09-06-2024

1016CMD303031240002 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1)

The image formed by a concave mirror -

(1) is always Real

(2) is always Virtual
(3) is certainly real is object is virtual
(4) is certainly virtual is object is real

2) The image for the converging beam after refraction through the curved surface is formed at:

(1) x = 40 cm
(2) x = 10 cm

(3)

(4)

3) A square of side 3 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10

cm. The centre of the square is at the axis of the mirror and the plane is normal to the axis. The area
enclosed by the image of the wire is -

(1) 4 cm2
(2) 6 cm2
(3) 16 cm2
(4) 36 cm2

4)

An air bubble in a glass slab (μ = 1.5) is 5 cm deep when viewed through one face and 2 cm deep
when view through the opposite face. What is the thickness of the slab ?
(1) 7.0 cm
(2) 7.5 cm
(3) 10.0 cm
(4) 10.5 cm

5) Column -I contains a list of mirrors along with the position of object. Match this with Column -II
describing the nature of the image.

Column-I Column-II

Real,
(A) (P) inverted,
enlarged

Virtual,
(B) (Q) erect,
enlarged

Virtual,
(C) (R) erect,
diminished

Virtual,
(D) (S)
erect

(1) (A) - P; (B) - R,S; (C) -S; (D)-Q,S

(2) (A) - R,S; (B) - P; (C) -S; (D)-Q,S
(3) (A) - P; (B) - Q,S; (C) -R,S; (D)-R
(4) (A) - Q,S; (B) - S; (C) -P; (D)-R,S

6) White light is incident on the interface of glass and air as shown in the figure. If green light is

just totally internally reflected then the emerging ray in air contains

(1) Yellow, orange, red

(2) Violet, indigo, blue
(3) All colours
(4) All colours except green

7) A light wave travels from glass to water. The refractive index for glass and water are and
respectively. The value of the critical angle will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Transmission of light in optical fibre is due to :

(1) Scattering
(2) Diffraction
(3) Polarisation
(4) Multiple total internal reflections

9) A thin prism of angle 8° made of glass of refractive index μ1 = 1.5 is combined with another prism
of glass of refractive index μ2 = 1.64. The combination of the prisms produces dispersion without
deviation. The angle of the second prism should be :

(1) 6.25°
(2) 5.15°
(3) 4.3°
(4) 2.4°

10) A small angle prism (µ = 1.62) gives a minimum deviation of 4.8°. The angle of prism is :-

(1) 7.74°
(2) 5°
(3) 6.36°
(4) 3°

11) The refractive index of red, violet and yellow light are respectively 1.42, 1.62 and 1.50. The
dispersive power of the medium will be

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.3
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.1

12) One face of a prism with a refracting angle 30° is coated with silver. A ray is incident on another
face at an angle of 45° is refracted and reflected from the silver coated face & retraces its path. The

refractive index of prism is :

(1)
(2) 2
(3)
(4) 1.5

13)

An object is placed in front of a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm at a distance equal to focal
length find position of image.

(1) 30 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) 10 cm

14) The mark at the bottom of the liquid appears to rise by 0.1 m. the depth of the liquid is 1 m. Find
the refractive index of the liquid.

(1) 4/3
(2) 9/10
(3) 10/9
(4) 3/2

15) A virtual image larger than real object can be produced by -

(1) Convex mirror

(2) Plane mirror
(3) Concave mirror
(4) All

16) A convex lens of crown glass (n=1.525) will behave as a divergent lens if immersed in :

(1) Water (n=1.33)

(2) In a medium of n = 1.525
(3) Carbon disulphide n = 1.66
(4) It cannot act as a divergent lens

17) A plano convex lens is made of refractive index 1.6. The radius of curvature of the curved
surface is 60 cm. The focal length of the lens is
(1) 50 cm
(2) 100 cm
(3) 200 cm
(4) 400 cm

18) The refractive index of a certain glass is 1.5 for light whose wavelength in vacuum is 6000 Å. The
wavelength of this light when it passes through glass is

(1) 4000 Å
(2) 6000 Å
(3) 9000 Å
(4) 15000 Å

19) The velocity time graph of a car moving along a straight road is shown in figure. The average

velocity of car in first 10 second is :-

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 8 m/s

20) The velocity of a body depends on time according to the equation v = 20 + 0.1 t2. The body is
undergoing :-

(1) uniform acceleration

(2) uniform retardation
(3) non-uniform acceleration
(4) zero acceleration

21) A car moving with a speed of 40 km/h can be stopped by applying brakes after at least 2m. If the
same car is moving with a speed of 120 km/h., what is the minimum stopping distance ?

(1) 2 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 18 m

22) The initial velocity of a particle is 10 m/sec and its retardation is 2 m/sec2. The distance covered
in the fifth second of the motion will be

(1) 1 m
(2) 19 m
(3) 50 m
(4) 75 m

23) A particle moves in a straight line for 20 seconds with velocity 3m/s and then moves with
velocity 4 m/s for another 20 seconds and finally moves with velocity 5 m/s for next 20 seconds.
What is the average velocity of the particle ?

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) None

24) Velocity - time graph for a particle moving in a straight line is given the displacement of the

particle in first 4 seconds is :

(1) 0
(2) 2m
(3) 4m
(4) 1m

25) A particle is moving on a curved path. Then which is correct :-

[Vinst. = Instantaneous speed, = Instantaneous velocity]

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of above

26) The displacement-time graph of a moving particle is shown in figure. The instantaneous velocity

of the particle is negative at the point:-

(1) D
(2) F
(3) C
(4) E

27) A particle starts from rest and move with constant acceleration. Its velocity-displacement curve
is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Which of the following velocity-time graphs represent uniform motion ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last 't'
second of its ascent is :-

(1) ut
(2)

(3)

(4) (u + gt)t

30) A body starts from rest. What is the ratio of the distance travelled by the body during the 4th and
3rd second ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A ball is thrown upward with a velocity of 100 m/s. It will reach the ground after ?

