Custom Practice Test - 02-Aug

Contact Number: 8527521718

3. A boy throws two balls A, B from the

Physics window of a tall multi-storeyed building. Ball
1. The position of a particle with respect to A is dropped from rest, while ball B is given

time t along the x-axis is given by an initial horizontal speed of 30 m/s. The
x = 9t − t where x is in metres and t in
2 3
position of the boy is at a level of 80 m
seconds. What will be the position of this above the ground, and the balls are thrown
particle when it achieves maximum speed simultaneously. Ignore air resistance, and
along the +x-direction? take g = 10 m/s .
2

1. 32 m The separation between the points of

2. 54 m impact, of the balls on the ground, is:
3. 81 m 1. less than 50 m
4. 24 m
2. between 50 m and 100 m
3. between 100 m and 150 m
2. A projectile, moving with an initial velocity
u, appears to move along a parabolic path.
4. more than 150 m
The motion of this projectile is observed
from a car moving at a constant speed v,
making an angle ϕ with the horizontal: it is 4. A particle moves in a circle with a uniform
observed that the projectile moves along a speed of 3 m/s and its acceleration is
2
straight line. Then: 6 m/s . The time period of its motion is (in

seconds):
1. 4π 2. 2π
π
3. π 4.
2

5. Buses ply between two towns, (A, B)

1. v sin ϕ = u sin θ separated by 6 km: those going from A
2. v cos ϕ = u cos θ towards B go at 20 km/h while those
3. v tan ϕ = u tan θ going from B to A go at 30 km/h. If a
4. v cot ϕ = u cot θ passenger were to make a round trip from A
to B and back, without stopping, his average
speed will be:

1. 25 km/h 2. 24 km/h

3. 27 km/h 4. 28 km/h

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 Custom Practice Test - 02-Aug
Contact Number: 8527521718

6. Wind blows towards north with a speed of 8. Which of the following is correct
20 m/s. A plane flies in air with a velocity regarding the graph in which the motion of
relative to ground of 100 m/s, towards two persons A and B is shown from their
east. Then, the velocity of the plane relative home to their office? (Home of A is taken as
to air is: origin, x is the position and t is time).
100 m/s towards east and 20 m/s
1.
towards north.
100 m/s towards east and 20 m/s
2.
towards south.
100 m/s towards west and 20 m/s
3.
towards north.
100 m/s towards west and 20 m/s
4.
towards south.
1. B starts earlier than A.
2. A moves faster than B.
7. A projectile with a linear momentum p 3. Both meet at 150 m from the house of A.
makes an angle θ with the horizontal. The
4. Both meet at 50 m from the house of B.
change in momentum of the projectile on
return to the ground will be: Choose the correct option from the given
1. 2p 2. 2p cos θ ones:
3. 2p sin θ 4. 2p tan θ
1. (A), (B), and (C) only
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (B) and (D) only
4. (A), (B), (C), (D)

9. A car starts at point X. It travels 3.0 km

due east, then 4.0 km due south, then 6.0
km due west, and finally 8.0 km due
north. How far away is the car from point X
when it has reached the end of this journey?
(Assume that all distances moved are on a
flat horizontal surface, and that point X is
on the equator. You may ignore any
curvature of the Earth).
1. 5.0 km
2. 21.0 km
3. 10.0 km
4. 7.0 km

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 Custom Practice Test - 02-Aug
Contact Number: 8527521718

10. A ball is projected from point with 13. The figure shows a ball (from the top
A

velocity 20 ms–1 at an angle 60 to the view) rolling on a table with a partial hoop.
∘

horizontal direction. At the highest point B Which arrow best describes the path of the
of the path (as shown in figure), the velocity ball after it leaves the hoop?
v (in ms–1) of the ball will be:

1. 20 2. 10√3

3. zero 4. 10 1. A 2. B
3. C 4. D

11. The x-coordinate of a particle moving

along the x-axis at any instant is described 14. The velocity of a particle (v) and the
by the equation: displacement (s) are related to each other
x = (2 − 5t + 6t ), where x is in metres
2
according to the given graph:
and t is in seconds.
What is the initial velocity of the particle?
1. 2 m/s 2. −5 m/s
3. 3 m/s 4. 12 m/s

12. A ball is released from the top of a

building 180 m high. It takes time t to reach The magnitude of the initial acceleration of
the ground. With what speed should it be the particle is:
projected down so that it reaches the ground 27 9
2 2
in time 6 ?
5t 1. m/s 2. m/s
8 8
1. 50 ms−1 3 2
3. m/s 4. zero
2. 61 ms−1 8
3. 11 ms−1
4. 2 ms−1

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 Custom Practice Test - 02-Aug
Contact Number: 8527521718

15. Which of the following statements is 17. From the velocity-time (v-t) plot shown
true about the motion depicted in the in the figure, what is the distance travelled by
diagram? the particle during the first 40 s?

The acceleration is constant and non-

1.
zero.
1. zero
The velocity changes suddenly during the
2. 2. 100 m
motion.
3. 150 m
3. The velocity is positive throughout. 4. 200 m
4. All of the above are true.
18. Rain is falling vertically downward with a
speed of 35 m/s. The wind starts blowing
16. A projectile is fired from the top of a cliff, after some time with a speed of 12 m/s in
the maximum range of the projectile being the east to the west direction. The direction
1000 m on level ground. The maximum in which a boy standing at the place should
range of the projectile, measured from the hold his umbrella is:
base of the cliff is:
1. greater than 1000 m
2. less than 1000 m
3. equal to 1000 m
can be any of the above depending on the
4.
height of the cliff

1. tan
−1
(
12
37
) with respect to rain

2. tan
−1
(
12
37
) with respect to wind

3. tan−1 ( 35 ) with respect to rain

12

12
4. tan−1 ( 35 ) with respect to wind

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 Custom Practice Test - 02-Aug
Contact Number: 8527521718

19. A ball is dropped vertically from height h 22. A boy throws two balls A, B from the
and bounces elastically on the floor (see window of a tall multi-storeyed building. Ball
figure). Which of the following plots best A is dropped from rest, while ball B is given
depicts the acceleration of the ball as a an initial horizontal speed of 30 m/s. The
function of time? position of the boy is at a level of 80 m
above the ground, and the balls are thrown
simultaneously. Ignore air resistance, and
2
take g = 10 m/s .
Ball A reaches the ground in:
1. 8 s
2. 4 s
3. 2 s
1. 2. 4. √8 s

23. A car is going up a slight slope

decelerating at 0.1 m/s2. It comes to a stop
after going for 5 s. What was its initial
velocity?
1. 0.02 m/s
3. 4.
2. 0.25 m/s
3. 0.5 m/s
4. 1.0 m/s

