन मुख्य उद्देश्य िृ नर् सांिट और सांिट िी समस्यन स्वतांत्रतन में योगदनि िै यि तिश सिी िै किां तु यि तिश अभीिथि िी
िन समनधनि िरिन थन नजसिे पररणनम स्वरूप िृ नर् उत्पनदि िम व्यनख्यन ििीं िरतन िै ।
िो गयन थन ।
• नब्ररटर् अनधिनररयों िे सोचन कि िृ नर् िनरन िृ नर् में निवेर् व्यनपनर S57. Ans.(d)
और रनज्य िे रनजस्व िे सांसनधिों िो बढ़नयन जन सितन । Sol. 'मैलन आांचल' िे अिुसनर बनविदनस दनस िे मृत्यु - स्थल िो
• रनजस्व िो स्थनई रूप से निधनशररत िरिे और सांपनत्त िे अनधिनरों ग्रनमीणों िे चोथररयन पीर िन रूप दे कदयन।
िो सुरनक्षत िरिे िे नलए वि प्रणनली अपिनई नजसे स्थनई बांदोबस्त मैलन आांचल –
िे िनम से जनिन जनतन िै । • रनचयतन - िणीवर िनथ रेणु , नवधन -उपन्यनस िै।
• एि बनर रनज्य िी रनज्य सभन िे स्थनई रूप से निधनशररत िो जनएगी
• रचिनिनल -1954 में प्रिननर्त हुआ।
तो िनयश िन नियनमत परवनि िोगन इसिे अलनवन भूनम धनरि
• यि निांदी िन श्रेष्ठ और सर्ि आांचनलि उपन्यनस िै।
अपिी िृ नर् भूनम में निवेर् िरेंगे क्योंकि निमनशतन निधनशररत िर
• इस उपन्यनस िी िथनवस्तु नबिनर रनज्य िे पूर्श्णशयन नजले िे मेरीगांज
सिें गे।
िे ग्रनमीण नजांदगी िी िै।
• स्वतांत्रतन आांदोलि िे अग्रणी िेतन अजीमुल्लन खनिे 8 िरवरी
• मैलन आांचल उपन्यनस िी र्ुरुआत 1946 में नबिनर िे नपछिे गनांव
1857 िो कदल्ली से 'पयनमे आजनदी' पत्र प्रनरांभ कियन
मेरीगांज में नमनलट्री िे आिे से िोती िै।
• `उन्िोंिे र्ोले िी तरि अपिी प्रकक्रयन तेजनस्विी लेखिी से जितन
• इस उपन्यनस िन उद्देश्य अांचल िी समस्यनओं िो सबिे सनमिे लनिे
में स्वतांत्रतन िी भनविन भर दी अलिन ति जीनवत रिे इस पत्र से
िन थन।
घबरनिर नब्ररटर् सरिनर िे इसे बांद िरनिे में िोई िसर ििीं छोिी
। • इसमें जननतवनद,अिसरर्निी अवसरवनदी,रनजिीनत मठों और
• 'पयनमे आजनदी' िे अांि में 1857 िे स्वतांत्रतन सांग्रनम में मुगल सम्रनट आश्रमों िन पनखांि भी दर्नशयन गयन।
बिनदुर र्नि जिर िे िरमनि आजनदी िन झांिन गीत प्रिननर्त िरिे • मैलन आांचल में नबिनर िे नमनथलन अांचल िे गनांव मेरीगज िो आधनर
िे िनरण सांपनदि िो िनांसी पर लटिन कदयन गयन। बिनिर उस अांचल िे जिसनमनन्य िे सुख-दुख रिि-सिि सांस्िृ नत
• अरनवांद घोर् िे भनई बररां द्र घोर् िन पत्र युगनांतर वनस्तव में सांघर्श और लोिजीवि िो अत्यांत िु र्लतन व िलनत्मितन से इस
युगनांतरिनरी पत्र थन। उपन्यनस में प्रस्तुत कियन िै।
• नवष्णु र्नस्त्री नचपलणिर और लोिमनन्य नतलि िे जिवरी 1881 मैलन आांचल िे प्रमुख पनत्र –
में मरनठी में 'िे सरी' और अांग्रेजी में 'मरनठन सनप्तननिि पत्र नििनले • िॉ प्रर्नांत - एि युवन िॉक्टर िै जो अपिी नर्क्षन िनल िी में पूणश
और जिजनगृनत िै लनई। िरिे इस गनांव िो िनयश भूनम िे रूप में चुिन िै। ,िमली- प्रमुख
• गनांधीजी िे अांग्रेजी में 'यांग इांनियन' और जुलनई 1919 से निांदी िनरी पनत्र िै जो एि अज्ञनत बीमनरी से ग्रस्त िै। बनविदनस ,बनलदेव
गुजरनती में 'िवजीवि' िन प्रिनर्ि आरांभ कियन । ,दोिरनव ,लछमी तिसीलदनर , नवविनथ- िमली िन नपतन िै जो
• गणेर् र्ांिर नवद्यनथी िे 9 िवांबर 1913 िो िनिपुर से 'प्रतनप' एि जमीदनर िै।
सनप्तननिि पत्र िन प्रिनर्ि आरांभ कियन।
• मैलन आांचल उपन्यनस में 256 पनत्र िै।
• मनखिलनल चतुवेदी िे िमशवीर िन सांपनदि कियन िमशवीर पत्थर िे
• इस उपन्यनस िी सबसे बिी नवर्ेर्तन िै कि इस उपन्यनस िन िनयि
स्वतांत्रतन िे समय और ओज और जोर्पूणश र्ीर्शि रनष्ट्रीय ज्वनलन
िोई एि ििीं बनल्ि पूरन अांचल िी इसिन िनयि िै।
जगनयी इसिे सनथ देर् िे युवनओं िे हृदय में देर्भनि िन भनव भर
कदयन। िणीवर िनथ रेणु िे अन्य उपन्यनस –
• लॉिश िनिशवननलस िन मनििन थन कि लोग स्थनई बांदोबस्त िो तुरांत • परती पररिथन 1957, दीघशतपन 1963, जुलूस 1965, कितिे
स्वीिनर िर लेंगे और इससे अपिी भूनम िो बेितर बिनिे में निवेर् चौरनिे 1966, पलटू बनबू रोि 1979, रनमरति रनय 1971 (अपूणश)
िरिन र्ुरू िर देंगे ।
• 1790 में निदेर्ि न्यनयनलय िे 10 वर्ीय समझौतन जनरी कियन S58. Ans.(a)
जमींदनर, नजसे 1793 में स्थनई िर कदयन गयन। Sol. "लख िर अिथश आर्श्थि श पथ पर िनरतन रिन में स्वनथश समर।” - इस
• 1797 िे स्थनई बांदोबस्त अनधनियम िनरन सर्स्त्र बल रखिे िन पांनिओं में 'मैं' िन अथश िै: निरनलन
उििन अनधिनर िटन कदयन गयन वे िे वल भूनम िे िर सांग्रि िरतन • यि पांनियनां सूयशिनांत नत्रपनठी निरनलन िी िी रचिन 'सरोज स्मृनत'
बििर रि गए। से िै।
• 1868 में बांगनल िे सनप्तननिि पत्र अमृत बनजनर पनत्रिन िे भी परवल • इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1935 में हुआ।
रनष्ट्रीय नवचनरों िन प्रचनर कियन नजसिे िनरण इसिे िई सांपनदिों • 'सरोज स्मृनत' िनवतन निरनलन िे अिननमिन भनग 2 में सांिनलत िै।
िो जेल िी सजन भुगतिी पिी । • यि निांदी िन सबसे बिन र्ोि गीत िै।

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• इसमें निरनलन िे व्यनिगत जीवि और सांघर्श िी अनभव्यनि िी गई भनरतेंदु जी िे अन्य अिुकदत िनटि –
िै। • नवद्यन सुांदर 1868 ई., रत्ननवली 1868, पनखांि नविांबि 1872,
• रनम िी र्नि पूजन, सरोज स्मृनत, वि तोिती पत्थर, सम्रनट एिविश धिांजय नवजय 1873, िपूशर मांजरी 1875, भनरत जििी 1877,
अष्टम िे प्रनत यि सभी िनवतन अिननमिन भनग 2 में सांिनलत िै। मुद्रनरनक्षस 1878
• जूिी िी िली इििी प्रनसि िनवतन िै जो 1922 में प्रिननर्त हुई। बनबू देविीिांदि खत्री िे उपन्यनस-
• अन्य िनवतनएां - कदल्ली,रनिी और िनिी, सांध्यन सुांदरी ,गरम पिौिी, • चांद्रिनांतन 1891, िनजर िी िोठरी, भूतिनथ, िु सुम िु मनरी, िरेंद्र
नवधवन, पांचवटी प्रसांग, मनस्िो िनयलॉग आकद। मोनििी, वीरेंद्र वीर
सूयशिनांत नत्रपनठी निरनलन- • बनबू देविीिांदि खत्री िे नतनलस्मी और ऐयनरी उपन्यनसों िी रचिन
• इििन जन्म 21 िरवरी 1896 िो मेकदिीपुर पनश्चमी बांगनल हुआ। िी।
• इन्िोंिे 'मतवनलन','सुधन'और 'समन्वय' पनत्रिनओं िन सांपनदि लज्जनरनम मेितन िे उपन्यनस-
कियन। • धूतश रनसििनल 1899, स्वतांत्र रमन और परतांत्र लक्ष्मी 1899,
• प्रमुख िनव्य सांग्रि- अिननमिन 1923, पररमल 1929, गीनतिन नबगिे िन सुधनर 1907, आदर्श निांदू 1907
1936, अिननमिन नितीय 1937 - 38, तुलसीदनस 1938, रनमिरेर् नत्रपनठी –
िु िु रमुत्तन 1942, अनणमन 1943, बेलन 1943, िए पत्ते 1946, • यि रनष्ट्रीय सनांस्िृ नति िनव्य धनरन िे िनव िैं।
अचशिन 1950, आरनधिन 1953, गीत गूांज 1954, अपरन 1956, • इििी पनथि रचिन खांििनव्य िै नजसमें ओपनिवेर्वनद से मुनि िे
सनांध्य िनांिली 1969 सनथ-सनथ गनांधी दर्शि िी प्रधनितन िै।
• रचिनएां - नमलि 1917, पनथि 1920, स्वपि 1929, मनिसी
S59. Ans.(b) 1927, िनवतन िौमुदी भनग l- 1917, भनग ll- 1926
Sol. निम्नलनखत पुस्तिों िन उििे प्रथम प्रिनर्ि वर्श िे अिुसनर पिले • रनमिरेर् नत्रपनठी िो निवेदी युग िी इनतवृत्तनत्मितन और
से बनद िन सिी क्रम - D, A, E, C, B छनयनवनद िी आत्मनिष्ठ िे बीच िी ििी ििन जनतन िै।
• इनतिनस नतनमरिनर्ि, दुलशभ बांधु, चांद्रिनांतन सांतनत, आदर्श निांद,ू • रनमिरेर् नत्रपनठी िे िनवतन िौमुदी िन अांनतम सांस्िरण मिनत्मन
पनथि गनांधी िो भेंट कियन
रचिन रचिनिनर प्रिनर्ि वर्श
S60. Ans.(a)
1. इनतिनस नतनमर िनर्ि रनजन नर्वप्रसनद नसतनरे निांद 1876 Sol. सूची I िन सूची II से नमलनि - A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
2. दुलशभ बांधु भनरतेंदु िररश्चांद्र 1880 सूची I सूची II
3. चांद्रिनांतन सांतनत बनबू देविीिांदि खत्री 1891 पांनि पुस्ति / िनवतन
4. आदर्श निांदू लज्जनरनम मेितन 1907 A. पूछेगन जग किन्तु नपतन िन िनम ि बोल सिें गे III. रनश्मरथी
5. पनथि रनमिरेर् नत्रपनठी 1920 ि िु छ िि सिी अपिी, ि उन्िीं िी पूछ में सिी
B. I. सनिे त
नर्वप्रसनद नसतनरे निांद- भय से
• यि भनरतेंदु िररश्चांद्र िे गुरु थे C. तोि दो यि नक्षनतज मैं भी देख तूां उस ओर क्यन िैIV. सनांध्यगीत
• इन्िोिे बिनरस अखबनर नििनलन D. जी, लोगों िे तो बेच कदये ईमनि II. गीत फ़रोर्
• इसिी नलनप देविनगरी किां तु भनर्न उदूश थी। रनश्मरथी –
• रचिनएां - सेंटिोिश और मनटशि िी ििनिी।, ऑलनसयो िन िीिन।, • यि रनमधनरी नसांि कदििर िन प्रबांध िनव्य
नसखों िन उदय और अस्त।, वनमिनरांजि, मनिव धमश िन सनर (इसमें • यि 1952 में प्रिननर्त हुआ
सांस्िृ त निष्ठ निांदी िन प्रयोग िै), भूगोल िस्तनमलि (रनमनवलनस • इसमें िुां ती िे पुत्र िणश िी िथन िै।
र्मनश िे इसिी भनर्न िो आम बोलचनल िी भनर्न ििनां िै), वीर • रनमधनरी नसांि कदििर रचिनएां - रेणुिन 1935 ( प्रथम िनव्य सांग्रि),
नसांि िन वृतनांत, उपनिर्द सनर, रनजन भोज िन सपिन (िु छ नविनिों हुांिनर 1938, रसवांती 1940, ििगीत 1940, समनधेिी 1946,
िे अिुसनर यि निांदी िन प्रथम निबांध िै) िु रुक्षेत्र 1946 ( प्रबांध िनव्य 7 सगो में ), उवशर्ी 1961 ( खांििनव्य),
भनरतेंदु िररश्चांद्र – यर्ोधरन 1946, परर्ुरनम िी प्रतीक्षन 1963, िनरे िो िररिनम
1970.
• यि र्ेक्सनपयर िनरन रनचत 'मचेंट ऑि वेनिस' िन एिमनत्र अांग्रेजी
सनिे त –
अिुवनद िै
• मैनथलीर्रण गुप्त िी रचिन िै।
• इन्िोंिे िनव वचि सुधन 1868 ई., िररश्चांद्र मैगजीि 1873 ई.,
• यि 1931 में प्रिननर्त हुआ
बनलन बोनधिी 1874 ई. िन प्रिनर्ि कियन
• इसमें 12 सगश िै यि मिनिनव्य िै।
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• इस पर मांगलन प्रसनद पनररतोनर्ि नमलन। नवद्यनधर –
• इसिी प्रेरणन मिनवीर प्रसनद निवेदी िे लेख उर्श्मशलन िनवयों िी • इििे पि 'प्रनिृ त नपांगल सूत्र' मे नमले िै।
उर्श्मशलन नवर्यि उदनसीितन जो सरस्वती में 1908 में प्रिननर्त • इििन समय नवक्रम िी 13वी र्ती िै।
हुआ। • इन्िोंिे िन्नौज िे रनठौि सम्रनट िे प्रतनप और परनक्रम िन वणशि।
• इसिन सबसे बिन व मित्वपूणश सगश िै। इस ग्रांथ में कियन िै।
• 9 सगश में उर्श्मशलन िन नवरि वणशि िै। आचनयश रनमचांद्र र्ुक्ल-
• इस रचिन में 15 वर्श लगे • िे अपिन 'निांदी सननित्य िन इनतिनस' ग्रांथ 1929 में नलखन
• मैनथलीर्रण गुप्त िी रचिनएां - रांग में भांग 1909, जयद्रथ वध • इस ग्रन्थ दूसरन प्रिरण 'अपभ्रर् िनव्य' िे िनम से िै।
1910, भनरत - भनरती 1912, किसनि 1917, र्िुां तलन 1923, मधुिर िनव और श्रीधर िो आचनयश र्ुक्ल िे इििो प्रिरण -3 देर्भनर्न
पांचवटी 1925, झांिनर 1929, यर्ोधरन 1933, िनपर 1936, िनव्य में रखन िै।
नसिरनज 1936, जय भनरत 1952, नवष्णुनप्रयन 1957, िहुर् िनव्य मधुिर िनव-
1940. • इििी रचिन िै 'जयमयांिजसचांकद्रिन'
सांध्यनगीत – श्रीधर –
• यि मिनदेवी वमनश िी रचिन िै। • इन्िोंिे सांवत 1454 में 'रणमल छांद' िनमि िनव्य रचन
• यि 1936 में प्रिननर्त हुई। • इसमें ईिर िे रनठौि रनजन रणमल िी नवजय िन वणशि िै
• इसमें 45 गीत िन सांिलि िै। • जो उन्िोंिे पनटि िे सूबेदनर जिर खनि से प्रनप्त िी थी।
• मिनदेवी वमनश िी रचिनएां- िीिनर 1930, रनश्म 1932, िीरजन
S62. Ans.(c)
1935, सनांध्यनगीत 1936, दीपनर्खन 1942, सप्तपणनश 1960, यनम Sol. सिी उत्तर िै- िथि I सत्य िै लेकिि िथि II असत्य िै
1940, अनिरेखन 1990. • िथि - I : 'नगररधर' बहुब्रीिी समनस िन उदनिरण िै।
गीत िरोर्- • िथि - II : 'रनमिृ ष्ण' तत्पुरुर् समनस िन उदनिरण िै।
• यि भवनिी प्रसनद नमश्र िी रचिन िै। • िथि I सत्य िै. लेकिि िथि II असत्य िै
• यि उििे 'गीत िरोर्' 1956 ई. िनव्य सांग्रि से ली गई िै • नगररधर बहुव्रीनि समनस िन उदनिरण िै। इसिन समनस नवग्रि िोतन
• भवनिी प्रसनद नमश्र िी रचिनएां- गीत िरोर्, अिनम तुम आते िो, िै नगरी िो धनरण िरिे वनलन िै जो अथनशत िृ ष्ण
नत्रिनल सांध्यन, बुिी हुई रस्सी (सननित्य अिनदमी), खुर्बू िे • रनमिृ ष्ण में तत्पुरुर् समनस ििीं िै। रनमिृ ष्ण में िांि समनस िै।
नर्लनलेख, िनलजयी. इसिन समनस नवग्रि िै रनम - िृ ष्ण
बहुव्रीनि समनस –
S61. Ans.(d)
• इसमें समस्त पद में आए हुए दोिों पद गोण िोते िैं।
Sol. रनमचांद्र र्ुक्ल िे आकदिनल िे 'अपभ्रर् िनव्य' र्ीर्शि प्रिरण में -
• यि दोिों नमलिर किसी तीसरे पद िे नवर्य में सांिेत िरते िैं।
िे वल C, D और E
• यिी तीसरन पद प्रधनि िोतन िै
देवसेि - तत्पुरुर् समनस-
• इििन समय 10वीं र्ती िै यि प्रनसि जैिनचनयश थे। • तत्पुरुर् समनस िनरि से जुिन समनस िै उसमें िमशिनरि से लेिर
• इििी रचिन श्रनविनचनर िै। अनधिरण िनरि ति िे नवनभनि नचन्िो िन प्रयोग िोतन िै।
• यि निांदी िी प्रथम पुस्ति िै। • नजस उदनिरण में जो नवनभनि नचन्ि निनित िोतन िै,उसी िनम िन
• इसमें 250 दोिे िै नजसमें श्रनवि धमश िन प्रनतपनदि कियन िै। तत्पुरुर् समनस ििन जनतन िै।
• देवसेि िे अन्य िनव्य ग्रन्थ - दर्मसनर, तत्वसनर, ियचक्र • तत्पुरुर् समनस में दूसरन पद प्रधनि और पिलन पद उसिन नवर्ेर्ण
• देवसेि िे नर्ष्य मनइल धवि िे उन्िें णयचक्र िन वृिद रूप 'वृित िोिे िे िनते गोण िोतन िै।
ियचक्र ' िनम से नलखन। इििन एि अन्य ग्रांथ 'दब्बसिनव पयनस' भी • नजस समनस में सनबमनलत र्ब्दों में अथश िी दृनष्ट से पूवश पद गोण
िै। और उत्तर पद प्रधनि िो तो उसे तत्पुरुर् समनस ििते िैं।
सोमप्रभ सूरर – िांि समनस –
• इन्िोंिे सवांत 1241 में 'िु मनरपनल प्रनतबोध' िनमि ग्रांथ िी रचिन • इस समनस में समस्त पद िे दोिों पद प्रधनि िोते िैं।
िी • समस्त पद िन नवग्रि िरिे पर पदों िे बीच में 'और','तथन', 'एवां'
• यि गद्य पद्यमय रचिन िै नजसमें सांस्िृ त और प्रनिृ त िनव्य नलखन आकद र्ब्दों िन प्रयोग कियन जनतन िै।
िै। • इसमें दोिों पदों िो नमलनते समय मध्य - नस्थत योजि लुप्त िो
• इििी यि रचिन चांपू िनव्य जो सांस्िृ त और प्रनिृ त में रनचत िै। जनतन िै। इसमें दोिों पद समनि िोते िैं।

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S63. Ans.(b) • 1966 में लिरों िे रनजिांस और आधे अधूरे िन मांचि 1970 में
Sol. जयर्ांिर प्रसनद िे िनटिों िो मांच पर सिलतनपूवशि प्रस्तुत िरिे कियन।
वनले निदेर्ि िै - बी. वी िनरांत- र्नांतन गनांधी ओम नर्वपुरी –
बी. वी िनरांत – • इन्िोंिे नथएटर ग्रुप कदर्नांतर िनम से र्ुरू कियन।
• बिनरस में िनरत जी िे जयर्ांिर प्रसनद िे 'चांद्रगुप्त' और 'स्िां द गुप्त' • इन्िोंिे भी मोिि रनिे र् िे आधे अधूरे िनटि िन निदेर्ि कियन
जैसे िनटिों िन निदेर्ि कियन।
र्नांतन गनांधी – S64. Ans.(d)
Sol. निम्नलनखत में से अनविनरी र्ब्द िै - कक्रयननवर्ेर्ण
• इन्िोंिे जयर्ांिर प्रसनद िे स्िां द गुप्त िनटि िन निदेर्ि कियन।
कक्रयन नवर्ेर्ण -
• स्िां दगुप्त िनटि िै नजसमें 25 पुरुर् और 10 स्त्री पनत्र िै।
चांद्रगुप्त – • वे अनविनरी यन अव्यय र्ब्द, जो कक्रयन िी नवर्ेर्तन बतनते िैं उन्िें
• जयर्ांिर प्रसनद िन यि िनटि 1931 में प्रिननर्त हुआ।
कक्रयननवर्ेर्ण ििते िैं।
• इसिन िथनिि प्रनसि ऐनतिननसि घटिनओं अलक्षेंद्र िन आक्रमण, • कक्रयन नवर्ेर्ण र्ब्द मुख्यतय चनर प्रिनर िे िोते िैं-
िांद वांर् िन िनर्, सेल्यूिस िन परनभव, चांद्रगुप्त िी प्रनतष्ठन िे आधनर 1. िनलवनचि कक्रयन नवर्ेर्ण - वो कक्रयन नवर्ेर्ण र्ब्द जो कक्रयन िे िोिे
पर निर्श्मशत िै। िे समय िे बनरे में बतनएां
स्िां द गुप्त – 2. रीनतवनचि कक्रयन नवर्ेर्ण - ऐसे कक्रयन नवर्ेर्ण र्ब्द जो किसी कक्रयन
• जयर्ांिर प्रसनद िन यि 1928 में प्रिननर्त हुआ। िे िोिे िी नवनध यन तरीिे िे बनरे में बतनते िैं वि र्ब्द रीनतवनचि
• इसमें िु मनरगुप्त िे नबलनसी सनम्रनज्य िी उस नस्थनत िन नचत्रण हुआ कक्रयन नवर्ेर्ण ििलनते िैं।
िै जिनाँ आांतररि िलि सांघर्श और नवदेर्ी आक्रमण िे िलस्वरूप 3. स्थनि वनचि कक्रयन नवर्ेर्ण - ऐसे अनविनरी र्ब्द जो िमें कक्रयनओं
उसिे भनवी क्षय िे लक्षण प्रिट िोिे लगे थे। िे िोिे िन िै स्थनि िन बोध िरनते िैं वे र्ब्द स्थनि वनचि कक्रयन
नवर्ेर्ण ििलनते िैं।
जयर्ांिर प्रसनद िे अन्य िनटि –
4. पररमनणवनचि कक्रयननवर्ेर्ण - ऐसे कक्रयन नवर्ेर्ण र्ब्द नजिसे िमें
• सज्जि 1910, िल्यनणी पररणय 1912, िरुणनलय 1912,
कक्रयन िे पररमनण सांख्यन िी मनत्रन िन पतन चलतन िै वि र्ब्द
प्रनयनश्चत 1913, रनजश्री 1915, नवर्नख 1921, अजनतर्त्रु 1922,
पररमनणवनचि कक्रयन नवर्ेर्ण ििलनते िैं।
जन्मेजय िन िनगयज्ञ 1926, िनमिन 1927, एि घूांट 1930,
• सांज्ञन, सवशिनम, नवर्ेर्ण और कक्रयन आकद नविनरी र्ब्द िै।
ध्रुवस्वननमिी 1933
िबीब तिवीर- सांज्ञन –
• इन्िोंिे चरणदनस चोर, आगरन बनजनर, गनांव िन िनम ससुरनल और • किसी प्रनणी, वस्तु, स्थनि, भनव, अवस्थन, गुण यन दर्न िे िनम िो
मोरन िनम दमनद, िनमदेव िन अपिन बसांत ऋतु िन सपिन आकद सांज्ञन ििते िैं।
िनटिों िन निदेर्ि कियन। • सांज्ञन िे तीि प्रिनर िोते िैं-1. व्यनिवनचि सांज्ञन 2. जननतवनचि
• इन्िोंिे चरणदनस चोर िे मांच पर 72 लोगों िो र्ननमल कियन और सांज्ञन 3. भनववनचि सांज्ञन
आगरन बनजनर में 52 लोग मांच पर र्ननमल हुए। नवर्ेर्ण –
इब्रननिम अल्िनजी- • वे र्ब्द जो किसी सांज्ञन यन सवशिनम र्ब्द िी नवर्ेर्तन बतनते िैं उन्िें
• इन्िोंिे मोिि रनिे र् िन आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि और धमशवीर भनरती नवर्ेर्ण ििते िैं।
िे अांधन युग िनटि िे निदेर्ि थे। • नवर्ेर्ण 5 प्रिनर िे िोते िैं- 1. गुणवनचि नवर्ेर्ण 2. सांख्यनवनचि
सत्यदेव दुबे – नवर्ेर्ण 3. पररमनणवनचि नवर्ेर्ण 4. सांिेतवनचि नवर्ेर्ण 5.
• धमशवीर भनरती िे िनटि अांधन युग िो सबसे पिले सत्यदेव दुबे िे व्यनिवनचि नवर्ेर्ण
िी लोिनप्रयतन कदलनई. इसिे अलनवन नगरीर् ििनशि िे आरांनभि कक्रयन –
िनटि ययननत और ियवदि, बनदल सरिनर िे एवां इांद्रजीत और • वे र्ब्द नजििे िनरन किसी िनयश िन िरिन यन िोिन पनयन जनतन िै
पगलन घोिन, मोिि रनिे र् िे आधे अधूरे और नवजय तेंदल ु िर िे उन्िें कक्रयनपद ििते िैं।
खनमोर् अदनलत जनरी िै जैसे िनटिों िो भी सत्यदेव दुबे िे िनरण • िमश िे आधनर पर कक्रयन िे भेद-1. अिमशि कक्रयन 2. सिमशि कक्रयन
िी पूरे देर् में अलग पिचनि नमली। • प्रयोग तथन सांरचिन िे आधनर पर कक्रयन िे भेद - 1. सनमनन्य कक्रयन
श्यनमनिांद जनलनि-
2. सांयुि कक्रयन 3. प्रेरणनथशि कक्रयन 4. पूवशिननलि कक्रयन 5. िनमधनतु
• इन्िोंिे मोिि रनिे र् िे िनटि आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि 1960 िन मांचि
कक्रयन 6. िृ दन्त कक्रयन 7. सजनतीय कक्रयन 8. सिनयि कक्रयन
कियन।

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S65. Ans.(b) • नवद्यननिवनस नमश्र िे निबांध - नछतवि िी छनांव में 1953, िल्दी दूब
Sol. सूची l िन सूची ll से नमलनि - A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II 1955, िदम िे िू ली िनल 1956, तुम चांदि िम पनिी 1957,
सूची I सूची II आांगि िन पक्षी और बांजनरन मि 1963, मैंिे सील पहुांचनई 1966,
उत्तरन िनल्गुिी िे आस - बसांत आ गयन पर िोई उत्िां ठन ििीं 1972, मेरे रनम िन मुिुट भीग
A. आयु और ऋतुओं िन सांबांध III.
पनस रिे 1974, िौि तू िु लवन बीि नििनरी 1980
B. मनतन, मनतृभूनम और जन्मभूनम प्रेम I. उठ जनग मुसनकिर
C. िल्यनण िन रूप IV. नर्व मूर्श्तश S66. Ans.(b)
िई पीढ़ी िे प्रनत पुरनिी पीढ़ी िी मेरे रनम िन मुिुट भीग रिन Sol. 'परीक्षन गुरु' उपन्यनस िे नवनवध प्रिरणों िे र्ीर्शि िै - िे वल C, D
D. II. और E
नचांतन िै
• C. प्रमननणितन, D. अदनलत, E. प्रेत भय
उत्तरनिनल्गुिी िे आसपनस –
परीक्षन गुरु-
• यि िु बेरिनथ रनय जी िन निबांध िै I
• यि निांदी िन प्रथम उपन्यनस िैI
• यि उििे 'नवर्नद योग' निबांध सांग्रि में सांग्रनित िै I
• रनचयतन -लनलन श्रीनिवनस दनस
• इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1973 ई. में हुआ I
• प्रिनर्ि -1882 में हुआ
• िु बेरिनथ रनय िे निबांध - नप्रय िीलिां ठी 1968, रस आखेटि
• नवधन - निांदी िन प्रथम उपन्यनस िैI
1970, गांधमनदि 1972, नवर्नद योग 1973, निर्नद बनांसुरी
• इस उपन्यनस में 41 छोटे-छोटे प्रिरण िैI
1974, पणश मुिुट 1978, मिनिनव िी तजशिी 1979, िनमधेिु
परीक्षन गुरु उपन्यनस िे प्रिरण-
1980, अांधिनर में अनिनर्खन 1998, आगम िी िनव 2002.
• सौदनगर िी दुिनि, अिनल में अनधमनस, सांगनत िन िल, नमत्र
उठ जनग मुसनकिर-
नमलनप, नवर्यनसि,भले बुरे िी पिचनि, सनवधनिी, सच में िनां(!),
• यि नववेिी रनय िन निबांध िैI
सभनसद, प्रबांध (इांतजनम), सज्जितन, सुख दु:ख, नबगनि िन मूल-
• निबांध 2012 में प्रिननर्त हुआ I
नववनद, पत्र व्यविनर, नप्रय अथवन नपय, सुरन (र्रनब), स्वतांत्रतन और
• इििन लनलत निबांध सांग्रि िै I
स्वेच्छनचनर, क्षमन, स्वतांत्रतन, िृ तज्ञतन, पनतव्रतन, सांर्य, प्रमननणितन
• इस सांग्रि में िु ल 10 निबांध सांिनलत िै जो अपिे िलेवर में जीवि
, िनथ से पैदन िरिे वनले (और पोतिो िे अमीर), सनिसी पुरुर्,
और जगत िे अिेि अिुभवों से पररपूणश िैI
दीवनलन, लोिचचनश (अिवनि), िु ट िन िनलन मुांि, बनतचीत, िैरनश्य
• नववेिी रनय िे निबांध - किसनिों िन देर् 1956, गनांव िी दुनियन में
( िनउबमीदी), चनलि िी चूि, अदनलत, नमत्र परीक्षन, िीि प्रभन,
1957, नत्रधनरन 1958, किर बैतलवन िनल पर 1962, जुलूस रुिन
स्तुनत निांदन िन भेद, धोखे िी टट्टी, नवपनत्त में धैयश, सच्ची प्रीनत, प्रेत
िै 1970, गवयी गांध गुलनब 1980, ियन गनांविनमन 1984, आम
- भय, सुधनरिे िी रीनत, सुख िी परमनवनध
रनस्तन ििीं 1988, आस्थन और नचांति 1991, जगत तपोवि सो
परीक्षन गुरु उपन्यनस-
कियों 1995, वि तुलसी िी गांध 2002, उठ जनग मुसनकिर 2012.
• इसमें निवनस दनस जी िे मदि मोिि िनमि एि रईस िे पति और
नर्व मूर्श्तश – किर सुधनर िी ििनिी सुिनई िैI
• यि प्रतनप िनरनयण नमश्र िन निबांध िैI • मदि मोिि एि समृि वैश्य पररवनर में पैदन िोतन िै पर बचपि में
• आचनयश र्ुक्ल िे इन्िें निांदी िन 'एनिर्ि' ििन िैI अच्छी नर्क्षन और उनचत मनगशदर्शि ि नमलिे िे िनरण और
• नर्वमूर्श्तश निबांध िो प्रतनप िनरनयण नमश्र िे उि लोगों िे नलए युवनवस्थन में गलत सांगनत में पििर वि अपिी सनरी दौलत खो
नलखन िै जो अपिे नवचनर से ईवर िे प्रनत लगनव रखते और आिांद बैठतन िैI
से भरे रिते िैंI • वि चुन्नीलनल ,र्ांभू दयनल बैजिनथ और पुरुर्ोत्तम दनस जैसे
• उििे निबांध सांग्रि 'प्रतनप पीयूर्' में सांिनलत िैI िपटी,लनलची, मौिनपरस्त, खुर्नमदी दोस्तों से अपिे िो नघरन
• प्रतनप िनरनयण नमश्र िे निबांध - धोखन, दनांत, बनलि, वृि, खुर्नमद, रखतन िैI
िनरी, मिोयोग, समझदनर िी मौत, िननस्ति, टेढ जनि र्ांिन सब • गलत सलनि िे चक्कर में मदि मोिि भनरी िजश में िू ब जनतन िै और
िनहां, िोली िै अथवन िोरी, ईवर िी मूर्श्तश, सोिे िन िांिन, ििनति िजश समय पर अदन ि िर पनिे से उसे अल्प समय िे नलए िनरनवनस
िे ढोल बनांधे िो जनतन िैI
मेरे रनम िन मुिुट भीग रिन िै- • िरठि नस्थनत में उसिन सच्चन नमत्र ब्रजकिर्ोर जो एि विील िै
• यि नवद्यननिवनस नमश्र िन निबांध िै I उसिी मदद िरतन िै और उसिी खोई हुई सांपनत्त उसे वननपस
• इसमें लेखि िे रनम िे रनजनतलि िी घटिन िे मनध्यम से अपिे कदलनतन िैI
अांदर िी वेदिन िो व्यि कियन िैI • मदि मोिि िो सिी उपदेर् देिर उसे अपिी गलनतयों िन एिसनस
• मेरे रनम िन मुिुट भीग रिे 1974 ई. में प्रिननर्त हुआI भी िरनतन िैI
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• आचनयश रनमचांद्र र्ुक्ल िे लनलन श्रीनिवनस दनस िृ त 'परीक्षन गुरु' िो • जो 1964 में िल्पिन पनत्रिन में प्रिननर्त हुईI
अांग्रेजी िे ढांग िन निांदी िन पिलन मौनलि उपन्यनस मनिन िैI • आठ खांिों में नवभि निांदी िी सबसे लांबी िनवतन िैI
• दुजशितन और ईवर प्रेम इस उपन्यनस िे प्रिरण ििीं िैI • अांधेरे में िनवतन 'चनांद िन मुांि टेढ़न' िनव्य सांग्रि से ली गई िैI
• गजनिि मनधव मुनिबोध िे अपिी िनवतन िो िैं टेसी िी पुत्री ििनां
S67. Ans.(a)
िैI
Sol. निम्नांकित िनवतनओं िन रचिनिनल प्रथम प्रिनर्ि वर्श िे आधनर
• गजनिि मनधव मुनिबोध िे िनव्य सांग्रि - चनांद िन मुांि टेढ़न 1964,
पर पिले से बनद िन सिी क्रम- B C A E D.
भूरी भूरी खनि धूल 1980, ब्रह्मरनक्षस
• पररवतशि, िु िु रमुत्तन, असनध्य वीणन, मोचीरनम, अांधेरे में
मोचीरनम-
पररवतशि-
• यि सुदनमन पनांिे िी चर्श्चशत िनवतन िैI
• यि सुनमत्रनिांदि पांत िी िनवतन िै जो 1924 में प्रिननर्त हुईI
• यि धूनमल िे 1972 में प्रिननर्त िनव्य सांग्रि 'सांसद से सिि ति'
• यि सुनमत्रनिांदि पांत िे 'पल्लव' िनव्य सांग्रि िी लांबी िनवतन िैI
में सांग्रनित िैI
• सुनमत्रनिांदि पांत िो नचदांबरन 1958 िे नलए सननित्य अिनदमी
पुरस्िनर नमलनI • सुदनमन पनांिे धूनमल िी रचिनएां - सांसद से सिि ति 1972, िल
• पांत िो िलन और बूढ़न चनांद 1959 िे नलए ज्ञनिपीठ पुरस्िनर नमलनI सुििन मुझे 1977, सुदनमन पनांिे िन प्रजनतांत्र 1984, किस्सन जितांत्र,
• सुनमत्रनिांदि पांत िी प्रमुख िनव्य िृ नतयनां - उच्छवनस 1920, ग्रांनथ रोटी और सांसद, पटिथन.
1920, वीणन 1927, पल्लव 1928, गुांजि 1932, युगनांत 1936, • सुदनमन पनांिे धूनमल िो िल सुििन मुझे रचिन िे नलए सननित्य
युगवनणी 1939, ग्रनबयन 1940, स्वणश किरण 1947, स्वणश धूनल अिनदमी पुरस्िनर 1979 में नमलनI
1948, युगनांतर 1948, उत्तरन 1949, यूगपथ 1949, अनतमन
1955, वनणी 1958, नचदांबरन 1958, िलन और बूढ़न चनांद 1959, S68. Ans.(a)
लोिनयति 1964. Sol. िनांग्रेस िनयशिनररणी सनमनत िी सूरत में हुई बैठि में सनविय अवज्ञन
आांदोलि वनपस लेिे िी स्वीिृ नत दी गईI
िु िु रमुत्तन –
• 7 अप्रैल 1934 िो िनांग्रेस िनयशिनररणी िी सनमनत में सनविय
• यि सूयशिनांत नत्रपनठी निरनलन िी िनव्य िृ नत िैI
अवज्ञन आांदोलि वनपस लेिे िी स्वीिृ नत दी गईI
• इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1942 में हुआI
सनविय अवज्ञन आांदोलि -
• सूयशिनांत नत्रपनठी निरनलन िे सुधन, समन्वय और मतवनलन पनत्रिनओं
• यि 12 मनचश 1930 से 6 अप्रैल 1930 में र्ुरू कियन गयनI इसिी
िन सांपनदि कियनI
र्ुरुआत 12 मनचश 1930 िो गनांधी िे प्रनसि दनांिी मनचश से हुईI
• सूयशिनांत नत्रपनठी निरनलन िी रचिनएां - अिननमिन 1923, पररमल
• गनांधी िे आश्रम िे 78 अन्य सदस्यों िे सनथ पैदल सनबरमती आश्रम
1930, गीनतिन 1936, तुलसीदनस 1938, िु िरमुत्तन 1942,
अनणमन 1946, वेलन 1946, िए पत्ते 1946, अचशिन 1950, छोि कदयनI और िमि बिनिे िे िनिूि िो तोि िर इस आांदोलि
आरनधिन 1953, गीत गूांज 1995, सनांध्य िनिली 1969. िी र्ुरुआत िीI
असनध्य वीणन- • 5 मनचश 1931 िो मिनत्मन गनांधी इरनवि िे मध्य हुए समझौते िे
• यि अज्ञेय जी िन प्रमुख िनव्य सांग्रि िैI तित सनविय अवज्ञन आांदोलि समनप्त िर कदयन गयनI 3 जिवरी
• इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1961 में हुआI 1932 िो सनविय अवज्ञन अवज्ञन आांदोलि पुि: र्ुरू हुआ
• इसमें तीि खांि िै - 1. अतः सनललन 2. चक्रनत 3. असनध्य वीणन • 7 अप्रैल 1934 िो आांदोलि वनपस लेिन पिनI
• आज्ञेय जी िो 'आांगि िे पनर िनर ' िे नलए 1964 में सननित्य • जब भनरतीय िेतनओं िे नगरफ्तनर कियन गयन तो गुस्सनई भीि िे
अिनदमी पुरस्िनर नमलनI पेर्नवर िी सििों पर बख्तरबांद ओिनरों और पुनलस िनयररांग िन
• अज्ञेय िो 'कितिी िनवों में कितिी बनर' 1967 में ज्ञनिपीठ पुरस्िनर सनमिन िरते हुए प्रदर्शि कियन िई मनरे गएI
नमलनI • एि मिीिे बनद जब गनांधी जी िो स्वयां नगरफ्तनर कियन गयन उद्योग
• अज्ञेय िी प्रमुख रचिनएां - भगि दूत 1933, नचांतन 1942, इत्यलम ईवर में िौि िै पुनलस चौकियनां सरिनरी भविों िनिूिी अदनलतों
1946, िरी घनस पर क्षण भर 1949, बनवरन अिेरी 1950, इांद्रधिुर् रेलवे स्टेर्ि और नब्ररटर् र्नसि िे प्रतीि सभी सरचिनओ पर
रौंदे हुए 1957, अरी ओ िरुणन प्रभन मय 1959, कितिी िनवों में िमलन कियनI
कितिी बनर 1967, क्योंकि मैं उसे जनितन हां 1970, सनगर मुद्रन • एि भयभीत सरिनर िे क्रूर दमि िी िीनत िे सनथ जवनब कदयनI
1970, पिले में सन्ननटन बुितन थन 1974 • र्नांनतपूणश सत्यनग्रि इि पर िमलन कियन गयन मनिलनओं और बच्चों
अांधेरे में – िो पीटन गयन और लगभग 100000 लोगों िो नगरफ्तनर कियन
• यि गजनिि मनधव मुनिबोध िी िनवतन िैI गयनI इसनलए गनांधी जी िे आांदोलि िो बांद िरिे िन िै सलन कियन

