5/12/2020 Chapter 7 : Multiple Choice
Multiple Choice Questions From Chapters 7-12
Chapter 7 : Multiple Choice
1. An organic nutrient essential to an organism’s metabolism that cannot be synthesized itself is termed a/an:
a) trace element
b) micronutrient
c) growth factor
d) essential nutrient
2. The source of the necessary elements of life is:
a) an inorganic environmental reservoir
b) the sun
c) rocks
d) the air
3. An organism that can synthesize all its required organic components from CO2 using energy from the sun is a:
a) photoautotroph
b) photoheterotroph
c) chemoautotroph
d) chemoheterotroph
4. An obligate halophile requires high:
a) pH
b) temerperature
c) salt
d) pressure
5. Chemoautotrophs can survive on ______alone.
a) minerals
b) CO2
c) minerals and CO2
d) methane
6. Which of the following statements is true for all organisms?
a) they require organic nutrients
b) they require inorganic nutrients
c) they require growth factors
d) they require oxygen gas
7. A pathogen would most accurately be described as a:
a) parasite
b) commensal
c) saprobe
d) symbiont
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5/12/2020 Chapter 7 : Multiple Choice
8. Which of the following is true of passive transport?
a) it requires a gradient
b) it uses the cell wall
c) it includes endocytosis
d) it only moves water
9. A cell exposed to a hypertonic environment will _____by osmosis:
a) gain water
b) lose water
c) neither gain nor lose water
d) burst
10. Active transport of a substance across a membrane requires:
a) a gradient
b) the expenditure of ATP
c) water
d) diffusion
11. Psychrophiles would be expected to grow:
a) in hot springs
b) on the human body
c) at refrigeration temperatures
d) at low pH
12. Superoxide ion is toxic to strict anaerobes because they lack:
a) catalase
b) peroxidase
c) dismutase
d) oxidase
13. The time required for a cell to undergo binary fission is called the:
a) exponential growth rate
b) growth curve
c) generation time
d) lag period
14. In a viable plate count, each ___represents a ___from the sample population.
a) cell, colony
b) colony, cell
c) hour, generation
d) cell,generation
Answers to multiple choice:
1. c 6. b 11. c
2. a 7. a 12. c
3. a 8. a 13. c
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5/12/2020 Chapter 7 : Multiple Choice
4. c 9. b 14. b
5. c 10.b
Chapter 8 Multiple Questions from Book
1. _________is another term for biosynthesis.
a) catabolism
b) anabolism
c) metabolism
d) catalyst
2. Catabolism is a form of metabolism in which _____molecules are converted into ________molecules.
a) large, small
b) small, large
c) amino acid, protein
d) food, storage
3. An enzyme ______ the activation energy required for a chemical reaction.
a) increases
b) converts
c) lowers
d) catalyzes
4. An enzyme
a) becomes part of the final products
b) is nonspecific for substrate
c) is consumed by the reaction
d) is heat and pH labile
5. An apoenzyme is where the _____is located.
a) cofactor
b) coenzyme
c) redox reaction
d) active site
6. Many coenzymes are
a) metals
b) vitamins
c) proteins
d) substrates
7. To digest cellulose in its environment, a fungus produces a/an
a) endoenzyme
b) exoenzyme
c) catalase
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5/12/2020 Chapter 7 : Multiple Choice
