TEST ITEMS IN PHYSICS

MECHANICS

1. Which of the following is the best definition of velocity?

a. It is a description of the motion of a body.
b. It is a measure of how fast a body is moving.
c. It is the speed of a body and its direction of motion.
d. It is equal to the distance traveled divided by the time of travel.

2. A truck is moving along a straight highway. As it approaches an intersection, the

driver steps on the brakes, bringing the car to a complete stop. Which of the
following statements is true about the motion of the truck?
a. the velocity and acceleration have opposite directions
b. the velocity and acceleration have the same directions
c. the velocity and acceleration of the truck are both constant
d. none of the above

3. For an object that is dropped from rest,

a. the speed is proportional to the time of fall
b. the acceleration is proportional to the time of fall
c. the distance traveled is proportional to the time of fall
d. all of the above

4. An object in uniform motion maintains its state of motion unless acted upon by a
net force because of its
a. a. mass b. momentum c. inertia d.
energy

5. A sheet of paper can be withdrawn from under a container of milk without

toppling it if the paper is pulled quickly. The reason this can be done is that
a. the milk carton has inertia c. gravity pulls very hard on the milk
carton
b. the milk carton has very little weight d. there are action and reaction
forces

6. The acceleration produced by a net force on an object is

a. directly proportional to the mass
b. inversely proportional to the net force
c. in the same direction as the net force
d. all of the above

7. The force that accelerates a rocket into outer space is exerted on the rocket by
the exhaust gases. Which Newton’s law of motion is illustrated in this situation?
a. First law of motion c. Third law of motion
b. Second law of motion d. cannot be determined

8. As an airplane climbs,
a. its mass increases c. its weight increases
b. its mass decreases d. its weight decreases

9. Suppose a cart is being moved by a force. If suddenly a load is dumped into the
cart so that the cart’s mass doubles, what happens to the cart’s acceleration?
a. it doubles b. it triples c. it halves d. it stays the same

10. A player hits a ball with a bat. The action force is the impact of the bat against the
ball. What is the reaction to this force?
 a. the weight of the ball c. the force of the ball against the
bat
b. the air resistance on the ball d. the grip of the player’s hand
against the bat

11. When a football is kicked, the action – and – reaction forces do not cancel each
other because
a. they are not truly equal and opposite c. they are acting on two
different bodies
b. they are not acting at the same time d. all of them
12. A car accelerates along a road. Viewed from outside the car, what is the force
that accelerates it?
a. the engines pulling it forward
b. air rushing in behind the car as it moves
c. the wheels pulling forward on the wheels
d. the reaction force to the wheels pushing the road backward

13. A car travels in a circle with constant speed. The net force on the car is
a. directed toward the center of the curve
b. zero because the car is not accelerating
c. directed forward, in the direction of travel
d. none of them

14. The net force acting on an object is zero. You can therefore definitely conclude
that the object is
a. at rest
b. moving in a circle at constant speed
c. moving in a straight line at constant speed
d. either at rest or moving in a straight line at constant speed

15. Suppose the force of friction on a sliding object is 10 N. The force needed to
maintain constant velocity is
a. less than 10 N b. more than 10 N c. 10 N
d. 0 N

16. An apple weighs 1 N. The net force on the apple when it is in free fall is
a. 0 N b. 0.1 N c. 1 N d. 10 N

17. An unfortunate bug splatters against the windshield of a moving car. Compared
to the force on the bug, the force on the car is
a. greater b. smaller c. the same

18. An unfortunate bug splatters against the windshield of a moving car. Compared
to the acceleration of the bug, the acceleration of the car is
a. greater b. smaller c. the same

19. Two figure skaters who push off each other will move at the same speed if
a. they push with the same force c. there is no air resistance
b. the ice does not cause any friction d. they have the same mass

20. When two equal forces act on the same object in opposite directions, the net
force is
a. smaller than either force c. zero
b. equal to each of the forces d. greater than either force

21. A tennis ball and a solid steel ball of the same size are dropped at the same time.
Which ball has the greater force acting on it?
 a. the tennis ball b. the steel ball c. the same force is
acting on them

22. A tennis ball and a solid steel ball of the same size are dropped at the same time.
Which ball has the greater acceleration? (assuming that the air resistance is
negligible)
a. the tennis ball b. the steel ball c. they have the
same acceleration

23. A ball rolling across the floor slows to a stop because

a. the forces are balanced c. there is a net external force
acting on it
b. the net force equals zero d. the force that started it moving wears
out

24. The momentum of an object is defined as the object’s

a. mass times its velocity c. force times its acceleration
b. mass times its acceleration d. force times the time interval

25. The momentum change of an object is equal to the

a. force acting on it c. velocity change of the object
b. impulse acting on it d. force acting on its times its velocity

26. Momentum of a system is conserved only when

a. the system is not moving
b. there are no forces acting on the system
c. there is no net external force acting on the system
d. there are no internal forces acting on the system

