Quiz 2 dsDNA/ssDNA & dsRNA

7. Parvovirus B19 is the causative agent of

1.
A. Hydrops Fetalis
2. Which of the following are TRUE? B. Sixth Disease
C. Leukemia
1st statement: The hallmark feature of the herpes virus is D. All of the choices
the characteristic latency or the ability of the virus to
reside in the infected host while staying in a repressed 8. Adenoviruses can cause highly contagious eye
state infections. Which of the following is least likely to be a
means of transmission during an outbreak of epidemic
2nd statement: Herpes virus has a genome of linear keratoconjunctivitis?
dsDNA and a naked icosahedral.
A. Contaminated ophthalmic equipment
A. 1st statement is only correct B. Swimming pools
B. 2nd statement is only correct C. Hand-to-eye
C. Both are correct D. Mosquito bites
D. Both are false E. Hand towels

3. Which of the following statements about herpesviruses 9. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of the
is not true? 'Fifth Disease'?

A. Most infections are subclinical A. acute hemolytic anemia

B. They are reactivated in immunocompromised B. keratoconjunctivitis
patients. C. gastroenteritis
C. They establish latent infections and persist D. Infectious mononucleosis-like disease
indefinitely in infected hosts. E. atypical respiratory disease
D. A synchronous progressive rash characterizes the
infection. 10. Which of the following best describes a
physicochemical property of parvoviruses?
4. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is common. Which
one of the following statements best characterizes CMV? A. Enveloped virus particle.
B. Infectivity is inactivated by ether treatment.
A. Unlike other viral infections, CMV is not activated C. Single-stranded DNA genome.
by immunosuppressive therapy D. Virion is about the same size as herpesviruses.
B. The CMV can be cultured from the red blood cells E. Virion exhibits helical symmetry.
of infected patients
C. It can be transmitted across the placental barrier 11. Which of the following specimens is best to recover
D. While a common infection, CMV is almost always cytomegalovirus?
symptomatic
E. There is no specific therapy for CMV A. Nasopharyngeal swabs
B. Saliva
5. Human bocavirus is a newly discovered parvovirus. It C. Bronchial wash
has been detected most frequently in which type of D. Buffy coat
sample?
12. Parvovirus infection, the cause of a mild exanthem in
A. Fetal liver children, is characterized by
B. Cord blood
C. Urine A. Whooping cough-like disease
D. Respiratory secretions B. Epidemic acute respiratory disease
E. Bone marrow C. Gastroenteritis
D. Keratoconjunctivitis
6. Which of these antibodies indicates current or recent E. Acute hemolytic anemia
infection and is increased in patients with
nasopharyngeal carcinoma? 13. Which of the following is the final diagnostic marker
for Epstein-Barr virus?
A. Anti-EA IgG
B. Anti-EA/R A. Anti-VCA: viral capsid antigen
C. Anti-EA/D B. Anti-EBNA: Epstein Barr nuclear antigen
D. Anti-VCA IgG C. Anti-EA IgG: early antigen
E. Anti-EBNA D. Anti-EA/D: early antigen diffuse
Prepared by: CJA & LDP
14. A 19-year-old female college student has a fever, sore A. All of the choices are correct
throat, and lymphadenopathy accompanied by B. can be transmitted by crossing the placental
lymphocytosis with atypical cells and an increase in barrier
sheep cell agglutinins. The diagnosis is most likely C. can be cultured using RBCs
D. can not be activated by immunosuppressive
A. Herpes simplex infection therapy
B. Chickenpox E. symptomatic for most of the time
C. Infectious hepatitis
D. Infectious mononucleosis ————————————————————————————————