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सनविय अवज्ञन आांदोलि बांद िरिे िी र्तें एवां प्रभनव – • इनतिनस सांबांधी - बनदर्नि दपशण, िश्मीर िु सुम, उदयपुरोदय
• गनांधी जी लांदि में दूसरे गोलमेज सबमेलि में भनग लेिन पिन िनांग्रेस • िलन सांबांधी - सांगीत सनर,जनतीय सांगीत
िे पिले गोलमेज िन बनिष्िनर कियन थनI • यनत्रन सांबांधी - वैजिनथ िी यनत्रन
• यकद र्तों िन पनलि कियन जनतन तो सभी रनजिीनति िै कदयों जी • जीवि चररत्र सांबांधी - पनांचमें पैगांबर, बीबी िननतमन, सूरदनस िन
िे नब्ररटर् सरिनर िे नखलनि किसी भी प्रिनर िी निांसन िन जीवि चररत्र
इस्तेमनल ििीं कियन थन िो ररिन िर कदयन जनएगनI • िनस्य व्यांग्य - स्वगश में नवचनर सभन िन अनधवेर्ि , िां िि स्रोत
• गनांधीजी लांदि गए लेकिि जब बनतचीत टूट गई तो वे निरनर् िोिर ,अांग्रेज स्त्रोत
लौट आएI
• भनरत में वनपस रनजिीनति बांकदयों िो ररिन िरिे िी बजनय S70. Ans.(b)
नब्ररटर् सरिनर िे क्रूर दमि िन एि ियन चक्र र्ुरू कियन थनI Sol. 'पररांदे' ििनिी िे प्रनरांभ में अांग्रेजी भनर्न में एि उिरण िै यि
• बहुत सनरी आर्ांिनओं िे सनथ गनांधी जी िो आांदोलि किर से र्ुरू िै थरीि मेन्सिील्ि िन िै।
िरिन पिन जो 1 सनल ति मजबूत रिन लेकिि 1934 में उत्सनि वि िथि िै-
खो गयनI • "Can we do nothing for the dead? And for a long time,
the answer had been - nothing!"
S69. Ans.(a) पररांदे ििनिी-
Sol. 'भनरतवर्श िी उन्ननत िै से िो सिती िै?' निबांध में भनरतेंदु जी िे • यि ििनिी निमशल वमनश िी िै।
सब उन्ननतयो िन मूल धमश िो मनिन िैI • इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1956 ई. में हुआ।
• पररांदे िनम से इििन ििनिी सांग्रि भी िै। नजसमें िु ल 7 ििननियनां
भनरतवर्श िी उन्ननत िै से िो सिती िै –
िै- अांधेरे में, तीसरन गवनि, िनयरी िन खेल, मनयन िन ममश, नपक्चर
• रनचयतन -भनरतेंदु िररश्चांद्र, रचिनिनल - 1884 ई. में बनलयन िे
पोस्टिनिश, नसतांबर िी एि र्नम और पररांदे इस सांग्रि िी अांनतम
ददरी मेले में भनर्ण देिे िे नलए नलखन थनI
ििनिी िै।
• इििन यि निबांध िररश्चांद्र चांकद्रिन िे कदसांबर 1884 िे अांि में
• इसिन र्ीर्शि प्रतीिनत्मि िै नजसमें आधुनिि मनिव िी नियनत िो
प्रिननर्त हुआI
पिििे िी िोनर्र् िी गई िै।
• भनरतेंदु िररश्चांद्र जी िे ििन कि िमनरे यिनां धमश िी आि में नवनभन्न
पररांदे ििनिी िे प्रमुख पनत्र-
प्रिनर िे िीनत समनज गठि आकद भरे जनते िैंI
• लनतिन - इस ििनिी िी िननयिन यन िें द्र नबांदु
• यि उन्ननत िन मनगश प्रर्स्त ििीं िर सिते इसनलए धमश िी उन्ननत
• सुधन- िॉस्टल में र्नयद वि सबसे अनधि लोिनप्रय लििी।
से सभी प्रिनर िी उन्ननत सांभव िैI
• नगरीर् िेगी - िु मनऊाँ रेजीमेंट में िै प्टि थन नजसे लनतिन प्रेम िरती
• लेखि िे धमश िो सब उन्ननतयो िन मूल बतनयन िैI
थी।
• इस निबांध में लेखि िे िु रीनतयों और अांधनववनसों िो त्यनग िर
• नप्रांनसपल नमस गुि - ििश र् आवनज में नचखिन सब उसे ओल्ि मेि
नर्नक्षत िोिे,सियोग एवां एितन पर बल देिे तथन सभी क्षेत्र में
िििर पुिनरते िैं।
आत्मनिभशर िोिे िी प्रेरणन दी िैI
• नमस्टर ह्यबटश - सांगीत नर्क्षि नपयनिो बहुत मि से बजनते िैं।
• यि भनरतेंदु िनरन कदयन गयन भनर्ण िन अांर् िैI
• िॉक्टर मुखजी - आधे बमी थे इन्िें किलनसोिनइज िरिे िी आदत
• इस निबांध में भनरतेंदु िे भनरतीयो िे आलसी िोिे पर व्यांग्य कियन
िै।
िैंI
• िरीमुद्दीि िॉस्टल िन िौिर नमनलट्री में अदशली रि चुिन िै।
• इस निबांध में अांग्रेजों िे पररश्रम िे प्रनत आदर भनव भी व्यि कियनI
निमशल वमनश िे ििनिी सांग्रि –
• भनरतेंदु िे भनरतीय लोगों िो रेल िी गनिी ििनां िैI भनरतीय समनज
िी रूकढ़यों और गलत जीवि र्ैली पर प्रिनर कियन िैI • पररांदे 1959, जलती झनिी 1965, नपछली गर्श्मशयों में 1968, बीच
• जिसांख्यन नियांत्रण, श्रम िी मित्तन, आत्मबल और त्यनग भनविन िो बिस में 1973 (इस सांग्रि में छु रट्टयों िे बनद, वीिें ि, दो घर बीच
भनरतेंदु िे उन्ननत िे नलए अनिवनयश मनिन िैI बिस में ििननियनां िै), मेरी नप्रय ििननियनां 1973 (इसमें दिलीज,
भनरतेंदु िे देर् िी उन्ननत िे नलए 3 उपनय बतनए िै - पररांदे,अांधेरे में, िेढ़ इांच ऊपर, अांतर, लांदि िी एि रनत,जलती झनिी
1. जिसांख्यन वृनि पर नियांत्रण ििनिी िै), प्रनतनिनध ििननियनां 1988, िव्वे और िनलन पनिी
2. िनगररिों िी िमशठतन 1983, सूखन तथन अन्य ििननियनां 1995, ग्यनरि लांबी ििननियनां (
3. आपसी एितन और भनईचनरन इसमें पररांदे, अांधेरे में, लांदि िी एि रनत ,नपछली गर्श्मशयों में, बीच
बिस में, दो घर, दूसरी दुनियन, सुबि िी सैर, िोवन और िनलन
भनरतेंदु जी िे निबांध सांग्रि –
पनिी, सुखन बुखनर आकद ििननियनां िै)
• पुरनतत्व सांबांधी - मनणिर्श्णशिन, िनर्ी, रनमनयण िन समयI

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S71. Ans.(d) • इििी पुस्ति िो समनज से ििनरनत्मि नवचनर प्रनप्त हुए ज्योनतरनव
Sol. सूची l सूची ll से सिी नमलनि - A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I िु ले िे नर्ांदे िे िनम िी सरनििन िी और उसे अपिी पनत्रिन
सूची I सूची II 'सतसर' में सांदर्श्भशत कियन।
A. देर् िन धि III. रनधनमोिि गोिु ल गीतन रिस्य –
B. गुलनमगीरी IV. जोनतबन िु ले
• इस पुस्ति िी रचिन लोिमनन्य बनल गांगनधर नतलि िे मनांिले जेल
C. स्त्री - पुरुर् तुलिन II. तनरनबनई नर्ांदे बमनश में िी थी। इसिी रचिन 1915 में िी।
D. गीतन रिस्य I. बनल गांगनधर नतलि • इसमें उन्िोंिे श्रीमद्भनगवत गीतन िे िमश योग िी वृिद व्यनख्यन िी
देर् िन धि- िै।
• यि पुस्ति क्रनांनतिनरी लेखि और पत्रिनर रनधनमोिि गोिु ल िी िै। • इस ग्रांथ में उन्िोंिे मिुष्य िो उसिे सांसनर में वनस्तनवि ितशव्यों िन
जो 1908 में नलखी। बोध िरनयन।
• इसमें उन्िोंिे धि िमनिे से लेिर उसिे उपयोग, सुरक्षन िे सनथ र्मश • गीतन रिस्य िो बनल गांगनधर नतलि िे मिज 5 मिीिे में पेंनसल से
िी भूनमिन पर व्यनपि प्रिनर् िनलन िै। नलख कदयन थन इसमें 400 से अनधि पृष्ठ िै।
• सूयशिनांत नत्रपनठी निरनलन िे अपिन रनजिीनति गुरु मनिते िैं। • इस इस पुस्ति िे दो भनग िै पिलन भनग दनर्शनिि प्रदर्शिी और
• रनधन मोिि गुप्त िी अन्य पुस्ति - िीनत दर्शि 1912 - नजसमें दूसरे भनग में गीतन इसिन अिुवनद और भनस्य र्ननमल िै।
उन्िोंिे समनज िे समग्र िल्यनण िो लेिर िीनतयनां बिनिे पर जोर
कदयन। िबयुनिज्म 1927 S72. Ans.(c)
• 25 कदसांबर 1925 िो िबयुनिस्ट पनटी िे गठि िी पिली बैठि हुई Sol. निम्नलनखत में से अधश सांवृत स्वर िै - ए, ओ
नजसमें रनधनमोिि गोिु ल जी र्ननमल हुए। अधश सांवृत स्वर –
गुलनमनगरी – • अधश सांवृत स्वर िे उच्चनरण में मुख िनर िम सांिरन िोतन िै। यि
• यि ज्योनतरनव िु ले िी प्रमुख पुस्तिें िै। जो पिली बनर 1873 में सांख्यन में 2 िोते िैं। ए और ओ
प्रिननर्त हुई। सांवृत स्वर –
• गुलनमनगरी ऊांच-िीच पैदन िरिे वनली व्यवस्थन पर तिश पूणश ढांग से
• सांवृत स्वर यन ऊाँचन स्वर ऐसी ध्वनि िोती िै नजसमें नबिन व्यांजि
चोट िरते हुए यि समझनती िै कि क्यों दनलतों िे नलए अांग्रेज
िी ध्वनि बिनई जीह्वन िो मुांि में नजतिन सांभव िो सिे उतिन
मुनिदनतन सरीखे थे।
ऊांचन और तनलू से समीप रखन जनतन िै उदनिरण िे नलए 'ई' ऐसन
• गुलनमनगरी मे दो पनत्रों धोंिीरनम और ज्योनतरनम िे सवनल जवनबों
एि स्वर िै अगर जीह्वन िो किसी सांवृत स्वर से अनधि ऊपर
िे मनध्यम से जननत और धमश िी तनर्िश ि व्यनख्यन िी िोनर्र् िी
उठनयन जनए तो वनयु प्रवनि बांद िो जनतन िैं और ध्वनि स्वर िी ििीं
गई िै।
बनल्ि व्यांजि िी बि जनती िै।
स्त्री पुरुर् तुलिन –
नववृत स्वर –
• तनरनबनई नर्ांदे िे भनरत में पुरुर् प्रधनि समननजि व्यवस्थन और
• नववृत स्वर निम् स्वर ऐसी स्वर ध्वनि िोती िै नजसमें जीह्वन िो
जननत व्यवस्थन पर सवनल उठनयन िै।
मुांि में नजतिन सांभव िो सिे उतिन िीचे और तनलू से दूर रखन जनतन
• 1882 में उन्िोंिे स्त्रीपुरूर्तुलिन (मनिलनओं और पुरुर्ों िे बीच एि
िै उदनिरण िे नलए 'आ' एि ऐसन स्वर िै।
तुलिन) िनमि पुस्ति प्रिननर्त िी।
आ–
• इसे भनरत में पिली िनरीवनदी पुस्ति मनिन जनतन िै। यि मूल रूप
में मरनठी में प्रिननर्त हुई थी। • नववृत स्वर िै इसिे उच्चनरण में मुख िनर पूरन खुलन िोतन िै यि
• यि सननिनत्यि रचिन 19वीं र्तनब्दी िे भनरत में उच्च जननत सांख्यन में दो िै - आ, आाँ
नपतृसत्तन और नलांग और जननत व्यवस्थन िी आलोचिन िै। ऐ, औ –
गुलनमनगरी पुस्ति मरनठी भनर्न में थी इसिन अिुवनद निांदी नवमल • यि अधश नववृत्त स्वर िे नजििे उच्चनरण में मुख िनर अधखुलन िोतन
िीर्श्तश िे कियन। िै। यि सांख्यन में चनर िोते िैं अ, ऐ, औ, ऑ
• इस पुस्ति में नर्ांदे िे समनज में मनिलनओं िी नस्थनत और उििे उ, ऊ –
अनधिनरों पर सवनल उठनए िैं।
• यि सांवृत स्वर िै इसिे उच्चनरण मैं मुख िनर सांिरन िो जनतन। यि
• तनरनबनई नर्ांदे सत्यर्ोधि समनज िी सदस्य थी और सननवत्रीबनई
सांख्यन में चनर िोते िैं - इ, ई, उ, ऊ
िु ले और ज्योनतरनव िू ले िी सियोगी थी।

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S73. Ans.(c) S74. Ans.(a)
Sol. स्वनिम िे सांबांध में उपयुि िथि िै - िे वल B, D और E Sol. 'इांस्पेक्टर मनतनदीि चनांद पर' ििनिी िे अिुसनर इांस्पेक्टर
• इसिन सांबांध मौनखि भनर्न से िै। मनतनदीि िे चनांद पर जन िर जो िनम किए िैं उन्िें पिले से बनद िन सिी
• यि उच्चनररत भनर्न िी लघुतम इिनई िै। क्रम - C, E, B, D, A
• इसिन ज्ञनि भनर्न िे र्ुि उच्चनरण िो जनििे में सिनयि िै। 'इांस्पेक्टर मनतनदीि चनांद पर' ििनिी िे अिुसनर इांस्पेक्टर मनतनदीि
स्वनिम – चनांद पर जन िर जो िनम किए उििन क्रम िै –
• थनिों में ििुमनि मांकदर बिवनए
• किसी भनर्न यन बोली में, स्वनिम (phoneme) उच्चनररत ध्वनि िी
• पुनलस वनले िी तिखवनिे िम िरनई
सबसे छोटी ईिनई िै।
• जनि बचनिे वनले आदमी िो अपरनधी बिनिर जेल में िनल कदयन
• स्वनिम िे नलए ध्वनिग्रनम, स्विग्रनम आकद र्ब्द भी प्रयुि िोते िैं।
• पुनलस िन मनिवतनवनद - इस अवधनरणन में पुनलस वनलों िन
• अांग्रेजी में इसिन पयनशयी र्ब्द िोिीम (phoneme) िै।
नववनस जगनयन।
• Phoneme िे नलए प्रयुि िोिे वनलन ‘स्वनिम’ र्ब्द ‘ध्वनिग्रनम’ िी
• ििली चश्मदीद गवनि बिनिन नसखनयन।
अपेक्षन ििीं अनधि ियन िै, किन्तु आजिल इसिन िी प्रयोग चल
इांस्पेक्टर मनतनदीि चनांद पर-
रिन िै।
• नवधन- ििनिी, रचिनिनर- िररर्ांिर परसनई
• स्वनिम ज्ञनि से भनर्न िे र्ुि उच्चनरण में सरलतन िोती िै।
• यि एि िें टेसी र्ैली में नलखी गई रचिन िै।
• स्वनिम िे मनध्यम से िी किसी भनर्न िी मूल ध्वनियों िन ज्ञनि
• िथन िनस्यनस्पद नस्थनत और िनयशप्रणनली से पररपूणश िै।इस ििनिी
िोतन िै।
में पुनलस िे अत्यनचनरों िी ओर लोगों िन ध्यनि आिर्शण कियन
• इस प्रिनर भनर्न-नर्क्षण में स्वनिम ज्ञनि िन नवर्ेर् मित्त्व िै।
गयन।
स्वनिम उच्चररत भनर्न से सबबनन्धत िै।
• इििे मनध्यम से भनर्न िी ध्वनियों िी सांख्यन िन नियांत्रण िोतन िै। ििनिी िे पनत्र –
इस प्रिनर िे नियांत्रण से भनर्न उच्चनरण में समुनचत व्यवस्थन बिी • मनतनदीि - ििनिी िन मुख्य पनत्र जो िी ििनिी िन िें द्र नबांदु िै।
रिती िै। • पुनलस मांत्री- जो कि मनतनदीि िो पुनलस नवभनग िन िनम िो ऐसन
• स्वनिम व्यवस्थन से िई ध्वनियों िे आगम पर उििन सीखिन सांभव िनयश िरिे िी सलनि देते िैं।
और सरल िोतन िै। • यनि चनलि - जो चनांद से मनतनदीि िो लेिे आयन िै।
• स्वनिम भनर्न िी अथश भेदि इिनई िै। भनर्न िी अन्य इिनइयनाँ - • िोतवनल और इांस्पेक्टर िे चनांद िे पुनलस िे नसपनिी िै।
र्ब्द, पद, वनक्य आकद िन ज्ञनि तब ति सांभव ििीं िोतन जब ति िररर्ांिर परसनई िी प्रमुख रचिनएां –
स्वनिम िन ज्ञनि ि िो, क्योंकि भनर्न िी परवती वृित्तर इिनइयनाँ • ििनिी सांग्रि- िांसते िैं रोते िैं।, जैसे उििे कदि किरे, भोलनरनम िन
स्वनिम पर आधनररत िैं। जीव
• नलनप-निमनशण में स्वनिम िी मित्त्वपूणश भूनमिन िोती िै। किसी • उपन्यनस- रनिी िनगििी िी ििनिी, तट िी खोज, ज्वनलन और जल
भनर्न िे स्वनिमों िे निश्चयि िे पश्चनत िी नलनप िन निमनशण िोतन • सांस्मरण- नतरछी रेखनएां
िै। इस प्रिनर स्वनिम िो नलनप िन मूलनधनर िि सिते िैं।
• आदर्श नलनप िन निश्चय िी स्वनिम िे मनध्यम से िोतन िै। नजस S75. Ans.(d)
नलनप में एि स्वनिम िे नलए एि नलनप नचह्ि िो, उसे आदर्श नलनप Sol. "इििन जीवि बिश िी पनवत्रतन से पूणश और वि िी सुगांध से
िि सिते िैं। सुगांनधत िै" यि िथि भेि चरनिे वनले िे बनरे में िै।
• स्वनिम िे मनध्यम से िी अन्तररनष्ट्रीय नलनप (I.N.P.A) िन रूप • यि िथि सरदनर पूणश नसांि िे निबांध मजदूरी और प्रेम से नलयन गयन
सनमिे आयन िै। सभी भनर्नओं िे नवनभन्न स्वनिमों िे नलए इसमें िै।
समुनचत रूप से एि-एि नचह्ि िी व्यवस्थन िोती िै इस प्रिनर • इस सांबांध में गिररयन िे नलए ििन गयन िै कि कदि िो सूयश और
भनर्न िे र्ुि उच्चनरण, आदर्श नलनप और अन्तररनष्ट्रीय नलनप निमनशण रनत िो तनरनगण इसिे सखन िोते िैं। भेिो िी सेवन इििी पूजन िै।
आकद में स्वनिम िी मित्त्वपूणश भूनमिन िोती िै। मजदूरी और प्रेम-
• वनक्य में र्ब्दों िे सांबांध निधनशररत ििीं िरते। बनल्ि इििे मनध्यम • इस निबांध में मेिितिर् लोगों िे र्मश और उसिे सच्चे मूल्य िी
से भनर्न िी ध्वनियों यों िी सांख्यन िन नियांत्रण िोतन िै। नववेचिन िी गई िै।
• सनथशितन िी दृनष्ट से र्ब्द लघुतम इिनई िै यि िथि गलत िै • किसनि िन खेती िरिन गिररयन िन भेि चरनिे यन किसी मजदूर
क्योंकि स्वनिम भनर्न िी लघुत्तम इिनई िै। िनरन किए गए िनयश िन मूल्य िे वल पैसे से ििीं आांिन जन सितन।
• सवनिम अथश-भेदि इिनई िै। • इि श्रमर्ील लोगों िी सनधिन, मिनितन, त्यनग िन मूल्य उििे प्रनत
प्रेम व सबमनि व्यि िरिे िी चुिनयन जन सितन िै।
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• िमनरन यि ितशव्य बितन िै कि उििे प्रनत श्रिन िै उसिे िै िन भनव िरिरी दनस –
अपिे हृदय में रखें। • तुलसीदनस िरिरी दनस िे नर्ष्य थे
• ईवर िे सच्चे प्रनतनिनध विी िै जो िठोर र्मश िरते िैं तथन सज्जितन
अमृतरनय िे उपन्यनस –
और इमनिदनरी से जीवि व्यतीत िरते िैं।
• सरदनर पूणश नसांि िे निबांध - उन्िोंिे िु ल 6 निबांध नलखें- आचरण • मिनिनल 1947, सेठ बनिे लनल 1955, बूांद और समुद्र 1956,
िी सभ्यतन, मजदूरी और प्रेम, सच्ची वीरतन, पनवत्रतन, िन्यनदनि, र्तरांज िे मोिरे 1959, सुिनग िे िूपुर 1960, अमृत और िूपुर
अमेररिन िन मस्त िनव वनल्ट नव्िटमैि 1966, सनत घूांघट वनलन मुखिन 1968, एिदन िैनमर्रनय 1972,
िल चलनिे वनलन – िनचो बहुत गोपनल 1978, खांजि ियि 1981, नबखरे नतििे
1982, अनिगभनश 1983, िरवट 1985, पीिीयन 1999
• यि स्वभनव से िी सनधु िोते िैं। अन्न पैदन िरिे में किसनि भी ब्रह्मन
िे समनि िै खेती इसिे ईवरी श्रम िन िें द्र िै।
S77. Ans.(a)
नजल्दसनज – Sol. 'नवज्ञनि और िनवतन' पुस्ति िे लेखि आई. ए. ररचर्डसश िै।
• लेखि िो कितनब देखते िी नजल्दसनज िी यनद आती िै। यि • नवज्ञनि और िनवतन (सनइांस एांि पोएट्री) यि 1926 ई. में प्रिननर्त
आमरण लेखि िन नमत्र िै। हुई।
बनग िन मनली – आई.ए. ररचर्डसश –
• लेखि िे इसिे तित िस्त पररश्रम पर बल कदयन िै। मर्ीि िी • इन्िें अांग्रेजी सननित्य में प्रथम बनर व्यनपि और व्यवनस्थत
अपेक्षन मनिवीय िस्त पररश्रम अनधि मित्वपूणश िै। सौंदयशर्नस्त्र िे निमनशण िन श्रेय कदयन जनतन िै।
• ररचर्डसश िे आलोचिन िो मिोनवज्ञनि िी एि र्नखन मिनए।
S76. Ans.(d)
• ररचर्डसश िे आलोचिन िे दो भेद किए िैं- 1. आलोचिनत्मि 2.
Sol. "मिुष्य िे मि में सुांदर और िु छ ििीं िोतन! ईवर यकद िै तो मिुष्य
िे मि में िी समनए िैं" 'मनिस िन िांस' उपन्यनस में यि सांवनद मोनििी प्रननवनधि
िन िै। • ररचर्डसश िी आलोचिन िे दो मूलनधनर स्तांभ िै- 1. मूल्य नसिनांत 2.
सांप्रेर्ण नसिनांत
मनिस िन िांस –
• ररचर्डसश िे ग्रांथ - दी मीनिांग ऑि मीनिांग 1923, द िनउां िेर्ि ऑि
• यि अमृत रनय िनरन नलनखत उपन्यनस िै। जो 1972 में प्रिननर्त
ईस्थेटीि 1922, द नप्रांसीपुल्स ऑि नलटरेरी कक्ररटनसजम 1924,
हुआ।
प्रैनक्टिल कक्ररटनसजम 1929, द किलोसोिी ऑि रेटनररिन िन
• यि तुलसीदनस िी जीविी और व्यनित्व पर आधनररत िै।
1936
• इसमें तुलसीदनस जी िन जो स्वरूप नचनत्रत कियन गयन वि एि
टी. एस. इनलयट िी िृ नतयनां –
सिज मनिव िन रूप िै।
मनिस िन िांस िे पनत्र- • द सेक्रेि वुि 1920, िोम टू जॉि ड्रनइिि 1924, एनलजनबेथ एसेज
• मैिन ििनररि, बतनसो,रतिन,श्यनमो िी बुआ, *बनबन - तुलसीदनस, 1932, द यूज ऑि पोएट्री एांि द यूज़ ऑि कक्ररटनसजम 1933,
रनजन -रनजयन िनम से पुिनरे जनिे वनलन पनत्र, बनबन से आयु में एि नसलेक्टेि एसेज 1934, एसेज एर्ेट एांि मॉििश 1936, िॉलेज एांि
कदि छोटे,सांत बेिीमनधव (सूिरखेत निवनसी नर्ष्य)- पचनस- एक्सपीररयांस.
पचपि वर्ीय, रनमू निवेदी (िनर्ी से आए हुए नर्ष्य) -बनबन िे मैथ्यू अिनशल्ि िी रचिनएां –
नर्ष्य, इितीस वर्ीय, बिरीदी िक्कन- बनबन से आयु में चनर कदि • िल्चर एांि अिनिी 1869, नलटरेचर एांि ड्रनमन 1873, एसेज ऑि
बिे,पनण्ित गणपनत उपनध्यनय -बनबन िे पुरनिे नर्ष्य, अिसठ- चचश एांि स्टेट, द िां क्र्ि ऑि कक्ररटनसजम एट द प्रेजेंट टनइम 1877.
उिित्तर वर्ीय, बूढ़न रमज़निी - बिरीदी दज़ी िन छोटन बेटन,
रेमांि नवनलयबस –
इिसठ-बनसठ वर्ीय, नर्वदीि दुबे, िन्ििू , मििू - गनाँव िे
लोग।हुलनसयन-पांिनइि िी मुि ाँ बोली ििद, पांिनइि,पनण्ित • न्यू नबअररांग्स इि इांनग्लर् पोएट्री 1932, ररवोल्यूर्ि ट्रेिीर्ि एांि
आत्मनरनम, भैरोनसांि िेवलपमेंट इि इांनग्लर् पोएट्री 1936, द ग्रेट ट्रेिीर्ि 1948, अन्नन
िरेनििन एांि अदर एर्ेज 1967, नििें स दन िनवनलस्ट 1970, द
तुलसी –
िॉमि पसशट 1952.
• मनिस िन िांस उपन्यनस िे प्रमुख पनत्र तथन ये रनमचररतमनिस िे
रचनयतन गोस्वनमी तुलसीदनस िै नजििी जीविी अमृतरनय िे
S78. Ans.(d)
नलखी िै।
Sol. 'आलोचिन' पनत्रिन िे सांपनदि िमलन प्रसनद ििीं रिे िैं।
गांगनरनम – आलोचिन पनत्रिन-
• पांनित गांगनरनम तुलसीदनस िी पत्नी रत्ननवली िे नपतन थे। • इसिे सांस्थनपि और सांपनदि नर्वदनि नसांि चौिनि िे कियन।
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• जो अक्टूबर 1951 में प्रिननर्त हुआ। भनरतेंदु जी िे प्रमुख निबांध –
• अप्रैल-जूि 2000 ई. में िनमवर नसांि इसिे प्रधनि सांपनदि रिे िैं।
• िश्मीर िु सुम, उदयपुरोदय, िनलचक्र, बनदर्नि दपशण, लेवी प्रनण
• परमनिांद श्रीवनस्तव िो भी इसिन सांपनदि बिनयन गयन।
लेवी, तदीय सवशस्व, जनतीय, स्वगश में नवचनर सभन िन अनधवेर्ि,
• अप्रैल जूि 2005 से प्रनसि िनव अरुण िमल िो इसिन अवैतनिि
पनांचवे पैगांबर, अांग्रेज स्रोत, िां िि स्त्रोत, एि अद्भुत अपूवश स्वप्न,
सांपनदि नियुि कियन गयन।
भनरतवर्श िी उन्ननत िै से िो सिती िै आकद।
• तीि दर्ि पिले िनमवर नसांि िे सांपनदि में आरांभ िोिे वनली
आलोचिन पनत्रिन मैं 1967 में पिली बनर भनरत में िनसीवनदी देर्ोन्नती –
खतरे िी चेतनविी दी गई। • यि मैनथलीर्रण गुप्त िन निबांध िै।
• मई 2001 में परमनिांद श्रीवनस्तव िे सांपनदि में इस पनत्रिन िे पुि: सुनर्नक्षतो िन ितशव्य –
अपिन प्रनचीि गौरव िननसल िर नलयन।
• यि निबांध भनरतेंदु जी िन ििीं िै।
• यि निांदी सननित्य िी श्रेष्ठतम पनत्रिन में पररगणय रिी िी इसिन
• िनव और ितशव्य निबांध मिनवीर प्रसनद निवेदी िन िै।
पनांचवन अांि िनिी िु ख्यनत रिन।
• रनमनवलनस र्मनश िी बरसी पर आयोनजत इस नवर्ेर्नांि िो िनमवर
S80. Ans.(a)
नसांि िे िनरन रनमनवलनस र्मनश िे प्रनत खुले नवरोध िे रूप में देखन
Sol. "मुझे अपिी िनवतनओं िे नलए दूसरे प्रजनतांत्र िी तलनर् िै" - यि
गयन।
िथि िक्सलबनिी िनवतन से िै।
• अरुण िमल जी िे सांपनदि में आलोचिन िे सनथ सबसे मुख्य बनत
यि हुई कि वि व्यनपि निांदी लेखि समुदनय से िनिी िद ति िट िक्सलबनिी –
गई। • यि िनवतन सुदनमन पनांिे धूनमल िी िै।
• अरुण िमल इसिे 21 अांि 2005 से इसिे सांपनदि नियुि हुए और • जो उििे िनव्य सांग्रि 'सांसद से सिि ति' में प्रिननर्त हुई।
अांि 52 2014 ति इसिन दननयत्व निभनते रिे। • यि सांग्रि 1967 में प्रिननर्त हुआ।
िमलन प्रसनद – • यि बिनरस से नििलिे वनली पनत्रिन 'आमुख' में छपी थी।
• यि आजीवि वसुधन पनत्रिन िे नलए जुिे रिे। • यि सनल िक्सलबनिी नवद्रोि िन सनल थन उसमें किसी स्थननपत
• वसुधन पनत्रिन िन प्रिनर्ि मनिनसि रूप से 1956 में र्ुरू हुआ। पनत्रिन में इस िनवतन िन प्रिननर्त िोिन लगभग असांभव थन
• इसिे सांस्थनपि सांपनदि िररर्ांिर परसनई थे। • िक्सलबनिी बांगनल िन एि रेल स्टेर्ि िै वि छोटन सन स्टेर्ि
अचनिि देर् में नवक्षोभ िी एि व्यवनस्थत कदर्न लेिे वनलन िें द्र िन
S79. Ans.(c)
िनम बि गयन।
Sol. निम्नलनखत में से भनरतेंदु िे निबांध िै - िे वल A, C और E
• वैष्णवतन और भनरतवर्श सुदनमन पनांिे धूनमल िी िनव्य सांग्रि-
• लेवी प्रनण लेवी • सांसद से सिि ति (इसिन प्रिनर्ि धूनमल िे स्वयां कियन थन), िल
• भनरतवर्श िी उन्ननत िै से िो सिती िै सुििन मुझे (इसिन सांपनदि रनजर्ेखर िे कियन), धूनमल िी
वैष्णवतन और भनरतवर्श – िनवतनएां (सांपनदि िॉ र्ुिदेव), सुदनमन पनांिे िन प्रजनतांत्र (सांपनदि

• यि भनरतेंदु जी िन प्रमुख निबांध िै। रति र्ांिर धूनमल िे पुत्र)

• जो पिले 'रनमनयण िन समय' िनमि लेख में 1884 में आयन। • िनवतनएां - मोचीरनम, बीस सनल बनद, पटिथन, रोटी और सांसद,
• इस निबांध िे अिुसनर सबसे प्रनचीि मत वैष्णव िो मनिन गयन िै। लोिे िन स्वनद।
यि धमश सांबांधी निबांध िै। • सुदनमन पनांिे िो उििे प्रनसि िनव्य सांग्रि 'िल सुििन मुझे' िे नलए
लेवी प्रनण लेवी – 1979 में सननित्य अिनदमी पुरस्िनर नमलन
• यि भनरतेंदु जी िन प्रमुख निबांध िै। मोचीरनम-
• यि िनववचि सुधन पनत्रिन में 1870 ई. मे प्रिननर्त हुआ। • यि सुदनमन पनांिे धूनमल िी िनवतन िै। इस िनवतन में िनव िे िनवतन
भनरतवर्श िी उन्ननत िै से िो सिती िै- िे मनध्यम से जीवि जीिे िे नलए सिी तिश िी बनत ििी िै।
• भनरतेंदु िररश्चांद्र िे 1884 ई. में बनलयन िे ददरी मेले में भनर्ण देिे पटिथन -
िे नलए नलखन थन। • यि सुदनमन पनांिे धूनमल िी िनवतन िै।
• इििन यि निबांध 'िररश्चांद्र चांकद्रिन' में कदसांबर 1884 िे अांि में अिनल दर्शि -
प्रिननर्त हुआ। • िनवतन सुदनमन पनांिे धूनमल िी िै।
• इस निबांध में लेखि िे धमश िो सब उन्ननतयों िन मूल बतनयन िै।
171 Teaching Jobs Exam | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S81. Ans.(d) • अिनरनांत र्ब्द में र्ब्द नजििे अांत अिनर से िोतन िै। अथनशत नजििे
Sol. निम्नलनखत में से रनमनवलनस र्मनश िे बीसवीं सदी में भनरतीय अांत में 'अ' िोतन िै।
िनव्यर्नस्त्र सांबांधी िोई पुस्ति ििीं नलखी। • जैसे - लतन, बनलन, रमन, बननलिन नवमलन आकद र्ब्द
• बीसवीं सदी में भनरतीय िनव्यर्नस्त्र से सांबांनधत पुस्तिें नलखिे अ–
वनले–
• सांबोधि िनरि िे एिवचि में 'बेटन' र्ब्द अनविृ त रितन िै जैसे-
o रनममूर्श्तश नत्रपनठी
िे बेटन
o भोलन र्ांिर व्यनस
• बहुवचि में नविृ त रूप िे प्रत्यय 'ओ' और यों िै।
o रनमचांद्र र्ुक्ल
• अिनरनांत, नविनरी आिनरनांत और निांदी आिनरनांत र्ब्दों िे अांतय
रनममूर्श्तश नत्रपनठी इििी प्रमुख िृ नतयनां – स्वर में ओं आदेर् िोतन िै।
• व्यांजिन और िवीि िनवतन, भनरतीय सननित्य दर्शि, औनचत्य • जैसे - घर - घरों िो
नवमर्श, रस नवमर्श, सननित्य र्नस्त्र िे प्रमुख पक्ष, रिस्यवनद, इ–
िनव्यनलांिनर सनर सांग्रि और लघु वृनत्त िी (भूनमिन सनित ) नवस्तृत
• इ अिनरनांत सांज्ञनओं िे अांत िस्व सब िे पश्चनत 'यों' लगनयन जनतन
व्यनख्यन, निांदी सननित्य िन इनतिनस, िनमनयिी िनव्य िलन और
िै। जैसे मुनि - मुनियों िो, िनथी- िननथयों िो
दर्शि, आधुनिि िलन और दर्शि,
भोलन र्ांिर व्यनस िी रचिनएां – S83. Ans.(c)
• ध्वनि सांप्रदनय 1956, भनरतीय सननित्य र्नस्त्र तथन िनव्यनलांिनर Sol. सरदनर पूणश नसांि िे निबांध िै - िे वल A, B और C
1965, समुांद्र सांगम ( पांनित जगन्ननथ िे जीवि पर आधनररत A. ियिों िी गांगन B. पनवत्रतन C. आचरण िी सभ्यतन
सनांस्िृ नति उपन्यनस ), सांस्िृ त िन भनर्नर्नस्त्रीय अध्यनय 1957, ियिों िी गांगन –
प्रनिृ त पैंगलम भनग 1, 2 1959, भनरतीय सननित्य िी रूपरेखन • यि निबांध अध्यनपि पूणश नसांि िन िै।
1965, निांदी सननित्य िन वृित इनतिनस खांि 1. • इस निबांध में पूणश नसांि जी िे अिुसनर ियिों िी गांगन अथनशत
रनमचांद्र र्ुक्ल िी रचिनएां – िन्यनदनि िे समय िन्यन िे अपिे मनतन-नपतन िन घर छोिते समय
• निबांध- नचांतनमनण भनग 1 और 2, नवचनर वीथी जो आांसू उसिी आांखों से बिते िैं वि गांगन िे समनि पनवत्र िै।
• इनतिनस - निांदी सननित्य िन इनतिनस 1929 पनवत्रतन-
• आलोचिन- सूरदनस, रस मीमनांसन, नत्रवेणी • यि सरदनर पूणश नसांि िन मित्वपूणश निबांध िै।
• सांपनदि - जनयसी ग्रांथनवली, तुलसी ग्रांथनवली, भ्रमरगीत सनर, निांदी • भनरत िी मनिमन पनवत्रतन िे आदर्श में िै।
र्ब्द सनगर िनर्ी िनगरी प्रचनररणी पनत्रिन • ब्रह्मचनरी पनवत्र, गृिस्थ पनवत्र, वनिप्रस्थ पनवत्र, सन्यनसी पनवत्र
रनमनवलनस र्मनश – ब्रह्म क्रनांनत िो देखिन और कदखनिन भनरत िन जीवि िै।
• पनवत्रतन िन देर् भनरत निवननसयों िन देर् िै जिनां भ्रम क्रनांनत िन
• प्रेमचांद 1941, भनरतेंदु युग 1946, निरनलन 1946, प्रगनत और
भनि िोतन िै और खुले दर्शि दीदनर िोते िैं।
परांपरन 1949, सननित्य और सांस्िृ नत 1949, प्रेमचांद और उििन युग
आचरण िी सभ्यतन-
1952, प्रगनतर्ील सननित्य िी समस्यनएां, आचनयश रनमचांद्र र्ुक्ल
• यि निबांध पूणश नसांि िन िै।
और निांदी आलोचिन और समनज 1961, निरनलन िी सननित्य
• नवद्यन िलन, िनवतन सननित्यब, धि और रनजत्व से भी आचरण िी
सनधिन 3 भनग (1969, 1972, 1976), भनरतेंदु युग और निांदी
सभ्यतन अनधि ज्योनतर्मनत िै।
सननित्य िी नविनस परांपरन 1975, मिनवीर प्रसनद निवेदी और
• आचरण िी सभ्यतन िो प्रनप्त िरिे िरिे िां गनल आदमी रनजनओं िे
निांदी िवजनगरण 1977, भनरतीय सौंदयश बोध और तुलसीदनस
कदलों पर भी अपिन प्रभुत्व जमन सितन िै।
2001.
• सरदनर अध्यनपि पूणश नसांि िे निबांध - इििे 6 मित्वपूणश निबांध
• निरनलन िी सननित्य सनधिन पर इन्िें सननित्य अिनदमी पुरस्िनर
नमलन िै। सांग्रि िै।- 1. आचरण िी सभ्यतन, 2. मजदूरी और प्रेम, 3. सच्ची
वीरतन, 4. पनवत्रतन, 5. िन्यनदनि, 6. अमेररिन िन मस्त िनव वनल्ट
S82. Ans.(b) नव्िटमैि
Sol. आिनरनांत एिवचि पुनलांग सांख्यनओं िे नविृ त रूप िन प्रत्यय िै - ए जय जमुिन मैयन जी –
• एिवचि में नविृ त रूप िन प्रत्यय "ए" िै। • यि निबांध चांद्रधर र्मनश गुलेरी िन िै।
• जो िे वल निांदी और उदूश (तद्भव) आिनरनांत पुनलांग सांज्ञनओ में लगनयन
िम िनर िनर तुम पनत पनत –
जनतन िै।
• यि निबांध बनलिृ ष्ण भट्ट िन िै।
• जैसे - लििन - लििे िे, घोिन - घोिे िे, सोिन - सोिे िन