24. Two cars P and Q start from a point at

20. A drone takes off with a velocity 40 the same time in a straight line and their
km/h in a direction 30∘ north of the east. positions are represented by;
The wind is blowing at 40 km/h from north
xp (t) = at + bt
2
and xQ (t) = f t − t . At
2

to south. What is the magnitude of the

what time do the cars have the same
drone’s resultant displacement in 2 hrs?
velocity?
1. 40 km a+f
a−f
2. 80 km 1. 1+b
2. 2(b−1)

3. 80√2 km a+f f −a
3. 4.
4. 100 km 2(b+1) 2(1+b)

21. A particle moves along a straight line

with its velocity (v) varying as the square
root of its displacement (x): v ∝ √x
Then its acceleration varies as:
1
1.
√x

2. x3/2
3. x−3/2
4. x0

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 Custom Practice Test - 02-Aug
Contact Number: 8527521718

25. Select the correct option based on the 28. An insect trapped in a circular groove of
statements given below: radius 10 cm moves along the groove
When a projectile is at its steadily and completes 14 revolutions in
Statement I: highest point, its tangential 100 s. The angular speed of the insect is:

acceleration is zero. (Take π =

22
)
7
When a projectile is at the
1. 0.22 rad/s
Statement II: highest point of its trajectory,
2. 0.44 rad/s
its speed is minimum.
3. 0.88 rad/s
4. 1.76 rad/s
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II
1.
is correct. 29. Two identical particles are projected
Both Statement I and Statement II are from the ground with the same initial
2.
correct. velocity, one is at angle θ with horizontal and
Both Statement I and Statement II are another is at an angle ( 90 − θ ) with
3.
incorrect. vertical. The ratio of their ranges is:
Statement I is correct and Statement II is 1. tan 2θ 2. cos 2θ
4.
incorrect. sinθ
3. 4. 1
1 + cosθ

26. A ball of mass 5 grams is thrown

downward from point A with a certain initial 30. A stopper is swung on a string, one end
velocity v0 towards a hard floor. Without any of which is fixed at a point P . The diagram
loss of energy, it rebounds from the floor to a shows the stopper and string from the top,
point 10 m above the original level. Thus, the and the stopper is swinging
initial velocity v0 of the ball is: counterclockwise at a constant speed.
1. 10 m/s
2. 50 m/s
3. 14 m/s
4. 28 m/s

27. Raindrops fall from the sky making an

angle of 30∘ with the vertical. If a man runs
Which arrow best shows the direction of the
at 2 m/s, he finds that the drops fall
velocity vector?
vertically. If he were to run in the opposite
direction with the same speed, the raindrops 1. A 2. B

will fall with a vertical speed of: 3. C 4. D

1. 2 m/s 2. 4 m/s
3. 2√3 m/s 4. 4√3 m/s

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Contact Number: 8527521718

31. Consider a chessboard, as shown in the 32. The velocity-time (v-t) graph of a body
figure, where the width of each square is moving along the x-axis is shown in the
2 cm. Assume that all pieces are kept at the figure. The average speed during the first six
centres of the squares, before and after a seconds of motion is:
move. Also, assume that each single move
takes 2 s – irrespective of however many
squares (distance) are taken.

1. 10 m/s
2. 12 m/s
3. 15 m/s
4. 20 m/s

33. A ship A is moving westward with a

What is the maximum possible speed of 10 kmph and a ship B, 100 km
♖
displacement of a rook ( ) in a single south of A, is moving northward with a
move? speed of 10 kmph. The time after which the
Note: A rook can move any number of distance between them becomes the
squares along only x or only y (positive or shortest is:
negative) direction. 1. 0 h
1. 14 cm 2. 16 cm 2. 5 h
3. 5√2 h
3. 18 cm 4. 16√2 cm
4. 10√2 h

34. A projectile is fired so as to give a

maximum horizontal range of 1 km. What
would be the maximum height reached by it
if it were to be fired vertically upward?
1. 2 km 2. 1 km
1 1
3. km 4. km
2 4

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 Custom Practice Test - 02-Aug
Contact Number: 8527521718

35. Depict the shown v-x graph in the a-x 37. During uniformly accelerated motion in a
graph: straight line, which of the following can be
negative or positive?
1. distance travelled 2. time travelled
3. average velocity 4. average speed

38. The position-time (x-t) graph for

positive acceleration is:

1. 2.
1. 2.

3. 4.

3. 4.

36. A swimmer swims perpendicular to river

flow and reaches point B. If the velocity of
the swimmer in still water is 4 km/hr, the
velocity of the river flow is:

1. 3 km/hr 2. 5 km/hr
3. 2 km/hr 4. 6 km/hr

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 Custom Practice Test - 02-Aug
Contact Number: 8527521718

39. Consider a square carrom board 41. A particle moves with a speed v in a
ABCD of size 3 ft × 3 ft. A piece moves circle of radius R. The x-component of the
'from' pocket A (close from a pocket), average velocity of the particle in a
strikes side BC and then side AD, and half-revolution as shown in the figure, is:
reaches pocket C . If the piece is reflected
perfectly from each side, then the ratio of
the x, y components of velocity is given by
vx
=
vy

−v
1. ( )
π

−v
2. ( )
2π

−v
3. ( )
4π

−2v
4. ( )
π

1. 2 2.
1 42. Consider the following figure
2 representing the displacement of an object
1 in one dimension.
3. 3 4.
3

40. Two particles A and B, move with

→1 and v→2 respectively. At
constant velocities v
the initial moment, their position vectors are
→1 and r→2 respectively. The conditions for Which of the following best represents the
r
particles A and B for their collision will be: graph of acceleration versus time?
→ →
r1 − r2 → − v→
v 2 1
1. =
→ − r→ | |v→ − v→
|r 1 2 2 1|
1. 2.
→ ⋅ v→ = r→ ⋅ v→
2. r 1 1 2 2

→ × v→ = r→ × v→
3. r 1 1 2 2

→ − r→ = v→ − v→
4. r 1 2 1 2

3. 4.

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 Custom Practice Test - 02-Aug
Contact Number: 8527521718

43. Given below are two statements: 45. A mass is thrown vertically upwards
When a particle moves in a from the ground with a certain initial velocity
circle with a uniform speed, u. Which one of the following velocity-time
Assertion (A):
both its velocity and (v-t) graphs represents the motion of the

acceleration change. mass?

The centripetal acceleration
in circular motion is
Reason (R):
independent of the angular
velocity of the body. 1. 2.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the

1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not
2.
the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
3. 4.