15. Which of the following viruses causes an acute febrile dsDNA / ssDNA
rash with red vesicular lesions, and painful oral lesions in
immunocompetent children but sometimes can also 1. The following are properties of viruses EXCEPT
develop in adults?
A. They are obligate intracellular parasite
A. Adenovirus B. They do not have a cellular organization
B. Parvovirus C. They are either RNA or DNA but never both
C. Varicella-Zoster
D. They are affected by antibacterial antibiotics
D. Rubeola
2. Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE?
16. HSV and cytomegalovirus share many features. Which
one of the following features is least likely to be shared?
1st Statement: Envelope viruses are more susceptible to
inactivation by high temperature, extreme pH, and
A. Mild or inapparent infection
B. Congenital abnormalities caused by chemicals
transplacental passage 2nd Statement: Naked viruses are more susceptible to
C. Important cause of morbidity and mortality in inactivation by high temperature, extreme pH, and
the newborn chemicals
D. Important cause of serious disease in
immunosuppressed individuals A. 1st statement is only true
B. 2nd statement is only true
17. HSV and cytomegalovirus share many features. Which
C. Both are true
one of the following features is least likely to be shared?
D. Both are false
A. Congenital abnormalities caused by
3. Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE?
transplacental passage
B. Important cause of morbidity and mortality in
the newborn 1st Statement: Capsid is composed of a large number of
C. Important cause of serious disease in capsomere which is made up of polypeptide molecules
immunosuppressed individuals 2nd Statement: Virion refers to the entire virus particle
D. Mild or inapparent infection
A. 1st statement is only true
18. The mode of transmission for the following viruses is B. 2nd statement is only true
through direct contact with infectious secretions or close C. Both are true
contact with an infected person EXCEPT D. Both are false

A. Human herpesvirus 8 4. The host cell receptors for the Rabies virus.
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Varicella-zoster virus A. Sialic acid
D. Human herpesvirus 1
B. Acetylcholine
C. Complement receptor C3D
19. Which of the following groups are at increased risk for
herpes zoster? D. CD4

A. Infants with congenital infections 5. Which of the following statement is/are TRUE?
B. Pregnant women
C. Persons at an advanced age 1st statement: Viruses can penetrate the cell by several
D. Persons who have been vaccinated for varicella
different mechanisms and penetration is virus dependent.
E. Patients with atopic dermatitis
2nd statement: Enveloped virus can penetrate the host
20. Which of the following best describes CMV? cell membranes directly.

Prepared by: CJA & LDP

 A. 1st statement is only correct A. Adenovirus
B. 2nd statement is only correct B. Influenza virus
C. Both are correct C. Herpes virus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
D. Both are incorrect

12. The BEST cell culture used for the isolation of

6. DNA viruses release their genome in the? Varicella-zoster virus is/are:

A. Cytoplasm A. Human diploid fibroblast (HDF)

B. Nucleus B. A549
C. Golgi apparatus C. Rabbit kidney
D. All of the choices D. Vero cells

13. Large rounded cells in clusters is the cytopathic effect

7. Which of the following statement is/are TRUE? (CPE) for which of the following viruses:
1st statement: During the release of the genome from
the host cell, enveloped viruses lyse from the host cell A. Herpes simplex virus
membranes. B. Adenovirus
2nd statement: During the budding, a part of the host C. Cytomegalovirus
cell genome surrounds the viral capsid and becomes the D. Enterovirus
viral genome.
14. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
1st statement: Serology measures host response rather
A. 1st statement is only true
than virus.
B. 2nd statement is only true
2nd statement: Seroconversion not found in rise titer to
C. Both are true predetermined diagnostic cut-off is interpreted as
D. Both are false absence of current infection

A. 1st statement is only true

8. Which viruses are correctly paired with their host cell B. 2nd statement is only true
receptor? C. Both are true
D. Both are false
A. HIV: CD3
B. EBV: CD4 15. What is the ideal storage temperature if a specimen
C. Influenza A (H3N2): Ig-superfamily molecules for virus recovery is to be processed within 24 hours after
collection?
D. Polio: Sialic acid
E. Rabies: acetylcholine A. 70–72°C
B. 4°C
9. Which of the following is the correct order of the C. 2–8°C
infectious cycle? D. 20–22°C

A. attachment → uncoating → penetration → 16. What is the name of the method used to maintain
eclipse → maturation → release viability by periodically removing cells from a culture
B. adsorption → eclipse → uncoating → penetration vessel, diluting them, and placing them in a new vessel?
→ release → synthesis
C. penetration → uncoating → eclipse → A. Cloning
B. Subculturing
penetration → release → synthesis
C. Microfuge
D. adsorption → penetration → uncoating → eclipse D. Passaging
→ assembly → release
17. A Tzanck smear of a scraping obtained from a vesicle
10. What is the distinctive and characteristic visual on the skin demonstrates multinucleated giant cells.
changes in infected cells? Multinucleated giant cells are associated with which of
the following viruses?
A. Cell degradation
A. Varicella-zoster
B. Cytopathic Effect B. Ebola major
C. Enzymatic Degradation C. Coxsackievirus
D. Enzymatic metabolism D. Molluscum contagiosum