(1) 10 s
(2) 20 s
(3) 5 s
(4) 40 s

32) The ratio of the distances traversed, in successive intervals of time by a body falling from rest,
are :-

(1) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9...........
(2) 2 : 4 : 6 : 8 : 10...........
(3) 1 : 4 : 7 : 10 : 13...........
(4) None of these

33) The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30° and 45° with the x-

axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3)
(4)
34) Water drop fall at regular intervals from a tap 5 m above the ground. The third drop is leaving
the tap at the instant the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the second drop
at that instant ?

(1) 1.25 m
(2) 2.50 m
(3) 3.75 m
(4) 4.00 m

35) If for a particle position x ∝ t2 then :-

(1) Velocity is constant

(2) Acceleration is constant
(3) Acceleration is variable
(4) None of these

SECTION-B

1) A glass convex lens (µg = 1.5) has a focal length of 8 cm when placed in air what would be the
focal length of the lens when it is immersed in water (µw = 1.33) :-

(1) 2 cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 16 cm
(4) 32 cm

2) The correct conclusion that can be drawn from these figures is

(1) µ1 < µ but µ < µ2

(2) µ1 > µ but µ < µ2
(3) µ1 = µ but µ < µ2
(4) µ1 = µ but µ2 < µ

3) Find the apparent depth of the object seen by observer A (in the figure shown) :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on a right angled prism. The
refractive index of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue wavelengths are 1.42,

1.44 and 1.47, respectively. The prism will :-

(1) separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours
(2) separate the blue colour part from the red and green colours
(3) separate all the three colours from one another
(4) not separate the three colours at all

5) What is the refractive index of a material of a plano-convex lens. If the radius of curvature of the
convex surface is 10 cm and focal length of the lens is 30 cm ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The focal length of a convex lens is 10 cm and its refractive index is 1.5. If the radius of curvature
of one surface is 7.5 cm, the radius of curvature of the second surface will be :-

(1) 7.5 cm
(2) 15.0 cm
(3) 75 cm
(4) 5.0 cm

7) Electromagnetic radiation of frequency n, wavelength λ, travelling with velocity v in air, enters a

glass slab of refractive index μ. The frequency, wavelength & velocity of light in the glass slab will
be respectively :-
(1)

(2)
n,
n, λ,
(3)

(4)
,v

8) Starting from rest, acceleration of a particle is a = 2(t – 1). The velocity of the particle at t = 5s is
:-

(1) 15 m/sec
(2) 25 m/sec
(3) 5 m/sec
(4) None of these

9) A particle starts moving from rest with acceleration 2 m/sec2. Distance travelled by it in 5th half
second is :-

(1) 1.25 m
(2) 2.25 m
(3) 6.25 m
(4) 30.25 m

10) A car accelerates from rest at constant rate of 2 ms–2 for some time. Then, it retards at a
constant rate of 4 ms–2 and comes to rest. What is the maximum speed attained by the car, if it
remains in motion for 3 seconds :-

(1) 2 ms–1
(2) 3 ms–1
(3) 4 ms–1
(4) 6 ms–1

11) A ball thrown vertically upward from the top of a tower with speed 40 m/s strikes the base of the
tower is 10 sec. The height of tower is -

(1) 50 m
(2) 100 m
(3) 200 m
(4) 300 m

12) Acceleration-time graph of a body is shown. The corresponding velocity-time graph is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The figure give below shows the displacement and time, (x – t) graph of particle moving along a

straight line :-

(1) The particle is accelerated throughout its motion.

(2) The particle moves at constant velocity upto a time t0 and then stops.
(3) The particle is at rest
(4) The particle is accelerated continuously for time t0 then moves with constant velocity.

14) A body starts from rest and move with a uniform acceleration of 10 m/s2 for 5 second and during
the next 10 seconds, if moves with uniform velocity. The total distance travelled by the body is :-

(1) 100 m
(2) 125 m
(3) 500 m
(4) 625 m

15) The displacement of a particle is given by y = a + bt + ct2 – dt4. The initial velocity and
acceleration are respectively.

(1) b, –4d
(2) –b, 2c
(3) b, 2c
(4) 2c, –4d

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1)

The ratio of minimum frequency of Lyman & Balmer series will be :–

(1) 1.25
(2) 0.25
(3) 5.4
(4) 10

2) In H–atom, electron transits from 6th orbit to 2nd orbit in multi step. Then total spectral lines
(without Balmer series) will be :-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 4
(4) 0

3)

Spin angular momentum for electron will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

4) What is the ratio of the De-Broglie wave lengths for electrons accelerated through 200 volts
and 50 volts :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 10
(4) 10 : 3
5) Calculate the uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass 9.1 × 10–28g) moving with a velocity
of 3 × 104 cm sec–1, if the uncertainity in velocity is 0.011% ?

(1) 1.92 cm
(2) 7.68 cm
(3) 0.175 cm
(4) 3.84 cm

6) The number of orbitals in n = 3 are :-

(1) 3
(2) 18
(3) 9
(4) 16

7) The two particles A and B have de Broglie wavelengths 1 nm and 5 nm respectively. if mass of A is
four times the mass of B, the ratio of kinetic energies of A and B would be :-

(1) 5 : 1
(2) 25 : 4
(3) 20 : 1
(4) 5 : 4

8) For principle quantum number n = 4, the total number of orbitals having ℓ = 3 is :-

(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 9

9) Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers represents an impossible arrangement?

n ℓ m s

(1) 3 2 –2 + 1/2

(2) 4 0 0 + 1/2

(3) 3 2 –3 + 1/2

(4) 5 3 0 – 1/2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO2 is approx.

