14-07-2024

1001CMD303083240001 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A bird moves from point (1, –2) to (4, 2). If the speed of the bird is 20 m/s, then the velocity vector
of the bird is

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

2) If & then find the vector having the same magnitude as and same
direction as is __________.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) If then find out the angle of from x-axis.

(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 37°
(4) 53°

4) If a unit vector is represented by then the value of q is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) If angle between unit vectors and is 60°, then value of is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

6) The component of vector along the vector is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4) 5

7) If resultant of and is perpendicular to then angle between and is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The angle subtended by the vector with the x-axis is :-

(1)
sin–1

(2)
sin–1

(3)
cos–1

(4)
cos–1

9) If and are two vectors then the unit vector :-

(1)
Perpendicular to is

(2)
Parallel to is

(3)
Perpendicular to is

(4)
Parallel to is
10) If and are non-collinear unit vectors and , then the value of is
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) If the position vector of a body is and the linear momentum so find
angular momentum :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) If , then the value of is :-

(1) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2

(2)

(3) A + B
(4) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2

13) Two vectors and are inclined to each other at an angle θ. Which of the following is the unit
vector perpendicular to both and :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) White light is incident on the interface of glass and air as shown in the figure. If green light is
just totally internally reflected then the emerging ray in air contains :-

(1) Yellow, orange, red

(2) Violet, indigo, blue
(3) All colours
(4) All colours except green

15) If a prism having refractive index has angle of minimum deviation equal to the refracting
angle of the prism, then the refracting angle of the prism is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

16) In convex lens of focal length F, the minimum distance between object and its real image :-

(1) 3 F
(2) 4 F
(3) Zero
(4) 2 F

17) A convex lens has a focal length f. It is cut into two parts along the dotted line as shown in the

figure. The focal length of each part will be :-

(1)

(2) f

(3)

(4) 2f

18) A 2.0 cm tall object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. What is
the size and nature of the image :-

(1) 4 cm, real

(2) 4 cm, virtual
(3) 1.0 cm, real
(4) None of these

19) In the figure shown here, the angle made by the light ray with the normal in the medium of

refractive index is

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) None of these

20) Apparent depth from upper surface is -

(1) 18 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) 20 cm

21) If the behavior of light rays through a convex lens is as shown in the adjoining figure, then;

(1) µ = µ2
(2) µ < µ2
(3) µ > µ2
(4) µ ≤ µ2

22) A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3
cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the microscope be moved to get the
mark in focus again :-
(1) 1 cm upward
(2) 4.5 cm downward
(3) 1 cm downward
(4) 2 cm upward

23)

The value of sin(23°) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) What is the minimum value of

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 1/2

25) Find out value of sin (240º)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) sin(x3 + 3)

(1) 3x2 sin(x3 + 3)

(2) 3x sin(x3 + 3)
(3) 3x2 cos(x3 + 3)
(4) 3x cos(x3 + 3)

27) The maximum value of y = –3x2 + 12 x + 2 is :

(1) –6
(2) 14
(3) 2
(4) 12

28) Value of is :

(1) 0.9
(2) 1.02
(3) 1.01
(4) 1.2

29) Sum of is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) If the velocity of a particle is given by v = (180 –16x)1/2 m/s, then its acceleration will be :

(1) Zero
(2) 8 m/s2
(3) – 8 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2

31) A body starts from rest. What is the ratio of the distance travelled by the body during the 4th
and 5th second ?(a = constant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A person move 30 m due north, then 20 m east then due south-west. Find net
displacement.

(1) 10 m due N
(2) 20 m due S
(3) 70 m due E
(4) 0

33) A cyclist starts from the centre O of a circular park of radius one kilometre, reaches the edge P
of the park. Then cycles along the circumference and returns to the centre along QO as shown in the
figure. If the round trip (OPQO) takes ten minutes, the net displacement and average speed of the

cyclist (in metre and kilometre per hour respectively) is:

(1) 0, 1

(2)

(3)

(4) 0, 21.4

34) The initial velocity of a particle is 10 m/sec and its retardation is 2 m/sec2. The distance covered
in the fifth second of the motion will be.

(1) 1m
(2) 19m
(3) 50m
(4) 75 m

35) A person travelling in a straight line moves with a constant velocity v1 for certain distance 'x' and
with a constant velocity v2 for next 2x. The average velocity v is given by the relation

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) If = 2 and = 4 and angle between them is 60°, then is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) For the given find the magnitude of such that resultant is along y-axis :-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 5

3) If and = and is perpendicular to then find the value of α :-

(1) α = – 1
(2) α = 1
(3) α = 5
(4) α = – 5

4) If iμj represents ratio of refractive index when a light ray goes from medium i to medium j, then
the product 2μ1 × 3μ2 × 4μ3 is equal to :

(1) 3μ1
(2) 3μ2

(3)

(4) 4μ2

5) A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue is incident normally on a right angled prism.
The refractive index of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue wavelengths are
1.39, 1.44 and 1.47 respectively. The angle for prism is 45°. The prism will :-

(1) separate the red color from the green and blue colors
(2) separate the blue color from the red and green colors
(3) separate all the three colors from the other two colors
(4) not separate even partially, any colors from the other two colors

6) The critical angle of light going from medium A to medium B is θ. The speed of light in medium A
is v. The speed of light in medium B is :

(1)

(2) v sinθ
(3) v cotθ
(4) v tanθ

7) A beam of light from a source is incident normally on a plane mirror fixed at a distance 2m from
the source. The beam is reflected back as a spot on a scale placed just above the source. When the
mirror is rotated through a small angle 1.8°, the spot of the light is found to move through a distance
d on the scale. The distance d is :-

(1) 0.1831 m
(2) 0.1256 m
(3) 3.14 m
(4) None of these

8) A point object is placed at a distance of 10 cm and its real image is formed at a distance of 20 cm
from a concave mirror. If the object is moved by 0.1 cm towards the mirror, the image will shift by
about

(1) 0.4 cm away from the mirror

(2) 0.4 cm towards the mirror
(3) 0.8 cm away from the mirror
(4) 0.8 cm towards the mirror

9) If y = x3 then find average value of y from x = 0 to x = 1.