11. A virus where cytopathic effect is not detected.

Prepared by: CJA & LDP
18. Which is a cytopathic effect of Varicella-Zoster virus 2nd statement: The Saint Louis Encephalitis (SLE) virus
on infected cells? vector is Aedes aegypti

A. Owl’s eye inclusion A. Only the 1st statement is true

B. Cowdry type A bodies B. Only the 2nd statement is true
C. Koilocytes C. Both are correct
D. Negri bodies D. Both are false

19. The intern received 10 samples for viral cell culture. 4. Which virus belonging to the Reoviridae group causes
Due to electricity failure in the lab, the samples will not gastroenteritis in infants and young children but
be processed for the next 48 hours. So as to prevent asymptomatic infections in adults?
contamination and the sample could be stored
conveniently, what should the samples be stored? A. Coxsackie B virus
B. Rotavirus
A. 4°C C. Colitivirus
B. –10°C D. Norovirus
C. –20°C
D. –70°C 5. What is the common complication of the West Nile
fever?
20. A 1 y/o is suspected to be suffering from aseptic
meningitis caused by enterovirus. Which of the following A. Pneumonia
samples should be collected? B. Neuroinvasive disease
C. Chronic hepatitis
A. Nasopharyngeal swab D. Osteomyelitis
B. Nasal aspirate
C. Bronchoalveolar lavage 6. Which virus has been implicated in older children and
D. Throat swab adult gastroenteritis and can cause outbreaks in schools,
E. Urine colleges, camps, cruise ships, and nursing homes?

——————————-———————————————————— A. Rotavirus
B. Norwalk-like virus
ssRNA Part 1 C. Hantavirus
D. Coronavirus
1. Birds are the natural host of the following viruses
EXCEPT: 7. The most pathogenic of the hemorrhagic fever viruses.

A. Ebola virus A. Flaviviridae

B. West Nile virus B. Bunyaviridae
C. St. Louis Encephalitis virus C. Filoviridae
D. None of the choices D. Coronaviridae

2. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE? 8. Which viruses typically affect the peritoneal cavity,
kidney, thoracic cavity, lungs and have high mortality
1st statement: Infection with Dengue confers immunity rates?
to all infecting serotypes.
A. Hantavirus
2nd statement: Subsequent infection with one of the B. Lassa virus
three remaining serotypes results in immune-enhanced C. Rotavirus
disease in the form of severe hemorrhagic fever or D. Calicivirus
dengue shock syndrome.
9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
A. First statement is only true
B. Second statement is only true 1st statement: Marburg or Ebola is endemic in Africa,
C. Both are true resulting in severe hemorrhages, vomiting, abdominal
D. Both are false pain, myalgia, pharyngitis, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia

2nd statement: The natural animal reservoir of Ebola or

3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE? Marburg is monkey.

1st statement: Yellow fever vector is Culex mosquito E. 1st statement is only true
F. 2nd statement is only true
G. Both are correct
Prepared by: CJA & LDP
 H. Both are false 16. A 4-year-old boy develops an acute febrile illness. His
pediatrician diagnoses mumps. The organ most
10. Which of the following describes the DENGUE virus? commonly exhibiting signs of mumps is:

A. Humans are the main reservoir for this virus, and A. Lungs
person-to-person transmission occurs through a B. Ovary
mosquito vector C. Parotid glands
B. Diagnosis is often a result of the correlation of D. Skin
the patient's clinical symptoms with the patient's E. Testes
location and travel history.
C. Can grow in culture media 17. Which of the following statements concerning rubella
D. All of the above is correct?