(1) 1.2 × 1023
(2) 6 × 1022
(3) 6 × 1023
(4) 12 × 1023

11) Calculate the number of atom present in one drop of water having mass 1.8 g.

(1) 0.3 NA
(2) 0.2 NA
(3) 0.1 NA
(4) 0.01 NA

12) 1 mole of CH4 contains :

(1) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of H

(2) 4 g atom of hydrogen
23
(3) 1.81 × 10 molecules of CH4
(4) 3.0 g of carbon

13) The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of element X(at. wt. = 10) and 50% of
element Y(at. wt. = 20) is:-

(1) XY
(2) X2Y
(3) XY2
(4) X3Y

14) One atomic mass unit in kilogram is :-

(1) 1/NA
(2) 12 / NA
(3) 1/1000 NA
(4) 1000 / NA

15) The number of hydrogen atoms in 0.9 gm glucose, C6H12O6, is same as :-

(1) 0.048 gm hydrazine, N2H4

(2) 0.17 gm ammonia, NH3
(3) 0.30 gm ethane, C2H6
(4) 0.03 gm hydrogen, H2

16) Which of the following contain largest number of carbon atoms ?

(1) 15 gm ethane, C2H6

(2) 40.2 gm sodium oxalate, Na2C2O4
(3) 72 gm glucose, C6H12O6
(4) 35 gm pentene, C5H10

17) If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Number of waves produced by an electron in one complete revolution in nth orbit is :-

(1) n
(2) n2
(3) (n + 1)
(4) (2n + 1)

19) Which one of the following is the smallest cation :-

(1) Na+
(2) Mg+2
(3) Ca+2
(4) Al+3

20) Correct order of Acidic nature ?

(1) LiOH < KOH < RbOH

(2) H3BO3 < H2CO3 < HNO3
(3) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2
(4) HF > HCl > HBr

21) The element with higest negative electron gain enthalpy will belong to :-

(1) Period 2, group 18

(2) Period 2, group 17
(3) Period 3, group 17
(4) Period 2, group 1

22) Correct order of ionisation energy is-

(1) N > O > F

(2) N < O < F
(3) N < O > F
(4) N > O < F

23) Which process requires absorption of energy ?

(1) Cl → Cl¯
(2) F → F¯
(3) O → O¯
(4) N → N3–

24) Which of the following is correct order of IP1 ?

(1) Ga > Ca
(2) Mg > Al
(3) P < S
(4) Zr > Hf

25) Statement-I :- F atom has a less negative electron gain enthalpy than Cl atom.
Statement-II :- Additional electron is repelled more efficiently by 3p electron in Cl atom.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

26) If IE1 of O– ion is equal to '+ X' ev/atom then ΔHeg of oxygen atom is equal to :-

(1) – X ev
(2) + 2X ev
(3) + 'X' ev
(4) – '2X' ev

27) Which of the following property is regularly ↑ from Li to F ?

(a) Electronegativity
(b) Electron affinity
(c) Ionisation energy
(d) σ Screening constant
(e) Zeff

(1) a, b & c
(2) b, c & d
(3) a, c & d
(4) a, d & e

28) Match the oxide given in column-I with its property given in column-II.
 Column-I Column-II

(a) Na2O (i) Acidic

(b) CO (ii) Amphoteric

(c) Al2O3 (iii) Neutral

(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Basic

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Which of the following molecules are expanded octet rule.

SF6, PF5, BeCl2, BF3

(1) BeCl2, SF6

(2) SF6, PF5
(3) SF6, BF3
(4) PF5, BeCl2

30) Which of the following pair of elements can form an ionic compound ?

(1) Na and Ca
(2) K and O
(3) O and Cl
(4) Si and F

31) Ions are formed from neutral atoms by :-

(1) Loss of electrons

(2) Gain of electrons
(3) Sharing of electrons
(4) Loss or gain of e–

32) The decreasing order of ionic character of N–H, F–H, C–H and O–H is :-

(1) N–H > F–H > C–H > O–H

(2) F–H > N–H > C–H > O–H
(3) O–H > C–H > F–H > N–H
(4) F–H > O–H > N–H > C–H

33) Valency is best described as :-

(1) Total electrons in an atom

(2) Atomicity of an element
(3) Oxidation no. of an element
(4) Combining capacity of an element

34) Which molecule does not exist ?

(1) OF2
(2) OF4
(3) SF2
(4) SF4

35) A trend uncommon to both group Ist A and VIIth A elements in periodic table as atomic no.
increase is :-

(1) Atomic radius increase

(2) Electronegativity decrease
(3) Reactivity increase
(4) Valency remains same

SECTION-B

1) A neutral atom of an element has 2K, 8L, 11 M and 2N electrons. The number of p-electrons in the
atom are :-

(1) 2
(2) 12
(3) 10
(4) 6

2) Which of the following configuration follows the Hund's rule :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) and (2)

3) The variation of radial probability density (Ψ2) with the distance of electron from the nucleus (r)
for 2p orbital is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) One mol of CO2 contains –

(1) 3 atom
23
(2) 18.1 × 10 molecules of CO2
(3) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of oxygen
(4) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of carbon

5) An oxide of metal M has 40% by mass of oxygen. Metal M has atomic mass of 24. The empirical
formula of the oxide will be :-

(1) M2O
(2) M2O3
(3) MO
(4) M3O4

6) How many moles of electron-weight one kilogram ?

(1) 6.023 × 1023

(2)
(3)

(4)

7) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Two electrons can have the same value of three quantum numbers n, ℓ and m in same
atom.
Statement-II : No two electrons in an atom can have, the same set of four quantum numbers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

8)

The first ionisation enthalpies (kJ mol–1) of Be and B respectively are.