(1) 3

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Find integral of given function :

(1)

(2)
–
(3)
–

(4)

11) Which of the following match is correct :-

(i) (a) y = x2

(ii) (b) y = –x2

2
(iii) (c) x = y

(iv) (d) x = –y2

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) a b c d

(2) a c b d

(3) d c b a

(4) c a d b
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) For a particle moving along x-axis, if acceleration (constant) is acting along -ve x-axis, then
match the entries of column-I with the entries of column-II.

Column-I Column-II

Initial velocity Particle may move toward +ve X-direction

(A) P.
>0 with increasing speed

Initial velocity Particle may move toward +ve X-direction

(B) Q.
<0 with decreasing speed

Particle may move toward -ve X-direction

(C) x > 0 R.
with increasing speed
 Particle may move toward -ve X-direction
(D) x < 0 S.
with decreasing speed
(1) (A–P,R); (B–S); (C–Q,R); (D–Q,R)
(2) (A–Q,R); (B–R); (C–Q,R); (D–Q,R)
(3) (A–P,R); (B–R); (C–P,R); (D–P,R)
(4) (A–Q,R); (B–S); (C–P,R); (D–P,R)

13) A car starts from P and follows the path as shown in fig. finally car stops at R, find the distance
travelled and displacement of the car are –

(If a = 7m, b = 8m and r = m, π = )

(1) 48m, 36m

(2) 57m, 36m
(3) 36m, 36m
(4) None

14) If velocity of a particle is given by V = 10 + 2t2 m/s. The average acceleration between 2 and 5s
is

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 12 m/s2
(4) 14 m/s2

15) A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10
m/s to 20 m/s while passing through a distance 135 m in t second. The value of t is –

(1) 12
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 1.8

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Match the following :–

(a) Cyclic alcohol (p) CnH2n+2O2

(b) Hydroxy ketone (q) CnH2nO

 (c) Alkanediol (r) CnH2nO2
(1) (a–p), (b–q), (c–r)
(2) (a–q), (b–r), (c–p)
(3) (a–r), (b–q), (c–p)
(4) (a–r), (b–p), (c–q)

2) Correct numbering according to IUPAC rule is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

3) Number of hetero atoms present in the given compound is :–

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) No. of structures possible with C7H16 having five carbons in P.C.C.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9

5) Primary radical is:-

(1) Isopropyl
(2) Iso butyl
(3) Active isopentyl
(4) All

6) Higher homologue for the given compound is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

7) is :

(1) 3-Ethyl-2,4-dimethyl pent-1-ene

(2) 3-Ethyl-2,4-dimethyl pent-4-ene
(3) 3-Isopropyl-2-methyl pent-1-ene
(4) 3-Isopropyl-4-methyl pent-4-ene

8) Which of the following can show metamerism:-

(1) Ethylmethylether
(2) Diethylamine
(3) Butanone
(4) All

9) Which is a pair of chain isomers:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The number of gem dihalides possible with the molecular formula C2H4X2 and C3H6X2 is given by
the set :-

(1) 1, 2
(2) 2, 1
(3) 2, 2
(4) 1, 1
11) Which is optically active :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which can show geometrical isomerism :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

13)

(1) Geometrical isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Diastereomers
(4) 1 & 3 both

14) Given molecules are:-

(1) Identical
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Enantiomers
(4) Structural isomers

15) Which of the following alkenes exhibit

cis-trans isomerism ?

(1) (ii) and (iii)

(2) (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) All of these

16) Which of the following conformer of 2-Methyl butane is most stable :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) How many stereo isomers are possible for the given compound :

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 10

18) Which of the following shows both optical and geometrical isomerism :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

19) Consider the reaction A → B, graph between half life (t1/2) and initial concentration (a) of the

reactant is Hence graph between and time will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The rate of reaction at 227°C is 8.21 atm sec–1, then rate of reaction in terms of M s–1 is :
(1) 2 M s–1
(2) 0.2 M s–1
(3) 5 M s–1
(4) 0.5 M s–1

21) In the following gaseous reaction 2A ⇌ 4B + C The concentration of B was found to increase by
5 × 10–3 mol L–1 in 10 seconds. The rate of reaction is :-

(1) 5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

(2) 4 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 1.25 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 20 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

22) For a given reaction,

4A → 7C + 8D
If initial concentration of A is 9 mol/L. After 10 minutes, the concentration of A becomes 6
mol/L, ROR (rate of reaction) will be :-

(1) 0.75 mol/L min

(2) 0.9 mol/L min
(3) 0.075 mol/L min
(4) 0.6 mol/L min

23) If half life of first order reaction is 69.3 min then rate constant will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The rate constant for a first order reaction which has half life 0.2303 s will be :

(1) 0.3 s–1

(2) 30 s–1
(3) 3 s–1
(4) 300 s–1

25) t1/2 v/s is a straight line graph then the order of reaction is :-

(1) Zero order

(2) First order
(3) Second order
(4) Third order

26) Reaction X + 2Y + 2Z → B takes place by following mechanism –

(i) X + Y 2A ......... (Very fast)
(ii) A + Z → C ......... (Slow)
(iii) 2C + Y → B ......... (Very fast)
The rate law for above reaction is :-

(1) rate = K[Z]

(2) rate = K[X][Y][Z]
(3) rate = K[X]½[Y]½[Z]
(4) rate = K[X]½[Y][Z]