11. Which of the following modes of transmission has no A. Congenital abnormalities occur primarily when a
potential for transmitting the rabies virus? pregnant woman is infected during the first
trimester.
A. Cat Scratch B. Women who say that they have never had
B. Human bite rubella can have neutralizing antibodies in their
C. Vector bite serum.
D. Dog bite C. In a 6-year-old child, rubella is a mild,
self-limited disease with few complications.
D. All of the choices
12. Outbreaks of hand-foot-and-mouth disease,
characterized by oral ulcerations and vesicular rashes, 18. The presence in neurons of eosinophilic cytoplasmic
occur and may result in infant deaths. Produces clinical inclusion bodies, called Negri bodies, is characteristic of
diseases such as neurological, cardiac, and respiratory which of the following central nervous system infections?
diseases. The etiologic agent is:
A. Scrapie
A. Enteroviruses B. Rabies
B. Rubella virus C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
C. Chickenpox virus D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
D. Rhinoviruses E. Postvaccinal encephalitis

13. Which of the following statements reflects the 19. 1st statement: Norovirus has been implicated in large
pathogenesis of influenza? outbreaks of disease on cruise ships, nursing homes, in
schools, and in other semi-closed settings.
A. The virus enters the host in airborne droplets.
B. Viremia and gastroenteritis are very common. 2nd statement: Norovirus cannot be cultivated using cell
C. The virus frequently establishes persistent and culture methods.
chronic infections in the lungs.
D. Viral infection does not infect the cells in the A. 1st statement is only true
respiratory tract. B. 2nd statement is only true
C. Both are true
14. On which viral constituent is the type-specific antigen D. Both are false
(A, B, or C) of influenza viruses found?
20. What is the greatest risk for developing dengue
A. Hemagglutinin hemorrhagic fever?
B. Neuraminidase
C. Nucleocapsid A. History of dengue fever with a different serotype
D. Viral envelope B. Older than 50 years of age
C. Diabetes
15. The mechanism of "antigenic shift" in influenza viruses D. Obesity
is due to:
21. Which of the following viruses will require Biosafety
A. Can involve either hemagglutinin or Level 4 facilities for laboratory testing?
neuraminidase antigens
B. Mutations caused by viral RNA polymerase A. Filovirus
C. Can predominate under selective host population B. Dengue virus
immune pressure C. Calicivirus
D. Reassortment between human and animal or D. Arenavirus
avian reservoirs

Prepared by: CJA & LDP

22. Which virus is a major cause of encephalitis in Asia respiratory virus season, her physician is unsure of the
and the most common cause of arboviral encephalitis in prevalent community viruses. Which of the following
the world? viruses is NOT a cause of acute respiratory disease?

A. St. Louis Encephalitis A. Influenza virus

B. Dengue virus B. Adenovirus
C. Yellow fever virus C. Respiratory Syncytial Virus
D. Japanese encephalitis D. Coronavirus
E. Rotavirus
23. Single-stranded RNA genome surrounded by spherical
and icosahedral capsid with envelope EXCEPT 3. Which of the following statements about dengue virus
is NOT TRUE?
A. Yellow fever virus
B. Dengue virus A. It is the most important mosquito-borne viral
C. Japanese Encephalitis virus disease affecting humans
D. Norwalk-like viruses B. It is distributed worldwide in tropical regions
C. It can cause a severe hemorrhagic fever
24. Which of the following DOES NOT describe the ZIKA D. There is a single antigenic type
virus? E. One form of disease is characterized by
increased vascular permeability
A. Spread by daytime by the active Aedes mosquito
B. Transmission from mother to child during 4. African hemorrhagic fevers, Marburg and Ebola, are
pregnancy severe diseases that often end in death. Which of the
C. The virus is endemic in Africa, South America, following is most accurate about the Ebola virus?
and the Caribbean
D. Causes microcephaly and other congenital A. It is spread by contact with blood or other body
malformations in infants fluids.
B. It is transmitted by mosquitoes.
25. Which virus causes a dengue-like infection in Western C. It is a flavivirus.
United States and Canada. Patients have a biphasic fever D. Causes infections but no disease in nonhuman
with a rash and children can experience hemorrhagic primates.
fever? E. Is antigenically related to Lassa fever virus.

A. Lassa virus 5. A 27-year-old man develops a fever, chills, headache,

B. Colorado tick fever virus and backache. Four days later, he developed a high fever
C. Rift valley fever virus and jaundice. Yellow fever is diagnosed. Which of the
D. La Crosse encephalitis virus following statements concerning yellow fever is correct?