44. A particle continuously moves in a

circular path at constant speed in a
counterclockwise direction. Consider a time
interval during which the particle moves
along this circular path from point P to point
Q. Point Q is exactly halfway around the Chemistry
circle from point P . 46. Which of the following statements is
correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a
gas?
∆ S is negative and therefore, ∆ H should
1.
be highly positive
∆ S is negative and therefore, ∆ H should
2.
be highly negative
∆ S is positive and therefore, ∆ H should
3.
be negative
What is the direction of the average velocity -∆ S is positive and therefore, ∆ H should
4.
during this time interval? also be highly positive
1. →
2. ←
3. ↑
4. ↓

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 Custom Practice Test - 02-Aug
Contact Number: 8527521718

47. Consider the following reaction: 51. An ideal gas in a thermally insulated
vessel at internal pressure = P1 , volume =
2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2 O(g)Δr H = −483.64kJ.
∘

What is the enthalpy change for the V1 , and absolute temperature = T1 expands
decomposition of one mole of water? irreversibly against zero external pressure,
1. 120.9 kJ 2. 241.82 kJ as shown in the diagram. The final internal
3. 18 kJ 4. 100 kJ pressure, volume, and absolute temperature
of the gas are P2 , V2 and T2 , respectively.
For this expansion, which of the following
48. The bond dissociation energies relation(s) hold true?
of XY, X2, and Y2 (all diatomic molecules) are
in the ratio of 1 : 1: 0.5 and ΔHf for the
formation of XY is -200 kJ mol-1. The bond
dissociation energy of X2 will be:
1. 400 kJ mol-1
2. 300 kJ mol-1 (a)
-1
3. 200 kJ mol q = 0
-1 (b) T2 = T1
4. 800 kJ mol
(c) P2 V2 = P1 V1
γ γ
(d) P2 V2 = P1 V1
49. At equilibrium, which of the following is 1. (a), (b), (c)
always zero? 2. (b), (d)
1. ΔGsystem 2. ΔST otal 3, (a), (d)
3. ΔSsystem 4. Both (1) and (2) 4. None of the above

52. Which one of the following is an

exothermic reaction?
50. The entropy change for the melting of 'x'
1. N2(g) + O2(g) + 180.8 kJ → 2NO(g)
moles of ice at 273 K and 1 atm pressure is
28.80 cal K–1. 2. N2(g) + 3H2(g) − 92kJ → 2NH3(g)
The value of 'x' is: 3. C(g) + H2O(l) → CO(g) + H2(g) −131.1 kJ
–1
(Given: heat of fusion is 80 cal g ) 4. C(graphite) + 2S(s) → CS2(l) − 91.9 kJ
1. 4.32 mol 2. 8.56 mol
3. 10.36 mol 4. 5.46 mol 53. Considering entropy (S) as a
thermodynamic parameter, the criterion for
the spontaneity of any process is:

1. ΔSsystem + ΔSsurroundings > 0

2. ΔSsystem − ΔSsurroundings > 0

3. ΔSsystem > 0 only

4. ΔSs urroundings > 0 only

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 Custom Practice Test - 02-Aug
Contact Number: 8527521718

54. Given the following reaction: 57. Which of the following is the maximum
1 1 energy available for useful work from a
H2 + Cl2 → HCl
2 2 spontaneous reaction?
ΔHf (HCl) = −93 kJ/mol 1. Gibbs free energy 2. Lattice energy
3. kJ/mol
B.E (H2 ) = 434 kJ/mol, B.E (Cl2 ) = 242 Kinetic energy 4. Ionization energy
The bond dissociation energy of HCl in the
above reaction will be:
1. 232 kJ/mol 58.
2. 331 kJ/mol The standard enthalpy change
3. 431 kJ/mol for the formation of one mole
4. 530 kJ/mol of a compound from its
Statement I: elements in their most stable
55. Match Column I (Reactions) with states (reference states) is
Column II ( Enthalpy) and mark the called standard molar
appropriate choice: enthalpy of formation.
For, CaO(s)+ CO2 (g) →
Column II
Column I (Reactions)
(Enthalpy) CaCO3(s) ; ∆fH⊝ = -178.3
Statement II:
(A) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2 O (i) Δsol H o kJmol-1 , the ∆rH⊝ is equal to
(B) H2(g) (ii) the ∆fH⊝ .
o
→ 2H(g) Δlattice H
+ −
(C) N aCl(s) → Na
(g)
+ Cl
(g)
(iii) Δc H o
+ − 1. Both statements I and II are true.
(D) N aCl(s) → N a(aq) + Cl(aq) (iv) Δbond H o
2. Statement I is true; and statement II is
false.
1. (A) →(iv), (B)→(iii), (C) →(i), (D)→ (ii) 3. Both statements I and II are false.
2. (A) →(ii), (B)→(i), (C) →(iv), (D)→ (iii) 4. Statement I is false; statement II is true.
3. (A) →(i), (B)→(ii), (C) →(iii), (D)→ (iv)
59. One mole of ice is converted to water at
4. (A) →(iii), (B)→(iv), (C) →(ii), (D)→ (i)
273 K. The entropies of H₂O(s) and H₂O(l)
are 38.20 J mol⁻¹K⁻¹ and 60.01 J mol⁻¹K⁻¹,
56. For which of the following processes will
respectively. What is the enthalpy change for
the entropy increase?
this conversion?
1. Reaction of magnesium with oxygen to
form magnesium oxide 1. 59.54 J mol-1
-1
2. Reaction of nitrogen and hydrogen to form 2. 5954 J mol
ammonia 3. 595.4 J mol-1
3. Sublimation of dry ice 4. 320.6 J mol-1
4. Condensation of steam

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 Custom Practice Test - 02-Aug
Contact Number: 8527521718

60. The oxidizing power of chlorine in an 64. For the spontaneity of freezing of water,
aqueous solution can be determined by the which condition must be imposed?
following parameters: 1. ΔH > T ΔS
2. ΔH−< T ΔS
1 Θ Θ Θ
(Δ) H (Δ) H eg
(Δ) H hyd
2 diss
1 −
(Cl)2 (g) → Cl (g) → (Cl) (g) → (Cl) (aq)
2 3. ΔH = T ΔS
The energy involved in the conversion of 4. Freezing of water is always non-
Cl2 (g) to Cl (aq) will be:
1 −
2 spontaneous
Use the following data:
∘
Δdiss H (Cl2 ) = 240 kJ mol
−1
65. At standard conditions, the change in
∘
Δ H (Cl) = −349 kJ mol
−1 enthalpy for the following reaction is –109
eg
−1