d) polymerase
8. Energy in biological systems is primarily
a) electrical
b) chemical
c) radiant
d) mechanical
9. Energy is carried from catabolic to anabolic reactions in the form of _______
a) ADP
b) consume energy
c) coenzymes
d) inorganic phosphate
10. Exergonic reactions
a) release potential energy
b) consume energy
c) form bonds
d) occur only outside the cell
11. A reduced compound is
a) NAD
b) FAD
c) NADH
d) ADP
12. Most oxidation reactions in microbial bioenergetics involve the
a) removal of electrons and hydrogens
b) addition of electrons and hydrogens
c) addition of oxygen
d) removal of oxygen
13. A product or products of glycolysis is/are
a) ATP
b) H2O
c) CO2
d) both a and b
14. Fermentation of a glucose molecule has the potential to produce a net number of _____ATPs.
a) 4
b) 2
c) 40
d) 0
15. Complete oxidation of glucose in aerobic respiration can yield a net output of _____ATP.
a) 40
b) 6
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5/12/2020 Chapter 7 : Multiple Choice
c) 38
d) 2
16. The compound that enters the TCA cycle from glycolysis is
a) citric acid
b) oxalocetic acid
c) pyruvic acid
d) acetyl coenzyme A
17. The FADH2 formed during the TCA cycle enters the electron transport system at which site?
a) NADH dehydrogenase
b) cytochrome
c) coenzyme Q
d) ATP synthase
18. ATP synthase complexes can generate ____ATPs for each NADH that enters electron transport.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
19. Matching. Match the process a, b, or c with the metabolic events in the list.
a) glycolysis
b) TCA (Krebs) cycle
c) electron transport/oxidative phosphorylation
___H+ and e- are delivered to O2 as the final acceptor
___Pyruvic acid is formed.
___GTP is formed
___H2O is produced
___CO2 is formed
___Fructose diphosphate is plit into two 3-carbon fragments
___NADH+ is oxidized
___ATP synthase is active.
Answers:
1. b 10. a 19 matching:
2. a 11. c c
3. c 12. a a
4. d 13. d b
5. d 14. b c
6. b 15. c b
7. b 16. c a
8. b 17. c c
9. b 18. c c
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5/12/2020 Chapter 7 : Multiple Choice
Chapter 9 Multiple Choice
1. What is the smallest unit of heredity?
a) chromosome
b) gene
c) codon
d) nucleotide
2. A nucleotide contains which of the following?
a) 5 C sugar
b) nitrogen base
c) phosphate
d) d and c only
e) all of these
3. The nitrogen bases in DNA are bonded to the
a) phosphate
b) deoxyribose
c) ribose
d) hydrogen
4. DNA replication is semiconservative because the ______strand will become half of the ________molecule.
a) RNA, DNA
b) template, finished
c) sense, mRNA
d) codon, anticodon
5. In DNA, adenine is the complementary base for _____, and cytosine is the complement for ______.
a) guanine, thymine
b) uracil, guanine
c) thymine, guanine
d) thymine, uracil
6. The base pairs are held together primarily by
a) covalent bonds
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5/12/2020 Chapter 7 : Multiple Choice
b) hydrogen bonds
c) ionic bonds
d) gyrases
7. Why must the lagging strand of DNA be replicated in short pieces?
a) because of limited space
b) otherwise, the helix will become distorted
c) the DNA polymerase can synthesize in only one direction
d) to make proofreading of code easier
8. Messenger RNA is formed by _____of a gene on the DNA template strand.
a) contributes to the structure of ribosome’s
b) adapts the genetic code to protein structure
c) transfers the DNA code to mRNA
d) provides the master code for amino acids
9. Transfer RNA is the molecule that
a) contributes to the structure of ribosomes
b) adapts the genetic code to protein structure
c) transfers the DNA code to mRNA
d) provides the master code for amino acids
10. As a general rule, the template strand on DNA will always begin with
a) TAC
b) AUG
c) ATG
d) UAC
11. The lac operon is usually in the ___position and is activated by a/an ____molecule.
a) on, repressor
b) off, inducer
c) on, inducer
d) off, repressor
12. For mutations to have an effect on populations of microbes, they must be
a) inheritable
b) permanent
c) beneficial
d) a and b
e) all of the above
13. Which of the following characteristics is not true of a plasmid?
a) It is a circular piece of DNA.
b) It is required for normal cell function.
c) It is found in bacteria.
d) It can be transferred from cell to cell.
14. Which genes can be transferred by all three methods of intermicrobial transfer?
a) capsule production
b) toxin production
c) F factor
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5/12/2020 Chapter 7 : Multiple Choice
d) drug resistance
15. Which of the following would occur through specialized transduction?
a) acquisition of Hfr plasmid
b) transfer of genes for toxin production
c) transfer of genes for capsule formation
d) transfer of a plasmid with genes for degrading pesticides
16. Multiple Matching. Fill in the blanks with all the letters of the words below that apply.
___genetic transfer that occurs after the donor is dead
___carries the codon
___carries the anticodon
___a process synonymous with mRNA synthesis
___bacteriophages participate in this transfer
___duplication of the DNA molecule
___process in which transcribed DNA code is deciphered into a polypeptide
___involves plasmids
a. replication f. mRNA
b. tRNA g. transcription
c. conjugation h. transformation
d. ribosome i. translation
e. transduction j. none of these
Answers:
1. b
2. e
3. b
4. b
5. c
6. b
7. c
8. a
9. b
10. a
11. b
12. d
13. b
14. d
15. b
16. Matching: e/h, f, b, g, e, a, i, c/e/h
Chapter 10 Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which gene is incorporated into plasmids to detect recombinant cells?
