SCIENCE - PHYSICS

LESSON -1 - LAWS OF MOTION

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1) Inertia of a body depends on
a) weight of the object b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet
c) mass of the d) Both a & b
object
2) Impulse is equals to
a) rate of change of momentum b) rate of force and time
c) change of d) rate of change of mass
momentum
3) Newton’s III law is applicable
a) for a body is at rest b) for a body in motion
c) both a d) only for bodies with equal masses
& b
4) Plotting a graph for momentum on the X-axis and time on Y-axis.
slope of momen- tum-time graph gives
a) Impulsive force b) Acceleration c) d) Rate of force
Force
5) In which of the following sport the turning of effect of force used
a) swimming b) tennis c) d) hockey
6) The unit of ‘g’ is m s . It can
-2
be also expressed as
cycling
a) cm s -1 b) N c) N m2 kg-1 d) cm2 s-2
7) One kilogram force kg equals
-1

to c) 98 × 104 d) 980 dyne

a) 9.8 dyne b) 9.8 × 104 N dyne
8) The mass of a body is measured on planet Earth as M kg. When
it is taken to a planet of radius half that of the Earth then its
value will be d) kg
a) 4 M b) 2M c) M/4 M
9) If the Earth shrinks to 50% of its real radius its mass
remaining the same, the weight of a body on the Earth will
a) decrease by 50% b) increase by 50% c) decrease by 25% d) increase by
300%
10) To project the rockets which of the follow-ing principle(s) is /(are)
required?
a) Newton’s third law of motion b) Newton’s law of gravitation
c) law of conservation of linear momentum d) both a
and c
II. FILL IN THE
BLANKS: forc is required
1. To produce a displacement e
2. Passengers lean forward when sudden brake is applied in a moving vehicle. This
can be explained by
inertia of
3. By convention, the clockwise moments are taken and the anticlockwise
as moments are motion
taken positi
as negati
4. Gea is used to change ve
ve the speed of car.
r man of mass 100 kg has a weight of 980 at the surface of the Earth
5. A
N
III. STATE WHETHER THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OR
FALSE. CORRECT THE STATEMENT IF IT IS FALSE:
1. The linear momentum of a system of particles is always conserved. Fals -
e
In the absence of external force, the linear momentum of a system of particle is
always conserved.
2. Apparent weight of a person is always equal to his actual Falsweight -
e
Both apparent weight and actual weight can be greater or lesser according to
the movement of the person inside the lift.
3. Weight of a body is greater at the equator and less at the polar
region. - Fals
e
Weight of the body is less at equator, more at polar region.
4. Turning a nut with a spanner having a short handle is so easy
than one with a long handle. -
Fals
e
Turning effect (i.e torque) depends on perpendicular distance of the line of
action of the applied force N = F x d
5. There is no gravity in the orbiting space station around the
Earth. So the astronauts feelFals weightlessness. -
e
When space station and astronauts have equal acceleration, they are under free
fall condition, so both astronaut and space station are in the state of
weightlessness.

IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING

Column I Column II
a. Newton’s I law Propulsion of a rocket
b. Newton’s II law Stable equilibrium of a body
c. Newton’s III law Law of force
d. Law of conservation of Linear momentum Flying nature of bird
Answer:
(a) Newton's law - stable equilibrium
of a body
(b) Newton's II law - Law of
force
(c) Newton's III law - Flying nature
of bird
(d) Law of conservation of Linear momentum-
propulsion of a rocket

V. TWO MARKS:
1. Define inertia. Give its classification.
 The inherent property of a body to resist any change in its state of rest or
motion is called inertia.Types of inertia: 1. Inertia of rest. 2. Inertia of
motion 3. Inertia of direction
2. Classify the types of force based on their application.
(i) Contact force: Example: pushing or pulling an object,
(ii) Non - contact force Example: gravitational force
3. Differentiate mass and weight.
Mass Weight
Quantity of matter Gravitational force exerted
Scalar quantity Vector quantity
SI unit is kg SI unit is N
Measured using a physical balance Measured using a spring balance
4. Define moment of a couple.
Couple: Two equal and unlike parallel forces applied simultaneously at two distinct
points constitute a couple. Ex: Turning a tap
5. State Newton’s second law.
 The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of
linear momentum of the body and the change in momentum takes place in
the direction of force. F = m x a
6. Why a spanner with a long handle is preferred to
tighten screws in heavy vehicles?
 Larger the perpendicular distance, lesser is the force required to turn the
body.
 τ = F × d.
7. While catching a cricket ball the fielder lowers his hands
backwards. Why?
When the fielder pulls back his hands he experiences a smaller force for a
longer interval of time leading to less damage to his hands.
8. How does an astronaut float in a space shuttle?
 Space station and astronauts have equal acceleration, they are
under free fall condition.
 Hence, both the astronauts and the space station are in the
state of weightlessness.

VI. ANSWER IN DETAIL:

1. What are the types of inertia? Give an example for each type.
Types of Inertia :
a) Inertia of rest
b) Inertia of motion
c) Inertia of direction
a) Inertia of rest:
The resistance of a body to change its state of rest is called Inertia of rest.
Ex: When we vigorously shake the branches of a tree, some of the leaves
and fruits are detached and they fall down.
b) Inertia of motion :
The resistance of a body to change its state of motion is called inertia of
motion.
Ex: An athlete runs some distance before jumping. Because, this will help
him jump longer and higher.
c) Inertia of direction :
The resistance of a body to change its direction of motion is called Inertia of
direction.
Ex: When we make a sharp turn while driving a car, we tend to lean side
ways
2. Ex: When we make a sharp turn while driving a car, we tend to lean
side ways.State Newton’s laws of motion?
a) Newton's First law :
Every body continues to be in its state of rest or the state of uniform motion
along a straight line unless some external force acts upon it.
b) Newton's second law :
The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear
momentum of the body and the change in momentum takes place in the
direction of the force.
F = m(v-u)/t = ma
c) Newton's third law :
 For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. They always act on two
different bodies. FB = - FA

3. Deduce the equation of a force using Newton’s second law of

motion.
Let us consider, m - mass of the body, u - Initial velocity , v - Final
velocity t - time taken , F - External force
Proof: Initial momentum (Pi) = mu Final momentum (Pf) = mv
 change in momentum (∆P ) = Pf – Pi = mv – mu = m(v –u)
According to Newton’s second law of motion ,
F α rate of change in
momentum F α change
in momentum / time F α
m (v – u) / t
F = k m (v –u ) / t , k – is constant( k = 1)
F = m (v – u) / t Acceleration (a) = (v – u) / t
F = ma or Force = mass x acceleration
4. Describe rocket propulsion.
 Principle: Law of conservation of linear momentum and Newton's III law of
motion.
 When the rocket is fired, the fuel in the propellant tank is burnt and a hot gas
is ejected with a high speed from the nozzle of the rocket, producing a huge
momentum.
 To balance this momentum, an equal and opposite reaction force is produced
in the combustion chamber, which makes the rocket project forward.
 In motion, the mass of the rocket gradually decreases, until the fuel is
completely burnt out.
 There is no net external force acting on it, and so the linear momentum of the
system is conserved.
 The mass of the rocket decreases with altitude. This increases the velocity of
the rocket and reaches escape velocity, which is sufficient to just escape from
the gravitational pull of the Earth.

5. Give the applications of universal law gravitation.

 Dimensions of heavenly bodies can be measured
 Mass, radius of the Earth, acceleration due to gravity can be calculated.
 Helps in discovering new stars and plants.
 To Explain the germination of roots using geotropism.
 To predict the path of the astronomical bodies.

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 LESSON -2 -OPTICS

Explain the rules for obtaining image formed by a convex lens with the help of ray
diagram
i) Rule 1: When a ray of light strikes the convex or concave lens obliquely at its optical
centre, it continues to follow its path without any deviation.
Rays passing through the optical centre
ii) Rule-2: When rays parallel to the principal axis strikes a convex or concave lens, the
refracted rays are converged to (convex lens) or appear to diverge from (concave lens) the
principal focus
Rays passing parallel to the optic axis
iii. Rule-3: When a ray passing through (convex lens) or directed towards (concave lens) the
principal focus strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted ray will be parallel to the
principal axis
Rays passing through or directed towards the principal focus
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
1. The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31,
1.43, 1.33, 2.4 respectively. The speed of light is maximum in
a) b) B c) C d) D
A
2. Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted
image of same size is obtained by a convex lens
a) f b) c) infinity d) between f and 2f
2f
3. A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens.
When the bulb is switched on, the lens will produce
a) a convergent beam of light b) a divergent beam of light
c) a parallel
d) a coloured beam of
beam of light
light
4. Magnification of a convex
lens is d) zero
a) Positive b) negative c) either positive or
5. A convex lens forms a real,negative diminished point sized image at
focus. Then the position of the object is at
a) focus b) c) at 2f d) between f and 2f
infinity
6. Power of a lens is –4D, then its focal
length is d) –2.5 m
a) 4m b) –40m c) –0.25
7. In a myopic eye, the image of m the object d) on the blind spot
is formed
a) behind the retina b) on the retina c) in front of the
8. The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be retina
corrected by
a) convex lens b) concave lens c) convex mirror d) Bi focal
9. Which of the following lens would you prefer lenses to use while
reading small letters found in a dictionary?
a) A convex lens of focal b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
length 5 cm
c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm
10. If VB, VG, VR be the velocity of blue, green and red light
respectively in a glass prism, then which of the following statement
c) VB < VG <
gives the correct relation?
a) VB = VG = VR b) VB > VG >VR d) VB < VG > VR
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. The path of the light is called as ra
y
 2. The refractive index of a transparent medium is always greater than on
e
3. the energy of incident beam and the scattered beam are same, then the scattering of
light is called as elast scattering.
ic
4. According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, the amount of scattering of light is
inversely proportional to the fourth power of its
waveleng
5. Amount of light entering into the eye this controlled byIri
s
III. TRUE OR FALSE. IF FALSE CORRECT IT.
1. Velocity of light is greater in denser medium than in rarer medium Fals -
Velocity of light is lesser in denser medium than in rarer medium. e
2. The power of lens depends on the focal length of the lens -Tru
e
3. Increase in the converging power of eye lens cause ‘hypermetropia’ Tru
-
4. The convex lens always gives small virtual image. Fals e
- Concave lens always gives small virtual image. e

IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

COLUMN - I COLUMN - II
1. Retina a) Path way of light
2. Pupil b Far point comes closer
3. Ciliary muscles c) near point moves away
4. Myopia d) Screen of the eye
5 Hypermetropia Power of accommodation
Answer:
(1) Retina - Screen of
(2)the eye- Path way of
Pupil
light
(3) Ciliary muscles - Power of
accommodation
(4) Myopia - Far point comes
closer
(5) Hypermetropia - near point
moves away
V. TWO MARKS:
1. What is refractive index?
 It is defined as ratio of the speed of light in air (or) vacuum to the
speed of light in medium. μ = c / v
2. State Snell’s law.
 The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction

 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒊 / 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒓 = 𝝁𝟐 / 𝝁𝟏
is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media.

3. Define dispersion of light

 When a beam of white light refracted through any transparent media. It is split
into its component colours.
 This phenomenon is called dispersion of light.
4. State Rayleigh’s law of scattering
 The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of

 S ∝ 𝟏 /𝝀𝟒
its wavelength.
 5. Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
Convex lens Concave lens
Thicker in the middle than at edge Thinner in the middle than at edge.
Converging lens Diverging lens
It is used to treat Hypermeteropia It is used to treat myopia
Produces mostly real images Produces virtual images
6. What is power of accommodation of eye?
The ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as the distant objects is called
power of accommodation of the eye.
7. What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?
 Lengthening of eye ball.
 The focal length of eye lens is reduced.
 The image of distance objects are formed before retina.
8. Why does the sky appear in blue colour?
 The blue colour of shorter wavelength is scattered to a great extent.
 This scattering causes the sky to appear in blue colour.
9. Why are traffic signals red in colour?
 Red light has longest wavelength.
 The Red light travels long distance.
 So red colour used in traffic signals.

1. List any five properties of light.

 Light is a form of energy.
 Light always travels along a straight line.
 Light does not need medium for its propagation.
 The speed of light in air is C = 3 × 108𝑚𝑠-1
 Light is in the form of waves.
 Violet light has the lowest wavelength, and red light has the highest wavelength.
2. Differentiate the eye defects: Myopia and Hypermeteropia
Myopia Hypermeteropia
Short sightedness Long sightedness.
Lengthening of eye ball Shortening of eye ball.
Nearby objects can be seen clearly Distant objects can be seen clearly
The image formed before retina. The image formed behind retina.
Corrected by using concave lens. Corrected by using concave lens.

3. Explain the construction and working of a ‘Compound Microscope’.

Construction:
 It consists of two convex lenses.
 The lens placed near the object called as objective
lens
 The lens placed near the observer’s eye is called as
eye lens
 Both the lenses are fixed in a narrow tube
with adjustable provision.
Working:
  The object AB is placed at a distance slightly greater than the focal length
of objective lens.
 A real, inverted and magnified image A'B' is formed at the other
side of the objective lens.
 This image behave as the object for the eye lens.
 The position of the eye lens is adjusted in such a way, that the image (A'B')
falls within the principal focus of the eye piece.
 This eye piece forms a virtual, enlarged and erect image (A"B") on the same
side of object.

1. Applications of convex lenses:

 Used as camera lenses, magnifying lenses
 Used in making microscope, telescope and slide projectors.
 Used to correct hypermetropia
2. Applications of concave lenses:
 Used to correct ‘myopia’
 Used as eye lens of ‘Galilean Telescope’
 Used in wide angle spy hole indoors.
3. Uses of Simple microscope:
 Used by watch repairers and jewellers.
 Used to read small letters clearly.
 Used to observe parts of flower, insects etc.
 Used to observe finger prints in the field of forensic science.

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LESSON – 3 THERMAL PHYSICS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. The value of universal gas constant
a) 3.81 mol–1 K–1 b) 8.03 mol–1 K–1 c) 1.38 mol–1 K–1 d) 8.31 mol–1
2. If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass K–1 of that
substance is
a) positive b) negative c) d) none of the above
zero
3. If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along
the axis of
a) X or –X b) Y or –Y c) both (a) and d) (a) or (b)
4. Temperature is the average (b)
of the molecules of a substance
a) difference in K.E and P.E b) sum of P.E and K.E
c) difference in T.E d) difference in K.E and T.E
and P.E
5. In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy
transformation is

Ans: a) A ← B,A ← C,B

←C

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

6.023 x 1023 / mol (or)
1. The value of Avogadro
number mol-1quantities
Scal
2. The temperature and heat arear
3. One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1
1°C
gm of water through
 4. According to Boyle’s law, the shape of the graph between pressure and reciprocal
of volumestraight
is
line
III. STATE WHETHER THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OR
FALSE, IF FALSE EXPLAIN WHY?
1. For a given heat in liquid, the apparent expansion is more than that of
real expansion. -
Fals
The real expansione is more (or) less than that of apparent expansion.
2. Thermal energy always flows from a system at higher temperature to a system at
lower temperature.
Tru -
3. According to Charles’s law, at constant pressure, the temperature is
e
inversely proportional to volume. -
Fals
Volume is directly proportionale to temperature at constant pressure.

IV. MATCH THE ITEMS IN COLUMN-I TO THE ITEMS IN COLUMN-II

COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
1. Linear expansion (a) change in volume
2. Superficial expansion (b) hot body to cold body
3. Cubical expansion (c) 1.381 X 10-23 JK-1
4. Heat transformation (d) change in length
5. Boltzmann constant (e) change in area
Answer:
1. Linear expansion - Change in
2. length
Superficial expansion - change
in Cubical
3. area expansion - change in
volume
4. Heat transformation - hot body to
5.
cold body
Boltzmann constant - 1.381 x
10-23 JK-1
V. TWO MARKS:
1. Define one calorie.
One calorie is the amount of heat required to rise the temperature of 1 gram
of water through 1°C.
2. Distinguish between linear, arial and superficial expansion.
i) Liner Expansion: When a body is heated, the length of the body changes.
α = LΔL/L ΔT 0
ii) Arial Expansion and superficial expansion: When a body is heated, the
area of
the body changes . αA = ΔA/A 0ΔT
3. What is co-efficient of cubical expansion?
The ratio of increase in volume of the body per degree rise in temperature to its
unit volume is called as co-efficient of cubical expansion. It's unit is K-1.
4. State Boyle’s law
When the temperature is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is

P ∝ 1/V
inversely proportional to its pressure.
PV = constant
5. State-the law of volume

V ∝ T or V/T =
According to this law, when the pressure of gas is kept constant, the volume
of a gas is directly proportional to the temperature of the gas.
constant
6. Distinguish between ideal gas and real gas.
Ideal gas Real gas
If the atoms or molecules of a gas If the molecule or atom of a gas interact
do not interact with each other with each other
Force of attraction is very weak There is no force of attraction
7. What is co-efficient of real expansion?
The ratio of true rise in the volume of the liquid to unit original volume when the
temperature rises by one kelvin”. Its SI unit is K -1.
8. What is co-efficient of apparant expansion?
The ratio of the apparent rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in
temperature to its unit volume. Its SI unit is K -1.
VI. ANSWER IN DETAIL:
1. Derive the ideal gas equation.
An ideal gas obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’s law and Avogadro’s law.
Boyle’s law, PV = constant ... (1)
Charles’s law, V/T = constant ... (2)
Avogadro’s law, V/n = constant ... (3)
Combining three equations, PV/nT = constant
...
(4) Substitute n = A μN
Equation (4) can be written as PV/ μNA T = constant
Constant, kB Boltzmann’s constant.
PV/ μN AT = k B
PV = μNA k B T
 μN A k B = R (universal gas constant)
PV = RT ... (5) This is called ideal gas equation.
2. Explain the experiment of measuring the real and apparent
expansion of a liquid with a neat diagram.
 The liquid whose real and apparent expansion is to be
determined is poured in a container up to a level.
Mark this level as 1
L .
 Now, heat the container and the liquid using a burner.
Initially, the container receives the thermal energy
and it expands.
 As a result, the volume of the liquid appears to
have reduced. Mark this reduced level of
liquid as L . 2

 On further heating, the thermal energy is supplied

to the liquid resulting in the expansion of the liquid.
 Hence, the level of liquid rises 3to L .
 Now, the difference between the levels L 1
and 3L is
called as apparent expansion, and the difference
between the levels 2L and 3L is called real expansion.
 The real expansion is always more than the apparent expansion.

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 LESSON – 4 ELECTRICITY
I. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER:
1. Which of the following is correct?
a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power b) Rate of change of charge is
c) Rate of change of energy is current current.
d) Rate of change of current is charge.
2. SI unit of resistance is
a) mho b) joule c) d) ohm meter
ohm
3. In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow when you close the
switch?
a) The switch produces electricity. b) Closing the switch completes the
c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit. d) circuit.
The bulb is getting charged.
4. Kilowatt hour is the unit of
a) resistivity b) conductivity c) electrical d) electrical power
energy
II. FILL IN THE
BLANKS: cannot pass through it.
1. When a circuit is open, curre
2. The ratio of the potential ntdifference to the current is known asresistanc
3. The wiring in a house consists of parall circuits. e.
4. The power of an electric device isela product volta and curren
of ge t.
5. LED stands for Light Emitting
Diode.
III. STATE WHETHER THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OR
FALSE: IF FALSE CORRECT THE STATEMENT:
1. Ohm’s law states the relationship between power and voltage.
Ohm's law states the relationship between current and voltage. -
2. MCB is used to protect house hold electrical appliances. Tru False -
3. The SI unit for electric current is the coulomb. Fals - e
The SI unit for electric current is the ampere e
4. One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1000 kilowatt -
hour. False
One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to kilowatt hour
5. The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is
lesser than the lowest of the individual Fals resistances -
The effective resistance of three resistors
e connected in series is greater than the highest
of the individual resistances.

IV. MATCH THE ITEMS IN COLUMN-I TO THE ITEMS IN COLUMN-II:

Column - I Column - II
(i) electric current (a) volt
(ii) potential difference (b) ohm meter
(iii) specific resistance (c) watt
(iv) electrical power (d) joule
(v) electrical energy (e) ampere
Answer:
(i) electric current - ampere
(h) potential difference - volt
(iii) specific resistance - ohm meter
(iv)electrical power - watt
V. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS.
1. Define the unit of current.
 A charge of one coulomb flows across any cross section of
conductor in one second.
 Ampere (A) 1 Ampere = 1 coulomb / 1 second.
2. What happens to the resistance, as the conductor is made thicker?
(i) Decreases : The resistance decreases as the conductor is made thicker.
(ii) Reason: Resistance is inversely proportional to area of cross section A.
i. e., R α 1/A
3. Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs, but not in fuse wires?
 Tungsten has a very high melting point.
 It will not melt when a large amount of current is passed through it
and the appliance will be damaged.
4. Name any two devices, which are working on the heating effect of
the electric current. Electric iron, and electric oven

VI. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?
 The earth wire provides a low resistance path to the electric current.
 The earth wire sends the current from the body of the appliance to the earth.
2. State Ohm’s law.
At a constant temperature, the steady current ‘I’ flowing through a conductor is
directly proportional to the potential difference ‘V’ between two ends of the
conductor.
V = IR
3. Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a conductor.
Resistivity Conductivity
The resistance of a conductor of unit The reciprocal electrical resistivity
length and unit of cross section.
It’s unit is ohm metre It’s unit is mho metre-1
4. What connection is used in domestic appliances and why?
 Parallel connection.
 Reason: Each appliance will get the full voltage. Each of them can be put ON /
OFF independently.