27) 2NO + 2H2 → N2 + 2H2O. The experiment rate law for above reaction is rate = K[NO]2[H2]. When
time is in minutes and the concentration is in mol/L then unit of K is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) For a gaseous reaction r = K[A]2[B]. If volume of container is reduced to 1/3 of initial volume,
then rate of reaction will be :-

(1) 3 times
(2) 27 times
(3) 1/27 times
(4) 1/9 times

29) Which of the following curve is correct for first order reaction

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

30) For a reaction 2NO(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ 2NOCl(g), when concentration of Cl2 is doubled, the rate of
reaction becomes two times of the original. When the concentration of NO is doubled then rate
becomes four times. What is the order of the reaction ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Molecularity of a complex reaction; H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI will be :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) Can not defined

32) The value of rate constant, for a reaction is

10.8 × 10–5 mol L–1s–1 the order of reaction is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 0.5

33)

The rate of a certain hypothetical reaction

A + B + C → Products is given by

The order of the reaction is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

34) For the reaction

N2+3H2 → 2NH3 if = 2×10–4 mol. L–1s–1,

the value of would be:-

(1) 1 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1

(2) 3 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1
(3) 4 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1
(4) 6 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1

35) Azo isopropane decompose according to the equation

(CH3)2CHN=NCH (CH3)2(g)
N2(g) + C6H14(g)
It is found to be a first order reaction. If initial pressure is P0 and pressure of the mixture (total
pressure) after time t is Pt then rate constant k would be :

(1)
k=

(2)
k=

(3)
k=

(4)
k=

SECTION-B

1) The prefix 'Neo' is not used for :–

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 2 & 3 Both

2) Correct selection of P.C.C. according to IUPAC rule is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

3) bond is :–

(1) sp2–sp2
(2) sp2–sp3
(3) sp2–sp
(4) sp–sp

4) Aldehyde can show functional group isomerism with:-

(1) Olefinic ether

(2) Ketone
(3) Olefinic alcohol
(4) All

5) IUPAC name for :-

(1) 4-Amino cyclopent-2-enamide

(2) 3-Amino cyclopent-4-enamide
(3) 4-Amino cyclopent-2-ene carboxamide
(4) 3-Amino cyclopent-4-ene carboxamide

6) Configuration of the given compound is :-

(1) E
(2) R
(3) S
(4) Z

7) Most stable conformer of butane is :-

(1) Gauche
(2) Partially eclipsed
(3) Anti
(4) Fully eclipsed

8) The rate of disappearence of SO2, in the reaction 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 is 1.28 × 10–3 g/s, then rate of
formation of SO3, is :-

(1) 1.60 × 10–3 g/s

(2) 0.8 × 10–3 g/s
(3) 2.4 × 10–3 g/s
(4) 0.64 × 10–4 g/s

9)

The mechanism of the reaction

2NO2 + F2 → 2NO2F is :-
(i) NO2 NO + O
(ii) F2 + O + NO NO2F + F
(iii) F + NO2 NO2F.
Select the correct one

(1) the reaction is of 3rd order

(2) the molecularity of the reaction is sum of molecularities of all steps
(3) reaction is zero order w.r.t. F2
(4) half life of reaction depends upon initial conc. of NO2.

10) Thermal decomposition of a compound is of first order. If 50% of a sample of this compound is
decomposed in 120 min, then how long will it take 90% of the compound to decompose ?

(1) 240 min.

(2) 180.8 min
(3) 398. 8 min
(4) 325. 6 min

11) The reaction

CHCl3(g) + Cl2(g) → CCl4(g) + HCl(g) occurred by this series of steps :
Step 1 : Cl2(g) Cl(g) + Cl(g)
Step 2 : CHCl3(g) + Cl(g) → CCl3(g) + HCl(g)
Step 3 : CCl3 (g) + Cl(g) → CCl4(g) If this reaction is first order in CHCl3 and half order in Cl2, Which
statement from the following is correct ?

(1) Step 1 is the slowest

(2) Step 1 and 2 both are slow
(3) Step 2 must be slower than step 1 and step 3
(4) Step 3 must be the slowest

12) For a certain reaction, 10% of the reactant dissociates in 1 hour, 20% of the reactant dissociate
in 2 hour, 30% of the reactant dissociates in 3 hour. Then the units of rate constant is :-

(1) hour–1
(2) mol L–1 sec–1
(3) L mol–1 sec–1
(4) mol L sec–1

13) For the first order reaction A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g) initial pressure is 90 mm Hg. After 10 minutes the
total pressure of reaction mixture is 225 mm Hg then the value of rate constant is :-

(1) 0.0287 min–1

(2) 0.0693 min–1
(3) 0.1386 min–1
(4) None of these

14) Consider the plots given below for the types of reaction nA → B + C :-

These plots respectively correspond to the reaction orders :-

(1) 0, 1, 2
(2) 1, 2, 0
(3) 1, 0, 2
(4) 2, 1, 0

15) Select the correct diagram for an endothermic reaction that proceeds through two steps, with
the second step is rate determining :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) The phenomenon where single gene exhibiting multiple phenotypic expressions is called :

(1) Pleiotropy
(2) Multiple alleles
(3) Polygenic inheritance
(4) Co-dominance

2)

Match List I with List II :

List I List II

A. Down's syndrome I. 11th chromosome

B. α-Thalassemia II. 'X' chromosome

C. β-Thalassemia III. 21st chromosome

D. Klinefelter's syndrome IV. 16th chromosome

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

3) Match List I with List II

 List I List II

Two or more alternative forms of

A. I. Back cross
a gene

Cross of F1 progeny with

B. II. Co-dominance
homozygous recessive parent

Cross of F1 progeny with any of

C. III. Allele
the parents

D. AB blood group IV. Test cross

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(2) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(3) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(4) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I

4) A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type
of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?