(1) 801, 899

(2) 899, 801
(3) 899, 899
(4) 801, 801

9) The second ionisation energy is maximum for :

(1) Ba
(2) Be
(3) Mg
(4) B

10) The maximum chemical reactivity at the extreme left is exhibited by the ___(I)___ and at the
extreme right shown by the ___(II)___ . The (I) and (II) are respectively.

(1) Loss of an and gain of an

(2) Loss of an and Loss of an

(3) Gain of an and Gain of an

(4) Gain of an and Lain of an

11) How many of the following oxides in a aqueous medium turn's blue litmus paper into red.
N2O, Cl2O, P4O6, CO, CO2, Cl2O7, NO2, NO, Al2O3.

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 7

12) Incorrect statement about valency is :

(1) It increases from IA to IVA with respect to hydrogen.

(2) Generally it increases IA to VIIA with respect to oxygen.
(3) Maximum covalency of second period elements is 4
(4) Third period elements can expand their covalency upto 8

13) An electron deficient compound among the following is :-

(1) Si2H6
(2) BH3
(3) PH3
(4) C2H6

14) In which molecule does the chlorine atom has positive partial charge :-

(1) HCl
(2) BrCl
(3) OCl2
(4) SCl2

15) The statement that "the electronegativity of N on the Pauling scale is 3.0 in all the nitrogen
compounds" is incorrect because :-

(1) On the basis of oxidation number electronegativity of an element is a variable property.

(2) Pauling scale is not used to measure electronegativity.
(3) The electronegativity of N on the Pauling scale is 7.0.
(4) None of the above

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Find out correct statements -

(A) Mammals, Amphibia, Freshwater fish are ureotelic.
(B) Waste product of bird and insect is same.
(C) Fish eliminate ammonia through gill surfaces as NH4+.
(D) Uric acid is most toxic form and requires large amount of water for its elimination.
(E) Excretory structures of most insects are Malpighian tubules.

(1) A, B, E
(2) A, B, C, E
(3) B, C, E
(4) All statement are correct

2) Assertion (A) :- Glomerular filtration is considered as a process of ultrafiltration.

Reason (R) :- Blood is filtered so finely through these membranes, that almost all the constituents
of the plasma except the proteins pass onto the lumen of the Bowman's capsule.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

3) Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a few conical masses called medullary pyramids
(1)
projecting into the calyces.
Inside the kidney, the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal
(2)
pelvis.
(3) Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule is called the renal corpuscle.
Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) and distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of the
(4)
nephron are situated in the cortical region of kidney.

4) Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks (A,B,C) in the given statement ?
"A comparison of the volume of the filtrate formed per day i.e. __A__ with that of the urine released
i.e. __B__ ; suggest that nearly __C__ percent of the filtrate has to be reabsorbed by renal tubules.

A B C

1. 180 lit/day 1.5 lit/day 98

2. 110 lit/day 1.5 lit/day 99

3. 180 lit/day 1.5 lit/day 99

4. 180 lit/day 2.5 lit/day 99

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Recognise the figure. Which of the following is correct ?

(1) 'a' is the branch of renal vein.
(2) 'b' carries blood towards the glomerulus.
(3) 'c' is the tuft of capillaries formed by the 'a'.
(4) 'd' carries out first step in urine formation.

6) Nephridia are the tubular excretory structures of ________ and ________ :-

(1) Earthworm, other arthropods

(2) Earthworm, other annelids
(3) Cockroach, other annelids
(4) Earthworm, other molluscs

7) Assertion (A) :- PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium.

Reason (R) :- Brush border increases the surface area for reabsorption.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are True & the (R) is a correct explanation of the (A).
(2) Both (A) & (R) are True but (R) is not a correct explanation of the (A).
(3) (A) is True but the (R) is False.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are False.

8) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

Allows passage
Ascending limb
(a) of small amount (i)
of Henle's loop
of urea

Minimum Descending limb

(b) (ii)
reabsorption of Henle's loop

Selective secretion Collecting

(c) (iii)
of H+, K+ and NH3 duct

Permeable to
water but almost
(d) (iv) DCT
impermeable
to electrolytes
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

9) Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by -

(1) Birds and Amphibian

(2) Land snails and Insects
(3) Reptiles and Mammals
(4) Aquatic insects and Reptiles
10) In humans, kidneys are situated between the levels of -

(1) Last lumbar and 3rd thoracic vertebrae

(2) 2nd and 7th ribs
(3) Last thoracic and 3rd lumbar vertebrae
(4) 5th thoracic and last thoracic vertebrae

11) In human kidney, the cortex extends in between the medullary pyramids as -

(1) Renal pelvis

(2) Renal Calyx
(3) Renal capsule
(4) Renal columns

12) Major forms of nitrogenous wastes excreted by the animals include -

(1) Urea and uric acid

(2) Uric acid and H2O
(3) NH3 and H2O
(4) CO2 and Urea

13) ____ is the major site of selective secretion.

Choose the correct option :-

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Loop of Henle
(4) Collecting duct

14) In ureotelic animals, ammonia produced by metabolism is converted into urea in the -

(1) Kidney
(2) Liver
(3) Lungs
(4) Intestine

15) The __________ emerging from the glomerulus forms a fine capillary network around the renal
tubule.
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank :-

(1) Renal artery

(2) Afferent arteriole
(3) Renal vein
(4) Efferent arteriole

16) In majority of nephrons, the loop of Henle extends -

(1) Deep in medulla
(2) Only very little into medulla
(3) Upto the ureter
(4) Upto urinary bladder

17) Protonephridia are the excretory structures in -

(1) Prawns, amphibia

(2) Amphioxus, rotifers
(3) Earthworm, crustaceans
(4) Annelids, cockroach

18) A minute vessel of __________ network runs parallel to the Henle’s loop forming vasa recta.
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.