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S84. Ans.(b) S85. Ans.(b)
Sol. िनटिों में गीतों िे प्रयोग िे बनरे में सत्य िथि िै - िे वल B, C और Sol. पनत्रों िन तत्सांबांधी उपन्यनसों िे प्रथम प्रिनर्ि वर्श िे अिुसनर पिले
D से बनद िन सिी क्रम िै - D, A, E, C, B
• दोिन छांद िन प्रयोग 'अांधेर िगरी' और 'बिरी' िनटिों में कियन गयन
सरस्वती –
िै।
• 'मिनभोज', 'आधे अधूरे' और 'आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि' में िोई भी पनत्र • र्ेखर एि जीविी' उपन्यनस िन पनत्र िै।
गीत ििीं गनतन िै। • र्ेखर एि जीविी अज्ञेय िन उपन्यनस िै।
• 'स्िां दगुप्त' में आि वेदिन नमली नवदनई गीत देवसेिन गनती िै। • उपन्यनस िन रचिनिनल 1941 िै। इसिे दूसरे भनग िन िनम उत्िर्श
अांधेर िगरी- िै नजसिन रचिनिनल 1944 िै।
• यि भनरतेंदु िररश्चांद्र िन िनटि िै। • इस उपन्यनस इसिे भनग -1 में िनयि र्ेखर िे िे र्ौयश िन नवश्लेर्ण
• मौनलि िनटि - वैकदिी निांसन निांसन ि भवनत 1873, नवर्स्य िै।
नवर्मौर्धम् 1876, प्रेम जोनगिी 1875, भनरत दुदशर्न 1880, िील • इसिे भनग 2 में र्ेखर िे युवनिनल िी मनिनसि नस्थनत िन अांिि
देवी 1881, अांधेर िगरी 1881, सती प्रतनप 1883. िै।
• अिुकदत िनटि - रत्ननवली 1868, नवद्यन सुांदर 1868, पनखांि • अज्ञेय जी िे उपन्यनस - र्ेखर एि जीविी भनग l -1940, भनग ll-
नविांबि 1872, धिांजय नवजय 1873, मुद्रनरनक्षस 1878, दुलशभ बांधु 1944, िदी िे िीप 1951, अपिे अपिे अजिबी 1961
1880, िपूशर मांजरी 1875, सत्य िररर्चांद्र 1875, भनरत जििी भैरवी-
187 • यि 'बनणभट्ट िी आत्मिथन' उपन्यनस िे पनत्र िै।
बिरी-
• इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1946 में हुआ।
• सवेवर दयनल सक्सेिन िन िनटि िै।
• िजनरी प्रसनद निवेदी िन उपन्यनस िै।
• सवेवर दयनल सक्सेिन िे िनटि - बिरी 1974, लिनई 1979, अब
• इसमें प्रेम िन उदनत्तीिरण एवां िर्श िनलीि सनमननजि, रनजिीनति
गरीबी िटनओ
एवां सनांस्िृ नति नस्थनत िन नचत्रण िै।
मिनभोज –
• िजनरी प्रसनद निवेदी िे उपन्यनस- बनणभट्ट िी आत्मिथन 1946,
• मन्नू भांिनरी िन िनटि िै।
चनरुचांद्र लेखन 1963, पुििशवन 1973, अिनमदनस िन पोथन 1976
• यि उपन्यनस मिनभोज िन िनट्य रूपनांतरण
बांती -
• मन्नू भांिनरी िे िनटि - नबिन दीवनरों िन घर 1965, मिनभोज
• यि झूठन सच उपन्यनस िी पनत्र िै
1982.
• यि उपन्यनस दो खांिो में नवभि िै वति और देर् 1958 ई., देर्
आधे अधूरे, आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि –
िन भनवष्य 1960 ई.
• ये मोिि रनिे र् िे िनटि
• बांती तनरन िो नवभनजि िे दौरनि नमली सांनगिी िै
• मोिि रनिे र् िे िनटि- आर्नढ़ िन एि कदि 1958, लिरों िे
• इस उपन्यनस में यर्पनल िे 1942 ई. से 1957 ई. ति अथनशत देर्
रनजिांस 1963, आधे अधूरे 1969, पैर तले जमीि (अधूरन)
स्िां द गुप्त- नवभनजि से पिले और बनद िे उतनर चढ़नव िो कदखनयन िै
• जयर्ांिर प्रसनद िन िनटि िै। • झूठन सच उपन्यनस सनमननजि रनजिीनति पृष्ठभूनम पर नलखन गयन
• जयर्ांिर प्रसनद िे िनटि- सज्जि 1910, िल्यनणी पररणय 1912, िै इसमें नवभनजि िी त्रनसदी िन नचत्रण िर मनिवीय जीवि िी
िरुणनलय 1912, प्रनयनश्चत 1913, रनजश्री 1915, नवर्नख 1921, त्रनसदी िन प्रत्यक्ष दर्शि िै
अजनतर्त्रु 1922, जन्मेजय िन िनग यज्ञ 1926, िनमिन 1927, बेलन –
स्िां द गुप्त 1928, एि घूांट 1930, चांद्रगुप्त 1931, ध्रुवस्वननमिी • यि रनग दरबनरी उपन्यनस िी पनत्र िै।
1933
• यि श्रीलनल र्ुक्ल िन उपन्यनस िै।
• मिन्त जी और िनरनयण दनस तो 'रनम भजो' िन गनयि िरते िैं
• इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1968.
लेकिि गोवधशि दनस 'अांधेर िगरी' से प्रभननवत िोिर उसी िन
• इसमें नर्वपनल गांज िी नजांदगी िन यथनथश नचत्रण िै।
गनयि िरतन िै।
• श्रीलनल र्ुक्ल िे उपन्यनस - सुिी घनटी िन सूरज 1957, अज्ञनतवनस
• 'भनरत दुदशर्न' में कितनब खनिन वनलन छठवें अांि में भनरतभनग्य
िनमि िे वल एि पनत्र िन सांवनद एवां िनयश व्यनपनर नचनत्रत िै। 1962, रनग दरबनरी 1968, सीमनएां टूटती िै 1973, मिनि 1976,
भनरतभनग्य िन लबबन गीतनत्मि सांवनद भनरत िे गौरवमय अतीत पिलन पिनव 1976, नवश्रनमपुर िन सांत 1998.
एवां दुः खद वतशमनि दोिों िो समेटतन िै। भनरतभनग्य िन लीजन-
आत्मनधक्कनर िनरुनणि िै। वि अन्ततः छनती में चनिू भोंििर • यि पनत्र तमस उपन्यनस िी िै।
आत्मित्यन िर लेतन िै। • यि भीष्म सनििी िन उपन्यनस िै।
• इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1973 में हुआ
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• इसमें भनरत नवभनजि िी सनांप्रदननयि नवभीनर्िन िन िनवतन िी जमीि और जमीि िी िनवतन-
मिनिनव्यनत्मि अांिि िै। • यि िनमवर नसांि िी आलोचिन िृ नत िै। यि 2010 में प्रिननर्त हुई।
• भीष्म सनििी िे उपन्यनस - झरोखन 1967, िनियनां 1970, तमस आलोचिन और नवचनरधनरन-
1973, बसांती 1980, बययनदनस िी मनिी 1988, िुां तो 1993, • इसिन प्रिनर्ि 2012 में हुआ। इसिन बनचीि सांिलि आर्ीर्
िीलू िीनलमन िीलोिर 2000. नत्रपनठी िे किय
िनमवर नसांि िी रचिनएां –
S86. Ans.(b)
• ििनिी और िई ििनिी 1964., छनयनवनद 1955., िनवतन िे िए
Sol. 'बनिष्िृ त भनरत' पत्र िन प्रिनर्ि 1927 में आरांभ हुआ।
प्रनतमनि 1968., दूसरी परांपरन िी खोज 1982., वनद-नववनद
बनिष्िृ त भनरत – सांवनद 1989, इनतिनस और आलोचिन, आधुनिि सननित्य िी
• इस समनचनर पत्र िी स्थनपिन बी.आर. अांबेििर िे िी थी। प्रवृनत्तयनां 1954., आलोचि िे मुख से 2005., प्रेमचांद और भनरतीय
• यि मरनठी भनर्न िन समनचनर पत्र थन। समनज 2010, आलोचिन और नवचनरधनरन 2012, आलोचिन और
• इसिन प्रिनर्ि 2 अप्रैल 1927 िो हुआ। सांवनद 2018, पूवशरांग 2018
• यि पननक्षि समनचनर पत्र थन। िनमवर नसांि –
• यि समनचनर पत्र बांबई से प्रिननर्त िोतन थन।
• आचनयश िजनरी प्रसनद निवेदी िे समथशि आलोचि थे। र्ुक्ल
• िॉक्टर अांबेििर िे बनिष्िृ त भनरत समनचनर पत्र िे जररए
नवरोधी खेमे िे आलोचि।
ब्रनह्मणवनद व मिुवनद िो निणनशयि चुिौती दी थी।
• मनक्सशवनद िे समथशि िोते हुए भी रनमनवलनस जी िी भनांनत
• भीमरनव अांबेििर एि भनरतीय विील, अथशर्नस्त्री, रनजिीनतज्ञ
मनक्सशवनदी आलोचि ििीं िै।
और समनज सुधनरि थे।
• इन्िोंिे अपिी आलोचिन में ईमनिदनरी एवां प्रमननणितन िन
• इन्िोिे दनलतों िे नलए बौि आांदोलि िो प्रभननवत कियन और
समनवेर् कियन िै।
सनमननजि अन्यनय (अछू त) (दनलतों) िे नखलनि अनभयनि चलनयन। • िनमवर नसांि िे सनक्षनत्िनर सांवनद - िििन ि िोगन 1994, बनत
• वे 1947 में भनरत िे पिले चुिे गए िनिूि और न्यनय मांत्री थे। बनत में बनत 2006, सबमुख 2012, सनथ-सनथ 2012.
• भीमरनव अांबेििर भनरत िे सांनवधनि िे मुख्य वनस्तुिनर थे। • पत्र सांग्रि - िनर्ी िे िनम 2006, तुबिनरन िनमवनर।
1919 –
• 13 अप्रैल 1919 िो जनलयनांवनलन बनग ित्यनिनांि हुआ। जब पांजनब S88. Ans.(a)
िे अमृतसर िे स्वणश मांकदर िे िु छ िी दूरी पर नस्थत जनलयनांवनलन Sol. 'िोसी िन घटवनर' ििनिी में लछमन िे सांदभश में आयन र्ब्द 'िनलन
बनग में नििथे मनसूमों िन ित्लेआम हुआ। चरेऊ' िन अथश - सुिनग नचन्ि िै।
1930 – िोसी िी घटवनर-
• मिनत्मन गनांधी िे अपिी स्वतांत्र भनरत िी मनांग पर जोर देिे िे नलए • ििनिी र्ेखर जोर्ी िी िै।
सनविय अवज्ञन आांदोलि 1930 मे छेिन। • इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1958 में हुआ।
1938 – • यि िैदरनबनद से िल्पिन पनत्रिन में प्रिननर्त हुई।
• 1938 में िनांग्रेस िन िररपुरन अनधवेर्ि हुआ नजसिी अध्यक्षतन
• इस ििनिी में प्रेम िी व्यथन से लेिर समनज िे पररदृश्य िे सनथ-
सुभनर् चांद्र बोस िे िी। इसमें रनष्ट्रीय योजिन सनमनत िी स्थनपिन सनथ जीवि िी पररचनयि िो कदखनयन गयन।
िी गई जवनिरलनल िेिरू िी अध्यक्षतन में िी गई। • इस ििनिी िी मूल सांवेदिन अिे लेपि से भरन हुआ जीवि गरीबी
और दररद्रतन िन उल्लेख िै।
S87. Ans.(a)
• िोसी िी घटवनर पूवश दीनप्त र्ैली में नलखी गई िै।
Sol. निम्नांकित पुस्तिों िन उििे प्रथम प्रिनर्ि वर्श िे अिुसनर पिले
• िोसी िी घटवनर ििनिी निस्वनथश प्रेम िो भनविन िो दर्नशती िै।
से बनद िन सिी क्रम - B, D A, C, E
• यि ििनिी भनग्य िी नविांबिन और पररनस्थनतयों िे दुष्चक्र में िां से
इनतिनस और आलोचिन-
दो प्रेनमयों िी िरुण ििनिी िै।
• यि िनमवर नसांि िी आलोचिन िृ नत िै। इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1957 में
• गोसनई और लछमन पिनि िे आस - पनस िी अलग-अलग गनांव में
हुआ।
रिते िैं और दोिों एि दूसरे िो बहुत प्रेम िरते िैं इतिन िी ििीं
िनवतन िे िए प्रनतमनि-
दोिों नववनि भी िरिन चनिते िैं और इसिे नलए लछमन गांगिनथ
• यि िनमवर नसांि िी आलोचिन िृ नत िै। इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1968 में
जो िी िसम भी ले लेती िै।
हुआ।
• र्ेखर जोर्ी िी अन्य ििननियनां - सनथ िे लोग 1978, िलवनिन
दूसरी परांपरन िी खोज-
1981, मेरन पिनि 1989, िौरांगी बीमनर िै 1990, िनांगरी वनले
• यि िनमवर नसांि िी आलोचिन िृ नत िै। इसिन प्रिनर्ि 1982 मे
1994.
हुआ।
174 Teaching Jobs Exam | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com
S89. Ans.(b) • सच यि िी जनयसी िन भनवुि मि िनगमती िे नवयोग में िी अनधि
Sol. 'अरे यनयनवर रिेगन यनद' में मनझुली िीप असम रनज्य में नस्थत िै। रमन िै
अरे यनयनवर रिेगन यनद- • इस सांबांध में र्ुक्ल जी िी स्पष्ट धनरणन िै "कि िनगमती िन नवरि
• यि अज्ञेय जी िन यनत्रन सांस्मरण िै। वणशि निांदी सननित्य िी अनितीय वस्तु िै!"
• इस यनत्रन सांस्मरण में अगेदी िे असम से लेिर पनश्चमी सीमन प्रनांत • िनगमती िे नवरि वणशि िी सबसे मित्वपूणश नवर्ेर्तन यि मनिी
ति िी यनत्रन िन वणशि कियन। गई यि किस में िनगमती िो रनिी िे रूप में ििीं एि सनधनरण
• यि एि क्लननसि यनत्रन सांस्मरण िै। नवरिदि िनरी िे रूप में वर्श्णशत कियन गयन िै
• अज्ञेय िनम इििो प्रेमचांद जी िे िनरन कदयन गयन। ये प्रयोगवनद िे • िनगमती िे नवरि वणशि कि एि और प्रमुख नवर्ेर्तन यि कि उसिन
जिि थे। नवरि िे वल वैयनिि सांयोग सुख िी प्रेरणन पर आधनररत ििीं
• 1936 में इन्िोंिे सैनिि और नवर्नल भनरत पनत्रिनओं िन सांपनदि बनल्ि जीवि िे लोि व्यविनर तथन ितशव्य से जुिन हुआ िै
कियन। • िनगमती मध्यिनल िी एि निांदू िनरी िै नजसिे जीवि िी सनरी
• अज्ञेय िनरन रनचत 'अरे यनयनवर रिेगन यनद' िन आरां भ परर्ुरनम िे सनथशितन उसिे पनत में िें कद्रत िै
लेख से िोतन िै। • िनगमती िे नवयोग में इस ग्रनिनस्ति चेति िे अद्भुत मनर्श्मशितन िन
• इििन अन्य यनत्रन वृतनांत िै 'एि बूांद सिसन उछली' जो उििी
समनवेर् िर कदयन िै
• नवरि वणशि में िनरसी मसिनवयों िी र्ैली प्रनय : ऊिनत्मि िो
नवदेर्ी यनत्रनओं से सांबांनधत िै।
जनती िै
• अरे यनयनवर रिेगन यनद में भनरतीय क्षेत्रों िी यनत्रन िन वणशि िै और
एि बूांद सिसन उछली में आगे िे अपिी यूरोनपय यनत्रन िो S91. Ans.(c)
सजशिनत्मि रूप प्रदनि कियन िै। Sol. उपयुशि अिुच्छेद िे अिुसनर आधुनिि नचांति िे नजि पनश्चमी
• उन्िोंिे 1983 में 'जिि- जनििी' यनत्रन पुस्ति िन सांपनदि भी रचिनिनरों-नवचनरिों िे प्रोत्सनिि प्रदनि कियन उिमें िीत्र्े ििीं िै
कियन। • पनश्चमी नर्क्ष्ज्ञन िे भनरत में िये प्रिनर िी नवचनरधनरन िे नविनस
अज्ञेय िी पुस्तिें – िो सुगम बिनयन।
• परर्ुरनम से तुरखम (एि टनयर िी रनम ििनिी), किरणों िी खोज • इस नवचनरधनरन िे अांग थेः युनियुितन, उदनरवनद, स्वांतत्रतन और
में, देवतनओं िे अांचल में, मौत िी घनटी, एलुरन, मांजल
ु ी बितन पनिी जिवनद, मनिवतनवनद तथन समनितन िे नवचनर, आधुनिि भनरतीय
निमशलन, सनगर सेनवत, मेघ मेखनलत (िन्यनिु मनरी)। नचांति िो र्ैली, बनयरि, िौबिि, नमल, स्पेंसर, िनलनशईल, रनस्िि,
• िनव्य िृ नतयनां- िरी घनस पर क्षण भर, बनवरन अिेरी, इांद्रधिुर् रौंदे मोरले, नमल्टि, लॉि, तथन बिश िे जो प्रोत्सनिि और बल प्रदनि
हुए, अरी ओ िरुणन प्रभनमय, आांगि िे पनर िनर, कितिी िनवों में कियन, उसे िम िरिे ििीं आांिन जन सितन।
• वनस्तव में, आधुनिि भनरत िे मनस्तष्ि िो ढनलिे में पनश्चमी नवचरों
कितिी बनर, सनगर मुद्रन आकद।
िे निणनशयि भूनमिन अदन िी।
• 'आाँगि िे पनर िनर' 1964 में सननित्य अिनदमी पुरस्िनर नमलन।
• िीत्र्े उत्तर आधुनिितनवनद िे प्रमुख नवचनरि िै
• 'कितिी िनवों में कितिी बनर' 1978 में ज्ञनिपीठ पुरस्िनर नमलन।
• िीिे गनिश िे बनद 19वीं सदी िे उत्तरनधश में जमशि दनर्शनिि नित्र्े से
S90. Ans.(c) िे अनस्तत्ववनद िे दर्शि िो आगे बढ़नयन
Sol. ‘िनगमती नवयोग’ खांि में िनगमती िी नवरि-व्यथन िी अनभव्यनि
S92. Ans.(d)
िे नलए जनयसी िनरन रनचत पांनियनाँ िैं- िे वल C, D और E
Sol. उपयुशि अिुच्छेद में मनक्सश ऐनतिननसि व्यनि िन उल्लेख ििीं िै
C. रित आाँसु घुाँघुची बि बोई • िनलश मनक्सश मनक्सशवनद यन सनबयवनद िे प्रवतशि िै
D. निरदय पैरठ नवरि िटांिांसन • आधुनिि भनरतीय नचांति िो र्ैली, बनयरि, िौबिि, नमल, स्पेंसर,
E. सिस सिस दुख एि एि सनाँसन िनलनशईल, रनस्िि, मोरले, नमल्टि, लॉि, तथन बिश िे जो प्रोत्सनिि
िनगमती नवयोग खांि - और बल प्रदनि कियन
• जनयसी रनचत 'जनयसी ग्रांथनवली' िन 30 वनाँ खांि िै • मैिॉले िे सोचन कि उसिी नर्क्षन-प्रणली भनरतीयों िी रनष्ट्रीय
• इसिन सांपनदि आचनयश र्ुक्ल िनरन कियन गयन चेतिन िो िुां रठत िर देगी और उन्िें वफ़नदनर गुलनम बिनिे में सिल
• पद्मनवत में श्रृांगनर िन नवयोग पक्ष तीि चररत्रों िे मनध्यम से िोगी। किन्तु, उसिे दर असल जीवि िे प्रनत एि िए वैज्ञननिि दृनष्ट
कदखनयन गयन िै - रतिसेि पद्मनवती तथन िनगवती नबांदु िन आधनर तैयनर कियन और िये रनष्ट्रीय जनगरण में भी
• जनयसी िे िनगमती िे नवरि िन नवस्तृत वणशि कियन जो बेिद सिनयतन पहुांचनयी।
रमणीय, सुांदर व मनर्श्मशि िै
• िनगमती रतिसेि िी पत्नी िै जो रतिसेि िे पद्मनवती िी खोज में S93. Ans.(a)
नसांिलदीप जनिे पर एि वर्श ति पनत से अलग रििे िे िनरण नवरि Sol. उपयुशि अिुच्छेद िे अिुसनर पनश्चमी नर्क्षन िनरन भनरत में
वेदिन भोगती िै नविनसत नवचनरधनरन िन अांग सवशधमशसमसभनव ििीं थन

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सवशधमशसमसभनव – S97. Ans.(a)
• भनरतीय पांथनिरपेक्ष िे प्रमुख नसिनांतों में एि िै नजसमें धमश िो Sol. उपयुशि उिरण िे अिुसनर यथनथशवनदी व्यनि िो क्यन िरिन िोगन-
सरिनर एि दूसरे से पूरी तरि अलग िन िरिे सभी धमश िो समनि सभी प्रनचीि नववनसों िो चुिौती देिन
रूप से मित्व देिे िन प्रयनस कियन जनतन िै • उसे सभी प्रनचीि नववनसों िो चुिौती देिी िोगी, यकद वे तिश िन
• पनश्चमी नर्क्ष्ज्ञन िे भनरत में िये प्रिनर िी नवचनरधनरन िे नविनस प्रिनर ि सि सिें तो टुििे-टुििे िोिर नगर पिेंगे।
िो सुगम बिनयन। इस नवचनरधनरन िे अांग थेः युनियुितन, • तब उस व्यनि िन पिलन िम िोगन, तमनम पुरनिे नववनसों िो
उदनरवनद, स्वांतत्रतन और जिवनद, मनिवतनवनद तथन समनितन िे धनरनर्यी िरिे िए दर्शि िी स्थनपिन िे नलए जगि सनफ़ िरिन।
नवचनर, आधुनिि भनरतीय नचांति िो र्ैली
S98. Ans.(b)
S94. Ans.(c) Sol. उपयुशि उिरण िे अिुसनर नविनस िे नलए मिुष्य िो क्यन ििीं
Sol. उपयुशि अिुच्छेद िे अिुसनर अांग्रेजी रनज में नर्क्षन सांबांधी सुधनरों िरिन िोगन- प्रचनलत मतों िो तिश िी िसौटी से बचनिन िोगन।
िन उद्देश्य भनरत िी आत्मन िो िवजीवि देिे िे नलए ििीं थन उपयुशि उिरण िे अिुसनर नविनस िे नलए मिुष्य िो क्यन िरिन िोगन
• अांग्रेजी रनज में नर्क्षन सांबांधी सुधनर अांग्रेजों िी मिनितन िन िांिन -
पीटिे िे नलए र्ुरू किए गए थे। उपनिवेर्वनकदयों िे आर्न िी थी • रूकढ़गत नववनसों िी चुिौती देिी िोगी।
कि ‘नर्क्षन से उत्पन्न ज्ञनि, जितन िो नब्ररटर् र्नसि िन सबमनि • रूकढ़गत नववनसों िी लोचिन िरिी िोगी।
िरिन नसखनएगी और उसमें एि िद ति इस र्नसि िे प्रनत अपित्व • रूकढ़यों पर अनववनस िरिन िोगन
िी भनविन भी पैदन िरेगी।’ • पुरनिे नववनस और अांधनववनस खतरिनि िै। यि मनस्तष्ि िो मूढ़
अांग्रेजी रनज में नर्क्षन सांबांधी सुधनरों िन उद्देश्य- तथन मिुष्य िो प्रनतकक्रयनवनदी बिन देतन िैं जो मिुष्य अपिे िो
• नब्ररटर् र्नसि िे प्रनत अपित्व पैदन िरिे िे नलए यथनथशवनदी िोिे िन दनवन िरतन िै,
• अांग्रेजों िी मिनितन िन िांिन पीटिे िे नलए • उसे सभी प्रनचीि नववनसों िो चुिौती देिी िोगी, यकद वे तिश िन
• जितन में नब्ररटर् र्नसि िे प्रनत सबमनि पैदन िरिे िे नलए प्रिनर ि सि सिें तो टुििे-टुििे िोिर नगर पिेंगे।
• तब उस व्यनि िन पिलन िम िोगन, तमनम पुरनिे नववनसों िो
S95. Ans.(d) धनरनर्यी िरिे िए दर्शि िी स्थनपिन िे नलए जगि सनफ़ िरिन।
Sol. उपयुशि अिुच्छेद िे अिुसनर अांग्रेजी नर्क्षन से भनरतीयों में जो िई • यि तो ििनरनत्मि पक्ष हुआ। इसिे बनद सिी िनयश र्ुरू िोगन,
चतिन जनगी, उसिे भनरतीयों पर क्यन प्रभनव िनलन- भरतीयों में िए नजसमें पुिर्श्िम
श नशण िे नलये पुरनिे नववनसों िी िु छ बनतों िन प्रयोग
ज्ञनि िी िसौटी पर भनरतीय परबपरन िो िसिन सीखन कियन जन सितन िै।
• नब्ररटर् नर्क्षन िे भनरतीय बुनिजीनवयों िे सनमिे और रनजीिनति
स्वनतांय्त्त्र िे अन्य नक्षनतज उद्घनरटत कि S99. Ans.(d)
• नर्नक्षत भनरतीयों िे एि ओर तो दूसरे देर्ों िे प्रगनतर्ील नवचनरों Sol. उपयुशि उिरण िे अिुसनर मनिवतन िे नविनस िो जि बिनिे वनले
और उििी वैज्ञननिि उपलनब्ध्यों िी सरनििन िरिन सीखन और अपरनधी - वे जो पुरनिे नववनसों िी चीख-पुिनर मचनते रिते िैं।
दूसरी ओर िए ज्ञनि िी िसौटी पर स्वांय अपिी परबपरनओं धमश, • नववनस िी -उििे िनन ि में अनवचल एवां सांर्यिीि नववनस िी
दर्शि, रीनत ररवनजों और रुनचयों िो िसिन सीखन। चीख-पुिनर मचनते रिते िैं।
• इस प्रिनर मनिवतन िे नविनस िो जि बिनिे िे अपरनधी िैं। प्रत्येि
S96. Ans.(c) मिुष्य िो, जो नविनस िे नलए खिन िै, रूकढ़गत नववनसों िे िर
Sol. यकद पुरनिे नववनस खांनित िो जनएाँ तो, उपयुशि उिरण िे अिुसनर पिलू िी आलोचिन तथन उिपर अनववनस िरिन िोगन और चुिौती
यथनथशवनदी व्यनि िन पिलन िनम क्यन िोगन- पुरनिे नववनसों िे स्थनि देिी िोगी।
पर िए दर्शि िी स्थनपिन िे नलए जगि सनफ़ िरिन
• पुरनिे नववनस और अांधनववनस खतरिनि िै। यि मनस्तष्ि िो मूढ़ S100. Ans.(d)
तथन मिुष्य िो प्रनतकक्रयनवनदी बिन देतन िैं जो मिुष्य अपिे िो Sol. उपयुशि उिरण िे अिुसनर नववेिवनि व्यनि वनतनवरण िो तनर्िश ि
यथनथशवनदी िोिे िन दनवन िरतन िै, रूप से समझिन चनिेगन
• उसे सभी प्रनचीि नववनसों िो चुिौती देिी िोगी, यकद वे तिश िन • मेरे नवचनर से िोई भी नववेि र्नि िै, वि अपिे वनतनवरण िो
प्रिनर ि सि सिें तो टुििे-टुििे िोिर नगर पिेंगे। तनर्िश ि रूप से समझिन चिेगन।
• तब उस व्यनि िन पिलन िम िोगन, तमनम पुरनिे नववनसों िो • दुभनशग्य िी बनत िै कि बजनय इसिे िम अपिे पुरनिे नविनिों एवां
धनरनर्यी िरिे िए दर्शि िी स्थनपिन िे नलए जगि सनफ़ िरिन। नवचनरिों िे अिुभवों तथन नवचनरों िन भनवष्य में अज्ञनितन िे
• यि तो ििनरनत्मि पक्ष हुआ। इसिे बनद सिी िनयश र्ुरू िोगन, नवरूि लिनई िन आधनर बिनएां और इस रिस्यमय प्रश्न िो िल
नजसमें पुिर्श्िम
श नशण िे नलये पुरनिे नववनसों िी िु छ बनतों िन प्रयोग िरिे िी िोनर्र् िरें, िम आलनसयों िी तरि, जो कि िम नसि िो
कियन जन सितन िै। चुिे िै

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 UGC NET English (06 December 2023 Shift 1)
Q1. Which among the following are not mentioned as the Q4. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
aspects of the novel by E.M. Forster? Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
A. Story Assertion (A):Discourses are cultural and social practices
B. Imagination roots in psychic and physical reality.
C. Plot Reason (R): Foucault defines discourse as the material
D. Harmony manifestation of thought which shapes our subjectivity.
E. Prophecy In the light of the above statements, choose the most
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A and C only (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
(b) C and E only explanation of A
(c) A and E only (b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct
(d) B and D only explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
Q2. Roland Barthes in his “Introduction to the Structural (d) A is not correct but R is correct
Analysis of Narratives”(1966) proposed three levels of
narrative structure. Which among the following are the Q5. “I am a sick man………….. I am a spiteful man. I am an
narrative structures proposed by him: unattractive man. I think my liver is diseased.”
A. Functions These are the opening lines of:
B. Actions (a) Gabriel Garcia Marquez’s Love in the Time of Cholera
C. Grammar (b) Dostoevsky’s Notes from Underground
D. Narration (c) Albert Camus’ The Plague
E. Coherence (d) Daniel Defoe’s A journal of the Plague Year
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, E and C only Q6. Match List –I with List –II
(b) A, B and D only
(c) B, C and E only
(d) A, C and D only

Q3. Arrange the following in the chronological order of the

dates of publication:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. Michel Foucault’s The Order of Things
(a) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
B. M.K. Gandhi’s Hind Swaraj or The Indian Homerule (b) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
C. Stephen Greenblatt’s The Swarve: How the World (c) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Became Modern (d) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
D. Donna Harraway’s When Species Meet
E. Tony Bennett’s Formalism and Marxism Q7. Which among the following poems has not been
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: composed by P. B. Shelley?
(a) A, B, C, E, D (a) To Wordsworth
(b) B, A, E, D, C (b) Mutability
(c) C, D, E, B, A (c) Hymn to Intellectual Beauty
(d) D, C, A, E, B (d) When We Two Parted

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Q8. What is not true about D. H. Lawrence’s Sons and Q11. What among the following is not true about Anna
Lovers? Karenina?
A. Sons and Lovers is a semi-autobiographical novel. (a) The novel was published in 1872.
B. It is a psychological study of the familial and love (b) The novel is written in eight parts.
relationships of a working-class English family. (c) It tells the story of two major characters, Anna and
C. The film adaptation of the novel was directed by Jack Konstantin Levin.
Cardiff. (d) The novel is revolutionary in its treatment of women.
D. The storyline traces three generations of Brangwan
family. Q12. A portmanteau is:
E. The novel narrates the story of Paul Moral whose love (a) A word which sounds the same but have different
for his beloved overshadows the affectionate bond with his meanings.
mother. (b) A word that result from blending two or more words or
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: part of words.
(a) A and C only (c) Creation of new words without reference to the existing
(b) B and D only morphological resources.
(c) D and E only (d) Copying a word that originally belonged to one
(d) C and E only language into another language.

Q9. Which of the following is true about Arthur Miller’s Q13. The term ‘simulacra’ in postmodern discourse is
plays? about:
A. After the Fall is a semi-autobiographical play. A. Absence of vivid representation of reality
B. Incident of Vichy deals with Nazi prosecution of the Jews. B. Artificially produced reality dubbed as authentic
C. The Price anticipates economic crash. C. A rejection of modernistic view of reality
D. The Creation of the World is not a serio-comic re-writing D. The gap between the perception and reality
of the story of Jesus. E. The psychological interplay at the level of subconscious
E. The Crucible uses a specific setting to consider the Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
responsibilities of the artist.
(a) C and E only
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
(b) D and E only
given below:
(c) A and B only
(a) E and A only
(d) B and C only
(b) A and C only
(c) A and B only
Q14. How many major forms of drama have been
(d) D and E only
described by Bharata in his manual of dramaturgy?
(a) Seven
Q10. Which of the following statements are valid for
(b) Three
postcolonial theory and literature?
(c) Four
A. Abrogation, resistance and assertion form the basis of
(d) Ten
postcolonial thought.
B. Postcolonial theory defends binaries of Master and
Q15. Arrange the following in the chronological order of
Slave, White and Black, and Coloniser and Colonised.
C. Weep Not, Child is the first novel in English by an East the date/year of publication:
African Writen, Ngugi Wa Thiong’O A. Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni’s The Mistress of Spices
D. Wide Sargasso Sea by Jean Rhys is based on the B. Anand Giridhardas’s India Calling: An Intimate Portrait
experiences of colonized African population. of a Nation’s Remaking
E. Homi K. Bhabha, Edward W. Said and Gayatri Spivak are C. V.S. Naipaul’s India: A Wounded Civilisation
important postcolonial thinkers. D. Bharati Mukherjee’s Desirable Daughters
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options E. Salman Rushdie’s Midnight’s Children
given below: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and D only (a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) B, D and E only (b) B, C, D, A, E
(c) A, C and E only (c) C, E, A, D, B
(d) C, D and E only (d) E, D, C, B, A

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Q16. Chronologically arrange the following works of Sri Q21. In absurd Theatre, the characters often use
Aurobindo in accordance with their year of publication: disjointed, repetitive and cliched speech to:
A. The Hour of God A. Suggest that meaninglessness is also about a meaning.
B. The Mother B. Suggest the working of the subconscious.
C. The Life Divine C. Bring about the comic action and relief.
D. The Future Poetry D. Illustrate the illogical and purposelessness of human
E. The Synthesis of Yoga condition.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: E. Defy the self-professed ‘modern’ notion of dignity and
(a) B, D, C, A, E wisdom.
(b) A, B, C, D, E Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(c) E, C, D, A, B (a) A and B only
(d) C, A, D, B, E (b) B and C only
(c) D and E only
Q17. What is the correct order of publication of the novels (d) A and D only
of Charles Dickens?
A. Great Expectations Q22. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
B. Hard Times Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
C. Oliver Twist Assertion (A): Culture is one of the two or three most
D. David Copperfield complicated words in the English language.
E. A Tale of Two Cities Reason (R): This is mainly because of several different
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: though related meanings have emerged at particular
(a) E, C, A, B, D moments throughout its long history.
(b) C, D, B, E, A In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(c) B, A, D, C, E appropriate answer from the options given below
(d) D, B, C, A, E (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A.
Q18. Who among the following declared in 1920 that (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
“there is no longer any intellectual life in England”? explanation of A
(a) Dorothy Richardson (c) A is true but R is false.
(b) Virginia Woolf (d) A is false but R is true.
(c) Ezra Pound
(d) T.S. Eliot Q23. Identify the poet of the following poems:
A. The Skylark
Q19. Transcendental Club was a group of American B. The Badger
intellectuals for philosophical discussions. Which text C. The Gypsy Camp
among the following is taken as a short treatise on D. First Love
Transcendentalism? (a) P.B. Shelley
(a) Emerson’s Nature (b) John Clare
(b) Thoreau’s Walden (c) Lord Byron
(c) Whitman’s Leaves of Grass (d) Robert Burns
(d) Thoreau’s Civil Disobedience
Q24. All writers since Chaucer have come from the middle
Q20. Antonio Gramsci’s Prison Notebooks primarily deals class………… have had good, at least expensive
with: education………..”
(a) Pain of a prisoner during colonial times Where has Virginia Woolf explained it?
(b) Recollections of love, romance and blissful life (a) Mrs. Dalloway
(c) Philosophy, culture, literature and the role of (b) To the Light hours
intellectuals (c) The Leaning Tower
(d) Exploitation of black during the colonial times (d) A Room of One’s Own

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Q25. Who among the following is not associated with Q29. Match List –I with List –II
Cultural Imperialism?
(a) Jonathan Dollimore
(b) Alan Sinfield
(c) Raymond Williams
(d) Stanley Fish
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Q26. What is the correct chronological order of publication
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
of the texts given under?
(c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
A. R. K. Narayan’s The Financial Expert
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. Manohar Malgonkar’s A Bend in the Ganges
C. Raja Rao’s Kanthapura Q30. Name the poet who has composed the following
D. Shashi Tharoor’s The Great Indian Novel poems:
E. Arundhati Roy’s The God of Small Things A. The Divine Image
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: B. The Holy Thursday
(a) D, A, B, C, E C. The Little Boy Lost
(b) A, D, C, B, E D. The Little Boy Found
(c) C, A, B, D, E (a) William Shakespeare
(d) E, D, C, B, A (b) William Blake
(c) William Collins
Q27. Match List –I with List –II (d) Samuel Johnson

Q31. Which of the following is true of Edward Said’s

Orientalism?
A. It was published in 1979.
B. Utilizes the concept of discursive formulation as argued
by Foucault.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: C. He has taken up the detailed analysis of imaginative
(a) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III geography and representation of the Orient
(b) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV D. It is one of the foundational texts of Postcolonial theory.
(c) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II E. It puts to use Barthes’ concept of death of the author’.
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
Q28. Sharankumar Limbale argues that Dalit literature is (a) A, B and E only
unique because: (b) A, B and C only
A. This brings out the Dalit reality which is liminal in time (c) A, C and E only
and space. (d) B, C and D only
B. This has unique historical and ideological concerns.
C. This offers literary and cultural representations of Q32. Which among the following writers are popular for
marginalized and dispossessed people. partition narratives?
D. This brings out narratives and discourses of pity. A. Krishna Sobti
B. Shashi Deshpande
E. It uses disrespectful and offensive language towards
C. Saros Cowasjee
revered figures.
D. Bharti Mukherjee
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
E. Rahi Masoom Raza
given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B and D only (c) A, C and E only
(d) A, C and E only (d) C, D and E only

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Q33. Which among the following is not written by a Q37. Which of the following is not true about Raymond
sportsperson? Williams’ views on culture?
(a) Open: An Autobiography (a) Culture is ordinary
(b) Unbreakable: An Autobiography (b) Culture is a whole way of life
(c) Playing It My Way: My Autobiography (c) The masses do not participate in the creation of cultural
(d) A Country Called Childhood: A Memoir values
(d) There exists at least three layers of a culture at a given
Q34. Which of the following characteristic of She Stoops to point of time in a society –dominant, residual and
Conquer is not correct? emergent
(a) It is endowed with an ingenious and lively plot.
(b) It does not cast excellent characters. Q38. Which work of Francis Bacon explains the new logic
(c) It has a vivacious and delightful style. or inductive method of reasoning?
(d) It lacks the Restoration grossness. (a) A pophthegms
(b) The Hisoty of Henry VII
Q35. Choose the correct option in the light of the following (c) Novum Organum
statement: (d) De Augmentis Scientiarum
“The fact that I am a black working-class man will
determine my worldview just as much, and perhaps far Q39. Arrange the following texts chronologically:
more than I consciously learn in the domain of ideas.” A. Bharat’s Natyashastra
A. Man is capable of making free choices in the sphere of B. Kshemendra’s Aucityavicharacharcha
intellection and morality. C. Bhamah’s Kavyalankara
B. The unconscious determines human thought and D. Kuntak’s Vakroktijivitam
behavior E. Anandavardhan’s Dhvanyaloka
C. Man is condemned to be free Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
D. We bear a form of “otherness” within ourselves (a) A, E, C, D, E
E. We can no longer talk unequivocally of a writer’s (b) A, C, D, E, B
intention. (c) A, C, E, D, B
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options (d) B, A, C, E, D
given below:
(a) B, D and E only Q40. Match List –I with List –II
(b) A, B and C only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) A, B and E only

Q36. Which among the following statements are true?

A. Miscegenation is a sexual relationship or marriage Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
between the people of the same race (a) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
B. Creole is a language that has evolved from the pidgin but (b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
serves as the native language of a speech community (c) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
C. Indian tribal people are popularly termed as aboriginals (d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
D. Mulatto is a person of mixed white and black ancestry
E. Australian indigenous population is termed as Red Q41. According to Sigmund Freud, civilization is to some
Indians extent the cumulative product of our psychology. Choose
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options the correct option(s):
given below: A. The purpose of human life is the pursuit of happiness.
(a) A and E only B. Man is wholly good.
(b) B and C only C. Abolition of private property will remove ill-will and
(c) C and D only hostility among men.
(d) B and D only D. Creative art reflects the purpose of humans life.
E. Civilization is analogous with the human psyche.

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Choose the most appropriate answer from the options Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
given below: (a) A and C only
(a) C, D and E only (b) C and D only
(b) B, C and D only (c) A and B only
(c) A, D and E only (d) D and E only
(d) A, B and C only
Q47. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Q42. Which of the following novels of Thomas Hardy was Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
first published in an abridged form as Hearts Insurgent? Assertion (A):Toni Morrison and Adrienne Rich have
(a) The Mayor of Casterbridge contributed to a distinctive style.
(b) Jude the Obscure Reason (R): Feminism, Adrienne Rich observes, is the field
(c) Far From the Madding Crowd where “subjectivity and politics have to come together” in
(d) The Return of the Native the most natural way.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
Q43. Which among the following statements are true about appropriate answer from the options given below:
Emily Bronte’s Wuthering Heights?
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
A. This novel was published in 1847.
explanation of A
B. Emily Bronte published this novel under the pseudonym
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct
Ellis Bell.
explanation of A
C. Lockwood and Catherine Linton are the main narrators
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
of the story.
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
D. The novel is unique for its abstention from authorial
intrusion, unusual structure and narrative technique.
E. Wuthering Heights was the third novel of Emily Bronte. Q48. Arrange the chronological sequence in which the
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: following works were published:
(a) B, C and D only A. Culture and Society
(b) A, B and C only B. Culture and Anarchy
(c) A, B and D only C. To Hell with Culture
(d) C, D and E only D. Studies in Dying Culture
E. Note towards the Definition of Culture
Q44. Which among the following is not a character from Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Jane Austen’s novel Persuasion? (a) E, B, A, D, C
(a) Sir Walter Elliot (b) C, E, D, B,A
(b) Lady Russell (c) B, D, E, A, C
(c) Miss Crawford (d) B, A, D, C, E
(d) Frederick Wentworth
Q49. Which of the following assumptions are true in the
Q45. Which among the following writers remarked that “I context of New Criticism?
know of no more encouraging fact than the unquestionable A. The new movement in literature popularized closed
ability of man to elevate his life by a conscious endeavor”? reading of the text.
(a) Henry David Thoreau B. The leading critics of New Criticism are Allen Tate,
(b) Ralph Waldo Emerson Robert Penn Warren, R.P. Blackmur and Kenneth Burke.
(c) Henry James C. The critical approach is extensively used in the study of
(d) Emily Dickinson novels and plays.
D. This critical approach tends to discredit historical, social
Q46. Which of the following is true about Samuel Beckett’s and political contexts of a work of literature.
Waiting for Godot? E. J. C. Ransom published a book New Criticism wherein he
A. It illustrates vanity of human kind. appreciates I. A. Richards, William Empson and T. S. Eliot.
B. It has uncompromising views on humanitarian Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
communism. (a) A, B and C only
C. It projects self-deception, striving to disguise failure. (b) B, C and D only
D. It is a static representation without structure or
(c) C, D and E only
development.
(d) A, B and D only
E. It’s incoherent dialogue suggests despair of a society.

