..

LSAC.org LSAC ®
FROM THE EDITOR
Digital LSAT™
In North America the LSAT is now delivered in a digital format, on
tablets instead of in test books. The Digital LSAT differs from the
paper-and-pencil LSATtest book in delivery method only-the
content is the same, as is the structure of the test sections. To learn
more about the LSAT,visit our website, LSAC.org.

LSATWritingTM
The LSAT includes an unscored writing section. While the writing
section was historically administered on the same day as the
multiple choice sections, it is now administered on a secure,
proctored on line platform at a time and place of the candidate's
choosing. LSATWriting differs from the paper-and-pencil Writing
Sample in delivery method only. To learn more about LSAT
Writing, visit our website, LSAC.org.

www.cracklsat.net
The Law School Admission Council is a not-for-profit organization committed to promoting quality, access, and equity in law and education
worldwide by supporting individuals' enrollment journeys and providing preeminent assessment, data, and technology services. Currently,
221 law schools in the United States, Canada, and Australia are members of the Council and benefit from LSAC's services.
©2019 Law School Admission Council, Inc.
LSAT,Law School Admission Test, The Official LSAT Prep Test, The Official LSAT SuperPrep, and LSAC are registered marks of the Law
School Admission Council, Inc. Law School Forums, Credential Assembly Service, CAS, LLM Credential Assembly Service, and LLM CAS
are service marks of the Law School Admission Council, Inc. Digital LSAT;LSAT Writing; 10 Actual, Official LSAT Prep Tests; 10 More Actual,
Official LSAT Prep Tests; The Next 10Actual, Official LSAT Prep Tests; 10 Actual, Official LSAT Prep Tests 42-51; 10 New Actual, Official
LSAT Prep Tests with Comparative Reading; 10 Actual, Official LSAT Prep Tests, Volume V 10 Actual, Official LSAT Prep Tests, Volume VI;
The Official LSAT SuperPrep II; LSAC Official Guide to ASA-Approved Law Schools; LSAC Official Guide to LLM/Graduate Law Programs;
The Official LSAT Handbook; ACES2; FlexApp; Candidate Referral Service; and Law School Admission Council are trademarks of the Law
School Admission Council, Inc.
All rights reserved. No part of this work, including information, data, or other portions of the work published in electronic form, may
be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or by any
information storage and retrieval system, without permission of the publisher. For information, write: Assessment Publications, Law School
Admission Council, 662 Penn Street, PO Box 40, Newtown, PA 18940-0040.
LSAC fees, policies, and procedures relating to, but not limited to, test registration, test administration, test score reporting, misconduct
and irregularities, Credential Assembly Service (CAS), and other matters may change without notice at any time. Up-to-date LSAC policies
and procedures are available at LSAC.org.
ISBN-13: 978-0-9996580-8-6
Print number
10987654321
TABLEOF CONTENTS

• Introduction to the LSAT ................................................................................... 1

• Scoring .............................................................................................. 1
• Test Score Accuracy-Reliability and Standard Error of Measurement ....................................... 1
• Adjustments for Variation in Test Difficulty .............................................................. 1
• Research on the LSAT ............................................................................... 1

• How This PrepTest Differs From an Actual LSAT............................................................. 2

• The Three LSAT Multiple-Choice Question Types ........................................................... 2

• Analytical Reasoning Questions ....................................................................... 2
• Logical Reasoning Questions ......................................................................... 3
• Reading Comprehension Questions .................................................................. .4

• Taking the PrepTest Under Simulated LSAT Conditions ...................................................... 5

• Answer Sheet ............................................................................................. 7

• The PrepTest ............................................................................................. 9

• Computing Your Score .................................................................................... 43

• Answer Key.............................................................................................. 44

www.cracklsat.net
INTRODUCTION TO THE LSAT

The Law School Admission Test is an integral part of law indicating a high degree of consistency for these tests. LSAC
school admission in the United States, Canada, and a expects the reliability of the LSAT to continue to fall within
growing number of other countries. The LSAT is the only test the same range.
accepted for admission purposes by all ABA-accredited law LSAC also reports the amount of measurement error
schools and Canadian common-law law schools. It consists associated with each test form, a concept known as the
of five 35-minute sections of multiple-choice questions. Four standard error of measurement (SEM). The SEM, which is
of the five sections contribute to the test taker's score. These usually about 2.6 points, indicates how close a test taker's
sections include one Reading Comprehension section, one observed score is likely to be to their true score. True scores
Analytical Reasoning section, and two Logical Reasoning are theoretical scores that would be obtained from perfectly
sections. The unscored section, commonly referred to as reliable tests with no measurement error-scores never
the variable section, typically is used to pretest new test known in practice.
questions or to preequate new test forms. The placement of Score bands, or ranges of scores that contain a test taker's
this section in the LSAT will vary. The score scale for the LSAT true score a certain percentage of the time, can be derived
is 120 to 180. using the SEM. LSAT score bands are constructed by adding
The LSAT is designed to measure skills considered and subtracting the (rounded) SEM to and from an actual
essential for success in law school: the reading and LSAT score (e.g., the LSAT score, plus or minus 3 points).
comprehension of complex texts with accuracy and insight; Scores near 120 or 180 have asymmetrical bands. Score
the organization and management of information and the bands constructed in this manner will contain an individual's
ability to draw reasonable inferences from it; the ability true score approximately 68 percent of the time.
to think critically; and the analysis and evaluation of the Measurement error also must be taken into account when
reasoning and arguments of others. comparing LSAT scores of two test takers. It is likely that
The LSAT provides a standard measure of acquired small differences in scores are due to measurement error
reading and verbal reasoning skills that law schools can.use rather than to meaningful differences in ability. The standard
as one of several factors in assessing applicants. error of score differences provides some guidance as to the
For up-to-date information about LSAC's services, go to importance of differences between two scores. The standard
our website, LSAC.org. error of score differences is approximately 1.4 times larger
than the standard error of measurement for the individual
scores.
SCORING Thus, a test score should be regarded as a useful but
approximate measure of a test taker's abilities as measured
Your LSAT score is based on the number of questions you by the test, not as an exact determination of those abilities.
answer correctly (the raw score). There is no deduction for LSAC encourages law schools to examine the range of
incorrect answers, and all questions count equally. In other scores within the interval that probably contains the test
words, there is no penalty for guessing. taker's true score (e.g., the test taker's score band) rather
than solely interpret the reported score alone.
Test Score Accuracy-Reliability and Standard
Error of Measurement Adjustments for Variation in Test Difficulty
Candidates perform at different levels on different occasions All test forms of the LSAT reported on the same score scale
for reasons quite unrelated to the characteristics of a test are designed to measure the same abilities, but one test
itself. The accuracy of test scores is best described by the form may be slightly easier or more difficult than another.
use of two related statistical terms: reliability and standard The scores from different test forms are made comparable
error of measurement. through a statistical procedure known as equating. As a
Reliability is a measure of how consistently a test result of equating, a given scaled score earned on different
measures the skills being assessed. The higher the reliability test forms reflects the same level of ability.
coefficient for a test, the more certain we can be that test
takers would get very similar scores if they took the test Research on the LSAT
again. Summaries of LSAT validity studies and other LSAT
LSAC reports an internal consistency measure of reliability research can be found in member law school libraries
for every test form. Reliability can vary from 0.00 to 1.00, and
and at LSAC.org.
a test with no measurement error would have a reliability
coefficient of 1.00 (never attained in practice). Reliability
coefficients for past LSAT forms have ranged from .90 to .95,
HOW THIS PREPTESTDIFFERSFROM • Reasoning with conditional ("if-then") statements and
AN ACTUAL LSAT recognizing logically equivalent formulations of such
statements
This PrepTest is made up of the scored sections from the
actual disclosed LSAT administered in November 2019. • Inferring what could be true or must be true from given
However, it does not contain the extra, variable section facts and rules
that is used to pretest new test items of one of the three • Inferring what could be true or must be true from given
multiple-choice question types. The three multiple-choice facts and rules together with new information in the form
question types may be in a different order in an actual LSAT of an additional or substitute fact or rule ·
than in this PrepTest. This is because the order of these
question types is intentionally varied for each administration • Recognizing when two statements are logically
of the test. equivalent in context by identifying a condition or rule
that could replace one of the original conditions while
still resulting in the same possible outcomes
THE THREE LSATMULTIPLE-CHOICE Analytical Reasoning questions reflect the kinds of detailed
QUESTION TYPES analyses of relationships and sets of constraints that a
law student must perform in legal problem solving. For
The multiple-choice questions on the LSAT reflect a broad
example, an Analytical Reasoning passage might describe
range of academic disciplines and are intended to give
six diplomats being seated around a table, following certain
no advantage to candidates from a particular academic
rules of protocol as to who can sit where. You, the test taker,
background.
must answer questions about the logical implications of
The five sections of the test contain three different
given and new information. For example, you may be asked
question types. The following material presents a general
who can sit between diplomats X and Y, or who cannot sit
discussion of the nature of each question type and some
next to X if W sits next to Y. Similarly, if you were a student
strategies that can be used in answering them.
in law school, you might be asked to analyze a scenario
involving a set of particular circumstances and a set of
Analytical Reasoning Questions governing rules in the form of constitutional provisions,
Analytical Reasoning questions are designed to assess the statutes, administrative codes, or prior rulings that have
ability to consider a group of facts and rules, and, given been upheld. You might then be asked to determine the
those facts and rules, determine what could or must be legal options in the scenario: what is required given the
true. The specific scenarios associated with these questions scenario, what is permissible given the scenario, and what
are usually unrelated to law, since they are intended to be · is prohibited given the scenario. Or you might be asked
accessible to a wide range of test takers. However, the skills to develop a "theory" for the case: when faced with an
tested parallel those involved in determining what could or incomplete set of facts about the case, you must fill in the
must be the case given a set of regulations, the terms of a picture based on what is implied by the facts that are known.
contract, or the facts of a legal case in relation to the law. The problem could be elaborated by the addition of new
In Analytical Reasoning questions, you are asked to reason information or hypotheticals.
deductively from a set of statements and rules or principles No formal training in logic is required to answer these
that describe relationships among persons, things, or events. questions correctly. Analytical Reasoning questions are
Analytical Reasoning questions appear in sets, with each intended to be answered using knowledge, skills, and
set based on a single passage. The passage used for each reasoning ability generally expected of college students and
set of questions describes common ordering relationships graduates.
or grouping relationships, or a combination of both types of Suggested Approach
relationships. Examples include scheduling employees for Some people may prefer to answer first those questions
work shifts, assigning instructors to class sections, ordering about a passage that seem less difficult and then those
tasks according to priority, and distributing grants for that seem more difficult. In general, it is best to finish one
projects. passage before starting on another, because much time
Analytical Reasoning questions test a range of deductive can be lost in returning to a passage and reestablishing
reasoning skills. These include: familiarity with its relationships. However, if you are having
great difficulty on one particular set of questions and
• Comprehending the basic structure of a set of
are spending too much time on them, it may be to your
relationships by determining a complete solution to the
advantage to skip that set of questions and go on to the
problem posed (for example, an acceptable seating
arrangement of all six diplomats around a table)

www.cracklsat.net
next passage, returning to the problematic set of questions example, if Question 1 adds the supposition "if P is sitting at
after you have finished the other questions in the section. table 2 ..., " this supposition should NOT be carried over to
Do not assume that because the conditions for a set of any other question in the set.
questions look long or complicated, the questions based on
those conditions will be especially difficult. Logical Reasoning Questions
Read the passage carefully. Careful reading and
analysis are necessary to determine the exact nature of the Arguments are a fundamental part of the law, and analyzing
relationships involved in an Analytical Reasoning passage. arguments is a key element of legal analysis. Training in the
Some relationships are fixed (for example, P and R must law builds on a foundation of basic reasoning skills. Law
always work on the same project). Other relationships are students must draw on the skills of analyzing, evaluating,
variable (for example, 0 must be assigned to either team 1 constructing, and refuting arguments. They need to be
or team 3). Some relationships that are not stated explicitly able to identify what information is relevant to an issue or
in the conditions are implied by and can be deduced from argument and what impact further evidence might have.
those that are stated (for example, if one condition about They need to be able to reconcile opposing positions and
paintings in a display specifies that Painting K must be to use arguments to persuade others.
the left of Painting Y, and another specifies that Painting W Logical Reasoning questions evaluate the ability to
must be to the left of Painting K, then it can be deduced that analyze, critically evaluate, and complete arguments as
Painting W must be to the left of Painting Y). they occur in ordinary language. The questions are based
In reading the conditions, do not introduce unwarranted on short arguments drawn from a wide variety of sources,
assumptions. For instance, in a set of questions establishing including newspapers, general interest magazines, scholarly
relationships of height and weight among the members publications, advertisements, and informal discourse. These
of a team, do not assume that a person who is taller than arguments mirror legal reasoning in the types of arguments
another person must weigh more than that person. As presented and in their complexity, though few of the
another example, suppose a set involves ordering and a arguments actually have law as a subject matter.
question in the set asks what must be true if both X and Y Each Logical Reasoning question requires you to read and
must be earlier than Z; in this case, do not assume that X comprehend a short passage, then answer one question (or,
must be earlier than Y merely because X is mentioned before rarely, two questions) about it. The questions are designed
Y.All the information needed to answer each question is to assess a wide range of skills involved in thinking critically,
provided in the passage and the question itself. with an emphasis on skills that are central to legal reasoning.
The conditions are designed to be as clear as possible.
Do not interpret the conditions as if they were intended These skills include:
to trick you. For example, if a question asks how many
people could be eligible to serve on a committee, consider • Recognizing the parts of an argument and their
only those people named in the passage unless directed relationships
otherwise. When in doubt, read the conditions in their most
obvious sense. Remember, however, that the language in the • Recognizing similarities and differences between
conditions is intended to be read for precise meaning. It is patterns of reasoning
essential to pay particular attention to words that describe
or limit relationships, such as "only," "exactly," "never," • Drawing well-supported conclusions
"always," "must be," "cannot be," and the like.
The result of this careful reading will be a clear picture • Reasoning by analogy
of the structure of the relationships involved, including the
kinds of relationships permitted, the participants in the • Recognizing misunderstandings ot points
relationships, and the range of possible actions or attributes of disagreement
for these participants.
Keep in mind question independence. Each question • Determining how additional evidence affects
should be considered separately from the other questions an argument
in its set. No information, except what is given in the
original conditions, should be carried over from one • Detecting assumptions made by particular arguments
question to another.
In some cases a question will simply ask for conclusions • Identifying and applying principles or rules
to be drawn from the conditions as originally given. Some
questions may, however, add information to the original • Identifying flaws in arguments
conditions or temporarily suspend or replace one of the
original conditions for the purpose of that question only. For • Identifying explanations
 The questions do not presuppose specialized knowledge relationships. For example, a law student may read a trial
of logical terminology. For example, you will not be court decision together with an appellate court decision that
expected to know the meaning of specialized terms such overturns it, or identify the fact pattern from a hypothetical
as "ad hominem" or "syllogism." On the other hand, you suit together with the potentially controlling case law.
will be expected to understand and critique the reasoning Reading selections for LSAT Reading Comprehension
contained in arguments. This requires that you possess a questions are drawn from a wide range of subjects in the
university-level understanding of widely used concepts such humanities, the social sciences, the biological and physical
as argument, premise, assumption, and conclusion. sciences, and areas related to the law. Generally, the
selections are densely written, use high-level vocabulary,
and contain sophisticated argument or complex rhetorical
Suggested Approach structure (for example, multiple points of view). Reading
Read each question carefully. Make sure that you understand
Comprehension questions require you to read carefully and
the meaning of each part of the question. Make sure that
accurately, to determine the relationships among the various
you understand the meaning of each answer choice and
parts of the reading selection, and to draw reasonable
the ways in which it may or may not relate to the question
inferences from the material in the selection. The questions
posed.
may ask about the following characteristics of a passage or
Do not pick a response simply because it is a true
pair of passages:
statement. Although true, it may not answer the question
posed. • The main idea or primary purpose
Answer each question on the basis of the information that
is given, even if you do not agree with it. Work within the • Information that is explicitly stated
context provided by the passage. LSAT questions do not
involve any tricks or hidden meanings. • Information or ideas that can be inferred