(1) Glomerular capillary

(2) Renal vein
(3) Peritubular capillary
(4) All of these

19) The DCTs of many nephrons open into a -

(1) Hairpin shaped region

(2) U- shaped minute vessel
(3) Highly coiled tubular region
(4) Straight tube

20) Which of the following nitrogenous waste may be retained in the kidney matrix of some animals
to maintain a desired osmolarity ?

(1) Urea
(2) Ammonia
(3) Uric acid
(4) CO2

21) Towards the centre of the _________ surface of the kidney is a notch called hilum.
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank :-

(1) Inner convex

(2) Outer concave
(3) Outer convex
(4) Inner concave

22)

Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is called -

(1) Malpighian tubule
(2) Renal calyx
(3) Renal corpuscle
(4) Renal capsule

23) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by the efferent arteriole - a fine branch of
renal artery.
Statement-II : The renal tubule begins with a double walled cup-like structure called Bowman’s
capsule.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

24) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Atherosclerosis affects the vessels that supply blood to the heart muscle.
Statement-II : The action potential is conducted to the ventricular side by the AVN and Bundle of
His from where the AV bundle transmits it through the entire ventricular musculature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

25) Fill in the blanks.

The deoxygenated blood pumped into the ___A___ is passed on to the lungs from where the
oxygenated blood is carried by the ___B___ into the left atrium. This pathway constitutes the ___C___
circulation.

A-pulmonary vein, B-pulmonary artery,

(1)
C-pulmonary
A-systemic artery, B-systemic vein,
(2)
C-systemic
A-pulmonary artery, B-pulmonary vein,
(3)
C-pulmonary
A-systematic vein, B-systemic artery,
(4)
C-systemic

26) The ___A___ of the nephron are situated in the cortical region of the kidney whereas the ___B___
dips into the medulla.
(i) Malpighian corpuscle
(ii) Loop of Henle
(iii) PCT
(iv) DCT
Choose the correct option in the table that matches with A and B.

A B

1 i, iii, iv ii

2 ii, iii i, iv

3 i, ii, iv iii

4 i, iii ii, iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Ventricular systole increases the ventricular pressure causing the -

(1) Closure of bicuspid valve

(2) Closure of semilunar valves
(3) Closure of tricuspid valve
(4) 1 and 3 both

28) ECG monitoring machine that shows voltage traces on a screen, makes the sound
"peeeeeeeeeeee" as -

(1) The patient becomes normal.

(2) The patient goes into cardiac arrest.
(3) Patient goes into heart attack.
(4) The patient goes into heart failure.

29) Normal activities of the heart are regulated -

(1) By specialised muscles

(2) Intrinsically
(3) By nodal tissue
(4) All of these

30) By counting the number of which ECG peak in a given time period, one can determine the heart
beat rate of an individual ?

(1) T wave
(2) QRS complex
(3) P wave
(4) T-P gap

31) Under normal physiological conditions, how many cardiac cycles are performed per minute ?
(1) 1
(2) 0.8
(3) 72
(4) 60

32) Which of the following layer is thin in veins as compared to arteries ?

(1) Tuinca externa

(2) Tunica media
(3) Tunica intima
(4) All of these

33) The hepatic portal vein carries blood from -

(1) Intestine to heart

(2) Liver to heart
(3) Heart to liver
(4) Intestine to liver

34) Cardiac activity can be moderated by the autonomic nervous system. Choose the correct option
:-

(1) The parasympathetic system stimulates heart rate and stroke volume.
(2) The sympathetic system stimulates heart rate and stroke volume.
(3) The parasympathetic system decreases the heart rate but increase stroke volume.
(4) The sympathetic system decreases the heart rate but increase stroke volume.

35) Second heart sound (dub) is associated with -

(1) The closure of the semilunar valves.

(2) The opening of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves.
(3) The opening of the semilunar valves.
(4) The closure of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves.

SECTION-B

1) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III ?

Column-I Column-II Column-III

In medulla Concentration
1 PCT a i
of kidney of urine

Major site
Loop of
2 b Podocytes ii of selective
Henle
secretion
 Brush
3 DCT c iii Ultrafiltration
border

Conditional
Bowman's In cortex
4 d iv reabsorption
capsule of kidney
of H2O, salts
(1) 2-(a)-(i), 1-(c)-(iv), 3-(d)-(ii), 4-(b)-(iii)
(2) 1-(c)-(ii), 2-(b)-(i), 3-(d)-(iv), 4-(a)-(iii)
(3) 2-(a)-(i), 1-(c)-(ii), 4-(b)-(iii), 3-(d)-(iv)
(4) 3-(d)-(iv), 1-(c)-(i), 3-(a)-(ii), 4-(b)-(iii)

2)

Excretory system of the human beings consists of following parts :-

(I) Pair of kidneys
(II) One pair of ureters
(III) Urinary bladder

(IV) Urethra (V) Penis (VI) Spleen

(VII) Liver
(1) I, II III and VI
(2) I, II, III and VII
(3) I, II, III and IV
(4) I, II, III, IV, V and VII

3) Read the given statements and choose the correct statement/s :-

(a) Glomerulus is tuft of capillaries.
(b) Glomerulus is formed by afferent arteriole.
(c) Blood from glomerulus is carried away by an efferent arteriole.
(d) Glomerulus encloses Bowman’s capsule.

(1) a,b
(2) a,b,c
(3) a,b,c,d
(4) Only d

4) Identify A-D in the given structure and choose the correct option accordingly :-
 A-Medullary pyramid, B-Cortex,
(1)
C-Renal column, D-Ureter
A-Medullary pyramid, B-Cortex,
(2)
C-Renal column, D-Urethra
A-Urethra, B-Cortex,
(3)
C-Renal column, D-Medullary pyramid
A-Urethra, B-Medullary pyramid,
(4)
C-Renal column, D-Cortex

5)

Which statement is not correct regarding human excretory system ?