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Q50. Which among the following are the titles of the Q55. According to Greek Mythology, who is a Psyche in
periodicals? John Keats’ “Ode to Psyche”?
A. Dickens’ Household Words (a) A mortal woman
B. S.T. Coleridge’ Friend (b) Cupid
C. Richard Steel’s Guardian (c) An immortal woman
D. Franz Kafka’s The Metamorphosis (d) Venus
E. Leigh Hunt’s Indicator
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Q56. The essay “Discourse in the Novel” discusses that the
(a) A and B only novel is constituted by a multiplicity of divergent and
(b) B and C only
contending social voices. Who is the author of this essay?
(c) A, B, C and E only
(a) E.M. Forster
(d) C, D and E only
(b) Mikhail Bakhtin
Q51. Who among the following described drama in the (c) Dostoevsky
following words? (d) Edgar Allan Poe
“A true play is three dimensional; it is literature that walks
and talks before our eyes.” Q57. What does aptly define minor literature, according to
(a) Marjorie Boulton Giles Deleuze?
(b) Allardyce Nicoll (a) Deconstruction of Material Reality
(c) G.B. Shaw (b) Deterritorialisation of language
(d) Arthur Miller (c) Heteroglossia
(d) Metanarrative
Q52. “Did not Shakespeare hate and despise Iago and
Edmund?” Q58. In Antonio Gramsci’s definition of intellectual, which
Identify the book in which this question has been is the correct option?
mentioned. A. Every social group joining the world of production
(a) An Apology for Poetry creates organically a strata of intellectuals.
(b) Kings of Norway B. Intellectuals give homogeneity and awareness of a social
(c) Fool of Quality group’s function in all the fields.
(d) Aspects of Poetry
C. Intellectuals do not work for consolidating the power of
a social group.
Q53. “Being a white man, in short, was a very concrete
D. The category of ecclesiastics is organically bound to the
manner of being-in-the-world, a way of taking hold of
reality, language and thought.” bourgeoisie.
What does the theorist signify by the term ‘white man’ E. The monopoly held by the ecclesiastics in the
here? superstructural domain was not exercised without a
(a) A dominating man contestation.
(b) A megalomaniac Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(c) A man with double consciousness (a) A, B and C only
(d) A form of colonial authority (b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B and E only
Q54. Match List –I with List –II (d) C, D and E only

Q59. Which of the following assertions is/are not true in

the context of culture industry?
A. The term ‘culture industry’ was used by the Frankfurt
School to describe the operations of mass media.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: B. The dominant capitalist class instils its values and beliefs
(a) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III in the minds of the working-class people.
(b) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV C. The word ‘industry’ signifies the production of cultural
(c) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III products for mass consumption.
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I D. The authentic culture arising from the working class is
preserved and protected.
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E. The mass culture thus produced induces activism and Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
critical thinking among the youth. given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (a) A, B and C only
(a) D and A only (b) A, C and D only
(b) E and B only (c) C, D and E only
(c) B and C only (d) B, D and E only
(d) D and E only
Q63. Given below are two statements:
Q60. Which of the following statements/concepts are Statements I: A Room of One’s Own is a feminist essay
about women’s education, exclusion and writing by
relevant for understanding of Postmodernism?
Virginia Woolf.
A. Postmodernism and Postcolonialism are mutually
Statements II: In Other Worlds is a collection of essays
dependent in responding to colonial experience.
written by Edward W. Said on contemporary ideas such as
B. Lyotard argues that the Postmodern condition is
psychoanalysis and social theory
characterized by a deeply felt skepticism towards In the light of the above statements, choose the most
metanarratives. appropriate answer from the options given below:
C. Edward W. Said has been instrumental in postmodern (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
theory and criticism. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
D. Jean Baudrillard’s Simulacra and Simulations is a (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
seminal postmodern text. (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
E. Fredric Jameson argues that parody has been replaced
by pastiche in postmodernism. Q64. Match List –I with List –II
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) B, D and E only
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(b) A, B and D only (a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(c) B, C and E only (b) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(d) C, D and E only (c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(d) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Q61. Given below are two statements:
Statements I: Non-fictional narrative Follow the Rabbit- Q65. Arrange the chronological sequence in which the
Proof Fence by Doris Pilkington is based on the real life following works of Richard Hoggart were published:
experiences of three aboriginal girls who fled from the A. An Imagined Life
Moore River Native Settlement. B. The Uses of Literacy
Statements II: The names of the three girls are-Molly, Daisy C. Higher Education: Demand and Response
and Mary. D. A Local Habitation
In the light of the above statements, choose the most E. A Sort of Clowning
appropriate answer from the options given below: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (a) A, B, D, E, C
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (b) D, B, C, A, E
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (c) B, E, A, C, D
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (d) B, C, D, E, A

Q66. Identify the correct option(s) in the theorization of

Q62. Choose the correct option(s) in the New Historicist
nation by Homi K. Bhabha.
reading of Dalit writing:
A. Nation arises from similarities among people.
A. Dalit writing does not essentialise Indian society, culture
B. Nationalist representation is defined by ambivalence.
and identity. C. Nationalist representation engages with two
B. Dalit writing has inflected the immanent metanarratives. contradictory modes of representation
C. There is no single location of Dalit writing. D. Nationalist discourses are split by a disruptive double-
D. Dalit writing is only a political category. narrative movement
E. Dalit writing is not grounded in history. E. Nation is a stable and fixed category
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Choose the most appropriate answer from the options Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
given below: (a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(a) A, B and C only (b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) B, C and E only (c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(c) B, C and D only (d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(d) C, D and E only
Q72. Which of the following qualities of heroic treatment
Q67. “All happy families are alike; every unhappy family is was not needed in the plays of the University Wits?
(a) Splendid descriptions
unhappy in its own way.”
(b) Long swelling speeches
It is the opening line of the novel:
(c) The handling of violent incidents and emotions
(a) Anna Karenina
(d) Lives of common figures
(b) War and Peace
(c) Nineteen Eighty Four Q73. The Calcutta Chromosome (1995) is a novel exploring
(d) Jane Eyre past and future. It has been written by:
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
Q68. Which one of these is not a literary (b) Amitav Ghosh
journal/magazine? (c) Raja Rao
(a) The Egoist (d) Mulkraj Anand
(b) The Criterion
(c) The English Review Q74. Indicate the correct chronological order of
(d) The Hundred and One Dalmatians publication of the following literary works:
A. Beowulf
Q69. Match List –I with List –II B. Divina Commedia
C. Summa Theologica
D. Le Morte d’ Arthur
E. Canterbury Tales
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, A, C, D, E
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (b) A, C, B, E, D
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (c) C, A, D, E, B
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (d) D, A, E, C, B
(c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(d) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV Q75. Use of broader principle of research underscored by
philosophical rationales is termed as:
(a) Research Methods
Q70. Which among the following statement is not true
(b) Research Tools
about NEP-2020?
(c) Research Techniques
(a) NEP-2020 recommends that there should be high (d) Research Methodology
quality learning and print material in Indian languages.
(b) The Policy recommends early implementation of three- Q76. Who of the following was the immediate predecessor
language formulae to promoter multilingualism of the drama proper?
(c) The Policy recommends that English language should (a) The Interlude
be the only medium of instruction at elementary level (b) The Morality Play
(d) The Policy recommends teaching in local language (c) The Miracle Play
wherever possible (d) The Liturgical Play

Q71. Match List –I with List –II Q77. Match List –I with List –II

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Q82. Name the author/writer who is not associated with
(a) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV British Cultural Studies.
(b) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (a) I.A.Richards
(c) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (b) Richard Hoggart
(d) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (c) Raymond Williams
(d) Stuart Hall
Q78. Identify the correct order of the publications given
below:
A. Simon Gikandi’s Maps of Englishness: Writing Identify in Q83. Who among the following is the earliest available
the Culture of Colonialism Indian dramatist?
B. Frantz Fanon’s True Wretched of the Earth (a) Bhavabhuti
C. Homi K. Bhabha’s Nation and Narration (b) Kalidas
D. Ernest Gellner’s Nations and Nationalisms (c) Bhasa
E. Robert Young’s Colonial Desire: Hybridity in Theory, (d) Rajashekhar
Culture and Race
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q84. Which of the following is true about Tennesses
(a) B, D, E, C, A
(b) A, B, C, D, E Williams’ A Street Car Named Desire?
(c) A, C, D, E, B A. It is set in New Orleans.
(d) B, D, C, E, A B. The protagonist is a Mississippi landowner.
C. It ends with Blanche’s defeat and departure.
Q79. Identify the correct option in Julia Kristeva’s D. Tom Wingfield is the narrator.
definition of ‘chora’: E. Laura and Stella are cousins.
A. Liminal Space Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
B. Space of the marginalised (a) A and D only
C. Non-expressive totality created by the bodily drives
(b) A and C only
D. The chora has no fixed identity
(c) B and C only
E. It precedes the linguistic sign
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options (d) B and E only
given below;
(a) A, B and E only Q85. Which of the following statement(s) best describe
(b) C, D and E only Anna Karenina’s situation and worldview?
(c) A, C and D only A. Anna is deeply committed to the family and children
(d) A, B and C only B. Anna’s choices were more an outcome of passion and
instinct
Q80. Match List –I with List –II C. Anna accepted the exile to which she was condemned
D. Anna’s passionate spirit and determination to live life at
her own terms make her so unique
E. She became a victim of rampant patriarchal forces
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: given below:
(a) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (a) A, C and D only
(b) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (b) A, B and E only
(c) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (c) A, D and E only
(d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (d) A, B and D only

Q81. Prose romances preceded the emergence of novel as Q86. “An Introduction” by Kamla Das is:
a popular literary genre. Which texts among the following (a) A short story on the theme of people’s rights and
fall under the category of Prose Romance?
freedom
(a) The Pilgrim’s Progress and The Spectator
(b) Oroonoko and The Fair Jilt (b) An introduction to her autobiography My Story
(c) Pamela and Clarissa (c) A poem of resistance and protest
(d) Amelia and Ferdinand, Count Fathom (d) An essay on the theme of gender rights

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Q87. Edgar Allan Poe is often called as the originator of the Q93. The poem is an example of:
short story as an established genre. (a) Parampariterupaka (consequential metaphor) because
He defined ‘the prose tale’ as: here the superimposition, undermined by a resemblance,
(a) A narrative which can be read at one sitting of from half is the cause of another superimposition.
an hour to two hours. (b) Nirangarupaka (entire metaphor) because here
(b) A narrative which can be read within five minutes or upameya is superimposed by upaman together with its
less. subordinate parts.
(c) A narrative that can be read at one sitting of from one (c) Malarupaka (deficient metaphorserial) because here
hour four hours. upameya is superimposed by serial of upamanas.
(d) A narrative that may be concluded and enjoyed in the (d) Mishritarupaka (mixed metaphor) because here the
single spell of less than half an hour. common attribute, the words implying comparison,
upaman and upameya, all are expressed.
Q88. ‘Panopticism’ is a concept that refers to external
spying. Who among the following coined this term? Q94. What is upmana (object compared to) in the poem?
(a) Antonio Gramsci (a) Addressee
(b) Michel Foucault (b) Rough winds
(c) Slavoj Zizek (c) Buds of May
(d) Roland Barthes (d) Summer’s day

Q89. The term ‘gynocriticism’ refers to: Q95. Which of the following statements rightly shows the
(a) Feminist consciousness relationship of upameya with upamana in the poem:
(b) Production of writings on women by men (a) Upameya is superior to upamana
(c) Analysis of andro texts (b) upamana is superior to upameya
(d) Production and analysis of writings by women on (c) Both upmana and upameya are equal
women (d) Both are governed by position and superimposition

Q90. Which two cities are referred in Charles Dickens’ A Directions (96-100): Comprehension:
Tale of Two Cities? Read the following passage and answer the questions that
(a) Paris and Venice follow:
(b) Venice and Florence Some sort of parallel may be found in the way logical
(c) London and Paris connectives are usually unnecessary and often misleading,
(d) London and Birmingham because too simple. Omitting an adjective one would need
‘therefore’ stressing the adjective ‘although’; both logical
Directions(91-95): Comprehension: connections are implied if the sentences are just put after
Read the following stanza and answer the questions that another. In the same way, people are accustomed to judge
follow: automatically the forces that hold together a variety of
Shall I compare thee to a Summer’s day ideas; they feel they know about the forces, if they have
Thou art more lovely and more temperate: analysed the ideas; many forces, indeed, are covertly
Rough winds do shake the darling buds of May’ included within ideas; and so of the two elements, each of
And Summer’s lease hath all too short a date. which defines the other, it is much easier to find words for
Sometimes too hot the eye to heaven shines, the ideas than for the forces. Most of the ambiguities I have
And often is his gold complexion dimm’d. considered here seem to me beautiful; I consider, than, that
I have shown by example, in showing the nature of the
Q91. What is upmeya (object compared) in the poem? ambiguity, the nature of the forces which are adequate to
(a) Addressee hold it together. It would seem very artificial to do it the
(b) Rough winds other way round, and very tedious to do it both ways at
(c) Buds of May once. I wish only, then, to say here that such vaguely
(d) Summer’s day imagined ‘forces’ are essential to the totality of a poem and
they cannot be discussed in terms of ambiguity, because
Q92. What is the addressee in the poem? they are complementary to it. But by discussing
(a) Feminine gender ‘ambiguity’, a great deal may be made clear about them. In
(b) Masculine gender particular, if there is contradiction, the greater the tension;
(c) Common gender in some way other than by the contradiction, the tension
(d) Neutral gender must be conveyed, and must be sustained.

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Q96. What is the possibility in the analysis of a poem, if the (c) Forces and ambiguity are complementary to it
forces are included in the ideas? (d) Many force are included within the ideas
(a) The ideas can be defined easily.
(b) The forces can be defined easily. Q99. Why does the author say that “the tension must be
(c) Both the ideas and the forces can be defined easily. conveyed and must be sustained”?
(d) It is difficult to define both the ideas and the forces. (a) Because it is unnecessary and often misleading
(b) Because it is too simple
Q97. What does the term “logical connectives” mean? (c) Because tension is often an important clue to the
(a) The nature of ambiguity meaning of a poem
(b) The logical content
(d) Because it is impregnated with adjectives
(c) The statement of logical form in addition to logical
context
(d) The statement of logical form Q100. It is easy to find words for ideas than for forces
because:
Q98. Which of the following is not correct in relation to a (a) Ideas are embedded in forces
poem? (b) Forces are embedded in ideas
(a) Forces are indispensable for the totality of a poem (c) Two elements are synonymously defined
(b) Forces can be discussed in terms of ambiguity (d) Forces are abstract

Solutions
S1. Ans.(d) was published in 2011. This sequence reflects the
Sol. The correct answer is (d). E.M. Forster, in his work chronological progression of these influential works in
"Aspects of the Novel," discusses various aspects such as their respective fields, with Gandhi's work predating
Story, Plot, and Prophecy that contribute to the creation Foucault's, followed by Bennett, Haraway, and finally
and understanding of novels. He did not specifically Greenblatt.
mention imagination as one of the aspects of the novel in
his works like "Aspects of the Novel." Also, Harmony is not S4. Ans.(a)
mentioned as an aspect of the novel in the context of Sol. The correct answer is (a). Both Assertion (A) and
Forster's analysis. He considers universal aspects of the Reason (R) are correct, and R provides a correct
novel - story, characters, plot, fantasy, prophecy, pattern, explanation of A. In his work, Michel Foucault
and rhythm. conceptualizes discourses as not only cultural and social
practices but also as the material manifestation of thought
S2. Ans.(b) that influences subjectivity. Foucault emphasizes how
Sol. The correct answer is (b). Roland Barthes, in his discourses, through power structures and mechanisms,
"Introduction to the Structural Analysis of Narratives" shape one’s understanding of reality and construct one’s
(1966), proposed three levels of narrative structure: identity within society. Therefore, Reason (R) effectively
functions, actions, and narration. Functions refer to the elucidates assertion (A) by highlighting Foucault's
roles played by characters within the narrative. Actions are definition of discourse and its intricate relationship with
the events that occur within the story. Narration refers to psychic and physical reality.
the way the story is told, including the perspective and
style of the narrator. These three elements form the S5. Ans.(b)
foundational framework through which narratives are Sol. The correct answer is (b). The opening lines, "I am a
constructed and understood, providing insights into the sick man... I am a spiteful man. I am an unattractive man. I
underlying structures and meanings within literary texts. think my liver is diseased," are from Fyodor Dostoevsky's
"Notes from Underground." This classic work, published in
S3. Ans.(b) 1864, delves into the psyche of a deeply alienated and
cynical narrator known as the Underground Man. Through
Sol. The correct answer is (b). The correct chronological
these introspective and self-deprecating lines, Dostoevsky
order of the publication dates is B, A, E, D, C. M.K. Gandhi's
sets the tone for the novel, exploring themes of
"Hind Swaraj or The Indian Home Rule" was published in
existentialism, human nature, and the complexities of
1909. Michel Foucault's "The Order of Things" was
consciousness in society. The disillusionment of the
published in 1966. Tony Bennett's "Formalism and
narrator with himself and the world around him lays the
Marxism" was published in 1979. Donna Haraway's "When
groundwork for a profound exploration of the human
Species Meet" was published in 2008. Lastly, Stephen condition throughout the narrative.
Greenblatt's "The Swerve: How the World Became Modern"
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S6. Ans.(a) officials in Vichy France during World War II. The play
Sol. The correct answer is (a). The correct matching of delves into themes of oppression, complicity, and the
terms with the respective creators who coined them is A- moral dilemmas faced by individuals in the face of
III, B-II, C-I, D-IV. Heteroglossia, which refers to the authoritarian regimes.
coexistence of diverse linguistic and cultural voices within
a text, was coined by Mikhail Bakhtin. Structures of Feeling, S10. Ans.(c)
a concept describing the cultural mood or atmosphere of a Sol. The correct answer is (c). The valid statements for
particular historical moment, was introduced by Raymond postcolonial theory and literature are:
Williams. Ambiguity, the presence of multiple possible A. "Abrogation, resistance, and assertion form the basis of
meanings within a text, was identified by William Empson. postcolonial thought." Postcolonial theory focuses on
Discourse, the system of language and power relations examining how colonized peoples resist and assert their
governing social practices, was elaborated upon by Michel identities and cultures in the face of colonial domination.
Foucault. C. "Weep Not, Child is the first novel in English by an East
African Written, Ngugi Wa Thiong’O." This statement is
S7. Ans.(d) true. Ngugi wa Thiong'o's "Weep Not, Child," published in
Sol. The correct answer is (d). The poem "When We Two 1964, is considered one of the earliest novels in English by
Parted" has not been composed by P.B. Shelley. This poem an East African writer and is an important work in the
was written by Lord Byron, another prominent Romantic development of African literature.
poet, known for his introspective and emotionally charged E. "Homi K. Bhabha, Edward W. Said, and Gayatri Spivak are
works. "When We Two Parted" explores themes of lost love important postcolonial thinkers." These scholars are
and betrayal, showcasing Byron's skill in evoking deep significant figures in the field of postcolonial studies. Homi
emotions through poetic expression. On the other hand, K. Bhabha's concepts of hybridity and mimicry, Edward W.
P.B. Shelley is renowned for poems such as "To Said's influential work "Orientalism," and Gayatri Spivak's
Wordsworth," "Mutability," and "Hymn to Intellectual theories on subaltern studies have all made significant
Beauty," which reflect his distinctive style characterized by contributions to postcolonial thought and literature.
idealism, lyricism, and social critique.
S11. Ans.(a)
S8. Ans.(c) Sol. The correct answer is (a). The statement that is not
Sol. The correct answer is (c). The statement states that the true about Anna Karenina is (a) "The novel was published
storyline traces three generations of the Brangwen family in 1872." Anna Karenina was published in 1878. Written by
is incorrect because D.H. Lawrence's novel Sons and Lovers Leo Tolstoy, this iconic work is renowned for its exploration
does not trace the story of three generations of the of themes such as love, morality, and societal norms within
Brangwen family. The Brangwen family is featured in Russian society. The novel's publication in 1878 marked a
Lawrence's earlier novel The Rainbow, but not in Sons and significant moment in Russian literature, as it offered a
Lovers. Sons and Lovers is a semi-autobiographical novel nuanced portrayal of its characters and challenged
that revolves around the Morel family, particularly the conventional literary conventions of the time.
protagonist Paul Morel and his relationships with his
mother Gertrude and the two women he loves, Miriam and S12. Ans.(b)
Clara. Sol. The correct answer is (b). The correct definition of a
portmanteau is (b) "A word that results from blending two
S9. Ans.(c) or more words or parts of words." In linguistics, a
Sol. The correct answer is (c). The true statements about portmanteau word is created by combining the sounds and
Arthur Miller's plays are (A) "After the Fall is a semi- meanings of two or more distinct words to form a new
autobiographical play" and (B) "Incident of Vichy deals word. This process often involves overlapping or merging
with Nazi prosecution of the Jews." "After the Fall," written parts of the original words to create a single, compact term
by Arthur Miller in 1964, is a semi-autobiographical play that encapsulates the meanings of its components. Famous
that explores themes of guilt, personal responsibility, and examples of portmanteau words include "brunch"
the complexities of human relationships. It draws heavily (breakfast + lunch), "smog" (smoke + fog), and "motel"
from Miller's own experiences and relationships, (motor + hotel). Portmanteaus are commonly used in
particularly his marriage to Marilyn Monroe. "Incident at language to coin new terms, streamline expressions, and
Vichy," another of Miller's works, written in 1964, centers convey complex ideas efficiently.
on a group of detainees awaiting inspection by Nazi
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S13. Ans.(c) S18. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct answer is (c). The term "simulacra" in Sol. The correct answer is (c). The statement "There is no
postmodern discourse refers to option (c) - A and B only, longer any intellectual life in England" was declared by
which describes both the absence of vivid representation Ezra Pound in 1920. Pound, an American expatriate poet
of reality and the phenomenon of artificially produced and critic, made this remark during his time in England,
reality being perceived as authentic. In postmodern reflecting his disillusionment with the state of intellectual
thought, simulacra are representations or copies that have and cultural affairs in the country. He was known for his
lost their connection to the original reality they are meant strong opinions and critiques of contemporary society and
to depict. This concept highlights the proliferation of
literature.
images and symbols in contemporary society, where
artificial constructs often substitute or overshadow
genuine experiences, leading to a blurring of boundaries S19. Ans.(a) (two options in the key)
between reality and simulation. Sol. The correct answer is (a). The text taken as a short
treatise on Transcendentalism is Emerson’s "Nature."
S14. Ans.(d) Published in 1836, "Nature" is considered one of the
Sol. The correct answer is (d). Bharata's Natya Shastra foundational texts of Transcendentalism, articulating key
discusses various forms of drama, and among them, the concepts and beliefs of the movement. In this essay, Ralph
"Dasarupakas" or ten major forms of drama are recognized. Waldo Emerson explores the interconnectedness between
These ten forms include Natya (dramatic performance), humanity, nature, and the divine, advocating for self-
Prakarana (drama), Vyayoga (farce), Bhana (monologue), reliance, intuition, and spiritual exploration. While other
Prahasana (comic drama), Attahasa (fantastic farce), works by authors like Thoreau and Whitman also reflect
Sadvara (dramatic representation of an incident in which Transcendentalist ideals, "Nature" is often regarded as the
one or more of the six elements are present), Vīthī (street quintessential expression of Transcendentalist philosophy.
play), Dīvyavahana (divine drama), and Utsrstikankanaka
(small farce). S20. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct answer is (c). Antonio Gramsci’s Prison
S15. Ans.(c)
Notebooks primarily deals with: Philosophy, culture,
Sol. The correct answer is (c). The chronological order of
literature, and the role of intellectuals. Gramsci's Prison
the date & year of publication for the given books is as
follows: Notebooks, written while he was imprisoned by the fascist
C. V.S. Naipaul’s India: A Wounded Civilisation (1976) regime in Italy, contain his reflections on various aspects of
E. Salman Rushdie’s Midnight’s Children (1981) society, politics, and culture. He explores topics such as
A. Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni’s The Mistress of Spices hegemony, ideology, the role of intellectuals, and the
(1997) relationship between culture and power.
D. Bharati Mukherjee’s Desirable Daughters (2002)
B. Anand Giridhardas’s India Calling: An Intimate Portrait S21. Ans.(d) (two options in the key)
of a Nation’s Remaking (2011) Sol. The correct answer is (d). In absurd Theatre, the
Therefore, the correct order is C, E, A, D, and B. characters often use disjointed, repetitive, and cliched
speech to: Illustrate the illogical and purposelessness of the
S16. Ans.(d) human condition. This is because absurd theater aims to
depict the inherent absurdity and meaninglessness of
S17. Ans.(b) human existence. The disjointed and repetitive speech
Sol. The correct answer is (b). The correct order of
patterns of the characters serve to emphasize the
publication of the novels of Charles Dickens is - C, D, B, E, A.
confusion, futility, and lack of coherence in their lives and
"Oliver Twist" was published in 1838, followed by "David
interactions.
Copperfield" in 1850, "Hard Times" in 1854, "A Tale of Two
Cities" in 1859, and "Great Expectations" in 1861. This
sequence reflects the chronological progression of S22. Ans.(a)
Dickens's literary career, showcasing the evolution of his Sol. The correct answer is (a). Both Assertion (A) and
storytelling style and thematic exploration over time. Each Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) correctly explains
novel contributes uniquely to Dickens's body of work, Assertion (A). It can be proved that culture is one of the
addressing social issues and human experiences with most complicated words in the English language, as it
depth and insight. encompasses a wide range of meanings and
interpretations. This complexity arises from the fact that
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culture has evolved, with various meanings emerging and S27. Ans.(d)
intertwining at different historical moments. These Sol. The correct answer is (d). The correct match between
meanings are often related but can also diverge List I and List II is:
significantly, contributing to the richness and intricacy of A. Ambivalence - III. Complex mix of attraction and
the concept of culture. Therefore, the assertion that culture repulsion
is complicated is supported by the reason that multiple B. Magic Realism - IV. Inclusion of fantastic or mythical
elements into seemingly realistic fiction
related meanings have emerged throughout its long
C. Abrogation - I. Rejection of normative concept of ‘correct’
history, leading to its complexity.
or ‘standard’ English
D. Miscegenation - II. Marriage of cohabitation by persons
S23. Ans.(b) of different race
Sol. The correct answer is (b). The poet of the following Therefore, the correct answer is (d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.
poems is - (b) John Clare:
A. The Skylark B. The Badger C. The Gypsy Camp D. First S28. Ans.(a)
Love Sol. The correct answer is (a). The most appropriate
answer is A, B, and C only.
John Clare, an English poet known for his nature poetry
Sharankumar Limbale argues that Dalit literature is unique
and depiction of rural life, authored these works. because it brings out the Dalit reality, which is liminal in
time and space (A), it has unique historical and ideological
S24. Ans.(c) concerns (B), and it offers literary and cultural
Sol. The correct answer is (c). Virginia Woolf discussed the representations of marginalized and dispossessed people
idea that "All writers since Chaucer have come from the (C). These aspects distinguish Dalit literature from
mainstream literature and highlight its significance in
middle class… have had good, at least expensive
portraying the experiences and perspectives of oppressed
education…" in her essay titled "The Leaning Tower." This communities.
essay is part of her collection of literary essays, "The
Common Reader," where she explores various aspects of S29. Ans.(a)
literature and literary criticism. Sol. The correct answer is (a). The correct match between
List I and List II is:
S25. Ans.(d) A. The Castle of Otranto - IV. A Gothic Story
B. Tess of the d’Urbervilles - I. A Pure Woman
Sol. The correct answer is (d). Stanley Fish is not associated
C. Frankenstein - II. The Modern Prometheus
with Cultural Imperialism. Jonathan Dollimore and Alan D. Vanity Fair - III. A Novel without A Hero
Sinfield are known for their work in cultural studies, Therefore, the correct answer is (a) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III.
particularly in critiquing dominant cultural narratives and
structures, which can include discussions of cultural S30. Ans.(b)
imperialism. Raymond Williams, a prominent cultural Sol. The correct answer is (b). William Blake, the English
poet, artist, and printmaker, is the author of the mentioned
theorist, has also explored the concept of cultural
poems: "The Divine Image," "The Holy Thursday," "The
imperialism in his writings. However, Stanley Fish is more Little Boy Lost," and "The Little Boy Found." Blake was a
closely associated with literary theory, particularly reader- visionary poet known for his mystical and symbolic works
response criticism and interpretive communities, rather that explore themes of spirituality, innocence, and the
than the critique of cultural imperialism. human condition. "The Divine Image" reflects Blake's belief
in the inherent goodness and divine qualities present in
S26. Ans.(c) every human being. "The Holy Thursday" portrays the
innocence and purity of children and their potential for
Sol. The correct answer is (c). The correct chronological spiritual elevation. "The Little Boy Lost" and "The Little
order of publication for the texts given under is: Boy Found" are part of Blake's collection "Songs of
C. Raja Rao’s Kanthapura (1938) Innocence," where he explores the loss and rediscovery of
A. R. K. Narayan’s The Financial Expert (1952) innocence. Through his poetic imagery and lyrical
B. Manohar Malgonkar’s A Bend in the Ganges (1964) language, Blake delves into profound philosophical and
D. Shashi Tharoor’s The Great Indian Novel (1989) spiritual questions, making him one of the most significant
figures of English Romanticism. Therefore, the attribution
E. Arundhati Roy’s The God of Small Things (1997)
of these poems to William Blake is accurate.

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S31. Ans.(d) S36. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct answer is (d). The most appropriate Sol. The correct answer is (d). The true statements are:
answer is: B, C, and D only B. Creole is a language that has evolved from the pidgin but
Edward Said's "Orientalism" utilizes the concept of serves as the native language of a speech community.
discursive formulation as argued by Foucault (B), takes up D. Mulatto is a person of mixed white and black ancestry.
a detailed analysis of imaginative geography and Creole languages emerge from pidgin languages but evolve
representation of the Orient (C), and is one of the into fully developed languages used as the native tongue of
foundational texts of Postcolonial theory published in a community (B). Mulatto refers to an individual of mixed
1978 (D). Therefore, options B, C, and D are true of Edward white and black ancestry (D).
Said's "Orientalism."
S37. Ans.(c)
S32. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct option is (c). The statement that is not true
Sol. The correct answer is (c). Krishna Sobti, Saros
about Raymond Williams’ views on culture is that the
Cowasjee, and Rahi Masoom Raza are popular for their
partition narratives. These writers have explored the masses do not participate in the creation of cultural values.
complexities and human experiences associated with the Raymond Williams emphasized the active participation of
partition of India in their works. Shashi Deshpande and the masses in the creation and shaping of cultural values.
Bharti Mukherjee, while notable authors in their own right, He argued that culture is not solely determined by elite or
are not primarily known for their writings on partition dominant groups but is instead a product of the collective
narratives. experiences and practices of society, including those of
ordinary people.
S33. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct answer is (d). The book "A Country Called S38. Ans.(c)
Childhood: A Memoir" is not written by a sportsperson. Sol. The correct option is (c). Novum Organum, written by
(a) "Open: An Autobiography" is written by tennis player Francis Bacon, introduces the new logic or inductive
Andre Agassi. method of reasoning, which aimed to revolutionize the
(b) "Unbreakable: An Autobiography" is written by process of scientific inquiry. Bacon advocated for
wrestlers Mary Kom and Dina Serto. systematic observation, experimentation, and empirical
(c) "Playing It My Way: My Autobiography" is written by evidence as the foundation of knowledge acquisition,
cricketer Sachin Tendulkar and Boria Majumdar. departing from the traditional deductive methods
prevalent at the time. In Novum Organum, Bacon outlines
S34. Ans.(b) the principles of induction, emphasizing the importance of
Sol. The correct answer is (b). The characteristic of She gathering data from the natural world and deriving general
Stoops to Conquer that is not correct is that it does not cast principles based on observed patterns and phenomena.
excellent characters.
This work laid the groundwork for the scientific method,
In reality, She Stoops to Conquer is known for its excellent
shaping the development of modern science and
and memorable characters, including Tony Lumpkin, Mrs.
empiricism.
Hardcastle, Marlow, Hastings, and Kate Hardcastle. These
characters contribute to the comedic and engaging nature
of the play. S39. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct option is (c). The correct chronological
S35. Ans.(a) order is:
Sol. The correct answer is (a). The most appropriate A. Bharat’s Natyashastra - Estimated to have been
answer is B, D, and E only. The statement suggests that the composed between the 2nd century BCE and 2nd century
unconscious (B) plays a significant role in determining CE.
human thought and behavior, as indicated by the influence C. Bhamah’s Kavyalankara - The approximate date of
of the individual's background and experiences. The composition is around the 7th century CE.
mention of "otherness" within ourselves (D) implies an E. Anandavardhan’s Dhvanyaloka - Estimated to have been
acknowledgment of the diverse aspects of identity that written in the 9th or 10th century CE.
shape our worldview. The recognition that we can no D. Kuntak’s Vakroktijivitam - Estimated to have been
longer talk unequivocally of a writer’s intention (E) composed in the 10th century CE.
suggests an understanding of the complexities involved in B. Kshemendra’s Aucityavicharacharcha - Written in the
interpreting texts and understanding human behavior. 11th century CE.

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S40. Ans.(b) Sir Walter Elliot, Lady Russell, and Frederick Wentworth -
Sol. The correct option is (b). The correct match between are from "Persuasion."
List I and List II is:
A. “A Simple Heart” - II. Gustave Flaubert S45. Ans.(a)
B. “An Outpost of Progress” - I. Joseph Conrad Sol. The correct option is (a). Henry David Thoreau. The
C. “Six Feet of the Country” - IV. Nadine Gordimer quote "I know of no more encouraging fact than the
D. “A Horse and Two Goats” - III. R. K. Narayan unquestionable ability of man to elevate his life by a
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III. conscious endeavor" is attributed to Henry David Thoreau
from his very famous work “Walden”.. Thoreau was an
S41. Ans.(c) American essayist, poet, philosopher, and
Sol. The correct option is (c). The correct option according transcendentalist who is best known for his work
to Sigmund Freud's perspective would be: A, D, and E only. "Walden" and his essay "Civil Disobedience."
• Option A is correct because Freud believed that the
pursuit of happiness is a fundamental drive in human S46. Ans.(d)
life, as outlined in his theory of pleasure principle. Sol. The correct option is (d). The correct answer is D and
• Option D is correct because Freud argued that creative E only.
art serves as a reflection of the human psyche and can In "Waiting for Godot," Samuel Beckett presents a unique
provide insights into the unconscious mind. theatrical experience that challenges traditional narrative
• Option E is correct because Freud often compared structures. Option D, stating that the play is a static
civilization to the human psyche, suggesting that representation without structure or development, is
accurate. The plot revolves around two characters,
societal structures and norms are influenced by
Vladimir and Estragon, waiting for the arrival of someone
underlying psychological processes.
named Godot, but the play does not progress in a
traditional linear manner. It emphasizes the cyclical nature
S42. Ans.(b)
of existence, with repetitive actions and dialogue,
Sol. The correct option is (b). The correct answer is: Jude
contributing to a sense of stasis.
the Obscure. "Hearts Insurgent" was the original title under
Option E is also true. The play's dialogue often appears
which Thomas Hardy's novel "Jude the Obscure" was
fragmented and disjointed, reflecting the characters'
published in an abridged form. Later, the novel was
existential despair and the absurdity of their situation. This
published in its complete form under the title "Jude the
incoherent dialogue suggests the despair and futility
Obscure."
experienced by individuals within a society that lacks clear
meaning or direction. Beckett's use of language highlights
S43. Ans.(c)
the characters' struggle to communicate effectively and
Sol. The correct option is (c). The correct options are: A, B, their inability to find meaning in a seemingly meaningless
and D only world.
• Statement A is true. "Wuthering Heights" was
published in 1847. S47. Ans.(b)
• Statement B is true. Emily Bronte published the novel Sol. The correct option is (b). The most appropriate answer
under the pseudonym Ellis Bell. is: Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct
• Statement D is true. "Wuthering Heights" is unique for explanation of A
its abstention from authorial intrusion, unusual Assertion (A) states that Toni Morrison and Adrienne Rich
structure, and narrative technique. have contributed to a distinctive style, which is true. Both
• Statement C is false. The main narrators of "Wuthering authors are renowned for their unique and influential
Heights" are Nelly Dean and Lockwood, not Catherine writing styles.
Linton. Reason (R) mentions Adrienne Rich's observation about
feminism being the field where "subjectivity and politics
S44. Ans.(c) have to come together" naturally. This statement is correct
Sol. The correct option is (c). The correct answer is: Miss and reflects Rich's perspective on feminism, it does not
Crawford directly explain why Toni Morrison and Adrienne Rich
Miss Crawford is a character from Jane Austen's novel have contributed to a distinctive style.
"Mansfield Park," not "Persuasion." The other characters -
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S48. Ans.(c) C. Richard Steel’s Guardian: "The Guardian" was a
(b)Culture and Anarchy by Matthew Arnold, published in periodical founded by Richard Steele in 1713. It was a
1869 highly influential publication during the early 18th
(a)Culture and Society by Raymond Williams, published in century.
1958 E. Leigh Hunt’s Indicator: "The Indicator" was a periodical
(d)Studies in Dying Culture by Christopher Caudwell, edited by Leigh Hunt, published between 1819 and 1821.
published in 1938 It contained essays, reviews, and literary criticism.
(e)Note towards the Definition of Culture by T.S. Eliot,
published in 1948 S51. Ans.(a)
(c)To Hell with Culture by Herbert Read, published in 1963 Sol. The correct option is (a). Marjorie Boulton was an
English author, critic, and scholar known for her work in
S49. Ans.(d) literature and linguistics. She emphasized the dynamic and
immersive nature of drama in her description of it as
Sol. The correct option is (d). The correct answer is A, B,
"three-dimensional," implying that a play is not merely a
and D.
static written text but a living, breathing form of literature
A. This statement is true. New Criticism popularized the
that unfolds before the audience's eyes. Her description
practice of close reading of the text, emphasizing detailed
captures the essence of the theatrical experience,
analysis of the literary work itself rather than considering
highlighting how drama transcends the written word to
external factors such as the author's biography or historical
come alive on stage through the interactions of characters,
context. dialogue, and performance.
B. This statement is true. Allen Tate, Robert Penn Warren,
R.P. Blackmur, and Kenneth Burke are among the leading S52. Ans.(d)
critics associated with New Criticism. They played Sol. The correct option is (d).
significant roles in shaping and promoting the principles of
this critical approach. S53. Ans.(d)
C. This statement is false. While New Criticism had an Sol. The correct option is (d). In the given quote, the term
impact on the study of novels and plays, it was primarily "white man" is used to symbolize a specific social and
associated with the analysis of poetry. The critical historical context, particularly within colonial settings.
approach of New Criticism focused on the intricate analysis Being a "white man" implies holding a position of power
of poetic language, form, and structure. and privilege within colonial structures. It represents not
D. This statement is true. New Criticism tended to discredit just an individual's racial identity but also the systemic
or minimize the importance of historical, social, and advantages and authority associated with whiteness in
political contexts in the interpretation of a literary work. colonial societies. Therefore, the term can be interpreted
Instead, it emphasized the autonomy of the literary text as a representation of colonial authority and dominance
and the intrinsic value of its formal elements. rather than just referring to an individual's race.
E. This statement is false. John Crowe Ransom was an
American poet who coined the term "new criticism" in S54. Ans.(a)
1941. The term started to be used academically after he Sol. The correct option is (a). The correct matching would
published the book titled The New Criticism but he did not be: A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
appreciate I. A. Richards, William Empson and T. S. Eliot in A. Waiting for the Mahatma - II. R.K. Narayan (The novel
it. depicts the influence of Mahatma Gandhi's philosophy on
the protagonist's life).
B. So Many Hungers - I. Bhabani Bhattacharya (This novel
S50. Ans.(c)
explores various struggles and aspirations during the
Sol. The correct option is (c). The correct answer is: A, B,
Indian independence movement).
C, and E.
C. The Sword and the Sickle - IV. Mulk Raj Anand (Anand's
A. Dickens’ Household Words: This was a weekly magazine
novel delves into the lives of peasants and their struggles
edited by Charles Dickens himself, published between
against oppression and injustice).
1850 and 1859.
D. Distant Drum - III. Manohar Malgonkar (This novel
B. S.T. Coleridge's Friend: "The Friend" was a periodical provides a narrative of the Indian military experience,
founded by Samuel Taylor Coleridge in 1809, it faced particularly during the time of the British Raj).
financial difficulties and only lasted for 27 issues.
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S55. Ans.(c) (two options in the key) S59. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct option is (c). In John Keats' "Ode to Sol. The correct answer is (d). The correct answer is D and
Psyche," Psyche symbolizes an immortal woman from E only. The statement D is not true in the context of the
Greek mythology. Initially a mortal, Psyche's love for Cupid culture industry. The Frankfurt School, which coined the
(Eros) transforms her into an immortal being. Keats's ode term "culture industry," did not argue that authentic
celebrates the beauty and significance of Psyche, elevating culture arising from the working class is preserved and
her to a divine status. Through his poem, Keats explores protected within this framework. They often critiqued the
culture industry for commodifying and homogenizing
themes of love, beauty, and the transcendence of mortal
cultural expressions, thereby eroding authentic working-
limitations, presenting Psyche as a symbol of eternal love
class culture.
and the human soul's aspiration for immortality.
The statement E is also not true. The primary concern of
the Frankfurt School regarding the culture industry was its
S56. Ans.(b) tendency to create passive consumers rather than activists
Sol. The correct answer is (b) - Mikhail Bakhtin. The essay or critical thinkers. The mass-produced culture was seen
"Discourse in the Novel" discusses the idea that the novel as promoting conformity and reinforcing dominant
is constituted by a multiplicity of divergent and contending ideologies, rather than encouraging activism or critical
social voices. This concept is closely associated with the thinking among the youth.
Russian literary theorist Mikhail Bakhtin. Bakhtin's work
explores the dynamic interplay of different voices, S60. Ans.(a)
perspectives, and discourses within the novel, emphasizing Sol. The correct answer is (a) - B, D, and E only
the dialogic nature of the genre. Statement B refers to the understanding of postmodernism
because Jean-François Lyotard famously characterized the
S57. Ans.(b) postmodern condition as one marked by skepticism
towards grand, overarching narratives or metanarratives.
Sol. The correct answer is (b) Deterritorialisation of
Statement D refers to Jean Baudrillard's work "Simulacra
language. According to Gilles Deleuze and Felix Guattari,
and Simulations" which is considered a seminal text in
minor literature involves the deterritorialization of
postmodern theory. Baudrillard explores concepts such as
language. This concept refers to the breaking down of
hyperreality and the simulation of reality, which are
linguistic norms and conventions, often associated with central to postmodern thought.
marginalized or oppressed groups, allowing for new forms Statement E is true because Fredric Jameson argues in his
of expression and creativity. Minor literature challenges work that postmodernism favors pastiche over parody. He
established power structures and seeks to create suggests that in postmodern culture, pastiche—an
alternative modes of communication and representation. imitation of styles and conventions without critical
intent—has replaced parody, which had been a
S58. Ans.(c) characteristic feature of modernist art and literature.
Sol. The correct answer is (c) A, B, and E. Antonio Gramsci's These statements capture key ideas and debates within
definition of intellectual encompasses the following points: postmodernism, making them relevant for understanding
(A) Every social group involved in production naturally this complex cultural and intellectual movement.
generates a stratum of intellectuals;
(B) Intellectuals play a crucial role in fostering S61. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct answer is (c). Statement I is correct but
homogeneity and awareness of a social group's function
Statement II is incorrect.
across various domains; and
Statement I correctly identifies the book "Follow the
(E) The dominance of ecclesiastics in the superstructural
Rabbit-Proof Fence" by Doris Pilkington as a non-fictional
domain is contested, indicating that intellectual authority
narrative based on the real-life experiences of three
is not uncontested and can be subject to challenge. Aboriginal girls who fled from the Moore River Native
These aspects highlight Gramsci's nuanced understanding Settlement. Statement II is incorrect because the names of
of intellectuals as integral to social dynamics and the the three girls are Molly, Gracie, and Daisy, not Molly, Daisy,
formation of collective consciousness. and Mary.