Reading Comprehension Questions • The meaning or purpose of words or phrases as used in

context
Both law school and the practice of law revolve around
extensive reading of highly varied, dense, argumentative, • The organization or structure
and expository texts (for example, cases, codes, contracts,
briefs, decisions, evidence). This reading must be exacting, • The application of information in the selection to a
distinguishing precisely what is said from what is not said. new context
It involves comparison, analysis, synthesis, and application
(for example, of principles and rules). It involves drawing • Principles that function in the selection
appropriate inferences and applying ideas and arguments to
new contexts. Law school reading also requires the ability to • Analogies to claims or arguments in the selection
grasp unfamiliar subject matter and the ability to penetrate
difficult and challenging material. • An author's attitude as revealed in the tone of a passage
The purpose of LSAT Reading Comprehension questions or the language used
is to measure the ability to read, with understanding and
insight, examples of lengthy and complex materials similar • The impact of new information on claims or arguments
to those commonly encountered in law school. The Reading in the selection
Comprehension section of the LSAT contains four sets
of reading questions, each set consisting of a selection of
reading material followed by five to eight questions. Suggested Approach
The reading selection in three of the four sets consists of a Since reading selections are drawn from many different
single reading passage; the other set contains two related disciplines and sources, you should not be discouraged if
shorter passages. Sets with two passages are a variant of you encounter material with which you are not familiar. It is
Reading Comprehension called Comparative Reading, which important to remember that questions are to be answered
was introduced in June 2007. exclusively on the basis of the information provided in the
Comparative Reading questions concern the relationships selection. There is no particular knowledge that you are
between the two passages, such as those of generalization/ expected to bring to the test, and you should not make
instance, principle/application, or point/counterpoint. Law inferences based on any prior knowledge of a subject that
school work often requires reading two or more texts in you may have. You may, however, wish to defer working on a
conjunction with each other and understanding their set of questions that seems particularly difficult or unfamiliar
until after you have dealt with sets you find easier.

www.cracklsat.net
 Strategies. One question that often arises in connection • Respond to the specific question being asked. Do
with Reading Comprehension has to do with the most not pick an answer choice simply because it is a true
effective and efficient order in which to read the selections statement. For example, picking a true statement might
and questions. Possible approaches include: yield an iricorrect answer to a question in which you are
asked to identify an author's position on an issue, since
• reading the selection very closely and then answering
you are not being asked to evaluate the truth of the
the questions;
author's position but only to correctly identify what that
position is.
• reading the questions first, reading the selection closely,
and then returning to the questions; or
• Answer the questions only on the basis of the
information provided in the selection. Your own views,
• skimming the selection and questions very quickly,
interpretations, or opinions, and those you have
then rereading the selection closely and answering the
heard from others, may sometimes conflict with those
questions.
expressed in a reading selection; however, you are
expected to work within the context provided by the
Test takers are different, and the best strategy for one might
reading selection. You should not expect to agree with
not be the best strategy for another. In preparing for the test,
everything you encounter in Reading Comprehension
therefore, you might want to experiment with the different
passages.
strategies and decide what works most effectively for you.
Remember that your strategy must be effective under
timed conditions. For this reason, the first strategy-
TAKING THE PREPTEST UNDER SIMULATED
reading the selection very closely and then answering the
questions-may be the most effective for you. Nonetheless,
LSAT CONDITIONS
if you believe that one of the other strategies might be One important way to prepare for the LSAT is to simulate
more effective for you, you should try it out and assess your the day of the test by taking a practice test under actual time
performance using it. constraints. Taking a practice test under timed conditions
Reading the selection. Whatever strategy you choose, helps you to estimate the amount of time you can afford to
you should give the passage or pair of passages at least spend on each question in a section and to determine the
one careful reading before answering the questions. Try question types on which you may need additional practice.
to distinguish main ideas from supporting ideas, and Sincethe LSAT is a timed test, it is important to use your
opinions or attitudes from factual, objective information. allotted time wisely. During the test, you may work only on
Note transitions from one idea to the next and identify the section designated by the test supervisor. You cannot
the relationships among the different ideas or parts of a devote extra time to a difficult section and make up that
passage, or between the two passages in Comparative time on a section you find easier. In pacing yourself, and
Reading sets. Consider how and why an author makes points checking your answers, you should think of each section of
and draws conclusions. Be sensitive to implications of what the test as a separate minitest.
the passages say. Be sure that you answer every question on the test.
You may find it helpful to mark key parts of passages. When you do not know the correct answer to a question,
For example, you might underline main ideas or important first eliminate the responses that you know are incorrect,
arguments, and you might note transitional words- then make your best guess among the remaining choices.
" although," "nevertheless," "correspondingly," and the Do not be afraid to guess as there is no penalty for incorrect
like-that will help you map the structure of a passage. Also, answers.
you might note descriptive words that will help you identify When you take a practice test, abide by all the
an author's attitude toward a particular idea or person. requirements specified in the directions and keep strictly
within the specified time limits. Work without a rest period.
When you take an actual test, you will have only a short
Answering the Questions break-usually 10-15 minutes-after Section.Ill.
• Always read all the answer choices before selecting the When taken under conditions as much like actual testing
best answer. The best answer choice is the one that most conditions as possible, a practice test provides very useful
accurately and completely answers the question being preparation for taking the LSAT.
posed.
 Official directions for the four multiple-choice sections are
included in this PrepTest so that you can approximate actual
testing conditions as you practice.

To take the test:

• Set a timer for 35 minutes. Answer all the questions in

Section I of this PrepTest. Stop working on that section
when the 35 minutes have elapsed.
• Repeat, allowing yourself 35 minutes each for Sections II,
Ill, and IV
• Refer to the "Computing Your Score" section at the
end of the PrepTest for instruction on evaluating
your performance. An answer key is provided for that
purpose.

The practice test that follows consists of four sections

corresponding to the four scored sections of the
November 2019 LSAT.

www.cracklsat.net
• • • • . ---
General Directions for the LSAT Answer Sheet
---
---
This portion of the test consists of five multiple-choice sections, each with a time limit of 35 minutes. The supervisor will tell you when
to begin and end each section. If you finish a section before time is called, you may check your work on that section only: do not turn
to any other section of the test book and do not work on any other section either in the test book or on the answer sheet.

There are several different types of questions on the test, and each question type has its own directions. Be sure you understand the
directions for each question type before attempting to answer any questions in that section. ---
Not everyone will finish all the questions in the time allowed. Do not hurry, but work steadily and as quickly as you can without
sacrificing accuracy. You are advised to use your time effectively. If a question seems too difficult, go on to the next one and return to ---
the difficult question after completing the section. MARK THE BEST ANSWER YOU CAN FOR EVERY QUESTION. NO DEDUCTIONS
WILL BE MADE FOR WRONG ANSWERS. YOUR SCORE WILL BE BASED ONLY ON THE NUMBER OF QUESTIONS YOU ---
ANSWER CORRECTLY.

ALL YOUR ANSWERS MUST BE MARKED ON THE ANSWER SHEET. Answer spaces for each question are lettered to correspond ---
with the letters of the potential answers to each question in the test book. After you have decided which of the answers is correct,
blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet. BE SURE THAT EACH MARK IS BLACK AND COMPLETELY FILLS THE ---
ANSWER SPACE. Give only one answer to each question. If you change an answer, be sure that all previous marks are erased
completely. Since the answer sheet is machine scored, incomplete erasures may be interpreted as intended answers. ANSWERS
RECORDED IN THE TEST BOOK WILL NOT BE SCORED. ---
There may be more question numbers on this answer sheet than there are questions in a section. Do not be concerned, but be certain
that the section and number of the question you are answering matches the answer sheet section and question number. Additional ---
answer spaces in any answer sheet section should be left blank. Begin your next section in the number one answer space for that
section. ---
LSAC takes various steps to ensure that answer sheets are returned from test centers in a timely manner for processing. In the unlikely
event that an answer sheet is not received, LSAC will permit the examinee either to retest at no additional fee or to receive a refund of
his or her LSAT fee. THESE REMEDIES ARE THE ONLY REMEDIES AVAILABLE IN THE UNLIKELY EVENT THAT AN ANSWER ----
SHEET IS NOT RECEIVED BY LSAC.
---
HOW DID YOU PREPARE FOR THE LSAT? ---
(Select all that apply.)
Responses to this item are voluntary and will be used for statistical research purposes only. ---
0 By using Khan Academy's official LSAT practice material.
O By taking the free sample questions and/or free sample LSAT available on LSAC's website.
O By working through official LSAT PrepTest and/or other LSAC test prep products. ---
O
O
O
By using LSAT prep books or software not published by LSAC.
By attending a commercial test preparation or coaching course.
By attending a test preparation or coaching course offered through an undergraduate institution. ---
O
O
O
Self study.
Other preparation.
No preparation. ---
---
CERTIFYING STATEMENT
Please write the following statement. Sign and date.
---
I certify that I am the examinee whose name appears on this answer sheet and that I am here to take
the LSAT for the sole purpose of being considered for admission to law school. I further certify that I will
neither assist nor receive assistance from any other candidate, and I agree not to copy, retain, or transmit DO ---
examination questions in any form or discuss them with any other person.
NOT ---
WRITE ---
IN ---
THIS ---
BOX.
---
SIGNATURE:-------------------- TODAY'S DATE: ___ =-'/'---~/
MONTH DAY
___
___ YEAR ---
FOR LSAC USE ONLY -
-
 -- . • • • -ICANTRON.
-- EliteView™EM-295665-4:654321
•
--- INSTRUCTIONSFOR COMPLETINGTHE BIOGRAPHICALAREA ARE ON THE BACK COVER OF YOUR TEST BOOKLET.

--- USE ONLY A NO. 2 OR HB PENCIL TO COMPLETE THIS ANSWER SHEET. DO NOT USE INK.

[A]
--- LAST 4 DIGITS OF

--- LAST NAME FIRST NAME Ml SOCIAL SECURITY/

SOCIAL INSURANCE NO.
LSAC
ACCOUNT NUMBER

---
---
---
---
--- OJan
ATE OF BIRTH
TH DAY YEAR

--- 0
0 Mar
OApr
Feb

--- OMay
O June
OJuly

--- OAug
OSept
OOct

--- ONov
O Dec

--- TEST DATE TEST FORM

--- MONTH
I DAY
I YEAR E
--- ~~~~~ Law School Admission Test~~~~~
Mark one and only one answer to each question. Be sure to fill in completely the space for

--- your intended answer choice. If you erase, do so completely. Make no stray marks.