Δhyd H
∘
(Cl
−
) = −381 kJ mol
−1 kJ mol
H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2 HBr(g)
1. - 610 kJ mol-1 2. - 850 kJ mol-1
Given that the bond energy of H 2 and Br 2 is
3. +120 kJ mol -1 4. -1
+152 kJ mol 435 kJ mol−1 and 192 kJ mol−1 ,
respectively, what is the bond energy (in kJ
−1
mol ) of HBr?
61. If at 298 K the bond energies of C-H, C-C, 1. 368
C = C and H-H bonds are respectively 414, 2. 736
347, 615, and 435 kJ mol–1, the value of 3. 518
enthalpy change for the reaction at 298 K 4. 259
will be:
66.
H2 C = CH2 (g) + H2 (g) ⟶ H3 C − CH3 (g) Which of the following statements is/are
1. +250 kJ correct?
2. –250 kJ Heat like work is a way of transferring
3. +125 kJ (a)
energy.
4. –125 kJ Heat is not a property of the system,
(b) whereas temperature is a property of the
62. Among the following reactions, change system.
in entropy is less than zero for:
Reactions that are accompanied by the
1. Sublimation of iodine.
(c) evolution of heat are called endothermic
2. Dissociation of hydrogen.
reactions.
3. Formation of water.
Those reactions in which heat is
4. Thermal decomposition of calcium
(d) absorbed are known as exothermic
carbonate.
reactions.
63. Which of the following options correctly 1. a and b
represents the relationship between 2. b, c and d
Cp and CV for one mole of an ideal gas?
3. b and c
4. None of the above
1. CP = RCV 2. CV = RCP
3. CP + CV = R 4. CP − CV = R

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67. An invalid equation among the following 70. The values of ΔH and ΔS for the given
is: reaction are 170 kJ and 170 JK–1,
1. ΔH = ΣHproducts − ΣHreactants respectively.
2. ΔH = ΔU + P ΔV C (graphite) + CO2 ( g) → 2CO(g)
3. This reaction will be spontaneous at:
o o o
ΔH
(reaction)
= ΔH
(products bonds)
− ΔH 1. 710 K
(reactant bonds)

4. ΔH = ΔU + ΔnRT 2. 910 K
3. 1110 K
68. The reversible expansion of an ideal gas 4. 510 K
under adiabatic and isothermal conditions is
shown in the figure. 71. Five moles of an ideal gas at 1 bar and
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) 298 K is expanded into vacuum to double
correct? the volume. The work done is:
1. CV (T2 − T1 )
2. -RT (V2 − V1 )
3. -RT ln (V1 /V2 )
4. Zero

72. Which of the following is/are correct

about isothermal expansion of work?
1. ωirreversible = ωreversible
2. ωirreversible > ωreversible
a. T1 = T2 3. ωirreversible < ωreversible
b. T3 > T1 4. All of the above
c. wisothermal > wadiabatic
d. ΔUisothermal > ΔUadiabatic 73. Consider the statements given below:
1. a, c, d 2. b, c The enthalpy of both
3. d, a 4. None of the above graphite and diamond is
Assertion (A):
taken to be zero, being
elementary substances.
69. Which of the following equation For elementary substances
represents a reaction that provides the Reason (R): in their standard state, the
enthalpy of the formation of CH3Cl? enthalpy of formation is
taken as zero.
1. C(s) + HCl(g) + H2 (g) ⟶ CH3 Cl(g)

2. C(s) + 3H(g) + Cl(g) ⟶ CH3 Cl(g)

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the
3. C(s) + 3/2H2 (g) + 1/2Cl2 (g) 1.
⟶ CH3 Cl(g)
correct explanation of (A).
4. CH4 (g) + Cl2 (g) ⟶ CH3 Cl(g) + HCl(g) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
2.
the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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74. A fixed mass 'm' of a gas is subjected to 76. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon
the transformation of states from K to L, L and carbon monoxide are -393.5 and -283 kJ
to M , then M to N , and back to K as mol-1 respectively. The enthalpy of the
shown in the figure. formation of carbon monoxide per mole is:
1. 110.5 kJ
2. 676.5 kJ
3. -676.5 kJ
4. -110.5 kJ

77. Given the following reaction:

1
Ag2 O(s) → 2Ag(s) + O2 (g)
2

The values of ΔH and ΔS are 30.56

kJ/mol and 66.00 J/K·mol, respectively. The
The succeeding operations that enable this temperature at which the free energy change
transformation of states are: (ΔG) for the reaction will be zero is:
1. Heating, cooling, heating, cooling 1. 563 K
2. Cooling, heating, cooling, heating 2. 463 K
3. Heating, cooling, cooling, heating 3. 403 K
4. Cooling, heating, heating, cooling 4. 544 K

75. Thermodynamics primarily focuses on: 78. Match the following reactions in
Interrelation of various forms of energy Column-I to the correct enthalpy associated
(a) and their transformation from one form with them given in Column-II:
to another. Column-I Column
Energy changes in the processes
A. C6 H6 (l) + I.
15
O2 → 6CO2 (g) + 3H2 O(l) Δlattice H
depend only on the initial and final 2

(b) B. N aCl(s) → Na
+
(g) + Cl
−
(g) II. Δhyd H
∘
states of the microscopic systems
containing a few molecules. C. AB(s) → A
+
(aq) + B
−
(aq) III. Δc H ∘
The mechanisms and rates at which D. A+ (g) + B− (g) → A+ (aq) + B− (aq) IV. Δsol H ∘
(c)
these energy transformations occur. Choose the correct option from the
Whether a system is in an equilibrium following:
(d) state or transitioning between one 1. A - (III); B - (I); C - (IV); D - (II)
equilibrium state and another. 2. A - (III); B - (I); C - (II); D - (IV)
3. A - (II); B - (I); C - (IV); D - (III)
4. A - (III); B - (II); C - (I); D - (IV)
The correct statements among the above
are:
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (c) and (d)
4. (a) and (d)

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79. A gas is allowed to expand in a well- 83. Consider the given two statements:
insulated container against a constant A molar property (Xm ) is the
external pressure of 2.5atm from an initial value of an extensive property
volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50L. Statement I:
(X) of the system for 0.1 mol
The change in internal energy U of the gas in of the substance.
joules will be:
If n is the amount of matter,
1. –500J 2. –505J Statement II: Xm = χ/n is independent of
3. –506J 4. –508J the amount of matter.