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S62. Ans.(a) S66. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct answer is (a) - A, B and C. Sol. The correct option is (c) - B, C, and D.
A. Dalit writing does not essentialize Indian society, Option B: Homi K. Bhabha's theorization of the nation
culture, and identity. It offers diverse perspectives and emphasizes ambivalence in nationalist representation. He
critiques the dominant narratives. argues that nationalist representations are characterized
B. Dalit writing has inflected the immanent metanarratives, by a sense of ambivalence, instability, and contradiction.
meaning it has influenced and disrupted dominant Option C: Bhabha suggests that nationalist representation
overarching narratives.
engages with two contradictory modes of representation.
C. There is no single location of Dalit writing. It emerges
This reflects his idea of hybridity and the negotiation of
from various geographical, social, and cultural contexts,
identity in colonial and postcolonial contexts.
reflecting the diversity of Dalit experiences and
perspectives. Option D: Bhabha discusses how nationalist discourses are
split by a disruptive double-narrative movement,
S63. Ans.(c) emphasizing the complex and often conflicting nature of
Sol. The correct answer is (c). The correct answer is: national identity formation.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Statement I identifies "A Room of One's Own" as a feminist S67. Ans.(a)
essay by Virginia Woolf, addressing issues of women's Sol. The correct option is (a). The opening line "All happy
education, exclusion, and writing. families are alike; every unhappy family is unhappy in its
Statement II is false. "In Other Worlds" is not a collection of own way" is from the novel "Anna Karenina" by the
essays by Edward W. Said on contemporary ideas such as Russian author Leo Tolstoy. This iconic line encapsulates
psychoanalysis and social theory. "In Other Worlds" is a one of the central themes of the novel, exploring the
collection of essays by Margaret Atwood, exploring various complexities of human relationships and the diversity of
topics related to literature and speculative fiction. human suffering. It suggests that happiness is uniform and
conforms to certain patterns, while unhappiness is unique
S64. Ans.(d)
and manifests differently for each individual or family.
Sol. The correct option is (d). The correct matching is:
Throughout the novel, Tolstoy delves into the lives of
(d) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II.
various characters, depicting their struggles, conflicts, and
A. Hyperbole: IV. An intentional exaggeration for emphasis
or comic effect. For example: "I'm so hungry I could eat a emotional turmoil within the context of Russian society in
horse." the 19th century.
B. Metonymy: I. Referring to something by the name of
something else that is closely connected with it. It refers to S68. Ans.(d)
using "the crown" to refer to the monarchy. Sol. The correct option is (d). The option "(d) The Hundred
C. Synecdoche: III. A figure of speech in which a part and One Dalmatians" is not a literary journal or magazine;
represents the whole. It is a figure of speech in which a part it is a novel written by Dodie Smith. This novel is a classic
represents the whole, for instance, using "all hands on children's story about a litter of Dalmatian puppies who
deck" to mean all people on deck. are kidnapped by the villainous Cruella de Vil. It is not a
D. Periphrasis: II. A roundabout or indirect manner of publication dedicated to literary criticism, essays, short
writing or speaking. It often involves the use of more stories, poetry, or other literary content like the options
words than necessary, like saying "the beverage that found in literary journals or magazines.
refreshes" instead of simply saying "water."
S69. Ans.(a)
S65. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct option is (a) : (a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.
Sol. The correct option is (d). The correct chronological
A. "The Collaborator" - IV. Mirza Waheed. It portrays the
sequence of the works of Richard Hoggart is: B, C, D, E, A
moral dilemmas faced by a young Kashmiri man who
• "The Uses of Literacy" (B) was first published in 1957.
• "Higher Education: Demand and Response" (C) was
becomes entangled in the complexities of the Kashmir
published in 1965. conflict.
• "A Local Habitation" (D) was published in 1988. B. "The Garden of Solitude" - III. Siddhartha Gigoo. It offers
• "A Sort of Clowning" (E) was published in 1990. a poignant exploration of Kashmiri Pandit's identity and
• "An Imagined Life" (A) was published in 1993. the longing for home amidst the turmoil of conflict and
displacement.
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C. "Roll of Honour" - I. Amandeep Sandhu. It provides a raw (a), long swelling speeches
and gripping account of a young Sikh boy's experiences in (b), and the handling of violent incidents and emotions
a military boarding school in Punjab during the turbulent (c) to create a sense of grandeur and spectacle.
1980s. They were less concerned with depicting the lives of
D. "The Half Mother" - II. Shahnaz Bashir. It delves into the common figures, as their works tended to revolve around
harrowing realities faced by Kashmiri women who grapple noble or historical characters and themes.
with loss, uncertainty, and the relentless struggle for
justice amid conflict. S73. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct option is (b). "The Calcutta Chromosome"
S70. Ans.(c) is a science fiction novel written by Indian author Amitav
Sol. The correct option is (c). The statement that is not true Ghosh. Published in 1995, the novel explores themes of
about NEP-2020 is that the Policy recommends that the history, science, and mysticism. Set in various periods,
English language should be the only medium of instruction including colonial India and the near future, the story
at the elementary level. weaves together multiple narratives and characters linked
NEP-2020 emphasizes the importance of providing high- by a mysterious discovery related to the discovery of the
malaria parasite. Through complex storytelling and
quality learning materials in Indian languages (a),
complex characters, Ghosh delves into the intersections of
promoting multilingualism through the early
science, history, and human ambition, creating a rich and
implementation of the three-language formula (b), and
thought-provoking narrative that challenges conventional
teaching in the local language wherever feasible (d).
notions of time and reality.
However, it does not recommend English as the sole
medium of instruction at the elementary level. It advocates
S74. Ans.(b)
for a flexible approach that allows for instruction in the Sol. The correct option is (b). The correct chronological
local language or mother tongue wherever possible, along order of publication for the given literary works is A, C, B,
with the gradual introduction of English as a subject. E, D.
A. Beowulf - Estimated to be composed between the 8th
S71. Ans.(c) and 11th centuries, making it the earliest work in the list.
Sol. The correct option is (c). The correct matching is: A-II, C. Summa Theologica - Written by Thomas Aquinas in the
B-I, C-IV, D-III 13th century.
A. Christophine - II. Wide Sargasso Sea. Christophine is a B. Divina Commedia - Written by Dante Alighieri in the
powerful and enigmatic character in Jean Rhys's prequel to 14th century.
"Jane Eyre." E. Canterbury Tales - Written by Geoffrey Chaucer in the
B. Zillah - I. Wuthering Heights. Zillah is a servant at late 14th century.
Wuthering Heights, appearing in Emily Bronte's classic D. Le Morte d'Arthur - Written by Sir Thomas Malory and
novel. published in the 15th century.
C. Estella - IV. Great Expectations. Estella is the cold-
hearted love interest of the protagonist in Charles S75. Ans.(d)
Dickens's novel. Sol. The correct option is (d). Research methodology refers
D. Ekwefi - III. Things Fall Apart. Ekwefi is a resilient and to the systematic approach and framework used by
devoted mother in Chinua Achebe's seminal work researchers to conduct their studies. It encompasses the
portraying Nigerian tribal life. broader principles, philosophical underpinnings, and
These characters are from various classic literary works, theoretical frameworks that guide the entire research
including "Wide Sargasso Sea" by Jean Rhys, "Wuthering process. This includes the identification of research
Heights" by Emily Bronte, "Great Expectations" by Charles questions, formulation of hypotheses or objectives,
Dickens, and "Things Fall Apart" by Chinua Achebe. selection of research methods and techniques, data
collection, analysis, interpretation of findings, and
S72. Ans.(d) conclusion. Research methodology provides a structured
Sol. The correct option is (d). The quality of heroic and systematic way of conducting research, ensuring that
treatment that was not needed in the plays of the the study is rigorous, valid, and reliable. It also helps
University Wits was the Lives of common figures. The plays researchers justify their choices and ensure that their
of the University Wits, which were a group of English research adheres to ethical principles and standards. Thus,
research methodology serves as the foundation for
playwrights in the late 16th century, focused on grand
conducting meaningful and credible research across
themes, heroic characters, and dramatic events. They
various disciplines.
commonly employed splendid descriptions

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S76. Ans.(a) S78. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct option is (a). The immediate predecessor Sol. The correct answer is (d). The correct order of the
of the drama proper was: The Interlude. It emerged during publications is: (d) B, D, C, E, A
the late Middle Ages and the Renaissance period and B. Frantz Fanon’s "The Wretched of the Earth" - Published
served as a transitional form between earlier forms of in 1961.
religious drama, such as miracle plays, morality plays, and D. Ernest Gellner’s "Nations and Nationalism" - Published
liturgical plays, and the emergence of secular drama. in 1983.
Interludes were short dramatic performances inserted C. Homi K. Bhabha’s "Nation and Narration" - Published in
between the acts of longer plays or during banquets and 1990.
E. Robert Young’s "Colonial Desire: Hybridity in Theory,
festivities. They often featured secular themes, humor, and
Culture and Race" - Published in 1994.
entertainment, marking a shift towards more secular and
A. Simon Gikandi’s "Maps of Englishness: Writing Identity
human-centered storytelling that eventually led to the
in the Culture of Colonialism" - Published in 1996.
development of modern drama.
S79. Ans.(b)
S77. Ans.(a) Sol. The correct answer is (b). The correct option in Julia
Sol. The correct option is (a). The correct matching is A-II, Kristeva’s definition of 'Chora' is C, D, and E only. Julia
B-III, C-I, D-IV. Kristeva's concept of 'chora' refers to a non-expressive
A. Sethe - II. Beloved by Toni Morrison. Sethe is a central totality created by bodily drives (C), a space without fixed
character in "Beloved," a novel by Toni Morrison. The story identity (D), and it precedes the linguistic sign (E). In Julia
is set in the aftermath of slavery in America and revolves Kristeva's theory, 'Chora' represents a prelinguistic and
around Sethe, an African-American woman who escapes non-expressive space originating from the bodily drives,
from slavery but continues to be haunted by her traumatic preceding the establishment of language and identity. It
past. "Beloved" explores themes of identity, memory, embodies a fluid and unformed realm where meaning is
trauma, and the legacy of slavery. not fixed, allowing for the emergence of subjective
B. Okonkwo - III. Things Fall Apart by Chinua Achebe. experiences and creative potential. 'Chora' serves as a
Okonkwo is the protagonist of "Things Fall Apart," a novel transitional space between the semiotic and symbolic
by Chinua Achebe. The story is set in pre-colonial Nigeria realms, facilitating the formation of subjectivity and
and follows Okonkwo, a respected leader and warrior of language while resisting fixed categorization. As such, it
the Igbo community, as he grapples with changes brought represents a liminal and dynamic space essential for
about by colonialism and struggles to uphold traditional understanding the complexities of human existence and
values amidst cultural clashes. expression.
C. Offred - I. The Handmaid’s Tale by Margaret Atwood.
S80. Ans.(c)
Offred is the protagonist and narrator of "The Handmaid’s
Sol. The correct answer is (c): A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Tale," a dystopian novel by Margaret Atwood. The story is
A. The Wretched of the Earth - IV. Frantz Fanon: Frantz
set shortly in the Republic of Gilead, a totalitarian society
Fanon authored "The Wretched of the Earth," which is a
where women are subjugated and assigned specific roles.
seminal work on colonialism and post-colonialism,
Offred is a handmaid, tasked with bearing children for the
exploring the psychological effects of colonization on
ruling class, and the novel explores themes of power, colonized peoples.
control, gender, and identity. B. Nation and Narration - II. Homi K. Bhabha: Homi K.
D. Winston Smith - IV. Nineteen Eighty-Four by George Bhabha is the author of "Nation and Narration," an
Orwell. Winston Smith is the protagonist of "Nineteen important text in postcolonial studies that examines the
Eighty-Four," a dystopian novel by George Orwell. Set in a role of narrative in the construction of national identity.
totalitarian society ruled by the Party and its leader, Big C. Culture and Imperialism - III. Edward W. Said: Edward
Brother, the story follows Winston as he rebels against the W. Said wrote "Culture and Imperialism," a book that
oppressive regime and seeks to preserve his individuality explores the relationship between culture and
and freedom of thought in a world where conformity is imperialism, by observing how literature and other
enforced and dissent is punished. cultural forms have been used to justify and perpetuate
colonial domination.
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D. Imagined Communities - I. Benedict Anderson: Benedict mental breakdown and her departure to a mental
Anderson authored "Imagined Communities," an institution, marking her defeat in the face of the harsh
important work that discusses the concept of nationalism realities she encounters.
and how nations are socially constructed and imagined by
their citizens. S85. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct answer is (c) - A, D, and E.
S81. Ans.(b) A. Anna is deeply committed to the family and children.
Sol. The correct answer is (b). "Oroonoko" and "The Fair This is true as Anna's initial motivations are rooted in her
Jilt" fall under the category of Prose Romance. Both of these commitment to her family and children, but her actions
works were written by Aphra Behn, an English playwright, ultimately lead to the dissolution of her family.
poet, and novelist, during the 17th century. "Oroonoko" is D. Anna’s passionate spirit and determination to live life on
a tragic love story set in Suriname, while "The Fair Jilt" is a her terms make her unique. This is also true. Anna's
tale of love, deceit, and betrayal. These works are character is defined by her passionate nature and desire for
characterized by their romantic themes, adventurous autonomy, which ultimately leads to her tragic downfall.
plots, and often fantastical elements, which are typical E. She became a victim of rampant patriarchal forces. This
features of Prose Romance literature. is also true. Anna's situation reflects the oppressive
constraints of patriarchal society, which limit her agency
S82. Ans.(a) and contribute to her eventual demise.
Sol. The correct answer is (a). I.A. Richards, a significant
figure in literary criticism and the field of English literature S86. Ans.(c)
is not associated with British Cultural Studies. Richards Sol. The correct answer is (c). "An Introduction" by Kamala
was primarily known for his contributions to literary Das is a poem of resistance and protest. In this poem,
theory, particularly his work on practical criticism and the Kamala Das challenges societal norms and conventions,
concept of "close reading." His approach focused on particularly those related to gender roles and expectations.
analyzing the formal aspects of literary texts, emphasizing She expresses her defiance against the restrictions
the interaction between the reader and the text itself. In imposed on her as a woman and asserts her right to self-
contrast, British Cultural Studies, associated with scholars expression and individuality. The poem is characterized by
like Richard Hoggart, Raymond Williams, and Stuart Hall, its bold and uncompromising tone, as Kamala Das
emerged as a multidisciplinary field that explored the fearlessly confronts societal prejudices and asserts her
intersections of culture, society, politics, and identity, with identity on her terms. Through her poetry, she becomes a
a particular emphasis on understanding power dynamics voice for those marginalized and oppressed by patriarchal
and social change within British society. norms, making "An Introduction" a poignant and powerful
expression of resistance and protest.
S83. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct answer is (c). Bhasa is considered one of S87. Ans.(a)
the earliest known Indian dramatists. He is believed to Sol. The correct answer is (a). Edgar Allan Poe played a
have lived from the 2nd century BCE to the 2nd century CE. significant role in establishing the short story as a distinct
Bhasa's exact historical background is uncertain, and little literary genre. He defined 'the prose tale' as "a narrative
is known about his life. However, he is renowned for his which can be read at one sitting of from half an hour to two
significant contributions to Sanskrit drama. Bhasa wrote hours." This concise yet comprehensive definition
several plays, most of which are based on themes from the encapsulates the essence of the short story form,
Indian epics, Mahabharata and Ramayana. His works emphasizing its brevity and the immediacy of its impact on
demonstrate a mastery of dramatic techniques and themes, the reader. Poe's emphasis on the narrative's ability to be
depicting mythological narratives with vivid characters consumed in a single sitting highlights the importance of
and engaging plots. Despite the passage of time, Bhasa's concise storytelling and the necessity for engaging and
plays continue to be celebrated for their literary and impactful narratives within a limited space. His definition
theatrical excellence, making him a foundational figure in laid the foundation for the modern understanding of the
the history of Indian drama. short story genre, influencing countless writers and
contributing to its enduring popularity in literature.
S84. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct answer is (b) - A and C. S88. Ans.(b)
A. It is set in New Orleans, which is a true statement as "A
Sol. The correct answer is (b). The term "panopticism" was
Streetcar Named Desire" is set in New Orleans, specifically
coined by Michel Foucault. He introduced this concept in
in the French Quarter. his work "Discipline and Punish The Birth of the Prison"
C. It ends with Blanche’s defeat and departure, which is a
(1975), where he explores the mechanisms of power and
true statement. The play concludes with Blanche DuBois'ssurveillance in modern society. In "Discipline and Punish,"
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Foucault describes the panopticon, a hypothetical prison S94. Ans.(d)
design conceived by Jeremy Bentham in the 18th century. Sol. The correct answer is (d). The upamana (object
The panopticon is structured in a way that allows a single compared to) in the poem are "Rough winds" and
watchman to observe all inmates without them knowing "Summer’s lease" (option d). These are the objects or
whether they are being watched or not, thereby inducing entities used in comparison with the addressee (upameya)
self-discipline and control. Foucault uses the concept of to illustrate their qualities and characteristics.
panopticism to analyze various disciplinary institutions
and social mechanisms, highlighting the pervasive nature S95. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct answer is (a). The relationship of upameya
of surveillance and its effects on individual behavior and
with upamana in the poem is that upameya is superior to
society as a whole.
upamana (option a). The speaker elevates the addressee by
comparing them to a summer's day, suggesting that they
S89. Ans.(d)
are more lovely and temperate. This implies that the
Sol. The correct answer is (d). The term "gynocriticism" addressee possesses qualities that surpass those of the
refers to the production and analysis of writings by women objects used in comparison.
on women. It is a feminist literary theory that focuses on
understanding and interpreting literature from a female S96. Ans.(a)
perspective, highlighting women's experiences, voices, and Sol. The correct answer is (a). In the analysis of a poem, if
contributions within the literary canon. Gynocriticism the forces are included in the ideas, it becomes easier to
seeks to challenge and expand traditional literary criticism define the ideas. Including the forces within the ideas
by centering women's narratives, themes, and simplifies the analysis process as the ideas serve as
representations, thereby enriching our understanding of containers for the forces, making them easier to grasp and
literature and culture. articulate.

S90. Ans.(c) S97. Ans.(c)

Sol. The correct answer is (c). "A Tale of Two Cities" by Sol. The correct answer is (c). The term “logical
Charles Dickens revolves around the cities of London and connectives” refers to the statement of logical form in
Paris, hence the title. The novel contrasts the social and addition to logical context. Logical connectives are words
political climates of these two cities during the tumultuous or phrases used to join two or more statements or
propositions logically, conveying relationships such as
period of the French Revolution and the corresponding
conjunction, disjunction, implication, and negation.
unrest in England.
S98. Ans.(b)
S91. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct answer is (b). With a poem, the statement
Sol. The correct answer is (a). The object compared, or the that "Forces can be discussed in terms of ambiguity" is not
upameya, in the poem is the addressee. The speaker correct. Forces in a poem cannot be discussed solely in
compares the addressee to a summer's day, highlighting terms of ambiguity; rather, they are essential to the totality
their beauty and qualities. of a poem and are complementary to ambiguity.

S92. Ans.(b) S99. Ans.(c)

Sol. The correct answer is (b). The addressee in the poem Sol. The correct answer is (c). The author says that “the
is referred to as "thou" and "thee," which indicates a tension must be conveyed and must be sustained” because
masculine gender (option b). The speaker addresses tension is often an important clue to the meaning of a
someone, likely a male figure, and compares them to a poem. Tension in poetry can convey complexity, emotion,
summer's day. and depth, enriching the reader's understanding and
experience of the poem.
S93. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct answer is (a). The poem is an example of S100. Ans.(b)
Parampariterupaka (consequential metaphor) because Sol. The correct answer is (b). It is easier to find words for
here the superimposition, undermined by a resemblance, ideas than for forces because forces are embedded in ideas.
is the cause of another superimposition (option a). The Ideas provide a strong framework for expressing thoughts
and concepts, while forces are abstract and may not lend
comparison of the addressee to a summer's day leads to
themselves readily to verbal expression. Therefore,
further comparisons and contrasts within the stanza,
articulating ideas is simpler than articulating forces in a
creating layers of meaning and imagery.
poem.

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 UGC NET Political Science (11 December 2023 Shift 1)
Q1. The true beginning of the modern state system marked Q6. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
the end of Assertion A and the other Is labelled as Reason R.
(a) Fifty years war Assertion A: India has historically been deemed a safe
(b) Thirty years war heaven for refugees
(c) One hundred years war Reason R: India has no refugee law and has not signed the
(d) Ten years war 1951 Refugee Convention
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
Q2. Match List I with List II appropriate answer from the options given below.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is Not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R Is correct

(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV Q7. Arrange the following committees with regards to
(b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I corruption and administrative reforms in India
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III chronologically
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II A. Gorwala committee
B. First Administrative Reforms Commission
Q3. The process in which the dictatorial ruling elite C. Vohra committee
introduces liberalizing reforms that ultimately lead to a D. Shanthanam Committee
democratic transition is known as: (a) A,B,C,D
(a)Bottom-up democratic transition (b) B,A,C,D
(b) Top-down democratic transition (c) A,D, B,C
(c) First reverse wave (d) B,A,D,C
(d) Second reverse wave
Q8. What is the main argument of philosophical
Q4. Which of the following is not, according to Bhikhu anarchism?
(a) That no state should exist.
Parekh, a question usually ignored by Indian political
(b) That no state in fact has authority.
thought?
(c) That arguments for philosophical anarchism are
(a) Modern Individual thinkers
opposed to liberal principles.
(b) The nature of Indian state (d) That all states should exist in mutual cooperation and
(c) Social Justice harmony.
(d)Political Economy
Q9. Find out the agreements/accerds signed between
Q5. Who among the following thinkers is not associated Indian government and its provincial regional
with Feminist Theory? organizations given below in ascending order:
(a) Susan Sontag A. Assam Accord
(b) Carole Pateman B. Anandpur Sahib Resolution
(c) Martha Nussbaum C. Rajiv Gandhi-Longowal Accord
(d) Judith Butler D. Shillong Agreement
E. Mizo Peace Accord

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(a) B,D,CAE C. Has the welfare state helped the poor overcome their
(b) E,A,C,B,D disadvantage and participate in society?
(c) A,B,C,D,E D. Has the welfare state created a class of welfare
(d) E,D,C,B,A dependents caught in a poverty trap?
E. Are the sources of social ills like poverty, homelessness,
Q10. The concept of accountability has got the following high school! drop-out rates, and so on so complex that state
characteristics: attempts to solve them will generally fail, and often worsen
A. Accountability exists in a relationship when for the the problem?
performance of functions an individual or a body is subject (a) A,B and C only
to another oversight, direction or individual or the body (b) A,D and E only
should provide justification for their actions. (c) A,C and E only
B. There are various types of accountability like legal (d) A,B and D only
accountability, social accountability, political
accountability and so on. Q14. Under which of the following article of Indian
C. Accountability can be found only in the institutions and constitution, the state legislature has power to make
provision with respect to elections to such legislature?
processes of the developed countries.
(a) Article 324
D. The effectiveness of public officials cannot be evaluated
(b) Article 326
through the process of accountability.
(c) Article 328
(a) A,B &Conly
(d) Article 352
(b) A, C &D only
(c) B & C only
Q15. satyashodhak samaj was founded by
(d) A & B only
(a) Ayyankall
(b) Jyotiba Phule
Q11. Arrange the following Director Generals of WTO who (c) B.R. Ambedkar
held office in ascending order: (d) Periyar
A. Mike Moore
B. Pascal Lamz Q16. Which of the following did not feature as a matter of
C. Supachai Panitchpakdi debate between Mahatma Gandhi and Rabindra Nath
D. Robert Azvedo Tagore?
(a) A.C,B.D (a) English Language
(b) A,B,D,C (b) Nationalism
(c) C,B,A,D (c) The spinning wheel
(d) D,A,B,C (d) Freedom from colonial rule

Q12. Match List I with List II Q17. The book ‘Capitalism, Socialism and Democracy’ is
authored by
(a) Joseph Schumpeter
(b) Samuel Huntington
(c) Andre Gunder Frank
(d) Joseph Lapalombara

(a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Q18. Find out the correct one with regard to’Failed-state”.
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV A. Sierra Leone is a failed state.
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I B. A tailed state is unable to provide the functions that
(d) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV define them as states.
C. A failed state is able to coerce the inhabitants.
D. A failed state is able to successfully control the
Q13. Which of the following arguments can we associate
inhabitants.
with ‘right’ wing political forces?
(a) C only
A. To what extent are people poor because of their own
(b) D only
choices as opposed to unequal opportunities?
(c) B & C only
B. Are we helping the victims of unequal circumstances if
(d) A & B only
we redistribute money to the poor?
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Q19. Who among the following has started the self-respect C. One-third of the total number of seats reserved for
movement as part of social reform. scheduled castes shall be reserved for women of this group
(a) Mahatma Gandhi in legislative assemblies only
(b) Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay D. Reserved seats may be allotted by rotation to different
(c) E.V. Ramaswami Naicker constituencies in the state or UTs.
(d) Swami Vivekananda (a) A & B only
(b) B only
Q20. Who introduced to organizations the concepts of the (c) A & D only
40-hour week, time and motion studies and piece-rate (d) C only
compensation systems, as well as a ‘fair day's work for a
fair day's pay’? Q25. According to Manu, which of the following is not the
(a) Woodrow Wilson foundation of diplomacy and statecraft?
(b) Frederick Taylor
(a) Hostility (विग्रह)
(c) Max Weber
(d) Elton Mayo (b) Neutrality (तटस्थता)
(c) Subordinate Alliance (संश्रय)
Q21. Citizens’ charter was first articulated and
implemented in UK as a national programme in which (d) Contract (अनब
ु ंध)
year?
(a) 1989 Q26. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(b) 1991 Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
(c) 1993 Assertion A: ‘Ahimsa’ was complementary to Gandhi's
(d) 19968
model of conflict resolution that was certainly the most
original and creative model of social change and political
Q22. Which one of the following is the UN fact finding
action.
mission on the Gaza Conflict 2009 Report?
Reason R: This was a theory of politics that gradually
(a) Golding Report
became the dominant ideology of a national political
(b) Goldstone Report
movement in which Gandhi reigned supreme.
(c) Goldman Sachs Report
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(d) Gaza Report
appropriate answer from the options given below.
Q23. Choose the correct statements from the following: (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
A. Weapons of mass destruction include nuclear explosive explanation of A.
weapons among others. (b) Both A and R are correct but R is Not the correct
B. Biological weapons are not included in the category of explanation of A.
weapons of mass destruction. (c) A is correct but R is not correct.
C. Chemical weapons have been outlawed as weapons of (d) A is not correct but R is correct.
mass destruction in the Chemical Weapons Convention.
D. The Chemical Weapons Convention came into effect in Q27. Who found eight distinct meanings for the term
1998. “Balance of Power"?
(a) Only A and B (a) Iris L. claude, Jr
(b) Only C and D (b) Ernst B. Haas
(c) Only A and C (c) Richard Coleden
(d) Only B and C (d) Alfred Vagdt

Q24. Find out the correct one with regard to 108" Q28. Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) pioneered
Amendment Bill, 2008: which movement in India
A. Reservation of seats reserved for scheduled caste shall (a) Namantar Andolan
be far women shall cease to exit 15 years after the (b) Nirbhaya Movement
commencement of this Bill (c) Jan Sunwai
B. It seeks to reserve one-third of all seats for women in the (d) None of the above
Lok Sabha only
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Q29. Match List I with List II (c) Public Accounts Committee is composed of 30 (Thirty)
members.
(d) No member can be re-elected to the Public Accounts
Committee.
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I Q35. Match the following organization with the year it was
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV established in
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Q30. The present political regime in the Central Asia

republic of Tajikistan falls under which of the following
category?
(a) Monarchy
(b) Military dictatorship (a) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(c) Democracy (b) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(d) Civilian dictatorship (c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(d) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Q31. The theory that argues, “countries are more likely
both to become democratic and to stay democratic as they
develop economically”, is known as Q36. Which two countries’ navies are jointly patrolling the
(a) Dependency theory Malacca Straits?
(b) World systems theory (a) India-Japan
(c) Classic Modernization theory (b) India- United States
(d) Theory of underdevelopment (c) India- Australia
(d) India Indonesia
Q32. Match List I with List II
Q37. In his book Administration in Developing Countries:
The Theory of Prismatic Society, Riggs mentioned the
following points.
A. The structures of a modern society are typically
functionally specific.
B. A structure is defined as any pattern of behaviour, which
(a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I has become a standard feature of a social system.
(b) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I C. Industria will move towards Agraria through the process
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I of transition in the society.
(d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV D. Although the “image” of Agraria resembles the ‘model’ of
a fused society, the two constructions are by no means
Q33. Who said that statesmen’ think and act in terms of
identical.
interest defined as power’?
(a) Morgenthau (a) A, B & D only
(b) George F. Kennan (b) A,B &C only
(c) Harold Nicholson (c) B,C & D only
(d) Henry A Kissinger (d) A,C &D only

Q34. Which of the following is a right characteristic of the Q38. B. R. Ambedkar demanded a separate electorate for
composition of the Public Accounts Committee? the depressed classes in which of the following events?
(a) Public Accounts Committee is composed of only Lok
(a) First round table conference
Sabha members.
(b) Public Accounts Committee is an annually elected body (b) Second round table conference
in accordance with the principle of the proportional (c) Third round table conference
representation followed by single transferable vote (d) Fourth round table conference
system.
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Q39. Find out the correct statements Q43. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 made
A. On 1st April 1950, India was the first non-socialist bloc the following major provisions regarding Panchayats:
country to establish diplomatic relations with China. A. The Village Assembly can exercise such powers and
B. Prime Minister Nehru never visited China during his execute such functions at the village level as may be
premiership. prescribed by the law made by the State Legislature.
C. A phase of improvement in bilateral relations began in
B. A Finance Commission shall be constituted by the
1988.
D. Rajiv Gandhi as the Prime Minister of India visited China Governor of the State every five years to review the
in 1993. financial position of the Panchayats and to make
(a) A & B recommendations to the Governor.
(b) A & C C. The State Legislative Assembly cannot grant any more
(c) C & D powers and authority to the Panchayat as an institution of
(d) B & C self-government.
D. Elections for the formation of a Panchayat shall be
Q40. Choose the correct statement from the following: completed before the expiry of a period of six months from
A. Under chapter-VII of the UN Charter, the Security
the date of its dissolution.
Council can take action to maintain or restore international
(a) Only A, B, and C
peace and security.
B. Under Art. 41 sanction measures do not involve-the use (b) Only B, C, and D
of armed force (c) Only A, B, and D
C. Sanctions can be withdrawn by the UN General (d) Only C, B, and D
Assembly.
D. Sanctions have been applied by the Security Council to Q44. Linguistic Provinces Commission that was formed to
support peaceful transitions, to deter non constitutional advise Constituent Assembly was popularly known as:
changes etc. (a) Dhar Commision
(a) A,B & D only (b) Menon Commision
(b) B.C & D only
(c) Mukherjee Commision
(c) C,D & A only
(d) AC &D only (d) Bose Commision

Q41. Choose the correct statements given below: Q45. Arrange the following in their theoretical sequence,
A. India is amongst the first countries to establish in keeping with the Marxist conception or the materialist
diplomatic relations with EEC. conception of history.
B. The bilateral relationship was upgraded to strategic A. The proletariat seizes political power and turns the
partnership in 2004. means of production into state property.
C. The EU is also one of the largest sources of FDI for India. B. Finally, the proletariat abolishes itself, abolishes all class
D. The EU is a member of UN General Assembly.
distinctions and class antagonism and also abolishes the
(a) A, B & C
state as state.
(b) B, C & D
(c) A, C & D C. While the capitalist mode of production more and more
(d) A, B & D transforms the great majority of the population into
proletarians, it creates a power that is forced to accomplish
Q42. Arrange the organizations in chronology according to a revolution against capitalism.
the year of their establishment D. The present structure of society is the creation of the
A. Tolstoy Farm current ruling class, the bourgeoisie.
B. Abhinav Bharat Society E. Steam, machinery and the making of machines by
C. Ramkrishna Mission machinery transformed the older manufacture, carried out
D. Sharda Sadan
under feudalism, into modern industry.
E. Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha
(a) C,D,E,B, A (a) A,B,C,D,E
(b) D,A,C,B,E (b) E,D,C,AB
(c) D,C,B,A,E (c) D,AB,C,E
(d) C DA,B,E (d) C,A,B,E,D

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Q46. Find out the correct definition of different scholars on Q50. Which of the following thinker is associated with
party systems ‘syncretism’?
A. Modern democracy is a party democracy (Katz) (a) Abul Fazl
B. Democracy is unthinkable save in terms of (b) Kabir
parties(Schumpeter) (c) Zia-ud-din Barani
C. Parties are the core institutions of democratic
(d) Tulsidas
politics(Lipset)
D. The existence of political parties Is often as a necessary
condition for the existence of modern democracy( Robert Q51. Which of the subject is not the part of concurrent list?
Dahl). (a) Bankruptcy and insolvency
(a) A, B, C, D only (b) Prevention of cruelty to animals
(b) B only (c) Markets and fairs
(c) D only (d) Economic and social planning
(d) A & C only
Q52. What is true about the following statement related to
Q47. Find out the correct one with regard to constructivist Ram Manohar Lohia ?
argument on democracy A. He discusses seven types of revolution
A. Constructivist argument treats culture as something that
B. He talks about ‘Partyless Democracy’
is objective and inherited.
C. He is an author of the ‘Aspects of socialist policy’
B. Constructivist argument states that culture exists prior
to, and remains unchanged by political interaction. D. he did not give the concept of ‘Four-Pillar State’
C. Constructivist argument treats culture as something that E. He said that' the history of the growth of freedom Is the
Is constructed or invented rather than inherited. history of the perfection of human relationship’
D. Constructivist argument claims that culture has a causal (a) A, B, E only
effect. (b) A,C, E only
(a) A, B, C only (c) B,D, E only
(b) D, C, B only (d) B.C, D only
(c) C & D only
(d) A & B only Q53. With which country India signed the declaration “to
promote the building of a harmonious world of durable
Q48. Given below are two statements:
peace and common prosperity hrough developing the
Statement I: The transformation of India's economy has
not been as dramatic as that of post-communist countries strategic and cooperative partnership for peace and
in Eastern Europe prosperity”
Statement II: India has produced growth rates as high as (a) United States
those of China in 2010s (b) China
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (c) United Kingdom
appropriate answer from the options given below. (d) Japan
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect Q54. Which of the following observations are correct about
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect deliberative democracy?
(d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct A. Deliberative democracy describes a normative ideal in
which free and equal citizens publicly exchange reasons
Q49. Match List I with List II
with one another.
B. They do with a view to reaching a consensus about some
issue or policy or about the principles underlying the
system as a whole.
C. The central claim is that a political decision or system is
(a) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV legitimate even if it cannot command free and reasoned
(b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV agreement among equals.
(c) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV D. Clearly this is a practical conception, which
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I contemporary political life- with partisan rivalries and
messy compromises often conforms to.
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E. Underlying the deliberative ideal is a powerful moral B. The knowledge of our partial grasp on truth generates
instuition about the nature of truly democratic association self-restraint.
(a) A,B and E only C. The Satyagrahi is not responsible for creating and
(b) A,B and C only recreating the dialogic situation.
(c) B,C and D only D. The commitment to non-violence eliminates the feeling
(d) B,D and E only of separation and otherness.
E. The readiness to compromise can neutralize the moral
Q55. Find out the correct one with regard to Atul Kohii's perspective of the partners.
distinction between pro-market and pro business state (a) Only A, B, C, and D
intervention in India in 1980s: (b) Only A, B, and D
A. Pro-business strategy mainly supports established (c) Only B, C, D, and E
producers. (d) Only A, C, D, and E
B. Pro-business strategy supports new entrants and
consumers. Q60. Arrange the following in a sequence that historically
C. Pro-market strategy supports established producers. and conceptually presents the concepts of civil society.
D. Pro-market strategy supports new entrants and A. It can be understood as a collective entity that springs
consumers. from society and exists for specific and limited purposes.
B. The concept was part of the economic and political
(a) B only
liberalism that arose with John Locke and was celebrated
(b) C only
by Scottish enlightenment.
(c) A & C only
C. Civil society is one among many spheres of the larger
(d) A & D only
society along with family, economy, polities etc.
D. The concept found a significant place in the writings of
Q56. In which year did the UN climate change conference
Hegel and Marx in the 19th century.
commonly known as Copenhagen summit hold?
E. The first articulation of the concept tock place in the 17"
(a) 2009
and 18" centuries in Europe.
(b) 2006 (a) A,B,C,D,E
(c) 2010 (b) B,D,C,E,A
(d) 2012 (c) C,A,E,B,D
(d) E,B,A,C,D
Q57. Name the country that does not fall within the ‘Asian
Tiger’ economies: Q61. Which of the following statements explain Bhikhu
(a) South Korea Parekh's conception of human nature?
(b) Singapore A. All references to human nature should be subjected to
(c) Hong Kong the strictest scrutiny and viewed with a healthy dose of
(d) Burma skepticism.
B. Human beings are culturally embedded, in the sense that
Q58. Match List I with List II they are born into, raised in and deeply shaped by their
cultural communities.
C. Regardless of their different cultural contexts, human
beings behave more or less in a uniform manner when it
comes to critical matters.
D. Although skin colour, gender, height and other physical
features are universally shared, they are all differently
(a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV conceptualized and acquire different meaning and
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I significance in different societies.
(c) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III E. Skin colour is given a deep metaphysical meaning and
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II made the basis of a differential distribution of power and
status in all societies.
Q59. Which of the following aspects of Gandhi's (a) A, B and C only
Satyagraha principles can assist in the process of dialogue (b) B, C and D only
in societies plagued by mutual distrust? (c) A,B and D only
A. Focusing on the preconditions of dialogue helps (d) D,E and B only
establish the moral perspective of the participants.

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Q62. Match List I with List II Q66. Who among the following vice-president of India
later became the president of the country?
A. Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan
B V. V. Gin
C. Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV D. B. D. Jatti
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II E. R. Venkataraman
(c) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (a) A, B and E only
(b) C and D only
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A,B and D only
(d) A,B, C and E only
Q63. Arrange these life events of Aurobindo” in a
chronological order Q67. Arrange the following administrative
A. Attended the Banaras session of the Congress. thinkers/theorists chronologically
B. Became the vice-principal of Baroda college. A. F.W. Willoughby
C. Moved to England. B. Max Weber
D. Arrested for the Alipore bomb case C. David Easton
E. Cleared the ICS exam D. Elton Mayo
(a) C, A, D, B, E (a) A, B, C, D
(b) E, C, A, B, D (b) D, C, B, A
(c) B, A, D, C
(c) A, B, E, C, D
(d) C, B, A, D
(d) C, E, B, A, D
Q68. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment
Q64. What is correct about the qualification and brought down the age to vote to 18 from erstwhile 21?
appointment of the Governor? (a) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
A. He Is a citizen of India (b) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
B. He has completed the age of 25 years (c) 72nd Constitutional Amendment Act
C. He is appointed by the Prime Minister (d) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act
D. He holds the office of Governor for a term of 6 years.
E. He resigns from his office, by writing under his hand Q69. Which year did Prime Minister Manmohan Singh visit
addressed to the Prime Minister. China?
(a) 2010
(a) A only
(b) 2007
(b) A and B only
(c) 2006
(c) A, B and D only
(d) 2009
(d) A, B, C, D, E only
Q70. Which one of the following is not the key element of
Q65. Find out the different waves of democratic transition direct democracy?
given below in ascending order: (a) Referendum
A. First reverse wave (b) Recall
B. First waves of democratization (c) Fillbustering
C. Second wave of democratization (d) Plebiscite
D. Second reverse wave
Q71. Which amendment overrode the Golaknath case
E. Third wave of democratization
decided in 196/77?
(a) A,B,C,D,E
(a) Twenty-third amendment
(b) B,A,C,D,E
(b) Twenty fourth amendment
(c) E,D,C,A,B (c) Twenty fifth amendment
(d) C,D,E,B,A (d) Twenty sixth amendment

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Q72. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as C. Non-violent action can be categorized into three
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. methods: protests and persuasion, non- cooperation and
Assertion A: Contracting out and public private non-violent intervention.
partnerships are now part of the reality of public services D. Use of non-violent methods is a guarantee of success.
and decision making in many countries. (a) B, C & D
Reason R: There is a divorce between the complex reality (b) A, C & D
of decision making associated with governance and the (c) A, B,C & D
normative codes used to explain and justify government. (d) A,B & C
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below. Q77. Given below are two statements: one Is labelled as
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
explanation of A. Assertion A: It is plausible to think that autonomy involves
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is Not the correct a kind of skill that individuals must develop, exercise and
explanation of A maintain. This ongoing process of planning and managing
(c) A is correct but R is not correct is not automatic but requires efforts and resources that are
(d) A is not correct but R is correct secured by social and material conditions provided by the
state.
Q73. Which one of the following is not a function of the Reason R: However, the commitment to individual
estimates committee? autonomy cannot force the liberal state to provide the
(a) To suggest alternative policies in order to bring about social and material conditions by which citizens could
efficiency and economy in administration come to be autonomous. It must depend on the individuals
(b) To examine whether the money is well laid out within to strive independently for achieving their autonomy.
the policy implied in the estimates In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(c) To examine the report of the CAG with a view to find out appropriate answer from the options given below.
that the money voted by the Parliament has been utilized (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
by the authority concerned. explanation of A.
(d) To suggest the form in which estimates can be (b) Both A and R are correct but R is Not the correct
presented to Parliament. explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
Q74. The paper entitled ‘The study of administration’, (d) A is not correct but R Is correct
published in Political Science Quarterly in 1887, was
written by: Q78. Which event led George W. Bush to transform his
(a) Henry Fayol foreign policy into one of global power projection and
(b) Woodrow Wilson interventionism?
(c) Mary Parker Follett (a) 26th November
(d) Max Weber (b) 11th September
(c) 5th December
Q75. Who among the following thinkers are associated (d) 11th October
with participatory democracy?
A. Carole Pateman Q79. Which of the following statements are correct in the
B. lan Shapiro arena of administrative theories:
C. Benjamin Barber A. Ideal type bureaucracy was formulated by Max Weber.
D. Jurgen Habermas B. Frederick Taylor is considered as the father of Scientific
E.C.B. Macpherson Management Theory.
(a) A, B and C only C. Henry Fayol is considered to be the father of Human
(b) A, B and D only Relations Theory.
(c) A,C and E only D. The Hawthorne experiment is associated with
(d) A,C and D only Bureaucratic theory.
(a) A, C and D only
Q76. Choose the correct statements given below: (b) C and D only
A. Conflict in society and politics is inevitable. (c) A and B only
B. The usage of violence in conflicts cannot be eliminated (d) B, C and D only
by protests against such violence.
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Q80. Match List I with List II (a) A only
(b) D only
(c) C only
(d) B and E only

Q85. Who among the following came out with an

innovative idea of ‘constructive conflict’?
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(a) Mary Parker Follett
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Max Weber
(d) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(d) Henry Fayol
Q81. Arrange chronologically India’s association with the
following international organization Q86. Which of the following concepts are not related to
A. United Nations John Rawls?
B.G77 (a) Justice as Fairness
C. NAM (b) Distributive Justice
D. G20 (c) Class in itself
(a) A,B,C,D (d) Veil of ignorance
(b) A,C, B,D
(c) B,A,C,D Q87. Who has stated that, religion is the real criterion of
(d) D,B AC Manu’s state-polity?
(a) Nalini Sinha
Q82. Which of the following is not a principle-of Nozick's (b) Satyamitra Dubey
‘entitlement theory’? (c) Mahendra Prasad Singh
(a) A principle of transfer-whatever is justly acquired can (d) Himanshu Roy
be freely transferred
(b) A principle of just initial acquisition- an account of how Q88. Which of the following statements is/are not correct
people come to initially awn the things which can be regarding the ICT based e-governance?
transferred in accordance with (1) A. E-governance reduces the cost of government.
(c) A principle of final acquisition- our account of how B. E-governance reduces the transparency of government.
people come to finally own the things which have been C. E-governance increases citizen's Input into government.
transferred in accordance with (1) D. E-governance Increases bureaucratic red tapism.
(d) A principle of rectification of injustice- how to deal with (a) A, B &C only
holdings if they were unjustly acquired or transferred. (b) B & D only
(c) B, C & D only
Q83. Aristotle criticized popular rule on the ground that (d) A & Conly
masses would resent the wealth of the few, and too easily,
fall under the sway of the following: Q89. Who wrote the book- Management: Tasks,
(a) The King Responsibilities, Practices?
(b) The leading citizens (a) John Dorr
(c) The demagogue (b) Peter Drucker
(d) None of the given options (c) Gillian Tett
(d) Brene Brown
Q84. Find out the books written by Mahatma Gandhi given
below: Q90. Who of the following described Kabir as ‘Muktidoot'?
A. Modern India (a) Rabindra Nath Tagore
B. Constructive Programme (b) Mahatma Gandhi
C. India’s struggle for Independence (c) Madan Mchan Malviya
D. Why socialism (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
E. Hind Swaraj
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Directions (91-95): Read the following passage and Q95. What is it that the ‘New Right’ does not associate with
answer the questions. ‘self-supporting’ as-a civic virtue?
What are the seed beds of civic virtue? There are a variety (a) citizenship
of aspects of liberal society that can be seen as inculcating (b) Full membership of a society
civic virtues, including the market, civic associations, and (c) Being a career oriented selfish person
the family. Let me briefly look at each of these theorists of (d) Full filling the obligation to support oneself
the’New Right’ often praise the market as a school of civic
virtue. Many Thatcher/Reagan reforms of the 1980s aimed Directions (96-100): Read the following passage and
to extend the scope of markets in people's lives through answer the questions
free trade, deregulation tax cuts, the weakening of trade The group of twenty or G20 has of late emerged as a very
unions, and reducing welfare benefits in part in order to premier forum for international cooperation. The
teach people the virtues of initiative and self-reliance. significance of it arises from the fact that its members are
Much of the-recent right wing attack on the welfare state the world’s advanced and emerging economies. These G20
has been formulated precisely in terms of citizenship. The members altogether represents about 85% of the global
welfare state was said to promote passivity amongst the GDP. 80% of global trade and two-thirds of the world's
poor, creating a culture of dependency reducing citizens to population. The G20 originated to overcome the financial
passive dependants under bureaucratic tutelage. The crisis that occurred in 1990s in the emerging economies of
market, by contrast, encourages people to be self- Asia. This organization is broadly representative and
supporting. The new right believes that being self- inclusive as the G20 chair has been made rotational
supporting is not only an important civic virtue In itself, annually and a member from different regional grouping of
but also a precondition for being accepted as a full member countries is elected to its presidency. Since its beginning,
of society. By failing to meet the obligation to support India has actively participated in the G20 process. India is
themselves, the long-term unemployed are a source of a major stakeholder and also interested in the stability of
shame for society as well as themselves. the world economy. Due to India’s support during the
Seoul summit development was included as an agenda
Q91. Which is net a source of civic virtue among the item and the Seoul Development consensus also emerged.
following India’s interest in G20 has imparted dimension and
credibility to G20 deliberation. India's successful
(a) Army
organization of G20 summit in New Delhi recently has
(b) Family
again ignited hopes for the establishment of a framework
(c) Civic associations
for strong, sustainable and balanced growth and an
(d) The market
alternative world order.
Q92. How does the market inculcate civic virtue according
Q96. Which of the following is the reason for the formation
to ‘New Right’ theorists
of G20?
(a) By accelerating trade and commerce
(a) World financial crisis
(b) By offering gainful employment
(b) Asian financial crisis
(c) By encouraging to be self-supporting
(c) African financial crisis
(d) By punishing those who are unemployed
(d) European financial crisis
Q93. Which of the aspects given below is not a direction Q97. Why has India taken active interest in G20?
favoured by Thatcher/Reagan reforms? (a) To not achieve its own economic stability
(a) Deregulation (b) To endure world economic stability
(b) Tax cuts (c) To negotiate successfully its debt crisis
(c) Strong Trade unions (d) To not establish itself as a major economic power
(d) Reduced welfare benefits
Q98. What is the significance of recently concluded G20
Q94. How does the welfare state promote passivity in the summit?
poor? (a) Consumers on a framework for sustainable balanced
(a) Offering employment to the unworthy growth
(b) Creating a culture of dependency (b) Women led development process
(c) Giving free subsidies to the entire population (c) Emergence of Global South as one voice
(d) Incentivizing the habit of laziness (d) All of the above options