(1) Only red flowered plants

(2) Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants
(3) Only pink flowered plants
(4) Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants

5) Assertion: The underlying mechanism of pleiotropy in most cases is the effect of a gene on
metabolic pathways which contribute towards different phenotypes.
Reason: An example of this is the disease phenylketonuria, which occurs in humans. Choose the
correct option:

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation for assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false
(4) Assertion is false, but reason is true

6) When genotype Tt in garden pea are self-pollinated and fertilisation takes place, the pollen grains
of genotype T have a __ chance to pollinate eggs of the genotype T.

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

7) Fill in the blank :

Alfred Sturtevant used the frequency of ________ between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a
measure of the distance between genes.
(1) Segregation
(2) Linkage
(3) Independent assortment
(4) Recombination

8) Assertion: Human skin color is a classic example of polygenic inheritance.

Reason: Skin color in humans is controlled by more than one gene and the phenotype reflects the
additive effect of each allele.
Which of the following is correct?

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true

9) In a cross between AaBB and AaBb genotypic plant. The ratio of AABB, AaBb, AaBB, AAbb is-

(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 0 : 1 : 0
(4) 1 : 2 : 2 : 0

10) The phenotype/ trait will be dependent on -

(1) Both dominants & recessive allele

(2) Functioning of modified allele
(3) On non-functional enzyme of modified allele
(4) On functioning of the unmodified allele

11) Which of the following was not explained by monohybrid cross ?

(1) In a dissimilar pairs of factors one member of the pair dominates the other
(2) Factors occur in pairs
(3) Law of segregation
(4) Law of independent assortment

12) How many type of gametes can be produced by a diploid organism if it is heterozygous for two
loci

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Eight

13) If a colourblind woman marries with a normal man whose father was colourblind. What are the
chances of their son to be colourblind ?
(1) 0%
(2) 100%
(3) 50%
(4) 25%

14)

Persons with HbAHbs genotype are called carrier of the disease sickle cell Anaemia. This is due to-

They are apparently unaffected but having 50% chance of transmission of mutant gene to
(1)
progeny
(2) They are affected with 100% chance of transmission of mutant gene to progeny
(3) Only females exhibits this sickle cell trait
(4) Only males exhibit this sickle cell trait

15) Statement-I : Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties as pairs.

Statement-II : Some of the contrasting traits selected were smooth or wrinkled seeds, yellow or
green seeds, inflated or constricted pods, green or yellow pods and tall or dwarf plants.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

16) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- Possibility of female becoming haemophilic is extremely rare.
Statement-II :- 8% of male & 0.4 % of females are haemophilic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

17) If selfing occurs in the Pisum sativum having genotype RrYy, then the ratio of round : wrinkled
and yellow : green phenotype will be respectively.

(1) 1 : 1 and 1 : 1
(2) 3 : 9 and 3 : 9
(3) 9 : 1 and 9 : 1
(4) 3 : 1 and 3 : 1

18) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Henking could trace a specific nuclear structure all through spermatogenesis in few insects
In human a pair of x-chromosome are present in the female, whereas the presence of an X and Y
(2)
chromosome are determinant of male characteristic.
(3) Eggs fertilized by sperm having x-chromosome become male
(4) In human beings and in drosophila the males have one X and one Y chromosome.

19) Consider the following statements for some disease :

(a) Cystic fibrosis is non-mendelian disorder.
(b) Phenylketonuria is a Mendelian disorder.
(c) Colour blindness occurs in 8% females.
(d) Haemophilia is a sex linked Non-Mendelian disorder.
(e) In sickle cell anaemia, mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerisation under low
oxygen tension.
Choose the option with correct statements from given below options :

(1) (b) and (e) only

(2) (b) and (a) only
(3) (e) and (d) only
(4) (c) and (d) only

20) Which of the following law is based on Dihybrid cross ?

(1) Law of Dominance

(2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of Purity of gametes
(4) Law of Independent assortment

21) Match the following and choose the correct combination from the option given:-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Rr × Rr (i) 1:1

(B) Rr × rr (ii) 3:1

(C) RrYy × RrYy (iii) 1:1:1:1

(D) RrYy × rryy (iv) 9:3:3:1

(1) A → (ii), B → (iv), C → (iii), D → (i)
(2) A → (i), B → (iii), C → (ii), D → (iv)
(3) A → (iv), B → (iii), C → (ii), D → (i)
(4) A → (ii), B → (i), C → (iv), D → (iii)

22) Statement–I : Nucleosome constitute the repeating unit of a structure in nucleus called
chromatin.
Statement–II : The nucleosome in chromatin are seen as 'beads-on-string' structure under
compound microscope.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
23) Find out the correct statement about DNA :

(1) Form a double helical structure made up of two polypeptide chain

(2) It is an acidic substance present in nucleus which was first identified by F. Miescher in 1869
(3) Phosphate group is linked to 5'–OH of the nucleoside by glycosidic linkage
(4) All four deoxyribonucleotides are always equally present in both the strands.

24) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus 'contain' radioactive DNA
but not radioactive protein.
Statement-II : Viruses grown in radioactive sulphur contain radioactive protein but not radioactive
DNA
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

25) Which one is true among the following for DNA replication ? [Polarity of only template
strands are mentioned]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Match list-I with list-II:

List-I List-II

(a) Bacteriophage ϕ × 174 (i) 4.6 × 106 base pairs

 (b) Bacteriophage lambda (ii) 5386 nucleotides

(c) Escherichia coli (iii) 48502 base pairs

(d) Haploid content of human DNA (iv) 3.3 × 109 base pairs
choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii),(c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii),(c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii),(c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii),(c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

27) If a double stand DNA molecule has 2000 bps then calculate the no. of N-glycosidic linkage ?