VII. ANSWER IN DETAIL:

 The rate of flow of charges in a conductor. I = 𝐐/𝐭

1. a) What is meant by electric current?

b) Name and define its unit.

 Ampere (A)
 1 Ampere = 1 coulomb / 1 second.
 A charge of one coulomb flows across any cross section of conductor
in one second
c) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current?
How should it be connected in a circuit?
Ammeter. It should be connected in a series in a circuit.
2. a) State Joule’s law of heating.
Joules’ law of heating states that the heat produced in any resistor is
Directly proportional to
 the square of the current passing through the resistor.
 the resistance of the resistor.
 the time for which the current passing through the resistor.
 H = I2Rt
b) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element.
Why?
(i) It has high resistivity.
(ii) It has a high melting point.
(iii) It is not easily oxidized.
c) How does a fuse wire protect electrical appliances
When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to
joule’s heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected.
3. Explain about domestic electric circuits.

 Electricity is brought to homes from power stations through underground or

overhead cables.
 In homes, electricity is distributed using a domestic electric circuit.
 The power supply first enters the main box from a nearby transformer.
 Important components of the main box are (i) a fuse box and (ii) meter.
 Two insulated wire 1) Red wire  Live wire 2) Black wire  neutral wire.
 An electrical potential at 220 V.
 Both, the live wire and the neutral wire enter into box where the main switch
 It passes to main switch which has to two separate circuits.

• 5 Ampere circuit – for low power appliances like bulbs, fans.

• 15 Ampere circuit – for high power appliances like fridge, AC, heater.
 It should be noted that all the circuits in a house are connected in parallel.

 Each device gets the same voltage (220V).

 If one device stops, others will still work.

4. a ) What are the advantages of LED TV over the normal TV?

 It has brighter picture quality.
 It is thinner in size.
 It used less power and consumes very less energy.
 Its life span is more.
 It is more reliable.
b) List the merits of LED bulb.
 Low power, No loss of energy
 It is not harmful to the environment.
 A wide range of colours is possible here.
 Mercury and other toxic material are not required.

*******************************************************************************
 LESSON – 5 - ACOUSTICS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles
a) vibrate along the direction of the
wave motion
b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction
c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion
d) do not vibrate
2. Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 m s–1. If the
pressure is increased by 4 times without causing a change in the
temperature, the velocity of sound in the gas is
a) 330 m s–1 c) 156 m
b) 660 m s1 d) 990 m s–1
3. The frequency, which is audible to s the
–1

human ear is
a) 50 kHz b) 20 c) 15000 kHz d) 10000 kHz
4. The velocity of sound kHz in air at a particular temperature is 330 m s–1.
What will be its value when temperature is doubled and the pressure
is halved? c) 330 × √2
a) 330 m s–1 b) 165 m s–1 m s
–1
d) 320 / √ 2 m s–1
5. If a sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25 × 104 Hz at
344 m s–1, the wavelength will be
a) 27.52 m b) 275.2 m c) 0.02752 d) 2.752 m
m
6. The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the
same medium from which they were incident. Which of the
following changes? d) none of
a) speed b) frequency c) wavelength these
7. Velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 m s–1. The
minimum distance between the sources of sound and the obstacle
to hear the echo, shouldc)be25
a) 17 m b) 20 m m d) 50 m

II. FILL UP THE BLANKS:

1. Rapid back and forth motion of a particle about its mean position is calledVibrati
onof
2. If the energy in a longitudinal wave travels from south to north, the particles
the medium would be vibratingboth in north and
3. A whistle giving out a sound of frequency 450 Hz, approaches a stationary observer
south heard by the observer is (speed of sound =
at a speed of 33 m s–1. The frequency
330 ms –

500
1)
4.Hz.
A source of sound is travelling with a velocity 40 km/h towards an observer and
emits a sound of frequency 2000 Hz. If the velocity of sound is 1220 km/h, then the
apparent frequency heard by the observer is
2068
Hz.
III. TRUE OR FALSE:- (IF FALSE GIVE THE REASON)
1. Sound can travel through solids, gases, liquids and even vacuum. Fals-
Sound waves cannot travel through vacuum e
2. Waves created by Earth Quake are Infrasonic. Tru-
e
3. The velocity of sound is independent of temperature. -Fals
The velocity of sound is dependent of temperature. e
4. The Velocity of sound is high in gases than liquids. -Fals
e
The velocity of sound is high in liquids than gases.
IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
1. Infrasonic (a) Compressions
2. Echo (b) 22 kHz
3. Ultrasonic (c) 10 Hz
4. High pressure region (d) Ultrasonography
Answer:
1. Infrasonic - 10
Hz Echo -
2.
Ultrasonography
3. Ultrasonic - 22
kHz
4. High pressure region -
Compressions
1. What is a longitudinal wave?
These are the waves in which the particles of the medium vibrate along the
direction of wave motion is called longitudinal wave.
2. Why does sound faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
 Presence of moisture in air decreases the density of air.
 Velocity increases with the decrease in density.
 Hence, velocity of sound increases on a rainy day.
3. Why does an empty vessel produce more sound than a filled one?
The amplitude of vibration of air molecules is greater than liquid molecules, so
empty vessel produces more sound than a filled one.
4. Explain why, the ceilings of concert halls are curved.
 The ceiling of concert halls are made curved so that sound, after reflection
from the curved ceiling, reaches all the paths of the hall.
 A curved ceiling actually acts like a large concave soundboard and reflection
sound down onto the audience sitting in the Hall.
5. Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in sound?
 When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
 When source S and L are moving in mutually perpendicular direction.
 When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.

1. What are the factors that affect the speed of sound in gases?
 Effect of density :

density of the gas. The velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases. V α
The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the

√1/𝑑
 Effect of temperature :
The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its

temperature. V ∝ √𝑇.
temperature. The velocity of sound in a gas increases with the increase in

 Effect of relative humidity :

Humidity increases, the speed of sound increases.
2. a) What do you understand by the term ‘ultrasonic vibration’?
These are sound waves with a frequency greater than 20 kHz.
b) State three uses of ultrasonic vibrations.
 Used in SONAR to measure the depth of sea.
 Used for scanning the position of stones in the kidney.
 To make an image of a person’s internal body structure.
c) Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
1. Mosquito, 2. Dogs, 3. Bats
3. What is an echo?
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound
a) Two conditions necessary for hearing an echo:
1. The minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.
2. The minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2 m.
b) The medical applications of echo:
Echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography

Speed of Sound = 𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞 𝐭𝐫𝐚𝐯𝐞𝐥𝐥𝐞𝐝 / 𝐓𝐢𝐦𝐞 𝐭𝐚𝐤𝐞𝐧 = 𝟐𝐝/t

c) Calculation speed of sound :

********************************************************************************
LESSON – 6 NUCLEAR PHYSICS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. Man-made radioactivity is also known as
a. Induced radioactivity b. Spontaneous radioactivity
c. Artificial radioactivity d. a &
2. Unit of radioactivity is c
a. roentgen b. curie c. Becquerel d. all the
3. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by above
a. Bequerel b. Irene c. Roentgen d. Neils Bohr
4. In which of the following,Curie no change in mass number of the daughter
nuclei takes place i) α decay ii) β decay iii) γ decay
iv) neutron decay b. (ii) and (iii) are
a. (i) is correct correct
c. (i) & ( iv) are correct d. (ii) & (iv) are correct
5. isotope is used for the treatment of cancer.
a. Radio Iodine b. Radio c. Radio Carbon d. Radio Nickel
6. Gamma radiations are dangerous because
Cobalt
a. it affects eyes & bones b. it affects tissues
c. it produces genetic d. it produces enormous amount of heat
7. disorder aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations
a. Lead oxide b. Iron c. d. Aluminium
8. Which of the following statements Lead is/are correct?
i. α particles are photons ii. Penetrating power of γ radiation is very low
iii. Ionization power is maximum for α rays
iv. Penetrating power of γ radiation is very high
a. (i) & (ii) are correct b. (ii) & (iii) are correct c.(iv) only correct d. (iii) & (iv) are
9. Proton - Proton chain reaction is an example of correct
a. Nuclear fission b. α – decay c. Nuclear d. β – decay
fusion
10.In the nuclear reaction , the value of A & Z.
a. 8, 6 b. 8, 4 c. 4, d. cannot be determined with the given data
8
11. Kamini reactor is located at
a. b. Koodankulam c. Mumbai d. Rajasthan
Kalpakkam
12. Which of the following is/are correct?
i. Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb.
ii. The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is controlled
iii. The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not controlled
iv. No chain reaction takes place in an atom bomb
a. (i) only correct b. (i) & (ii) are c. (iv) only correct d. (iii) & (iv) are correct
correct
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. One roentgen is equal to 3.7 x 1010 disintegrations per second
2. Positron is an antiparticle of
3. Anemia can beelectron.
cured Radio isotope
by iron
4. Abbreviation of ICRP Internation Commission on Radiological
5. Dosi is used toalmeasure exposure
Protection
rate of radiation in humans.
has the greatest penetration power.
6. meter
GammaA
Y + X ; Then, X is Beta
7. rays
Z
YA → Z+ particle Gam
1

8. ZX → ZY This reaction is possible in ma

A A
decay.
9. The average energy released in each fusion reaction is about 3.84x10 12 J.
10. Nuclear fusion is possible only at an extremely high temperature of the order
of 10 to 10 K.
7 9

11.KThe radio isotope of phosphoro helps to increase the productivity of crops.

us is 100 R, it may causeleukemi
12. If the radiation exposure
a.
III. STATE WHETHER THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OR
FALSE: IF FALSE, CORRECT THE STATEMENT:
1. Plutonium -239 is a fissionable material. -
2. Elements having atomic number greaterTrue than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion.
-
Elements having atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion not False
fusion.
-
3. Nuclear fusion is more dangerous than nuclear fission.
4. Natural uranium U-238 is the core fuel used in a nuclearTrue -
reactor. Natural uranium U-235 is the core fuel used in a False
nuclear reactor.
5. If a moderator is not present, then a nuclear reactor will behave as an atom bomb.
-
False
If a moderator is not present, then a nuclear reactor will not behave as an atom bomb.
6. During one nuclear fission on an average, 2 to 3 neutrons are produced.-
True
7. Einstein’s theory of mass energy equivalence is used in nuclear fission and fusion.
-
IV. MATCH THE True
FOLLOWING MATCH: I
a. BARC Kalpakkam
b. India’s first atomic power station Apsara
c. IGCAR Mumbai
d. First nuclear reactor in India Tarapur
Answer:
(a) BARC – Mumbai
(b) India's first atomic power station -
Tarapur
(c) IGCAR – Kalpakkam
(d) First nuclear reactor in India -
Apsara
MATCH: II
a. Fuel lead
b. Moderator heavy water
c. Coolant cadmium rods
d. Shield uranium
Answer:
(a) Fuel – uranium
(b) Moderator - cadmium
rods
(c) Coolant - heavy water
(d) Shield -
lead
MATCH: III
a. Soddy Fajan Natural radioactivity
b. Irene Curie Displacement law
c. Henry Bequerel Mass energy equivalence
d. Albert Einstein Artificial Radioactivity
Answer:
(a) Soddy and Fajan -
Displacement law
(b) Irene Curie - Artificial Radio
activity
(c) Henry Becquerel - Natural radio
activity
(d) Albert Einstein - Mass energy
equivalence
MATCH: IV
a. Uncontrolled fission reaction Hydrogen Bomb
b. Fertile material Nuclear Reactor
c. Controlled fission reaction Breeder reactor
d. Fusion reaction Atom bomb
Answer:
(a) Uncontrolled fission reaction -
Atom bomb
(b) Fertile Material - Breeder
reactor
(c) Controlled fission reaction - Nuclear
Reactor
(d) Fusion reaction - Hydrogen
Bomb
MATCH: V
a. Co - 60 Age of fossil
b. I - 131 Function of Heart
c. Na - 24 Leukemia
d. C - 14 Thyroid disease
Answer:
(a Co-60 -
)(b) I -Leukemia
131 - Thyroid
disease
(c) Na-24 - Function of
Heart
(d) C- 14 - Age of
fossil
V. ARRANGE THE FOLLOWING IN THE CORRECT SEQUENCE:
1. Arrange in descending order, on the basis of their penetration power
Alpha rays, beta rays, gamma rays, cosmic rays
(i) gamma rays (ii) beta rays (iii) Alpha rays (iv) cosmic rays
2. Arrange the following in the chronological order of discovery
Nuclear reactor, radioactivity, artificial radioactivity, discovery of radium.
(i) radioactivity (ii) discovery of radium (iii) artificial radio activity (iv) Nuclear reactor

VI. USE THE ANALOGY TO FILL IN THE BLANK

1. Spontaneous process : Natural Radioactivity, Induced process Artificial
:
2. Nuclear Fusion : Extreme temperature, Nuclear Fission Room : radioactivity
3. temperature
Increasing crops : Radio phosphorous, Effective functioning of heart :Radio
4. : -
Deflected by electric field : α ray, Null Deflection γ sodium
ray
VII. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
1. Define critical mass.
 The minimum mass of a fissile material necessary to sustain the chain
reaction.
 Depends on the nature, density and the size.
2. Define one roentgen.
 The quantity of radioactive substance which produces a charge of
2.58x10-4 coulomb in 1 kg of air at STP and humidity.
3. Give the function of control rods in a nuclear reactor.
 Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have
sustained chain reaction.
 They absorb the neutrons.
4. What is stellar energy?
Fusion reaction that takes places in the cores of the sun and other stars
results in an enormous amount of energy.
5. Give any two uses of radio isotopes in the field of
agriculture?
 Radio isotope of P32 – Increase the productivity of
crops.
 Radio isotopes can be used to kill the insects and parasites.
6. Write any three features of natural and artificial radioactivity.
Natural radioactivity Artificial radioactivity
It cannot be controlled It can be controlled
Spontaneous process Induced process
Alpha, beta and gamma Elementary particles-neutron Positron
Z > 83 Z < 83

7. State Soddy and Fajan’s displacement law.

 When a radioactive element emits an alpha particle, a daughter
nucleus is formed whose mass number is less by 4 units and the atomic
number is less by 2 units.
 A radioactive element emits a beta particle, a daughter nucleus is formed
whose
mass number is the same and the atomic number is more by 1 unit.

8. In Japan, some of the newborn children are having congenital

diseases. Why?
 Due to high exposure of radiation
 Caused by atom bomb during second world war
9. Mr. Ramu is working as an X - ray technician in a hospital. But, he
does not wear the lead aprons. What suggestion will you give to Mr.
Ramu?
 Lead coated aprons and lead gloves should be used .
 Avoid eating while handling radioactive materials.
 Dosimeters should be worn by the users to check the level of radiation.

VIII. ANSWER IN DETAIL:

1. Explain the process of controlled and uncontrolled chain
reactions. Controlled chain reaction:
 The number of neutrons released is maintained to be one.
 This is achieved by absorbing the extra neutrons with a neutron absorber
leaving only one neutron to produce further fission.
 The energy released due to this reaction can be utilized for
constructive purposes.
 Used in a nuclear reactor to produce energy in a sustained and
controlled manner.
Uncontrolled chain reaction:
 The number of neutrons multiplies indefinitely and causes fission in a large
amount of the fissile material.
 This results in the release of a huge amount of energy within a fraction of
a second.
 This kind of chain reaction is used in the atom bomb to produce an explosion.

2. Compare the properties of alpha, beta and gamma radiations.

PROPERTIES α rays β rays γ rays
Definition Helium nucleus electrons Photons.
Charge Positively charged Negatively charged Neutral particles.
Ionising power greater than β rays Comparatively low Very less ionization
power
and γ rays.
Penetrating power Low penetrating Greater than that of High penetrating
α rays. power
Effect of electric and Deflected by both Deflected by both Not deflected by both
magnetic field fields fields fields

Speed 1/10 to 1/20 times 9/10 times the They travel with the
the speed of light. speed of light. speed of light.

3. What is a nuclear reactor? Explain its essential parts with their

functions.
 Nuclear reactor:
A device in which the nuclear fission reaction takes place in a controlled
manner to produce electricity.
 Fuel:
A fissile material is used as the fuel. Ex.Uranium.
 Moderator:
 It is used to slow down the high energy neutrons to provide slow
neutrons.
 Graphite and heavy water
 Control rod:
 To control the number of neutrons in order to have sustained chain
 reaction.
 Boron or Cadmium rods
 Coolant:
 A coolant is used to remove the heat produced in the reactor core,
to produce steam.
 Water, air and helium are some of the coolants
 This steam is used to run a turbine in order to produce electricity.
 Protection wall
A thick concrete lead wall is built around the nuclear reactor in order to
prevent the harmful radiations.

4. Compare Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.

Nuclear Fission Nuclear Fusion
The process of breaking up of a heavy Combination of two lighter nuclei to form a
nucleus into two smaller nuclei heavier nucleus.

Can be performed at room temperature. Extremely high temperature and pressure is

needed.
Alpha, beta and gamma radiations are Alpha rays, positrons, and neutrinos are
emitted. emitted.
Fission leads to emission of gamma Only light and heat energy is emitted.
radiation.

5. Explain uses of Radioactivity in medicine

 Radio sodium (Na24) is used for the effective functioning of heart.
 Radio – Iodine (I131) is used to cure goiter.
 Radio - iron is (Fe59) is used to diagnose anemia and also to provide treatment
for the same.
 Radio phosphorous (P32) is used in the treatment of skin diseases.
 Radio cobalt (Co60) and radio - gold (Au198) are used in the treatment of skin cancer.

******************************************************************************
 LESSON – 7 ATOMS AND
I. CHOOSE THE BEST MOLECULES
ANSWER.
1. Which of the following has the smallest mass?
a. 6.023 × 1023 atoms of He b. 1 atom of
c. 2 g of He He1 mole atoms of
d.
He d. Hydrogen
2. Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
a. Glucose b. Helium c. Carbon
3. The volume occupied by 4.4 g 2 at dioxide
S.T.P
of CO c. 0.24 litre d. 0.1 litre
a. 22.4 litre b. 2.24
4. Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen litre c. 28 d. 14 g
atom is g
a. 28 amu b. 14 amu
5. Which of the following represents 1 amu?
a. Mass of a C – 12 atom b. Mass of a hydrogen atom
c. 1/12th of the mass of a C – d. Mass of O – 16 atom
12 atom
6. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. One gram of C – 12 contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
b. One mole of oxygen gas contains Avogadro’s number of molecules.
c. One mole of hydrogen gas contains Avogadro’s
number of atoms.
d. One mole of electrons stands for 6.023 × 1023 electrons.
7. The volume occupied by 1 mole of a diatomic
gas at S.T.P is d. 44.8 litre
a. 11.2 litre b. 5.6 litre c. 22.4
8. In the nucleus 2of Ca40, there are litre
0
a. 20 protons and 40 neutrons b. 20 protons and 20
c. 20 protons and 40 electrons neutrons
d. 40 protons and 20 electrons
9. The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is
a. 16 g b. 18 g c. 32 d. 17 g
10. 1 mole of any substance contains g
molecules.
a. 6.023 × b. 6.023 × 10-23 c. 3.0115 × 1023 d. 12.046 × 1023
1023
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. Atoms of different elements sam mass number, but differe atomic
having numbers are called isobars. e nt
2. Atoms of different elements having same number ofneutro are called isotones.
3. Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atomsns of other element byartifici
al
transmutati
4. The sum of the numbers of protons and neutrons of an atom is called itsma
on
numb ss
er
5. Relative atomic mass is otherwise known standard atomic
as weight
amu.
6. The average atomic mass of hydrogen is1.007
9
7. If a molecule is made of similar kind of atoms, then it is atomic molecule.
called Hom
o
8. The number of atoms present in a molecule is called itsatomici
2240 ty
0
9. One mole of any gas occupies ml at S.T.P
10 Atomicity of phosphorous is 4
III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
1. 8 g of O2 4 moles
2. 4 g of H2 0.25 moles
3. 52 g of He 2 moles
4. 112 g of N2 0.5 moles
5. 35.5 g of Cl2 13 moles
Answer:
1. 8 g of 2O - 0.25
moles
2. 4 g of 2H - 2
moles
3. 52 g of He - 13
moles
4. 112 g of2N - 4
moles
5. 35.5 g of 2Cl - 0.5
moles
IV. TRUE OR FALSE: (IF FALSE GIVE THE CORRECT STATEMENT)
1. Two elements sometimes can form more than one compound. Tru
-
2. Noble gases are Diatomic -Fals e
Noble gases are monoatomic.
e
3. The gram atomic mass of an element has no unit -Fals
e
The gram atomic mass of an element is exposed in grams.
4. 1 mole of Gold and Silver contain same number of atoms -Tru
5. Molar mass of CO2 is 42g. –Fals Molar mass of CO e is 44g.
2
e
V. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
1. Define: Relative atomic mass.
The Relative Molecular Mass of a molecule is the ratio between the mass of one
𝐀𝐯𝐞𝐫𝐚𝐠𝐞 𝐦𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐢𝐬𝐨𝐭𝐨𝐩𝐞𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐞𝐥𝐞𝐦𝐞𝐧𝐭
Relative atomic mass Ar =
molecule of the substance to 1/12th mass of an atom of Carbon-12.