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Q99. Why G20 is considered a representative forum? (d) Chair's term is limited to three years
(a) Chair is not rotational
Q100. Which of the following is the objective of G20
(b) Chair is rotational and from a different strategic (a) International cooperation
grouping against China (b) Regional cooperation
(c) Chair is rotational annually and from a different region. (c) Sectoral cooperation
(d) Cooperation with the powers on political matters

Solutions
S1. Ans.(b) Information Booster:
Sol. The true beginning of the modern state system is (a) Bottom-up democratic transition involves
widely recognized to have been marked by the end of the democratization driven by the populace or civil society
Thirty Years' War, through the Peace of Westphalia in organizations, often through protests, civil disobedience,
or revolutionary movements demanding political change.
1648. This pivotal event in European history concluded
(c) First reverse wave and (d) Second reverse wave
with the signing of two peace treaties of Osnabrück and refer to Samuel P. Huntington's theory of democratic
Münster, collectively known as the Peace of Westphalia. waves and reverse waves, describing periods of global
These treaties are considered foundational in the shifts towards democracy followed by reversals to
development of the sovereign state system we recognize authoritarianism. However, these terms do not specifically
today. The Peace of Westphalia is credited with describe the process of democratization initiated by ruling
establishing the concept of sovereign states governed by a elites.
recognized set of international laws and norms. It
S4. Ans.(d)
effectively ended the medieval practice of overlapping
Sol. Bhikhu Parekh identifies several questions that are
authorities and allegiances and laid the groundwork for the
often ignored by Indian political thought, but among them,
principle of national self-determination. modern individual thinkers is not mentioned. He has
written extensively on the nature of the Indian state and
S2. Ans.(c) social justice in India, and his work is highly regarded in
Sol. The correct match is (c) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III, associating these areas. However, political economy is also not
each thinker with their renowned work. mentioned as a question ignored by Indian political
thought, and it is an important topic in Indian economic
S3. Ans.(b) studies.
Sol. A Top-down democratic transition refers to the
S5. Ans.(a)
process where the existing dictatorial or authoritarian Sol. Susan Sontag is not primarily associated with Feminist
ruling elites initiate reforms towards democratization. Theory. While an influential critic and writer, her main
This approach contrasts with bottom-up transitions, which contributions are in the fields of art, culture, and politics,
are driven by the populace demanding democratic reform. not specifically feminism.
Top-down transitions are characterized by the
leadership's strategic decision to implement liberalizing S6. Ans.(b)
reforms, which may include legal, political, and economic Sol. . Both Assertion A and Reason R are correct, but
Reason R is not the correct explanation of Assertion A.
changes aimed at opening up the political system. These
Assertion A is accurate because India has indeed been
reforms can lead to a more inclusive, democratic considered a refuge for various groups fleeing persecution
governance structure, often as a strategy to maintain or conflict in their home countries throughout history, such
stability, improve international relations, or address as Tibetans, Sri Lankans, Afghans, and others. This status is
internal pressures without losing control. The leadership largely due to India's historical, cultural, and ethical
may see these reforms as a way to legitimize their rule, commitment to offering sanctuary to those in need.
alleviate social tensions, or adapt to external pressures for Reason R is also correct; India does not have a specific
democratization. This method has been observed in refugee law and has not ratified the 1951 Refugee
Convention or its 1967 Protocol, relying instead on ad hoc
various historical contexts where transitions to democracy
arrangements and the Foreigners Act, 1946, for the
were initiated by the ruling elites rather than by mass
treatment of refugees. However, the lack of a formal
revolutions or external imposition. refugee law or non-signature of the 1951 Refugee
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Convention does not directly explain why India has been (c) Misrepresents philosophical anarchism, which can
considered a safe haven for refugees. The explanation for critique liberal principles but is not inherently opposed to
India being deemed a safe haven is more closely related to them. It is more focused on the question of authority and
its historical practices, humanitarian approach, and ethical legitimacy.
considerations rather than the absence of a formal refugee (d) Suggests an ideal of international relations rather than
framework. the philosophical inquiry into the legitimacy of state
authority.
S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct chronological order of the committees S9. Ans.(a)
with regards to corruption and administrative reforms in
Sol. Anandpur Sahib Resolution – 1973
India is:
Shillong agreement – 1975
1. Gorwala Committee: Established in 1951 to examine Rajiv Gandhi-Longowal Accord- 1985, JULY
the public system's efficiency and to suggest measures for
Assam Accord- 1985, AUGUST
its improvement.
2. Santhanam Committee: Formed in 1962, it was the first
S10. Ans.(d)
major attempt to study corruption in the Indian Sol. Accountability involves being answerable for actions,
administrative system and suggested comprehensive subject to oversight, and justifying decisions. Various types
measures for its prevention.
of accountability, including legal, social, and political, exist
3. First Administrative Reforms Commission: globally. However, it's not limited to developed countries,
Constituted in 1966, aimed at reviewing the public as accountability is crucial for governance effectiveness
administration system of India and suggesting reforms. worldwide. Option C is incorrect as it wrongly suggests
4. Vohra Committee: Set up in 1993, it examined the issue that accountability is exclusive to developed nations.
of criminalization of politics and the nexus among
criminals, politicians, and bureaucrats in India. S11. Ans.(a)
Therefore, the correct option is (c) A, D, B, C, which reflects Sol. The correct sequence of the Director Generals of the
the chronological order in which these committees were
World Trade Organization (WTO) who held office in
established, starting from the Gorwala Committee to the ascending order is:
Vohra Committee. 1. Mike Moore (1999-2002): He served as the Director-
General from New Zealand, leading the organization at the
S8. Ans.(b) turn of the millennium.
Sol. The main argument of philosophical anarchism is 2. Supachai Panitchpakdi (2002-2005): Hailing from
that no state in fact has authority. Philosophical anarchism
Thailand, he took over after Mike Moore and was the first
is a theoretical stance questioning the legitimacy of the Director-General from a developing country.
state's authority over individuals. Unlike more radical 3. Pascal Lamy (2005-2013): From France, Pascal Lamy
forms of anarchism that may advocate for the abolition of served two terms, making significant contributions to the
the state, philosophical anarchism focuses on the moral or international trade system during his tenure.
philosophical argument that no state possesses legitimate 4. Roberto Azevêdo (2013-2020): The Brazilian
authority. It challenges the moral justification for any Director-General followed Lamy, focusing on reviving
government to have power over individuals who have not global trade negotiations amidst numerous challenges.
explicitly consented to be governed. This stance is Therefore, the correct order is (a) A, C, B, D. This sequence
grounded in the belief in individual autonomy and the right accurately reflects the chronological order of their service
to self-governance, suggesting that all human interactions as Directors-General of the WTO, highlighting the
and associations should be based on voluntary agreement leadership transition within the organization.
rather than imposed by an external authority.
Philosophical anarchists do not necessarily call for the S12. Ans.(a)
immediate dismantling of all governmental structures but Sol. The correct matching of the electoral systems
highlight the problematic nature of assuming state terminologies with their meanings is as follows:
authority is inherently justified. A Universal suffrage: III. The right to vote which is not
Information Booster:
restricted by race, gender, belief, or social status. Universal
(a) Advocates the outright abolition of the state but is more
suffrage is a fundamental principle of democratic societies,
aligned with practical or radical anarchism than the
ensuring that all adult citizens have the right to vote
philosophical critique of state authority.
without discrimination.
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B. Majoritarian electoral systems: IV. An electoral S14. Ans.(c)
system in which the candidates or parties that receive the Sol. Article 328 of the Indian Constitution grants the state
most votes win. Majoritarian systems are designed to legislature the power to make provision with respect to
produce a clear winner, often requiring a candidate to elections to such legislature. This article allows state
secure a majority of the votes. legislatures to enact their own laws to deal with the
C. Single-member district plurality system: I. An specifics of conducting elections to the state legislative
electoral system in which individuals cast a single vote for bodies, within the framework of the constitution and any
a candidate in a single-member district. This system, also laws made by Parliament. It ensures that states have the
known as "first-past-the-post," awards the seat to the flexibility to address local issues and circumstances related
candidate with the most votes in each district, regardless to the electoral process, provided that these provisions do
of whether they achieve an absolute majority. not contravene any central laws on elections or the
D. Alternative vote: II. A form of majoritarian electoral
constitutional provisions.
systems that involves preferential voting. In the alternative
Information Booster:
vote system, voters rank candidates in order of preference.
• (a) Article 324 deals with the appointment and powers
If no candidate receives a majority of first-preference
of the Election Commission of India, which is responsible
votes, the least popular candidate is eliminated, and votes
are redistributed until one candidate achieves a majority. for supervising, directing, and controlling the conduct of
Therefore, the correct option is (a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. This elections to the Parliament, state legislatures, and the
matching accurately reflects the definitions and offices of President and Vice-President of India.
applications of each electoral system terminology. • (b) Article 326 provides for the right to vote to be based
on adult suffrage, meaning that every citizen who is not
S13. Ans.(b) less than 18 years of age and is not disqualified under the
Sol. The arguments typically associated with 'right' wing Constitution or any law on the grounds of non-residence,
political forces emphasize individual responsibility, unsoundness of mind, crime, or corrupt or illegal practice,
skepticism towards the effectiveness of state intervention has the right to vote.
in social issues, and concerns about the unintended • (d) Article 352 pertains to the proclamation of
consequences of welfare policies. emergency by the President of India in cases of war,
A. To what extent are people poor because of their own external aggression, or armed rebellion, indicating a
choices as opposed to unequal opportunities? This completely different aspect of constitutional provisions
question reflects a belief in personal responsibility for unrelated to elections.
one's economic situation, a common view among right-
wing ideologies. S15. Ans.(b)
D. Has the welfare state created a class of welfare Sol. Satyashodhak Samaj was founded by (b) Jyotiba
dependents caught in a poverty trap? Right-wing forces Phule to focus on social reform, particularly caste
often argue that welfare systems can create dependency
discrimination and women's rights in India.
rather than empowering individuals to improve their
circumstances.
S16. Ans.(d)
E. Are the sources of social ills like poverty,
Sol. Both wanted freedom from colonial rule so that was
homelessness, high school drop-out rates, and so on so
not a issue of debate between Gandhi and Tagore.
complex that state attempts to solve them will
generally fail, and often worsen the problem? This
reflects a skepticism towards the state's ability to address S17. Ans.(a)
complex social issues effectively, a viewpoint typically held Sol. The book ‘Capitalism, Socialism and Democracy’ is
by those on the political right. authored by Joseph Schumpeter. Published in 1942,
Therefore, the correct option is (b) A, D, and E only, as Schumpeter's work is a critical analysis of capitalism and
these arguments align with the perspectives commonly its relationship to democracy and socialism. He introduces
held by right-wing political forces. They focus on individual the concept of "creative destruction" to describe the
accountability, the potential negative impacts of welfare process of transformation that accompanies innovation in
systems, and a critical view of state intervention in social capitalism, arguing that this dynamic is vital for economic
issues. progress.

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S18. Ans.(d) S22. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct statements with regard to a ‘Failed-state’ Sol. It is known as Gaza report.
are:
• B. A failed state is unable to provide the functions S23. Ans.(c)
that define them as states. This statement accurately Sol. Statements A and C are correct. Weapons of mass
reflects the definition of a failed state, which is destruction (WMDs) include nuclear explosive weapons,
characterized by its inability to perform the basic functions among others, such as biological and chemical weapons.
of a government, including providing security, upholding The Chemical Weapons Convention, which came into effect
law and order, and delivering basic services to its citizens. in 1997, outlaws chemical weapons as WMDs. Statement B
• A. Sierra Leone has been considered a failed state, is incorrect because biological weapons are indeed
particularly in the past during its civil war and the included in the category of WMDs. Statement D is incorrect
immediate aftermath, due to its government's inability to because the Chemical Weapons Convention came into
provide basic public services, maintain internal order, or effect in 1997, not 1998.
ensure economic stability. However, it's important to note
that the classification of a country as a failed state can S24. Ans.(c)
change over time based on improvements or Sol. The correct statements with regard to the 108th
deteriorations in governance and stability. Amendment Bill, 2008, often referred to as the Women's
The assertion that a failed state can successfully control or Reservation Bill, are:
coerce its inhabitants (C and D) contradicts the • A. Reservation of seats reserved for scheduled caste
fundamental characteristics of a failed state, which include for women shall cease to exist 15 years after the
a lack of effective governance and control over its territory commencement of this Bill: This part of the statement
and population. correctly reflects the sunset clause associated with the
reservation proposed by the bill, which applies to all forms
S19. Ans.(c) of women's reservation under this amendment, including
Sol. The self-respect movement was started by (c) E.V. for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
Ramaswami Naicker, also known as Periyar, as part of • D. Reserved seats may be allotted by rotation to
social reform focusing on caste eradication and promoting different constituencies in the state or UTs: This is
self-respect among the lower castes. accurate and an essential feature of the Bill, which
proposes that the reservation of seats for women shall be
S20. Ans.(b) rotated among different constituencies to ensure uniform
Sol. Frederick Taylor, known as the father of scientific representation over cycles of elections.
management, introduced the concepts of time and motion The Bill actually seeks to reserve one-third of all seats for
studies, piece-rate compensation systems, and the women in both the Lok Sabha and all state legislative
principle of 'a fair day's work for a fair day's pay' to assemblies, not just the Lok Sabha as option B suggests.
organizations. While Taylor himself did not specifically Moreover, it includes reservation within reserved
introduce the 40-hour workweek, his work laid the categories in both the Lok Sabha and state assemblies,
foundation for efficiency studies and labor practices that contrary to what C suggests, which limits it to legislative
eventually influenced work hours and conditions. Taylor's assemblies only. Therefore, options B and C are not
methods aimed at increasing productivity and efficiency by entirely accurate in the context of the Bill's provisions.
scientifically analyzing work processes and determining
the most efficient ways to perform tasks, thereby S25. Ans.(d)
significantly influencing modern organizational Sol. Contract is not a foundation of diplomacy and
management and industrial engineering. statecraft.

S21. Ans.(b) S26. Ans.(a)

Sol. The Citizens' Charter was first articulated and Sol. Assertion A is correct because Gandhi indeed
implemented in the UK as a national programme in 1991. advocated for 'Ahimsa' (non-violence) as a crucial
Initiated by then Prime Minister John Major, the Citizens' component of his model of conflict resolution, emphasizing
Charter aimed at improving public services by making peaceful means for social change and political action.
them more responsive to the needs and preferences of Similarly, Reason R is also correct and it clearly
users. The charter set out a series of rights for users of complements each other.
public services, including standards of service they could
expect, access to information and redress when standards S27. Ans.(b)
were not met. It represented a significant shift towards Sol. Ernst B. Haas gave eight distinct meanings for the term
increasing accountability and quality in public services. “Balance of Power.

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S28. Ans.(c) • C. Human relations theory is associated with IV.
Sol. Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) pioneered Organization is to be viewed as a social system and
the Jan Sunwai (Public Hearing) movement in India. Jan informal elements play an important role in the
Sunwai is a practice of organizing public hearings where overall organizational output, highlighting the
people can present evidence and arguments against importance of social and psychological factors in the
corrupt or inefficient practices by public officials and workplace, as emphasized by Elton Mayo and others.
government entities. This grassroots approach was • D. Rational decision-making theory corresponds to I.
instrumental in promoting transparency, accountability, Decision making process involves three phases-
and participatory governance in India. It also played a intelligence activity, design activity and choice activity,
crucial role in the campaign for the Right to Information reflecting the structured approach to making decisions
Act, empowering citizens to demand and access based on logical and systematic analysis.
information from the government. MKSS's efforts in
utilizing Jan Sunwai as a tool for social audit and S33. Ans.(a)
accountability have inspired similar movements and Sol. Morgenthau is the scholar who said that statesmen
practices across the country, contributing significantly to "think and act in terms of interest defined as power." This
the enhancement of democratic processes and the fight reflects the core principle of his realist theory in
against corruption. international relations, emphasizing the role of power in
state behavior.
S29. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct match is (c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV, associating S34. Ans.(b)
each book with its correct author based on their expertise Sol. The Public Accounts Committee is an important
and contributions. parliamentary committee in India. The correct
characteristic of its composition is that the Public
S30. Ans.(d) Accounts Committee is an annually elected body in
Sol. The present political regime in the Central Asia accordance with the principle of the proportional
republic of Tajikistan falls under the category of (d) representation followed by the single transferable
Civilian dictatorship. Tajikistan is officially a presidential vote system. This ensures a wide representation of
republic, but it is widely considered to be authoritarian, different political parties in the committee based on their
with President Emomali Rahmon having held power since strength in the Parliament. The committee plays a crucial
1992 through tightly controlled elections and a strong grip role in examining the annual audit reports of the
on political and economic life. Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), which are
submitted to the Parliament.
S31. Ans.(c) Information Booster:
Sol. The theory that argues, “countries are more likely both • The PAC is actually composed of members from both the
to become democratic and to stay democratic as they Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, with a majority from the
develop economically”, is known as (c) Classic Lok Sabha, making option (a) incorrect.
Modernization theory. Classic Modernization theory • The PAC typically consists of 22 members, with 15 from
suggests that as countries undergo economic development, the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha, which makes
social changes lead to more democratic political systems. option (c) incorrect.
• Members can be re-elected to the PAC, so option (d) is
S32. Ans.(a) also incorrect.
Sol. The correct match is (a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I, associating
each theory with its corresponding explanation accurately. S35. Ans.(b)
• A. Scientific management theory is matched with II. Sol. A. SCO (Shanghai Cooperation Organization): IV.
The development of a true science of work, which 2001
reflects Frederick Taylor's principles focusing on • B. BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, and China, which later
efficiency, work standardization, and the optimization of became BRICS with the addition of South Africa): II.
worker and managerial productivity. 2006
• B. New public management aligns with III. • C. ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations): I.
Government should be continuously engaged in 1967
improving quality of its programmes and services and • D. EEC (European Economic Community, which later
thereby adjusting with demands, emphasizing evolved into the European Union): III. 1957
efficiency, flexibility, and service improvement in public Therefore, the correct option is (b) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III.
sector management.
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S36. Ans.(d) S41. Ans.(a)
Sol. India Indonesia navies are jointly patrolling the Sol. The correct statements from the given options are:
Malacca Straits. • B. The bilateral relationship was upgraded to
strategic partnership in 2004.
S37. Ans.(a) • C. The EU is also one of the largest sources of FDI for
Sol. A, B & D only India.
Explanation: India was indeed amongst the first countries to establish
• Assertion A: Riggs emphasizes that the structures of diplomatic relations with the European Economic
modern society are typically functionally specific, Community (EEC), which later became the European Union
indicating the differentiation and specialization of societal (EU), making statement A correct as well. However, the EU
components. is not a member of the UN General Assembly; it has
• Assertion B: Riggs defines a structure as any pattern of observer status but not full membership, making
behavior that has become standard within a social system, statement D incorrect.
highlighting the significance of established behavioral Therefore, the correct option is (a) A, B & C.
norms.
• Assertion D: Riggs compares the "image" of Agraria to the S42. Ans.(c)
"model" of a fused society, noting that while they share Sol.
similarities, they are not identical constructions. • D. Sharda Sadan was established in 1898.
• Assertion C is not mentioned in Riggs' points in the given • C. Ramkrishna Mission was founded in 1897.
context. • B. Abhinav Bharat Society was established in 1904.
• A. Tolstoy Farm was established in 1910.
S38. Ans.(b) • E. Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha was founded in 1924.
Sol. B. R. Ambedkar demanded a separate electorate for the
depressed classes in the (b) Second Round Table S43. Ans.(c)
Conference. This was a significant event in the struggle for Sol. The correct answer is (c) Only A, B, and D. Statements
the political representation of the depressed classes in A, B, and D accurately reflect provisions of the 73rd
India. Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 related to
Panchayats. Statement C is incorrect because the State
S39. Ans.(b) Legislative Assembly can indeed grant additional powers
Sol. The correct statements are: and authority to Panchayats as institutions of self-
• A. On 1st April 1950, India was the first non-socialist government.
bloc country to establish diplomatic relations with
China. S44. Ans.(a)
• C. A phase of improvement in bilateral relations Sol. The Linguistic Provinces Commission that was formed
began in 1988. to advise the Constituent Assembly was popularly known
Therefore, the correct option is (b) A & C. Prime Minister as (a) Dhar Commission. Formed in 1948, the Dar
Nehru did visit China during his premiership, making Commission, officially known as the Linguistic Provinces
statement B incorrect. Also, Rajiv Gandhi visited China in Commission, was tasked with examining the feasibility of
1988, not 1993, making statement D incorrect. reorganizing states on linguistic lines in India. The
commission advised caution and recommended against the
S40. Ans.(a) immediate creation of states based on languages.
Sol. The correct statements from the given options are:
• A. Under chapter-VII of the UN Charter, the Security S45. Ans.(b)
Council can take action to maintain or restore Sol. According to the materialist conception of history, the
international peace and security. development of technology and its role in transforming
• B. Under Art. 41, sanction measures do not involve labor and society should come before the proletariat's
seizing political power.
the use of armed force.
• D. Sanctions have been applied by the Security
S46. Ans.(d)
Council to support peaceful transitions, to deter non-
Sol. A. Modern democracy is a party democracy (Katz):
constitutional changes, etc.
This statement by Katz emphasizes the essential role of
Sanctions cannot be withdrawn by the UN General
political parties in modern democratic systems.
Assembly but by the Security Council itself, which makes
C. Parties are the core institutions of democratic politics
statement C incorrect.
(Lipset): Lipset's definition highlights the centrality of
Therefore, the correct option is (a) A, B & D only.
political parties in democratic governance.

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S47. Ans.(c) S50. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct one with regard to constructivist Sol. Kabir is associated with ‘syncretism’. Kabir was a 15th-
argument on democracy is: century Indian mystic poet and saint, whose writings
• C. Constructivist argument treats culture as significantly influenced the Bhakti movement. He is known
something that is constructed or invented rather than for his verses that emphasize a universal path to
spirituality that transcends religious boundaries, blending
inherited. Constructivism in political science emphasizes
elements of Hinduism and Islam, thus embodying the
the socially constructed nature of political and social
essence of syncretism.
realities, including culture, which is seen as an outcome of
social interaction and processes rather than something S51. Ans.(c)
fixed or purely inherited. Sol. Markets and fairs is not part of the concurrent list. The
• D. Constructivist argument claims that culture has a concurrent list in the Indian Constitution includes subjects
causal effect. Constructivists argue that culture, as a social that both the central and state governments can legislate
construct, plays a significant role in shaping political on, such as bankruptcy and insolvency, prevention of
outcomes, including the nature and functioning of cruelty to animals, and economic and social planning.
democracy. Markets and fairs typically fall under the purview of state
Therefore, the correct answer is (c) C & D only. governments.
Constructivist arguments focus on the constructed nature
S52. Ans.(b)
of social and political phenomena and the importance of
Sol. A. He discusses seven types of revolution. Lohia
culture in influencing political behavior and institutions,
indeed advocated for multiple dimensions of revolution,
contrasting with views that treat culture as static or including political, economic, and social aspects.
entirely predetermined. • C. He is an author of the ‘Aspects of socialist policy’.
This work is one of Lohia's contributions to socialist
S48. Ans.(c) thought.
Sol. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. The • E. He said that 'the history of the growth of freedom
transformation of India's economy has not been as Is the history of the perfection of human relationship’.
dramatic as that of post-communist countries in Eastern This reflects Lohia's philosophical outlook on freedom and
Europe. This statement is generally correct as the human relationships.
economic transformations in Eastern Europe after the fall Lohia did talk about transforming society and politics but
of communism were marked by rapid privatization, the specific term ‘Partyless Democracy’ is more closely
liberalization, and transition to market economies, which associated with Jayaprakash Narayan's work, and Lohia
were more abrupt and profound compared to India's gave the concept of ‘Four-Pillar State’, which makes option
D incorrect.
economic reforms.
Therefore, the correct option is (b) A, C, E only.
Statement II: India has produced growth rates as high as
those of China in the 2010s. This statement is incorrect. S53. Ans.(b)
While India has experienced significant economic growth Sol. China. India signed the declaration with China to
in the 2010s, its growth rates have not consistently promote the building of a harmonious world of durable
matched those of China during the same period. peace and common prosperity through developing the
strategic and cooperative partnership for peace and
S49. Ans.(c) prosperity. This reflects the efforts of both nations to
Sol. A. Administration in developing countries: The enhance their bilateral relations and work together on
theory of prismatic society - III. Fred W. Riggs global challenges
• B. Administration behavior - I. Herbert Simon
S54. Ans.(a)
• C. The dynamics of public administration: Guidelines
Sol. The correct observations about deliberative
to current transformations in theory and practice - II.
democracy are:
Gerald E. Caiden
• A. Deliberative democracy describes a normative
• D. The human problem of an industrial civilization - ideal in which free and equal citizens publicly
IV. Elton Mayo exchange reasons with one another. This is a core
Therefore, the correct option is (c) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV. principle of deliberative democracy, emphasizing the
importance of public reasoning and dialogue.
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• B. They do with a view to reaching a consensus about S57. Ans.(d)
some issue or policy or about the principles underlying Sol. Burma (Myanmar) does not fall within the ‘Asian
the system as a whole. Deliberative democracy values Tiger’ economies. The Asian Tigers refer to South Korea,
consensus through reasoned argumentation. Singapore, Hong Kong, and Taiwan, known for their rapid
industrialization and economic growth.
• E. Underlying the deliberative ideal is a powerful
moral intuition about the nature of truly democratic
S58. Ans.(d)
association. This highlights the moral foundations of Sol.
deliberative democracy, which seeks to enhance the Extremely Federal – Paul Appleby
democratic process through inclusive and reasoned public B. Quasi Federal – KC Wheare
discourse. C. Bargaining Federal – Morris Jones
The central claim of deliberative democracy is actually that D. Cooperative Federal – Granville Austin
political decisions and systems gain legitimacy through the
free and reasoned agreement among equals, contradicting S59. Ans.(b)
statement C, which suggests legitimacy can exist without Sol. Statements A, B, and D accurately reflect aspects of
agreement. Statement D describes a misconception of Gandhi's Satyagraha principles that can assist in dialogue
deliberative democracy as purely practical and commonly within societies plagued by mutual distrust:
A. Focusing on the preconditions of dialogue helps
reflected in current political life; deliberative democracy is
establish the moral perspective of the participants, which
more of an ideal that seeks to guide and improve political
is crucial for honest and respectful communication.
processes rather than describing them as they are. B. The knowledge of our partial grasp on truth generates
Therefore, the correct option is (a) A, B, and E only. self-restraint, encouraging humility and openness in
dialogue.
S55. Ans.(d) D. The commitment to non-violence eliminates the feeling
Sol. Atul Kohli's distinction between pro-market and pro- of separation and otherness, fostering a sense of unity and
business state intervention highlights how these strategies mutual respect.
impact economic policies and development. C. is incorrect because the Satyagrahi does indeed take
• A. Pro-business strategy mainly supports established responsibility for creating and maintaining the dialogic
situation. E. is incorrect as the readiness to compromise
producers. This is correct as pro-business interventions
should not neutralize the moral perspective but rather find
typically involve policies that directly benefit existing
a balance between differing views.
companies, such as subsidies, tax breaks, or other forms of
government support that can enhance the competitiveness S60. Ans.(c)
or profitability of established firms. Sol. Option C establishes civil society as one of the various
• D. Pro-market strategy supports new entrants and spheres within the broader societal framework, setting the
consumers. This is correct as well. Pro-market policies are context for its discussion. This is followed by Option A,
designed to increase competition, reduce barriers to entry, which highlights the understanding of civil society as a
and generally create a more level playing field for new collective entity with specific purposes. Next, Option E
entrants. This can benefit consumers through lower prices, signifies the historical origins of the concept during the
more choices, and innovation driven by competition. 17th and 18th centuries in Europe. Then, Option B explains
the ideological backdrop, linking civil society to the liberal
Therefore, the correct option is (d) A & D only. These
movements championed by figures like John Locke and the
options accurately reflect Atul Kohli's distinction between
Scottish Enlightenment. Lastly, Option D underlines the
pro-market and pro-business state interventions in India academic and philosophical development of the concept in
during the 1980s, where pro-business strategies are aimed the 19th century through the writings of Hegel and Marx.
at benefiting established producers, while pro-market
strategies are intended to foster competition and benefit S61. Ans.(c)
consumers and new market entrants. Sol. Bhikhu Parekh's conception of human nature
emphasizes cultural embeddedness and diversity. He
S56. Ans.(a) argues that:
Sol. The UN climate change conference commonly known • A. All references to human nature should be
as the Copenhagen Summit was held in (a) 2009. subjected to the strictest scrutiny and viewed with a
healthy dose of skepticism.

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• B. Human beings are culturally embedded, in the • C. He is appointed by the Prime Minister. This is
sense that they are born into, raised in, and deeply incorrect; the Governor is appointed by the President of
shaped by their cultural communities. India.
• D. Although skin colour, gender, height, and other • D. He holds the office of Governor for a term of 6
physical features are universally shared, they are all years. This is incorrect; the term of office for a Governor is
differently conceptualized and acquire different 5 years.
meanings and significances in different societies. • E. He resigns from his office, by writing under his
Therefore, the correct answer is (c) A, B, and D only. hand addressed to the Prime Minister. This is incorrect;
Parekh stresses the importance of understanding human
the Governor resigns by writing under his hand addressed
beings within their cultural contexts, while being critical of
to the President.
universal claims about human nature.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) A only.
S62. Ans.(b)
S65. Ans.(b)
Sol. "A plea for the Reconstruction of Indian Polity" was
written by JP Narayanan Sol. The correct sequence of democratic transition waves
• "India of my Dreams" was written by M. K. Gandhi in ascending order is:
• "The India War of independence of 1857" was written by 1. B. First wave of democratization - Started in the 19th
VD Saravarkar. century, extending into the early 20th century.
• "Marx, Gandhi and Socialism" was written by Ram 2. A. First reverse wave - Occurred after the first wave,
Manohar Lohia where some democracies reverted to non-democratic
regimes.
S63. Ans.(d) 3. C. Second wave of democratization - Followed World
Sol. The correct chronological order of Aurobindo's life War II.
events is: 4. D. Second reverse wave - This wave saw some of the
1. C. Moved to England - Aurobindo moved to England for democracies established during the second wave revert
his education when he was young. back to authoritarianism.
2. E. Cleared the ICS exam - After completing his 5. E. Third wave of democratization - Began in the mid-
education, Aurobindo cleared the Indian Civil Service (ICS) 1970s and included the democratization of many Latin
examination, but eventually did not take up the service. American, Asian, and Eastern European countries.
3. B. Became the vice-principal of Baroda College - After Therefore, the correct answer is (b) B, A, C, D, E. This
returning to India, Aurobindo became involved in the sequence accurately reflects the chronological order of
education sector and worked at Baroda College. democratization waves and their reverse movements.
4. A. Attended the Banaras session of the Congress -
Aurobindo became actively involved in the Indian S66. Ans.(d)
nationalist movement and participated in Congress
Sol. The vice-presidents of India who later became the
sessions.
president of the country are:
5. D. Arrested for the Alipore bomb case - Aurobindo's
• A. Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan
political activities led to his arrest in connection with the
Alipore bomb case, though he was later acquitted. • C. Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Therefore, the correct sequence is (d) C, E, B, A, D. • E. R. Venkataraman
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) A, B, C, and E only.
S64. Ans.(a) However, it seems there's a typographical error in option
Sol. The correct statements about the qualification and B, which should likely refer to "V. V. Giri" instead of "V. V.
appointment of the Governor are: Gin." Considering the correction, Dr. Sarvapalli
• A. He is a citizen of India. This is a basic requirement for Radhakrishnan, V. V. Giri, Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma, and R.
the appointment of a Governor in India. Venkataraman all served as Vice-Presidents before
The other statements have inaccuracies: becoming Presidents of India. B. D. Jatti never became the
• B. He has completed the age of 25 years. This is President; he served as Acting President but was not
incorrect; the Governor must have completed the age of 35 elected as President.
years.

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S67. Ans.(c) S72. Ans.(b)
Sol. To arrange the administrative thinkers/theorists Sol. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct
chronologically: explanation of A. Assertion A accurately observes the
1. Max Weber (1864-1920) - A German sociologist, increasing use of contracting out and public-private
Weber's work on bureaucracy laid the foundational partnerships in public services and decision-making,
theories for understanding organizational structures and reflecting a shift towards more collaborative forms of
authority. governance. Reason R correctly notes the gap between the
2. F.W. Willoughby (1867-1960) - An American political complexity of modern governance and the traditional
scientist and public administration scholar, Willoughby normative frameworks used to understand and justify
made contributions to the understanding of governmental government actions. However, R does not directly explain
operations and administrative law. why contracting out and public-private partnerships have
3. Elton Mayo (1880-1949) - An Australian-born
become prevalent; rather, it speaks to a broader issue in
psychologist, Mayo is best known for his work on the
governance and decision-making processes.
Hawthorne Studies and is considered a pioneer in
organizational psychology and the human relations
S73. Ans.(c)
movement.
Sol. To examine the report of the CAG (Comptroller and
4. David Easton (1917-2014) - A Canadian-born
Auditor General of India) with a view to find out that the
American political scientist, Easton is known for his
application of systems theory to political science. money voted by Parliament has been utilized by the
Therefore, the correct sequence is (c) B, A, D, C, reflecting authority concerned is not a function of the Estimates
their chronological order based on their birth years and Committee. This function is typically associated with the
contributions to administrative theory and political Public Accounts Committee (PAC), which examines the
science. audit report of the CAG.

S68. Ans.(d) S74. Ans.(b)

Sol. The correct Constitutional Amendment that reduced Sol. The paper entitled ‘The Study of Administration’,
the voting age from 21 to 18 is the 61st Constitutional published in Political Science Quarterly in 1887, was
Amendment Act. This amendment was crucial in granting written by (b) Woodrow Wilson. This work is considered
millions of Indian youths the right to vote, aligning with a foundational text in the field of public administration,
global trends of youth participation in democracy. advocating for a distinct and professional field of
administration separate from politics.
S69. Ans.(c)
Sol. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh visited China in the S75. Ans.(c)
year (c) 2006. Sol. Carole Pateman, Benjamin Barber and Macpherson is
associated with participated democracy. Participatory
S70. Ans.(c) democracy is a model of democracy in which citizens have
Sol. (c) Filibustering is not a key element of direct the power to decide on policy proposals and politicians
democracy. Direct democracy involves mechanisms where assume the role of implementing those policies. This
citizens have a direct role in decision-making, such as approach emphasizes direct involvement by constituents
through referendums, recalls, and plebiscites.
in the political, economic, and social decisions affecting
Filibustering, a tactic used in legislative assemblies to
their lives.
prolong debate and delay or block a vote, is related to
representative democracy, not direct democracy.
S76. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct statements are:
S71. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Twenty-fourth Amendment of 1971 overrode the • A. Conflict in society and politics is inevitable. This
Golaknath case decided in 1967, restoring the Parliament's statement reflects a widely recognized understanding in
power to amend any part of the Constitution, including social and political theory that conflict is a natural part of
Fundamental Rights. social and political life due to differing interests, values,
and beliefs.
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• B. The usage of violence in conflicts cannot be The incorrect statements are:
eliminated by protests against such violence. This • C. Henry Fayol is considered to be the father of
statement recognizes the complexity of conflict dynamics Human Relations Theory. This statement is incorrect.
and the limits of protests in directly eliminating violence. Henry Fayol is known for his principles of management
• C. Non-violent action can be categorized into three and for being a key figure in the classical management
methods: protests and persuasion, non-cooperation, theory, not the Human Relations Theory. The Human
and non-violent intervention. This accurately reflects Relations Theory is more closely associated with Elton
Mayo, especially due to his involvement in the Hawthorne
the categorization of non-violent action as outlined by
Experiments.
scholars like Gene Sharp, who has extensively studied and
• D. The Hawthorne experiment is associated with
categorized non-violent methods of action.
Bureaucratic theory. This statement is incorrect. The
D. Use of non-violent methods is a guarantee of
Hawthorne Experiments are associated with the Human
success. This statement is not accurate. While non-violent Relations Theory, which emphasized the importance of
methods have been effective in many contexts, they do not social factors in the workplace, not Bureaucratic theory.
guarantee success due to various factors influencing the Therefore, the correct option is (c) A and B only.
outcome of social and political movements.
Therefore, the correct option is (d) A, B & C. S80. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct match is:
S77. Ans.(c) • A. Liberalism - III. Moral concern for one another as free
Sol. (c) A is correct but R is not correct. and equal citizens.
Assertion A correctly identifies that autonomy requires • B. Communitarianism - I. Shared understanding and
certain skills, efforts, and social and material conditions, common meaning, based on shared history, culture or
which are often facilitated by the state, highlighting the worldview.
relationship between individual capabilities and external • C. Liberal Nationalism - IV. Shared nationality, based on
conditions for autonomy. a common history, language, and culture.
Reason R, however, suggests that the liberal state does not • D. Multiculturalism/Difference theory - II. No need for
have an obligation to provide the conditions necessary for member to share a common culture, history, worldview,
autonomy, which contradicts the premise that the state language, or value system.
plays a crucial role in enabling individual autonomy by Therefore, the correct option is (d) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.
providing necessary conditions. This does not accurately Liberalism emphasizes individual rights and equality,
Communitarianism values shared community, Liberal
explain or support Assertion A.
Nationalism focuses on common national identity, and
Multiculturalism celebrates diversity.
S78. Ans.(b)
Sol. 11th September. The events of September 11, 2001
S81. Ans.(b)
(9/11 terrorist attacks) led President George W. Bush to Sol. The chronological order of India's association with the
transform his foreign policy into one of global power following international organizations is:
projection and interventionism, initiating the War on 1. A. United Nations - India became a founding member of
Terror and military campaigns in Afghanistan and Iraq. the United Nations at its inception in 1945.
2. C. NAM (Non-Aligned Movement) - India was a
S79. Ans.(c) founding member of the Non-Aligned Movement, which
Sol. The correct statements in the arena of administrative was established in 1961.
theories are: 3. B. G77 - India was a founding member of the Group of 77
• A. Ideal type bureaucracy was formulated by Max at its establishment in 1964.
Weber. Max Weber is renowned for his formulation of the 4. D. G20 - The G20 was established in 1999, with India as
ideal type of bureaucracy, which he described as a rational a founding member.
and highly organized system of administration. Therefore, the correct chronological order of India's
• B. Frederick Taylor is considered as the father of association with these international organizations is (b) A,
C, B, D. This sequence accurately reflects India's
Scientific Management Theory. Taylor pioneered
engagement with these international bodies from its
Scientific Management Theory, focusing on efficiency and
earliest involvement to its more recent associations.
productivity through the optimization of work processes.