(1) 2000
(2) 4000
(3) 8000
(4) 1000

28) In two stands of DNA a purine always comes opposite to pyrimidine and this generates :

(1) Two strands are antiparallel

(2) Two chains are coiled in right-handed fashion
(3) It provide additional stability
(4) It generates approximately uniform distance between two strands

29) The synthesis of discontinuous strand during DNA replication occurs :

(1) On 3' → 5' template and away from replication fork.

(2) On 3' → 5' template and towards replication fork.
(3) On 5' → 3' template and towards replication fork.
(4) On 5' → 3' template and away from replication fork.

30) If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for three generations in bacteria the ratio of
15N/15N : 15N/14N : 14N/14N containing DNA in third generation would be :-

(1) 0 : 1 : 7
(2) 1 : 4 : 0
(3) 0 : 1 : 3
(4) 0 : 1 : 4

31) Find out the correct match from column I, II and III of following table :-

Column II Column III

Column I
Types of Types of
Cross type
genotypes phenotypes

(A) Monohybrid (I) 9 (1) 8

 (B) Dihybrid (II) 27 (2) 4

(C) Trihybrid (III) 3 (3) 2

(1) A – III – 3, B – I – 2, C – II – 1
(2) A – II – 1, B – III – 2, C – I – 3
(3) A – I – 2, B – III – 1, C – II – 3
(4) A – III – 3, B – II – 1, C – I – 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify

the type of given pedigree :-

(1) X-linked dominant

(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) X-linked recessive
(4) Autosomal recessive

33) In a dihybrid cross a garden pea produces 1024 plants in F2 generation. How many plants are
homozygous for a one character and heterozygous for another character?

(1) 256
(2) 512
(3) 64
(4) 128

34) Which of the following criteria should be fulfilled by a molecule to act as a genetic material ?
i - It should be able to replicate
ii - It should be structurally and chemically stable
iii - It should be able to undergo slow mutation
iv - It should be able to express it self in the form of Mendelian character.

(1) Only i and ii

(2) Only ii and iii
(3) Only i, ii and iii
(4) i, ii, iii and iv

35) Assertion (A) : Semiconservative DNA replication was experimentally proved by Mathew
Meselson and Franklin Stahl (1958).
Reason (R) : Meselon and Stahl used radioactive isotope 15N and equilibrium density gradient
centrifugation technique.

(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

SECTION-B

1) When a pea plant with intermediate sized starch grain in seed is crossed with other plant having
small sized starch grain in seed, the total number of seeds obtained in progeny is 630. What is
correct for this progeny ?

(1) 330 (large size), 330 (small size)

(2) 330 (small size), 330 (medium size)
(3) 315 (intermediate size), 315 (small size)
158 (large size), 158 (small size),
(4)
314 (intermediate size)

2) Assertion : According to the Law of Dominance, in a monohybrid cross between two homozygous
plants, one dominant (TT) and one recessive (tt), the F1 generation will show only the dominant trait.
Reason: In a dissimilar pair of factors, one member of the pair dominates the other.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion
Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation for the
(2)
assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but the reason is true

3) Assertion: During Morgan experiments, some genes were very tightly linked and showed very
low recombination.
Reason: In Fruitfly, Eggs fertilised by sperm having an X-chromosome become females.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true

4)

Which of the following is matched incorrectly?

(1) Tightly linked gene – Low recombination

(2) Loosely linked gene – High recombination
(3) Linkage ↓↓ – Crossing over ↓↓
(4) Crossing over ↑↑ – Distance between gene ↑↑
5) When a violet coloured flower is crossed with white coloured flower of pea plant half of the
flowers obtained were violet and half of the flowers were white. Which of the flowing option is not
true regarding this cross ?

(1) It represent back cross

(2) It represent test cross
(3) Violet parental plant is heterozygous
(4) Violet parental plant is homozygous

6) Assertion (A): The pink flower of snapdragon show incomplete dominance.

Reason (R): In pink flowers, both alleles are expressed equally.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

7) Assertion (A) : A girl child can never be colorblind if her father is not colorblind.
Reason (R) : Colorblindness is an x-linked recessive disorder.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

8) When Morgan hybridised yellow-bodied, white-eyed females with brown-bodied, red eyed males
he found :-

The genes for white eye and yellow body were very tightly linked and showed only 1.3 percent
(1)
recombination in F2 generation.
(2) White and miniature wing showed 98.7% recombination in F2 generation.
The genes for white eye and yellow body were very loosely linked and showed only 1.3 percent
(3)
recombination
(4) White and miniature wing showed 62.8% recombination

9) Statement-1 : In male grasshoppers, 50% sperm have no sex chromosome.

Statement-2 : Human males have one of their sex chromosome much shorter than the other.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

10) RNA can act as :-

(a) Genetic material
(b) Adapter molecule
(c) Catalytic molecule
(d) Messenger molecule
(e) Structural molecule

(1) Only (b), (c) and (e)

(2) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Only (c), (d) and (e)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)

11)

A dihybrid test cross of drosophila gives following results ?

++/ab = 448
ab/ab = 440
+b/ab = 58
a+/ab = 54
Calculate the distance between 'a' and 'b' gene ?

(1) 22.4 m.u.

(2) 44 m.u.
(3) 11.2 m.u.
(4) 45 m.u.

12) Which of the following statement is not always true for gene :-

(1) It occurs in pairs.

Segregate at the time of gametes formation and only one of each pair is transmitted to a
(2)
gamete.
(3) One pair segregate independently of another pair.
(4) Independent pairs segregate independently of each other.