(1) Inside the kidney, there are two zones inner cortex, outer medulla
(2) Double walled cup like structure is called Bowman's capsule
(3) The cortex extends in between the medullary pyramid called columns of Bertini
(4) Blood from the glomerulus is carried away by an efferent arteriole.

6) Find out correct match from following table

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Nephridia Earthworm Uric acid

Malpighian
(ii) Amphioxus Ammonia
tubules

(iii) Gill surface Bony fishes Ammonia

(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) only
(3) (iii) only
(4) (i) and (ii)

7) Read the following statements :-

(a) Ammonia, urea, uric acid are the major forms of nitrogenous wastes.
(b) Uric acid is the most toxic form.
(c) Uric acid can be removed with a minimum loss of water.
(d) Ammonia is the most toxic form.
Choose the correct statements :-

(1) Only c
(2) c + b
(3) c + d + a
(4) c and d

8) Which structure performs the excretory function in prawns ?

(1) Nephridia
(2) Malpighian tubule
(3) Protonephridia
(4) Green glands

9) Blood from the glomerulus is carried away by -

(1) Afferent arteriole

(2) Renal artery
(3) Efferent arteriole
(4) Renal vein

10) Inner to the hilum is a broad funnel shaped space called -

(1) Renal medulla

(2) Renal column
(3) Renal pelvis
(4) Renal corpuscle

11) Ammonia is generally excreted by diffusion across body surfaces or through gill surfaces as -

(1) ions
(2) N2 gas
(3) Urea
(4) NH3 gas

12) Read the following statements :

(a) The loop of Henle is too short and extends only very little into the medulla.
(b) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced.
(c) Loop of Henle is very long and runs deep into the medulla.
(d) Renal corpuscle lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.
Which of the above mentioned statements are true regarding juxta medullary nephron ?

(1) c and d only

(2) Only c
(3) All except (a)
(4) a, b and d only

13) Fill in the blank :

The ________ circulation provides nutrients, O2 and other essential substances to the tissues and
takes CO2 and other harmful substances away for elimination.

(1) Systemic
(2) Pulmonary
(3) Coronary
(4) Portal

14) If repeated checks of blood pressure of an individual is ________ or higher, it shows hypertension.
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.

(1) 140/90 mmHg

(2) 80/120 mmHg
(3) 90/140 mmHg
(4) 120/80 mmHg

15) The volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute is -

(1) Stroke volume

(2) Beat volume
(3) Cardiac output
(4) 1 and 2 both

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Synecology is the study of :–

(1) Individual plant

(2) A population
(3) A community
(4) Individual animal

2) An assemblage of population of plant, animal bacteria and fungi that live in an area and interact
with each other to form :-

(1) Ecosystem
(2) Biotic community
(3) Ecology
(4) Environment

3) Which of the following is NOT considered as a level of biological organization ?

(1) Ecosystem
(2) Organism
(3) Community
(4) Environment

4) The basic unit of ecological study is :-

(1) Species
(2) Organism
(3) Community
(4) Biosphere

5) Mycorrhiza is an example of :-

(1) Key-stone species

(2) Endemic species
(3) Critical link species
(4) Rare species

6) Organism is / can be :-

(1) Basic unit of ecological study

(2) Unicellular
(3) Multicellular
(4) All of the above

7) Two Population which are inter connected by dispersing individuals known as :-

(1) Local population

(2) Meta population
(3) Sister population
(4) None

8) Fig can maintatin community structure during food scarcity in tropical deciduous forest. These
act as :-

(1) Exotic species

(2) Pioneer species
(3) Edge species
(4) Key stone species

9) Which is not a key stone species ?

(1) Lion in forest

(2) Kangaroo rat in desert
(3) Fig tree in tropical forest
(4) Pinus in himalaya

10) Ecology at the organismic level is essentially called :-

(1) Morphological ecology

(2) Physiological ecology
(3) Anatomical ecology
(4) Behavioral ecology

11) Which of the following is incorrect regarding key stone species ?

(1) Determine structure of community
(2) Number is less in community
(3) Not essential to maintain species diversity
(4) High influence on the community

12) Characteristic of an individual may be all, except:-

(1) Birth
(2) Death
(3) Sex ratio
(4) Age

13) Choose the correct statement :-

(1) Study of the relation of species with it's environment is known as autecology
Study of the relation of the group of different species with their environment is known as
(2)
synecology.
(3) Organism and its environment are interdependent
(4) All of the above

14)

A population has certain attributes that an individual organism does not, like :-

(a) birth (b) birth rate

(c) death rate (d) sex ratio
(1) a and d only
(2) a and b only
(3) b, c and d
(4) c and d only

15) N = N0ert this is for :-

(1) Exponential growth

(2) Sigmoid growth
(3) Logistic growth
(4) S-shaped growth

16) Logistic growth and exponential growth formula are respectively :-

(1)
= rN ; = rN

(2)
= rN ; = rN

(3)
= rN ; = rN
(4)
= rN ; = rN

17) A population can not have which of the following attribute ?

(1) Birth rate

(2) Death rate
(3) Succession
(4) Competition

18) What is true for individuals of same species :-

(1) Live in same niche

(2) Always live in same habitat
(3) Interbreeding
(4) Always live in different habitat

19) The term biotic potential was first used by :-

(1) Chapman
(2) Grinnel
(3) Reiter
(4) Tansley

20) If biotic potential of a species is high than :-

(1) No. of species in that area increase

(2) Species diversity increase in area
(3) No. of individuals of particular species increases
(4) None of these

21) The most appropriate measure of population density is ?

(1) Number
(2) Biomass
(3) Percent cover area
(4) Counting pug marks

22) Endemism refers to :

(1) Species evenness

(2) Species confined to that region
(3) Species diversity
(4) Species richness

23) r-selected species has :-

(1) High stability & low biotic potential
(2) Low stability & high biotic potential
(3) Short life time & high growth rate
(4) Long life time & high growth rate

24) The inherent maximum capacity of an organism to reproduce or increase in number in called as
:-

(1) Biotic potential

(2) Ecosystem
(3) Vitality
(4) Edge Effect

25) Which of the following is not an example of population ?