𝟏 ⁄𝟏𝟐𝐭𝐡 𝐨𝐟 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐦𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐨𝐧𝐞 𝐜𝐚𝐫𝐛𝐨𝐧 𝟏𝟐 𝐚𝐭𝐨𝐦

2. Write the different types of isotopes of oxygen and its percentage
abundance.
Isotope Mass (amu) % abundance
8O
16 15.9949 99.757
8 O17 16.9991 0.038
8O
18 17.9992 0.205
3. Define: Atomicity
The number of atoms present in the molecule is called as its atomicity.
Ex. HCl- no. of atoms: 2 – Atomicity -2
4. Give any two examples for heterodiatomic molecules.
Examples of heterodiatomic HCl, CO.
5. What is Molar volume of a gas?
(i) The volume occupied by one mole of any gas at S.T.P is called molar volume.
(ii) One mole of any gas occupies = 22.4 litre or 22400 ml at S.T.P.
6. Find the percentage of nitrogen in ammonia.
% of nitrogen in NH = [ Mass of nitrogen / Molar mass of NH ] x 100
3 3

= (14/17) X 100 = 82%

VI. ANSWER IN DETAIL:
1. Give the salient features of “Modern atomic theory”.
 An atom is no longer indivisible.
 Atoms of the same element may have different atomic mass.
Ex – isotopesl
Cl35
l
, Cl37.
7 7
 Atoms of different elements may have same atomic masses.
Ex – Isobars 1 2
Ar40, Ca40.
8 0
 Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other elements.
 Atoms may not always combine in a simple whole number ratio.
Eg: Glucose6 C 1
O
H6
2
 Atom is the smallest particle that take part in a chemical reaction.
 Mass of an atom can be converted into energy. E = mc2.
2. Difference between Atom and Molecule.
Atom Molecule
Smallest particle of an element Smallest particle of an element or
compound.
Does not exist in free state except in Exists in a free a state
noble gas
Highly reactive Less reactive
Does not have a chemical bond Atoms in a molecule are held by chemical
bonds

3. Write the application of Avogadro’s law

 It explains Gay – Lussac’s Law.
 To determine Atomicity of gases
 To derive molecular formula of gases
 To derive the relationship between molecular mass and vapour density
 To determine gram molecular mass ( 22.4 litre at STP)

4. Derive the relationship between Relative molecular mass and Vapour

density
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝟏 𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐠𝐚𝐬 𝐚𝐭 𝐒𝐓𝐏
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬
= 𝐨𝐟 𝟏 𝐚𝐭𝐨𝐦 𝐨𝐟 𝐇
(i)
Relative Molecular Mass
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝐠𝐢𝐯𝐞𝐧 𝐯𝐨𝐥𝐮𝐦𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐠𝐚𝐬 𝐚𝐭 𝐒𝐓𝐏
Vapour 𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟=
𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐬𝐚𝐦𝐞 𝐕𝐨𝐥𝐮𝐦𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐇𝐲𝐝𝐫𝐨𝐠𝐞𝐧
(ii)
density

According to Avogadro’s law,

𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝐧 𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝐠𝐚𝐬 𝐚𝐭 𝐒𝐓𝐏
Vapour density (at STP) = 𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐧 𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐇𝐲𝐝𝐫𝐨𝐠𝐞𝐧
Hydrogen is diatomic molecule so,
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝟏 𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝐠𝐚𝐬 𝐚𝐭 𝐒𝐓𝐏
Vapour density = 𝟐 𝐗 𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝟏 𝐚𝐭𝐨𝐦 𝐨𝐟 𝐇𝐲𝐝𝐫𝐨𝐠𝐞𝐧
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝟏 𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝐠𝐚𝐬 𝐚𝐭 𝐒𝐓𝐏
2 x Vapour density = 𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝟏 𝐚𝐭𝐨𝐦 𝐨𝐟 𝐇𝐲𝐝𝐫𝐨𝐠𝐞𝐧
2 x Vapour density = Relative Molecular Mass
Relative Molecular Mass = 2 x Vapour density

***************************************************************************************
 LESSON – 8 PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
I. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.
1. The number of periods and groups in the periodic table are .
a) 6,16 b) 7,17 c) 8,18 d)
2. The basis of modern periodic law is . 7,18
a) atomic b) atomic mass c) isotopic mass d) number of neutrons
3. group
number contains the member of halogen family.
a) b) 15th
c) 18th d) 16th
4. 17isth
a relative periodic property
a) atomic radii b) ionic radii c) electron affinity d)
5. Chemical formula of rust is . electronegativit
a) FeO.xH2 O b) FeO4 .xH2 d) FeO
6. In O
the alumino thermic process c) Fe the
O role of
.xH
2 3 2
Al is a) oxidizing agent O b) reducing .
c) hydrogenating agent agent
d) sulphurising agent
7. The process of coating the surface of metal with a thin
layer of zinc is called .
a) painting b) thinning c) d) electroplating
galvanization
8. Which of the following have inert gases 2 electrons in the outermost
shell.
a) b) Ne c) Ar d) Kr
9. Neon
He shows zero electron affinity due to .
a) stable arrangement of neutrons b) stable configuration of
c) reduced size electrons
d) increased density
10. is an important metal to form amalgam.
a) Ag b) c) Mg d) Al
Hg
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. If the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms in a molecule is
greater than 1.7, the nature of bonding
ioni is
2. 6t is the longest period in the cperiodical table.
3. h
Atomic forms the basis of modern periodic table.
number
4. If the distance between two Cl atoms in Cl molecule is 1.98Å, then the radius of Cl
2
atom is 0.99
A.the given species A–,A+, and A, the smallest one in size isA
+
5. Among
6. The scientist who propounded the modern periodic law isHenry .
7. Across the period, ionic radii decreas (increases,decreases). Moseley.
8. Lanthanid and Actinid are es called inner transition elements.
es chief ore of Aluminium
9. The es is Bauxit
10. The chemical name of rust ise. hydrated ferric
oxide.
III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
1. Galvanisation Noble gas elements
2. Calcination Coating with Zn
3. Redox reaction Silver-tin amalgam
4. Dental filling Alumino thermic process
5. Group 18 elements Heating in the absence of air
 Answer
1. Coating with
Galvanisation
2. Calcination :: Zn
Heating in the absence
of air
3. Redox reaction : Alumino thermic
process
4. Dental filling : Silver-tin
amalgam
5. Group 18 elements : Noble gas
elements
IV. TRUE OR FALSE: (IF FALSE GIVE THE CORRECT STATEMENT)
1. Moseley’s periodic table is based on atomicFals mass. -
e
Moseley's periodic table is based on atomic number.
2. Ionic radius increases across the period from left to Falsright. -
e
Ionic radius decreases across the period from left to right.
3. All ores are minerals; but all minerals cannot be called Tru as ores-
4. Al wires are used as electric cables due to their silvery Fals
e white colour. -
Al wires are used in electric cables as they are good condutors. e
5. An alloy is a heterogenous mixture of -
metals. An alloy is a homogeneous mixtureFalse
of metals.

V. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. A is a reddish brown metal, which combines2
with O at < 1370 K
gives B, a black
coloured compound. At a temperature > 1370 K, A gives C which is
red in colour. Find A,B and C with reaction.
Reddish brown metal A is copper.
A Cu Copper
B CuO Copper II oxide
C Cu2 O Copper I oxide

2. A is a silvery white metal. A to form B at 800oC, the alloy of

2
combines with O used in making the A is
aircraft. Find A and B A Al Aluminium
Silvery white metal is aluminium.
B Al O Aluminum
4Al + 3O 2 → 2Al
2 3 O (Aluminium oxide) 2 3
oxide
3. What is rust? Give the equation for formation of rust.
When iron is exposed to moist air, it forms a layer of brown hydrated ferric
oxide on its surface. This compound is known as rust and the phenomenon of
formation of rust is known as rusting.
4Fe + 3O + x H O → 2Fe O .xH O (rust)
2 2 2 3 2

4. State two conditions necessary for rusting of iron.

(i) Presence of moist air (ii) Presence of water (iii) Presence of oxygen
5. Define Alloys?
It is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or one or two more metals
with non metals.
6. What is Amalgam ? Give Example?
An alloy of mercury with another metal Ex: Silver tin Amalgam
7. State the modern periodic law.
The physical and chemical properties of the elements are the periodic function
of their atomic number.
VI. ANSWER IN DETAIL:
1. Give reasons for alloying.
 To modify appearance and colour.
 To modify chemical activity.
 To lower the melting point.
 To increase hardness and tensile strength.
 To increase resistance to electricity.
2. What are the methods include to preventing of corrosion.
(i) Alloying : The metals can be alloyed to prevent the process of corrosion.
Eg: Stainless steel.
(ii) Surface Coating: It involves application of a protective coating over the
metal.
It is of the following types.

3. a) State the reason for addition of caustic alkali to bauxite ore

during purification of bauxite.
Caustic soda solution at 150° is added to bauxite ore to obtain Sodium Meta
Aluminate
b) Along with cryolite and alumina, another substance is added to the
electrolyte mixture. Name the substance and give one reason for the
addition.
Fluorspar is added to the electrolyte mixture so as to lower the fusion temperature
of the electrolyte.
4. The electronic configuration of metal A is 2, 8, 18, 1. The metal A
when exposed
to air and moisture forms B a green layered compound. A with con. H
SO forms C
2 4
and D along with water. D is a gaseous compound. Find A,B,C and D.
Metal A is copper
 2Cu + O + CO + H O → CuCO .Cu(OH)
2 2 2 3 2
[A] [B]
 Cu + 2H SO → CuSO + SO ↑ + H O
2 4 4 2 2
[A] [C] [D]
Compound Formula Name
A Cu Copper
B CuCO3 .Cu(OH)
2
Basic copper carbonate
C CuSO Copper sulphate
4

D SO Sulphur-di-oxide
2
Galvanization Zinc on iron sheets
Electroplating Coating the metal by electric current.
Anodizing Change the corrosion resistant. Ex: Aluminium
Cathodic Corrodible metal act as anode and the protected metal
Protection act as cathode
5. Metal A belongs to period 3 and group 13. A in red hot condition
reacts with steam to form B. A with strong alkali forms C. Find A,B
and C with reactions.
2Al + 3H O  Al O + 3H
2 2 3 2

[A] [B]
2Al + 2NaOH + 2H O  2NaAlO +3H ↑
2 2 2

[A] [C]
Compound Formula Name
A Al Aluminium
B Al2 O
3
Aluminium oxide
C NaAlO 2
Sodium meta aluminate

6. Name the acid that renders aluminium passive. Why?

 The acid that renders aluminium passive is dilute orconcentrated nitric acid.
 Aluminium becomes passive due to the formation of anoxide film on its surface.
7. a) Identify the bond between H and F in HF molecule. Ionic bond
b) What property forms the basis of identification? Electronegativity
c) How does the property vary in periods and in groups?
 Along the period, from left to right in the periodic table, the electronegativity
increases.
 On moving down a group, the electronegativity of the elements decreases.

**************************************************************************************
LESSON - 9 - SOLUTIONS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. A solution is a mixture.
a. b. heterogeneous
homogeneous
c. homogeneous and heterogeneous d. non homogeneous
2. The number of components in a binary solution is
a. b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
3. Which
2 of the following is the universal solvent?
a. Acetone b. Benzene c. d. Alcohol
Water
4. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite
amount of solvent at a given temperature is called
a. Saturated b. Un saturated solution
solution
c. Super saturated solution d. Dilute solution
5. Identify the non aqueous solution.
a. sodium chloride in water b. glucose in water
c. copper sulphate in water d. sulphur in carbon-di-
6. When pressure is increased at constant sulphide
temperature the
solubility of gases in liquid .
a. No change b. c. decreases d. no reaction
increases
7. Solubility of NaCl in 100 ml water is 36 g. If 25 g of salt is
dissolved in 100 ml of water how much more salt is required for
saturation b. .
a. 12g 11g c. 16g d. 20g
8. A 25% alcohol solution
means
a. 25 ml alcohol in 100 ml of water b. 25 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
 c. 25 ml alcohol in 75 ml of d. 75 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
water
9. Deliquescence is due to
a. Strong affinity to b. Less affinity to water
water
c. Strong hatred to water d. Inertness to water
10. Which of the following is hygroscopic in nature?
a. ferric chloride b. copper sulphate penta hydrate
c. silica d. none of the above
gel
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. The component present in lesser amount, in a solution is calledSolut
2. Example for liquid in solid type solution is Mercury with sodium e
3. Solubility is the amount of solute dissolved(amalgam)
in 100 of solvent.
4. Polar compounds are soluble in pola solventsg
5. Volume persentage decreases with r polar
increases in temperature because
of
expansion of
liquids
III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1. Blue vitriol CaSO4 .2H2
O
2. Gypsum CaO
3. Deliquescence CuSO4 .5H
2
O
4. Hygroscopic NaOH

Answer:
1. Blue vitriol – CuSO
4 2
.5HGypsum
2. O – CaSO
4 2
.2H
3. O
Deliquescence –
NaOH
4. Hygroscopic –
CaO
IV. TRUE OR FALSE: (IF FALSE GIVE THE CORRECT STATEMENT)
1. Solutions which contain three components are called binary solution. -
False
Solutions which contain three components are called Trinary solution.
2. In a solution the component which is present in lesser amount is
called solvent.
- True
3. Sodium chloride dissolved in water forms a non-aqueous solution. -
True
4. The molecular formula of green vitriol is MgSO .7H O - False
4 2
The molecular formula of green vitriol is Mg SO .7H O.
4 2

5. When Silica gel is kept open, it absorbs moisture from the

air, because it is hygroscopic in nature – True

V. SHORT ANSWERS:
1. Define the term: Solution
A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances.
2. What is mean by binary solution.
A solution consisting of two components are called binary solution.
3. Give an example each i) gas in liquid ii) solid in liquid iii) solid in
solid iv) gas in gas
i) Gas in liquid - soda water
ii) Solid in liquid – salt in water
iii) Solid in solid - copper dissolved in gold
iv) Gas in gas - mixture of Helium and oxygen.
4. What is aqueous and non-aqueous solution? Give an example.
Aqueous The solution in which water acts as a E.g : salt in water
solution solvent
Non - Aqueous The solution in which any liquid E.g : Sulphur dissolved
other than water acts as a solvent in
solution
CS
2

5. Define Volume percentage

The percentage by volume of solute (in ml) present in the given volume of the
solution.
6. The aquatic animals live more in cold region Why?
The solubility of gas is more at lower temperature where as it decreases with
increasing temperature.
7. Define Hydrated salt.
The ionic substances, which contain water of crystallization, are known as hydrated
salts.
8. A hot saturated solution of copper sulphate forms crystals as it
cools. Why?
Solubility increases with increase in temperature while decreases with decrease
in temperature. The solubility of copper sulphate at 250C is 20.7 g in 100g of water

9. Classify the following substances into deliquescent, hygroscopic.

(Conc. Sulphuric acid, Copper sulphate penta hydrate, Silica gel, Calcium chloride, and
Gypsum salt.)
Deliquescent substances Hygroscopic substances
Calcium chloride Conc. Sulphuric acid, Silica gel, Gypsum salt

VI. ANSWER IN DETAIL:

1. Write notes on i) saturated solution ii) unsaturated solution
i) Saturated solution:
A solute in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of
the solven at a given temperature.
Ex : 36 g of NaCl in 100g of water at 250C
ii) Un saturated solution:
Solution is one that contains less solute than that of the saturated solution
at a given temperature.
Ex :10 g or 20 g of NaCl dissolved in 100g of water at 25℃
2. Write notes on various factors affecting solubility.
Factors affecting solubility : There are three main factors which govern the solubility of
solute. They are;
i) Nature of the solute and solvent.
ii) Temperature.
iii) Pressure.
 i) Nature of the solute and solvent
 Non polar compound do not dissolve in polar solvents. Polar compounds
do not dissolved in Non polar solvents.
ii) Effect of temperature
a) Solubility of solid in liquid:
 Solubility of a solute in a liquid solvent increases with increase in temperature.
b) Solubility of gases in liquid:
 The solubility of gas is more at lower temperature whereas it decreases
with increasing temperature.
iii) Effect of Pressure:
 When the pressure is increased, the solubility of a gas is also increased.
3. a) What happens when MgSO .7H O is heated? Write the appropriate
equation
4 2
When magnesium sulphate heptahydrate crystals are gently heated, it loses
seven water molecules and becomes anhydrous magnesium sulphate.

b)Define solubility
Solubility is defined as the number of grams of a solute that can be dissolved in
100g of a solvent to form its saturated solution at a given temperature and
pressure.

4. In what way hygroscopic substances differ from deliquescent

substances.
Hygroscopic substances Deliquescence substances
1. They absorb moisture and do not 1. They absorb moisture and dissolve.
dissolve.
2. Do not change its physical state 2. Change its physical state
3.Amorphous solids or liquids. 3. Substance are crystalize solids.
Ex: Silica gel Ex: NaOH

5. Vinu dissolves 50 g of sugar in 250 ml of hot water, Sarath

dissolves 50 g of same sugar in 250 ml of cold water. Who will get
faster dissolution of sugar? and Why?
50 g of sugar in 250 ml of hot water will dissolve faster as solubility of solid
solute in liquid solvent increases with increase in temperature.

6. 'A' is a blue coloured crystaline salt. On heating it loses blue

colour and to give 'B'. When water is added, 'B' gives back to 'A'.
Identify A and B, write the equation.