13) Choose the correct option about enzyme that participate in replication of DNA :

(1) Helicase (i) Break hydrogen bond

(2) Topoisomerase (ii) Removal of supercoil

(3) DNA polymerase III (iii) Removal of primer

(4) DNA polymerase I (iv) 5'→3' polymerisation

(1) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
(2) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-iii
(3) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv
(4) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv

14) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of nucleic acid. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D
and select the correct option about it:-

Part A Part B Part C Part D

Phospho-diester Nitrogenous
(1) Hydrogen Bond Pentose Sugar
Bond Base

Phospho-diester Nitrogenous
(2) Hydrogen Bond Pentose Sugar
Bond Base

Nitrogenous Phospho-diester
(3) Pentose Sugar Hydrogen Bond
Base Bond

Nitrogenous Phospho-diester
(4) Pentose Sugar Hydrogen Bond
Base Bond
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Light DNA molecule is replicated in a heavy medium. After the four successive replication of
DNA, 16 DNA molecules are formed. Which one the following is true for these DNA?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1)

Contrasting trait in pea plant studied by mendel is:-

(1) Seed shape – Round and wrinkled

(2) Pod shape – Axial and Terminal
(3) Flower colour – Green and yellow
(4) Flower shape – Inflated and constricted

2) Heterogametic female is found in :-

(1) Humans
(2) Drosophila
(3) Birds
(4) Grass hopper

3) Haemophilia and sickle-cell anaemia are :-

(1) Sex linked recessive disease and autosomal recessive disease respectively.
(2) Autosomal linked recessive and sex-linked recessive disease respectively.
(3) Both are Autosomal linked recessive disease.
(4) Both are sex-linked recessive disease

4) In Grass hopper, sex-determination is :-

(1) ZZ-ZO type

(2) XX-XY type
(3) XX-XO type
(4) ZZ-ZW type

5) Which one of the following symbols and representation used in human pedigree analysis is correct
?

(1)
= unaffected male

(2)
= unaffected female

(3)
= male affected

(4)
= mating between close relatives

6) A character which is not expressed in a F1 hybrid is called :-

(1) Dominant
(2) Recessive
(3) Co-dominant
(4) Pleiotropic

7) "Segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters". This
explains :-

(1) Law of independent assortment

(2) Law of segregation
(3) Dominance phenomenon
(4) Postulate of paired factors

8) Independent assortment of genes occurs due to the orientation of chromosomes at :

(1) Metaphase of mitosis

(2) Metaphase I of meiosis
(3) Metaphase II of meiosis
(4) Any phase of the cell division

9) Mendel's law of segregation is based on separation of alleles during :-

(1) Gamete formation

(2) Seed formation
(3) Pollination
(4) Embryonic development

10) According to Mendelism which character of garden pea is showing dominance ?

(1) Terminal position of flower
(2) Green colour in seed coat
(3) Wrinkled seeds
(4) Green pod colour

11) When an F1 individual is crossed with its either of the two parent. Then it is known as :-

(1) Test cross

(2) Back cross
(3) Reciprocal cross
(4) Monohybrid cross

12) Mendel observed that all the F1 progeny plants :-

(1) Resembled either of the two parents

(2) Resembled neither of the parents
(3) Resembled both of the parents
(4) Show 3 : 1 ratio

13) Sickle cell anaemia is caused due to :-

(1) Change of Amino Acid in α – chain of Haemoglobin

(2) Change of Amino Acid in β – chain of Haemoglobin
(3) Change of Amino Acid in both α and β chain of Haemoglobin
(4) Change of Amino acid either α or β chain of Haemoglobin

14) Multiple alleles are present on :-

(1) Same locus of homologous chromosome

(2) Different locus of different chromesome
(3) Different locus of same chromosome
(4) Same locus of non homologous chromosome

15)

The experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by :-

(1) Boveri
(2) Morgan
(3) Bateson
(4) A.Sturtvent

16) The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is:

(1) A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected

(2) It is a sex-linked disease
(3) It is a recessive disease
(4) It is a dominant disease

17) In F2 - generation genotype and phenotypic ratio is same, in case of :-

(1) Co-dominance
(2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Complete dominance
(4) 1 & 2 both

18) Human male can't be heterozygous for -

(1) Sickle cell anemia

(2) Phenylketonuria
(3) Colorblindness
(4) Albinism

19) In honey bee male is developed by :

(1) Fertilization
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Parthenogenesis
(4) Syngamy

20) In a typical Mendelian dihydrid cross, in F2 generation, what is the phenotypic ratio of parental
combinations to new combinations?

(1) 10 : 6
(2) 12 : 4
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

21) The pedigree shows

(1) Dominant inheritance

(2) Recessive inheritance
(3) Sex linked recessive inheritance
(4) Cytoplasmic inheritance

22) Statement-I: Independent pair segregate independently of each other represent gene.
Statement-II: One Pair Segregates independently of Another pair represent chromosome.

(1) Both statement are wrong.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(3) Statement-II is correct, Statement-I is is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is incorrect

23) If the modified allele produce normal enzyme then which statement is not true ?

(1) It will produce phenotype similar to unmodified allele

(2) It will be responsible for transformation of substrate into product
(3) Modified allele is not equivalent to unmodified allele
(4) Modified allele is equivalent to unmodified allele.

24) Which of the following condition is true for co-dominance ?

(1) Phenotype of F1 didn't resemble either of two parents.

(2) Phenotype of F1 resemble both parents.
(3) Phenotype of F1 resemble either of two parents.
(4) Intermediate phenotype appear in F1 generation.