Statement I is correct; Statement II is

80. The reaction, among the following, that 1.
correct
has ∆S° > 0 is:
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
1. S8(l) → S8(s, monoclinic) 2.
incorrect
2. H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O2(aq) Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3.
incorrect
3. H2(g) + 2 Ag+(aq) → 2 H+(aq) + 2 Ag(s)
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
4. PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) correct

81. Which of the following statements are 84. Calculate the standard enthalpy of
true for a cyclic process? reaction for the following reaction using the
a. W = 0 b. ∆E = 0 given enthalpies of reaction:
3Co(s) + 2O2 (g) → Co3 O4 (s)
c. ∆H = 0 d. ∆E ≠ 0
Given:
∘
1. a, b 2Co(s) + O2 (g) → 2CoO(s); ΔH1 = −475.8 k

2. b, c 6CoO(s) + O2 (g) → 2Co3 O4 (s); ΔH

2
∘
= −355
3. c, d 1. −891.2 kJ
4. a, d 2. −120.8 kJ
3. +891.2 kJ
4. −830.8 kJ

82. The heat required (in kJ) to raise the 85. Maximum work is obtained by the
temperature of 54 g of Al from 30 °C to 50 system in:
°C is:
Irreversible Reversible
(Given: Molar heat capacity of Al is 24 J K-1 1. process 2.
process
mol-1) 3. Adiabatic process 4. Isobaric process
1. 960
2. 0.73
3. 0.96
4. 9.25

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86. Which p-V curve among the following 89. Given

depicts the highest amount of work done? C(graphite) + O2 ( g) → CO2 ( g)

∘ −1
Δr H = −393.5 kJ mol

1
H2 (g) + O2 ( g) → H2 O(l)
2

1. 2. Δr H
∘
= −285.8 kJ mol
−1

CO2 ( g) + 2H2 O(l) → CH4 ( g) + 2O2 ( g)

∘ −1
Δr H = +890.3 kJ mol
Based on the above thermochemical
equations, the value of ΔrH° at 298 K for the
reaction
3. 4.
C(graphite) + 2H2 (g) → CH4 (g) will be :
1. –74.8 kJ mol–1
2. –144.0 kJ mol–1
3. +74.8 kJ mol–1
–1
87. The correct expression out of the 4. +144.0 kJ mol
following is:
90. The amount of heat required to raise the
1. ΔU = ΔH + Δng RT
temperature of one mole of the substance
Cp − CV = R for 1 mole of a non-ideal by 1 K is called its:
2.
gas. 1. Molar heat capacity
3. ΔStotal > 0 for a spontaneous process. 2. Entropy
Δ G
0
3. Thermal capacity
4. In K = ( RT )
r

4. Specific heat

88. For a particular reversible reaction at

temperature T, ∆H and ∆S were found to be
Biology
91. Match Column I with Column II for
both +ve. If Te is the temperature at
housefly classification and select the correct
equilibrium, the reaction would be option using the codes given below:
spontaneous when: Column I Column II
1. T = Te
A. Family (i) Diptera
2. Te > T
B. Order (ii) Arthropoda
3. T > Te
C. Class (iii) Muscidae
4. Te is 5 times T
D. Phylum (iv) Insecta
1. A-(iii) B-(i) C-(iv) D-(ii)
2. A-(iii) B-(ii) C-(iv) D-(i)
3. A-(iv) B-(iii) C-(ii) D-(i)
4. A-(iv) B-(ii) C-(i) D-(iii)

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92. Consider the given two statements: 95. During diakinesis of prophase I:
Frogs do not have a lymphatic Terminalisation of chiasmata takes
Statement I: I:
system. place.
Statement Frogs do not have a portal II: Meiotic spindle is assembled.
II: system. Nucleolus disappears and the nuclear
III:
membrane breaks down.
Statement I is correct; Statement II is The correct statements are:
1.
incorrect 1. I, II and III 2. I and II only
Statement I is correct; Statement II is 3. I and III only 4. II and III only
2.
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3.
incorrect 96. The Order [taxon] of Musca domestica is:
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 1. Hymenoptera 2. Diptera
4.
correct 3. Coleoptera 4. Orthoptera

93. Identify the incorrect match: 97. Liquid endosperm in coconut forms due
Structure of to:
Location
Cockroach 1. Failure of cytokinesis after karyokinesis
4-6th abdominal 2. Failure of karyokinesis before cytokinesis
1. Testes
segments 3. Disruption of spindle fibers at metaphase
th
8-9 abdominal Continued DNA replication during
2. Mushroom gland 4.
segments cytokinesis
2-6th abdominal
3. Ovaries
segments
98. All living organisms, past , present and
4. Spermatheca 6th abdominal
future, are linked to one another as:
segment
They have common genetic material of
1.
the same type
They share common genetic material but
94. At a place where a ‘diffusion boundary’ is 2.
to varying degrees
present in the human body, you are most
likely to find 3. All have common cellular organization
1. Simple squamous epithelium All can make their own food by similar
4.
2. Cuboidal brush bordered epithelium metabolism
3. Columnar ciliated epithelium
4. Compound epithelium
99. During which phase(s) of the cell cycle,
amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4 C level
if the initial amount is denoted as 2C:
1. G0 and G1 2. G1 and S
3. Only G2 4. G2 and M

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100. The main difference between taxonomy 102. Match the following respiratory
and systematics is that: volumes with their correct descriptions:
Taxonomy is involved in the naming and
classification of organisms while Respiratory
Description
1. systematics is involved in determining Volume
evolutionary relationships between Additional volume of
organisms Residual
(A) (1) air inspired during
Volume (RV)
Systematics is involved in the naming forcible inspiration
and classification of organisms while Volume of air that
2. taxonomy is involved in determining Expiratory
remains in the lungs
evolutionary relationships between (B) Reserve (2)
after forced
organisms Volume (ERV)
expiration
Taxonomy is not a true science and has Inspiratory Maximum volume of
3.
largely been replaced with systematics (C) Reserve (3) air expelled after
Systematics can be considered as a part Volume (IRV) normal expiration
4.
of taxonomy Volume of air
Tidal Volume inspired or expired
(D) (4)
(TV) during normal
101. Which of the following statements respiration
accurately describes the respiratory
methods in frogs? Options:
On land, frogs use only their lungs for 1. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
1.
respiration. 2. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
In water, frogs use their lungs for 3. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
2.
respiration. 4. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
During aestivation and hibernation,
3. gaseous exchange takes place through 103. Intercalated discs are characteristically
the lungs. seen in:
1. Cardiac muscles
On land, frogs use the buccal cavity, skin,
4. 2. Myelinated neurons
and lungs for respiration.
3. Exocrine glands
4. Smooth muscles

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104. Consider the given two statements: 107. In Cardiac muscle tissue:
The partial pressure of oxygen Cell junctions fuse the plasma
I:
Statement I: is equal in alveoli and membranes of cardiac muscle cells
oxygenated blood. Communication junctions allow the cell to
II:
The partial pressure of carbon contract as a unit
Statement II: dioxide is equal in alveoli and
deoxygenated blood. 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3. Both I and II are correct
correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
correct 108. The partial pressure of oxygen is
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is expected to be least in:
incorrect 1. Atmospheric air
2. Alveoli
105. The cell shown in the given figure is 3. Oxygenated blood
most likely at: 4. Tissues

109. The figure given below shows a small

part of the human lung where exchange of
gases takes place. In which one of the
options given below, the one part A, B, C or D
is correctly identified along with its function?