--- 1
2
SECTION 1
® <ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
1
2
SECTION 2
®<ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
1
2
SECTION 3
® <ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
1
2
SECTION 4
®<ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
1
2
SECTION 5
® <ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID

---
3
4
5
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <ID©
® <ID© <IDCID
3
4
5
®<ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
3
4
® <ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
5®<ID©<IDCID
3
4
5
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
3
4
5
®<ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID

---
6
7
8
® <ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
6
7
8
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
6 ® <ID© <IDCID
1 ® <ID© <IDCID
8 ® <ID© <IDCID
6
7
8
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
6 ® <ID© <IDCID
1 ® <ID© <IDCID
8 ® <ID© <IDCID
9
10
11 --- ® <ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID©<IDCID
9
10
11
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID©<IDCID
9 ® <ID© <IDCID
10 ®<ID© <IDCID
11 ®<ID© <IDCID
9
10
11
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID©<IDCID
9 ® <ID© <IDCID
10 ®<ID© <IDCID
11 ®<ID©<IDCID
12
13
14 --- ®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
12
13
14
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
12 ®<ID© <IDCID
13 ®<ID©<IDCID
14 ®<ID© <IDCID
12
13
14
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
12 ®<ID© <IDCID
13 ® <ID© <IDCID
14 ® <ID© <IDCID
15
16
17 --- ®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
15
16
17
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
15 ®<ID© <IDCID
16 ®<ID© <IDCID
17 ® <ID© <IDCID
15
16
17
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
15 ®<ID© <IDCID
16 ®<ID© <IDCID
17 ® <ID© <IDCID
18
19
20 --- ®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
18
19
20
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
18 ®<ID© <IDCID
19 ®<ID© <IDCID
20 ®<ID© <IDCID
18
19
®<ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
20 ® <ID© <IDCID
18 ® <ID© <IDCID
19 ®<ID© <IDCID
20 ® <ID© <IDCID
21
22
23 --- ® <ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
21
22
23
® <ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
21 ® <ID© <IDCID
22 ®<ID© <IDCID
23 ® <ID© <IDCID
21 ® <ID© <IDCID
22 ® <ID© <IDCID
23 ® <ID© <IDCID
21 ® <ID© <IDCID
22 ® <ID© <IDCID
23 ® <ID© <IDCID
LAST NAME

24
25
26 ---® <ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
24
25
26
® <ID© <IDCID
® <ID© <IDCID
®<ID© <IDCID
24 ® <ID© <IDCID
25 ® <ID© <IDCID
26 ®<ID© <IDCID
24 ®<ID© <IDCID
25 ® <ID© <IDCID
26 ® <ID© <IDCID
24 ®<ID© <IDCID
25 ® <ID© <IDCID
26 ® <ID© <IDCID
FIRST NAME

---
DATE OF BIRTH
27 ® <ID© <IDCID 27 ® <ID© <IDCID 27 ® <ID© <IDCID 27 ® <ID© <IDCID 27 ® <ID© <IDCID
28 ® <ID© <IDCID 28 ® <ID© <IDCID 28 ®<ID© <IDCID 28 ® <ID© <IDCID 28 ®<ID© <IDCID CC>2018 BY LAW SCHOOL ADMISSION COUNCIL
29 ® <ID© <IDCID 29 ® <ID© <IDCID 29 ®<ID© <IDCID 29 ® <ID© <IDCID 29 ®<ID© <IDCID ALL RIGHTS RESERVED. PRINTED IN USA.
30 ® <ID© <IDCID ®<ID© <IDCID 30 ®<ID© <IDCID 30 ® <ID© <IDCID 30 ®<ID© <IDCID e<ID
30
www.cracklsat.net
THE PREPTEST

• Analytical Reasoning ................. SECTION I

• Logical Reasoning ................... SECTION II

• Reading Comprehension ............. SECTION Ill

• Logical Reasoning ................... SECTION IV

1 -10- [I] PrepTest
89
1
SECTION I (Nov
Time-35 minutes
2019)
23 Questions

Directions: Each set of questions in this section 1s based on a scenario with a set of conditions. The questions are to be
answered on the basis of what can be logically inferred from the scenario and conditions. For each question, choose the
response that most accurately and completely answers the question and mark that response on your answer sheet.

Questions 1-5 I. Which one of the following is an acceptable schedule for

the training?
A customer service department is scheduling its five agents-
Quinn, Rodriguez, Shaw, Tran, and Upton-to attend off-site (A) month 1: Quinn
training sessions being held over a seven-month period, month 2: Tran
month 1 through month 7. Each agent will be trained in a month 4: Shaw
different month. The training must take place in accordance month 5: Upton
with the following conditions: month 7: Rodriguez
Month 6 is one of the months in which none of the agents (B) month 1: Quinn
is trained. month 2: Tran
Upton is trained in an earlier month than Rodriguez. month 5: Shaw
Quinn is trained in the month immediately before the month 6: Upton
month in which Tran is trained. month 7: Rodriguez
Shaw is the third agent to be trained. (C) month 1: Quinn
month 3: Tran
month 4: Shaw
month 5: Upton
month 7: Rodriguez
(D) month I: Upton
month 3: Shaw
month 4: Quinn
month 5: Tran
month 7: Rodriguez
(E) month 2: Quinn
month 3: Tran
month 4: Shaw
month 5: Rodriguez
month 7: Upton

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

www.cracklsat.net
1 [I] PrepTest
89 -11-
2. If Tran is not trained in month 2, which one of the 4. Which one of the following
(Nov
could be the month in which
following could be true? Upton is trained? 2019)
(A) Quinn is trained in month 1. (A) month2
(B) Rodriguez is trained in month 5. (B) month3
(C) Shaw is trained in month 4. (C) month4
(D) Upton is trained in month 4. (D) month 6
(E) None of the agents is trained in month 3. (E) month 7

3. If Shaw is trained in month 4, which one of the following 5. Which one of the following is a month in which an agent
must be true? must be trained?
(A) Quinn is trained in month 1. (A) month 1
(B) Quinn is trained in month 2. (B) month 2
(C) None of the agents is trained in month 3. (C) month 3
(D) Upton is trained in month 5. (D) month4
(E) None of the agents is trained in month 7. (E) month 5

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

1-12- [I] PrepTest
89
1
Questions 6-12 6. (Nov
Which one of the following could be the order in which
the vegetables are added to the pot, listed from first to
In creating a soup recipe, a chef is deciding which of seven last?
2019)
vegetables-garlic, jalapefio, kale, onion, potato, tomato, and
yam-to include among the ingredients. The chef has decided (A) onion, garlic, tomato, kale
that the vegetables she includes will be added one at a time to (B) garlic, onion, kale, tomato, potato
a pot of liquid ingredients. Each vegetable will be added only (C) jalapefio, onion, garlic, potato, tomato, kale
once, subject to the following conditions: (D) onion, garlic, kale, yam, tomato, jalapefio
If jalapefio is an ingredient, it must be added either first (E) potato, onion, garlic, kale, jalapefio, tomato
or last.
If jalapefio is an ingredient, yam must not be an 7· Which one of the following could be true?
ingredient. (A) Garlic is added first.
Either potato is an ingredient or yam is an ingredient, but (B) Garlic is added fifth.
not both. (C) Jalapefio is added fifth.
Garlic, kale, onion, and tomato must be ingredients. (D) Potato is added first.
Onion must be added at some time before garlic, and (E) Tomato is added second.
garlic must be added at some time before both kale and
tomato.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

www.cracklsat.net
 PrepTest
1 DJ 89
(Nov
-13-1
8. If yam is added first, which one of the following must be 11. Any of the following could be added sixth EXCEPT:
true? 2019)
(A) jalapefio
(A) Garlic is added second. (B) kale
(B) Jalapefio is added fifth. (C) potato
(C) Kale is added fourth. (D) tomato
(D) Onion is added second. (E) yam
(E) Tomato is added fifth.
12. Which one of the following, if substituted for the
9. Any of the following could be added fourth EXCEPT: condition that if jalapefio is an ingredient, yam must
not be an ingredient, would have the same effect in
(A) garlic
determining the addition of vegetables to the pot?
(B) onion
(C) potato (A) Potato is an ingredient only if jalapefio is an
(D) tomato ingredient.
(E) yam (B) Jalapefio is an ingredient only if potato is an
ingredient.
10. If yam is added fifth, which one of the following could be (C) Ifjalapefio is not an ingredient, then yam must be
true? an ingredient.
(A) Garlic is added third. (D) If exactly five vegetables are ingredients, then
(B) Jalapefio is added first. jalapefio must not be an ingredient.
(C) Kale is added third. (E) If exactly six vegetables are ingredients, then
(D) Kale is added sixth. jalapefio must be an ingredient.
(E) Onion is added second.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

1 -14- [I] PrepTest
89
1
Questions 13-17 13. (Nov
Which one of the following is an acceptable assignment
of technicians to computers?
A computer forensics laboratory is assigning five 2019)
technicians-Ruiz, Smith, Tapia, Weeks, and Xie-to (A) F: Ruiz and Smith
examine the data on three computers-F, G, and H. Each G: Weeks and Xie
technician will be assigned to at least one computer, and each H: Smith and Tapia
computer will be examined by exactly two technicians. The (B) F: Ruiz and Tapia
assignment must conform to the following conditions: G: Smith and Xie
If Smith examines F, Xie examines G. H: Smith and Weeks
If Weeks examines F, Xie examines H. (C) F: Ruiz and Tapia
No computer is examined by both Smith and Weeks. G: Weeks and Xie
Exactly one computer is examined by both Ruiz and H: Smith and Xie
Tapia. (D) F: Ruiz and Weeks
G: Smith and Xie
H: Ruiz and Tapia
(E) F: Smith and Xie
G: Ruiz and Tapia
H: Tapia and Weeks

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

www.cracklsat.net
 PrepTest
1 [JJ 89 -15-1
(Nov
14. If both Ruiz and Tapia examine G, which one of the 16. If Weeks examines H, then any of the following could be
following technicians must examine F? true EXCEPT: 2019)
(A) Ruiz (A) Ruiz examines H.
(B) Smith (B) Smith examines F.
(C) Tapia (C) Tapia examines G.
(D) Weeks (D) Tapia examines H.
(E) Xie (E) Xie examines G.

15. Any of the following could be true EXCEPT: 17. The assignment of technicians to computers is fully
determined if which one of the following is true?
(A) One of the computers is examined by both Ruiz
and Xie. (A) Both Ruiz and Tapia examine G.
(B) One of the computers is examined by both Smith (B) Both Ruiz and Tapia examine H.
and Tapia. (C) Both Smith and Xie examine G.
. (C) One of the computers· is examined by both Smith (D) Both Tapia and Weeks examine G .
and Xie. (E) Both Weeks and Xie examine H.
(D) One of the computers is examined by both Tapia
and Weeks.
(E) One of the computers is examined by both Weeks
and Xie.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

1 -16- [I] PrepTest
89
1
Questions 18-23 18. (Nov
Which one of the following coul<;l
be the representatives
who visit France and Ghana, from the first month through
During the next four months, three factory sites-one in the fourth month?
2019)
France, one in Ghana, and one in India-will be visited by
a company's representatives, exactly one representative for (A) France: Watts, Yamamoto, Yamamoto, Watts
each site in each month. The visits will be made by four Ghana: Yamamoto, Watts, Velez, Zuhur
representatives-Velez, Watts, Yamamoto, and Zuhur-each (B) France: Watts, Yamamoto, Yamamoto, Watts
of whom will make exactly three visits, no more than one in a Ghana: Yamamoto, Watts, Zuhur, Velez
month, subject to the following constraints: (C) France: Watts, Zuhur, Yamamoto, Watts
Velez must visit Ghana once and India twice, with Ghana Ghana: Yamamoto, Watts, Velez, Zuhur
visited at some time between the visits to India. (D) France: Yamamoto, Watts, Watts, Yamamoto
Watts must visit Ghana at least once. Ghana: Zuhur, Velez, Yamamoto, Watts
Yamamoto must visit Ghana in a month immediately (E) France: Yamamoto, Watts, Yamamoto, Watts
preceding a month in which Watts visits Ghana. Ghana: Watts, Yamamoto, Velez, Zuhur
Yamamoto cannot visit any site in the fourth month.
Any representative who visits France cannot also visit 19. If Velez visits India in the second month, which one of
India. the following must be true?
(A) Velez visits Ghana in the third month.
(B) Watts visits France in the second month.
(C) Watts visits India in the first month.
(D) Yamamoto visits France in the first month.
(E) Zuhur visits France in the fourth month.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

www.cracklsat.net
 PrepTest
1 [jJ 89 -17-1
(Nov
20. Which one of the following could be true? 22. Which one of the following could be true?
2019)
(A) Three of the representatives visit France at least (A) Watts visits Ghana in the first month.
once. (B) Yamamoto visits Ghana in the second month.
(B) Three of the representatives visit India at least (C) Yamamoto visits Ghana in the third month.
once. (D) Zuhur visits Ghana in the second month.
(C) One of the representatives visits Ghana two (E) Zuhur visits Ghana in the third month.
months in a row.
(D) One of the representatives visits France three 23. How many of the representatives are there who could
months in a row. visit a single one of the sites three times?
(E) One of the representatives visits India three (A) zero
months in a row. (B) one
(C) two
21. If Zuhur visits France exactly twice, which one of the
(D) three
following must be. true?
(E) four
(A) Watts visits France exactly twice.
(B) Watts visits India exactly twice.
(C) Yamamoto visits India exactly twice.
(D) Zuhur visits Ghana exactly once.
(E) Zuhur visits India exactly once.

STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
.2 -18-
A A PrepTest
89 2
SECTION II (Nov
Time-35 minutes 2019)
26 Questions

Directions: Each question in this section is based on the reasoning presented in a brief passage. In answering the questions, you
should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. For
some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best
answer; that is, choose the response that most accurately and completely answers the question and mark that response on your
answer sheet.

1. CEO: While we only have the sales reports for the 2. Javier: Government workers are paid higher hourly
first 9 months of this year, I feel confident in wages than comparable private sector employees.
concluding that this will be a good year for us So the government could save money by hiring
in terms of sales. In each of the last 5 years, our private contractors to perform services now
monthly sales average was less than $30 million. performed by government employees.
However, our monthly sales average so far for Mykayla: An analysis of government contracts
this year is over $35 million. showed that, on average, the government paid
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the substantially more to hire contractors than it
CEO's argument? would have cost for government employees to
perform comparable services.
(A) The CEO's company typically has its highest
monthly sales of the year during the last 3 Javier and Mykayla disagree with each other over
months of the year. whether
(B) The quality of the products sold by the CEO's (A) the government could reduce spending by
company has always been considered to be reducing the number of employees on its payroll
relatively high. (B) the government would save money ifit hired
(C) The CEO has a strong incentive to highlight private contractors to perform services now
any good news regarding the company and to performed by government employees
downplay bad news. (C) government workers generally are paid higher
(D) The CEO'scompany started a new advertising hourly wages than comparable private sector
campaign at the beginning of this year that has workers
proved unusually effective so far. (D) every service that is currently performed by
(E) Several other companies who sell products government employees could be performed by
similar to those sold by the CEO's company private contractors
have also reported that this year's monthly sales (E) the total amount of money that the government
averages so far have been higher than previous pays its employees annually is greater than
years' averages. the total amount that it spends on contractors
annually

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

www.cracklsat.net
2 A A PrepTest
89
-19- 2
(Nov
3. Biologist: DNA analysis shows that Acacia heterophylla, 5. Seasonal allergy symptoms are the immune system's
a tree native to the Indian Ocean's Reunion response to pollen in the air. 2019)
When large amounts
Island, is descended from the Hawaiian tree of pollen are inhaled, it can trigger an inflammatory
Acacia koa. Some think this occurred because A. response that causes allergy symptoms. While there
koa seeds floated from Hawaii to Reunion, but are medicines that minimize those symptoms, a more
that explanation is implausible, since the seeds effective-though often impractical-strategy is simply
will not germinate after being soaked in seawater. to stay indoors on dry, windy days during allergy season.
Moreover, both trees grow in the mountains, not
Which one of the following is most strongly supported
near the shore. Seabirds sometimes carry seeds
by the information above?
great distances, so they probably caused the
dispersal. (A) Medicines that minimize seasonal allergy
symptoms prevent people from inhaling large
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the
amounts of pollen.
support for the biologist's hypothesis?
(B) Most types of pollen do not cause seasonal
(A) A. koa branches carrying seeds can remain afloat allergy symptoms.
for prolonged periods of time. (C) People who stay indoors on dry, windy days
(B) There are mountain-nesting seabird species during allergy season are unlikely to inhale large
common to Reunion and Hawaii. amounts of pollen.
(C) A. koa is thought to be descended from Acacia (D) People who take medicines that minimize
melanoxylon, a tree native to eastern Australia. seasonal allergy symptoms tend to stay indoors
(D) Ocean currents have sometimes carried buoyant on dry, windy days during allergy season.
objects from Hawaii to Reunion. (E) People who experience seasonal allergy
(E) Many seabird species return to land very symptoms typically use air filters that remove
infrequently, and often do so only to breed. pollen from the air in their homes.