25) The molecule represented is :-

(1) Uridine and it is a pyrimidine

(2) Uridylic acid and it is a nucleoside
(3) Uridine and it is a nucleoside
(4) Uridylic acid and it is a nucleotide

26) Big & furrowed, winkled tongue, broad, flat face, congenital heart disease symptoms are
characteristics of

(1) Down's synndrome

(2) Turner's synndrome
(3) Patau's synndrome
(4) Klinefelters synndrome

27) The salient feature of DNA are :

(i) It is made of two polynucleotide chains
(ii) Two chains have parallel polarity
(iii) Bases in two strands are paired through H-bond
(iv) The two chains are always coiled in left handed fashion

(1) i, iv
(2) i, ii, iii, iv
(3) i, iii
(4) i, ii, iv

28) Match the column I with column II :-

Column-I Column-II

I. Taylor a E. coli

Streptococcus
II. Hershey and Chase b
pneumoniae

III. Meselson and Stahl c Vicia faba

IV. Griffth d Bacteriophage

(1) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-e
(2) I-c, II-b, III-d, IV-e
(3) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
(4) I-c, II-a, III-e, IV-d

29) Select the incorrect statement -

(1) Both nucleic acid (DNA and RNA) have the ability to direct their replication
(2) RNA is labile and easily degradable
(3) Presence of uracil at the place of thymine provide additional stability to DNA
(4) Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate

30) Biochemical characterisation of transforming principle came from experiment by :-

(1) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

(2) Avery, Macleod and Mccarty
(3) Wilkins and Franklin
(4) Fredrick Griffith

31) Which of the following enzyme did not affect transformation in bacteria ?

(1) DNase and RNase

(2) Only DNase
(3) DNase and Protease
(4) RNase and Protease

32) In an E.coli, 4.6 × 106 bps are present, then how many nucleosome are present in E.coli ?

(1) 2.3 × 104

(2) 2.3 × 108
(3) 1.65 × 107
(4) Zero
33) Which of the following is a Mendelian disorder ?

(1) Down's syndrome

(2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Turner's syndrome
(4) Sickle-cell anaemia

34) Enzyme which help in joining Okazaki fragments :-

(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase

(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(3) DNA ligase
(4) DNAse

35) Okazaki fragments are formed in the direction of :-

(1) 3' → 5'

(2) 5' → 3'
(3) 5' → 5'
(4) 3' → 3'

SECTION-B

1)

Blood group of father is B and that of daughter is AB. The genotype of mother could be :-

(1) IAIA or ii
(2) IAIB or ii
(3) IA i or IAIA or IAIB
(4) IAIA or ii or IAIB

2) Both chromosomes as well as genes do not occurs in pairs in the :-

(1) Somatic cells

(2) Fertilised egg
(3) Megaspore mother cell
(4) Microspore

3) From the plant with genotype AaBbCC, In what presentage gametc aBC will be formed ?

(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 75
(4) 33
4) How many type of gametes will be produced by a tetrahybrid plant if all genes are completely
linked ?

(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 2

5) Heterozygous tall plants were crossed with dwarf plants. What will be the percentage of dwarf
plants in the progeny ?

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

6) The colour based character studied by Mendel in pea were :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Given diagram shows certain type of traits in human. Which one of the following option could be

an example of this pattern :-

(1) Haemophilia
(2) Thalassemia
(3) Phenylketonuria
(4) Sickle cell Anaemia

8) Emasculation process is responsible :

(1) To prevent cross pollination

(2) To prevent self pollination
(3) To prevent hybridization
(4) All of these

9) Pick out the correct statements:

(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
(b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy
(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.
(d) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive gene disorder

(1) (a) and (d) are correct

(2) (b) and (d) are correct
(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

10) What is the possibility of blood group in progeny if both parents has AB blood group ?

(1) A, AB and O
(2) Only A & B
(3) Only O
(4) A, B and AB

11) If both parents are carriers for sickle cell anaemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder,
what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?

(1) 100%
(2) No chance
(3) 50%
(4) 25%

12) Mendelian dihybrid and dihybrid with linkage are related with how many chromosomes
respectively ?

(1) 1 pair & 2 pair

(2) 2 pair & 1 pair
(3) 2 pair & 2 pair
(4) 1 pair & 1 pair

13) Which of the following option is not correct regarding Transforming principle ?

(1) S strain → inject into mice → mice die

(2) S strain (heat killed) → inject into mice → mice die
(3) S strain (heat killed) + R strain (live) → inject into mice → mice die
(4) R strain → inject into mice → mice live

14) Identify the missing words A, B, C and D in the following figure related to DNA structure :-

A B C D

(1) Phosphate Deoxyribose Purine Nucleoside

(2) Nucleoside Phosphate Deoxyribose Purine

 (3) Phosphate Purine Deoxyribose Nucleoside

(4) Deoxyribose Nucleoside Purine Phosphate

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Total number of hybrid DNA (N15/N14) and light DNA (N14/N14) produced after 4 generations in
Meselson and Stahl's experiment will be :-

(1) 4 hybrid and 14 light respectively

(2) 2 hybrid and 14 light respectively
(3) 8 hybrid and 8 light respectively
(4) 4 hybrid and 16 light respectively
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 4 3 2 1 2 3 3 3 1 1 2 1 3 2 4 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 1 4 2 2 3 2 3 4 3 3 1 4 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 3 2 3 1 1 2 1 2 2 4 2 1 4 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 3 1 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 4 4 4 3 3 1 3 4 3 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 3 3 4 3 4 2 3 3 4 1 4 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 1 3 4 3 2 3 1 3 3 3 2 3 3 4

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 3 2 2 2 4 1 4 4 4 3 2 1 4 3 4 3 1 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 2 2 4 2 2 2 4 4 3 1 4 2 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 2 3 4 3 4 1 4 4 3 3 2 1 3

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 1 3 4 2 1 2 1 4 2 1 2 1 2 4 4 3 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 2 3 2 3 1 3 3 3 2 4 4 4 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 4 1 4 1 3 1 2 4 4 4 2 2 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

Let
Now, (3λ)2 + (4λ)2 = 72 + 242
⇒ λ=5
∴ .