1. Metaphase I
2. Metaphase II
3. Anaphase I
4. Anaphase II

106. Types of cell junctions that are found in

the epithelium and other tissues that
facilitate the cells to communicate with each A – Alveolar cavity – main site of
1.
other by connecting the cytoplasm of exchange of respiratory gases
adjoining cells are: D – Capillary wall – exchange of O2 and
2.
1. Tight junctions 2. Adhering junctions CO2 takes place here
3. Gap junctions 4. Plasmodesmata B – Red blood cell – transport of
3.
CO2 mainly.
C – Arterial capillary – passes oxygen to
4.
tissues

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110. The correct biological name for mango 112. Given below are two statements: one is
should correctly be printed as: labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
Mangifera indica Mangifera indica labelled as Reason (R):
1. 2.
Linn Linn The amount of carbon
mangifera Indica Mangifera Indica dioxide that can diffuse
3. 4. through the diffusion
Linn Linn
Assertion (A): membrane per unit difference
in partial pressure is much
111. Consider the given two statements: higher compared to that of
Nomenclature is the process of oxygen.
Statement grouping organisms into The solubility of carbon
I: convenient categories based on Reason (R): dioxide is 20 – 25 times
observable characters. lower than that of oxygen.
Binomial nomenclature is a In the light of the above statements choose
naming system that provides a the correct answer from the options given
Statement below:
name with two components:
II: Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
Generic name and specific 1.
epithet. correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not
2.
Both Statement I and Statement II are the correct explanation of (A).
1. correct and Statement II is the correct 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
explanation for Statement I. 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
2. correct but Statement II is not the correct
explanation for Statement I. 113. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is The amount of CO2 that can
3.
incorrect. diffuse through the diffusion
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II membrane per unit difference
4. Assertion (A):
is correct. in partial pressure is much
higher compared to that of
O2.
Haemoglobin does not play
any role in the transport of
Reason (R):
carbon dioxide in human
blood.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False

Both (A) and (R) are True and
2.
(R) correctly explains (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
3.
correctly explain (A)
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

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114. Consider the following statements 117. Consider the given two statements:
regarding the G0 phase: The cells that do not divide
Cells in the G0 phase are metabolically further exit G1 phase to enter
(i) Statement I:
inactive. quiescent phase of the cell
Cells in the G0 phase exit the G1 phase cycle.
(ii) Cells in the quiescent phase of
and do not divide further.
the cell cycle remain
G0 phase is also known as the Statement II:
(iii) metabolically inactive and do
quiescent stage of the cell cycle. not divide.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are 1. Statement I is correct, Statement II is
correct? correct.
1. Only (ii) and (iii) 2. Statement I is correct, Statement II is
2. Only (i) and (iii) incorrect.
3 Only (i) and (ii) 3. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is
4. Only (iii) correct.
4. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is
115. The taxonomic category where you incorrect.
expect to find organisms least similar to one
another would be: 118. Regarding taxonomy and systematics,
1. Class 2. Genus which one is exclusive to systematics?
3. Family 4. Species 1. Internal structure
2. Development process
3. Evolutionary relationships between
116. The lungs are covered by the pleural organisms
membranes which mainly help in: 4. Ecological information of organisms
1. maintaining pressure
2. increasing thoracic pressure 119. Match each item in Column I with one
3. removing foreign particles in Column II regarding taxonomic categories
4. reducing friction of wheat and select the correct match from
the codes given:
Column I Column II
A Family P Monocotyledonae
B Order Q Poaceae
C Class R Angiospermae
D Division S Poales
Codes:
A B C D
1. S Q R P
2. S Q P R
3. Q S P R
4. Q S R P

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120. Consider the given two statements: 122. Consider the given statements:
It is essential for breathing Assertion Frogs can live both on land and
that the anatomical setup of (A): in freshwater.
lungs in thorax is such that Reason (R): Frogs are endotherms.
Assertion (A): any change in the volume of
the thoracic cavity will be Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
reflected in the lung 1.
correct explanation of (A)
(pulmonary) cavity.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not
We cannot directly alter the 2.
Reason (R): the correct explanation of (A).
pulmonary volume.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Both (A) and (R) are True and
1.
(R) correctly explains (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
2. 123. The key difference between cytokinesis
correctly explain (A).
in plant and animal cells is that:
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. Plant cells form a cell plate, while animal
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 1.
cells form a cleavage furrow
Animal cells use microtubules, while plant
2.
cells do not
121. Match each item in Column I with one
Plant cells divide the nucleus differently
item in Column II and select the best match 3.
than animal cells
from the codes given:
4. Animal cells do not undergo cytokinesis
Column I Column II
A. Genus P. tigris
B. Species Q. Panthera 124. Occurrence of which of the following is
C. Family R. Felidae unlikely?
D. Order S. Carnivora 1. Ciliated epithelium in fallopian tube
Cuboidal brush bordered epithelium in
2.
Codes: PCT
A B C D Columnar brush bordered epithelium in
3.
1. Q P R S small intestine
2. Q P S R Compound epithelium at the diffusion
4.
3. P Q R S boundaries
4. P Q S R

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125. The duration of inspiration can be 130. On an average a female cockroach

reduced by: produces:
1. an increase of carbon dioxide in blood 1. 9-10 oothecae , each containing 14-16
a chemical signal from aortic and carotid eggs
2. 2. 14-16 oothecae , each containing 9-10
bodies
eggs
3. a neural signal from pneumotaxic center
3. 5-6 oothecae , each containing 9-10 eggs
an increase in hydrogen ion
4. 4. 9-10 oothecae , each containing 5-6 eggs
concentration in CSF
131. Read the following statements and
choose the correct option
126. Which of the following stages of
In Emphysema, the surface area
meiosis involves division of centromere? Statement
of gaseous exchange is
1. Anaphase II A:
reduced
2. Telophase II
Statement Due to excessive smoking, the
3. Metaphase I
B: walls of alveoli are damaged
4. Metaphase II
1. Both Statement A and Statement B are
127. If a cell had 2N chromosomes and 2C incorrect
DNA content in G1 phase, what would be the 2. Both Statement A and Statement B are
correct
corresponding values at the end of the S
3. Only Statement A is incorrect
phase?
4. Only Statement B is incorrect
1. 2N, 2C 2. 4N, 2C
3. 2N, 4C 4. 4N, 4C

128. The partial pressure of oxygen in the

alveoli of the lungs is:
1. equal to that in the blood
2. more than that in the blood
3. less than that in the blood
4. less than that of carbon dioxide

129. After meiosis I, the resultant daughter

cells have
same amount of DNA as in the parent cell
1.
in S
twice the amount of DNA in comparison
2.
to haploid
same amount of DNA in comparison to
3.
haploid gamete
four times the amount of DNA in
4.
comparison to haploid gamete