4. Although smaller class sizes are popular with parents and 6. Saturn's moon Enceladus has a rocky core and an icy
teachers, the evidence shows that large scale reductions surface. Between these two layers, there must be a lake
in class size lead to only slight improvements in student of liquid water. The Cassini space probe was used to
performance. Because school finances are limited, the measure the density of matter composing Enceladus.
cost-benefit test that any educational policy must pass These measurements revealed something denser than
is not "Does this policy have any positive effect?" but ice between the core and surface of Enceladus, and that
rather "Is there a more productive use of education could only be liquid water.
dollars?" So public funds would in fact be better spent on
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
efforts to recruit and retain better teachers.
the overall conclusion drawn in the argument?
Which one of the following is an assumption required by
(A) Saturn's moon Enceladus has a rocky core and an
the argument?
icy surface.
(A) Reducing class size is an extremely expensive (B) There must be a lake ofliquid water between the
type of educational reform measure. rocky core and the icy surface of Enceladus.
(B) Dollar for dollar, efforts to recruit and retain good (C) The Cassini space probe was used to measure the
teachers yield larger improvements in student density of Enceladus.
performance than do reductions in class size. (D) Density measurements reveal something denser
(C) Because reducing class size is a popular policy, than ice between the core and surface of
it is much easier to get public approval for that Enceladus.
policy than for most other educational policies. (E) Anything denser than ice between the core and
(D) Reducing class size is the most cost effective way surface of Enceladus would have to be liquid
to recruit and retain good teachers. water.
(E) In practice, it is difficult to identify what would
be the most productive use of education dollars.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

2 -20-
A A PrepTest
89
2
7. Thousands of fossils from the long-extinct dire wolf 9. (Nov characterized
Rodents are small, gnawing mammals
have been found in a cluster of natural tar pits in by their chisel-like incisor teeth. Although most North
which animals became trapped and were preserved for American mammal species are 2019)
not rodent species, most
millennia. None of these fossils came from dire wolf of the individual mammals in North America are rodents.
pups under six months old. Pups under six months old,
Which one of the following is most strongly supported
therefore, probably did not accompany adults that were
by the information above?
scavenging or hunting.
(A) Most species of North American mammals have
Which one of the following is an assumption required by
chisel-like incisor teeth.
the argument?
(B) In North America, rodent species tend to have
(A) Dire wolf pups under six months old would more individual members than other species of
not have contributed to the adults' success in mammals have.
scavenging or hunting. (C) Most species of mammals that have chisel-like
(B) If a dire wolf pup under six months old became incisor teeth can be found in North America.
trapped in a tar pit, it would be better able to (D) Of the mammal species in North America, the
pull itself free than an adult dire wolf would. one with the most individual members is a
(C) Before the dire wolf became extinct, more dire species of rodent.
wolves became trapped in the tar pits than did (E) Most nonrodent mammal species can be found in
any other animal species. North America.
(D) The entrapment of dire wolves in the tar pits most
frequently occurred when those animals were 10. Toning shoes-walking shoes with a specially rounded
scavenging or hunting. sole-are popular with fitness enthusiasts. Research
(E) For the dire wolves that lived nearby, the tar pits shows that the major leg muscles of people walking
were a favorite location for scavenging and in toning shoes receive no more exercise than those of
hunting. people walking in ordinary walking shoes. Nevertheless,
many people experience a strengthening of their major
8. If a garden does not receive plenty of water and sunlight leg muscles after switching to toning shoes.
and is not planted in rich soil, then it will not be
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve
productive. Patricia has located her garden in an area that
the apparent discrepancy in the information above?
is ideal for receiving water and sunlight, and has made
sure the soil is rich by adding fertilizer and compost. (A) Toning shoes strengthen small underused muscles
Hence, Patricia's garden will be productive. in the feet and ankles.
(B) Muscles in the leg adapt to the rounded shape of
The reasoning in the argument is flawed in that the
toning shoes almost immediately.
argument
(C) Many people find toning shoes especially
(A) fails to specify adequately the meaning in context comfortable and walk more as a result.
of the term "ideal" (D) There is little evidence that toning shoes cause
(B) infers a cause from a correlation injuries to their wearers.
(C) confuses a cause with its effect (E) Shoes that strengthen the major leg muscles are
(D) takes a set of necessary conditions as sufficient more marketable than ordinary shoes.
(E) relies on a sample that is unlikely to be
representative

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

www.cracklsat.net
2 A A PrepTest
89
-21- 2
11. Psychologist: Specialists naturally tend to view their 13.
(Nov
Commentator: The worldwide oil crisis of 1973 was not
own specialties as fundamentally important. We 2019)
due to any real shortage of oil, but was the result
are therefore amply justified in being skeptical of collusion between international oil companies
when geneticists claim that personality traits and oil-producing countries to artificially restrict
not traditionally thought to be genetically the supply of oil in order to profit from higher
determined are, in fact, genetically determined. prices. This is shown by the fact that after
The geneticists are probably just amplifying their 1973 the profits of oil companies showed large
sense of their own importance. increases, as did the incomes of oil-producing
countries.
The reasoning in the psychologist's argument is flawed
in that this argument The reasoning in the commentator's argument is most
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument
(A) generalizes about all specialists on the basis of an
unrepresentative sample (A) fails to consider the possibility that a party can
(B) presumes that the traditional view must be the benefit from an event without helping to bring
right view simply because it is what has been about that event
traditionally believed (B) presumes, without providing justification, that oil
(C) draws a conclusion that is merely a restatement companies and oil-producing countries were the
of one of its main premises only parties to benefit from the 1973 oil crisis
(D) appeals to the authority of those unlikely to be (C) rests on using the term "profit" in an ambiguous
well informed about the topic at issue way
(E) disputes a claim on the basis of a supposed (D) fails to establish that there was a worldwide oil
motive for making the claim rather than by surplus prior to the crisis of 1973
assessing the evidence relevant to the claim (E) fails to consider the possibility that events that
occur simultaneously can be causally related
12. After the disastrous 1986 accident at the Chernobyl
nuclear plant, the surrounding area was contaminated 14. In a study, six medical students were each separately
with radiation. Wild animals that are now there have very presented with the same patient, whose symptoms could
high levels of radiation in their muscles and bones. And be the result of any one of several medical conditions.
yet since the disaster, wildlife populations in the region The attending physician asked each student a leading
have expanded rapidly. question of the form, "What tests should we order to try
to rule out a diagnosis ofX?" where X was filled in with
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve
a different medical condition for each student. A week
the apparent discrepancy in the information above?
later each student was presented with a patient having
(A) Animals that did not arrive in the area around the similar symptoms in the presence of a different attending
Chernobyl nuclear plant until after the accident physician who asked for a diagnosis without asking
still developed high levels of radiation in their any leading questions. Each student began by testing
muscles and bones. the diagnosis that had been suggested by the original
(B) Some of the species that inhabit the region are attending physician.
migratory and so only live in the region for
Which one of the following statements is most strongly
part of the year, limiting their exposure to the
supported by the information above?
radiation.
(C) The region affected by the release of radiation (A) On the second occasion, none of the medical
is very large, encompassing 1,800 square miles students began by testing the same diagnosis as
(4,660 square kilometers). any of the other medical students.
(D) While some of the radioactive chemicals released (B) At most one of the medical students knew which
by the accident depress fertility in local birds, of the several medical conditions was most
others do not. likely to lead to the patients' symptoms.
(E) The threat of radiation poisoning drove people (C) The second attending physician was unaware of
out of the area, which opened up new habitat for the results of the students' encounter with the
wildlife and eliminated the danger from hunters. first attending physician.
(D) On the second occasion, exactly one of the
students tested for the medical condition that
actually caused the patient's symptoms.
(E) At least some of the medical students were
unaware that the patients' symptoms could
be the result of medical conditions other than
the one suggested by the original attending
physician.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

2 -22-
A PrepTest
2
89
15. Few, if any, carbonated beverages contain calcium. 17.
(Nov
Psychiatrist: Psychological stress is known both to cause
Some very popular ones, however, contain significant negative emotions and to impair physical health.
amounts of caffeine, and consuming caffeine causes 2019) such negative
This suggests that overcoming
people to excrete significantly more calcium than they emotions when they arise could cause one's
would otherwise. Interestingly, teenagers who drink health to improve.
large amounts of carbonated beverages containing
The psychiatrist's argument is most vulnerable to
caffeine tend to suffer more broken bones than those
criticism on which one of the following grounds?
who do not. Calcium deficiency can make bones more
brittle, of course, so the higher incidence of broken (A) It presumes without justification that two
bones in teenagers who consume carbonated beverages conditions that together have a certain effect
with caffeine is probably due primarily to caffeine causally influence one another. 11
consumption. (B) It presuII)-es,merely on the basis that two
conditions have a common cause, that one of
Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the
these two conditions can causally influence the
argument?
other.
(A) Teenagers who drink large quantities of (C) It confuses two causes that together are necessary
carbonated beverages containing caffeine tend to bring about an effect with causes that are
to drink smallei: quantities of calcium-rich sufficient for that effect.
beverages than other teenagers do. (D) It takes for granted that two conditions that
(B) Teenagers engage in the types of activities that together have a certain effect can, each by itself,
carry a high risk of causing broken bones much produce the same effect.
more often than both older and younger people (E) It takes for granted that removing a con.dition
do. that causally contributes to another condition
(C) Some teenagers have calcium deficiencies even suffices to eliminate the latter condition.
though they do not consume any caffeine.
(D) Some of the less popular carbonated beverages 18. Some potential anticancer drugs work by depriving
contain even more caffeine than the more growing tumors of needed blood vessels. The creation
popular ones. of blood vessels is called angiogenesis, and the
(E) The more calcium a person ingests as a regular experimental drugs work by inhibiting this process.
part of his or her diet, the more calcium that The same drugs have been found to prevent obesity in
person will tend to excrete. rodents.
The statements above, if true, lend the strongest support
16. Philosopher: Groups are not the type of entity that can
to which one of the following?
be worthy of praise or blame. Blameworthiness
implies conscience and agency. Nations do not (A) The cells in tumors are more similar in structure
have consciences. Families are not agents. Hence, to fat cells than to other cells in the body.
any ascription of praise or blame to a group (B) Drugs that inhibit angiogenesis would probably
must be translated into some statement about enable obese humans to lose weight.
individuals ifwe are to evaluate it properly. (C) Fat tissue depends on angiogenesis in order to
grow.
Which one of the following most accurately describes
(D) Rodents with cancer are more likely to be obese
the role played in the philosopher's argument by the
than healthy rodents.
claim that nations do not have consciences?
(E) Drugs that inhibit angiogenesis also prevent
(A) It is an intermediate conclusion offered as direct absorption of vital nutrients.
support for the argument's main conclusion.
(B) It is offered as support for an intermediate I
conclusion that is in tum offered as direct
support for the argument's main conclusion. I
(C) It is cited as an implication of the main
conclusion drawn in the argument.
(D) It is cited as an instance of a general conclusion GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
drawn in the argument.
(E) It is the main conclusion drawn in the argument.

www.cracklsat.net
 2 A A PrepTest
89
-23- 2
19. Although the slightest difference in shades of paint is 20.
(Nov
Social observer: Advertising agencies are willfully
noticeable, it is pointless to spend much time trying to 2019) segment of
neglecting the most profitable
match an old paint precisely when repainting only part the market: older adults. Older adults control
of the interior of a house. This is because paint fades more of this nation's personal disposable
somewhat in the months after it has been applied. Thus, income than does the rest of the population
even if a new paint matches the old during application, combined. Therefore, advertising agencies can
the two paints will no longer match after a year or so. maximize their clients' profits if they gear their
advertisements mainly to older adults.
The reasoning in which one of the following is most
similar to that in the argument above? Which one of the following, if assumed, would enable
I (A) A bicycle is most comfortable to ride when the
the conclusion of the social obs_erver's argument to be
properly inferred?
I wheels are perfectly aligned. However, because
the position of a bike wheel always shifts a bit (A) Older people generally have larger incomes and
when the bike is ridden, it is useless to put very have had longer to accumulate resources than
much effort into perfectly aligning a new wheel. younger people.
(B) It is rarely worthwhile to look for parts for an (B) No company can maximize its profits unless it
older car. Because most cars do not last more markets its products primarily to a population
than 20 years, it is best to buy a new car instead segment that controls most of this nation's
of restoring an older car. personal disposable income.
(C) Keeping hair healthy requires using a shampoo (C) Advertising that is directed toward the wealthiest
designed specifically for one's hair type. people is the most effective means for a business
However, hair will become unhealthy if washed to improve the reputation of its products.
consistently with the same brand of shampoo. (D) No advertising agency that tailors its
Thus, to maintain healthy hair, a person should advertisements mainly to an audience that
alternate between two suitable shampoos. does not control much of this nation's personal
(D) Although cookies made with butter have a better disposable income will maximize its clients'
texture than do cookies made with margarine, it profits.
is pointless to spend the extra money needed to (E) Any advertising agency that gears its
buy butter, when cookies made with margarine advertisements mainly to a population segment
are almost as good. that controls 50 percent or more of this nation's
(E) Unless the size and shape of a dress exactly personal disposable income will maximize its
matches the size and shape of its lining, the clients' profits.
dress will hang unevenly when it is worn.
However, because most people would not notice
this unevenness, it is not worthwhile when
making a dress to spend much time attempting
to match a dress and its lining perfectly.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