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5/12/2020 Chapter 7 : Multiple Choice
a) restriction endonuclease
b) virus receptors
c) a gene for antibiotic resistance
d) reverse transcriptase
2. Which of the following is not essential to carry out the polymerase chain reaction?
a) primers
b) DNA polymerase
c) gel electrophoresis
d) high temperature
3. Which of the following is not a part of the Sanger method to sequence DNA?
a) dideoxy nucleotides
b) DNA polymerase
c) electrophoresis
d) reverse transcriptase
4. What do we call the synthetic unit of the polymerase chain reaction?
a) annealer
b) ligase
c) amplicon
d) primer
5. The function of ligase is to
a) rejoin segments of DNA
b) make longitudinal cuts in DNA
c) synthesize cDNA
d) break down ligaments
6. The pathogen of plant roots that is used as a cloning host is
a) Pseudomonas
b) Agrobacterium
c) Escherichia coli
d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
7. Which of the following sequences, when combined with its complement, could be clipped by an endonuclease?
a) ATCGATCGTAGCTAGC
b) AAGCTTTTCGAA
c) GAATTC
d) ACCATTGGTA
8. The coding DNA strand that complements mRNA AUGCGCGAC is
a) UACGCUCUG
b) GTCTCGCAT
c) TACGCTCTG
d) DNA cannot complement mRNA
9. Which DNA fragment will be closed to the top (negative pole) of an electrophoretic gel?
a) 450 bp
b) 3,560 bp
c) 5 kb
d) 1,500 bp
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5/12/2020 Chapter 7 : Multiple Choice
10. Which of the following is a primary participant in cloning an isolated gene?
a) restriction endonuclease
b) vector
c) host organism
d) all of these
11. For which of the following would a nucleic acid probe not be used?
a) locating a gene on a chromosome
b) developing a Southern blot
c) identifying a microorganism
d) constructing a recombinant plasmid
12. Single Matching: Match the term with its description:
___nucleic acid probe
___coding strand
___template strand
___reverse transcriptase
___Taq polymerase
___triplex DNA
___primer
___restriction endonuclease
a) enzyme that transcribes RNA into DNA
b) DNA molecule with an extra strand inserted
c) the nontranslated strand of DNA or RNA
d) enzyme that snips DNA at palindromes
e) oligonucleotide that initiates the PCR
f) strand of nucleic acid that is transcribed or translated
g) thermostable enzyme for synthesizing DNA
h) oligonucleotide used in hybridization
Answers:
1. c 4. c 7. c 10. d
2. c 5. a 8. c 11. d
3. d 6. b 9. c 12. matching h, c, f, a, g, b, e, d
4. c
5. a
6. b
7. c
8. c
9. c
10. d
11. d
12. matching: h, c, f, a, g, b, e, d
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5/12/2020 Chapter 7 : Multiple Choice