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S82. Ans.(c) contrasts with more traditional views that see conflict as
Sol. A principle of final acquisition- our account of how something negative that should be minimized or
people come to finally own the things which have been eliminated. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Mary
transferred in accordance with (1) is not a principle of Parker Follett.
Nozick's ‘entitlement theory’. Nozick's theory primarily
includes a principle of just initial acquisition, a principle of S86. Ans.(c)
transfer, and a principle of rectification of injustice. Sol. Class in itself is a concept related to Karl Marx's
theory of social classes, not John Rawls, who focused on
S83. Ans.(c) political philosophy and ethics.
Sol. Aristotle's criticism of popular rule, or democracy, was
based on his belief that in such a system, the masses could S87. Ans.(b)
become envious of the wealth possessed by a few Sol. Satyamitra Dubey has stated that religion is the real
individuals. This envy could lead to instability and conflict criterion of Manu’s state-polity. This perspective highlights
within the state. More critically, Aristotle argued that this the significant role that religion and religious principles
discontent among the masses would make them played in the formulation and functioning of the state
susceptible to the influence of a demagogue. A demagogue according to the ancient Indian text of Manusmriti,
is a leader who seeks support by appealing to the desires attributed to the sage Manu.
and prejudices of ordinary people rather than by using
rational argument. Aristotle feared that demagogues could S88. Ans.(b)
manipulate public sentiment for their own ends, Sol. E-governance is known for reducing costs,
undermining the stability and integrity of the polity. increasing transparency, and enhancing citizen input,
Therefore, the correct answer is (c) The demagogue. but it does not increase bureaucratic red tapism;
instead, it aims to reduce it. Thus, statements B and D
S84. Ans.(d) are not correct.
Sol. Mahatma Gandhi, a pivotal figure in the Indian
independence movement, authored numerous works S89. Ans.(b)
addressing his vision for India, his philosophy of Sol. Peter Drucker wrote the book "Management: Tasks,
nonviolence, and his strategies for social reform. Among Responsibilities, Practices." Drucker is renowned as a
the options provided, "Constructive Programme: Its leading thinker in the field of management theory and
practice, and this book is considered a seminal work in
Meaning and Place" and "Hind Swaraj or Indian Home
defining the role of management in the modern
Rule" are the two works that were indeed written by
organization.
Gandhi. "Constructive Programme" outlines Gandhi's
vision for an independent India through social reform and
S90. Ans.(a)
upliftment, focusing on self-sufficiency and non-violence.
Sol. Rabindra Nath Tagore described Kabir as
"Hind Swaraj," written in 1909, presents Gandhi's critique
‘Muktidoot,’ which translates to 'The Messenger of
of Western civilization and his vision for India's future
Liberation.' Tagore, a Nobel laureate poet and philosopher,
through the lens of self-rule and traditional values.
greatly admired Kabir's spiritual and secular teachings,
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) B and E only.
which emphasized the unity of God and the importance of
personal devotion over ritualistic practices.
S85. Ans.(a)
Sol. The concept of ‘constructive conflict’ was innovatively S91. Ans.(a)
proposed by Mary Parker Follett. Follett was a pioneering Sol. While the Army can instill discipline, loyalty, and a
management consultant and social worker, whose work in sense of duty, it is not commonly highlighted among the
the early 20th century significantly influenced the field of typical sources of civic virtue in a liberal society as outlined
organizational theory and behavior. She argued that in the context provided. Family, civic associations, and
conflict is a normal, and even healthy, part of the market are specifically mentioned as seed beds of
organizational life. Rather than being suppressed or civic virtue, emphasizing personal initiative, social
avoided, conflict should be managed and used engagement, and self-reliance. The Army, although
constructively to generate creative solutions and enhance important for national defense and character
organizational performance. Follett's approach to conflict development, is not directly related to the inculcation of
resolution included the integration of interests, where civic virtues within the framework of liberal society and
parties involved in a conflict work together to find a ‘win- market-oriented reforms discussed.
win’ solution that satisfies the needs of all. This idea

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S92. Ans.(c) S97. Ans.(b)
Sol. According to 'New Right' theorists, the market Sol. India has taken an active interest in G20 to ensure
inculcates civic virtue by encouraging individuals to be world economic stability. India's involvement in G20
self-supporting. This perspective holds that engaging in
deliberations is aimed at contributing to the global
market activities teaches individuals the virtues of
initiative and self-reliance, which are considered essential economic order in a way that supports stable, sustainable,
for full participation in society. and balanced growth worldwide, reflecting its stake in the
global economy's health and stability.
S93. Ans.(c)
Sol. Strong Trade unions were not favored by S98. Ans.(d)
Thatcher/Reagan reforms; instead, these reforms aimed at Sol. The significance of the recently concluded G20 summit
weakening trade unions to promote free market principles
includes all of the above options: reaching a consensus on
and reduce state intervention.
a framework for strong, sustainable, and balanced growth;
S94. Ans.(b) emphasizing women-led development processes; and the
Sol. The welfare state is criticized for creating a culture of emergence of the Global South as a unified voice, all of
dependency among the poor, according to critiques, by which highlight the comprehensive and inclusive approach
providing extensive benefits that reduce individuals' of the G20 in addressing global challenges.
incentive to work and support themselves, thus promoting
passivity. S99. Ans.(c)
Sol. G20 is considered a representative forum because the
S95. Ans.(c)
Sol. The ‘New Right’ does not associate being a career- chair is rotational annually and comes from a different
oriented selfish person with the concept of 'self- region. This ensures broad representation and inclusivity,
supporting' as a civic virtue. They emphasize self-reliance allowing diverse perspectives and interests from various
and personal responsibility in contributing to society, not global economies to influence its agenda and initiatives.
selfishness.
S100. Ans.(a)
S96. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Asian financial crisis of the 1990s is the reason Sol. The primary objective of G20 is international
for the formation of the G20. The organization was created cooperation. The G20 focuses on facilitating dialogue and
to address and prevent future global financial crises by collaboration among the world's major economies to
facilitating international economic cooperation among the address global economic issues, ensuring stable and
world's major economies. sustainable growth across nations.

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 UGC NET Home Science (13 December 2023 Shift 1)
Q1. Factors affecting use of anthropometric data in Q5. When is National Handloom Day celebrated?
designing include : (a) August 5
A. Static and dynamic anthropometry
(b) August 7
B. Nature of anthropometric measurements
C. Changes over time (c) August 8
D. Reference population (d) September 7
E. Sequence of use of parts of the equipment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Q6. Which of the following is the most appropriate activity
(a) A, B, D and E only for a 5 year old child?
(b) B, C, D and E only
(a) Squeeze toy
(c) A, B, C and E only
(d) A, B, C and D only (b) Board games
(c) Play-dough play
Q2. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of Flat (d) Computer games
Pattern Making?
(a) Principle of Dart Manipulation Q7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good
(b) Principle of Drafting sampling design, if it-
(c) Principle of Added Fullness (a) Provides a representative sample
(d) Principle of body contouring (b) Does not control for systematic bias
(c) Produces a small sampling error
Q3. Match the stages of cognitive development in List –I as
(d) Is cost-effective in terms of available funds
proposed by Jean Piaget with its unique characteristics in
List –II
Q8. The sequential steps in the Likert scaling method are-
A. Testing for reliability by administering it to a large group
B. Retaining and discarding selected items
C. Collecting a large number of statements suitable for the
research problem
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: D. Identifying items with high discriminatory power
(a) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III E. Conducting a pilot test
(b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(c) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (a) A, B, C, D, E
(d) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (b) C, E, D, B, A
(c) A, D, E, B, C
Q4. Which of the following are characteristics and features (d) E, D, C, A, B
of communication?
A. It includes ideas, facts, and opinions.
Q9. Counseling and guidance are not synonymous. Which
B. It is a continuous process.
C. It is both verbal and non-verbal. of the following statements explain this fact?
D. It has both synchronous and asynchronous nature. A. All counseling is guidance, but not all guidance is
E. It is always verbal. counseling.
Select the correct answer from the options given below: B. Counseling is a higher-order technical career, but
(a) Only A, D, and E guidance can be provided by someone who has sufficient
(b) Only B, C, and E information about the 'subject of concern'.
(c) Only A, B, and E C. Counseling is advising, but guidance is assisting.
(d) Only A, B, and C D. Counseling is curative, and guidance is preventive.
E. Counseling is preventive, and guidance is curative.

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Select the correct answer from the options given below: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Only B, C, and D (a) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(b) Only A, B, and E (b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(c) Only A, C, and E (c) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(d) Only A, B, and D (d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Q10. The usefulness of the test is closely relating to Q14. Included in the work areas of a residential building
measures of known validity is: are-
(a) Content validity A. Kitchen
(b) Concurrent validity B. Living room
(c) Predictive validity C. Laundry area
(d) Criterion related validity D. Lawn
E. Children's room (Playroom)
Q11. Which of the following are correct ways to ensure Select the correct answer from the options given below:
food safety in institutional nutrition? (a) Only A and B
A. Safety education for staff
(b) Only A and C
B. Safety engineering
(c) Only B and D
C. Implementing safety regulations
D. Providing maternity leave to female staff (d) Only A and D
E. Installation of new equipment
Select the correct answer from the options given below: Q15. Sara feels angry each time she sees her father
(a) Only A, B, and C showing affection to her mother. According to Freud, what
(b) Only C, D, and E is this behavior referred to as:
(a) Castration anxiety
(c) Only B, C, and D
(b) Oedipus complex
(d) Only A, C, and D (c) Inferiority complex
(d) Electra complex
Q12. Select the statements that reflect the benefits of a
joint family: Q16. Symptoms of boredom fatigue include:
A. Children learn good behavior, diversity, and manners. A. Slow passage of time
B. Children learn to share and care. B. Loss of interest in the activity
C. Children become intractable. C. Aversion from work
D. Children learn to respect each other. D. Frustration due to lack of capacity to perform
E. Children become irritable. E. Time running too fast
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Only A, B, and D (a) A, D and E only
(b) Only A, C, and E (b) A, B and C only
(c) Only A, B, and E (c) B, D and E only
(d) Only B, C, and D (d) C, D and E only

Q13. Match List –I with List -II Q17. REBT in counselling is an acronym for:
(a) Reactive Emotional Behaviour Therapy
(b) Reactive Emotive Behaviour Therapy
(c) Rational Emotional Behaviour Therapy
(d) Rational Emotive Behaviour Therary

Q18. The National Service Scheme was launched in the

country in the year:
(a) 1949
(b) 1959
(c) 1969
(d) 1979

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Q19. Which of the following are probability sampling? Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. Cluster sampling (a) A, B, C, D, E
B. Quota sampling (b) A, C, B, E, D
C. Multiphase sampling (c) B, A, C, D, E
(d) E, C, A, B, D
D. Stratified random sampling
E. Snowball sampling
Q24. Select the correct statements:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A. A sewing method made according to the customer's
(a) A, C and D only instructions badly affects customer satisfaction due to
(b) B, C and D only poor fitting.
(c) C, D and E only B. A sewing method made according to the customer's
(d) A, D and E only instructions results in a garment with good fitting for the
customer.
Q20. Which of the following intervention would calm an C. It is an easy task to obtain a correctly fitting garment in
the ready-made garment industry.
agitated old person with Alzheimer’s Disease?
D. Individual measurements are used in the sewing method
(a) Involve the agitated person in group activities
according to the customer's instructions.
(b) Hold the hand gently/put an arm around the waist of E. Each company has its own measurement chart, which
the agitated person reflects its standard norms in the market.
(c) Turn the light off and make the agitated person sleep Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(d) Switch on the TV/play a radio for the agitated person (a) Only B, C, and D
(b) Only A, D, and E
Q21. Articulation Index is a technique used to give (c) Only A, B, and C
indications about: (d) Only B, D, and E
(a) Air quality
(b) Illumination levels Q25. Match the yarn count system in List –I with unit in
(c) Noise levels List –II.
(d) Humidity levels

Q22. Which of the following changes occur due to

denaturation of proteins?
A. Protein's peptide bonds become readily available for
hydrolysis
B. Protein's solubility increases
C. Viscosity decreases
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
D. Protein's solubility decreases
(a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
E. Biological properties like catalytic hormonal activity are (b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
lost (c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Select the correct answer from the options given below: (d) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(a) Only A, B, and C
(b) Only A, C, and D Q26. Arrange the following phases of microbial growth
curve in correct sequence:
(c) Only A, D, and E A. Logarithmic or exponential phase
(d) Only B, C, and E B. Negative acceleration
C. Lag phase
Q23. Find the correct order for plan of work? D. Positive acceleration
A. Determining need and defining the problem E. Maximal stationary phase
B. Collecting and Analysing the data Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C, D, E, B, A
C. Selecting of problem and determining the priorities
(b) C, D, A, B, E
D. Planning and carrying out plan of work (c) A, B, E, D, C
E. Checking evaluation and reviews the programme and (d) B, C, D, E, A
reconsider the new plans.
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Q27. Who are the beneficiaries of WIFS programme? Q33. Match List –I with List –II.
(a) Pregnant and lactating women
(b) Children below 6 years of age
(c) School going adolescent girls and boys and out of school
adolescent girls
(d) Only adolescent girls

Q28. Arrange the steps of the observation process in

sequence: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. Research design (a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
B. Selecting of area
(b) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
C. Report writing
(c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
D. Collection and analysis of data
E. Formulation of topic (d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, D, E, A, C Q34. What are the post-washing stages in a laundry?
(b) B, A, D, E, C A. Rubbing
(c) B, E, A, D, C B. Rinsing
(d) B, E, D, A, C C. Bleaching
D. Starching
Q29. SPEAKER →SPEECH→AUDIENCE, model of E. Mangling
communication process is: Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) J. Paul Legons’ model
(a) Only B, C, and D
(b) Aritotle’s model
(c) Berlo’ model (b) Only A, B, and C
(d) Westley and Machean’s model (c) Only A, C, and D
(d) Only C, D, and E
Q30. Match the column List –I with List –II.
Q35. Match List –I with List –II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Q31. As suggested by Miller, TOTE is the basic pattern for: Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Feedback unit (a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(b) Output unit (b) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(c) Through but unit (c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(d) Input unit (d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Q32. A child can hold a glass of water before closing the
buttons of a shirt. This example correctly illustrates which Q36. What is the contribution of cotton to the Gross
principle of development? Domestic Product (GDP) of Indian agriculture?
(a) Cephalocaudal (a) 40 percent
(b) Proximodistal (b) 30 percent
(c) Random (c) 20 percent
(d) Fixed (d) 10 percent

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Q37. What is it called when communication enhances the Select the correct answer from the options given below:
interaction of the learner? (a) B, C, D, A, E
(a) Physiological (b) E, B, A, C, D
(b) Psychological (c) A, C, D, B, E
(d) A, E, B, C, D
(c) Artistic
(d) Transient
Q42. What is it called when adolescents form small groups
of about 5-7 members who are close or good friends?
Q38. According to the 2020 updated RDA (Recommended (a) Crowd
Dietary Allowances) for Indians, how much Vitamin C is (b) Liaisons
required for breastfeeding women during the first six (c) Cliques
months? (d) Isolates
(a) 65 mg
(b) 80 mg Q43. Below are two statements: one is written as an
(c) 115 mg Assertion (A) and the other as its Reason (R):
Assertion: The effectiveness of audio-visual aids depends
(d) 60 mg
on the user's skills.
Reason: The selection of audio-visual aids is based on the
Q39. Arrange the steps of entrepreneurial process in
criteria used for teaching and learning.
sequence:
Considering the above statements, select the most
A. Company formation/execution
appropriate answer from the options given below:
B. Growth
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
C. Brainstorming and exploration
of A
D. Idea generation
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
E. Opportunity evaluation
explanation of A
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(c) A is true, but R is not true
(a) B, C, E, D, A (d) A is not true, but R is true
(b) C, B, D, A, E
(c) C, D, E, A, B Q44. Sequence the stages of Kubler-Ross’s five stage model
(d) A, D, C, E, B of grief:
A. Denial
Q40. Below is given a list of teaching methods and B. Acceptance
approaches. Which among them are individualized C. Bargaining
approaches? D. Anger
A. Demonstration method E. Depression
B. Modular approach based learning Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
C. Programmed learning method (a) A, C, D, E, B
D. Personalized teaching (b) A, E, D, C, B
E. Collaborative method (c) A, C, E, D, B
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (d) A, D, C, E, B
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only Q45. Match List –I with List –II.
(c) C, D and E only
(d) A, C and E only

Q41. Arrange the following steps of 'Kalamkari' in order:

A. The fabric is immersed in a solution of cow dung
B. Iron acetate solution is filled in solid areas or as outlines Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
C. Color fixation is done using an alum solution (a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
D. All parts that are not to be dyed blue are covered with (b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
wax and then the fabric is boiled in water to remove the (c) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
wax (d) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
E. The fabric is treated with a myrobalan solution
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Q46. GRIHA stands for: Q52. Match List –I with List –II.
(a) Green Ranking for Integrated Housing Assessment
(b) Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment
(c) Green Rating for International housing Analysis
(d) Green Ranking for International habitat Analysis

Q47. Which of the following strategies do not pave the way

for marital happiness?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. Remaking your spouse (a) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
B. Free communication (b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
C. Respect for each other (c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
D. Using coercive power (d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
E. Insisting on your rights
Select the correct answer from the options given below: Q53. Type I error occurs when someone-
(a) Only A, D, and E (a) rejects the null hypothesis while it is true
(b) Only A, B, and E (b) accepts the null hypothesis while it is true
(c) Only B, C, and E (c) rejects the null hypothesis when it is not true
(d) Only B, D, and E (d) accepts the null hypothesis while it is not true

Q54. Through this the organism learns to make various

Q48. Jacquard loom is used for making:
responses to a wide variety of stimulus situation:
(a) light weight fabrics
(a) Learning
(b) plain weave (b) Conditioning
(c) complex patterned weave (c) Behaving
(d) Twill weave (d) Motivating

Q49. Radio is a medium of? Q55. Arrange the stages of work curve in sequence:
(a) Mass communication A. Plateau of greatest production
(b) Official communication B. Warming up
C. Rest period
(c) Group communication
D. Peak load
(d) Interpersonal communication E. Decline in output
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q50. Which of the following are few causative factors for (a) B, A, E, C, D
ascites in liver diseases? (b) B, D, A, C, E
A. Hypoalbuminemia (c) A, B, E, C, D
B. Retention of potassium by kidneys (d) B, A, C, E, D
C. Renal retention of sodium and fluid
D. Portal hypertension Q56. Below are two statements: one as an Assertion (A)
E. Hyperalbuminemia and the other as its Reason (R):
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Assertion: A teacher sets up a grocery store as a role-play
and assigns children different roles such as cashier,
(a) A, B and C only
customer, and store manager.
(b) A, C and D only
Reason: Children's social interactions guide and facilitate
(c) C, D and E only their cognitive development and learning capacity.
(d) B, C and D only In light of the above statements, select the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
Q51. Which of the following digital dashboard is an (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
integral part of overall POSHAN 2.0 Abiyaan? of A
(a) POSHAN Tracker (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(b) Open Data Kit explanation of A
(c) ICDS CAS (c) A is true, R is not true
(d) POSHAN Drishti (d) A is not true, R is true

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Q57. Below are two statements: one as an Assertion (A) Q61. Arrange the stages of the experiential learning cycle
and the other as its Reason (R): in order:
Assertion: After menopause, women have three times the A. Determination of the experimental stage of the task
risk of heart and arterial diseases compared to pre- B. Planning the process of the task and activities
menopausal women. C. Determination of generalization
Reason: Women of reproductive age, including pre-
D. Application of the prepared plan of activities
menopausal women, have sex hormones, especially
E. Evaluation of the learning cycle
estrogen, which provides protection against arterial
diseases, relaxes arteries, and promotes good cholesterol. Select the correct answer from the options given below:
When menopause starts, estrogen levels begin to decrease. (a) A, B, C, E, D
In light of the above statements, select the most (b) C, B, D, A, E
appropriate answer from the options given below: (c) A, B, C, D, E
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
(d) C, B, A, D, E
of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
Q62. Which of the following derivatives of chlorophyll is
explanation of A
stable during canning and the green colour is retained?
(c) A is true, R is not true
(a) Pheophy tin
(d) A is not true, R is true
(b) Pyropheophy tin
Q58. For a normal distribution in any population, (c) Chlorophyllides
approximately how many observations will be within one (d) Chlorophyll ‘a’
standard deviation above and below the mean?
(a) One-quarter Q63. The diagonal joining of two edges at corners is called:
(b) One-third (a) Mitring
(c) Half (b) Edging
(d) Two-thirds (c) Binding
(d) Banding
Q59. Below are two statements: one as an Assertion (A)
and the other as its Reason (R): Q64. Bivalent evaluative reactions are:
Assertion: Applied research is more important than pure (a) Satisfactory and control reactions
research in contributing to human welfare. (b) Unsatisfactory and control reactions
Reason: Pure research is conducted in laboratories, while (c) Mixture of satisfactory and unsatisfactory reactions
applied research is conducted in the field. (d) Control reactions
In light of the above statements, select the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
Q65. Micro inverters are used when-
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
(a) Sunlight is temporarily obstructed on a part of the solar
of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct panel system.
explanation of A (b) Sunlight falls abundantly on all parts of the solar panel
(c) A is true, R is not true system.
(d) A is not true, R is true (c) Only water-resistant/waterproof components are
installed in the panels.
Q60. A father gently places his hand on his child's shoulder (d) Panels are only made of polythene.
and says, "You understand that you should not have done
that. Let's talk about how you can handle the situation
Q66. According to Mandel, 'change in product'-
better next time." What is this approach called?
(a) is the highest category of change
(a) Authoritative parenting style
(b) Authoritarian parenting style (b) is an intermediate category of change
(c) Neglectful parenting style (c) is the lowest category of change
(d) Permissive parenting style (d) is not considered an option in simplification of work

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Q67. Match List –I with List –II. D. Sash curtain
E. Quilt shading
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Only A and D
(b) Only B and C
(c) Only B and E
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (d) Only A and E
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(b) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II Q73. Which of the following is used to keep food warm for
a long duration?
(c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (a) Bratt pan
(b) Microwave
Q68. Which one of the following is a fabric tunnel? (c) Bain-marie
(a) placket (d) Electric oven
(b) Facing
(c) Casing Q74. Match List I with List II
(d) Binding

Q69. Which of the Method is NOT a method of group

contact?
(a) Field Trip
(b) Conference
(c) Farm and Home Visit
(d) Demonstration
Select the correct answer from the following options:
Q70. Which of the following tasks could be significantly
(a) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
challenging for a child with fine motor skill impairments? (b) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
A. Drawing a picture (c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
B. Holding a ball (d) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
C. Threading beads
D. Carrying a book Q75. Which of the following hormone is NOT counter
E. Stenciling letters regulatory hormone of insulin?
Select the correct answer from the options given below: (a) Glucagon
(a) Only A, C, and E (b) Cortisol
(b) Only A, B, and E (c) Growth hormone
(c) Only A, D, and E (d) Anti diuretic hormone
(d) Only A, B, and D
Q76. Arrange the following fibres in order their strength
from higher to lower (Tenacity under dry condition).
Q71. Traditional Pipli work of Orissa is a type of:
A. Acetate
(a) Mirror work
B. Cotton
(b) Cut work
C. Acrylic
(c) Applique work D. Wool
(d) Zari work E. Flax
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q72. Which of the window coverings use only transparent (a) B, E, C, A, D
fabrics? (b) B, E, A, C, D
A. Glass curtain (c) E, C, D, B, A
B. Bamboo shading (d) E, B, C, D, A
C. Shoji screen/curtain

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Q77. Learning is more likely to occur if the learning In light of the above statements, select the most
experiences are: appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Meaningful repetition (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
B. Unrelated of A
C. Intense and vivid (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
D. Provoking anger explanation of A
E. Generalized
(c) A is true, R is not true
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(d) A is not true, R is true
(a) Only A and B
(b) Only B and C
Q81. Arrange the following symptoms of Vitamin A
(c) Only A and C deficiency from early to last:
(d) Only C, D, E A. Keratomalacia
B. Bitot's spots
Q78. Below are two statements: one written as an C. Night blindness
Assertion (A) and the other as its Reason (R): D. Conjunctival xerosis
Assertion: Adopting eco-friendly methods and E. Xerophthalmia (corneal xerosis)
biodegradable materials for dyeing and printing in textile Select the correct answer from the options given below:
and garment manufacturing can save natural resources (a) C, D, B, E, A
and significantly reduce chemical landfill on a large scale.
(b) C, B, A, D, E
Reason: Biodegradable dyes do not require heavy metals,
amines, and inorganic salts. Hence, they decompose (c) B, A, D, E, A
without leaving any landfill in the environment. (d) D, A, B, C, E
In light of the above statements, select the most
appropriate answer from the options given below: Q82. Which of the following are important functions of
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation food packaging?
of A A. Preservation of the quality and freshness of food
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct products
explanation of A B. Enhancing the taste of food products
(c) A is true, R is not true C. Providing information to consumers about good
products
(d) A is not true, R is true
D. Promoting good products
E. Enhancing the nutritional quality of food products
Q79. Which of the following is a new logo introduced by
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
FSSAI in September 2021 for Vegan foods?
(a) Only A, B, and C
(a) A green colour filled circle inside a square with green
outline (b) Only B, C, and D
(b) A brown colour filled triangle inside a square with (c) Only C, D, and E
brown outline (d) Only A, C, and D
(c) Green colour “V” inscribed in middle of square box with
a small plant on top of it and vegan written at the bottom. Q83. Examples of condensation polymerization are:
(d) A green colour filled triangle inside a square with green A. Acrylic
outline B. Modacrylic
C. Nylon
Q80. Below are two statements: one as an Assertion (A) D. Elastomers
and the other as its Reason (R): E. polyester
Assertion: The degree of flexibility in work organization Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
can be utilized to gain variability benefits in planning and (a) A, B and C only
execution. (b) C, D and E only
Reason: Over time, social diversity, structural, and physical (c) B, C and D only
characteristics can be observed among different (d) A, D and E only
individuals and within the same individuals.
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Q84. The questionnaire format, where the questions are Q89. Stitches used in ‘Kasuti embroidery’ are:
uniform throughout, with all the questions being at one A. Gavanti
level, is called: B. Murgi
(a) Diamond format C. Murri
(b) Funnel format D. Methi
E. Taipachi
(c) Box format
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(d) Mixed format (a) A, B and D only
(b) A, B and C only
Q85. Sarvodaya scheme was started by: (c) C, D and E only
(a) R.N. Tagore (d) B, D and E only
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Acharya Vinoba Bhave Q90. Diagonal lines in interiors suggest:
(d) Sewa Ram Phule (a) Repose
(b) Stability and Alertness
Q86. Which of the following programs of extension were (c) Relaxation and Rest
launched in India before Independence of the country? (d) Dynamism
A. Gurgaon Experiment
Directions (91-95): Read the following Passage and
B. Community Development Progamme answer the following questions:
C. Indian village services The rapidly expanding fashion industry has taken the form
D. Integrated Rural Development Programme of a phenomenon called fast fashion, which is characterized
E. Shanit Niketan Project by rapid changes. This is influenced by micro-trends and
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: social media interactions. The unsustainable nature of this
(a) A, B and C only fast and furious fashion has paved the way for adverse
(b) B, C and D only effects such as climate change, depletion of natural
(c) A, B and E only resources, and loss of biodiversity. The fashion industry,
(d) A, C and E only being the second-largest polluter in the world, contributes
up to 10 percent of global emissions of carbon dioxide,
Q87. Match List –I with List –II. which is more than the combined emissions from
international flights and shipping. Moreover, it holds the
position of the second-largest consumer of the world's
water supply. Annually, the industry is involved in cruelty
to over two billion animals for the production of wool, fur,
and leather products. Consequently, fashion causes
irreversible damage to the environment. This toxic damage
results from several factors including overproduction,
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: excessive consumption, and waste. In light of this critical
(a) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV issue, what measures have this multi-billion dollar
(b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV industry taken to recover from this explosive situation?
(c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I It is found that out of the 100 billion garments
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II manufactured annually, 92 million tons are ultimately
buried in the ground. If this worrying trend continues,
Q88. Arrange the following in the order of lifespan experts predict that by the end of the century, the fashion
development: industry will produce 134 million tons of waste annually.
A. Adolescence According to estimates, the apparel industry is expected to
B. Old age increase emissions by 50 percent by 2030. This alarming
C. Infancy increase in the carbon footprint highlights the significant
D. Parenthood impact of the industry on climate change and emphasizes
E. Childhood the immediate need of the fashion sector. In search of
Select the correct answer from the options given below: sustainability, experts are exploring innovative
(a) B, D, C, E, A environmentally friendly materials like fungus, algae, and
(b) C, E, A, B, D shell waste. Along with this, they are also searching for the
latest recycling technologies with the aim of
(c) D, C, E, B, A
revolutionizing resource management and enhancing
(d) C, E, A, D, B circular economy.

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Q91. What increase in global emissions is expected by mathematical modelling, computer simulations and
2023 due to the apparel industry? measurements to enhance performance and reduce injury.
(a) 20% It can be applied to a wide variety of activities in order to
(b) 30% identify optimal movement patterns to improve activity-
specific techniques, analyze muscular recruitment and
(c) 40%
loading to determine the safest method of performing a
(d) 50% particular task/movement, assist in developing proper
movement habits which can be maintained long term
Q92. What position does fashion hold among the world's (maximizing performance and minimizing injury risk) and
top pollution-emitting sectors? analyze equipment. Biomechanical testing can take place in
(a) The highest the lab or in the field. Tasting methodology is determined
(b) The second highest based on the problem that needs to be answered and in
(c) The third highest consultation with an expert. Some typical biomechanical
(d) The fourth highest testing methods are: 3D and analysis is appropriate for
activities involving complex body movements and were
Q93. In the quest for sustainability, what kind of very accurate, detailed information is needed. Typically 3D
innovative environmentally friendly materials are experts analysis is done using high speed 3D motion analysis
exploring? system in a lab, force plate analysis is typically used for
A. Leather walking, running and landing activities and used in
B. Fur conjunction with 3D motion analysis system, useful for
C. Fungus determining impact, breaking and propulsive forces;
D. Algae calculating joint kinetics; and, weight transfer in dynamic
E. Shell waste activities, high speed video analysis is done with the help
Select the correct answer from the options given below: of high speed cameras, such as photron, that can operate
(a) Only C, D, E upto 1000 Hz. It is very useful for qualitative analysis of
high speed movements and impacts, EMC is used for
(b) Only A, B, C
measuring muscle activity, often combined with 3D motion
(c) Only B, C, D analysis and force plate testing. It is only used for higher
(d) Only A, D, E level analysis and accelerometers, gyroscopes, and lasers
are used to determine the technical characteristics of the
Q94. Fast fashion is- worker’s motion.
(a) Micro-trend
(b) Environmentally friendly fashion Q96. Where can biomechanical testing be conducted?
(c) Sustainable fashion (a) Only in a laboratory
(d) A rapidly occurring phenomenon (b) Only in the field
(c) Only in a computerized system
Q95. Out of the 100 billion tons of garments manufactured (d) Both in the laboratory and in the field
annually, how many tons are buried in the ground?
(a) 82% Q97. The study of human movement including the
(b) 90% interaction between the human and equipment covers:
(c) 92% (a) Consideration of only the forces acting on the body
(b) Consideration of only the movements of the body
(d) 93%
(c) Both kinetics and kinematics
(d) Consideration of potential energy only
Directions (96-100): Read the following Passage and
answer the following questions:
Q98. A qualitative analysis of high speed movements and
Biomechanics or Kinesiology is the study human
impacts can be done by:
movement including the interaction between the human
(a) High speed video analysis
and equipment. Primarily these studies are broken down
(b) EMG
into two broad area: Kinetics (the study of forces acting on
(c) Gyroscope
the body) and kinematics (the study of movements of the
(d) Lasers
body). Biomechanics uses technique including

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Q99. To determine weight transfer in dynamic activities, Q100. Photron can operate upto:
one should use: (a) 10,000 Hz
(a) EMG (b) 10,500 Hz
(b) Gyroscope
(c) 1000 Hz
(c) Lasers
(d) Force plate Analysis (d) 3000 Hz

Solutions
S1. Ans.(d) S3. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct option is (d) A. Static and dynamic Sol. The correct option is (b) A. Sensorimotor: This is the
anthropometry: This refers to the measurements of the stage where infants learn about the world through their
body in both static (stationary) and dynamic (moving) senses and actions. IV. Exploration through sense organs:
positions. Design considerations must account for how the This aligns with the Sensorimotor stage when infants
body dimensions change when a person is at rest versus explore and learn about their environment through their
when they are in motion.
senses and actions.
B. Nature of anthropometric measurements: Different
B. Preoperational: Children in this stage start to use
body dimensions (such as height, width, depth, etc.) and
language and mental imagery but still struggle with logic
their proportions are crucial in designing products,
equipment, or spaces that are comfortable and functional and understanding others’ perspectives. I. Emergence of
for users. symbolic functions: This aligns with the Preoperational
C. Changes over time: Human body dimensions can change stage when children start to use language and symbols to
over time due to factors such as growth, aging, or other represent objects and events.
physiological changes. Designers need to anticipate these C. Concrete operational: At this stage, children can think
changes to ensure long-term usability and comfort. logically about concrete events and understand
D. Reference population: Designers must consider the conservation principles. II. Application of logic: This aligns
characteristics of the population for which the product or with the Concrete operational stage when children can
environment is intended. Factors such as age, gender, think logically about concrete events.
ethnicity, and geographical location can influence D. Formal operational: In this stage, individuals develop
anthropometric data and design requirements. the ability for abstract thinking, hypothetical reasoning,
Information booster: The answer provided in option (d)
and logical problem-solving. III. Hypothetic deductive
excludes “E. Sequence of use of parts of the equipment.”
reasoning: This aligns with the Formal operational stage
This means that while considering anthropometric data in
when individuals can engage in hypothetical-deductive
design, the sequence of body movements or actions
regarding equipment usage is not included as a factor in reasoning.
this particular context.
S4. Ans.(d)
S2. Ans.(b) Sol. The correct option is (d) A. It includes ideas, facts, and
Sol. The correct option is (b) PRINCIPLES OF FLAT opinions: Communication indeed involves the exchange of
PATTERN MAKING: ideas, facts, opinions, and various types of content.
Dart manipulation How a dart's position is altered within B. It is a continuous process: Communication is not just a
the pattern. Without altering the garment's fit, a dart can one-time event but an ongoing process that can involve
be moved to any other location around the pattern (with feedback and further interactions.
respect to the crucial point, or bust point). C. It is both verbal and non-verbal: Communication
Adding Fullness applies when the required excess fullness encompasses both verbal elements (words, language) and
exceeds the dart's capacity. Wherever required, fullness non-verbal elements (body language, gestures).
can be added by using the slash and spread approach.
Only A, B, and C: This option correctly includes the
Contouring transforming the extra dart into style lines to
characteristics that communication includes ideas, facts,
produce a profile that is sculpted.
and opinions (A), is a continuous process (B), and is both
Information booster: Principle of Drafting is not a principle
of Flat Pattern Making. verbal and non-verbal (C). Therefore, the correct answer is
(d) Only A, B, and C.
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Information booster: D. It has both synchronous and Is cost-effective in terms of available funds: Cost-
asynchronous nature: Communication can occur in real- effectiveness is an important consideration in sampling
time (synchronous) or delayed (asynchronous) formats, design. A good sampling design should balance the need for
such as face-to-face conversations or emails, respectively. accuracy and representativeness with the available budget
E. It is always verbal: This statement is incorrect. to ensure efficient use of resources.
Communication can be both verbal and non-verbal.
S8. Ans.(b)
S5. Ans.(b) Sol. The correct option is (b) 1. Collecting a large number
Sol. The correct option is (b) National Handloom Day in of statements suitable for the research problem (C): This
India is celebrated on August 7th every year to step involves gathering a wide range of statements or
commemorate the Swadeshi Movement launched in 1905 items related to the research topic or construct being
and to honor the handloom weavers’ contributions to studied. These statements will form the basis of the Likert
India’s cultural heritage. scale items.
2. Conducting a pilot test (E): Before finalizing the Likert
S6. Ans.(c) scale, a pilot test is conducted with a small sample of
Sol. The correct option is (c) Play-dough play: Playing with respondents. This helps in identifying any ambiguities,
play-dough allows children to engage in sensory confusions, or issues with the scale items or instructions.
exploration, develop fine motor skills, and unleash their 3. Identifying items with high discriminatory power (D):
creativity through shaping and molding. After the pilot test, statistical analysis is performed to
This activity encourages creativity, fine motor skill identify which items on the Likert scale effectively
development, and sensory exploration—all important discriminate between different levels of the construct
aspects of a young child’s learning and growth. being measured. Items with low discriminatory power may
Information booster: Squeeze toy: This can be a suitable be revised or removed.
activity for developing fine motor skills and hand strength, 4. Retaining and discarding selected items (B): Based on
which are important for activities like writing and drawing. the analysis from the previous step, items that
Board games: Board games can be excellent for developing demonstrate high discriminatory power and contribute
social skills such as turn-taking, following rules, and meaningfully to the scale are retained. Items that do not
meet the criteria may be discarded or revised.
cooperative play. They also encourage critical thinking and
5. Testing for reliability by administering it to a large group
problem-solving skills.
(A): The final step involves administering the refined
Computer games: While some educational computer
Likert scale to a larger sample or group of respondents to
games can be beneficial for learning specific skills, it’s
assess its reliability. Reliability testing methods such as
important to limit screen time for young children and
Cronbach’s alpha may be used to ensure internal
ensure that the content is age-appropriate and supports
consistency among the scale items.
their development.
By following these sequential steps, researchers can
develop a valid and reliable Likert scale for measuring
S7. Ans.(b)
attitudes, opinions, or perceptions related to their research
Sol. The correct option is (b) Does not control for question or problem. So, the sequence provided in option
systematic bias: This statement is incorrect. A good (b) C, E, D, B, A, aligns with the sequential steps in the Likert
sampling design should strive to control for systematic scaling method as per the question.
bias to ensure that the sample is not skewed or biased in a
particular direction, which could lead to inaccurate S9. Ans.(d)
conclusions. Sol. The correct option is (d) All counseling is guidance, but
Information booster: Provides a representative sample: A not all guidance is counseling. This statement emphasizes
good sampling design should indeed provide a that counseling falls within the broader category of
representative sample that accurately reflects the guidance but includes additional specialized skills and
characteristics of the population from which it is drawn. techniques.
This helps in generalizing the findings to the larger Counseling is a higher-order technical career, but guidance
population. can be provided by someone who has sufficient
Produces a small sampling error: A good sampling design information about the ‘subject of concern’. This statement
aims to minimize sampling error, which is the difference distinguishes counseling as a profession requiring
between the sample estimate and the true population specialized training and skills, while guidance can be
parameter. Minimizing sampling error increases the provided by individuals with relevant knowledge or
reliability and accuracy of the study’s findings. experience.
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Counseling is curative, and guidance is preventive. This S12. Ans.(a)
statement highlights the different focuses of counseling Sol. The correct option is (a) A. Children learn good
and guidance. Counseling often addresses existing issues behavior, diversity, and manners: In a joint family, children
or concerns and aims to provide solutions or interventions are exposed to different personalities, age groups, and
(curative), while guidance aims to prevent problems by backgrounds. This exposure helps them learn good
offering advice, information, and support beforehand behavior by observing elders and understanding diverse
(preventive). perspectives and cultures, thereby learning manners and
respect.
S10. Ans.(b)
B. Children learn to share and care: Sharing resources and
Sol. The correct option is (b) Concurrent validity -
responsibilities is common in joint families. Children
Concurrent validity assesses how well the results of a new
test correlate with those of an established test naturally learn to share toys, space, and time with siblings,
administered at the same time. This is directly related to cousins, and other family members. They also learn
the usefulness of the test in predicting or correlating with empathy and caregiving skills through interactions within
known criteria. the family.
Information booster: Content validity - Content validity D. Children learn to respect each other: Joint families
refers to the extent to which a test measures the specific emphasize mutual respect among family members,
content or domain it is intended to measure. It is not including children. Living together fosters an environment
directly related to measures of known validity. where respect for elders, peers, and younger ones is
Predictive validity - Predictive validity assesses how well encouraged and modeled by adults.
the results of a test predict future performance or behavior Information booster: C. Children become intractable: This
related to the construct being measured. While predictive statement is not a benefit of a joint family. Intractability
validity is related to the usefulness of a test, it is not the refers to stubbornness or difficulty in managing. In a
best fit for the statement given. healthy joint family, children typically learn cooperation,
Criterion-related validity - Criterion-related validity compromise, and adaptability rather than becoming
encompasses both concurrent and predictive validity, as it
intractable.
assesses how well a test correlates or predicts with an
E. Children become irritable: Again, this is not a benefit of
external criterion. However, in this case, only concurrent
validity was specified. a joint family. Irritability may arise in any family setting
due to various factors, but it is not a direct outcome of
S11. Ans.(a) living in a joint family.
Sol. The correct option is (a) A. Safety education for staff:
Providing safety education ensures that staff members S13. Ans.(b)
understand the importance of food safety practices, such Sol. The correct option is (b) A. Weight for height/length <
as proper handling, storage, and preparation techniques. -3sd of WHO standards in children below 3 years of age
B. Safety engineering: This involves designing and corresponds to III. Severe wasting.
implementing engineering controls to reduce food safety B. Height for age < -2sd of WHO standards in children
hazards, such as maintaining proper ventilation systems, below 3 years of age corresponds to II. Stunting.
using food-grade materials, and ensuring equipment is C. Weight for age < -2sd of WHO standards in children
properly calibrated. below 3 years of age corresponds to I. Underweight.
C. Implementing safety regulations: Adhering to and D. Weight for height < -2sd of WHO growth standards in
implementing food safety regulations set by governing children below 3 years of age corresponds to IV. Moderate
bodies ensures that institutional nutrition facilities meet
wasting.
required standards, such as temperature control,
So, the correct answer is (b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV.
sanitation practices, and food handling procedures.
Information booster: D. Providing maternity leave to
female staff: While providing maternity leave is an S14. Ans.(b)
important workplace benefit, it is not directly related to Sol. The correct option is (b) The work areas included in a
ensuring food safety in institutional nutrition. residential building:
E. Installation of new equipment: While updating A. Kitchen: The kitchen is where food preparation, cooking,
equipment can contribute to food safety indirectly (e.g., and sometimes dining take place. It’s a crucial area in any
modern equipment may have improved safety features), it residential building.
is not listed as one of the correct ways specifically C. Laundry area: This area is designated for washing and
mentioned for ensuring food safety in this context. drying clothes, which is an essential household chore in
most residences.
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The other options mentioned: Time running too fast: This symptom is not typically
Information booster: B. Living room: The living room is a associated with boredom fatigue. In fact, boredom fatigue
common area for relaxation, entertainment, and socializing often makes time feel like it is passing slowly.
but is not a work area in the traditional sense. Therefore, the correct answer is (b) A, B, and C only, as
D. Lawn: The lawn is an outdoor area for recreation and these symptoms align with the typical experience of
aesthetics, typically not considered a work area within the boredom fatigue.
building.
E. Children’s room (Playroom): This is a designated space S17. Ans.(d)
for children’s activities and play, not considered a work Sol. The correct option is (d) Rational Emotive Behavior
area in the context of household chores or tasks. Therapy (REBT) is a form of psychotherapy developed by
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Only A and C, as the Albert Ellis in the 1950s. Here’s an explanation of each part
kitchen and laundry area are the primary work areas of the acronym:
within a residential building. Rational: REBT emphasizes the importance of rational
thinking in understanding and changing irrational beliefs
S15. Ans.(d) and behaviors. It encourages individuals to examine their
Sol. The correct option is (d) Electra complex: It is a theory, thoughts, beliefs, and interpretations of events in a logical
specific for girls in ages 3-6, where they start to hate their and rational manner.
mother and develop feelings for the father. It was Emotive: This refers to emotions and the role they play in
discovered by Carl Jung in 1913. influencing behavior. REBT recognizes that our emotions
Information booster: Castration anxiety: This concept are often influenced by our beliefs and thoughts about
refers to a fear or anxiety experienced by young boys events, rather than the events themselves. It focuses on
identifying and challenging irrational beliefs that
regarding the potential loss of their genitals as punishment
contribute to negative emotions.
for their desire for their mothers and competition with
Behavior: REBT also addresses behavioral patterns and
their fathers.
reactions. By changing irrational beliefs, individuals can
Oedipus complex: It is a theory which states that the
alter their emotional responses and behavioral reactions
children in ages 3-6 start resenting the same sex parent
to various situations.
and develop sexual feelings for the opposite sex parent.
Therapy: REBT is a therapeutic approach used by
However, it focuses primarily on male children. It was
counselors and therapists to help individuals identify,
discovered by Sigmund Freud in 1899
challenge, and change irrational beliefs and behaviors that
Inferiority complex: This concept, proposed by Alfred
contribute to emotional distress and dysfunction.
Adler, relates to feelings of inadequacy and inferiority that
By combining these elements, REBT aims to help
can develop from childhood experiences and affect individuals develop rational thinking patterns, manage
behavior. their emotions more effectively, and engage in healthier
behaviors and responses to life’s challenges.
S16. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct option is (b) The symptoms provided in S18. Ans.(c)
the question: Sol. The correct option is (c) The National Service Scheme
Slow passage of time: When someone is experiencing (NSS) is an Indian government sector public service
boredom fatigue, time can feel like it’s dragging on, making program conducted by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and
activities seem longer and more tedious than usual. Sports of the Government of India. Popularly known as
Loss of interest in the activity: Boredom fatigue often leads NSS, the scheme was launched in Mahatma Gandhi's
to a decreased interest in the task or activity at hand. This centenary year in 1969.
lack of engagement can contribute to feelings of boredom
and fatigue. S19. Ans.(a)
Aversion from work: People experiencing boredom fatigue Sol. The correct option is (a) Probability sampling methods
may develop a strong dislike or avoidance of tasks or work are those in which every member of the population has a
they once found engaging or interesting. This aversion can known, non-zero chance of being selected in the sample.
be a sign of burnout or exhaustion. Cluster sampling: In cluster sampling, the population is
Information booster: Frustration due to lack of capacity divided into clusters, and then a random sample of clusters
to perform: While this symptom is related to fatigue, it is is selected for inclusion in the study. Within the selected
not specifically mentioned in the context of boredom clusters, all members are typically included in the sample.
fatigue in the question. This is a probability sampling method.
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Multiphase sampling: Multiphase sampling involves using Switch on the TV/play a radio for the agitated person:
multiple sampling methods in sequence. The initial phases While distraction through entertainment might work for
may use non-probability sampling methods, but some individuals, it may not be effective for everyone. Loud
subsequent phases often involve probability sampling. or unfamiliar sounds can sometimes exacerbate agitation
Overall, multiphase sampling can incorporate probability in people with Alzheimer’s.
sampling methods, but it is not inherently a probability Considering the options, (b) Holding the hand
sampling method itself. gently/putting an arm around the waist of the agitated
Stratified random sampling: In stratified random sampling, person can be a calming and supportive intervention. It
the population is divided into strata (subgroups) based on provides comfort and reassurance through physical touch,
certain characteristics, and then random samples are taken which can help reduce agitation in some cases.
from each stratum. Because every member of the
population has a known chance of being selected within S21. Ans.(c)
their stratum, this is a probability sampling method. Sol. The correct option is (c) The Articulation Index is a
Information booster: Quota sampling: Quota sampling technique used in the field of audiology and speech
involves dividing the population into groups based on communication to give indications about noise levels. It is
certain characteristics, and then a non-random sample is a measure of speech intelligibility that takes into account
taken from each group until the quotas are filled. Quota the effects of background noise on speech perception.
sampling is not a probability sampling method because not
every member of the population has a known chance of S22. Ans.(c)
being selected. Sol. The correct option is (c) When a protein undergoes
Snowball sampling: Snowball sampling involves recruiting denaturation, its native structure is disrupted, leading to
participants through referrals from existing participants. several changes
This is not a probability sampling method because not Protein’s peptide bonds become readily available for
every member of the population has an equal chance of hydrolysis - Denaturation exposes peptide bonds, making
being selected; it depends on their connection to the initial them more susceptible to hydrolysis.
participants. Protein’s solubility decreases - Denaturation often leads to
Based on the analysis above, the correct answer is (a) A, C, a decrease in solubility due to the unfolding and exposure
of hydrophobic regions.
and D only, as cluster sampling, multiphase sampling
Biological properties like catalytic and hormonal activity
(depending on its specific phases), and stratified random
are lost - Denaturation can lead to the loss of specific
sampling are probability sampling methods.
biological activities as the protein loses its functional
conformation.
S20. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct option is (b) When dealing with an
S23. Ans.(c)
agitated elderly person with Alzheimer’s Disease, it’s
Sol. The correct option is (c) Collecting and analyzing the
important to consider interventions that are calming and
data
supportive. Hold the hand gently/put an arm around the
Determining need and defining the problem
waist of the agitated person: Physical touch can be
Selecting the problem and determining priorities
soothing and reassuring for some individuals. It can help
Planning and carrying out the plan of work
establish a sense of connection and security, potentially
Checking evaluation and reviewing the program,
calming the person down.
reconsidering new plans
Information booster: Involve the agitated person in This sequence may be appropriate depending on the
group activities: This can be helpful if the person enjoys specific context and nature of the work or project.
social interaction and the activity is appropriate for their
cognitive and physical abilities. However, not all S24. Ans.(d)
individuals with Alzheimer’s may respond well to group Sol. The correct option is (d) A sewing method made
activities during agitation. according to the customer’s instructions results in a
Turn the light off and make the agitated person sleep: This garment with good fitting for the customer. - This
approach may not address the underlying cause of statement aligns with typical expectations; following
agitation and may not be suitable during daytime hours or customer instructions should result in a garment that fits
if the person is not naturally inclined to sleep. well.
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Individual measurements are used in the sewing method S29. Ans.(b)
according to the customer’s instructions. - This statement Sol. The correct option is (b) The correct model of
is generally true for tailored or custom-made garments communication process represented by the sequence
where individual measurements are crucial for a good fit. SPEAKER → SPEECH → AUDIENCE is: (b) Aristotle’s model:
Each company has its own measurement chart, which Aristotle’s model of communication emphasizes the roles
reflects its standard norms in the market. - This statement of the speaker (source), speech (message), and audience in
is true; companies often have their measurement charts the communication process. It focuses on the sender
based on standard norms or their specific customer (speaker), the message (speech), and the receiver
demographics. (audience) as essential components in effective
communication.
S25. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct option is (c) A. Denier - Weight in grams S30. Ans.(c)
per 9000 meters (II) Sol. The correct option is (c) Sodium nitrite - Curing agent
B. Tex - Weight in grams per 1000 meters (III) (III): Sodium nitrite is commonly used as a curing agent in
C. Milli Tex (mtex) - Weight in milligrams per 1000 meters meat products to preserve color and prevent the growth of
(IV) harmful bacteria like Clostridium botulinum.
D. Deci Tex (d tex) - Weight in grams per 10,000 meters (I) Calcium silicate - Anticaking agent (IV): Calcium silicate is
often used as an anticaking agent in food products to
S26. Ans.(b) prevent clumping and improve flowability.
Sol. The correct option is (b) Lag phase - This is the initial Gelatin - Thickeners (I): Gelatin is a protein derived from
phase where the cells adapt to the new environment. collagen and is used as a thickener in various food products
Positive acceleration - Growth rate increases as conditions like desserts, gummy candies, and some dairy products.
become favorable.
Benzoic acid - Preservative (II): Benzoic acid and its salts
Logarithmic or exponential phase - Rapid cell division
(such as sodium benzoate) are commonly used as
occurs, leading to exponential growth.
preservatives in food and beverages to inhibit the growth
Negative acceleration - Growth rate slows down due to the
of bacteria, yeasts, and molds.
depletion of nutrients or accumulation of waste products.
Maximal stationary phase - Growth rate equals death rate,
S31. Ans.(a)
leading to a plateau in population size.
Sol. The correct option is (a) The TOTE model, as suggested
by Miller, refers to a feedback unit. The TOTE model stands
S27. Ans.(c)
for Test-Operate-Test-Exit and is used to describe a
Sol. The correct option is (c) The beneficiaries of the WIFS
sequence of actions in a feedback loop to achieve a goal or
(Weekly Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation) programme
are primarily: maintain a desired state.
School-going adolescent girls and boys, and out-of-school
adolescent girls. S32. Ans.(b)
These individuals are provided with weekly iron and folic Sol. The correct option is (b) The example provided as par
acid supplementation to address deficiencies and promote the question, where a child can hold a glass of water before
better health outcomes. closing the buttons of a shirt, illustrates the principle of
development known as Proximodistal. Proximodistal
S28. Ans.(c) development refers to the pattern of growth and
Sol. The correct option is (c) Selecting the area - Identify development that starts from the center of the body and
and choose the specific area or location for observation. moves outward. In this case, the child first develops the
Formulation of the topic - Define and formulate the topic ability to control movements closer to the body (proximal)
or research question to be observed. before mastering skills that involve more distant parts
Research design - Plan and design the research (distal), such as the fingers needed to button a shirt.
methodology and approach for observation. Information booster: Cephalocaudal: This principle
Collection and analysis of data - Gather data through refers to the pattern of development that occurs from the
observation and analyze it to draw conclusions. head (cephalic region) down to the feet (caudal region).
Report writing - Summarize findings, conclusions, and Babies typically gain control over their head and neck
recommendations in a written report. muscles before mastering control over their torso and
limbs.
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Random: This term does not describe a recognized S36. Ans.(b)
principle of development. Developmental patterns are Sol. The correct option is (b) Cotton has long been a major
generally understood to follow predictable sequences and cash crop in India, with a significant portion of agricultural
patterns, rather than being random. land dedicated to its cultivation. Its importance lies not
Fixed: This term also does not describe a recognized only in the production volume but also in its economic
principle of development. Development is a dynamic value throughout the supply chain, including processing,
process characterized by ongoing changes and textile production, and export. India is one of the largest
adaptations, rather than being fixed or static. producers and exporters of cotton globally, further
emphasizing its economic significance.
S33. Ans.(a)
The 30 percent contribution figure likely takes into
Sol. The correct option is (a)
account the direct and indirect economic impact of cotton
farming, including its value in terms of production,
employment generation, industrial processing, and export
revenue. This comprehensive assessment reflects the
substantial role that cotton plays in driving economic
activity within the Indian agricultural sector and the
broader economy.
The garment construction techniques with their
descriptions: S37. Ans.(b)
A. Godet - III. Triangular piece attached at the hemline Sol. The correct option is (b) When communication
B. Gusset - IV. Piece attached at sleeve enhances the interaction of the learner, it falls under the
C. Peplum - I. Short flare attached to the waist of garment realm of psychological factors. Psychological factors
D. Gores - II. Panels in the garment encompass the mental and emotional aspects of learning,
So, the correct answer is (a)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. including how communication, feedback, and instructional
methods influence a learner’s engagement, understanding,
S34. Ans.(a) and motivation.
Sol. The correct option is (a) The post-washing stages in a Information booster: (a) Physiological: This refers to
laundry typically involve several processes to ensure biological or physical aspects related to the body and its
cleanliness, freshness, and proper finishing of the fabric. functions. While physiological factors can influence
Rinsing - After washing, rinsing is done to remove any learning (such as sensory perception, brain function, etc.),
remaining detergent or chemicals from the fabric. they are not directly related to how communication
Bleaching - Used to whiten fabrics or remove stains, enhances interaction in learning contexts.
bleaching is often done after washing and before rinsing. (c) Artistic: Artistic aspects can enhance learning
Starching - This process involves applying starch to fabrics
experiences through creative expression, visual aids,
to stiffen them or give them a crisp finish. It typically occurs
storytelling, and other artistic methods. However, the
after washing and can be followed by ironing.
Information booster: Rubbing - This is not a typical post- question specifically focuses on communication’s role in
washing stage in laundry but may be part of the pre- enhancing learner interaction, which typically aligns more
washing or stain removal process. closely with psychological and instructional design
Mangling - This process involves pressing fabrics between principles.
rollers to smooth and flatten them. It usually follows (d) Transient: This term refers to something temporary or
washing and can be combined with ironing. short-lived. In the context of learning, transient factors
could include temporary distractions, momentary changes
S35. Ans.(a) in attention, or short-term influences that do not have a
Sol. The correct option is (a) lasting impact on the learning interaction compared to the
deeper psychological aspects.