2 -24-
A A PrepTest
89
2
21. Professor: It has been argued that all judges should be 23. Kira:It would be unwise for you (Nov
to buy that insurance
elected rather than appointed to their positions. But policy. It's designed to make money for the
this is a bad idea. If judges ran for election, they company that sells it to2019)
you. They set the prices to
would have to raise campaign funds. Thus, they ensure profits.
would be likely to accept campaign contributions Binh: Undeniably, the insurer is in business to make money.
from special interests. It is well-known that such But the mere fact that an insurer draws a profit in
contributions lead to conflicts of interest for no way implies that buying one of its policies is
politicians, so it is to be expected that they would unwise.
produce similar conflicts of interest for judges.
Binh responds to Kira's argument by doing which one of
Which one of the following principles, if valid, would most the following?
help to justify the professor's reasoning?
(A) suggesting that Kira has overlooked a fact that,
(A) If politicians should avoid conflicts of interest, then although consistent with her premises, is in direct
judges should avoid conflicts of interest as well. conflict with her conclusion
(B) Special interests should not make offers of (B) denying Kira's ptemises while suggesting that
campaign contributions to those running for her conclusion, although possibly true, is highly
elective office. unlikely
(C) Judges should be appointed to their positions only (C) arguing that Kira's premises are not only inadequate
if doing so ensures that they will usually be able to to prove her conclusion but in fact point strongly
avoid conflicts of interest. toward its being false
(D) If judges should be appointed, then it is likely (D) conceding Kira's premises without denying her
that there are other public offices that should be conclusion, while asserting that the latter does not
changed from elected to appointed offices. follow from the former
(E) No public office for which election campaigning (E) observing that while Kira's premises each
would be likely to produce conflicts of interest independently support her conclusion, the premises
should be changed from an appointed to an elected themselves are inconsistent with one another
office.
24. Economist: The increase in the minimum wage in Country
22. Merle: Usually when I insert a dollar bill into the change X will quickly lead to a decrease in Country X's rate
machine at the office it makes a squeaking sound of unemployment. Raising the minimum wage will
before it produces change. But the machine can lead to more disposable income for a large segment
make the sound only when the electric outlet it is of the working population. Much of this increased
plugged into is turned on. Therefore, it must be that income will be spent on consumer goods. Surely this
the electric outlet usually is turned on. increase in demand for consumer goods will lead to
Which one of the following arguments exhibits flawed an increase in the number of factory jobs necessary
reasoning most similar to the flawed reasoning exhibited by to meet production.
Merle's argument? Each of the following, if true, would weaken the
(A) Everyone who has read the new horror novel found economist's argument EXCEPT:
the plot disturbing. Indeed, the plot would disturb (A) The cost ofa minimum-wage increase in Country
anyone with a vivid imagination. Therefore, X will be passed on to consumers in the form of
everyone who has read the novel must pave a vivid significantly higher prices for consumer goods.
imagination. (B) Most of the consumer goods sold in Country X are
(B) Some people who have read the new horror novel produced outside the country.
found the plot disturbing. But the plot would not be (C) In many factories in Country X, most workers are
disturbing to people who lack vivid imaginations. paid much more than the current minimum wage.
Therefore, some people must have vivid (D) The cost to employers ofan increase in the
imaginations. minimum wage in Country X will be made up by
(C) Many people who have read the new horror reductions in the workforce.
novel found the plot disturbing. Undoubtedly, (E) Most factories that produce consumer goods in
everyone who found the plot disturbing has a vivid Country X have large surpluses of goods as a result
imagination. Therefore, many of the people who of years of overproduction.
have read the novel must have vivid imaginations.
(D) Most people who have read the new horror novel
found the plot disturbing. But the plot cannot
disturb anyone who lacks a vivid imagination.
Therefore, most people must have vivid
imaginations.
(E) Most people who have read the new horror novel GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
found the plot disturbing. But the plot cannot
disturb people who lack vivid imaginations.
Therefore, most people with vivid imaginations
must find the plot disturbing.
www.cracklsat.net
2 A A PrepTest
89 -25- 2
(Nov
25. Art critic: An arrangement of objects tends to be 26. The three-spine stickleback is a small fish that lives
aesthetically pleasing to the extent that it gives
2019)
both in oceans and in freshwater lakes. While ocean
the impression that the person who arranged stickleback are covered with armor to protect them from
the objects succeeded at what he or she was their predators, lake stickleback have virtually no armor.
attempting to do. Since armor limits the speed of a stickleback's growth,
this indicates that having a larger size is a better defense
The generalization expressed by the art critic, if correct,
against the lake stickleback's predators than having
most helps to justify the reasoning in which one of the
armor.
following arguments?
Which one of the following, if true, weakens the
(A) The new art installation is very pleasing
argument?
aesthetically. However, even though it is not
apparent to viewers, the artist did not intend the (A) Sticklebacks with armor are unable to swim as
wooden panels to be arranged the way they in fast, making them most vulnerable to fast-
fact are. So the panels should be rearranged to moving predators.
reflect the artist's intention. (B) Having a larger size is an important factor
(B) The wooden panels in the art installation in whether lake stickleback, but not ocean
probably are not arranged in the way that the stickleback, survive cold winters.
artist wanted them arranged, for the installation (C) Unlike ocean stickleback, the lake stickleback
is less aesthetically pleasing than other are more often preyed upon by predatory insects
installations. than by larger fish.
(C) The arrangement of wooden panels in the art (D) Both ocean stickleback and lake stickleback feed
installation is likely to give the impression primarily on the same types of foods.
that the artist who arranged them did not quite (E) Sticklebacks originated in the ocean but began
succeed at what she was attempting to do, populating freshwater lakes and streams
for the arrangement is almost, but not quite, following the last ice age.
symmetrical.
(D) The art installation would be more aesthetically
pleasing if the wooden panels in it were
arranged more symmetrically, for then it would
seem more like the artist had gotten the panels
arranged the way she wanted.
(E) The artist could make the arrangement of wooden
panels in the art installation more aesthetically
pleasing by making it less symmetrical, for then
it would give less of an impression that every
aspect of the arrangement was fully planned.

STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
3 -26- PrepTest
89 3
SECTION III (Nov
Time-35 minutes 2019)
27 Questions

Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be
answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some questions, more than one of the
choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, choose the response that
most accurately and completely answers the question and mark that response on your answer sheet.

Thefollowingpassage is adapted/ram a 2001 article the magic of programming in the early years of the
by a.film historian. twentieth century, or more likely inherited it from the
(50) vaudeville tradition. It ill behooves us alleged early film
In exhibiting works of art-whether in a gallery, lovers to forsake their insights today.
a cinema, or anywhere else-the primary question
usually is: which works should be exhibited together? I. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the
In many exhibitions the selection is often tied to the main point of the passage?
(5) creator of the works. For example, we might have
an exhibition of Rembrandt's paintings'. Another (A) Screenings that consist entirely of early
reasonable method might be to choose paintings with a nonfiction films are poorly conceived because
particular theme or of a particular historical period, for they ignore the context of the films' original
example, Modernism. In all cases the aim is to select a screening.
series of works with something in common. In the (B) The practices that are best suited to exhibiting
world of cinema, this notion of "collecting the similar" works in an artistic medium like painting are not
has its analogue in the retrospective. This involves well suited for exhibiting cinematic works.
collecting together and screening several examples of (C) Early nonfiction films have not received the
the work of a particular director, star, studio, etc. In critical recognition that they deserve.
(15) recent years a rediscovery of early (pre-1915) (D) The artistic goals of early nonfiction films are
nonfiction film has been taking place, and such films different in many major respects from the goals
have been the subject of some notable retrospectives. of contemporary cinema.
But I would argue that the philosophy of (E) For modem audiences to properly experience
"collecting the similar" is often inappropriate for early nonfiction films, film archivists must
(20) screening early film, especially nonfiction, because produce restorations of those films that are as
authentic as possible.
it means showing several films of the same type one
after the other in the same sitting, which would never
2. According to the passage, which one of the following is
have been the practice at the time the films were made.
true of early nonfiction films?
Gathering together several short films (and in the early
(25) 191Os most films were under fifteen minutes) by the (A) They were produced by studios that focused
same maker or studio, while useful for historians and exclusively on nonfiction films.
academics, is often profoundly dull for the viewer. With (B) They were rarely credited to individual directors.
some exceptions, nonfiction films have always been (C) They were heavily influenced by the vaudeville
supporting films, not main attractions. Early tradition.
(30) cinemagoers never saw a collection of similar films (D) They were usually intended to be supporting
screened together; they almost always saw a program films.
that was a mix of everything from dramas and comedies (E) They were no less popular than most comedies
to travelogues and news. Even into the 1920s a mixed and dramas of the time.
program was the norm.
(35) Film archives and retrospective festivals often
behave as if the production of the films were the only
side of the coin. Film archives spend vast amounts of
time and effort in restoring films as they supposedly
were when originally produced. These restorations are
(40) presented with great fanfare as authentic versions, or GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
"directors' cuts." Yet as far as the exhibition side is
concerned, authenticity is sometimes allowed to go
out the window. Films are presented in an inauthentic
setting, utterly shorn of the program that once gave
(45) these films life and context, a setting that allowed
particular films to shine, but also to balance and react
against other kinds of films. Film presenters discovered

www.cracklsat.net
 PrepTest
3 89
(Nov
-27-3
3. The author would be most likely to reject which one of 6. 2019)
The author would be most likely to agree with which one
the following principles? of the following statements?
(A) Works of art should be presented as authentically (A) An exhibition of works by a single artist is likely
as possible. to be less interesting than an exhibition that
(B) Dissimilar works of art should never be displayed contains a mixture of works by different artists.
together. (B) When several works of art are exhibited together,
(C) Contemporary exhibitions of works of art the audience's response can be greatly affected
should be informed by knowledge of how past by the interplay among those works.
exhibitions collected works together. (C) Film archives and retrospective festivals are too
(D) Art exhibitions should never be designed without beholden to practices that have their roots in the
regard to how each work contributes to the vaudeville tradition.
whole. (D) Most early cinemagoers did not think of
(E) Art exhibitions should sometimes collect works nonfiction films of the time as belonging to a
that are all by the same artist. separate genre from comedies and dramas.
(E) A work of art will be misunderstood by historians
4. The passage contains information sufficient to answer or academics unless it is viewed in an authentic
which one of the following questions? setting.
(A) How many nonfiction films were made in the
7. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
years before 1915?
holds which one of the following views regarding the
(B) Did directors of early nonfiction films ever work
"directors' cuts" described in the final paragraph?
on other films as well?
(C) How long were most films in the early years of (A) They are usually little more than clever
the twentieth century? marketing gimmicks and are entirely lacking in
(D) Out of what historical tradition did the idea of artistic value.
"directors' cuts" originate? (B) Producing them is largely a pointless endeavor,
(E) How popular were early travelogues and news in that it is striving for a goal that can never be
films with audiences of their time? fully achieved.
(C) Paradoxically, even though they are produced
5. The author most likely intends the final sentence of the in an attempt to increase authenticity, in many
passage to cases they are less authentic than other versions.
(A) call into question the sincerity of those who (D) The time and effort expended in producing them
purport to be early film aficionados is potentially wasted if no attention is paid to
(B) _carryan implication regarding the proper way of other aspects of authenticity.
exhibiting early nonfiction films (E) In the vast majority of cases where such a version
(C) trace the historical basis behind the screening is available, it represents by far the best way to
practices of early twentieth century film experience the film.
presenters
(D) suggest that it is incumbent upon those who
enjoy early films to seek out the earliest versions
they can find
(E) challenge the notion that early film can ever be
fully understood by contemporary audiences
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
3 -28- PrepTest
89 3
With rapidly expanding populations, growing (60) related to possible climate changes, (Nov
such as how
industrial development, and dwindling water supplies reduced flows will be allocated among2019)
the countries
on national and regional levels, water is fast replacing sharing a river.
oil as the world's most valuable resource. Meanwhile,
(5) the growing importance of water in geopolitical affairs 8. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the
has increased the potential for international conflict main point of the passage?
over water resources. Thus as development and other (A) The world's water resources are on the decline, so
threats to the world's rivers have continued to mount, the ILC has formulated a set of treaty guidelines
nations have become acutely aware of the need designed to ensure each nation's equitable
(10) for legal and institutional mechanisms to manage use of watercourses, protect ecosystems, and
and protect resources that traverse their borders. prevent one country's use of a watercourse from
Recognition of the need for international cooperation in harming another country.
efforts to manage and protect rivers has led the United (B) The potential for international conflict over
Nations' International Law Commission (ILC) dwindling water resources is escalating due
(15) to develop a treaty structure for the uses of international to climatic changes, so the ILC has developed
watercourses. a treaty structure in an effort to ensure and
The ILC's Draft Articles on the Law of the Non- safeguard the continued growth of industrial
Navigational Uses oflnternational Watercourses are development on national and regional levels.
an attempt to codify the customary principles of (C) Though the ILC's Draft Articles are a worthwhile
(20) international water law as those principles are attempt to assemble an appropriate set of
manifested in past legal decisions and currently principles to govern the formulation of
accepted international practice. The Draft Articles treaties concerning the use of international
are intended as a set of guidelines for the creation of watercourses, they are flawed because of their
treaties governing the use of specific international lack of provision for the foreseeable effects of
(25) watercourses. They prescribe that treaties should certain predicted environmental changes.
uphold several broad precepts: that one nation's (D) While the environmental threats to the world's
use of a watercourse should not cause appreciable water resources have thus far had little impact
harm to another nation, that every nation's use of the on river systems, the ILC's Draft Articles
watercourse should be equitable and reasonable, and can and should be suitably revised to take
(30) that nations should work for the protection of into account possible future threats that could
ecosystems. significantly alter the world's rivers.
Though the Draft Articles are a significant step (E) The increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide and
forward in the formulation oflegal principles for the the attendant greenhouse effect and resultant
protection and regulation of international rivers, they global warming have already had detrimental
(35) are inadequate because they do not provide satisfactory effects on international river systems, and
ways of dealing with possible future environmental the ILC's Draft Articles fail to outline
changes. One significant environmental threat to the adequate contingency plans to deal with these
world's rivers is the increase of atmospheric carbon environmental changes.
dioxide. With its resultant greenhouse effect and
(40) warmer temperatures, it is likely to have a number of 9. Which one of the following is proposed by the author as
dramatic effects on water levels in international river a way for countries to respond to the danger that serious
systems, arising from increased runoff due to snowmelt water-usage problems may result from changes in the
or, more importantly, from decreased precipitation in flow of international rivers?
many regions.
(45) Treaties that allocate fixed amounts of water to (A) regulating industrial development in countries
various countries based on current usage, as suggested with rapidly expanding economies
by the Drqft Articles, will not be flexible enough to (B) developing mechanisms to sustain and safeguard
respond to these large fluctuations in river flows. Once the balance of ecosystems
specific water rights are allocated along a river in (C) allocating water usage amounts to countries
(50) accordance with the Draft Articles, nations would have based on a proportional share system
no mechanism for coping with a drastic reduction in (D) modifying agricultural practices that require
the flow of the river. Adhering rigidly to these fixed inordinate.amounts of water
allocations would unjustly favor those countries whose (E) redirecting snowmelt runoff to areas with
water usage is most extensive. One way to circumvent increased water needs
(55) this problem is to devise treaties that apportion water
use in more flexible ways-for example, by assigning
proportional shares rather than fixed allotments of
water. Similarly, treaties might incorporate explicit
contingency plans dealing specifically with issues
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