(A) CuSO .5H O : Copper sulphate Pentahydrate - Blue

4 2

(B) CuSO
4 : Anhydrous Copper sulphate - White

7. Will the cool drinks give more fizz at top of the hills or at the foot?
Explain
Cool drinks will fizz more at the top of the hill since when pressure decrease
solubility of a gas in liquid decreases so CO bubbles out as a gas in a soda can.
2

***************************************************************************************
 LESSON - 10 -TYPES OF CHEMICAL
I. CHOOSE THE REACTIONSANSWER.
CORRECT
1. H (g) + Cl (g) → 2HCl(g) is a
2 2

a. Decomposition Reaction b. Combination

c. Single Displacement Reaction Reaction
d. Double Displacement Reaction
2. Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by
a. heat b. electricity c. d. mechanical energy
light
3. A reaction between carbon and oxygen is represented by
C(s) + O (g) → CO (g) + Heat. In which of the type(s), the above reaction
can be
2 2

classified?
(i) Combination Reaction (ii) Combustion Reaction
(iii) Decomposition Reaction (iv) Irreversible Reaction
a. i and ii b. i and iv c. i, ii and iii d. i, ii and
4. The chemical equation Na SO (aq) + BaCl (aq) → iv BaSO (s)↓ + 2NaCl(aq)
2 4 2 4

represents which of the following types of

reaction? d. Single displacement
a. Neutralisation b. Combustion c.
5. Which of the following statements Precipitation
are correct about a chemical
equilibrium?
(i) It is dynamic in nature
(ii) The rate of the forward and backward reactions are equal at
equilibrium
(iii) Irreversible reactions do not attain chemical equilibrium
(iv) The concentration of reactants and products may be different
a. i, ii and b. i, ii and iv c. ii, iii and iv d. i, iii and iv
iii
6. A single displacement reaction is represented by X(s) + 2HCl(aq) →
2
XCl (aq) +
H2 (g). Which of the following(s) could be X.
(i) Zn (ii) Ag (iii) Cu (iv)
Mg. Choose the best pair. a. i and ii b. ii and iii d. i and
c. iii and iv iv
7. Which of the following is not an “element + element → compound”
type reaction?
a. C(s) + O (g) → CO (g) b. 2K(s) + Br (l) → 2KBr(s)
2 2 2

c. 2CO(g) +2 O (g) → 2 d. 4Fe(s) + 3O (g) → 2Fe O (s)

2 2 3

8. Which2COof (g)the following represents a precipitation reaction?

(a) + → C(s) + (b) + (aq → C(aq) + (l)
(s (s) (s) (s)
A B D A B ) DC
)
→
(d) A (aq) + (s) (aq)
+ (l)

9. The pH of a solution is 3. Its [OH–] B D

concentration is d. 11 M
a. 1 × 10–3 M b. 3 M c. 1 × 10–11
10. Powdered CaCO M
reacts more rapidly than flaky CaCO3 because of
3
.
a. large surface area b. high pressure c. high concentration
d. high temperature

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS: hydrog 2. When lithium metal is

en
1. A reaction between an acid and a base is calledneutralizati physical
placed in hydrochloric
on. equilibrium.
 acid,

gas is evolved.
3. The equilibrium attained during the melting of ice is known as
4. The pH of a fruit juice is 5.6. If you add slaked lime to this juice, its
pH Increas (increse/decrese)
es value of ionic product of water at 250 C is 1.00 x 10-14.
5. The
6. The normal pH of human blood is 7.35 -
7. Electrolysis is type of decompositi 7.45reaction
on

(c) +B →C +
(aq) (s (aq
A D ) )
8. The number of products formed in a synthesis reaction ison
9. Chemical volcano is an example fordecompositi type of e reaction
on
10. The ion formed by dissolution of H+ in water is Hydroniu ion
called m
III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING
REACTION TYPE ANSWE
R
1. NH 4OH (aq) + CH3 COOH(aq) → CH3 COONH 4(aq) + H2 O(l) a) Single Displacement 1- c
2. Zn (s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO 4(aq) + Cu(s) b) Combustion 2- a
3. ZnCO 3(s) + Heat → ZnO (s) + CO2(g) c) Neutralization 3–d
4. C H + 4O ) → 2CO + 2H O + Heat d) Thermal 4- b
2 4(g) 2(g 2(g) 2 (g)
decomposition

IV. TRUE OR FALSE: (IF FALSE GIVE THE CORRECT STATEMENT)

1. Silver metal can displace hydrogen gas from nitric Fals
acid. -
Silver metal will not be displace hydrogen gas from nitric acid.e
2. The pH of rain water containing dissolved gases like SO , CO , NO will
be less
Tru
than 7. e 3 2 2

-
3. At the equilibrium of a reversible reaction, the concentration of the
reactants and the products Falswill be equal. -
At the equilibrium of a reversible
e reaction, there is no change in the concentration of the
reactants and the products.
4. Periodical removal of one of the products of a reversible reaction
Tru the yield. -
increases
e
5. On dipping a pH paper in a solution, it turns into yellow. Then
Fals is basic. -
the solution
e a pH paper in a solution, it turns into yellow. Then the solution is natural.
On dipping

V. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. When an aqueous solution of potassium chloride is added to an
aqueous solution of silver nitrate, a white precipitate is formed. Give
the chemical equation of this reaction.
KCl + AgNO 3 → KNO3 + AgCl ↓
2. Why does the reaction rate of a reaction increase on raising the
temperature? Increase in temperature provides energy to break more bonds and
thus speeds up the reaction.
3. Define combination reaction. Give one example for an exothermic
combination reaction.
 A combination reaction is a reaction in which two or more reactants combine to
form a compound.
 Ex: On burning magnesium in air, it combines with oxygen to form
magnesium oxide. 2Mg(s)+ O (g) → 2 MgO(s)
4. Can a nickel spatula2
be used to stir copper sulphate
solution? Justify your answer.
Nickel spatula cannot be used to stir the CuSO4 solution. Since Ni will displace Cu from
CuSO4 solution and Cu will be deposited on the Nickel spatula.
5. Differentiate reversible and irreversible reactions
Reversible Reaction Irreversible reaction
i) It can be reversed under suitable It cannot be reversed
conditions
ii) Both forward and backward It proceeds only in forward direction
reactions take place simultaneously
iii) It attains equilibrium Equilibrium is not attained
iv) It is relatively slow It is fast

VI. ANSWER IN DETAIL:

1. What are called thermolysis reactions?
In this type of reaction, the reactant is decomposed by applying
heat. As the molecule is dissociated by absorption of heat
2HgO Heat→2Hg(l) + O
(s) 2(g)

2. Explain the types of double displacement reactions with examples.

(i) Precipitation Reactions :
When aqueous solutions of two compounds are mixed, if they react to form
an insoluble compound and a soluble compound.
Pb(NO + 2KI → PbI + 2KNO
3 2(aq) (aq) 2(s) 3(aq)
)
(ii) Neutralization Reactions :
 Acid reacts with the base to form a salt and water.
 It is called neutralization reaction as both acid and base neutralise
each other.
Acid + Base → Salt + Water
HCl + → +H O
NaOH
NaCl
(aq) (aq) (aq) 2 (I)

3. Explain the factors influencing the rate of a reaction.

 Nature of reactant:
 The reaction of sodium with hydrochloric acid is faster than that with
acetic acid.
 Concentration of the reactants:
 Changing the amount of the reactants also increases the reaction rate.
 Temperature:
 Most of the reactions go faster at higher temperature.
 Pressure:
 If the reactants are gases, increasing their pressure increases the
reaction rate.
 Catalyst:
 A catalyst is a substance, which increases the reaction rate without
being consumed in the reaction.
 Surface area of the reactants:
 Powered reactants have more surface area. The collision of reactant
particle is increased.
4. How does pH play an important role in everyday life?
 Our body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8. If any increases (or)
decreases leads to diseases.
 pH of the saliva normally ranges between 6.5 to 7.5. When the pH of the
mouth saliva falls below 5.5, the enamel get weathered.
  Toothpastes are generally basic it can neutralize the excess acid and prevent
tooth decay.
 Citrus fruits require slightly alkaline soil, while rice require acidic
soil and sugarcane requires neutral soil.
 The pH of rain water is approximately 7. Its pH less than 7. It is called acid rain.
5. What is a chemical equilibrium? What are its characteristics?

CaCO (s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO (g)

Chemical equilibrium: Rate of forward reaction = Rate of backward reaction.
3 2

Characteristics of equilibrium:
 In a chemical equilibrium the rates of the forward and backward reactions are
equal.
 Pressure, concentration, colour, density, viscosity etc., of the system remain
unchanged with time.
 Both the forward and backward reactions continue to occur even though
it appears static externally.
 In physical equilibrium, the volume of all the phases remains constant.
6. A solid compound ‘A’ decomposes on heating into ‘B’ and a gas
‘C’. On passing the gas ‘C’ through water, it becomes acidic. Identify A,
B and C.
 CaCO → 3
CaO + CO2 
[A] [B] [C]
 CO + H O → H CO
2 2 2 3

[C] (Carbonic acid)

A CaCO
3 Calcium carbonate
B CaO Calcium oxide
C CO Carbon di oxide

***************************************************************************************
 LESSON 11 - CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
I. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER:
1. The molecular formula of an open chain organic compound is C H . The
class of
the 3 6

compound is
b. c. alkyne d. alcohol
a. alkane
alkene
2. The IUPAC name of an organic compound is 3-Methyl butan-1-
ol. What type compound it is?
a. Aldehyde b. Carboxylic acid c. Ketone d.
3. The secondary suffix used in IUPAC nomenclature ofAlcohol an aldehyde is

a. – ol b. – oic acid c. – d. - one

a. C H and C al can be the successive members of
4. Which3 of the 4following pairs
H 8 10
a homologous series?
b. C2H2 and C2 H4
c. CHand C H d. C H OH and C H OH
4 3 6 2 5 4 8
5. C H OH + 3O → 2CO + 3H O is a
2 5 2 2 2

a. Reduction of ethanol b. Combustion of

c. Oxidation of ethanoic acid ethanol
d. Oxidation of ethanol
6. Rectified spirit is an aqueous solution which contains about of
ethanol
a. 95.5 % b. 75.5 % c. 55.5 % d. 45.5 %
7. Which of the following are used as anaesthetics?
a. Carboxylic acids b. c. Esters d. Aldehydes
8. TFM in soaps represents Ethers content in
soap d. carbohydrate
a. mineral b. vitamin c. fatty
9. Which of the following statements acidis wrong about detergents?
a. It is a sodium salt of long chain fatty acids b. It is sodium salts of
sulphonic acids
c. The ionic part in a detergent is –SO –Na 3
+
Cd. It is effective even in hard water.
n 2n-
H2
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. An atom or a group of atoms which is responsible for chemical characteristics of
an organic compound is called functional
2. The general molecular formulagroup.of alkynes is
3. In IUPAC name, the carbon skeleton of a compound is represented roo
by (root word / prefix / suffix) t
wor
4.
d (Saturated / Unsaturated) Unsaturat compounds decolourize bromine water.
ed
5. Dehydration of ethanol by conc. Sulphuric acid ethen(ethene/ ethane)
forms e
6. 100 % pure ethanol is calledabsolute
7. Ethanoic acid turns Blu litmus alcohol
to Re
e
8. The alkaline hydrolysis of fatty acids d is termed asSaponificati
9. Biodegradable detergents are made of straight(branched on / straight)
chain hydrocarbons

III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

Functional group –OH Benzene
Heterocyclic Potassium stearate
Unsaturated Alcohol
Soap Furan
Carbocyclic Ethene
Answer:
1. Functional group -OH :
Alcohol
2. Heterocyclic :
Furan
3- Unsaturated :
Ethene
4- Soap : Potassium
stearate
IV. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
1. Name the simplest ketone and give its structural formula.
 Simplest Ketone is acetone
 Structural formula - CH COCH
3 3

2. Classify the following compounds based on the pattern of carbon

chain and give their structural formula: (i) Propane (ii) Benzene (iii)
Cyclobutane (iv) Furan
(i) Propane : Acyclic (ii) Benzene : Cyclic, Aromatic
(iii) Cyclo butane : Alicyclic (iv) Furan : Hetetrocyclic
3. How is ethanoic acid prepared from ethanol? Give the chemical
equation.
Ethanoic acid is prepared in large scale, by the oxidation of ethanol in the
presence of alkaline potassium permanganate or acidified potassium dichromate.

4. How do detergents cause water pollution? Suggest remedial

measures to prevent this pollution?
 Some detergents having a branched hydrocarbon chain are not fully biodegradable
by microorganisms present in water. So they cause water pollution.
 Remedial measures
 Replaceing detergents with branched hydro carbon chains with linear hydro
carbon chains which are biodegradable
5. Differentiate soaps and detergents.

Soap Detergent

Sodium salt of long chain fatty Sodium salt of sulphonic acids.

acids.
It is prepared from animal fats or It is prepared from crude oil.
vegetable oils.
Its effectiveness is reduced when It is effective even in hard water.
used in hard water.
It forms a scum in hard water. Does not form a scum in hard water.

Poor foaming capacity. Rich foaming capacity.

Biodegradable. Non-biodegradable.

V. LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. What is called homologous series? Give any three of its
characteristics?
A group of organic compounds having same general formula and similar
chemical are called homologous series.
Important characteristics of homologous series:
i) Each series differs from CH2 group
 ii) All members of homologous series contain the same elements and
function group.
iii) Chemical properties of the members of a homologous series are similar
iv) All the members can be prepared by a common method.
2. Arrive at, systematically, the IUPAC name of the compound: CH –CH –
CH –OH.
3 22

 Step 1 - It contains 3 carbon atoms (Prop).

 Step 2 - It contains single bond (ane).
 Step 3 - It contains alcohol group –OH (al)
 IUPAC of the given formula is (propanol)
3. How is ethanol manufactured from sugarcane?
 Ethanol is manufactured from molasses.
 Molasses obtained the manufacture of sugar from sugarcane.
(i) Dilution of molasses: Molasses is first diluted with water
(ii) Addition of Nitrogen Source
If the nitrogen content of the molasses is poor, ammonium salts is added
(iii) Addition of yeast
 The solution obtained is collected to in large fermentation tanks and
yeast is added to it.
 The mixture is kept at about 303 K for few days.
 During this period, the enzymes invertase about the conversion of sucrose.

(iv)Distillation of Wash.
 The fermented liquid containing 15 to 18 % alcohol
 It is subjected to fractional distillation and becomes rectified spirit with 95.5
%
alcohol
 And then its refluxed over quick lime for about 5 to 6 hours and then
allowed to stand for 12 hours
 On distillation of this mixture, pure alcohol (100%) is obtained.
4. Give the balanced chemical equation of the following reactions:
(i) Neutralization of NaOH with ethanoic acid.
Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium hydroxide to form sodium ethanoate and water.
CH COOH + NaOH → CH COONa + H O
3 3 2

(ii) Evolution of carbon dioxide by the action of ethanoic acid with

3
NaHCO
.
Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate and liberates CO , 2with brisk
effervescence. CH COOH + NaHCO → CH COONa + CO ↑ + H O
3 3 3 2 2

(iii) Oxidation of ethanol by acidified potassium dichromate.

Ethanol is oxidized to ethanoic acid with alkaline KMnO
4

(iv)Combustion of ethanol.
Ethanol is highly inflammable liquid. It burns with oxygen to form carbon
dioxide and water. C2H5OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O
5. Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soap.
 Polar end is attracted to water.
 Non-polar end is attracted to dirt on the cloth.
 The non polar end of the soap molecule traps the dirt
 The polar end make the entire molecule soluble in water.
 When a soap is dissolved in water, the molecules join together as clusters
called micelles.
 The polar end of the soap molecules makes the micelles soluble in water.
 Thus the dirt is washed away with the soap.

6. The molecular formula of an alcohol

4 1
is C H O. The locant number of its
–OH 0

group is 2.
(i) Draw its structural formula.

(ii) Give its IUPAC name. – Butan-2-ol.

(iii) Is it saturated or unsaturated? - Saturated

2. An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative and has

the molecular formula C H O . This compound reacts with ethanol to
form a sweet smelling
2 4 2

compound ‘B’.
(i) Identify the compound ‘A’. Ethanoic acid (acetic acid).
(ii) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with
ethanol to form compound ‘B’.

(iii) Name the process. - Esterification.

*******************************************************************************
 LESSON-12 PLANT ANATOMY AND PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. Casparian strips are present in the of the root.
a) cortex b) pith c) pericycle d)
2. The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of
endodermis
a) root b) c) leaves d) flower
stem
3. The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is
called
a) radial b) amphivasal c) d) None of these
4. Which is formed during anaerobic conjoint
respiration b) Ethyl
a) Carbohydrate alcohol b) Acetyl CoA d) Pyruvate
5. Kreb’s cycle takes
place in
a) chloroplast b) mitochondrial
c) stomata matrix
d) inner mitochondrial membrane
6. Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis ?
a) when ATP is converted to ADP b) when CO2 is fixed
c) when 2H O is d) All of these
splitted
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. Cortex lies between epidermal and vascular
tissues.on the same radius constitute a vascular
2. Xylem and phloem occurring
bundleconjoin
called
3. Glycolysis
t. takes place in
cytoplas
4. The source of O2 liberatedm.in photosynthesis is wate
5. Mitochond is ATP factory of the cells r.
ria
III. STATE WHETHER THE STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OR FALSE.
CORRECT THE FALSE STATEMENT:
1. Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of waterFals in plant. -
Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of food in plant. e
2. The waxy protective covering of a plant is called as Tru cuticle. -
3. In monocot stem cambium is present in between xylem e andFals
phloem. -
In dicot stem cambium is present between xylem and phloem. e
4. Palisade parenchyma cells occur below upper epidermis in dicot Fals root. -
Palisade parenchyma cells occur below upper epidermis in dicot leaf. e
5. Mesophyll contains chlorophyll. Tru -
6. Anaerobic respiration produces e more ATP than aerobic Fals
respiration. - Aerobic respiration produces more ATP than e
anaerobic respiration.

IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

1. Amphicribal Dracaena
2. Cambium Translocation of
food
3. Amphivasal Fern
4. Xylem Secondary growth
5. Phloem Conduction of water
Answer:
1. Amphicribal -
Fern
2. Cambium - Secondary
growth
3. Amphivasal -
Dracaena
4. Xylem - Conduction of
water
5. Phloem - Translocation of
food
V. ANSWER IN A SENTENCE:
1. What is collateral vascular bundle?
Collateral vascular bundle is one type of conjoint vascular bundle in which
Xylem lies towards the centre and phloem lies towards the periphery. Eg : Dicot
stem.
2. Where does the carbon that is used in photosynthesis come from?
The carbon that is used in photosynthesis comes from carbon dioxide in the air.
3. What is the common step in aerobic and anaerobic pathway?
Glycolysis is the common step in aerobic and anaerobic pathway.
4. Name the phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidized to
release ethyl alcohol.
Fermentation or anaerobic respiration.

VI. SHORT ANSWERS:

1. What is collateral vascular bundle?
Xylem lies towards the centre and phloem lies towards the periphery.
2. Where does the carbon that is used in photosynthesis come from?
Carbon dioxide taken from atmosphere
3. What is the common step is aerobic and anaerobic path way?
Glycolysis
4. Name the phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidized to
release ethyl alcohol. Anaerobic respiration.
5. Give an account on vascular bundle of dicot stem.
 Vascular bundles of dicot stem are conjoint collateral, endarch and open.
 They are arranged in the form of a ring around the pith
6. Write a short note on mesophyll.
 In a leaf, the tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis is
called mesophyll.
 It is differentiated into palisade parenchyma and Spongy parenchyma.
7. Name the three basic tissue system in flowering plants.
 Dermal (or) Epidermal tissue system
 Ground tissue system
 Vascular tissue system

8. What is photosynthesis and where in a cell does it occur?

 Photosynthesis is a process by which autotrophic organisms like green
plants, algae and chlorophyll
 Containing bacteria utilize the energy from sunlight to synthesize their own
food.
 Photosynthesis occur in the chloroplast.
 9. Why should the light dependent reaction occur before the light
independent reaction?
 During light independent reactions, CO is reduced into carbohydrates with
2
the help of ATP and NADPH2.
 So light dependent reaction occur before the light independent reaction.
10. Write the reaction for photosynthesis.

Carbon dioxide + Water  Glucose + Water + Oxygen

11. What is R.Q?
It is the ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberates and the volume of oxygen consumed
during respiration.

12. Write down the functions of chloroplast

i) Photosynthesis ii) Storage of starch
iii) Synthesis of fatty acids iv) Storage of lipids.
13. What are the factors affecting photosynthesis
 External factors → Light, CO2 , temperature, water and mineral elements.
 Internal factors → Pigments, leaf age, accumulation of carbohydrates
and hormones.

1. Differentiate the following: a) Monocot root and Dicot root

Dicot Root Monocot Root
No. of Xylem Tetrarch Polyarch
Cambium Present Absent
Secondary Growth Present Absent
Pith Absent Present
b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration:
Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
Presence of oxygen. Absence of oxygen.
It occurs in most plants and animals It occurs in some bacteria
Glucose is converted into carbon dioxide. Glucose is converted into ethanol
Products 2: CO 2
, H Oand energy Products2: C H OH and energy
5

2. Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that

aerobic organisms use to obtain energy from glucose.
I) Glycolysis:
 It is the breakdown of one molecule of glucose (6 carbon) into two molecules
of pyruvic acid (3carbon).
 Glycolysis takes place in cytoplasm of the cell.
II) Krebs cycle:
 This cycle occurs in mitochondria matrix.
 At the end of glycolysis, the oxidation of two molecules of pyruvic acid enter
into into CO2 and water.
 III) Electron Transport chain:
 NADH and FADH molecules formed during glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle are
2 2
oxidised to NAD+ and FAD+ to release the energy via electrons.
 The electrons as they more through the system, release energy which is
trapped by ADP to synthesize ATP.
 This process O2 the ultimate acceptor of electrons gets reduced to water.

3. How does the light dependent reaction differ from the light
independent reaction? What are the end product and reactants in each?
Where does each reaction occur within the chloroplast?
Light dependent Reaction Light independent Reaction

It needs sunlight It does not needs sunlight

The end products are ATP and NADPH2 and End product is carbohydrate, ADP and NADP
O 2

The reactants are 3 chlorophyll, sunlight The reactants are CO , ATP and NADPH2.
and water 2

It occurs in thylakoid membrane of the It occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast

chloroplast.

********************************************************************************
LESSON - 13 STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. In leech locomotion is performed by
a) Anterior sucker b) Posterior sucker c) Setae d) None of the
2. The segments of leech are known as above
a) Metameres b) Proglottids c) Strobila d) All the above
3. Pharyngeal
(somites) ganglion in leech is a part of
a) Excretory system b) Nervous
c) Reproductive system system
d) Respiratory system
4. The brain of leech lies above the
a) Mouth b) Buccal Cavity c) d) Crop
5. The body of leech has Pharynx
a) 23 segments b) 33 c) 38 segments d) 30 segments
6. Mammals are segments
animals. c) Poikilothermic d) All the above
a) Cold blooded b) Warm
7. The animals which blooded
give birth to young ones are
a) Oviparous b) c) Ovoviviparous d) All the above
Viviparous
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. The posterior sucker is formed by the fusion of las 7 segments.
the t
2. The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is
called diphyodo dentition.
3. The nt
anterior end of leech has a lobe-like structure called anterior
4. The blood sucking habit of leech is known as sanguivoro sucker.
5. Kidne separate nitrogenous waste from the us. blood in rabbit.
y
 6. 37 spinal nerves are present in rabbit.
pairs
III. IDENTIFY WHETHER THE STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OR FALSE.
CORRECT THE FALSE STATEMENT:
1. An anticoagulant present in saliva of leech is called heparin. - Fals
Anticoagulant present in saliva of leech is called hirudin. e
2. The vas deferens serves to transport the ovum. Fals
-
e
The vas deferens serves to transport the sperm.
3. The rabbit has a third eyelid called tympanic membrane which is movable.Fals-
e
The rabbit has a third eyelid called nictitating membrane which is movable.
4. Diastema is a gap between premolar and molar teeth in rabbit. - Fals
Diastema is a gap between incisors and premolar in e
rabbit.
5. The cerebral hemispheres of rabbit are connected by band of nerve tissue
called corpora quadrigemina.
-
The cerebral hemispheres
False of rabbit are connected by a band of nerve tissue called
corpus callosum.