3) θ = 53°

4)

⇒
⇒ 0.2 + q2 = 1
⇒ q2 = 0.8

5) If angle between and is 60º then angle between and – is 120°.

then = =1

6)

Let and

Component of in direction of

Magnitude of component =

7)
 Now α = 90°

A + Bcosθ = 0

8) Angle made by with x-axis

9) Let is a vector ⊥ to both and

Unit vector along .

10) ,
⇒

⇒ cosθ =
⇒ θ = 60°(Angle between and )
Now,

=
= 1 – 13
= 1 – 13 (1.1.cos60°)

11)

If ,
 12)

θ = 60°

13)

as well as all are perpendicular to but only in case of (2) the

magnitude is equal to 1.

14) For emerging (refraction) i < θc ⇒ θc more

VIBGYOR
λ more

15)

A = 60°

16)

distance between object & its real image is d then

17)
 18)
According to New Cartesian sign convention,
Object distance u = – 15 cm
Focal length of a concave lens, f = – 10 cm
Height of the object ho = 2.0 cm

According to mirror formula,

⇒ v = – 30 cm.
This image is formed 30 cm from the mirror on the same side of the object. It is a real image.
Magnification of the mirror,

m=

⇒ ⇒ h1 = – 4 cm.
Negative sign shows that image is inverted.

The image is real, inverted, of size 4 cm at a distance 30 cm in front of the mirror.

19)

μ1 sin i = μ3 sin r

1 (sin 60°) = sin r ⇒ sin r = ⇒ r = 30°

20)

dapp =

21)

Behaviour of lens is opp. if outside medium is denser than lens medium.

22)

movement of microscope = normal shift

1 cm upwards

23) sin23° = sin(60° – 37°)

= sin60°cos37° – cos60°sin37°
 =

24)

For minimum value of y.

should be maximum

27)

y = –3x2 + 12 x + 2

⇒ –6x = – 12 ⇒ x = 2

→ Maxima
2
y = –3x + 12 x + 2
At x = 2 ⇒ ymax = –3(2)2 + 12(2)+ 2
= –12 + 24 + 2 = 14

28)

∵ If x < < 1 then (1 + x)n = 1 + nx

⇒
⇒ 1.01

29)

a=1

r=

32)
 35)

Average velocity =

36)

37) Component of along x axis is 10 cos 37° = 8 to balance is also 8 along negative x-axis.
then will be along y axis.

38)

If then
so 3 – 2 – α = 0 ⇒ α = 1

39)

μ1 × 3μ2 × 4μ3 =
2 = 4μ1 =

40)

∵ µR < µglass ∴ (θC)red > (θC)glass

Red colour will emerge from the prism and other colour will show TIR.

41)

42)
d = 4 × 1.8°

43)

Mirror formula

If object moves towards the mirror by 0.1 cm then.

u = (10–0.1) = 9.9 cm.
Hence again from mirror formula

i.e., image shifts away from the mirror by 0.4 cm.

47)

In A, if initial velocity and acceleration are in opposite directions, then velocity first decreases,
reaches zero and then increases in opposite direction.
In B, if initial velocity and acceleration are in same direction, so velocity increases continuously and
particle moves along the direction of acceleration.
In C, x > 0 but velocity can be either along +ve or -ve x-axis.
In D, also direction of velocity can be either along +ve or -ve x-axis.

50)

S = ut +

t = 9 sec.

CHEMISTRY
 69)

71) rate of appearance of B =

= 5 × 10–4 mol L–1sec–1

rate of reaction =
= 1.25 × 10–4 mol L–1 sec–1

72)

78)

ri = K[A]2[B]
rf = K (3[A])2 3[B] = 27K[A]2[B] = 27 × ri
rf = 27 times of ri

79) For first order of reaction

rate = k[concentration]
rate ∝ [conc.]

81)

NCERT Pg. # 102, Last para (point 11)

85)

A → B + C
P0 – –
P0 – P1 P1 P1

K= ……(1)
P0 – P1 + P1 + P1 = Pt
P0 + P1 = Pt
P1 = Pt – P0
Put in eq.(1)

93) 2SO2 + O2 ——→ 2SO3

 = =
–3
= 1.28 × 10 g/s

mol/s

= g /s
= 1.60 × 10–3 g/s

95)

= 398.8 min.

96) (Step-2) R = k[CHCl3] [Cl]

(Step-1) keq = ⇒ [Cl] =

∴ R = (k keq) [CHCl3] [Cl2]1/2

97)

For zero order

x = kt

= constant

100) As reaction is endothermic so final product height would be more than reactant.
Second step is rate determinig step so its height or activation energy would be more than first
step.

BIOLOGY-I

101)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 69

102)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 73, 74, 75, 76

103)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 56, 58

104)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 60

109)

Module

110)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 76/77

111)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 59

112)

Module - 9

113)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 73

114)

NCERT Pg #74

115)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 54

116)

NCERT Pg.# 74

118)

NCERT, Pg. # 70

119) NCERT-XII, Pg # 89, 90

120) NCERT-XII, Pg # 80

121)

NCERT Pg. # 74, 79

Hindi Pg. # 87, 83, 82

124)
NCERT Pg. # 85

126)

NCERT XII Pg # 80

127)

NCERT Pg.# 81

128)

NCERT Pg.# 81

129)

NCERT Pg.# 106

134)

NCERT Pg # 103

135) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 105

139) NCERT (XII) Pg # 67

140)

NCERT- XII, Pg.# 59

142)

NCERT-XII Pg # 89, 90

143)

NCERT, Pg. # 67

144)

NCERT Pg. # 86

149) XIIth New NCERT, Pg - 82

BIOLOGY-II

172)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 82

174) NCERT (XII) Pg # 61

 176)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 92(E), 101(H)

180)

NCERT XII Pg # 85

181) NCERT-XII Pg. # 85

182) NCERT XII Pg # 83

183)

NCERT XII Pg # 73

184)

NCERT-XII Pg#90

198)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 100