www.cracklsat.net
 ~ ~
PrepTest
3 89
(Nov
-29-3
10. According to the passage, a primary purpose for the 13. The passage most strongly suggests that2019)
which one of the
development of the Draft Articles was to following was true at the time the ILC began developing
the Draft Articles?
(A) criticize existing international practices resulting
from past legal decisions (A) Water resources were sufficiently abundant
(B) provide an explicit formulation of some to meet the needs of most of the countries
commonly applied principles of international belonging to the United Nations.
law (B) Precipitation levels throughout the world had
(C) establish uniform judicial procedures for deciding been declining steadily for a number of years.
disputes over water resources (C) Existing treaties governing water rights rarely
(D) protect the pre-existing water rights of those covered matters involving environmental
countries that use the most water protection.
(E) help guarantee continued industrial development (D) Conflicts over the management of water
in countries that share rivers resources had been escalating sharply in
frequency and intensity.
11. In the passage, the author claims that the Draft Articles (E) Much of the content of the Draft Articles had
are flawed in that they already been articulated by courts resolving
(A) focus on the management of water resources international water-rights cases.
rather than on the protection of rivers
14. Which one of the following most accurately characterizes
endangered by environmental changes
the author's attitude toward the Draft Articles'?
(B) fail to incorporate certain widely accepted legal
principles reflected in customary international (A) mistrust of the political motivations that shaped
water-use practices them
(C) do not address pertinent issues involving the (B) skepticism regarding their assumption that
relationship between navigational and non- treaties are the only viable type of water-usage
navigational uses of international watercourses agreement
(D) suggest that treaties stipulate specific quantities (C) concern over their failure to prescribe ways of
of water use, which future conditions may· dealing with treaty violations
render inequitable (D) satisfaction with their initiative in diverging from
(E) provide little assistance to countries in the international customary practice
process of expanding their water uses, and thus (E) approval of the general goals that they attempt to
favor more industrialized countries accomplish

12. The passage most strongly supports the inference that 15. The author probably intends the phrase "treaty structure"
the author would agree with which one of the following in the last sentence of the first paragraph to refer to
statements?
(A) an outline for a comprehensive international
(A) It is possible to devise treaties that uphold the accord intended to serve in place of individual
broad precepts embraced in the Draft Articles bilateral treaties between countries
and that also permit countries to adapt to large (B) a compendium of past treaties that the ILC
fluctuations in river flows. regards as exemplary models for the formulation
(B) Efforts to manage and protect the world's of future treaties
water resources should include unilateral (C) a systematic analysis oflegal precedents that
regulatory action on the part of the ILC in have been established by international tribunals
cases where treaties do not adequately provide in adjudicating treaty-related disputes
for the protection of internationally shared (D) a set of general prescriptive principles to be
watercourses. followed in the formulation of the provisions of
(C) The Draft Articles need to be reformulated to treaties
take into account the effects of water usage on (E) a charter for a proposed advisory board that
entire river systems instead of focusing on the would oversee treaty negotiation on behalf of
individual segments of such systems that lie the international community
entirely within each nation's borders.
(D) Many existing treaties governing water usage are
cast in terms that permit nations to react flexibly
to altered water availability patterns that might
occur due to global warming.
(E) Countries that use the greatest quantities of water
have generally favored treaties formulated in GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
terms that allocate fixed quantities of water
usage to each participating country.
3 -30-
~ ~ ~ PrepTest
89 3
This passage was adapted from an article published in crystals at once, acting as a daub of(Nov
glue. It will take
2000. that kind of finesse at the nanoscale2019)
to produce self-
assembling circuits.
Competition to make computer chips smaller and,
consequently, faster and more efficient has driven a 16. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the
technological revolution, fueled economic growth, and main point of the passage?
rapidly made successive generations of computers
(5) obsolete. Yet at the current rate of progress this march (A) Although preliminary results suggest that
toward miniaturization will hit a wall by about 201 ~ Belcher and Hu's research on peptides and
for many, an unthinkable prospect. The laws of physics semiconductors could result in a breakthrough
dictate that, with current methods, properly functioning in the miniaturization of computer chips, enough
transistors-the electronic devices that make up obstacles remain to make such an outcome
(10) computer chips---cannot be made smaller than 25 unlikely.
nanometers (billionths of a meter). In living cells, (B) Advances in computer chip speed and efficiency
however, natural chemical processes efficiently and beyond the year 2010 may depend on the
precisely produce extremely complex structures below outcome of various current research projects,
this size limit, so there may be hope of using some such including that conducted by Belcher and Hu,
(15) processes to yield tiny molecules that can either which focus on using peptides to bind different
function like transistors or be induced to combine with crystals together.
other materials in carefully controlled ways to construct (C) Belcher and Hu's research on the abilities
whole nanocircuits. Much current research is aimed at of some peptides to bind to semiconductor
harnessing DNA to this end, but materials chemist materials indicates that peptides might
(20) Angela Belcher and physicist Evelyn Hu are eventually be applied to the production of
investigating a different molecular pattern maker: computer chips with transistors smaller than the
peptides, amino acid chains that are shorter than lower limit set by current methods.
proteins. (D) Belcher and Hu's discovery of peptides that
The project grew out ofBelcher's doctoral cause the development of a particular crystalline
(25) research on abalone. Her research group discovered in structure in a natural biological context suggests
the mid- l 990s that a specific peptide causes calcium that semiconductor materials might bind to
carbonate to crystallize into the structure found only in biological compounds.
the tough abalone shell. From that discovery, Belcher (E) The application ofBelcher's work on abalone to
and Hu, Belcher's postdoctoral adviser at the time, the world of semiconductors shows that pure
(30) realized that if they found peptides able to direct the scientific research can have unexpected practical
crystal growth of the semiconductor materials that repercussions.
form transistors, they might have a tool for building
17. The words "that kind of finesse" (final sentence of the
nanoscale electronics. However, no known peptide was
passage) refer primarily to
able to bind to semiconductor materials to cause the
(35) development of particular crystalline structures as some (A) the ability to translate abstract, theoretical
peptides did with calcium carbonate. So Belcher, Hu, concepts in computer design into concrete
and their colleagues grew a random assortment of one applications
billion different peptides and tested whether any of (B) the creativity that was necessary to apply
them bound to silicon, gallium arsenide, or indium knowledge gained from DNA research to
(40) phosphide crystals-three widely used semiconductor molecular pattern makers other than DNA
materials. They found a few peptides that not only (C) the development of sophisticated methods of
bound exclusively to one of the crystals in the observing the behavior of crystalline structures
experiment but also latched onto a particular face of the that are both extremely tiny and extremely
crystal. Through a process resembling accelerated complex
(45) evolution, they developed additional related (D) the ability to differentiate peptides that interact
peptides from those that had the initially promising chemically with at least one semiconductor
characteristics. material from very similar peptides that do not
Hu says that in order to use such a method to interact with any such materials
assemble a set of circuit-building tools it would be (E) the ability of researchers to manipulate organic
(50) necessary to identify many additional organic compounds in ways that satisfy very specific
compounds that bind to circuit-component materials. circuit-construction needs
The group is making progress on that quest. As they
have expanded their targets to 20 more semiconductor
materials, their cache of crystal-manipulating peptides
(55) has ballooned into the hundreds. They are also
designing new peptides that bind to two different
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

www.cracklsat.net
 PrepTest

3 89
(Nov
-31-3
18. Which one of the following statements about the peptides 20. 2019)
The primary role of the first two sentences of the passage
that Belcher and Hu tested in relation to semiconductors is to help the reader understand
can be most reasonably inferred from the passage?
(A) why research of the sort done by Belcher and
(A) At least some of them did not previously exist in Hu was not previously undertaken by other
nature. researchers
(B) At least one of them was found to bind to three (B) the purpose and importance of the research that
different semiconductor compounds. Belcher and Hu have undertaken
(C) At least some of them were tested in relation to (C) the skepticism with which some members of the
silicon but not in relation to gallium arsenide. scientific community have greeted Belcher and
(D) At least one of them was in use in.the computer Hu's research
chip industry prior to Belcher and Hu's research. (D) a commonly held viewpoint against which
(E) Other researchers had previously tested at Belcher and Hu's research is directed
least some of them for possible reactions with (E) a hypothesis that Belcher and Hu's research is
semiconductor materials other than silicon, designed to test
gallium arsenide, and indium phosphide. ·
21. The passage most strongly supports which one of the
19. Which one of the following situations involving volatile following?
oils is most analogous to the situation involving peptides
(A) Some peptides that bind to gallium arsenide also
that is presented in the passage?
bind to indium phosphide.
(A) A group ofresearchers, whose experimentation (B) Researchers besides Belcher and Hu and their
has focused on the chemical properties of colleagues have studied the possibility of using
certain synthetic volatile oils, abandons that line peptides in the assembly of nanocircuits.
of inquiry on receiving a grant to study whether (C) Neither Belcher nor Hu has done major scientific
certain species of trees contain acids that could research on organic compounds other than
have antiviral properties in human medical peptides.
applications. (D) Silicon, gallium arsenide, and indium phosphide
(B) A group ofresearchers extracts several volatile are not the only semiconductor materials to
oils from the leaves of certain species of trees which peptides have been found to bind.
and, while testing each of the oils to determine (E) Peptides have been used in industrial applications
whether it has antifungal properties that could that are not related to semiconductors.
make it useful in human medical applications,
they discover that one of the oils is a powerful 22. Which one of the following, if true, lends the most
insecticide. support to a prediction of an eventual commercial
(C) A group ofresearchers synthesizes several application of Belcher and Hu 's research into peptides
volatile oils that, when combined, are found to and semiconductors?
be useful as a fungicide on fruit trees. Through
(A) Belcher and Hu's early successes in synthesizing
further experimentation, they find that this same
peptides that bind to semiconductors have
combination of oils has antiviral properties in
sparked renewed interest in possible DNA
human medical applications.
applications in the construction of nanocircuits.
(D) A group of researchers observes that a volatile
(B) For almost any semiconductor material that is
oil contained in an antifungal product used
used in a computer circuit, there are many other
on fruit trees can cause mutations in the trees.
semiconductor materials that function in the
As a result, they launch a research project to
same way and could be substituted for it.
determine whether similar oils that are used in
(C) The number of peptides that bind to two different
human medical applications might cause genetic
crystals at once appears to be smaller than the
damage.
number of peptides that, although they bind to
(E) A group of researchers, noting that a volatile oil two different crystals, cannot bind to both at the
secreted by a certain species of tree protects
same time.
it from a type of fungal infection, synthesizes (D) The one billion peptides that Belcher and Hu
several similar oils and tests them for possible grew and tested in the initial stages of their
antibacterial activity that might make them research was nearly four times the number of
useful in human medical applications. peptides they grew and tested subsequently.
(E) Expectations of continuing high costs of
synthesizing the peptides that Belcher and Hu
have found to bind to semiconductors have
tended to restrict the number of scientists
contemplating possible research into peptide
uses in nanocircuits.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

3 -32- PrepTest
89 3
Passage A (Novthat learning
control subjects. Thus, the reports suggest
In 1940, Benjamin Lee Whorf seduced a whole number words either creates a concept 2019)
of exact
generation into believing that our mother tongue (60) numerical equality (a strong Whorfian hypothesis), or
restricts what we are able to think. In particular, Whorf mediates the expansion of such a concept (a weaker
announced, Hopi and English impose different pictures Whorfian hypothesis), or directs attention to such a
(5) of reality on their speakers, impeding mutual concept (a non-Whorfian hypothesis).
understanding. Eventually, it transpired that there
had never actually been any evidence to support his 23. Both passages are concerned with answering which one
fantastic claims. of the following questions?
Whorf's main mistake was to assume that our (A) Are there limits to the translatability of one
(10) mother tongue prevents us from being able to think language into another?
certain thoughts; new research suggests that in reality (B) What does scientific research reveal about the
its influence consists in what it obliges us to think relation between language and thought?
about. German, for example, forces me to designate my (C) Do differences among languages result from
neighbor as male (Nachbar) or female (Nachbarin). different ways of thinking about the world?
(15) Furthermore, grammatical genders can shape the
(D) Were Whorf's claims about language based on
feelings and associations that speakers have toward
better evidence than previously thought?
objects around them. In the 1990s, psychologists
(E) Is the influence of language on thought confined
compared associations that speakers of German and
to specific areas such as number and gender?
Spanish make. There are many inanimate nouns whose
(20) genders in the two languages are reversed. A German 24. In the first sentence of passage B, the word "subjects"
bridge is feminine (die Brucke), for instance, but el refers to which one of the following?
puente is masculine in Spanish; and the same goes for
clocks and violins. When speakers were asked about the (A) words
characteristics of various objects, Spanish (B) topics
(25) speakers deemed bridges, clocks, and violins to have (C) people
stereotypically masculine properties like strength, but (D) relations
Germans tended to think of them as more slender or (E) objects
elegant. With objects like mountains or chairs, which
are "he" in German but "she" in Spanish, the effect was 25. Which one of the following is true about the relationship
(30) reversed. between the two passages?