26. Hantavirus is an emerging pathogen that is best A. Culicine mosquitoes transmit the virus in the
described by which of the following statements: urban form of the disease.
B. Monkeys in the jungle are a major reservoir of
A. Transmission from human to human is common the yellow fever virus.
B. Double-stranded RNA genome C. It occurs more in certain regions of Asia and the
C. It is acquired by inhalation of aerosols of the Middle East.
urine and feces of deer D. All infections lead to apparent or symptomatic
disease.
—--------------------------------------------------------------------
6. An arbovirus common in the Middle East, Africa, and
Quiz 3 & Buffer Quiz ssRNA Part 1 Southwest Asia first appeared in New York in 1999. By
2002, the virus had spread throughout the continental
1. HIV-1 is classified as a member of Lentivirus genus in United States. This arbovirus, a member of the Japanese
the Retroviridae family Lentiviruses B encephalitis antigenic complex, is which of the
following?
A. Contains a DNA genome
B. Cause tumors in mice A. Japanese B encephalitis virus
C. Infect cells of the immune system B. Tick-borne encephalitis virus
D. Have related sequences endogenous in normal C. West Nile virus
cells D. Dengue virus
E. Cause rapidly progressive neurologic diseases E. Rift Valley fever virus

2. A 63-year old woman presents with fever, headache,

malaise, myalgia, and cough. Early in the winter
Prepared by: CJA & LDP
7. "Rotavirus and Norwalk virus are distinctly different D. Naked, ssDNA
viruses. However, they share which one of the following E. Enveloped, dsRNA
characteristics?"
13. "Aside from gastrointestinal symptoms (vomiting,
A. Fecal-oral mode of transmission diarrhea), which of the following could also be caused by
B. They mainly cause disease in infants and young rotavirus infections?"
children.
C. They generally induce mild disease in young A. Abdominal pain
children. B. Encephalitis
D. Infection patterns show no seasonal variation. C. Pre-hepatic jaundice
E. A double-stranded RNA genome. D. Hemorrhagic fever
E. Respiratory symptoms
8. "This viral gastroenteritis agent has a segmented,
double-stranded RNA genome and a double-shelled 14. "Which specific location within the host cell do
capsid. It is a member of which virus family?" rotaviruses replicate in?"

A. Adenoviridae A. Mucous neck cell of the stomach

B. Astroviridae B. Submucosa of duodenum
C. Caliciviridae C. Microvilli of the small intestine
D. Reoviridae D. Paneth cells of ileum
E. Coronaviridae E. Muscularis mucosae of large intestine

9. "The clinical picture of arbovirus infection fits one of 15. "Which of the following infections has Colorado Tick
three categories: encephalitis, hemorrhagic fever, or Fever been described to have similarities with?"
fever with myalgia. One of the characteristics of
arboviruses is that they:" A. Dengue
B. Chikungunya
A. Are transmitted by arthropod vectors C. Japanese encephalitis
B. Are usually resistant to ether D. Yellow fever
C. Usually causes symptomatic infection in humans E. Zika
D. They are closely related to parvoviruses
16. "Which of the following samples may be used to
10. "St. Louis encephalitis, a viral infection, was first detect rotavirus?"
recognized as an entity in 1933. Which of the following
best describes SLE?" A. Blood
B. Sputum
A. It is transmitted to humans by the bite of an C. Gastric biopsy
infected tick. D. Stool
B. It is caused by a togavirus. E. CSF
C. It is the major arboviral cause of central nervous
system infection in the United States. 17. "Which of the following is not one of the natural hosts
D. It may present initially with symptoms similar to of the vector of Colorado Tick Fever virus?"
influenza.
E. Cultural methods routinely make laboratory A. Pigeons
diagnosis. B. Squirrels
C. None; all of these are hosts in nature
11. "Which of the following is a common cause of D. Deer mouse
epidemic gastroenteritis, particularly aboard cruise ships E. Rabbit
and in summer camps? It may be detected by ELISA
methods or electron microscopy." 19. "Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme unique to the
retroviruses. Which one of the following is a function of
A. Rotavirus the enzyme reverse transcriptase?"
B. Adenovirus 40/41
C. Norwalk virus A. DNase activity
D. Astrovirus B. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity
C. RNA isomerase activity
12. "Which of the following is the correct structure of D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity
rotaviruses?" E. Integration activity