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132. Match List-I with List-II: 133. Match the stages of prophase I in
List-I (Events) List-II(Prophase-I) Column-I with their corresponding events in
Chromosomes Column-II and select the best match
start pairing from the codes given:
A. together to form I. Pachytene Column I
synaptonemal (Stages of Column II (Events)
complex Prophase I)
Chromosomes Terminalization of
visible under light chiasmata and
A. Leptotene P.
B. microscope and II. Zygotene breakdown of the
compaction nuclear envelope.
continues Dissolution of
Four chromatids of synaptonemal complex
B. Zygotene Q.
bivalent and visible chiasmata
chromosomes form.
C. III. Diplotene
become distinct Chromosomes become
and recombinant C. Pachytene R. gradually visible and
nodules appear condensation begins.
Dissolution of Crossing over occurs at
D. Diplotene S.
D. synaptonemal IV. Leptotene recombination nodules.
complex Homologous
Choose the correct answer from the options chromosomes pair and
E. Diakinesis T.
given below: form synaptonemal
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-III complexes.
3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Options A B C D E
1 R T S Q P
2 T R Q S P
3 R S T Q P
4 P Q R S T

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134. Which of the following will not be equal 136. Study the given diagram regarding the
in normal physiological conditions? alimentary canal of cockroach and select
Partial pressure of oxygen in the correct statements:
1. deoxygenated blood and partial pressure
of oxygen in tissues
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in
2. alveoli and partial pressure of carbon
dioxide in oxygenated blood
Partial pressure of oxygen in oxygenated
3. blood and partial pressure of oxygen in
alveoli
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in
4. tissues and partial pressure of carbon
dioxide in deoxygenated blood

135. Regarding the process of expiration in

the human respiratory system?
The diaphragm contracts and moves I: A is used for storing food
1. downward, increasing thoracic volume II: B helps in grinding the food particles
and pulmonary volume. III: C help in osmoregulation
The contraction of the sternum and ribs IV: D secretes digestive enzymes
2. causes an increase in pulmonary volume, 1. Only I and II
leading to the passive expulsion of air. 2. Only I, III and IV
The relaxation of the diaphragm leads to 3. Only II
a decrease in thoracic and pulmonary 4. Only III and IV
3.
volume, causing an increase in intra-
pulmonary pressure and expulsion of air. 137. In which of the following connective
Expiration is an active process involving tissues, the cells secrete fibres of collagen
4. continuous muscular effort to push air or elastin?
out of the lungs. A. Cartilage
B. Bone
C. Adipose tissue
D. Blood
E. Areolar tissue
Choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
1. B,C,D and E only
2. A,B,C and E only
3. B,C and D only
4. A,C and D only

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138. The thoracic chamber is formed: 141. Match List-I with List-II:
Column I Column II List-I (Cell Cycle) List-II (Events)
A. Dorsally by P. The Sternum Cell is metabolically
The vertebral active but no
B. Ventrally by Q. A. G1 phase I.
column proliferation until
C. Laterally by R. The rib cage required
D. Inferiorly by S. The Diaphragm B. S phase II. Replication of DNA
Select the correct match from the codes Synthesis of
C. G0 stage III.
given: proteins
A B C D Cell is metabolically
1. Q P R S D. G2 phase IV. active and grows
continuously
2. Q P S R
Choose the correct answer from the options
3. P Q R S
given below:
4. P Q S R
1. A-I, B-II, C-IV,D-III 2. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
3. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

139. Who, amongst the following, has been

called as ‘The Darwin of the 20th Century’?
142. The type of connective tissue shown in
1. Ernst Haeckel
the given figure is most likely to be found:
2. Ernst Hemingway
3. Ernst Mayr
4. Ernst Chain

140. Reduction in pH of blood will?

1. reduce the blood supply to the brain
decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with
2.
oxygen
lead to release of bicarbonate ions by the
3.
liver
1. In tendons
4. reduce the rate of heartbeat 2. In skin
3. Between skull bones
4. At tooth socket

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143. Consider the given two statements: 146. At the alveolar site, the reaction
Meiosis results in the catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase moves in
Statement I: reduction of chromosome the direction of:
−
number by half. 1. Formation of HCO3 and H +
Meiosis increases the genetic 2. Formation of CO2 and H2 O
variability in the population of 3. Binding of O2 to CO2
Statement II:
organisms from one 4. Dissociation of CO2 into carbon and
generation to the next. oxygen

Statement I is correct; Statement II is 147. Under normal physiological conditions:

1. Inspiratory reserve volume is less than
correct 1.
Statement I is correct; Statement II is expiratory reserve volume
2. Residual volume in a healthy male is
incorrect 2.
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is about 2500 to 3000 ml
3. Functional residual capacity should be
correct 3.
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is more than expiratory capacity
4. Total lung capacity + residual volume =
incorrect 4.
Vital capacity

144. Which of the following is a unique

characteristic of the male reproductive 148. Given the following statements about
system in frogs? meiosis:
Testes are attached to the kidneys by a The reduction in chromosome number
1. double fold of peritoneum called I. from diploid to haploid occurs
mesorchium. exclusively in meiosis I.
The ureters function solely as excretory Crossing over, a process that contributes
2. ducts, separate from reproductive II. to genetic variation, occurs between
pathways. sister chromatids.
Vasa efferentia are absent, and sperm The end result of meiosis II is the
3. III. production of four haploid daughter
directly enters the cloaca from the testes.
Sperms are stored in the Bidder’s canal cells.
4. before being expelled through the DNA replication occurs twice during the
IV.
pancreas. entire meiotic process.
Which of the following combinations is
correct?
145. During which stage of prophase I of 1. I and II only
meiosis I, the four chromatids of each of the 2. I and III only
bivalent chromosomes 3. II and IV only
become distinct and clearly appear as 4. III and IV only
tetrads?
1. Leptotene 2. Zygotene
3. Pachytene 4. Diplotene

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149. Consider the two statements: 153. Select the correct statement:
Meiosis ensures the Expiration occurs due to external
1.
production of haploid phase intercostal muscles.
Assertion (A):
in the life cycle of sexually Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than
reproducing organisms. 2.
atmospheric pressure during inspiration.
Syngamy restores the diploid Inspiration occurs when atmospheric
Reason (R): condition in sexually 3. pressure is less than intrapulmonary
reproducing organisms. pressure.
Expiration is initiated due to the
4.
1. (A) is true; (R) is False contraction of the diaphragm.
Both (A) and (R) are True and
2.
(R) correctly explains (A)
154. Which of the following is matched
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
3.
correctly explain (A) incorrectly:
4. (A) is False; (R) is True 1. Mangifera : indica
2. Panthera : tuberosum
3. Solanum : melongena
150. The process by which organisms are 4. Solanum : nigrum
grouped into convenient categories based
on observable characters is called: 155. Which of the following scientists, often
1. Identification referred to as ‘The Darwin of the 20th
2. Nomenclature century,’ pioneered the currently accepted
3. Classification biological species concept and played a key
4. Taxonomy role in establishing species diversity as the
central question of evolutionary biology?
151. In case of plants, classes with a few 1. Theodosius Dobzhansky
similar characters are assigned to a higher 2. Ernst Mayr
category ideally called: 3. James Watson
4. Stephen Jay Gould
1. Phylum 2. Division
3. Subphylum 4. Infra Class
156. Which of the following respiratory
capacities represents the total volume of air
a person can inspire after a normal
152. Choose the correct statement about a expiration?
muscular tissue: 1. Expiratory Capacity (EC)
Skeletal muscle fibres are uninucleated 2. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)
1.
and found in parallel bundles. 3. Inspiratory Capacity (IC)
Intercalated discs allow the skeletal 4. Total Lung Capacity (TLC)
2.
muscle cells to contract as a unit.
Skeletal muscles are striated and
3.
voluntary.
Smooth muscles are multinucleated and
4.
involuntary