Passage B (A) Passage A presents examples of languages that

Studies involving Piraha and Munduruku Indian picture reality in compatible ways, whereas
subjects from the Brazilian Amazonia give evidence passage B presents examples oflanguages that
regarding the role of language in the development of picture reality in incompatible ways.
numerical reasoning. The subjects in these reports (B) Passage A depicts language as influencing
(35) apparently have consistent, unambiguous words for thought by means of its vocabulary, whereas
one and two and more loosely used words for three passage B depicts language as influencing
and four, but these subjects may not have true number thought by means of its grammatical structure.
words at all. Moreover, they do not overtly count, either (C) Passage A regards linguistic differences as
with number words or by means of tallies. Yet, when rendering mutual understanding impossible,
(40) tested on a variety of numerical tasks-naming the whereas passage B regards them as a
number of items in a stimulus set, constructing sets of surmountable obstacle to mutual understanding.
equivalent number, judging which of two sets is more (D) Passage A portrays linguistic differences as
numerous, and mental addition and subtraction-the arising from conceptual differences, whereas
results appear to indicate that the subjects possess an passage B portrays conceptual differences as
(45) innate imprecise nonverbal concept of number. arising from linguistic differences.
In showing that subjects with no verbal counting (E) Passage A focuses on differences in people's
system have a concept of approximate numerical subjective associations, whereas passage B
magnitude comparable to that of numerate subjects, focuses on the possession of concepts.
these reports support a non-Whorfian, language-
(50) independent view of the origins of our concept of
number. However, there is more to the story. Numerate
subjects have a strong intuition of exact numerical
equality. Two plus two is exactly four, not roughly four.
When the innumerate subjects in these reports matched
(55) a set of four items to a set of five, or judged that GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
6~3=2, they gave evidence of being indifferent to exact
numerical equality, an indifference not seen in numerate

www.cracklsat.net
 PrepTest
3 89
(Nov
-33-3
26. Given the style and tone of each passage, which one of 27. Which one of the following principles 2019) the
underlies
the following is most likely to be true? argument in passage B, but not that in passage A?
(A) The author of passage A is writing for a general (A) If different languages apply incompatible
audience, while the author of passage B is concepts to one and the same object, then that
addressing a more academic audience. suggests those concepts were created by those
(B) The author of passage A is an anthropologist, languages.
while the author of passage B is a linguist. (B) If a speaker possesses a concept for which the
(C) The author of passage A is a neutral observer, speaker's language lacks an expression, then
while the author of passage B is an advocate of that suggests that the concept was not created by
a particular view. language.
(D) The author of passage A is interested mainly in (C) If one's language prevented one from possessing
the historical development of an idea, whereas certain concepts, then one would not be able
the author of passage B is concerned with its to learn a language in which such concepts are
truth. represented.
(E) The author of passage A is dismissive of the ideas (D) If a concept can be expressed more exactly in
under discussion, while the author of passage B one language than in another language, then it
takes them more seriously. is likely that the concept was created by those
languages.
(E) If a language obliges speakers to think about a
concept, that concept must have been obtained
independently of the language.

STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
4 -34-
e e SECTION IV
e e PrepTest
89
(Nov
4
Time-35 minutes 2019)
25 Questions

Directions: Each question in this section is based on the reasoning presented in a brief passage. In answering the questions, you
should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. For
some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best
answer; that is, choose the response that most accurately and completely answers the question and mark that response on your
answer sheet. ·

1. A company produced a small car that costs much less- 3. Researcher: Newly formed neurons can help to heal an
but is also much less safe-than any car previously injured brain but only if they develop into the
available. However, most customers of the new car type of neurons that are most common in the
increased their safety on the roads by buying it. injured area. Studies have shown that when a part
of the brain called the striatum is injured, newly
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve
formed neurons in the striatum never become
the apparent paradox in the above claims?
midsized spiny neurons, the type most common
(A) The company surveyed pqtential customers in the striatum.
and discovered that most of them were more
If the researcher's statements are true, which one of the
concerned about cost than about safety.
following must also be true?
(B) The company could significantly increase the
car's safety without dramatically increasing its (A) Newly formed neurons sometimes develop into
production cost. midsized spiny neurons in areas of the brain
(C) Most people who bought the new car were other than the striatum.
probably unaware that it is much less safe than (B) Newly formed neurons are commonly found_in
other cars. injured areas of the brain shortly after the injury
(D) Many households that previously could afford occurs.
only one car can now afford two. (C) Midsized spiny neurons are not the most common
(E) Most people who bought the new car previously type of neuron in any part of the brain other than
travelled by bicycle or motorcycle, which are the striatum.
less safe than the new car. (D) In cases of injury to the striatum, newly formed
neurons will not help to heal the injury.
2. Brian: I used to eat cheeseburgers from fast-food (E) In most cases of brain injury, newly formed
restaurants almost every day. But then I read that neurons do not help to heal the injury.
eating bread and meat in the same meal interferes
with digestion. So I stopped eating cheeseburgers
and switched to a diet of lean meats, fruits, and
vegetables. Since starting this new diet, I feel
much better and my cholesterol level and blood
pressure are lower. This proves that eating bread
and meat in the same meal is unhealthy.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
The reasoning in Brian's argument is flawed in that the
argument
(A) treats a statement as established fact merely
because a self-appointed expert has asserted it
(B) draws a conclusion that merely restates a premise
offered in support of it
(C) treats a condition that must occur in order for an
effect to occur as a condition that would ensure
that the effect occurs
(D) concludes that one part of a change was
responsible for an effect without ruling out the
possibility that other parts of that change were
responsible
(E) concludes that making a dietary change improved
the health of a particular person simply because
that change results in improved health for most
people

www.cracklsat.net
4
4.
e e
Leona: Thompson's article on the novel Emily s Trials is 6.
e
Critic: Linsey has been judged
e PrepTest
89
(Nov
2019)
to be a bad songwriter
-35- 4
intriguing but ultimately puzzling. In discussing simply because her lyrics typically are disjointed
one scene, Thompson says that a character's and subjective. This judgment is ill founded,
"furrowed brow" and grim expression indicate however, since the writings of many modem
deep inner turmoil and anxiety. Later, however, novelists typically are disjointed and subjective,
Thompson refers to the same scene and describes and yet these novelists are widely held to be good
this character as the "self-identified agent" of writers.
an action. This ascription is interesting and
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
challenging in its own right; but Thompson
the conclusion drawn in the critic's argument?
begins the article by claiming that a "self-
identified agent" is fundamentally incapable of (A) Linsey is a good songwriter.
having misgivings or anxiety. (B) The view that Linsey is a bad songwriter is
poorly supported.
The argumentative strategy Leona uses in discussing the
(C) The writings of many modem novelists are
article is to criticize Thompson's comments on the
disjointed and subjective.
grounds that
(D) Many modem novelists are widely held to be
(A) some of Thompson's reasoning is circular good writers.
(B) Thompson provides no definition of the concept (E) Linsey's talent as a writer is no less than that of
of a "self-identified agent" many modem novelists.
(C) the analysis of character offered by Thompson is
insufficiently supported by the textual evidence 7. Computer security experts correctly maintain that
(D) it is unlikely that any character could qualify as a computer passwords are a less secure means of protecting
"self-identified agent" one's information than are alternative security options
(E) some of Thompson's claims contradict each other like fingerprint scanners. But computer passwords are not
going to be replaced by these other options anytime soon.
5. An online auction site conducted a study of auction The alternative security options remain significantly more
techniques involving 8,000 used cars, divided into two expensive to employ, and they can replace passwords
equal groups. Each car's listing in the first group included only if they become standard on most of the world's
a brief description of its condition. The description of computers.
each car in the other half additionally listed defects
The conclusion drawn above follows logically if which
of the car. More cars in the second group sold, and of
one of the following is assumed?
comparable cars in both groups that sold, the cars in the
second group fetched higher prices. (A) There are ways to make computer passwords
a more secure means of protecting one's
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
information.
explain why the second group of cars had better sales
(B) Any security option that is no more expensive to
results than the first group?
employ than computer passwords provides less
(A) Most people are skeptical of the descriptions security than computer passwords.
that accompany items when they are put up for (C) Most computer security experts do not believe
auction online. that computer passwords will be replaced by an
(B) People are likely to assunw that a car with no alternative security option anytime soon.
reported defects has been maintained more (D) Security options that are significantly more
attentively and is therefore in better overall expensive to employ than computer passwords
condition. will not become standard on most of the world's
(C) Prospective buyers are likely to overlook mention computers anytime soon.
of defects buried in a detailed description of (E) As soon as a security option is developed that is
the condition of an object they are considering not significantly more expensive to employ than
purchasing. computer passwords, computer passwords will
(D) Listing defects in a description of an item tends be replaced as a security measure.
to lead people to assume that no major defect
has gone unmentioned.
(E) With thousands of cars for sale, prospective
buyers are unlikely to read detailed descriptions
of more than a small fraction of them.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

4 -36-

8.
e e
Statistics show clearly that in those countries with the 10.
e e PrepTest
89
Many species of plants produce nectars(Nov
known as
4
most severe penalties for driving while intoxicated, extrafloral nectories (EFNs), which are2019)
known to attract
a smaller percentage of drivers have traffic accidents certain ants that defend the plants against leaf-eating
involving alcohol use than in other countries. This refutes insects. Recently, greenhouse experiments have found
those who claim that would-be drunk drivers will not be that jumping spiders jump onto plants with active EFNs
deterred by the prospect of severe penalties. six times more often than they jump onto plants without
EFNs, and regularly eat the nectar. So, like the ants,
Which one of the following would, if true, most
jumping spiders apparently defend EFN-producing plants
undermine the argument?
against leaf-eating insects.
(A) The countries with the largest populations do
Which one of the following, if true, would most
not have severe penalties for driving while
strengthen the argument above?
intoxicated.
(B) Very severe penalties against driving while (A) For many species of nectar-producing plants,
intoxicated are in effect only in countries in productivity is increased when a plant is
which alcohol use is rare. protected from leaf-eating insects.
(C) The higher a country's speed limits, the more (B) In field experiments, the introduction of jumping
frequent traffic accidents tend to be in that spiders into an environment was followed by a
country. significant increase in the population ofEFN-
(D) Only a relatively small minority of those who producing plants.
drive while intoxicated are actually apprehended (C) Some species ofEFN-producing plants cannot
while doing so. survive without some outside agent protecting
(E) All countries impose severer penalties on those them from leaf-eating insects.
who cause accidents while driving intoxicated (D) Experiments with types of spiders other than
than on those who are merely apprehended jumping spiders suggest that these other types of
while driving intoxicated. spiders do not defend EFN-producing plants.
(E) Regions with large populations of ants also tend
9. Many airlines offer, for a fee, to "offset" the carbon to have large populations ofEFN-producing
emissions produced when you fly, but such schemes are plants.
almost entirely ineffective. Although the fees are usually
invested in projects that directly reduce carbon emissions, 11. When using a manufactured pattern to make clothing,
in most cases these projects would have proceeded even a tailor alters the pattern to accommodate any future
without that investment, so no carbon emissions are distortion of the fabric. Also, unless the clothing is to be
prevented. worn by a person whose measurements precisely match
the pattern size, the tailor alters the pattern to fit the
Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
wearer exactly. Thus, a professional tailor never blindly
helps to justify the reasoning in the argument?
follows a pattern, but always adjusts the pattern to fit the
(A) Steps that are taken in order to mitigate the wearer exactly.
harmful effects of one's freely chosen, harmful
The conclusion follows logically if which one of the
actions do not absolve one from the original
following is assumed?
harm.
(B) If an outcome would have occurred in the (A) Most manufactured patterns do not already
absence of a certain action, then the outcome accommodate the future distortion of fabrics that
was not a consequence of that action. shrink or stretch.
(C) If a company or individual gains financially (B) At least some tailors who adjust patterns to the
from a particular action, they should not be wearer and to the fabrics used are professional
considered morally praiseworthy for any tailors.
positive consequences of that action. (C) The best tailors are those most able to alter
(D) Measures aimed at achieving a certain outcome patterns to fit the wearer exactly.
should only be taken when they are of (D) All professional tailors sew only for people
demonstrable effectiveness at achieving that whose measurements do not exactly match their
outcome. chosen patterns.
(E) If a project for reducing carbon emissions (E) A professional tailor can always estimate exactly
does not tackle the largest source of carbon how much a fabric will shrink or stretch.
emissions, then it is of limited value in reducing
such emissions.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