IV. MATCH COLUMNS I, II AND III CORRECTLY:

Organs Membranous Location
Covering
Brain pleura abdominal cavity
Kidney capsule mediastinum
Heart meninges enclosed in thoracic cavity
Lungs pericardium cranial cavity
Answer:
Brain : meninges : cranial
cavity
Kidney : capsule : abdominal
cavity
Heart : pericardium :
mediastinum
Lungs : pleura : enclosed in thoracic
cavity

V. ANSWER IN A SENTENCE:
1. Give the common name of the Hirudinaria granulosa.
Indian Cattle Leech.
2. How does leech respire?
Leech respires through the skin
3. Write the dental formula of rabbit.
(Canines- 2/0, Incisors – 0/0, Pre Molar – 3/2, Molar – 3/3 ).
4. How many pairs of testes are present in leech?
Eleven (11) pairs of testes are present in leech.
5. How is diastema formed in rabbit?
The gap between incisors and premolar forms the diastema. Diastema helps in
mastication and chewing of food in rabbit.
6. What organs are attached to the two bronchi?
Lungs are attached to the two bronchi
7. Which organ acts as suction pump in leech?
Pharynx acts as suction pump in leech.
8. What does CNS stand for?
CNS stands for Central Nervous System.
9. Why is the teeth of rabbit called heterodont?
As there are three different kinds of teeth (Incisors, Premolars and Molars) in
rabbit, the dentition is called heterodont.
10.How does leech suck blood from the host?
Leech attaches itself to the body of the host by suckers. Jaws of mouth causes
wound. Then the blood is sucked by pharynx.

VI. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. Why are the rings of cartilages found in trachea of rabbit?
Tracheal walls are supported by rings of cartilage. Cartilage is flexible tissue.
They help in the free passage of air.
2. List out the parasitic adaptations in leech.
 Blood is sucked by pharynx.
 Anterior and posterior suckers help the leech attacks itself to the body of the host.
 The three jaws inside the mouth, causes a painless Y–shaped wound in the skin of
the host.
 Blood is stored in the crop.
VII. LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS:
1. How is the circulatory system designed in leech to
compensate the heart structure?
 Haemocoelic system - No true blood vessels.
 Haemocoelic channels – contains blood like fluid.
 There are four longitudinal channels are there:
 Dorsal channel - lies above alimentary canal
 Ventral channel - lies below alimentary canal
 Lateral channel - lies either sides of the canals.
 All the four channels connected together at 26th segment.
2. How does locomotion take place in leech?
Locomotion in leech takes place by
(i) Looping or crawling movement and (ii) Swimming movement.
i) Looping or crawling movement :
 This type of movement is brought about by the contraction and relaxation
of muscles.
 The two suckers serve for attachment
during movement on a substratum.
ii) Swimming movement :
 Leeches swim very actively and
perform undulating movements in
water.
3. Explain the male reproductive
system of rabbit with a labelled
diagram.
 Male reproductive system of rabbit
consists of a pair of testes.
 Testes are enclosed by scrotal sacs.
 Each testis consists of numerous fine tubules
called seminiferous tubule.
 Epididymis leads to vas deferens.
  The vas deferens join in the urethra just below the urinary bladder.
 The urethra runs backward and passes into the penis.
 There are three accessory glands namely prostate gland, cowper’s gland
and perineal gland.
 Their secretions are involved in reproduction.

*******************************************************************************
LESSON - 14 TRANSPIRATION IN PLANTS AND CIRCULATION IN HUMANS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. Active transport involves
a) movement of molecules from lower to higher concentration b) expenditure of energy
c) it is an uphill task d) all of the
2. Water which is absorbed above
by roots is transported to aerial parts
of the plant through a) cortex b) epidermis c) phloem
d)
3. During transpiration there is loss of xylem
a) carbon dioxide b) oxygen c) d) none of the above
4. Root hairs are water
a) cortical cell b) projection of epidermal cell c) unicellular d) both b
5. Which of the following process requires energy? and c
a) active b) diffusion c) osmosis d) all of them
6. The wall of human heart is made of
transport
a) Endocardium b) Epicardium c) Myocardium d) All of the
7. Which is the sequence of correct blood flow above
a) ventricle - atrium - vein – arteries b) atrium - ventricle - veins - arteries
d) c) atrium- -vein
ventricles ventricle
- atrium -- arteries
arteries
– vein
8. A patient with blood group O was injured in an accident and
has blood loss. Which blood group the doctor should effectively
use for transfusion in this condition?
a) O b) AB group c) A or B group d) all blood group
group
9. ‘Heart of heart’ is called
a) SA b) AV node c) Purkinje fibres d) Bundle of His
10. Which
node one of the following regarding blood composition is correct
a) Plasma - Blood + Lymphocyte b) Serum - Blood + Fibrinogen
c) Lymph - Plasma + RBC + WBC d) Blood - Plasma + RBC+ WBC
+Platelets
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. Transpirati involves evaporative loss of water from aerial parts.
on
2. Water enters the root cell through aroot plasma membrane.
hair
3. Structures in roots that help to absorb water are root hairs.
4. Normal blood pressure is 120/80 m Hg.
5. The normal human heartbeat rate is 7
time per minute.
about 2
III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
Section I
1. Symplastic pathway Leaf
2. Transpiration Plasmodesmata
3. Osmosis Pressure in xylem
4. Root Pressure Pressure gradient
Answer:
1. Symplastic pathway -
Plasmodesmata
2. Transpiration -
Leaf
3. Osmosis - Pressure
gradient
4. Root pressure - Pressure in
xylem Section II
1. Leukemia Thrombocytes
2. Platelets Phagocyte
3. Monocytes Decrease in leucocytes
4. Leucopenia Blood Cancer
5. AB blood group Allergic condition
6. O blood group Inflammation
7. Eosinophil Absence of antigen
8. Neutrophils Absence of antibody
Answer:
2.
1. Platelets
Leukemia- - Blood
Thrombocytes
cancer
3. Monocytes -
Phagocyte
4. Leucopenia - Decrease in
leucocytes
5. AB blood group - Absence of
antibody
6. O blood group - Absence of
antigen
7. Eosinophil - Allergic
condition
8. Neutrophils -
Inflammation
IV. STATE WHETHER TRUE OR FALSE. IF FALSE WRITE THE
CORRECT STATEMENT:
1. The phloem is responsible for the translocation - of food.
2. Plants lose water by the process of transpiration. Tru True -
3. The form of sugar transported through the e phloem isFals glucose. -
The form of sugar transported through the phloem is sucrose. e
4. In apoplastic movement the water travels through the cell
membrane Falsand enter the cell. -
e
In apoplastic movement the water travels through the intercellular spaces
and
walls of the cells.
5. When guard cells lose water the stoma opens. Fals -
When guard cells become turgid the stoma opens.e
6. Initiation and stimulation of heart beat take place byFals nerves. -
nitiation and stimulation of heart beat take place by muscles.
e
7. All veins carry deoxygenated blood. Fals -
All veins carry deoxygenated bloode except pulmonary vein which
carries oxygenated blood.
8. WBC defend the body from bacterial and viral infections. Tru -
e
9. The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the start of the
ventricular systole produces the first Trusound ‘LUBB’. -
e
V. ANSWER IN A WORD OR SENTENCE:
1. Name two layered protective covering of human heart.
Two layered protective covering of human heart is Pericardium.
2. What is the shape of RBC in human blood?
RBCs of human blood are biconcave or disc-shaped.
3. Why is the colour of the blood red?
Blood is colour red due to the pigment hemoglobin.

4. Which kind of cells are found in the lymph?

White Blood cells (WBC) are found in the lymph.
5. Name the heart valve associated with the major arteries leaving the
ventricles.
Semilunar valves are associated with the major arteries leaving the ventricles.
6. Mention the artery which supplies blood to the heart muscle.
Coronary artery supplies blood to the heart muscles.

VI. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of
stomata during transpiration?
 The opening and closing of the stomata is due to the change in turgidity of the
guard cells.
 When turgidity increases within the two guard cells stoma opens.
 When the guard cells lose water, it becomes flaccid and the stoma closes
2. What is cohesion?
The force of attraction between molecules of water is called cohesion
3. Trace the pathway followed by water molecules from the time it
enters a plant root to the time it escapes into the atmosphere from
a leaf.
Root hair  Root  Xylem  Stem  Leaf  Stomata  Water is evaporated
4. What would happen to the leaves of a plant that transpires
more water than its absorption in the roots?
 When transpiration exceeds water absorption by the roots, the plant dehydrates.
 Dehydration affects growth, photosynthesis etc. which can result in wilting and
dying of the plant.
5. Describe the structure and working of the human heart.
 Heart is a pumping organ.
 Human heart is four chambered.
 Two upper thin walled artium.
 Two lower thick walled ventricles.
 Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from varies parts of the body.
 Right and left auricles blood into the right and left ventricles.
 Aorta supplies oxygenated blood to varies parts of the body.
 The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart.
6. Why is the circulation in man referred to as double circulation?
When the blood circulates twice through the heart in one complete cycle, it is
called double circulation.
7. What are heart sounds? How are they produced?
 Lubb during the closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valve.
 Dubb during the closure of semilunar valve.
8. What is the importance of valves in the heart?
Valves regulate the blood into a single direction and prevent back flow of blood.
9. Who discovered Rh factor? Why was it named so?
 Landsteiner and weiner discovered Rh factor in 1940.
 It was found in rhesus monkey so it is called as Rh factor.
10.How are arteries and veins structurally different from one another?
Artery Vein
Distributing vessel Collecting vessel
Pink in colour Red in colour
Deep location Superficial in location
Blood flow with high pressure Blood flow with low pressure
Internal valves are absent Internal valves are present
11. Why is the Sinoatrial node called the pacemaker of heart?
 SA node acts as the pace maker of the heart
 It is capable of initiating impulse which can simulate the heart muscles to contract.
12. Guard cells are responsible for opening and closing of stomata.
 The opening and closing of the stomata is due to the change in turgidity of
the guards cells.
 When water enters into guard cells, they become turgid and the stoma open.
 When the guard cells lose water, it become flaccid and the stoma closes.
13. The walls of the right ventricle are thicker than the right auricles.
 Reason: The walls of the right ventricles are thicker than the right auricles.
 From the right ventricle arises the pulmonary trunk, which bifurcates to, from
right and left pulmonary arteries.
14.Differentiate between systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation.
Systemic circulation Pulmonary circulation
It occurs between the heart and the It occurs between heart and the lungs.
entire body.
It carries oxygenated from the heart to It carries deoxygenated blood from heart
around the body. to lungs.
It carries deoxygenated blood to the It carries oxygenated blood to heart from
heart. lungs.

15. The complete events of cardiac cycle last for 0.8 sec. What is the
timing for each event?
 Arterial systole - 0.1 sec.
 Ventricle systole - 0.3 sec.
 Ventricle diastole - 0.4 sec.

VII. LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. How do plants absorb water? Explain.
 Water is absorbed along with minerals, by the root hairs, purely by diffusion.
 Root hairs are thin walled, slender extension of epidermal cell that increase
the surface area of absorption.
 Once the water enters the root hairs, the concentration of water molecules in
the root hair cells become more than that of the cortex.
 Thus water from the root hair moves to the cortical cells by osmosis and
then reaches the xylem.
 From there the water is transported to the stem and leaves.
  Once water is absorbed by the root hairs, it can move deeper into root layers
by two distinct pathways:
 Apoplast pathway : Movement of water occurs exclusively
through the intercellular
 spaces and the walls of the cells.
 Symplast pathway : Movement the water travels through the cells.
2. What is transpiration? Give the importance of transpiration.
 Transpiration is the evaporation of water in plants through stomata in the leaves.
Importance of Transpiration:
 Creates transpirational pull for transport of water.
 Supplies water for photosynthesis.
 Transports minerals from soil to all parts of the plant.
 Cools the surface of the leaves by evaporation.
 Keeps the cells turgid; hence, maintains their shape.
3. Why are leucocytes classified as granulocytes and agranulocytes?
Name each cell and mention its functions.
Granulocyctes :
1. Neutrophils : increased during infection and inflammation
2. Eosinophils : detoxification of toxins.
3. Basophils : They release chemicals during the process of inflammation.
Agranulocytes
1. Lymphocytes : They produce antibodies during bacterial and viral infections
2. Monocytes : They are phagocytic and can energy bacteria
4. Differentiate between systole and diastole. Explain the conduction of
heart beat.
Systole Diastole
One complete contraction of the atriumOne complete relaxation of the atrium and
and ventricles of the heart constitute ventricles of the heart constitute
heart beat. heart beat.
Conduction of heart beat:
 The human heart is myogenic in nature.
 It is situated in the wall of the right atrium
 The wave of contraction from SA node reaches the atrioventricular (AV) node
 An impulse of contraction spreading to the ventricular bundle and the Purkinje
fibres.
5. Enumerate the functions of
blood. Functions of blood
 Transport of respiratory gases
 Transport of digested food materials to the different body cells.
 It is involved in protection of the body and defense against diseases.
 It acts as buffer and helps in regulation of pH and body temperature.
 It maintains proper water balance in the body.

*******************************************************************************
 LESSON -15 - NERVOUS SYSTEM
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. Bipolar neurons are found in
(a) retina of (b) cerebral cortex (c) embryo (d) respiratory epithelium
2. Site for processing of vision, hearing, memory, speech, intelligence
eye
and thought is
(a) kidney (b) ear (c) (d) lungs
3. In reflex action, the reflex arc is
brain
formed by
(a) brain, spinal cord, muscle (b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord
(c) muscle, receptor, brain (d) receptor, spinal cord,
4. Dendrites transmit impulse muscle
cell body and axon transmit impulse

cell body.
a) away from, away from b) towards, away
c) towards,towards from
d) away from, towards
5. The outer most of the three cranial meninges is
(a) arachnoid membrane (b) piamater (c) (d) myelin sheath
6. There are duramater
pairs of cranial nerves and pairs of spinal nerves.
(a) 12, (b) 31, 12 (c) 12, 13 (d) 12, 21
7. The
31neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous
system to the muscle fibre.
(a) afferent neurons (b) association neuron
(c) efferent (d) unipolar neuron
neuron
8. Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of brain?
(a) thalamus (b) (c) corpus (d) pons
hypothalamus callosum
9. Node of Ranvier is found in (c) dendrites (d) cyton
(a) muscles (b)
10.Vomiting centre axons is located in
(a) medulla (b) stomach (c) cerebrum (d) hypothalamus
oblongata
11.Nerve cells do not
possess (b) (c) axon (d) dendrites
sarcolemma
(a) neurilemma
12. A person who met with an accident lost control of body
temperature, water balance, and hunger. Which of the following
part of brain is supposed to be damaged?
(a) Medulla oblongata (b) cerebrum (c) pons (d)
hypothalamus
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. Neuro is the longest cell in our body.
2. nImpulses travels rapidly in multipol neurons.
3. A change in the environment arthat causes an animal to react is calledstimulu
4. Dendrit carries the impulse towards the cell body. s.
e two antagonistic component of autonomic nervous system
5. The sympathe
nerv are and
para sympathetic tic
6.
es A neuron contains
nerves. all cell organelles except
centriol
7. cerebro spinal maintains the constant pressurees inside the cranium.
fluid
8. increases the surface area of cerebrum.
sul and gyr
9. The part of human brain which acts as relay center isthalam
us.
 III. STATE WHETHER TRUE OR FALSE, IF FALSE WRITE THE
CORRECT STATEMENT:
1. Dendrons are the longest fibres that conducts impulses away from the
Fals
e cell body. -
Dendrone are the longest fibres and they conduct impulses towards cell body.
2. Sympathetic nervous system is a part of central nervous Fals
system. -
Sympathetic nervous system is a part of autonomous nervous system. e
3. Hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory centre of human Trubody. -
4. Cerebrum controls the voluntary actions of ourFals body. e
-
Cerebellum controls the voluntary actions of our body.e
5. In the central nervous system myelinated fibres form the white Trumatter.
- False
6. All the nerves in the body are covered and protected by meninges. e -
The brain and spinal cord are covered and protected by meninges.
7. Cerebrospinal fluid provides nutrition to brain. Tru -
8. Reflex arc allows the rapid response of the Tru
e body to a stimulus. -
9. Pons helps in regulating respiration. Tru - e
e
IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING
Column I Column II
A. Nissil’s granules Cyton
B. Hypothalamus Forebrain
C. Cerebellum Hindbrain
D. Schwann cell Peripheral Nervous
system

V. SHORT ANSWERS:
1. Define stimulus.
It refers to the changes in the environmental condition.
2. Name the parts of the hind brain.
(i) cerebellum (ii) pons (iii) medulla oblongata
3. What are the structures involved in the protection of brain?
(i) Duramater (ii) Arachnoid (iii) Piamater
4. Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
Playing harmonium by striking a particular key on seeing a music note is an
example of conditioned reflexes.
5. Which acts as a link between the nervous system and endocrine
system?
Hypothalamus
6. Define reflex arc.
The pathway taken by nerve impulse to accomplish reflex action is called reflex
arc.
VI. ANSWER IN DETAIL:
1. A) Voluntary and involuntary actions.
Voluntary action Involuntary action

Controlled by the brain Controlled by the spinal cord.

Initiates by our own Without your own conscious.

conscious.
Under the control of the will. Not under the control of the will.
For Ex :- Breathing, eating For EX:- heartbeat, sneezing

b)Medullated and non-medullated nerve fibre.

Medullated Non-medullated
(Myelinated) Nerve (Nonmyelinated) Nerve Fibres
Fibres
Myelin sheath is present. Myelin sheath is absent.
White matter of brain. Grey matter of brain.
Nodes of Ranvier are Nodes of Ranvier are absent.
present
They carry impulses faster. They carry impulses slower.

2. With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of

a neuron. A neuron typically consists of three basic
parts:
Cyton, Dendrites and Axon.
(a)Cyton: (cell body or perikaryon)
 It help in transmission of nerve impulses to and
from the cell body.
(b) Dendrites:
 These are the numerous branched cytoplasmic
processes that project from the surface of the cell
body.
 They conduct nerve impulses towards the
cyton.
(c) Axon:
 The axon is a single, elongated, slender
projection.
 The axons may be covered by a
protective sheath called
 Myelin sheath is further covered by a layer of
Schwann cells called neurilemma.
 Myelin sheath breaks at intervals by
depressions called Nodes of Ranvier. The
region between the nodes is called as
internode.
 3. Illustrate the structure and functions of brain.
Structure Functions
Cerebral Sensory perception, control of voluntary functions, language,
cortex thinking, memory, decision making, creativity
Thalamus Acts as relay station.
Hypothalam Temperature control, thirst, hunger, urination, important link
us between nervous system and endocrine glands.
Cerebellum Maintenance of posture and balance, coordinate voluntary muscle
activity.
Pons and Role in sleep-awake cycle, cardiovascular, respiratory and
medulla digestive control centers

4. What will you do if someone pricks your hand with a needle?

Elucidate the pathway of response with a neat-labelled diagram.
(a) When someone pricks your hand with a needle, the stimulus is the pain,
which is sensed by receptor called as pain receptors in our hand.
(b) The sensory neuron transmits the message to the spinal cord.
(c) Spinal cord interprets the stimulus and the impulse is passed on to the
relay neuron, which in turn transmits it to a motor neuron.
(d) Motor neurons carry command from spinal cord to our arm.
(e) Muscle in our arm contracts and we withdraw our hand immediately from
the needle.