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157. In meiosis, the splitting of the 161. Consider the given statements:
centromere of each chromosome takes A decapitated cockroach can
Assertion (A):
place during: survive for several days.
1. Metaphase I 2. Metaphase II The nervous system of a
3. Anaphase I 4. Anaphase II cockroach is spread
throughout its body, and the
Reason (R): brain in the
158. In plant classification, ‘families’ are head region only controls the
characterised on the basis of: antennae and compound
I: vegetative features of plant species. eyes.
II: reproductive features of plant species.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
1. Only I correct explanation of (A)
2. Only II Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not
2.
3. Both I and II the correct explanation of (A).
4. Neither I nor II 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
159. Trachea divides into a right and left
primary bronchi at the level of:
1. 7th cervical vertebra 162. Which of the following is against the
nd rules of ICBN?
2. 2 thoracic vertebra
th Handwritten scientific names should be
3. 5 thoracic vertebra 1.
4. 12 th
thoracic vertebra underlined separately.
Every species should have a generic
2.
160. Consider the given two statements: name and a specific epithet.
Meiosis preserves conservation of Scientific names are in Latin and should
3.
specific chromosome number of each be italicized.
I:
species across generations in sexually Generic and specific names should be
4.
reproducing organisms. written starting with small letters.
Meiosis increases the genetic variability
II: in the population of organisms from one
generation to the next.
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Neither I nor II

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163. Match each item in Column-I with one 167. Identify the true statements regarding
in Column-II and select the correct match the rules of binomial nomenclature:
from the codes given: The first word in a biological name
Column-I Column-II A. represents the genus, and the second
Olfactory word represents the specific epithet.
(a) Part of forebrain in frog (i)
lobes Scientific names are always written in
(b) Part of hindbrain in frog (ii) Five Latin or Latinized form and must be
B.
Number of digits in italicized or underlined separately when
(c) (iii) Optic lobes handwritten.
forelimbs in frog
Number of digits in The generic name begins with a capital
(d) (iv) Four C. letter, while the specific epithet starts
hindlimbs in frog
with a lowercase letter.
Options:
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) The name of the author who first
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) D. described the species is written after the
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) specific epithet in an abbreviated form.
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
1. Only A and B are correct.
164. All the following are termed as 2. Only A, B and C are correct.
specialized connective tissue except: 3. Only B, C and D are correct.
1. Blood 2. Tendon 4. A, B, C and D are all correct.
3. Bone 4. Cartilage

168. Taxonomic category division in plants

165. During Anaphase II of meiosis: corresponds to which taxonomic category in
Homologous chromosomes separate but animals?
1.
remain connected at chiasmata. 1. Phylum
Sister chromatids separate and move 2. Class
2.
toward opposite poles. 3. Order
Spindle fibres align duplicated 4. Family
3.
chromosomes at the equatorial plate.
169. Ciliated epithelium in humans is
Nuclear envelope reforms before
4. primarily found in:
chromosome separation.
The walls of capillaries and alveoli in the
1.
lungs
166. Different species of a genus The lining of sweat glands and sebaceous
2.
Are very different from each other in their glands
1. The outermost layer of the skin
basic properties 3.
2. Have morphological similarities (epidermis)

3. Can be placed in different families The inner lining of the fallopian tubes and
4.
respiratory tract
Cannot be differentiated on the basis of
4.
their morphological features

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170. Regarding pulmonary circulation in 173. The ability of frogs to survive extreme
humans: summer and winter temperatures by
Oxygen rich blood returns from the lungs burrowing is termed:
I: to the heart through the pulmonary 1. Camouflage and mimicry.
arteries. 2. Dormancy and torpor.
Oxygen poor blood leaves the heart and 3. Metamorphosis and diapause.
II: goes to the lungs through the pulmonary 4. Aestivation and hibernation.
veins.
1. Only I is correct 174. The binding of oxygen with hemoglobin
2. Only II is correct is primarily related to:
3. Both I and II are correct 1. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide
4. Both I and II are incorrect 2. Partial pressure of oxygen
3. H+ ion concentration in body fluids
171. The total amount of air that can be 4. Presence of 2,3-DPG in erythrocytes
forcibly exhaled after maximum inhalation
measures:
1. Tidal Volume
175. In the given figure showing taxonomic
2. Inspiratory Reserve Volume
hierarchy for living organisms:
3. Residual Volume
4. Vital Capacity

172. The following diagram shows the

alimentary canal of Periplaneta americana.
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

I: A would be Solanum for potato.

II: B would be Muscidae for housefly.
III: C would be Primata for humans.
D would be phylum for animals and
IV:
division for plants.

1. Only I, II and III are incorrect

2. Only I, III and IV are incorrect
1. A Storing the food 3. Only II, III and IV are incorrect
2. B Absorption of food 4. I, II, III and IV are incorrect
3. C Secretion of digestive enzymes
4. D Excretion and osmoregulation

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176. Which stage of meiosis begins with the

simultaneous splitting of the centromere of Fill OMR Sheet*
each chromosome, allowing them to move
toward opposite poles of the cell by *If above link doesn't work, please go to test
shortening of microtubules attached to link from where you got the pdf and fill OMR
kinetochores? from there
1. Anaphase I 2. Anaphase II
3. Metaphase I 4. Metaphase II

177. Which of the following features of frog

blood is different from human blood? CLICK HERE to get
1. Presence of nucleated red blood cells.
Presence of haemoglobin for oxygen
FREE ACCESS for 2
2.
transport.
Absence of white blood cells in the
days of ANY
3.
immune response. NEETprep course
4. Presence of platelets for blood clotting.

178. A sheath of dense irregular connective

tissue that groups muscle fibres into
bundles or fascicles is called as:
1. Epimysium 2. Perimysium
3. Endomysium 4. Aponeurosis

179. Duration of cell cycle can vary from:

I: organism to organism
from cell type to cell type in the same
II:
organism
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

180. Which of the following ranks in the

taxonomic hierarchy is immediately above
the genus?
1. Family 2. Order
3. Species 4. Class

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