(1) All the crows in an area

(2) All E.coli in a culture plate
(3) Tree in forest
(4) All the lotus plants in a pond

26) What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid ?

(1) Vanishing population

(2) Expanding population
(3) Declining population
(4) Stable population

27) When the carrying capacity (K) is equal to population size (N), what will be the growth rate of
the population ?

(1) High growth rate

(2) Low growth rate
(3) Zero growth rate
(4) Growth rate not affected

28) In an Area having 200 Parthenium plants and a single huge Banyan tree, population density is
measured in terms of :-

(1) Biomass
(2) Percent cover
(3) Biomass or percent cover
(4) Number, Biomass or percent cover

29) Most important factors influencing population density, under normal conditions :-
(1) Birth rate, Immigration
(2) Emigration, Immigration
(3) Death rate, Birth rate
(4) Death rate, Emigration

30) k-selected species has :-

(1) High stability & low biotic potential

(2) Low stability & high biotic potential
(3) Short life time & high growth rate
(4) Long life time & high growth rate

31) Which of the following contributes to increase in population density :-

(a) Natality
(b) Mortality
(c) Immigration
(d) Emigration

(1) a,b
(2) b,c
(3) c,d
(4) a,c

32) Which of the following is not a character of a population :-

(1) Species diversity

(2) Birth rate
(3) Death rate
(4) Population density

33) If a population of 50 Paramecium present in a pool increases to 150 after an hour, what would be
the growth rate of population ?

(1) 5 per hour

(2) 50 per hour
(3) 200 per hour
(4) 100 per hour

34) A country with a high rate of population growth took measures to reduce it. The figure below
shows age-sex pyramids of populations A and B twenty years apart. Select the correct interpretation
about them :
(1) "A" is the earlier pyramid and no change has occurred in the growth rate
(2) "B" is more recent showing that population is very young
(3) "B" is the earlier pyramid and shows stabilised growth rate
(4) "A" is more recent and shows slight reduction in the growth rate

35) What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid ?

(1) Vanishing population

(2) Stable population
(3) Declining population
(4) Expanding population

SECTION-B

1) Ecology explains us :-

(1) How organisms, while remaining as an individual interact with other organisms.
(2) How organism, interact with physical environment
 As a group how organisms behave like organised population, community, ecosystem or even as
(3)
the whole biosphere
(4) All of these

2)
Above given diagram represents a relation with environment. This relation is known as :

(1) Species ecology

(2) Autecology
(3) Synecology
(4) Population ecology

3)

Read the following figure carefully.

Q & P = populations residing in a geographical area from long time then P is called as :-
(1) Local population
(2) Sister population
(3) Meta-population
(4) Both (1) and (2)

4) Key-Stone Species are:-

(1) High number or bio-mass, high influence on the community

(2) High number or bio-mass, low influence on the community
(3) Low number or bio-mass, high influence on the community
(4) Low number or bio-mass, low influence on the community

5) A plant community consist of :-

(1) Only dominant plant specie of an area

(2) Only dominant organism of an area
(3) All plant, animals and microbes of an area
(4) All plant species of an area

6) Organism which help in vital activities of other species can be categorised under –
(1) Key stone species
(2) Demes
(3) Critical Link species
(4) Endemic species

7) Which of the following diagram represent a population [A,B,C & D represents species] :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which one of the following option gives the correct categorisation of three examples according to
the type of species (A,B,C) they give out :-

A-Key stone B-Critical C-Endemic

species link species species

Meta sequoia in Lion Mycorrhizal

(1)
china valley in forest fungi

Kangaroo Fig tree in Pollinator

(2)
in Australia tropical forest insect

Kangaroo Rat Mycorrhizal Meta sequoia

(3)
in Desert fungi in china valley

Kangaroo in Pollinator
(4) Lion in forest
Australia Insect
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Match the Column–I with Column–II :-

Column-I Column-II

Endemic
i a Kangaroo rat
species

Keystone Mycorrhizal
ii b
species fungi
 Critical link
iii c Kangaroo
species
(1) i–a, ii–b, iii–c
(2) i–c, ii–a, iii–b
(3) i–c, ii–b, iii–a
(4) i–b, ii–a, iii–c

10)

Identify A, B and C in the ecological hierarchy :

A B C

(1) Population Biosphere Landscape

(2) Ecosystem Population Ecosphere

(3) Population Ecosystem Biosphere

(4) Ecosphere Population Ecosystem

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Which of the following are correct matching pairs ?

Basic unit of
(a) Biosphere (i)
ecological study

Basic unit of
(b) Ecosystem (ii)
classification

(c) Organism (iii) Global ecosystem

Basic unit of nature's

(d) Species (iv)
study
(1) a–iv, b–i, c–iii, d–ii
(2) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
(3) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
(4) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii

12)

What is not true about this diagram :-

(1) Area-1 & Area-2 are meta populations

(2) Area-1 & Area-3 are meta populations
(3) Area-2 & Area-3 are sister populations
(4) Area-1 & Area-3 are sister populations

13)

a = Logistic plot, b = Exponential plot

(1)
c = Carrying capacity
a = Exponential plot, b = Logistic plot,
(2)
c = Carrying capacity
a = Carrying capacity, b = Exponential plot,
(3)
c = Logistic plot
a = Carrying capacity, b = Logistic plot,
(4)
c = Exponential plot

14) For the given population growth curve which

statement is correct ?

(1) Curve 'a' does not show saturation because rate of population growth is very slow.
(2) 'K' is carrying capacity and is specific for a given population.
(3) Curve 'a' is obtained when responses are limiting.
(4) Curve 'b' is depicted by a population of small sized organisms only

15) Read the following curve.