5. Classify neurons based on its structure.

Based on structure the neurons classified as follows:
i) Unipolar neurons:
 Only one nerve process arises from the cyton which acts as both
axon and dendron.
 They found in early embryos but not in adult.
ii) Bipolar neurons:
 The cyton gives rise to two nerve processes of which one acts as
an axon while another as a dendron.
 They found in retina of eye and olfactory epithelium of
nasal chambers.
iii) Multipolar neurons:
 The cyton gives rise to many dendrons and an axon.
 They found in cerebral cortex of brain
 LESSON-16. PLANT AND ANIMAL HORMONES
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. Gibberellins cause:
a) Shortening of genetically tall plants b) Elongation of dwarf
c) Promotion of rooting plants
d) Yellowing of young leaves
2. The hormone which has positive effect on apical dominance is:
a) Cytokinin b) c) Gibberellin d) Ethylene
Auxin
3. Which one of the following hormones is naturally not found in plants:
a) 2, 4- b) GA3 c) Gibberellin d) IAA
4. Avena
D coleoptile test was conducted by
a) Darwin b) N. Smit c) Paal d) F.W.
5. To increase the sugar production in sugarcanes Went they are sprayed
with
a) Auxin b) Cytokinin c) Gibberellins d)
6. LH is secreted by Ethylene
a) Adrenal gland b) Thyroid gland c) Anterior d) Hypothalamus.
7. Identify the exocrine gland pituitary
a) Pituitary gland b) Adrenal c) Salivary d) Thyroid gland
gland gland
8. Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland
a) b) Kidney c) Liver d) Lungs
9. Which one is referred as “Master Gland”?
Pancreas
a) Pineal gland b) Pituitary c) Thyroid gland d) Adrenal gland
gland
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. Auxi causes cell elongation, apical dominance and prevents abscission.
n
2. Ethyle is a gaseous hormone involved in abscission of organs and acceleration of
ne
fruit ripening. 3.
Abscissic causes stomatal closure.
acid
4. Gibberellins induce stem elongation in rosett plants.
5. The hormone which has negative effect e on apical dominance iscytokini
6. Calcium metabolism of the body is controlled byparathormon.
ne.
7. In the islets of Langerhans, beta cells secreteinsuli
8. The growth and functions of thyroid gland is n.controlled by thyroid
stimulating
hormon
9.. Decreased secretion of thyroid hormones in the children leads tocretinis
e
m.
III A) MATCH COLUMN I WITH COLUMNS II AND III
Column I Column II Column III
Auxin Gibberella fujikuroi Abscission
Ethylene Coconut milk Internodal elongation
Abscisic acid Coleoptile tip Apical dominance
Cytokinin Chloroplast Ripening
Gibberellins Fruits Cell division
Answer:
Column I : Column II :
Column
Auxin III
: Coleoptile tip : Apical
dominance
Ethylene : Fruits :
Ripening
Abscisic acid : Chloroplast :
Abscission
Cytokinin : Coconut milk : Cell
division
Gibberellins : Gibberella fujikuroi : Internodal
elongation
III B) MATCH THE FOLLOWING HORMONES WITH THEIR
DEFICIENCY STATES
Hormones Disorders
a) Thyroxine Acromegaly
b) Insulin Tetany
c) Parathormone Simple goitre
d) Growth hormone Diabetes insipidus
e) ADH Diabetes mellitus
Answer:
a) Thyroxine - Simple
goitre
b) Insulin - Diabetes
mellitus
c) Parathormone -
Tetany
d) Growth hormone -
Acromegaly
e) ADH - Diabetes
insipidus
IV. STATE WHETHER TRUE OR FALSE, IF FALSE WRITE THE
CORRECT STATEMENT:
1. A plant hormone concerned with stimulation of cell division
and promotion of nutrient mobilization Tru is cytokinin. -
2. Gibberellins cause parthenocarpy e in tomato.
Tru -
3. Ethylene retards senescence of leaves, eflowers and Fals
fruits. -
Ethylene hastens senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits. e
4. Exopthalmic goiter is due to the over secretion of thyroxine. Tru -
5. Pituitary gland is divided into four lobes. -Fals e
e
Pituitary gland is divided into three lobes.
6. Estrogen is secreted by corpus luteum. Fals -
Estrogen is secreted by the graffian e follicles of the ovars.

V. SHORT ANSWERS:
1. Which hormone promotes the production of male flowers in
Cucurbits?
Gibberellin
2. Write the name of a synthetic auxin. 2,4 D
3. Which hormone induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes? Gibberellin
4. What is the hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in
female after child birth? Prolactin or lactogenic hormone
5. Name the hormones, which regulates water and mineral metabolism in
man.
Minneralocorticoids - Aldosterone
6. Which hormone is secreted during emergency situation in man?
Adrenaline or Epinephrine
7. Which gland secretes digestive enzymes and hormones? Pancreas
8. Name the endocrine glands associated with kidneys. Adrenal
VI. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
1. What are synthetic auxins? Give examples.
 Artificially synthesized auxins that have properties like auxins are called
as synthetic auxins.
 Example: 2, 4 D (2,4 Dichlorophenoxy Acetic Acid).
2. What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially?
 Bolting : Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden
shoot elongation followed by flowering. This is called bolting.
 It is induced by artificial treatment with plant hormone gibberellin.
 It causes stem elongation in plants under normal condition.
3. Bring out any two physiological activities of abscisic acid.
 ABA promotes the process of abscission (separation of leaves)
 ABA promotes senescence in leaves by causing loss of chlorophyll.
4. What will you do to prevent leaf fall and fruit drop in plants?
Support your answer with reason.
 We can spray auxins to prevent leaf fall and fruit drop in plants.
 Auxins prevent the formation of abscission layer thus delay the abscission of
leaves and fruits.
 So leaf and fruit can remain attached to the stem long time.
5. What are chemical messengers?
Hormones are powerful messengers that control and coordinate essential
processes such as growth, metabolism and fertility by carrying messges from
endocrine glands to target cells and tissues.
6. Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
Endocrine gland Exocrine gland

They secrete hormones They secrete enzymes, saliva and milk

They are ductless gland They may have or may not have ducts
They are transported through bloodThey are transported through ducts or
stream tubes

7. What is the role of parathormone?

 The parathormone regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism in the body.
 They act on bone, kidney and intestine to maintain blood calcium levels.
8. What are the hormones secreted by posterior lobe of the pituitary
gland? Mention the tissues on which they exert their effect.
Hormoes Effects
Vasopressin or Antidiuretic hormone Tissues of kidney tubules
Oxytocin Tissues of uterus and mammary gland
9. Why are thyroid hormones referred as personality hormone?
 Thyroid hormones Triiodothyronine and Thyroxine
 It is essential for normal physical, mental and personality development, they
are also known as personality hormone.
10. Which hormone requires iodine for its formation? What will
happen if intake of iodine in our diet is low?
 Triiodothyronine (T3) and Tetraiodothyronine.
 Less intake of Iodine leads to Goitre
 VII. ANSWER IN DETAIL:
1. (a) Name the gaseous plant hormone. Describe its three
different actions in plants. Ethylene.
Its three different actions in plants.
 Ethylene promotes the ripening of fruits.
 Ethylene inhibits the elongation of stem and root in dicots.
 Ethylene hastens the senescence of leaves and flowers.
(b) Which hormone is known as stress hormone in plants ? Why?
 Abscisic acid. Because it increases tolerance of plants to various kinds of stress.
 So, it is also called as stress hormone.
2. Describe an experiment which demonstrates that growth
stimulating hormone is produced at the tip of coleoptile.
 Frits Warmolt Went (1903–1990), a Dutch biologist demonstrated the existence and effect of
auxin in plants.
 In First experiment, Went removed the tips of Avena coleoptiles.
 The cut tips did not grow indicating that the tips produced something essential for
growth.
 In his second experiment, he placed the agar blocks on the decapitated
coleoptile tips.
 The coleoptile tips did not show any response.
 In his next experiment, he placed the detached coleoptile tips on agar blocks.
 After an hour, it grew straight up indicating that some chemical had diffused from
the cut coleoptile tips into the agar block, which stimulated the growth.
 From his experiments Went concluded that a chemical diffusing from the tip of coleoptiles
was responsible for growth, and he named it as “Auxin” meaning ‘to grow”.
3. Write the physiological effects of gibberellins.
 Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden shoot elongation
followed by flowering. This is called bolting.
 Gibberellins promote the production of male flowers in monoecious plants
(Cucurbits).
 Gibberellins break dormancy of potato tubers.
 Gibberellins are efficient than auxins in inducing the formation of seedless fruit –
Parthenocarpic fruits e.g. Tomato.
4. Where are estrogens produced? What is the role of estrogens in the
human body? Estrogen is produced by the Graafian follicles of the
ovary.
Functions of estrogens:
 It brings about the changes that occur during puberty.
 It initiates the process of oogenesis.
 It stimulates the maturation of ovarian follicles in the ovary.
 It promotes the development of secondary sexual characters
5. What are the conditions which occur due to lack of ADH and
insulin? How are the conditions different from one another?
 It Reduces reabsorption of water
 It causes an increase in urine output (polyuria)
Diabetes insipidus Diabetes mellitus
Increase in urine output Increase in blood suger level
 LESSON 17 REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS AND ANIMALS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is
a) Onion b) Neem c) Ginger d)
2. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in
Bryophyllum .
a) Amoeba b) c) Plasmodium d) Bacteria
3. Syngamy results Yeastin the formation of .
a) Zoospores b) Conidia c) d) Chlamydospores
4. The essential parts of a flower are Zygote.
a) Calyx and Corolla b) Calyx and Androecium
c) Corolla and Gynoecium d) Androecium and
5. Anemophilous flowers have Gynoecium
.
a) Sessile stigma b) Small smooth stigma c) Colored flower d) Large feathery
6. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of .
stigma
a) Generative b) Vegetative cell c) Microspore mother cell d) Microspore
7. What is true of gametes?
cell
a) They are diploid b) They give rise to gonads
c) They produce hormones d) They are formed from
8. A single highly coiled tube where gonads
sperms are stored, get
concentrated and mature is known as
a) b) Vasa efferentia c) Vas deferens d) Seminiferous tubules
9. The Epididymis
large elongated cells that provide nutrition to developing
sperms are
a) Primary germ cells b) Sertoli c) Leydig cells d) Spermatogonia
10. Estrogen is secreted cells by
a) Anterior pituitary b) Primary c) Graffian d) Corpus luteum
follicle follicle
11. Which one of the following is an IUCD?
a) Copper b) Oral pills c) Diaphragm d) Tubectomy
II. FILL– T IN THE BLANKS:
1. The embryo sac in a typical dicot at the time of fertilization is7
2. After fertilization the ovary develops into fruit celled.
3. Planaria reproduces asexually byRegeneratio .
4. Fertilization is Intern in humansn .
5. The implantation al of the embryo occurs at about7t day of fertilization
6. Colostru is the first secretion from the mammary h gland after child birth
m
7. Prolactin is a hormone produced by pituitary
gland .
III (A) MATCH THE FOLLOWING
Column 1 Column 2
Fission Spirogyra
Budding Amoeba
Fragmentation Yeast
Answer:
Fission :
Amoeba
Budding :
Yeast
Fragmentation :
Spirogyra
(B) MATCH THE FOLLOWING TERMS WITH THEIR RESPECTIVE
MEANINGS
a) Parturition 1) Duration between pregnancy and birth
b) Gestation 2) Attachment of zygote to endometrium
c) Ovulation 3) Delivery of baby from uterus
d) Implantation 4) Release of egg from Graafian follicle
Answer:
a) Parturition - Delivery of baby from
uterus
b) Gestation - Duration between pregnancy
and
c) birth
Ovulation - Release of egg from
Graafian
d) follicle- Attachment of zygote to
Implantation
endometrium
IV. STATE WHETHER THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OR
FALSE. CORRECT THE FALSE STATEMENT
1. Stalk of the ovule is called pedicle. Fals -
Stalk of the ovule is called funicle. e
2. Seeds are the product of asexual reproduction. Fals -
Seeds are the product of sexual reproduction. e
3. Yeast reproduces asexually by means of multiple Fals
fission. -
Yeast reproduces asexually by budding. e
4. The part of the pistil which serves as a receptive structure for the
pollen is Fals
called as style. -
The part ofethe pistil which serves as a receptive structure for the pollen is called stigma.
5. Insect pollinated flowers are characterized by dry and Fals
smooth pollen. - Wind pollinated flowers are characterized by dry and e
smooth pollens, (or) Insect pollinated flowers are characterized by large
and spiny pollens.
6. Sex organs produce gametes which are diploid. Fals -
Sex organs produce gametes which are haploid, e
7. LH is secreted by the posterior pituitary. -False
LH is secreted by the anterior pituitary.
8. Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy. Tru -
9. Surgical methods of contraception prevent e Fals
gamete formation. -
Surgical methods of contraception prevent fertilization. e
10. The increased level of estrogen and progesterone is
responsible for Falsmenstruation. -
e
The decrease in level of estrogen and progesterone is responsible for menstruation.

V. ANSWER IN A WORD OR SENTENCE:

1. If one pollen grain produces two male gametes, how many
pollen grains are needed to fertilize 10 ovules?
 Ten pollen grains are needed to fertilize 10 ovules.
 Because of double fertilization.
2. In which part of the flower germination of pollen grains takes place?
 Stigma surface of the flower.
3. Name two organisms which reproduces through budding.
 Yeast and Bryophyllum.
4. Mention the function of endosperm.
  Nutritive tissue.
 It provides food to the developing embryo.
5. Name the hormone responsible for the vigorous contractions
of the uterine muscles.
 Oxytocin
6. What is the enzyme present in acrosome of sperm?
 Hyaluronidase – helps to enter sperm into developing embryo.
7. When is World Menstrual Hygiene Day observed? May 28.
8. What is the need for contraception ?
 Contraception is one of the best birth control measures.
9. Name the part of the human female reproductive system where
the following occurs. a. Fertilization - Ampulla of fallopian tube
b. Implantation - in the uterus.

VI. SHORT ANSWER QUESTION:

1. What will happen if you cut planaria into small fragments?
 If we cut a Planaria into small fragments, over time each piece will regenerate
into a complete worm by the process regeneration.
2. Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing some type of
plants?
 Some plants have reduced power of sexual reproduction.
 Seeds of some plants have long dormant period or poor viability.
 It is a rapid and easier method.
 Good characters can be preserved
3. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Binary fission Multiple fission
A single parent cell divides into two A single parent cell divides into many
daughter cells daughter cells
It occurs during favourable It occurs during unfavourable
conditions eg: Amoeba conditions eg: Plasmodium

4. Define triple fusion.

 The fusion of second sperm (n) with secondary nucleus (2n) is known as
triple fusion. As the result of triple fusion endosperm nucleus is formed.
 Second sperm (n) + Secondary nucleus (2n) = Endosperm nucleus (3n).
5. Write the characteristics of insect pollinated flowers.
 To attract insects these flowers are brightly coloured, have smell and nectar.
 The pollen grains are larger in size, the exine is pitted, spiny etc., so they can
be adhered firmly on the sticky stigma.
6. Name the secondary sex organs in male
 Penis.
 Prostate gland.
 Vas deferens, etc.
7. What is colostrum? How is milk production hormonally regulated?
 The first fluid which is released from the mammary gland after child birth is called
as colostrum.
 Milk production is stimulated by prolactin secreted from the anterior pituitary.
 The ejection of milk is stimulated by posterior pituitary hormone oxytocin.
 8. How can menstrual hygiene be maintained during menstrual days?
 Sanitary pads should be changed regularly.
 Use of warm water to clean genitals helps to get rid of menstrual cramps.
 Wearing of loose clothing.
9. How does developing embryo gets its nourishment inside the
mother's body?
 The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of special tissue
called placenta.
 Umbilical cord connects the placenta and foetus.
10. Write the events involved in the sexual reproduction of a flowering
plant
a. Discuss the first event and write the types:
Pollination. 1. Self-pollination 2. Cross pollination
b. Mention the advantages and the disadvantages
of that event. Advantages:
 Self-pollination is possible in certain bisexual flowers.
 Flowers do not depend on agents for pollination.
 More viable seeds are produced.
Disadvantages:
 More wastage of pollen grains.
 The seeds are less in numbers.
 It may introduce some unwanted characters.
12. Why are the human testes located outside the abdominal cavity?
Name the pouch in which they are present.
 Because spermatogenesis need slightly lower than the normal temperature.
 Testes are present in the scrotum.
13.Luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is also called the
secretory phase. Give reason.
 Female hormones like Estrogen and progesterone secrete in this phase. So it
is called secretory phase.

VIII. ANSWER IN DETAIL:

1. With a neat labelled diagram describe the parts of a typical
angiospermic ovule. Structure of the Ovule :
 Nucleus is enclosed by two
integuments leaving an
opening called as micropyle.
 The ovule is attached to the
ovary wall by a stalk known as
funiculus.
 Chalaza is the basal part.
 The embryo sac contains seven
cells and the eighth nuclei located
within the nucelus.
 Three cells at the micropylar
end form the egg apparatus
 The three cells at the chalaza end
are the antipodal cells.
 2. What are the phases of menstrual cycle? Indicate the changes
in the ovary and uterus.

Phase Days Changes in Ovary Changes in Uterus

Menstrual4–5 days Development of primary Breakdown of uterine endometrial
phase follicles lining leads to bleeding
Follicular 6th–13th day
Primary follicles grow into Endometrium regenerates through
phase mature Graafian proliferation
follicle
Ovulatory14th day The Graafian follicle Increase in endometrial thickness
phase ruptures, and releases
the ovum(egg)
Luteal 15th– 28th Emptied Graafian follicle If fertilization take place –
phase day develops into corpus Endometrium prepared
luteum for implantation.
If fertilization does not take place –
corpus luteum regenerate.

**************************************************************************************
LESSON - 18 GENETICS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
1. According to Mendel alleles have the
following character
a) Pair of genes b) Responsible for
c) Production of gametes character
d) Recessive factors d) Recessiveness
2. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio is due to
a) Segregation b) Crossing over c) Independent
3. The region of the chromosome assortment
where the spindle fibres get
attached during cell division
a) Chromomere b) Centrosome c) d) Chromonema
Centromere
4. The centromere is found at the centre of the chromosome.
a) Telocentric b) c) Sub-metacentric d) Acrocentric
5. The Metacentric
units form the backbone of the DNA.
a) 5 carbon sugar b) Phosphate c) Nitrogenous bases d) Sugar
6. Okasaki fragments are joined together by .
phosphate
a) Helicase b) DNA polymerase c) RNA primer d) DNA
7. The number of chromosomes found in human beings ligase are .
a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of
allosomes.
b) 22 autosomes and 1 allosome c) 46 autosomes
d) 46 pairs autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.
8. The loss of one or more chromosome in a ploidy is called .
a) Tetraploidy b) c) Euploidy d) polyploidy
Aneuploidy
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. The pairs of contrasting character (traits) of Mendel are calledallele
2. Physical expression of a gene is calledphenoty s.
3. The thin thread like structures found inpe
the nucleus of each cell
are called
chromosom
consists of two polynucleoti chains
4. DNAes.
de
 5. An inheritable change in the amount or the structure of a gene or a chromosome
is called
mutatio
n.
III. IDENTIFY WHETHER THE STATEMENT ARE TRUE OR FALSE.
CORRECT THE FALSE STATEMENT:
1. A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F2 generation is 3:1. -Fals
A typical mendelian dihybrid ratio of F2 generation is 9:3:3:1. e
2. A recessive factor is altered by the presence of a dominant factor. Fals
-
e
The expression of a recessive factor is altered by the presence of a dominant factor.
3. Each gamete has only one allele of a gene. Tru
-
e
4. Hybrid is an offspring from a cross between genetically different parent. Tru
-
5. Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendages known e
as telomere. -
Fals
Some of the chromosome
e have an elongated knob-like appendage known as satellite.
6. New nucleotides are added and new complementary strand of DNA is formed with
the help of enzyme DNA polymerase. -
Tru
7. Down’s syndrome is the geneticecondition with 45 chromosomes. -
Fals
Down's syndrome is the genetic condition with 47 chromosmes. e
IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
1. Autosomes - 22 pairs of
1. Autosomes Trisomy 21
chromosome 2. Diploid condition 9:3:3:1
3. Allosome 22 pair of chromosome
4. Down’s syndrome 2n
5. Dihybrid ratio 23rd pair of chromosome
Answe
r:
2. Diploid condition -
2n
3. Allosome - 23rd pair of
chromosome
4. Downs syndrome -
Trisomy
5. Dihybrid 21ratio -
9:3:3:1
V. ANSWER IN A SENTENCE:
1. What is a cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting
characters are studied?
A cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters are studied is
called Dihybrid cross.
2. Name the conditions when both the alleles are identical?
Homozygous - the conditions when both the alleles are identical ( TT or tt)
3. A garden pea plant produces axial white flowers. Another of
the same species produced terminal violet flowers. Identify the
dominant trait?
The dominant trait is axial white flower.
4. What is the name given to the segments of DNA, which are
responsible for the inheritance of a particular character?
Gene is the segments of DNA, which are responsible for the inheritance of a
particular character
5. Name the bond which binds the nucleotides in a DNA.
Hydrogen bond binds the nucleotides in a DNA.
VI. SHORT ANSWERS QUESTIONS:
1. Why did Mendel select pea plant for his experiments?
 The flowers are bisexual.
 It is easy to cross–pollinate.
 It has a short life span.
 It has deeply defined contrasting characters.
2. What do you understand by the term phenotype and genotype?
 Phenotype : External expression of a particular trait.
 Genotype : Genetic expression of an organism.
3. What are allosomes?
 Sex chromosomes.
 Responsible for sex determination.
 A male has XY chromosome.
 A female has XX chromosome.
4. What are Okazaki fragments?
Okazaki fragments are short sequences of DNA nucleotides which are
synthesized discontinuously and later linked together by enzyme DNA ligase to
create the lagging strand during DNA replication.
5. Why is euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants and
animals?
 Organisms with multiples of the basic chromosome set are called euploid.
 Plants with euploidy condition have increased fruit and flower size.
 Plants and animals with euploidy condition are typically sterile.
6. A pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with pure dwarf plant (tt), what
would be the F1 and F2 generations? Explain.
 F1 plants are Hybrid tall (Tt)
 In the F2 generation 3 different type were obtained.
 Tall Homozygous - TT - pure - 1
 Tall Heterozygous - Tt - 2
 Dwarf Homozygous - tt – F1 plants are Hybrid tall (Tt)
7. Explain the structure of a chromosome.
 Chromosome made up of two sister chromatids.
 Joined together by centromere.
 The chromosomes are made up of DNA, RNA,
chromosomal proteins (Histones and non–
histones) and certain metallic ions.
 These proteins provide structural support to the
chromosome.
 Some chromosomes has a knob like
structure called satellite.
 Chromosomes with satellite called
SAT chromosome.
8. Label the parts of the DNA in the
diagram given below. Explain the
structure briefly.
 A sugar molecules – Deoxyribose sugar.
 A nitrogenous base. There are two types of nitrogenous bases in DNA.
 They are; Purines (Adenine and Guanine).
 Pyrimidines (Cytosine and Thymine).
  A phosphate group.