S38. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct option is (c) According to the 2020
updated Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA) for
Indians, the required amount of Vitamin C for
breastfeeding women during the first six months is 115
mg. This amount is based on nutritional guidelines to
support maternal health and ensure adequate vitamin
intake for both the mother and the breastfeeding infant.

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S39. Ans.(c) D. All parts that are not to be dyed blue are covered with
Sol. The correct option is (c) 1. Brainstorming and wax, and then the fabric is boiled in water to remove the
exploration (C): This is where potential business ideas are wax: This step involves using wax to block areas of the
conceived and initial exploration begins. fabric that are not intended to be dyed blue. After dyeing,
2. Idea generation (D): Developing and refining ideas based the wax is removed by boiling the fabric in water, revealing
on brainstorming sessions. the dyed and undyed areas, creating intricate patterns and
3. Opportunity evaluation (E): Assessing the feasibility and designs.
potential of ideas to determine if they are viable business
opportunities. S42. Ans.(c)
4. Company formation/execution (A): Establishing the Sol. The correct option is (c) Cliques : When adolescents
business entity and executing the plans based on the form small groups of about 5-7 members who are close or
evaluated opportunity. good friends, it is referred to as (c) Cliques. These cliques
5. Growth (B): Scaling and expanding the business often share common interests, activities, and social
operations. interactions, and they play a significant role in adolescent
social dynamics and development.
S40. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct option is (b) Individualized approaches in S43. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct option is (b) Assertion (A) is true because
teaching focus on tailoring instruction to meet the specific
the effectiveness of audio-visual aids depends on the user’s
needs of each learner.
skills in utilizing them appropriately.
B. Modular approach based learning - Individualized as it
Reason (R) is also true because the selection of audio-
allows learners to progress at their own pace through
visual aids is based on specific criteria related to teaching
modular content.
and learning objectives.
C. Programmed learning method - Typically individualized
However, the reason provided (R) does not directly explain
as it provides self-paced, step-by-step learning materials.
why the effectiveness of audio-visual aids depends on the
D. Personalized teaching - Highly individualized, as it
user’s skills. Other factors such as pedagogical approach,
involves customizing teaching methods and content audience engagement, and instructional design also play
according to each learner’s needs. crucial roles in determining effectiveness.
Information booster: A. Demonstration method - Not
individualized; it involves showing how to do something. S44. Ans.(d)
E. Collaborative method - Not individualized; it involves Sol. The correct option is (d) Kubler-Ross’s five-stage
group work and collaboration among learners. model of grief:
Denial (A): In this initial stage, individuals may deny the
S41. Ans.(d) reality of the situation. They may refuse to believe that the
Sol. The correct option is (d) The ‘Kalamkari’ process in loss has occurred or that it affects them personally. Denial
order: A. The fabric is immersed in a solution of cow dung: can serve as a protective mechanism, allowing individuals
This step involves soaking the fabric in a solution made to gradually process overwhelming emotions.
from cow dung. Cow dung contains natural enzymes that Anger (D): As denial fades, individuals may experience
act as a mordant, helping to prepare the fabric for dyeing. intense emotions such as anger. This anger can be directed
E. The fabric is treated with a myrobalan solution: at oneself, others, or even at a higher power or the situation
Myrobalan is a natural dyeing agent derived from the fruit itself. It’s a natural response to feelings of powerlessness
of the Terminalia chebula tree. It is used to treat the fabric or injustice related to the loss.
before dyeing to improve color absorption and to create a Bargaining (C): In this stage, individuals may attempt to
mordant effect. negotiate or bargain in an effort to regain control or change
B. Iron acetate solution is filled in solid areas or as outlines: the outcome of the situation. They may make promises,
In this step, iron acetate solution is applied to the fabric seek compromises, or engage in religious or spiritual
either to create outlines or to fill in solid areas. Iron acetate bargaining as a way to cope with the loss.
reacts with the natural dyes used later, creating darker Depression (E): As the full reality of the loss sets in,
shades and enhancing the design. individuals may experience profound sadness, emptiness,
C. Color fixation is done using an alum solution: Alum and despair. This stage involves coming to terms with the
(potassium aluminum sulfate) is used as a mordant to fix magnitude of the loss and facing the associated emotional
the natural dyes to the fabric. The fabric is treated with an pain. It’s important to note that depression in this context
alum solution to ensure that the colors adhere properly is not the same as clinical depression but rather a natural
during the dyeing process. part of the grieving process.
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Acceptance (B): In the final stage, individuals begin to C. Respect for each other: Mutual respect forms the
accept the reality of the loss. This acceptance doesn’t foundation of a successful marriage. It involves valuing
necessarily mean feeling okay or happy about the loss but each other’s opinions, boundaries, and feelings, which
rather coming to a place of understanding and adjustment. fosters a positive and supportive relationship.
Individuals may find ways to integrate the loss into their
lives and move forward with renewed strength and S48. Ans.(c)
resilience. Sol. The correct option is (c) The Jacquard loom is used for
making complex patterned weave fabrics. It is capable of
S45. Ans.(b) producing intricate patterns and designs by controlling
Sol. The correct option is (b) each warp thread individually, allowing for a wide variety
of complex weaves and designs.

S49. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct option is (a) Radio is primarily a medium
of mass communication. It reaches a large and diverse
audience simultaneously, making it an effective tool for
S46. Ans.(b) broadcasting news, entertainment, educational content,
Sol. The correct option is (b) and advertisements to the general public.
The acronym GRIHA stands for (b) Green Rating for
Integrated Habitat Assessment. This rating system S50. Ans.(b)
evaluates the environmental performance of buildings and Sol. The correct option is (b) Hypoalbuminemia: This is a
habitats based on various sustainability criteria such as causative factor for ascites. Albumin is a protein produced
energy efficiency, water conservation, waste management, by the liver, and low levels of albumin (hypoalbuminemia)
and use of renewable resources. in the blood reduce oncotic pressure, leading to fluid
accumulation in the abdominal cavity (ascites).
S47. Ans.(a) Renal retention of sodium and fluid: This is a causative
Sol. The correct option is (a) A. Remaking your spouse: factor for ascites. Liver diseases can lead to portal
This strategy involves trying to change or mold your hypertension and subsequent renal sodium retention,
spouse into someone you desire them to be, which can lead contributing to fluid accumulation in the abdomen.
to dissatisfaction and conflict in a marriage. Acceptance Portal hypertension: Portal hypertension, which occurs in
and understanding are essential for marital happiness, advanced liver diseases such as cirrhosis, is a significant
rather than trying to fundamentally change your partner. causative factor for ascites. Increased pressure in the
D. Using coercive power: Resorting to coercive tactics such portal vein system causes fluid to leak into the abdominal
as manipulation, threats, or control undermines trust and cavity, leading to ascites.
mutual respect in a marriage. It can lead to feelings of Information booster: Retention of potassium by kidneys:
resentment, fear, and dissatisfaction, ultimately harming While kidney dysfunction can occur in advanced liver
the marital bond. disease, potassium retention is not a direct causative factor
E. Insisting on your rights: While it’s important to assert for ascites. Ascites primarily results from fluid imbalance
oneself and communicate needs and boundaries in a related to liver and kidney dysfunction.
relationship, rigidly insisting on individual rights without Hyperalbuminemia: This term refers to elevated levels of
consideration for mutual understanding and compromise albumin in the blood, which is not a causative factor for
can lead to conflict and strain in the marriage. ascites. In fact, hypoalbuminemia (low albumin levels) is
Based on these explanations, strategies A, D, and E do not associated with ascites due to reduced oncotic pressure.
contribute positively to marital happiness as they involve
elements that can erode trust, respect, and mutual S51. Ans.(a)
understanding in a relationship. On the other hand, Sol. The correct option is (a) POSHAN Tracker: POSHAN
strategies B and C promote healthy communication, Tracker is a digital dashboard and monitoring system
respect, and compromise, which are essential for fostering designed as part of the POSHAN Abhiyaan (National
marital happiness. Nutrition Mission) in India.
Information booster: B. Free communication: Open and It serves as an integral part of POSHAN 2.0 Abiyaan,
honest communication is crucial for a healthy and happy providing real-time data and analytics related to the
marriage. It allows couples to express their feelings, implementation and progress of various nutrition-related
resolve conflicts, and build trust and intimacy. programs and initiatives.
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The dashboard tracks indicators such as the coverage of
beneficiaries, utilization of services, status of growth
monitoring, and the effectiveness of interventions under
the POSHAN Abhiyaan.
By using POSHAN Tracker, authorities can monitor the
performance of nutrition-related schemes, identify areas
requiring attention or improvement, and make data-driven
decisions to enhance the impact of the POSHAN Abhiyaan
in addressing malnutrition and improving nutritional
outcomes across India.
S54. Ans.(b)
S52. Ans.(b) Sol. The correct option is (b) The process described, where
Sol. The correct option is (b) A. Lecturing (List-I: A, List-II: an organism learns to make various responses to a wide
III - Economical and Time-saving): Lecturing is suitable for variety of stimulus situations, is known as Conditioning.
situations where a large amount of information needs to be Conditioning involves associating a stimulus with a specific
delivered to a large group of learners efficiently. It is response, leading to learning and behavioral changes over
economical in terms of resources and time-saving when time.
conveying foundational or introductory knowledge to
S55. Ans.(a)
students. Sol. The correct option is (a) Warming up (B): Initially,
B. Project method (List-I: B, List-II: I - Working in groups): there’s a period where production gradually increases as
The project method involves assigning tasks or projects to workers get into the rhythm of their tasks.
students, often in groups, to encourage collaboration, Plateau of greatest production (A): This is when
problem-solving, and creativity. Working in groups allows production reaches its peak and remains relatively stable.
students to share ideas, pool resources, and learn from Decline in output (E): Following the plateau, there’s a
each other’s perspectives, making it an appropriate decline in output as workers start to fatigue or other
situation for the project method. factors come into play.
C. Heuristic method (List-I: C, List-II: IV - Use of problem- Rest period (C): Workers require a rest period to recover
and regain energy after sustained work.
solving, experience-based, and Discovery-based learning
Peak load (D): This refers to the maximum demand or
for students): The heuristic method focuses on guiding
workload during the work cycle.
students to discover knowledge through problem-solving,
experiences, and exploration. It emphasizes critical S56. Ans.(a)
thinking, inquiry-based learning, and discovery, making it Sol. The correct option is (a) Assertion (A): A teacher sets
suitable for situations where students need to engage up a grocery store as a role-play and assigns children
deeply with concepts and develop problem-solving skills. different roles such as cashier, customer, and store
D. Programmed learning (List-I: D, List-II: II - Small steps manager. The assertion about setting up a role-play
with feedback): Programmed learning breaks down scenario in a classroom is a common teaching strategy
learning into small, manageable steps, often with known as dramatic play or role-playing, which encourages
immediate feedback after each step. This method is social interactions among children while also fostering
cognitive development
suitable for self-paced learning, mastery of concepts, and
Reason (R): Children’s social interactions guide and
reinforcement through feedback, helping learners facilitate their cognitive development and learning
progress systematically and effectively. capacity. The reason provided supports this by explaining
the importance of social interactions in learning and
S53. Ans.(a) cognitive development.
Sol. The correct option is (a) Type I error occurs when
someone rejects the null hypothesis while it is true, so the S57. Ans.(a)
correct answer is rejects the null hypothesis while it is true. Sol. The correct option is (a) Assertion (A): After
Type I error, also known as a false positive, occurs in menopause, women have three times the risk of heart and
hypothesis testing when we incorrectly reject a true null arterial diseases compared to pre-menopausal women.
hypothesis. In statistical hypothesis testing, we set up a After menopause, the decline in estrogen levels can lead to
an increased risk of heart and arterial diseases. Estrogen
null hypothesis (H0) and an alternative hypothesis (H1).
indeed plays a protective role in cardiovascular health by
Type I error happens when we reject H0 (null hypothesis) influencing factors such as arterial function and
when, in reality, it is true. cholesterol levels.
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Reason (R): Women of reproductive age, including pre- Permissive parenting style (d): This style is characterized
menopausal women, have sex hormones, especially by high warmth and responsiveness but low demands and
estrogen, which provides protection against arterial control. Permissive parents are often lenient with rules,
diseases, relaxes arteries, and promotes good cholesterol. allowing children significant freedom without setting clear
When menopause starts, estrogen levels begin to decrease. boundaries or consequences.
The reason provided explains why the risk increases after Each parenting style has its effects on children’s
menopause due to hormonal changes. development and behaviors, with authoritative parenting
generally associated with positive outcomes such as higher
S58. Ans.(d) self-esteem, better social skills, and greater academic
Sol. The correct option is (d) For a normal distribution, success compared to the other styles.
approximately two-thirds of the observations will be
within one standard deviation above and below the mean. S61. Ans.(c)
This is known as the empirical rule or the 68-95-99.7 rule, Sol. The correct option is (c) Determination of the
where approximately 68% of the data falls within one experimental stage of the task (A): Understanding the
standard deviation of the mean. starting point or current state of knowledge/skills.
Planning the process of the task and activities (B):
S59. Ans.(b) Developing a plan or strategy for learning and carrying out
Sol. The correct option is (b) Assertion (A): Applied activities.
research is more important than pure research in Determination of generalization (C): Identifying broader
contributing to human welfare. Both applied research and principles or concepts from the learning experience.
pure research have their significance and contribute Application of the prepared plan of activities (D):
differently to human welfare. The assertion that applied Implementing the planned activities and strategies in
research is more important is a subjective judgment and practice.
can vary depending on the context and specific goals. Evaluation of the learning cycle (E): Reflecting on the
Reason (R): Pure research is conducted in laboratories, learning experience, assessing outcomes, and identifying
while applied research is conducted in the field. The reason areas for improvement.
provided about the settings where these types of research
are conducted is correct but does not fully explain why one S62. Ans.(c)
type would be more important than the other for human Sol. The correct option is (c) Chlorophyll is a pigment
welfare. responsible for the green color in plants, and it plays a
crucial role in photosynthesis. During food processing such
S60. Ans.(a) as canning, chlorophyll can degrade due to various factors
Sol. The correct option is (a) The approach described, such as heat, light, and pH changes. However, certain
where a father gently addresses his child’s behavior and derivatives of chlorophyll, known as chlorophyllides, are
encourages discussion on handling situations better, aligns more stable under these conditions compared to other
with Authoritative parenting style. This parenting style derivatives such as pheophytin and pyropheophytin.
combines warmth and nurturance with reasonable rules Chlorophyllides are derivatives of chlorophyll that have
and expectations, encouraging open communication and lost their central magnesium ion. Despite this modification,
independence while also setting clear boundaries. they can still retain their green color relatively well during
Information booster: Authoritarian parenting style (b): canning and other food processing methods, making them
This style is characterized by strict rules, high important for preserving the visual appeal of green
expectations, and little room for flexibility. Parents using vegetables and other chlorophyll-rich foods.
this style often enforce rules without much explanation or
discussion, and the focus is on obedience rather than S63. Ans.(a)
understanding. Sol. The correct option is (a) The diagonal joining of two
Neglectful parenting style (c): This style involves a lack of edges at corners is called Mitring.
involvement and responsiveness from parents towards “Mitering” refers to the process of joining two edges or
their children’s needs. Parents may be emotionally surfaces at an angle, typically at a 45-degree angle to form
detached or disengaged, leading to a lack of supervision, a corner. This technique is commonly used in
guidance, and support. woodworking, carpentry, framing, and sewing/quilting.

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Information booster: In woodworking and carpentry, S66. Ans.(a)
miter joints are created by cutting two pieces of material at Sol. The correct option is (a) According to Mandel, ‘change
an angle and then joining them to form a corner with a in product’ is indeed considered the highest category of
clean and seamless appearance. This technique is often change in the simplification of work. In work simplification
used in making frames, molding, and corners of various theories such as those proposed by Mandel, changes in the
product have the most significant impact on work
wooden structures.
processes and systems. When a change occurs in the
In sewing and quilting, mitring is used to create neat and
product being produced, it often necessitates adaptations
precise corners when joining fabric pieces or binding quilt across various aspects of production, including tools,
edges. By cutting the fabric at a 45-degree angle at the methods, and worker skills.
corners, it allows the fabric to fold neatly and creates a
professional finish. S67. Ans.(c)
Overall, mitring is a versatile technique used in various Sol. The correct option is (c)
crafts and construction methods to achieve clean and
accurate corner joints.

S64. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct option is (c) Bivalent evaluative reactions
refer to reactions that have both positive (satisfactory) and
negative (unsatisfactory) aspects. Therefore, the correct S68. Ans.(c)
option is Mixture of satisfactory and unsatisfactory Sol. The correct option is (c) A fabric tunnel is a channel or
reactions. sleeve created in fabric to encase or hold something such
as elastic, drawstrings, or rods.
S65. Ans.(a) Casing: In sewing, a casing refers to a fabric tunnel created
by folding and sewing down a portion of fabric to create a
Sol. The correct option is (a) Micro inverters are used in
channel. This channel is used to insert elastic, drawstrings,
situations where sunlight is temporarily obstructed on a
or other materials to gather or adjust the fabric. Casings are
part of the solar panel system. Sunlight is temporarily commonly found in waistbands of skirts or pants, cuffs of
obstructed on a part of the solar panel system. Micro sleeves or pants, and hems of garments where elastic or
inverters are devices used in solar photovoltaic systems to drawstrings are used for fit or adjustment.
convert the direct current (DC) generated by individual Information booster: Placket: A placket is an opening or slit
solar panels into alternating current (AC) that can be used in a garment that allows for ease in putting on or taking off
in homes and businesses. Unlike traditional string the clothing item. It is commonly found at the neck, cuffs,
inverters, which are connected to multiple solar panels in or front of shirts and dresses.
series, micro inverters are connected to individual solar Facing: A facing is a fabric piece sewn to the edges of a
panels. garment to finish raw edges, provide stability, or create a
decorative finish. It is typically found on necklines,
Information booster: The primary advantage of micro
armholes, and openings such as buttonholes.
inverters is that they operate independently of each other.
Binding: Binding refers to strips of fabric used to encase
This means that if sunlight is temporarily obstructed on a raw edges of fabric to provide a neat and finished
part of the solar panel system (due to shading, debris, etc.), appearance. It is often used on edges such as necklines,
only the output of that particular panel is affected. The rest hems, and quilt edges.
of the panels continue to operate at their maximum
potential, optimizing overall system efficiency. S69. Ans.(c)
In contrast, systems with traditional string inverters may Sol. The correct option is (c) “Farm and Home Visit” is not
experience reduced output if one panel in the string is considered a method of group contact.
shaded or experiences a drop in performance, affecting the Farm and Home Visit: This option involves visiting farms
or homes, typically for educational or research purposes.
entire string’s output. Therefore, micro inverters are
While it involves visiting a specific location like a field trip,
particularly beneficial in situations where partial shading
it is usually more focused on individual or small-group
or temporary obstructions occur on solar panels, ensuring interactions rather than a large group gathering. It can be
optimal energy production from the system. more personalized and tailored to specific needs or
interests.
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Information booster: S72. Ans.(a)
Field Trip: A field trip involves a group visiting a location Sol. The correct option is (a) Glass curtain uses transparent
outside of their usual environment, such as a museum, zoo, glass panels for window coverings, allowing full visibility
factory, or natural site. This method promotes experiential through the windows.
learning and firsthand exploration of new concepts or Sash curtain is a type of curtain that typically uses sheer or
environments. transparent fabric, allowing light to pass through while
Conference: A conference is a formal gathering of providing some level of privacy.
individuals or groups for discussions, presentations,
workshops, and networking related to a specific topic or S73. Ans.(c)
industry. It involves bringing people together for shared Sol. The correct option is (c) The appliance used to keep
learning, collaboration, and exchange of ideas. food warm for a long duration among the options provided
is Bain-marie. A Bain-marie, also known as a water bath, is
Demonstration: A demonstration involves showing or
a method of gently heating or keeping food warm by
explaining a process, technique, or concept to a group of
placing the food container in a larger pan filled with water.
people. It can include practical demonstrations, visual aids,
The water helps maintain a consistent and gentle heat,
and explanations to enhance understanding.
keeping the food warm without overcooking it.
Demonstrations are often interactive and can be part of
larger group activities or events. S74. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct option is (c) A. Reality in sequence
S70. Ans.(a) matches with III. Flexibility of the order within or between
Sol. The correct option is (a) Drawing a picture (A): This tasks.
task requires precise hand movements and coordination to B. Flexibility in sequence matches with I. Expansion of the
create shapes, lines, and details. acceptable order of tasks.
Threading beads (C): Threading beads also demands fine C. Complexity in sequence matches with IV. The condition
motor skills, as it involves manipulating small objects and of interrelationships between individuals and tasks.
coordinating hand-eye movements. D. Clarity in sequence matches with II. The condition of a
Stenciling letters (E): Stenciling letters necessitates precise specific order within or between tasks.
control of a stencil and writing implement to trace letters
accurately. S75. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct option is (d) Among the options provided,
S71. Ans.(c) the hormone that is not a counter-regulatory hormone of
Sol. The correct option is (c) The traditional Pipli work of insulin is Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH).
Orissa is a type of Applique work. It involves the art of Information booster: Counter-regulatory hormones
stitching small pieces of colorful cloth onto a base fabric to oppose the action of insulin, primarily by increasing blood
create intricate designs and patterns. glucose levels. Glucagon, cortisol, and growth hormone are
Information booster: Mirror work: Also known as shisha all counter-regulatory hormones that work to increase
embroidery, mirror work involves attaching small pieces blood glucose levels when needed, whereas ADH is not
of mirrors to fabric using various stitches. This technique primarily involved in glucose regulation.
is commonly found in Indian and Pakistani traditional
S76. Ans.(d)
garments and textiles.
Sol. The correct option is (d) Flax (E) - Flax fibers are
Cut work: Cut work, also known as kutch work, involves
known for their high strength, especially when dry.
cutting away parts of the fabric and then stitching the
2. Cotton (B) - Cotton fibers also have good strength under
remaining edges to create intricate designs. This technique
dry conditions.
is often seen in embroidery and lace-making.
3. Acrylic (C) - Acrylic fibers are synthetic and generally
Zari work: Zari work is a type of embroidery that uses have decent strength.
metallic threads, such as gold or silver, to create intricate 4. Wool (D) - Wool fibers are not as strong as the previous
designs on fabric. It is commonly used in traditional Indian ones.
and Pakistani garments, especially for special occasions 5. Acetate (A) - Acetate fibers tend to have lower strength
and ceremonies. compared to natural fibers like cotton and flax.

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S77. Ans.(c) S80. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct option is (c) Learning is more likely to Sol. The correct option is (a) The given Assertion (A) states
occur when learning experiences are meaningful and when that flexibility in work organization can lead to variability
benefits in planning and execution. This is true because
they are intense and vivid. Meaningful repetition helps
when work organization is flexible, it allows for
reinforce learning, while intense and vivid experiences can
adaptability to changing circumstances, efficient resource
capture attention and aid in memory retention. allocation, and better utilization of available skills and
Information booster: Unrelated experiences, provoking expertise.
anger, and generalized experiences are not typically The Reason (R) provided is that over time, social diversity,
associated with enhanced learning outcomes. structural, and physical characteristics can be observed
among different individuals and within the same
individuals. This is also true because individuals and
S78. Ans.(c)
groups exhibit diverse traits, behaviors, and abilities due to
Sol. The correct option is (c) Assertion (A): Adopting eco-
a combination of social, genetic, and environmental factors.
friendly methods and biodegradable materials for dyeing The flexibility in work organization (A) allows
and printing in textile and garment manufacturing can save organizations to leverage the diverse characteristics and
natural resources and significantly reduce chemical landfill capabilities of individuals (R).
on a large scale. This combination enables organizations to plan and
Reason (R): Biodegradable dyes do not require heavy execute tasks more effectively by aligning tasks with the
right skills and resources available, resulting in variability
metals, amines, and inorganic salts. Hence, they
benefits in planning and execution.
decompose without leaving any landfill in the
Therefore, option (a) “Both A and R are true, and R is the
environment. correct explanation of A” is the correct choice.
In option (c), it states that Assertion (A) is true, but Reason
(R) is not true. This implies that while the idea of adopting S81. Ans.(a)
eco-friendly methods and biodegradable materials for Sol. The correct option is (a) The correct sequence of
dyeing and printing is valid (A is true), the specific symptoms of Vitamin A deficiency from early to last is as
reasoning provided about biodegradable dyes follows:
Night blindness (C) - This is often the initial symptom of
decomposing without leaving any landfill (R) is not true.
Vitamin A deficiency.
The reasoning provided in statement (R) is not correct Conjunctival xerosis (D) - Dryness and thickening of the
because although biodegradable dyes are generally better conjunctiva occur as the deficiency progresses.
for the environment compared to traditional dyes, their Bitot’s spots (B) - White, foamy patches on the conjunctiva
decomposition process and impact on the environment can of the eye are characteristic of Vitamin A deficiency.
vary. Biodegradable dyes still need to be managed properly Xerophthalmia (corneal xerosis) (E) - Dryness and
clouding of the cornea, leading to potential blindness if not
to ensure they do not contribute to pollution. So, while the
treated.
overall concept of using biodegradable materials is
Keratomalacia (A) - Softening and ulceration of the cornea,
beneficial (A is true), the specific explanation provided in representing the most severe stage of Vitamin A deficiency.
(R) is not true. Thus, option (c) is the most appropriate
answer based on the given statements. S82. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct option is (d) The important functions of
S79. Ans.(c) food packaging include:
A. Preservation of the quality and freshness of food
Sol. The correct option is (c) The new logo introduced by
products - Packaging helps protect food from physical,
FSSAI (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India) in
chemical, and biological damage, extending its shelf life
September 2021 for Vegan foods is: and maintaining quality.
Green colour “V” inscribed in the middle of a square box C. Providing information to consumers about food
with a small plant on top of it and “vegan” written at the products - Packaging provides essential details such as
bottom. ingredients, nutritional information, expiration dates, and
This logo was designed specifically to help consumers usage instructions to consumers.
D. Promoting food products - Packaging serves as a
easily identify vegan food products and make informed
marketing tool to attract consumers, convey brand
choices while purchasing food items.
identity, and differentiate products from competitors.

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S83. Ans.(b) S85. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct option is (b) Nylon (C): Nylon is a Sol. The correct option is (b) Mahatma Gandhi. The
condensation polymer formed by the reaction between a Sarvodaya Movement, which aimed for the welfare of all,
dicarboxylic acid (such as adipic acid) and a diamine (such was deeply influenced by Gandhian principles of social
as hexamethylenediamine). This reaction results in the equality, self-reliance, and nonviolence. Mahatma Gandhi’s
formation of amide bonds, linking the monomers together vision and advocacy for upliftment and welfare of all
to form long polymer chains. sections of society laid the foundation for initiatives like
Polyester (E): Polyesters are formed by the condensation the Sarvodaya Scheme.
reaction between a diol (such as ethylene glycol) and a
dicarboxylic acid (such as terephthalic acid). This reaction S86. Ans.(d)
also results in the formation of ester bonds, connecting the Sol. The correct option is (d) The extension programs
monomers to form polymer chains. launched in India before Independence of the country are:
Elastomers (D): Elastomers like polyurethanes are formed A. Gurgaon Experiment
by the condensation of diisocyanates with diols or polyols. C. Indian Village Services
This condensation reaction forms urethane linkages, which E. Shanti Niketan Project
contribute to the elastomeric properties of the polymer.
Therefore, the correct option (b) includes Nylon (C), S87. Ans.(d)
Polyester (E), and Elastomers (D), which are all examples Sol. The correct option is (d) A. Physical - III. Brain
of polymers formed through condensation polymerization Physical domains typically involve aspects related to the
reactions involving specific monomers and the elimination body, including the brain, which is a crucial part of physical
of small molecules such as water or alcohol during polymer functioning.
chain formation. B. Cognitive - IV. Creativity
Cognitive domains refer to mental processes such as
S84. Ans.(c) thinking, reasoning, and problem-solving, which are
Sol. The correct option is (c) The format where all the closely tied to creativity.
questions are uniform throughout and at the same level, is C. Emotional - I. Honesty
called the Box format. In this format, each question is Emotional domains deal with feelings, expressions, and
presented in a consistent manner, typically in a box or with understanding emotions, which can influence honesty and
a similar visual cue, making it easy for respondents to integrity.
follow and answer each question systematically. The box D. Social - II. Attachment
format is characterized by presenting all questions at the Social domains involve interactions with others,
same level of specificity throughout the questionnaire. relationships, and social connections, which are linked to
Each question is typically displayed in a box or a visually attachment behaviors.
distinct format, making it easy for respondents to identify
and answer each question independently of others. S88. Ans.(d)
Information booster: Diamond format: This format is Sol. The correct option is (d) Infancy (C): This stage
characterized by starting with broad questions and typically refers to the period from birth to around 2 years
gradually narrowing down to specific questions. It’s named old, characterized by rapid growth and development.
“diamond” because if you were to graphically represent the Childhood (E): Follows infancy and extends from around 2
questions, it would resemble a diamond shape with broad years old to the onset of puberty. This stage is marked by
questions at the top and specific questions at the bottom. learning basic skills and socialization.
Funnel format: In this format, questions start with specific Adolescence (A): This stage covers the teenage years,
details or narrow topics and then broaden out to more marked by physical, cognitive, and social changes
general questions. It’s called “funnel” because, like a funnel, associated with transitioning into adulthood.
the questions start narrow and then widen as the Parenthood (D): Begins when an individual becomes a
questionnaire progresses. parent, which can occur at various stages in life but
Mixed format: This format combines different question typically happens after adolescence and young adulthood.
styles within the questionnaire. It can include elements of Old age (B): Refers to the later stages of life, typically
both broad-to-specific and specific-to-broad question associated with retirement, reduced physical abilities, and
sequences, creating a varied structure. increased health concerns.

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S89. Ans.(a) 10 percent of global emissions of carbon dioxide, which is
Sol. The correct option is (a) The stitches used in Kasuti more than the combined emissions from international
embroidery are: flights and shipping.
• Gavanti (A)
• Murgi (B) S93. Ans.(a)
• Methi (D) Sol. The correct option is (a) In search of sustainability,
These stitches are characteristic of Kasuti embroidery, experts are exploring innovative environmentally friendly
known for its intricate and beautiful patterns created using materials like fungus, algae, and shell waste.
these specific stitches.
S94. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct option is (d) The rapidly expanding
fashion industry has taken the form of a phenomenon
called fast fashion, which is characterized by rapid
changes.

S95. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct option is (c) It is found that out of the 100
billion garments manufactured annually, 92 million tons
are ultimately buried in the ground.

S96. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct option is (d) Biomechanical testing can
take place in the lab or in the field.

Fig- Kasuti Embroidery S97. Ans.(c)

Sol. The correct option is (c) Biomechanics or Kinesiology
S90. Ans.(d) is the study human movement including the interaction
Sol. The correct option is (d) Diagonal lines in interior between the human and equipment. Primarily these
design can suggest different feelings and concepts based on studies are broken down into two broad area: Kinetics (the
their orientation and context. study of forces acting on the body) and kinematics (the
Dynamism: Diagonal lines create a sense of movement, study of movements of the body).
energy, and visual interest, which can add a dynamic and
lively feel to a space. S98. Ans.(a)
Information booster: Repose: Repose generally refers to a Sol. The correct option is (a) High speed video analysis is
state of rest, tranquility, or relaxation. done with the help of high speed cameras, such as photron,
Stability and Alertness: Stability often relates to horizontal that can operate upto 1000 Hz. It is very useful for
lines, while alertness might be associated with vertical qualitative analysis of highspeed movements and impacts.
lines.
Relaxation and Rest: Similar to option (a), relaxation and S99. Ans.(d)
rest are commonly linked to horizontal lines. Sol. The correct option is (d) Force plate analysis is
typically used for walking, running and landing activities
S91. Ans.(d) and used in conjunction with 3D motion analysis system,
Sol. The correct option is (d) According to estimates, the useful for determining impact, breaking and propulsive
apparel industry is expected to increase emissions by 50 forces; calculating joint kinetics; and, weight transfer in
percent. dynamic activities.

S92. Ans.(b) S100. Ans.(c)

Sol. The correct option is (b) The fashion industry, being Sol. The correct option is (c) Photron, that can operate upto
the second-largest polluter in the world, contributes up to 1000 Hz.

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