Chapter 11 Multiple Choice
1. A microbicidal agent has what effect?
a) sterilizes
b) inhibits microorganisms
c) is toxic to human cells
d) destroys microorganisms
2. Microbial control methods that kill ___are able to sterilize.
a) viruses
b) the tubercle bacillus
c) endospores
d) cysts
3. Any process that destroys the non-spore-forming contaminants on inanimate objects is
a) antisepsis
b) disinfection
c) sterilization
d) degermation
4. Sanitization is a process by which
a) the microbial load on objects is reduced
b) objects are made sterile with chemicals
c) utensils are scrubbed
d) skin is debrided
5. An example of an agent that lowers the surface tension f cells is
a) phenol
b) chlorine
c) alcohol
d) formalin
6. High temperatures ___and low temperatures ___.
a) sterilize, disinfect
b) kill cells, inhibit cell growth
c) denature proteins, burst cells
d) speed up metabolism, slow down metabolism
7. The temperature-pressure combination for an autoclave is
a) 100oC and 4 psi
b) 121oC and 15 psi
c) 131oC and 9 psi
d) 115oC and 3 psi
8. Microbe(s) that is/are the target(s) of pasteurization include:
a) Clostridium botulinum
b) Mycobacterium species
c) Salmonella species
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5/12/2020 Chapter 7 : Multiple Choice
d) both b and c
9. Ionizing radiation removes ___from atoms.
a) protons
b) waves
c) electrons
d) ions
10. The primary mode of action of non-ionizing radiation is to
a) produce superoxide ions
b) make pyrimidine dimers
c) denature proteins
d) break disulfide bonds
11. The most versatile method of sterilizing heat-sensitive liquids is
a) UV radiation
b) exposure to ozone
c) beta propiolactone
d) filtration
12. ___is the iodine antiseptic of choice for wound treatment
a) Eight percent tincture
b) Five percent aqueous
c) Iodophor
d) Potassium iodide solution
13. A chemical with sporicidal properties is
a) phenol
b) alcohol
c) quaternary ammonium compound
d) glutaraldehyde
14. Silver nitrate is used
a) in antisepsis of burns
b) as a mouthwash
c) to treat genital gonorrhea
d) to disinfect water
15. Detergents are
a) high-level germicides
b) low-level germicides
c) excellent antiseptics
d) used in disinfecting surgical instruments
16. Which of the following is an approved sterilant?
a) chlorhexidine
b) betadyne
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c) ethylene oxide
d) ethyl alcohol
Answers
1. d 14. a
2. c 15. b
3. b 16. c
4. a
5. c
6. b
7. b
8. d
9. c
10. b
11. d
12. c
13. d
Chapter 12 Multiple Choice:
1. A compound synthesized by bacteria or fungi that destroys or inhibits the growth of other microbes is a/an
a) synthetic drug
b) antibiotic
c) antimicrobial drug
d) competitive inhibitor
2. Which statement is not an aim in the use of drugs in antimicrobial chemotherapy?
The drug should:
a) have selective toxicity
b) be active even in high dilutions
c) be broken down and excreted rapidly
d) be microbicidal
3. Drugs that prevent the formation of the bacterial cell wall are
a) quinolones
b) beta-lactams
c) tetracyclines
d) aminoglycosides
4. Sulfonamide drugs initially disrupt which process?
a) folic acid synthesis
b) transcription
c) PABA synthesis
d) protein synthesis
5. Microbial resistance to drugs is acquired through
a) conjugation
b) transformation
c) transduction
d) all of these
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5/12/2020 Chapter 7 : Multiple Choice
6. R factors are ___that contain a code for ___.
a) genes, replication
b) plasmids, drug resistance
c) transposons, interferon
d) plasmids, conjugation
7. When a patient’s immune system becomes reactive to a drug, this is an example of
a) superinfection
b) drug resistance
c) allergy
d) toxicity
8. An antibiotic that disrupts the normal flora can cause
a) the teeth to turn brown
b) aplastic anemia
c) a superinfection
d) hepatotoxicity
9. Most antihelminthic drugs function by
a) weakening the worms so they can be flushed out by the intestine
b) inhibiting worm metabolism
c) blocking the absorption of nutrients
d) inhibiting egg production
10. An example of an antiviral drug that can prevent a viral nucleic acid from being replicated is
a) azidothymidine
b) acyclovir
c) amantadine
d) both a and b
11. Which of the following effects do antiviral drugs not have?
a) killing extracellular viruses
b) stopping virus synthesis
c) inhibiting virus maturation
d) blocking virus receptors
12. Which of the following modes of action would be most selectively toxic?
a) interrupting ribosomal function
b) dissolving the cell membrane
c) preventing cell wall synthesis
d) inhibiting DNA replication
13. The MIC is the ___of a drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbe.
a) largest concentration
b) standard dose
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c) smallest concentration
d) lowest dilution
14. An antimicrobial drug with a ___therapeutic index is a better choice than one with a therapeutic index.
a) low, high
b) high, low
Answers:
1. b
2. c
3. b
4. a
5. d
6. b
7. c
8. c
9. a
10. d
11. a
12. c
13. c
14. b
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