VII. LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. Explain with an example the inheritance of dihybrid cross. How is
it different from monohybrid cross?
Monohybrid cross Dihybrid cross
The inheritance of one pair of The inheritance of two pairs of contrasting
contrasting characteristics characteristics

The phenotypic ratio is 3:1 The phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1

 Dihybrid cross involves the inheritance of
two pairs of contrasting characteristics
(or contrasting traits) at the same time.
 Characters (a) Yellow Round and (b)
Green wrinkled.
 The parental gametes are RY and ry.
 The F1 generation were RrYy.
 The F1 hybrids are self fertilized for F2
generation.
 The ratio of each phenotype (or
appearance) of seeds in the F2 generation
is 9:3:3:1.
 This is known as the Dihybrid ratio.
2. How is the structure of DNA
organised? What is the biological
significance of DNA? Structure of
DNA:
 DNA – Deoxy Ribose Nucleic Acid.
 Proposed by Watson and Crick in 1959.
 DNA is made up of 4 Base pairs of Nucleotides.
 Adenine always pairs with Thymine with two hydrogen bond.
 Guanine always pairs with Cytosine with three hydrogen bond.
 Each turn of the double helix is 34 A°
Significance:
 It is responsible for the transmission of hereditary information from one
generation to next generation.
 It contains information required for the formation of proteins.
 It controls the developmental process and
life activities of an organism.
3. The sex of the new born child is a matter
of chance and neither of the parents may
be considered responsible for it. What
would be the possible fusion of gametes to
determine the sex of the child?
 Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes.
 22 pairs are called Autosomes.
 23rd pair called Allosomes.
 Males are heterogametic (44 XX+ XY)
 Females are homogametic (44XX + XX)
 Father determines the sex of the child.
 LESSON 19 ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
1. Biogenetic law states that
a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together
b) Ontogeny recapitulates
phylogeny
c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny
2. The ‘use and disuse theory’ was proposed by .
a) Charles Darwin b) Ernst Haeckel c) Jean Baptiste d) Gregor Mendel
3. Paleontologists deal with Lamarck
a) Embryological evidences b) Fossil
c) Vestigial organ evidences evidences
d) All the above
4. The best way of direct dating fossils of recent
origin is by
a) Radio-carbon b) Uranium lead
method method
c) Potassium-argon method d) Both (a) and (c)
5. The term Ethnobotany was coined by
a) Khorana b) J.W. c) Ronald Ross d) Hugo de Vries
Harsbberger
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. The characters developed by the animals during their life time, in response to
the environmental changes are called
adaptatio
2. The degenerated and non-functional
n. organs found in an organism are calledvestigi
organ al
s. 3. The forelimbs of bat and human are examples ofhomologo organs.
4. The theory of natural selection for evolution was us
proposed Charles
by Darwin.

III. STATE TRUE OR FALSE. CORRECT THE FALSE STATEMENTS

1. The use and disuse theory of organs’ was postulated by Charles Darwin. Fals
-
The Use and Disuse theory of organs was postulated by Lamarck. e
2. The homologous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have
different origin and developmental pattern. - Fals
The homologous organs look dissimilar and perform different functions but
they have similar origin and developmental e pattern.
3. Birds have evolved from reptiles. -
Tru
e
IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING
Column Column
A B
a) Atavism caudal vertebrae and vermiform appendix
b) Vestigial organs a forelimb of a cat and a bat’s wing
c) Analogous organs rudimentary tail and thick hair on the body
d) Homologous organs a wing of a bat and a wing of an insect
e) Wood park radiocarbon dating
f) W.F. Libby Thiruvakkarai
Column A : Column B
(a) Atavism : rudimentary tail and thick hair on the body
(b) Vestigial organs : caudal vertebrae and vermiform appendix
(c) Analogous organs : a wing of a bat and a wing of an insect
 (d) Homologous organs : a forelimb of a cat and a bat’s wing
(e) Wood park : Thiruvakkarai
(f) W. F. Libby : radiocarbon dating

V. ANSWER IN A WORD OR SENTENCE

1. A human hand, a front leg of a cat, a front flipper of a whale and a
bat’s wing look dissimilar and adapted for different functions. What is
the name given to these organs? Homologous organs.
2. Which organism is considered to be the fossil bird?
Archaeopteryx is considered to be the fossil bird.
3. What is the study of fossils called?
The study of fossils is called Palaeontology.

VI. SHORT ANSWERS QUESTIONS:

1. The degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character. Why is it
an acquired character?
 The kiwi was flying bird in New Zealand.
 They did not attempt to fly because of no enemies on the land.
 Generation after generation resulting degeneration of wings and loss flight.
 This character is acquired due to environmental changes.
 So the degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character.
2. Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be a connecting link?
 Archaeopteryx is the oldest known fossil bird.
 It is considered as a connecting link between birds and reptiles.
 It had wings and feathers like birds.
 It had a long tail, clawed digits and conical teeth like a reptiles.
3. Define Ethnobotany and write its importance.
 Ethnobotany is the study of a region’s plants and their practical uses through
the traditional knowledge of the local culture of people.
Importance of Ethnobotany:
 It provides traditional uses of plant.
 It gives information about certain unknown and known useful plants.
 The ethnomedicinal data will serve as a useful source of information for
the chemists,
 pharmacologists and practitioners of herbal medicine.
 Tribal communities utilize ethnomedicinal plant parts like bark, stem, roots,
leaves, flower bud, flowers, fruits, seeds, oils, resins, dyes, gum for the
treatment of diseases like diarrhoea, fever, headache, diabetes, jaundice,
snakebites, leprosy, etc.
4. How can you determine the age of the fossils?
 The age of fossils is determined by radioactive elements present in it. They may
be carbon, uranium, lead or potassium.
Radioactive carbon (C14) dating method :
 This method was discovered by W.F. Libby (1956).
 Carbon consumption of animals and plants stops after death and since then, only
the decaying process of C14 occurs continuously. The time passed since death
of a
 plant or animal can be calculated by measuring the amount of C 14 present in their
body.
5. How do you differentiate homologous organs from analogous
organs?
Homologous organs Analogous organs
They have inherited from common They have different origin with different
ancestors with similar developmental development pattern
pattern in embryos

Homologous organs look dissimilar and The analogous organs look similar and
adapted for different functions. perform similar functions.

**************************************************************************************
LESSON 20 PLANT BREEDING AND BIOTECHNOLOGY
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
1. Which method of crop improvement can be practised by a
farmer if he is inexperienced?
a. clonal selection b. mass
c. pureline selection selection
d. hybridisation
2. Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of .
a. sugarcane b. rice c. cow d. maize
pea
3. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease
resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of .
a. chilli b. maize c. sugarcane d.
4. The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and wheatcelebrated its 50th
birthday is
a. IR b. IR 24 c. Atomita 2 d. Ponni
5. Which of 8 the following is used to produce products useful
to humans by biotechnology techniques?
a. enzyme from organism b. live organism c. vitamins d. both (a) and
6. We can cut the DNA with the help of (b)
a. scissors b. restriction c. knife d. RNAase
7. rDNA is a endonucleases
a. vector DNA b. circular DNA
c. DNA
d. satellite recombinant of vector DNA and
desired DNA
8. DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying
sequences of DNA
a. single stranded b. mutated c. polymorphic d.
9. Organisms with modified endogenous gene or a foregin repetitive
gene are
also known as
a. transgenic organisms b. genetically modified c. mutated d. both a
10.In a hexaploid wheat( 2n = 6 x = 42 ) the haploid (n) and and
b the
basic(x) number of chromosomes respectively are
a. n = 7 and x = 21 b. n = 21 and x = 21 c. n = 7 and x = 7d. n = 21 and
x=7
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. Economically important crop plants with superior quality are raised byplant
2. A protein rich wheat variety isAtlas breeding.
3. Colchici is the chemical used 66.
for doubling the chromosomes.
ne
4. The scientific process which produces crop plants enriched with desirable nutrients
is called
fortificatio
5. Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but atomita
is a rice variety produced by
n. breeding that grows well in saline soil.
mutation 2
6. Gene technique made it possible to genetically engineer living organism.
therapy
7. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule at specific positions
known as
restriction
8. Similar
site. DNA fingerprinting is obtained for identical
9. Callu cells are undifferentiated mass of cells.
twins.
10.sIn gene cloning the DNA of interest is integrated in avector
.
III. STATE WHETHER TRUE OR FALSE. IF FALSE, WRITE THE
CORRECT STATEMENT
1. Raphano brassica is a man-made tetraploid produced by colchicine
Tru
e treatment. -
2. The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of
chromosome isFals called mutation. -
e
The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is
called polyploidy.
3. A group of plants produced from a single plant through
vegetative or asexual reproduction Fals are called a pureline. -
A group of plants produced fromea single plant through vegetative or asexual
reproduction are called a Clone.
4. Iron fortified rice variety determines the protein quality of the
Fals
e cultivated plant -
Amino acid rich fortified rice variety containing more amino acids
determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. Golden rice is a hybrid. Fals
-
e
Golden rice is a genetically modified plant.
6. Bt gene from bacteria can kill insects. Fals -
Bt gene from bacteria produces a toxin e that can kill insects.
7. In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done inside the body. -
Fals
In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation taking place outside ethe body
by artificial means.
8. DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey. -
Tru
9. Molecular scissors refers to DNA ligases. Fals - e
Molecular scissors refers to restriction eendonucleases.
IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
Column A Column B
1. Sonalika Phaseolus mungo
2. IR 8 Sugarcane
3. Saccharum Semi-dwarf wheat
4. Mung No. 1 Ground nut
5. TMV– 2 Semi-dwarf Rice
6. Insulin Bacillus thuringienesis
7. Bt toxin Beta carotene
8. Golden rice first hormone produced using rDNA technique
Answer
1. Sonalika - Semi-dwarf
wheat
2. IR8 - Semi-dwarf
Rice
3. Saccharum -
Sugarcane
4. Mung No. 1 - Phaseolus
mungo
5. TMV-2 - Ground
nut
6. Insulin - first hormone produced using rDNA
technique
7. Bt toxin - Bacillus
thuringienesis
8. Golden rice - Beta
carotene
V. ANSWER IN A SENTENCE:
1. Give the name of wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and
protein.
Atlas 66
2. Define genetic engineering.
 It is technique of transfer of genes from one organism to another organism to
create a new DNA called r DNA.
 It is also called recombinant DNA technology.
3. Name the types of stem cells.
 Somatic stem cell.
 Embryonic stem cell.
4. What are transgenic organisms?
 Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene is
known as transgenic organisms.
5. State the importance of biofertiliser.
 It is used to develop the crop plants enriched with high level of desirable
nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals.

VII. SHORT ANSWERS QUESTIONS:

1. Discuss the method of breeding for disease resistance.
 Plant diseases are caused by pathogens like viruses, bacteria and fungi.
 This affects crop yield. Hence, it is important to develop disease resistant
varieties of crops, that would increase the yield and reduce the use of fungicides
and bactericides.
2. Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to
achieve high productivity.
 Higher yield with better quality. eg: Protein Rich Atlas 66
 Resistance to diseases. eg: Himgiri
 Shorter duration / Semidwarf. eg: Sonalika and Kalyan Sona.
3. Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
Lysine (Amino acid ) rich maize hybrids are; Protina, Shakti and Rathna.
4. Distinguish between a. somatic gene therapy and germ line gene
therapy
Somatic Gene Therapy Germ line Gene Therapy
It is the replacement of defective It is the replacement of defective
gene in somatic cell. gene in germ cell (sperm and egg)
 Correction of genetic defects is It may not be carried to next
beneficial to patient. It may not be generation and will be beneficial to
carried to next generation next generation.

B. Undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells

Undifferentiated cells Differentiated cells
They are unspecialized mass of cells. They become specialized cells for doing
certain jobs
Example: Cells in early embryos are Example: These cells become a liver cell, a
undifferentiated. blood cell, or a neuron, muscle cells, skin
cells, etc.

5. State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.

 It is used in forensic lab to identify the culprit.
 It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes.
 It is also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and
speciation.
6. How are stem cells useful in regenerative process?
 In treating neurodegenerative disorders like Parkinson’s disease and
Alzheimer’s disease neuronal stem cells can be used to replace the damaged
or lost neurons.
7. Differentiate between out breeding and inbreeding.
Out breeding In breeding
It is the breeding of unrelated It is the breeding of closely related
animals. animals.

Cross between two different species Superior males and superior females
with desirable features of economic of the same breed and identified and
value are mated. mated in pairs.

VIII. LONG ANSWERS QUESTIONS:

1. What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals.
 Increased production of milk by cattle.
 Increased production of egg by poultry.
 High quality of meat is produced.
 Increased growth rate in domesticated animals.
Example 1: Cross breed of fowls:
White Leghorn X Plymouth Rock

↓
Hybrid fowl – yield more eggs

Example 2: Cross breed of cows:

Developed by mating the bulls of exotic breeds and cows of indigenous breeds.

Brown Swiss X Sahiwal

↓
Karan Swiss – yield 2-3 times more milk than indigenous cows.
2. Describe mutation breeding with an example.
Mutation Breeding is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide
sequence of DNA in an organism.
Achievements of Mutation breeding
 Sharbati Sonora wheat produced from Sonora 64 by using gamma rays.
 Atomita 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance.
 Groundnut with thick shells
3. Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
 It is the scientific process of developing crop plants enriched with high levels of
desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals.
 Bio fortification is effective in removing hidden hunger and improving
the nutritional value.
 Iron rich fortified rice variety.
 Atlas 66, a protein rich wheat variety.
 Vitamins enrich carrots, pumpkin and spinach.
4. With a neat labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene
cloning.
 Cloning – making of an identical copies.
 Isolate the gene of interest.
 Cut by using restriction enzymes.
 Insert in bacteria with plasmid.
 Transfer r DNA into a bacterial cell.
 Selection and multiplication.

5. Discuss the importance of

biotechnology in the field of
medicine.
 Insulin used in the treatment of diabetes.
 HGH for growth deficiencies.
 Blood clotting factors for haemophilia.
 Tissue plasminogen activator to dissolve blood clot and to prevent heart attack.
 Vaccines for hepatitis B and Vaccines for rabies.
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER LESSON : 21 - HEALTH AND DISEASE
1. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of
adrenaline. The component causing this could be
a) b) Tannic acid c) Curcumin d) Leptin
Nicotine
2. World 'No Tobacco Day' is observed on
a) May b) June 6 c) April 22 d) October 2
3. Cancer
31 cells are more easily damaged by radiations than
normal cells because they are
a) Different in structure b) Non-dividing
c) Mutated Cells d) Undergoing rapid
4. Which type of cancer affects lymph division
nodes and spleen?
a) Carcinoma b) Sarcoma c) Leukemia d)
5. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to Lymphoma
a) Loss of memory b) Cirrhosis of
c) State of hallucination liver
d) Supression of brain function
6. Where does alcohol effect immediately after drinking?
a) Eyes b) Auditory region c) Liver d) Central nervous
system
II. STATE WHETHER TRUE OR FALSE, IF FALSE WRITE THE
CORRECT STATEMENT
1. AIDS is an epidemic disease. Tru -
2. Cancer causing genes aree called Oncogenes. Tru -
3. Obesity is characterized by tumour e Fals
formation. - Cancer is characterized by e
tumour formation. Fals
4. In leukemia both WBCs and RBCs increase in number. e -
In Leukemia WBC increases in number.
5. Study of cause of disease is called etiology. Tru -
e
6. AIDS is not transmitted by contact with a patient’s Tru clothes. -
7. Type 2 diabetes mellitus results due to insulin deficiency. e
Fals -
e
Type 2 diabetes mellitus results due to low activity by Insulin.
8. Carcinogens are cancer causing agents. Tru -
9. Nicotine is a narcotic drug. Tru - e
10. Cirrhosis is associated e with brain disorder.Fals -
Cirrhosis is associated with liver disorder. e

III. EXPAND THE FOLLOWING ABBREVIATIONS:

1. IDDM Insulin
- Dependent Diabetes
mellitus.
2. HIV -Human Immuno-deficiency
3. BMI -Virus
Body Mass
4. AIDS Index.
Acquired
- Immuno deficiency
5. CHD - Syndrome.
Coronary Heart Disease.
6. NIDDM Non
- Insulin Dependent Diabetes
Mellitus.
IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
1. Sarcoma Stomach cancer
2. Carcinoma Excessive thirst
3. Polydipsia Excessive hunger
4. Polyphagia Lack of blood flow to heart muscle
5. Myocardial Infarction -Connective tissue cancer
Answer:
1. Sarcoma - Connective tissue
cancer
2. Carcinoma - Stomach
cancer
3. Polydipsia - Excessive
thirst
4. Polyphagia - Excessive
hunger
5. Myocardial Infarction - Lack of blood flow to
heart muscle

V. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. Cirrhosis is caused in liver due to excessive use ofAlcoh
2. A highly poisonous chemicals derived from tobacco olisNicotin
3. Blood cancer is called Leukemi e
4. Less response of a druga. to a specific dose with repeated use is calledtoleran
Type ce
5. Insulin resistance is a condition in diabetes mellitus
 VI. ANALOGY TYPE QUESTIONS. IDENTIFY THE FIRST WORDS AND
THEIR RELATIONSHIP AND SUGGEST A SUITABLE WORD FOR THE
FOURTH BLANK Diabetes
1. Communicable: AIDS: Non communicable: mellitus
2. Chemotherapy: Chemicals: Radiation therapy:Radiati
3. Hypertension:Hypercholesterolomia: Glycosuria: onHyperglyce
mia
VII. ANSWER IN A SENTENCE:
1. What are psychotropic drugs?
a) Psychotropic drugs - which acts on the brain and alter the
behavior, consciousness, power of thinking and perception.
b) They are referred as mood altering drugs.
2. Mention the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.
a) Lung cancer
b) Bronchitis
c) Pulmonary tuberculosis
d) Emphysema, etc.
3. What are the contributing factors for Obesity?
a) Obesity is due to genetic factors, physical inactivity, eating habits (overeating)
and endocrine factors.
4. What is adult onset diabetes?
Non insulin dependent diabetes mellitus.
5. What is metastasis?
The cancerous cells migrate to distant parts of the body and affect new tissues.
This process is called metastasis.
6. How does insulin deficiency occur?
Insulin deficiency occurs due destruction of β-cells of the pancreas.

VIII. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. What are the various routes by which transmission of human
immuno deficiency virus takes place?
a) Sexual contact with infected person.
b) Use of contaminated needles or syringe.
c) Transfusion of affected blood and blood products.
d) From infected mother to child through placenta
2. How is a cancer cell different from a normal cell?
Cancer cell Normal cell
The size of the nucleus is large. Normal, small size of nucleus is present.
Multiply indefinitely. The cells are normally divide.
They are less differentiated. They are will differentiated.
3. Differentiate between Type-I and Type-II Diabetes mellitus.
Factors Type I - Insulin dependent Type II - Non-insulin
diabetes mellitus (IDDM) dependent diabetes
mellitus (NIDDM)
Prevalence 10 - 20% 80 - 90%
Age of OnsetJuvenile onset (< 20 years) Maturity onset(> 30 years)

Body weightNormal or Underweight Obese

Defect Insulin deficiency due to destruction Target cells do respond to insulin
of β-cells
Treatment Insulin administration is necessary Can be controlled by diet,
exercise and medicine.