A. Enveloped, ssDNA 20. "Which of the following is the arthropod vector for
B. Naked, dsRNA Colorado Tick Fever virus?"
C. Naked, dsDNA
Prepared by: CJA & LDP
 A. Dermacentor variabilis D. Reassortment between human and animal or
B. Dermacentor occidentalis avian reservoirs
C. Dermacentor andersoni
D. Dermacentor albipictus 7. A 4-year-old boy develops an acute febrile illness. His
E. All of the above can transmit Colorado Tick Fever pediatrician diagnosis mumps. The organ most
commonly exhibiting signs of mumps is the:
—-------------------------------------------------------------------- A. Lungs
B. Ovary
Quiz 4 ssRNA Part 2 C. Parotid glands
D. Skin
1. Unilateral or bilateral swelling of the parotid glands is E. Testes
commonly caused by which virus?
8. Which of the following statements concerning rubella is
A. PIV-1 correct?
B. Respiratory Syncytial Virus A. Congenital abnormalities occur primarily when a
C. Rhinovirus pregnant woman is infected during the first
D. Mumps virus trimester.
B. Women who say that they have never had
2. Which of the following modes of transmission has no rubella can have neutralizing antibodies in their
potential for transmitting the rabies virus? serum.
C. In a 6-year-old child, rubella is a mild,
A. Cat Scratch self-limited disease with few complications.
B. Human bite D. All of the choices
C. Vector bite
D. Dog bite 9. The presence in neurons of eosinophilic cytoplasmic
inclusion bodies, called Negri bodies, is characteristic of
3. Outbreaks of hand-foot-and-mouth disease, which of the following central nervous system infections?
characterized by oral ulcerations and vesicular rashes, A. Scrapie
occur and may result in infant deaths. Produces clinical B. Rabies
diseases such as neurological, cardiac, and respiratory C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
diseases. The etiologic agent is: D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
E. Postvaccinal encephalitis
A. Enteroviruses
B. Rubella virus 10. In a person with HIV infection, potentially infectious
C. Chickenpox virus fluids include all of the following except
D. Rhinoviruses A. Blood
B. Saliva is visibly contaminated with blood
C. Urine is not visibly contaminated with blood
4. Which of the following statements reflects the
D. Genital secretions
pathogenesis of influenza?
E. Amniotic fluid
A. The virus enters the host in airborne droplets.
11. Measles virus is included in which genus under
B. Viremia and gastroenteritis are very common.
Paramyxoviridae?
C. The virus frequently establishes persistent and
A. Paramyxovirus
chronic infections in the lungs.
B. Pneumovirus
D. Viral infection does not infect the cells in the
C. Morbillivirus
respiratory tract.
D. Rubulavirus
5. On which viral constituent is the type-specific antigen
12. Lucy presented with myalgia, coughing w/o phlegm,
(A, B, or C) of influenza viruses found?
and fever at 41°C. Identify the viral infection.
A. hMPV
A. Hemagglutinin B. PIV-1
B. Neuraminidase C. PIV-4
C. Nucleocapsid D. RSV
D. Viral envelope E. Influenza A