www.cracklsat.net
4 e e
12. Typically, a design that turns out well has gone through
e e
14. Deborra: The art of still photography
PrepTest
89
(Nov
2019)enable us
cannot
-37- 4
many drafts, each an improvement over the previous to understand the world. After all, understanding
one. What usually allows a designer to see an idea's starts from refusing to accept the world as it
advantages and flaws is a sketch of the idea. The ways looks and inquiring into the world's reality, and
in which the sketch appears muddled or confused tend to the reality of the world is not in its images but
reveal to the designer ways in which the design has been in its functions. Functioning takes place in time
inadequately conceptualized. and must be explained in time; only that which
narrates can enable us to understand.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support
which one of the following? Which one of the following is an assumption on which
Deborra's argument depends?
(A) The designs that tum out best go through the
most drafts. (A) Artists who take still photographs do not attempt
(B) Many good designs have emerged from design to understand the world.
ideas that were flawed. (B) The functioning of the world cannot be captured
(C) Designs that do not tum out well have not gone on film.
through many drafts. (C) The art of still photography is not narrative.
(D) Designs whose initial conceptualization was (D) A complete understanding of the world is not
inadequate rarely tum out well. attainable through art.
(E) A designer will never see advantages and flaws in (E) Images cannot be properly explained.
a design idea without the aid of a sketch.
15. Candidate: In each election in the last ten years, the
13. Mayor: Some residents complain that the city has no right candidate who supported property tax reform
to require homeowners to connect to city water received a significant majority of the votes in
services, even though we are doing so in order the northeastern part of my district. In no other
to ensure public health and safety. But they are part of my district has there been any discernible
wrong. We will charge the homeowners a fair pattern of voting for or against property tax
market price for the service, and our plan will reform. Therefore, in order to attract additional
benefit all of the city's residents by increasing voters in the northeastern part of my district
city revenue and by making the city a healthier without alienating voters elsewhere, all I need
and safer place in which to live. to do is to go on record as favoring property tax
reform.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, would
most help to justify the reasoning in the mayor's The reasoning in the candidate's argument is most
argument? vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the candidate
(A) A city has the right to require homeowners to (A) would not attempt to enact property tax reform if
connect to city water services if it charges a fair elected
price for the service and if the requirement will (B) draws opposite conclusions about voting patterns
benefit all the city's residents. in different parts of the district
(B) A city should require homeowners to connect (C) draws a general conclusion about patterns of
to city water services only if it will increase voting based on a small sample
revenue and make the city a healthier and safer (D) surmises from the fact that two phenomena are
place in which to live. correlated that one causes the other
(C) A city has no right to require homeowners to (E) draws a conclusion based solely on data that are
connect to city water services if it does not ten years old
charge the homeowners a fair market price for
the service.
(D) Residents of a city have no right to complain
about the requirement that homeowners connect
to city water services if the requirement will
benefit all of the city's residents.
(E) A city can successfully increase revenue and GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
make itself a healthier and safer place to live
only if the city is able to require homeowners to
connect to city water services.
4 -38-
e e
16. In an effort to boost milk production, some dairy-farmers 18.
e e PrepTest
89
(Nov
Certain changes in North American residential
4
are treating cows with a genetically engineered hormone 2019) mainly
architecture after World War II are attributable
called BST. Consumer groups have opposed the use to the increased availability and affordability of air-
ofBST even though the milk ofBST-treated cows is conditioning. Soon after World War II, many builders
identical in nutritional value to that of untreated cows; found that air-conditioned houses lacking the high
the treated cows run a greater risk of infection and hence ceilings and thick walls that traditionally kept residents
are more likely to be given antibiotics, which may show cool during extreme heat generally sold well.
up in their milk. In high levels, these antibiotics may be
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
harmful to humans. Yet the milk of treated and untreated
weakens the argument?
cows alike is regularly screened for antibiotics.
(A) High ceilings and thick walls enable houses to
Which one of the following is most strongly supported
withstand many types of severe weather that are
by the information above?
common in North America.
(A) Consumer groups have no legitimate reasons for (B) Thin-walled, low-ceilinged houses are more
opposing the use of BST. costly to heat in winter than thick-walled, high-
(B) Milk from BST-treated cows is as safe for human ceilinged houses.
consumption as that from untreated cows. (C) Houses with low ceilings and thin walls were
(C) There is no advantage to the use of BST on dairy prevalent in North America even where there
cows. was no demand for residential air-conditioning.
(D) Milk from BST-treated cows can be presumed (D) Thin walls allow cool, air-conditioned air to
safe for humans only if it is successfully escape more readily from houses than do thick
screened for high levels of antibiotics. walls.
(E) The only threat posed by drinking milk from (E) Soon after World War II, new thermal-insulating
cows treated with BST is high levels of technology was widely applied in house
antibiotics. building.

17. Legislator: University humanities departments bring 19. McKee: Heckling the performer is a long-standing
in less tuition and grant money than science tradition of stand-up comedy. The performers
departments. But because teaching and research know this and learn to respond entertainingly.
cost significantly less in the humanities than in That's why it's unwise for comedy venues to
the sciences, humanities departments bring in prevent audience members from heckling.
more money than they spend while the reverse is Chapman: Heckling is only a long-standing tradition of
true of science departments. As a result, contrary comedy because it's tolerated. And it's usually
to the typical characterization that humanities only fun for the heckler. In most cases, heckling
departments freeload on science departments, is just a distraction from the performance.
humanities departments actually subsidize
science departments. Thus, it is a mistake for McKee's and Chapman's statements indicate that they
universities to cut humanities departments when disagree about each of the following EXCEPT:
facing budget shortfalls. (A) Comedy venues should tolerate audience
Which one of the following most accurately describes members' heckling the performers.
the role played in the legislator's argument by the claim (B) Stand-up comedians' responses to heckling
that teaching and research cost significantly less in the should be considered part of their stand-up
humanities than in the sciences? comedy performance.
(C) The best stand-up comedians are able to respond
(A) It is offered as support for the accuracy of an entertainingly when they are heckled by
alleged stereotype. audience members.
(B) It is an alleged stereotype rejected in the (D) Many audience members at comedy venues
argument's overall conclusion. enjoy watching stand-up comedians respond to
(C) It is put forward as a component of an heckling.
explanation for a premise of the argument. (E) It is unwise for comedy venues to disregard long-
(D) It is an intermediate conclusion from which the standing traditions of stand-up comedy.
argument's overall conclusion is inferred.
(E) It is one of many claims each presented as
independent support for the argument's overall
conclusion.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

www.cracklsat.net
'j4 e e e PrepTest
89
(Nov
-39- 4
~· 20. Political scientist: Democracy depends on free choices, 21. All of the students at Harrison 2019)
University live in one of
and choices cannot be free unless they are made two residence complexes, either Pulham or Westerville.
on the basis of well-reasoned opinions. In the Although just a small fraction of the classes at Harrison
Information Age, reading skills have become are night classes, 38 percent of Harrison students take at
essential to forming well-reasoned opinions. least one night class. That figure is lower for Harrison
Thus, in the Information Age, a highly literate students living in Westerville: Only 29 percent of those
society will be a democratic one. students take at least one night class.
The political scientist's reasoning is flawed in that it If the statements above are true, which one of the
following must also be true?
(A) mistakes necessary conditions for sufficient
conditions (A) More than 38 percent of the students at Harrison
(B) fails to take into account that there are many who live in Pulham take a night class.
means of forming well-reasoned opinions (B) More than 50 percent of the students who take
(C) confuses the means of doing something with the night classes at Harrison are from Pulham.
reasons for doing it (C) More students at Harrison live in Westerville than
(D) generalizes too hastily from one type of case to live in Pulham.
another (D) Harrison students living in Pulham are less likely
(E) takes for granted that a condition under which than those living in Westerville to take more
something occurs is a condition under which all than one night class.
its prerequisites occur (E) Night classes at Harrison have larger emollments,
on average, than day classes do.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

4-40- f) e
22. The universe as a whole necessarily tends toward greater 23.
f) f) PrepTest
89
Researcher: Consumption of turmeric, a(Nov
basic ingredient
4
disorder, or entropy. From this alone, it follows that in curry dishes, probably slows 2019)
cognitive
the earth's biosphere has always been moving toward decline. Our research team analyzed a database
increased disorder as well, in spite of appearances to the of information about the cognitive function,
contrary. ethnicity, and diet of elderly residents of
Singapore. Those who eat curries regularly
Which one of the following is most similar in its flawed
had higher scores on cognitive-function tests
reasoning to the argument above?
than those who rarely or never eat curries;
(A) Wooded Lake is one of the most beautiful lakes this relationship was strongest for the elderly
in the wor.Jd.This follows from the fact that Singapore residents oflndian ethnicity.
the extensive system of interconnected lakes of
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the
which Wooded Lake is a part is one of the most
researcher's explanation of the research team's findings?
beautiful systems of its type worldwide.
(B) This has been the coldest April in this region (A) Even before analyzing the database, the
in the last half-century. So, on any given day researchers had hypothesized that turmeric
this April, it is likely that the weather was consumption slows cognitive decline.
unseasonably cold. (B) Highly educated residents of Singapore are
(C) The manifest indicates that every deck on that more likely than other residents to eat curries
cruise ship houses some commercial cargo, even regularly.
.though on some decks the cargo storage areas (C) Most Singapore residents who are oflndian
are difficult to find. Hence every deck on the ethnicity eat curries regularly.
ship is devoted to commercial cargo storage, (D) Singapore residents, on a per capita basis, eat
even though this is not immediately obvious. curries more often than do residents of most
(D) Although Hopper claims to have been working other countries.
in another part of the plant when the accident (E) Indian curries generally contain much more
occurred, company records show that every turmeric than other curries contain.
person on the cleanup crew of which Hopper
is a member was in the grain area at the time.
Hence Hopper either has misremembered
events, or is not telling the truth.
(E) Two of the seven critical parts in that gear
assembly are unsafe to use, even though this
is not obvious upon a casual inspection. The GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
assembly therefore is unsafe to rely on and
ought to be repaired.

l
i.

I
l
I

www.cracklsat.net
4 e e
24. A theory cannot properly be regarded as empirical unless 25.
e e PrepTest
89
(Nov
2019)
-41-

Shopkeeper: Our city will soon approve the construction

4
there is some conceivable observation that, if the theory of a new shopping center, but I won't be
were false·, would refute it. relocating my store there. My store needs to be in
a high-visibility site with good growth potential,
The principle above most helps to justify which one of
but the new shopping center will be at either
the following?
Maple Street or West Avenue. The Maple Street
(A) Since no one was present at the origin of the site lacks visibility, and the West Avenue site has
universe, the Big Bang theory of the universe's poor growth potential.
origin is not an empirical theory.
The pattern of reasoning in which one of the following
(B) Since set theory is not an empirical theory,
arguments is most similar to the shopkeeper's pattern of
there is no conceivable observation that would
reasoning?
refute it.
(C) Psychoanalysis is such a flexible theory that no (A) Appiah will not renew the lease on her
conceivable observation could show it to be apartment unless her rent does not increase
false, so it is not an empirical theory. and she is permitted to get a pet. But Appiah's
(D) There are conceivable observations that would landlord prohibits pets and plans to raise the
refute quantum theory, so quantum theory is an rent on every apartment in the building. So
empirical theory. Appiah will not renew her lease.
(E) The theory ofrelativity must be true since, (B) Professor Myers is unable to teach any class
although scientists have conceived of next semester unless it meets in Diaz Hall in
observations that would refute it, it has not yet the afternoon. Myers can teach either ethics or
been refuted. political theory. Ethics classes cannot meet in
the afternoon, but political theory classes can.
Political theory classes can also meet in Diaz
Hall. So Myers will teach political theory next
semester.
(C) Finch will not travel this month unless he
can get inexpensive plane tickets or stay
with a friend. But Finch only wants to travel
to Bridgeport or Hazleton. Plane tickets to
Bridgeport are expensive. Finch cannot stay
with a friend in Hazleton. So Finch will not
travel this month.
(D) The concert will not sell out of tickets unless it
is held at a small venue in the downtown area.
But the concert will either be held at Jensen
Arena, which is a large venue, or at Pembroke
Hall, which is located outside the downtown
area. So the concert will not sell out.
(E) The new park near the river will not be popular
unless it is well lit and its natural scenery
remains undisturbed. The park will be well lit
if lamps are installed near the riverbank. But
installing lamps there would disturb the park's
natural scenery. So the new park will not be
popular.

STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in this test

Stephen Bottomore, "Rediscovering Early Non-Fiction Film" in Film History. ©2001 by John Libbey.

Guy Deutscher, "Does Your Language Shape How You Think?" in The New York Times. ©2010 by The New York Times
Company.

Rochel Gelman and C. R. Gallistel, "Language and the Origin of Numerical Concepts" in Science. ©2004 by American
Association for the Advancement of Science.

David J. Lazerwitz, "The Flow of International Water Law: The International Law Commission's Law of the Non-Navigational
Uses of International Watercourses" in Indiana Journal of Global Legal Studies. ©1993 by Indiana University School of Law.

Mary Mycio, "Chernobyl Paradox" in Natural History. ©2006 by Natural History Magazine, Inc.

Laura Sivitz, "When the Chips Are Down" in Science News. ©2000 by Society for Science & the Public.

www.cracklsat.net
 PrepTest
COMPUTING YOUR SCORE 89
(Nov
2019)
Directions:
Conversion Chart
1. Use the Answer Key on the next page to check For Converting Raw Score to the 120-180 LSAT
your answers. Scaled Score
LSAT Form 0LSA141
2. Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute Reported Raw Score
Score Lowest Highest
your raw score.
180 100 101
179 99 99
3. Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert your
raw score into the 120-180 scale.
178
177 -
98
. -
98
.
176 97 97
175 96 96
174 95 95
173 94 94
172 93 93
Scoring Worksheet 171 92 92
170 91 91
1. Enter the number of questions you answered correctly 169 90 90
in each section. 168 88 89
167 87 87
166 85 86
Number 165 84 84
Correct 164 82 83
163 80 81
162 79 79
SECTION I 161 77 78
SECTION II 160 75 76
159 73 74
SECTION Ill 158 :/1 72
157 69 70
SECTION IV 156 67 68
155 65 66
2. Enter the sum here: 154 63 64
This is your Raw Score. 153 61 62
152 59 60
151 57 58
150 55 56
149 54 54
148 52 53
147 50 51
146 48 49
145 46 47
144 45 45
143 43 44
142 41 42
141 40 40
140 38 39
139 37 37
138 35 36
137 34 34
136 32 33
135 31 31
134 30 30
133 29 29
132 28 28
131 27 27
130 26 26
129 25 25
128 24 24
127 23 23
126 22 22
125
124 -
21
. -
21
.
123 20 20
122 19 19
121 18 18
120 0 17
*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this form.
Click the link below to view answer explanations for this test.
https://www.cracklsat.net/lsat-explanations/preptest-89/

LSAT Resource Links

LSAT Online Practice Tests: https://www.cracklsat.net/lsat/

 LSAT Logical Reasoning Practice Tests:
https://www.cracklsat.net/lsat/logical-reasoning/
 LSAT Logic Games Practice Tests:
https://www.cracklsat.net/lsat/logic-games/
 LSAT Reading Comprehension Practice Tests:
https://www.cracklsat.net/lsat/reading-comprehension/

LSAT Preptest Explanations:

https://www.cracklsat.net/lsat-explanations/
LSAT Tests Downloads:
https://www.cracklsat.net/lsat-downloads/

New SAT Practice Tests:

https://www.cracksat.net
https://www.satpanda.com
PSAT Tests Download:
https://www.crackpsat.net
AP Exams Practice Tests:
https://www.crackap.com

www.cracklsat.net