IX. ANSWER IN DETAIL:

1. Suggest measures to overcome the problems of an alcoholic.
 Education and counseling:
 Counseling the alcoholics to overcome their problems and stress, to
accept failures in their life.
 Physical activity:
 Activities like reading, music, sports, yoga and meditation.
 Seeking help:
 The affected individuals should seek help and guidance from parents
and peers.
 This will help them to share their wrong doing and get rid of the habit.
 Medical assistance:
 Seek the help from psychologists and psychiatrists to lead a peaceful life.
 Alcohol de-addiction and rehabilitation programmes are helpful to the
individual to live a normal and healthy life.
2. Changes in lifestyle is a risk factor for occurrence of
cardiovascular diseases. Can it be modified? If yes, suggest
measures for prevention.
a) Diet Management:
 Reduction in the intake of calories, low saturated fat and cholesterol
rich food, low
 carbohydrates and common salt are some of the dietary modifications.
 Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) is essential.
b) Physical activity:
 Regular exercise, walking and yoga are essential for body
weight maintenance.
c) Addictive substance avoidance:
 Alcohol consumption and smoking are to be avoided

*********************************************************************************
LESSON - 22 - ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT

I. FILL IN THE
BLANKS: in rainfall.
1. Deforestation leads to decrea
2. sefrom the land is calledsoil
Removal of soil particles .
3. Chipko movement is initiated against deforestati erosion
4. on.
Nilgir is a biosphere reserve in Tamilnadu.
5. is
Tidal energy is renewab type of energy.
6. Coal, petroleumleand natural gas are calledfoss fuels.
7. Coa is the most commonly used fuel for the il production of electricity.
l
 II. STATE WHETHER TRUE OR FALSE. CORRECT THE STATEMENTS
WHICH ARE FALSE:
1. Biogas is a fossil fuel. - Tru
2. Planting trees increasesethe groundwater level. Tru
-
3. Habitat destruction cause loss of wild life. -Tru e
- e
4. Nuclear energy is a renewable energy. Fals
Nuclear energy is a non renewable sourceeof energy.
5. Overgrazing prevents soil erosion. -Fals
Overgrazing can lead to soil erosion. e
6. Poaching of wild animals is a legal act. -Fals
Poaching of wild animals is illegal. e
7. National park is a protected park. -Tru
e
8. Wild life protection act was established in 1972. -Tru
e
III MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
1. Soil erosion energy saving
2. Bio gas acid rain
3. Natural gas removal of vegetation
4. Green house gas renewable energy
5. CFL bulbs CO 2
6. Wind non-renewable energy
7. Solid waste lead and heavy metals
Answer:
1. Soil erosion - removal of
vegetation
2. Bio gas2-
CO
3. Natural gas - non - renewable energy
4. Green house gas -
acid
5. CFLrain
bulbs - energy
saving
6. Wind - renewable
energy
7. Solid waste - Lead and heavy
metals
IV. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. Which of the following is / are a fossil fuel? i. Tar ii. Coal iii. Petroleum
a) i only b) i and ii c) ii and d) i, ii and iii
iii
2. What are the steps will you adopt for better waste management?
a) reduce the amount of waste formed b) reuse the waste
c) recycle the waste d) all of the
3. The gas released from vehicles exhaust are above
i. carbon monoxide ii. Sulphur dioxide iii. Oxides of nitrogen
a) i and ii b) i and iii c) ii and iii d) i, ii and
4. Soil erosion can be prevented by iii
a) deforestation b) c) over growing d) removal of vegetation
5. A renewable source of
afforestion
energy is d)
a) petroleum b) coal c) nuclear fuel trees
6. Soil erosion is more where there is
a) no rain fall b) low rainfall c) rain fall is d) none of these
7. An inexhaustible resources is high
 a) wind b) soil fertility c) wild life d) all of the above
8. Common
power energy source in village is
a) electricity b) coal c) biogas d) wood and animal
9. Green house effect refers to dung
a) cooling of earth b) trapping of UV rays
c) cultivation of plants d) warming of
10. A cheap, conventional, commercial earth and inexhaustible source of
energy is
a) b) solar energy c) wind energy d) thermal energy
11. Global warming will cause
hydropower
a) raise in level of oceans b) melting of glaciers
c) sinking of islands d) all of
12. Which of the following statement these
is wrong with respect to wind
energy
a) wind energy is a renewable energy
b) the blades of wind mill are operated with the help of
electric motorof wind energy is pollution free
c) production
d) usage of wind energy can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels

V. ANSWER IN A SENTENCE:
1. What will happen if trees are cut down?
 Ecological problems like floods and drought
 Soil erosion
 Loss of wild life
 Extinction of species
 Imbalance of Biogeochemical cycles.
 Desertification.
2. What would happen if the habitat of wild animals is disturbed?
The habitat provides food, shelter and protection to the animals. If the habitat
is disturbed then the animals become unprotected and may decline in numbers and
become endangered.
3. What are the agents of soil erosion?
 High velocity of wind
 Air currents
 Flowing water
 Landslide
 Human activities (deforestation, farming and mining) and
 Overgrazing by cattle.
4. Why fossil fuels are to be conserved?
 They are limited. Once they are exhausted there will be none.
 There are no ideal alternative for fossil fuels.
 We have to use in a control way to control global warming.
5. Solar energy is a renewable energy. How?
 Solar energy is the energy obtained from the sun.
 It is a renewable free source of energy that is sustainable and
totally inexhaustible, unlike fossil fuels which are finite.
6. How are e-wastes generated?
 E-wastes are generally called as electronic wastes.
  They are generated from the spoiled, outdated, non repairable electrical
and electronic devices.

VI. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. What is the importance of rainwater harvesting?
 Reduces flood and soil erosion.
 Overcome the rapid depletion of ground water levels.
 To meet the increase demand of water.
 Water stored in ground is not contaminated by human and animal
wastes and hence can be used for drinking purpose.
2. What are the advantages of using biogas?
 It is safe and convenient to use.
 It burns without smoke and less pollution.
 It can reduce the amount of greenhouse gases emitted.
3. What are the environmental effect caused by sewage?
 Untreated sewage or wastewater generated from domestic and
industrial process is the leading polluter of water sources in India.
 Sewage water results in agricultural contamination and
environmental degradation.
4. What are the consequences of deforestation?
 Ecological problems like floods and drought
 Soil erosion
 Loss of wild life
 Extinction of species
 Imbalance of Biogeochemical cycles.
 Desertification.

VII. LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. How does rainwater harvesting structures recharge ground water?
 Rainwater harvesting is a technique of collecting and storing rainwater
for future use.
 It is a traditional method of storing rain water.
 Purpose - to recharge ‘groundwater level’.
Methods of rainwater harvesting :
 Roof top rainwater harvesting: Roof-tops are excellent rain catchers.
 The rain water that falls on the roof of the houses is collected and stored in
the surface tank and can be used for domestic purpose.
Recharge pit:
 In this method, the rainwater is first collected from the roof tops or open
spaces and is directed into the percolation pits through pipes for
filtration.
 After filtration the rainwater enters the recharge pits or ground wells
2. How will you prevent soil erosion?
 Retain vegetation cover, so that soil is not exposed.
 Cattle grazing should be controlled.
 Crop rotation and soil management improve soil organic matter.
 Runoff water should be stored in the catchment.
 Reforestation, terracing and contour ploughing.
  Wind speed can be controlled by planting trees in form of a shelter belt.
3. What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes
managed?
 Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial
wastes and e - wastes etc.
Methods of solid wastes disposal
a) Segregation:
 It is the separation of different type of waste materials like
biodegradable and non-bio degradable wastes.
b) Sanitary landfill:
 Solid wastes are dumped into low-lying areas. The layers are compacted
by trucks to allow settlement.
 The waste materials get stabilized in about 2-12 months. The
organic matter under goes decomposition.
c) Incineration:
 It is the burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes)
in properly constructed furnace at high temperature.
d) Composting:
 Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or
earth worms and converted into humus
4. Enumerate the importance of forest.
 Forests are vital for human life
 it is a source for a wide range of renewable natural resource.
 They provide wood, food, fodder, fibre and medicine.
 They act as carbon sink, regulate climatic conditions, increase rainfall,
reduce global warming, protect wildlife.
 They also play a vital role in maintaining the ecological balance.
5. What are the consequences of soil erosion?
 Soil erosion causes a significant loss of humus, nutrients and decrease the
fertility of soil.
 It affects the fertility of the soil.
 It affects the ground water level.
 Vegetation cover cannot be recovered
**************************************************************************************

LESSON 23 VISUAL COMMUNICATION

I. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER:

1. Which software is used to create animation ?
a) Paint b) PDF c) MS Word d)
2. All files are stored in the Scratch
a) b) box c) Paint d) scanner
3. Which
Folderis used to build scripts?
a) Script b) Block palette c) stage d) sprite
4. Which
area is used to edit programs?
a) Inkscape b) script c) stage d) sprite
5. Where you will create editorcategory of blocks?
a) Block palette b) Block c) Script area d) sprite
menu
 II. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
1. Script Area Type notes
2. Folder Animation software
3. Scratch Edit programs
4. Costume editor Store files
5. Notepad Build Scripts
Answer:
(1) Script area - Build
(2)scripts
Folder - Store
files
(3) Scratch - Animation
software
(4) Costume editor - Edit
programs
(5) Notepad - Type notes
I. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING:
1. What is Scratch?
 ‘Scratch’ is a software used to create animations, cartoons and games easily.
 It is a visual programming language.
2. Write a short note on editor and its types?
 Script editor / costume editor: Where you edit your programs or your sprite’s
pictures.
 The script editor has three main parts:
 Script area
 Block menu
 Block palette
3. What is Stage?
 Stage is the background appearing when we open the scratch window.
 The background will most often be white.
 We can change the background colour as you like.
4. What is Sprite?
 The characters on the background of a Scratch window are known as Sprite.
 Usually a Cat appears as a sprite.
 PUBLIC EXAMINATION APRIL –
2024 SCIENCE ANSWER KEY
Time Allowed : 3.00 Hours Maximum Marks: 75

PART -
Note: (i) Answer all the I (12 x 1 =
questions. 12)
(ii) Choose the most appropriate answer from the given four alternatives
and option
the write code and the corresponding
answer.
1. The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of .
(a) root (b) stem (c) leaves (d) flower
2. TFM in soaps represents content in soap.
(a) mineral (b) vitamin (c) fatty acid (d) carbohydrate.
3. The value of universal gas constant:
(a) 3.81 mol-1 K-1 (b) 8.03 mol-1 K-1 (c) 1.38 mol-1 K-1 (d) 8.31 mol-1 K-1
4. Kilowatt hour is the unit of:
(a) resistivity (b) conductivity (c) electrical energy (d) electrical power
5. An enzyme which cuts DNA is :
(a) Protease (b) Restriction endonuclease (c) DNA Ligase
(d) RNAase
6. One mole of any substance contains molecules.
(a) 6.023 × 1023 (b) 6.023 × 10-23 (c) 3.0115 × 1023 (d) 12.046 × 1023
7. Which one is referred to as “Master Gland”?
(a) Pineal gland (b) Pituitary gland (c) Thyroid gland (d)
Adrenal gland
8. Which among the following is not the characteristic of anemophilous
plants?
(a) the flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains.
(b) the stigmas are large and protruding.
(c) the flowers are brightly coloured, have smell and nectar.
(d) pollen grains are small and dry
9. Inertia of a body depends on:
(a) Weight of the object (b) Acceleration due to gravity of planet
(c) Mass of the object (d) Both (a) and (b)
10. Which is the correct sequence of blood flow?
(a) Ventricle → Atrium → Vein → Arteries
(b) Atrium → Ventricle → Vein → Arteries
(c) Atrium → Ventricle → Arteries → Vein
(d) Ventricle → Vein → Atrium → Arteries
11. Which of the following is not an “element + element → compound”
type reaction?

(a) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) (b) 2K(s) + Br2(l) → 2KBr(s)

 (c) 2CO + O → 2CO (d) 4Fe + 3O → 2Fe O
(g) 2(g) 2(g) (s) 2(g) 2
3(s)
12. Cancer of the epithelial cells is called:
(a) Leukemia (b) Sarcoma (c) Carcinoma (d) Lipoma
PART – II
Note: Answer any seven questions. Question No. 22 is (7 x 2 =
14)
13. What is coefficient of apparent expansion?
(i) The ratio of the apparent rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise
in temperature to its unit volume.
(ii) It's SI unit is K–1
14. Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs but not used as fuse wires?
 Tungsten has a very high melting point.
 It will not melt when a large amount of current is passed through it
and the appliance will be damaged.
15. What is rust? Give the equation for the formationof rust.
When iron is exposed to moist air, it forms a layer of brown hydrated ferric
oxide on its surface. This compound is known as rust and the phenomenon of
formation of rust is known as rusting.
4Fe + 3O + x H O → 2Fe O .xH O (rust)
2 2 2 3 2

16. What is stage?

 Stage is the background appearing when we open the scratch window.
 The background will most often be white.
 We can change the background colour as you like.
17. Why is sinoatrial node called as pacemaker of heart?
 SA node acts as the pace maker of the heart
 It is capable of initiating impulse which can simulate the heart muscles to contract.
18. What are the parts of the hind brain?
(i) cerebellum (ii) pons (iii) medulla oblongata
19.Identify the parts A, B, C, and D in the given Figure.

20. What is colostrum? How is milk production hormonally regulated?

 The first fluid which is released from the mammary gland after child birth is called
as colostrum.
 Milk production is stimulated by prolactin secreted from the anterior pituitary.
 The ejection of milk is stimulated by posterior pituitary hormone oxytocin
 21. What is metastasis?
 The cancerous cells migrate to distant parts of the body and affect new tissues.
 This process is called metastasis
22.If the pH of a solution is 4.5, Find the value of
its pOH. Solution:
pH + pOH = 14  pOH = 14 – 4.5 = 9.5
pOH =9.5

PART – III
Note: Answer any seven questions. Question No. 32 is (7 x 4 =
23.Explain the various types of inertia with examples. 28)
Types of Inertia 1. Inertia of rest 2. Inertia of motion 3. Inertia of direction
a) Inertia of rest: To resist a body to change its state of rest
Ex: Shaking the trees leaves fall down
b) Inertia of motion: To resist a body to change its state of Motion
Ex: An athlete runs for long jumping
c) Inertia of direction To resist a body to change its direction.
Ex: Sharp turn while driving a car

24. (a) Write any three features of natural and artificial radioactivity.
Natural radioactivity Artificial radioactivity
It cannot be controlled It can be controlled
Spontaneous process Induced process
Alpha, beta and gamma Elementary particles-neutron Positron
Z > 83 Z < 83

(b) Name any two devices, which are working on the heating effect of
current.
Electric iron box, electric toaster

25.a) What happens when MgSO .7H O is heated? Write the appropriate
equation
4 2
When magnesium sulphate heptahydrate crystals are gently heated, it loses
seven water molecules and becomes anhydrous magnesium sulphate.

b) Define solubility
Solubility is defined as the number of grams of a solute that can be dissolved in
100g of a solvent to form its saturated solution at a given temperature and
pressure.
solute
Mass of the
× 100
Mass of the
Solubility =
solvent

26. (a) What is Respiratory Quotient?

It is the ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberates and the volume of oxygen
consumed during respiration.
(b) Why should the light dependent reaction occur before light
independent reaction during photosynthesis?
 During light independent reactions, CO is reduced into carbohydrates with
2
the help of ATP and NADPH2.
 So light dependent reaction occur before the light independent reaction.

3
27. Write the dental formula of rabbit.
2 2033
, 0, 3
Dental formula is
1023
, ) in rabbit which is written
(I
1 0 2
C PM. M
3
as

28. (a) Why is Euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants

and animals?
 Euploid plants often result in increased fruit and flower size. Therefore it is
advantageous for them.
 The euploid animals are sterile

(b) Classify Neurons based on its structure.

Based on structure the neurons classified as follows:
i) Unipolar neurons:
 Only one nerve process arises from the cyton which acts as both
axon and dendron.
 They found in early embryos but not in adult.
ii) Bipolar neurons:
 The cyton gives rise to two nerve processes of which one acts as
an axon while another as a dendron.
 They found in retina of eye and olfactory epithelium of
nasal chambers.
iii) Multipolar neurons:
 The cyton gives rise to many dendrons and an axon.
 They found in cerebral cortex of brain

29.How are Arteries and Veins structurally different from one another?
Artery Vein
Distributing vessels Collecting vessel
Deep location Superficial in location
Blood flow with high pressure Blood flow with low pressure
Wall of artery is strong thick and Wall of vein is weak thin and non-
elastic elastic
All arteries carry oxygenated blood All veins carry deoxygenated blood
except pulmonary arteries except pulmonary veins
30.Define Ethnobotany and write its importance.
 Ethnobotany is the study of a region’s plants and their practical uses through
the traditional knowledge of the local culture of people.
Importance of Ethnobotany:
 It provides traditional uses of plant.
 It gives information about certain unknown and known useful plants.
 The ethnomedicinal data will serve as a useful source of information for
the chemists,
 Pharmacologists and practitioners of herbal medicine.
31. (a) What are the consequences of deforestation?
 Flood, Drought, Soil erosion
 Loss of wild life
 Extinction of species
 Imbalance of biogeochemical cycles
 Alteration of climate condition.
 Desertification
(b) State the applications of DNA finger printing technique.
 It is used in forensic lab to identify the culprit.
 It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes.
 It is also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and
speciation.

32. (a) Name the acid that renders Aluminium passive. Why?
 The acid that renders aluminium passive is dilute orconcentrated nitric acid.
 Aluminium becomes passive due to the formation of anoxide film on its surface.

(b) Calculate the number of moles in 1.51 × 1023 molecules of NH Cl.

𝑁𝑜.𝑜𝑓 1.51 × 1023

4

𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑠
No. of moles
= 6.023 × 1023 = 0.25 mole
=
𝐴𝑣𝑜g𝑎𝑑𝑟𝑜 𝑛𝑜

PART – IV
Note : Answer all the questions. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
33. (a) (i) What are the uses of convex lens?
 Convex lenses are used as camera lenses.
 Used as magnifying lenses.
 Used in making microscope, telescope and slide projectors.
 Used to correct the defect of vision called hypermetropia.
(ii) Define dispersion of light.
 When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through
any transparent media such as glass or water, it is split into its
component colours.
 This phenomenon is called as dispersion of light
(iii) Why are traffic signals red in colour?
 As the red light has highest wavelength among all thecolours, it is
scattered least.
 It travels a longer distance in the atmosphere.
 (iv) What is the least count of travelling microscope?
Least count of travelling microscope : 0.01 mm

(OR
(b) (i) What is an echo? )
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound
ii) Two conditions necessary for hearing an echo:
1. The minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.
2. The minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2 m.
iii) The medical applications of echo:
Echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography
To create real-time visual images of the developing embryo or fetus in the mother’s
uterus

Speed of Sound = 𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞 𝐭𝐫𝐚𝐯𝐞𝐥𝐥𝐞𝐝 / 𝐓𝐢𝐦𝐞 𝐭𝐚𝐤𝐞𝐧 = 𝟐𝐝/t

iv) Calculation speed of sound :

34. (a) (i) Under same conditions of temperature and pressure, if

youcollect 3 litre
O , 5 litre of Cl and 6 litre of H .
2 2 2

(A) Which has the highest number of molecules? 6

2
litre of H
(B)Which has the lowest number of molecules? 3 litre of O
2
(ii) Give the salient features of 'Modern Atomic theory'.
 An atom is no longer indivisible.
 Atoms of the same element may have different atomic mass.
Ex – isotopes l Cl35 , l Cl37.
7 7
 Atoms of different elements may have same atomic masses.
Ex – Isobars 1 Ar40,2 Ca40.
8 0
 Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other elements.
 Atoms may not always combine in a simple whole number ratio.
Eg: Glucose C6 H1 O6
2
 Atom is the smallest particle that take part in a chemical reaction.
 Mass of an atom can be converted into energy. E = mc2.
(OR
(b) (i) How do detergents cause water ) pollution?
Some detergents having a branched hydrocarbon chain are not fully
biodegradable by microorganisms present in water. So, they cause water pollution.
(ii) An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative and has the
molecular
formula C H O . This compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet
smelling
2 4 2

compound ‘B’.
(i) Identify the compound ‘A’. Ethanoic acid (acetic acid).
(ii) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with
ethanol to form compound ‘B’.

(iii) Name the process. - Esterification.

 35. (a) (i) What are synthetic auxins? Give an example.
 Artifically synthesized auxin that have properties like auxinsare called
synthetic auxins.
 Eg : 2-4-D

(ii) With a neat labelled diagram, describe the parts of the

typical angiospermic ovule.
 Nucleus is enclosed by two
integuments leaving an
opening called as micropyle.
 The ovule is attached to ovary wall
by a stalk known as funiculus.
 Chalaza is the basal part
 The embryo sac contains seven
cells and the eighth nuclei located
within the nucleus
 Three cells at the micropylar
end form the egg apparatus.
 The three cells at the chalaza end
are the antipodal cells.

(OR
)
(b) (i) Who is called the "Father of Indian Green Revolution"?
Dr.M.S.Swaminathan

(ii) Differentiate between out-breeding and in-breeding.

Out breeding In breeding
It is the breeding of unrelated animals. It is the breeding of closely related
animals.

Cross between two different species Superior males and superior females of
with desirable features of economic the same breed and identified and
value are mated. mated in pairs.

Ex. Mule Ex: Sheep Hissardale

(iii) Differentiate between Type-I and Type-II Diabetes mellitus.

Factors Type I - Insulin dependent Type II - Non-insulin
diabetes mellitus (IDDM) dependent diabetes
mellitus (NIDDM)
Prevalence 10 - 20% 80 - 90%
Age of OnsetJuvenile onset (< 20 years) Maturity onset(> 30 years)

Body weightNormal or Underweight Obese

Defect Insulin deficiency due to destruction Target cells do respond to insulin
of β-cells
Treatment Insulin administration is necessary Can be controlled by diet,
exercise and medicine.