6. The mechanism of "antigenic shift" in influenza viruses 13. Which of the following is one of the causative agents
is due to: of Hand Foot & Mouth Disease?
A. Can involve either hemagglutinin or A. Enterovirus 71
neuraminidase antigens B. Coxsackievirus A10
B. Mutations caused by viral RNA polymerase C. All of the choices
C. Can predominate under selective host population D. Coxsackievirus A5
immune pressure E. Coxsackievirus A16
Prepared by: CJA & LDP
14. Which of the following is the adhesion molecule for —--------------------------------------------------------------------
Parainfluenza Viruses?
A. N antigen Practice Questions Hepatitis, Prions, and Treatment
B. F antigen
C. M protein 1. Which of the following serologic markers should be
D. H antigen positive following the administration of the HBV vaccine?
E. N antigen A. HBsAg
B. HBcAg
15. Which of the following structures would cleave the C. Anti-HBs
budding Influenza virus A particles, which are necessary D. Anti-HBc
for its release stage?
A. M protein 2. During the “core window” of acute hepatitis B virus
B. HN antigen infection, what is the primary marker for diagnosis?
C. NA antigen A. HBsAg
D. H antigen B. HBeAg
E. Fantigen C. Anti-HBs
D. Anti-HBc
16. What structure on the Influenza A virus binds to host
cells, initiating its replication cycle? 3. A 20-year-old man, who for many years had received
A. HA antigen daily injections of growth hormone from human pituitary
B. NP molecule glands, developed ataxia, slurred speech, and dementia.
C. M protein At autopsy, the brain shows widespread neuronal
D. HN antigen degeneration, a spongy appearance due to many
E. NA antigen vacuoles between the cells, no inflammation, and no
evidence of virus particles. The most likely diagnosis is
17. Josh, a 1-month-old male, presented with low birth A. Herpes encephalitis
weight, microcephaly, congenital heart disease, purpura, B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
along with a few other congenital birth defects. Which of C. Subacute sclerosing encephalitis
the following viral infections could the mother have D. Progressive multifocal encephalopathy
acquired during conception? E. Rabies
A. Zika
B. Rubeola 4. Which of the following exposures poses a risk for
C. Roseola hepatitis infection?
D. HSV-2 A. A nurse sustains a needlestick while drawing up
E. Rubella insulin to administer to an HBV-infected patient
with diabetes.
18. Which of the following enzymes is required by B. While cleaning the bathroom, a housekeeper's
Retroviruses to synthesize DNA from their RNA genome intact skin has contact with feces.
for successful replication? C. An operating room technician with chapped and
A. viral protease abraded hands notices blood under his gloves
B. RNA-dependent DNA-polymerase after assisting in an operation on a patient with
C. integrase HCV infection.
D. RNA replicase D. A child drinks out of the same cup as her mother,
E. RNA-polymerase who has an HAV infection.
E. A shopper eats a sandwich prepared by a worker
19. Bianca, a 5 y/o female, presented with bilateral with an asymptomatic HBV infection.
swelling of the parotid glands. Identify the viral infection.:
5. HDV (delta agent) is found only in patients who have
A. measles either acute or chronic infection with HBV. Which of the
B. monkeypox following statements is most correct?
C. mumps A. HDV is a defective mutant of HBV.
D. chickenpox B. HDV depends on HBV surface antigen for virion
E. German measles formation.
C. HDV induces an immune response
20. Michael presented with a runny nose, coughing, fever, indistinguishable from that induced by HBV.
rashes on the head & trunk, and red spots with white D. HDV is related to HCV
centers on the oral mucosa. Identify the viral infection. : E. HDV contains a circular DNA genome.
A. Roseola
B. Varicella 6. The following statements about HCV infection are
C. Variola correct except:
D. Rubella A. HCV is responsible for chronic liver disease.
E. Rubeola
Prepared by: CJA & LDP
 B. HCV is the most common cause of the former
Non-A and Non-B Hepatitis.
C. HCV-associated liver disease is a cause for liver
transplant
D. HCV viremia occurs transiently during early
stages of infection.
E. HCV-infected patients are at risk for liver cancer.

7. A 26-year-old Medical technologist is found to be both

HBsAg positive and HBeAg positive. The medical
technologist most likely:
A. Has acute hepatitis and is infectious
B. Has both HBV and HEV infections
C. Has a chronic HBV infection
D. Has cleared a past HBV infection
E. Was previously immunized with HBV vaccine
prepared from healthy HBAg-positive carriers

8. A 35-year-old man addicted to intravenous drugs has

been a carrier of HBAg for 10 years. He suddenly
develops acute fulminant hepatitis and dies within 10
days. Which of the following laboratory tests would
contribute most to diagnosis?
A. Anti-HBs antibody
B. HBeAg
C. Anti-HBc antibody
D. Anti-delta virus Ab

9. Each of the following statements concerning HCV and

HDV is correct except:
A. HCV is an RNA virus that causes posttransfusion
hepatitis.
B. HDV is transmitted primarily by the fecal-oral
route
C. HDV is a defective virus that can replicate only in
a cell that is also infected with HBV.
D. People infected with HCV commonly become
chronic carriers of HCV and are predisposed to
hepatocellular carcinoma.

10. IgM antibody to the viral particle is the method of

choice for laboratory diagnosis of which one of the
following hepatitis viruses?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
E. Hepatitis E

Prepared by: CJA & LDP

Prepared by: CJA & LDP