What indicates 'b'.

(1)
Carrying capacity,
(2) Exponential growth,
(3) Logistic growth,

(4)
Logistic growth,
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 4 4 1 1 3 4 1 1 1 1 2 3 3 3 2 1 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 1 2 1 1 4 2 1 2 1 2 1 3 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 3 2 4 2 2 2 1 2 3 2 3 2 4 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 1 1 1 3 3 2 2 3 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 2 1 4 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 4 2 2 1 4 2 2 2 4 4 4 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 4 2 4 3 4 1 2 4 1 1 4 2 3 1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 1 2 3 4 2 1 1 2 3 4 1 1 2 4 2 2 3 4 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 3 3 2 3 1 4 2 4 2 3 2 4 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 2 1 1 3 3 4 3 3 1 2 1 1 3

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 4 2 3 4 2 4 4 2 3 3 4 3 1 2 3 3 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 2 2 1 3 2 3 3 3 1 4 1 4 4 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 3 1 3 4 3 2 3 2 3 3 2 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

3) m2 = =

AI = 32 ×
= 36 cm2

4)

x2 = 3 cm
thickness of the slab = x1 + x2 = 10.5 cm

6) sinθc =

9) S1 = S2
(1.5–1) × 8 = (1.64 – 1) = A
A = –6.25°

10)

11)

(unitless)

12) i° = 45, r = A
snell's Law
Sin 45 = μsin A
 17)

⇒ f = 100 cm

21) s = so s ∝ u2
So if speed is tripled , stopping distance will be nine times i.e. 9 × 2 m = 18 m

22)

S=u+ (2t –1)

= 10 – (10 – 1)
= 10 – 9 = 1 m

23) Average velocity =

= 4 m/s

25) For every motion →

27)

v2 = u2 + 2as
v2 = 2as
v2 ∝ s

29)

Distance travelled in last second of ascent is equals to distance travelled in first second of descent
 30)

2n – 1

31)

32)

(2n – 1)

33)

34)

x + 3x = 5m
4x = 5m

Distance of 2nd drop from ground = 3x

= 3.75 m

36)

fw = 4 × fa
=4×8
= 32 cm

38)
 39)

i = 45°
i ≥ θc
45° ≥ θc

45° ≥ sin–1
µ≥
µr > All colour suffer TIR
µv >
µg >

40)

μ=1+ =

41)

R = 15 cm

43)

∵a= = 2(t – 1) ⇒ dv = 2(t – 1)dt

⇒v=

= = 15 m/s

44) Distance travelled by particle in 5th half sec.

s2.5 – S2

47)

a = constant
v∝t
and
a=0
v = constant

49)

s1 = 125 m
v = u + at
v = 0 + 10 × 5
v = 50
s2 = ut
s2 = 50 × 10
s2 = 500 m
Total distance = s1 + s2
= 125 + 500
= 625 m

50)

y = a + bt + ct2 – dt4

vt = 0 = b
at = 0 = 2c

CHEMISTRY

51)

= 5.4

52) n2 = 6 to n1 = 3

Total spectral lines =

= =6

53) Spin angular momentum =

 54)

55) me = 9.1 × 10–28 g

h = 6.6 × 10–27gcm²/sec.
Δv = 0.011% of 3 × 104
= 3.3cm/sec.

Δx =
= 0.1748cm

57)

Square on both side

Now,

58) n = 4, ℓ = 3
Number of orbitals = 2ℓ + 1
=2×3+1
=7

59)

According to option check it

60)

no. of O atoms = 0.1 × NA × 2 = 0.2 NA

= 1.2 × 1023

61)

no. of atom = n × NA × atomicity

no. of atom = 0.1 × NA × 3 = 0.3 NA

63)
Simplest formula = X2Y

64)

65) No. of H-atoms =

No. of H-atoms in 0.30 gm C2H6 =

66) No. of C-atoms in 35 gm C5H10

= × 5 × 6.022 × 1023

67)

69)

70)

Acidic ∝ +ve charge

Nature (0.5)

71)

NCERT Pg. # 90

72)
Ionisation energy ∝ Zeff
I.E. of p3 configuration is more than p4 configuration.

73)

Formation of polynegative anions is always an endothermic process due to repulsion between anion
and electron.

74)

IP of ⇒ S2 > p1

79)

SF6(12 e–), PF5 (10 e–)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 101, (Part-I)

87) Acc. to Hund’s rule, pairing of electrons in orbitals belonging to same subshell does not
takes place until each orbital has got one electron each with same spin.

90)

91)

Mass of one electron = 9.1 × 10–28 g

Molar mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–28 NAg

Mole

93)

NCERT Pg. # 88

94)
I.P. ∝ zeff ∝

95)

NCERT, Pg. # 91

96)

NCERT, Pg. # 91

BIOLOGY-I

101)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 205,206

102)

NCERT, Pg # 208 (E), 209 (H)

104)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 209

105)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 208, Fig.-16.4

106)

NCERT, Pg # 206

107)

NCERT, Pg. # 209, Fig.-16.3

113) Summary Pg. # 215

119) NCERT Pg. # 208, (1st Paragraph)

130)

NCERT Pg. # 201

137)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 206

138)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 207
 139)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 207, Fig.-16.2

146)

NCERT Pg. # 205 (2nd Paragraph)

BIOLOGY-II

153) NCERT XII, Page # 190

160)

NCERT Pg. # 191

164)

NCERT XII Pg.# 192

166)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 195

175) NCERT(E) XIIth Pg.#191

176)

NCERT XII, Pg # 192, Fig # 11.1

178) NCERT Pg # 192, Line 9th

179)

NCERT Pg. # 193

186)

NCERT XII Pg # 191

198) NCERT XII Pg. # 195

199)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 195