27. When the velocity of a moving object is doubled

a. its momentum is doubled c. its kinetic energy is doubled
b. its acceleration is doubled d. its potential energy is doubled

28. An object at rest may have

a. velocity b. momentum c. kinetic energy d.
potential energy

29. An object in motion need not have

a. velocity b. momentum c. kinetic energy d.
potential energy

30. What never changes when two or more objects collide in the absence of a net
external force is
a. the momentum of each one c. the total momentum of all
objects
b. the kinetic energy of each one d. the total kinetic energy of all
objects
31. A freight train rolls along a track with considerable momentum. If it were to roll at
the same speed but had twice as much mass, its momentum would be
a. zero b. doubled c. quadrupled d.
unchanged

32. Which of the following statements is true about an object thrown upward under
the influence of the earth’s gravity alone?
a. kinetic energy increases – potential energy increases
b. kinetic energy decreases – potential energy increases
c. kinetic energy increases – potential energy decreases
 d. kinetic energy decreases – potential energy decreases

33. Which of the following statements is true regarding simple machines being used
with the presence of friction?
a. work input is always greater than work output
b. work input is always smaller than work output
c. work input is always equal to the work output
d. cannot be determined
34. When you carry a heavy load with one arm, why do you tend hold your free hand
away from your body?
a. to change the mass of your body
b. to be ready to grab something in case you fall
c. to change the weight of your body and the load
d. to change the center of gravity of your body and the load

35. A block of metal measures 0.2 m by 0.3 m by 0.4 m. What face of the block will
you place on the floor in such a way that it will exert the least pressure?
a. The 0.2 m by 0.3 m face
b. The 0.3 m by 0.4 m face
c. The 0.2 m by 0.4 m face
d. Any face will exert the same pressure on the floor

THERMODYNAMICS

36. Internal energy is the

a. total amount of energy contained in an object
b. average amount of energy contained in an object
c. amount of kinetic energy of all the molecules in the object
d. none of the above

37. In thermodynamics, which states that the two systems which are in thermal
equilibrium with a third system are in thermal equilibrium with each other?
a. zeroth law b. first law c. second law d.
third law

38. It refers to the temperature at which the molecules have the lowest possible
kinetic energy
a. absolute zero b. melting point c. boiling point
d. freezing point

39. Heat travels from the sun to the earth by means of

a. radiation b. convection c. conduction

40. As the atmospheric pressure increases, the boiling temperature of a liquid

a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same

41. Which method of heat transfer is most closely associated with the formation of a
cool breeze that blows from the sea to the land during daytime?
a. conduction b. convection c. radiation

42. During daytime, which heats up faster: the land or the sea?
a. the land b. the sea c. they heat up at the same time

43. During nighttime, which cools down faster: the land or the sea?
a. the land b. the sea c. they heat up at the same time
44. It refers to the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of a unit mass of
a substance by a unit change in temperature.
a. specific heat b. latent heat of fusion c. latent heat of
vaporization

45. What gas law states that at constant temperature, volume is inversely
proportional to absolute pressure?
a. Boyle’s law b. Charle’s law c. Gay – Lussac’s law

46. When a vapor condenses into a liquid

a. it absorbs heat c. its temperature rises
b. it releases heat d. its temperature drops

47. It is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1
C0.
a. 1 calorie b. 1 Btu c. 1 joule d. all
of them

48. One gram of steam at 1000C causes a more serious burn than 1 gram of water at
1000 C because the steam
a. is less dense than water c. has a higher specific
heat
b. strikes the skin with a greater force d. contains more internal
energy
49. Heat transfer by convection occurs
a. only in gases c. only in gases and liquids
b. only in liquids d. in solids, liquids, and gases

50. The materials with the highest heat conductivities are the
a. solids b. liquids c. gases d. metals

51. When work is done by a system, what happens to its temperature assuming that
no heat is added to it?
a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same

52. When the temperature of a metal is increased, what happens to its density?
a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same

53. Two pots are filled with boiling water. The pots are exactly the same size, but one
pot is white and the other is black. Which pot cools faster?
a. the white pot b. the black pot c. neither, they cool at the
same time

54. If a red star and a blue star radiate energy at the same rate, which of the two is
bigger?
a. the red star b. the blue star c. neither, they are of the
same size

55. A piece of iron and a cup of water both have the same temperature. If they are
heated so that they absorb the same amount of heat,
a. both will have the same temperature
b. the iron will have the higher temperature
c. the water will have the higher temperature
d. not enough information is given to answer the question

56. Systems that are left alone tend to move toward a state of
 a. less entropy b. more entropy c. constant entropy d. no entropy

57. Which of the following engines is normally the least efficient?

a. gasoline engine b. diesel engine c. carnot engine

58. Which of the following engines is normally the most efficient?

a. gasoline engine b. diesel engine c. carnot engine

59. The work output of every heat engine is

a. depends only on its intake temperature
b. depends only on its exhaust temperature
c. equals the difference between its heat intake and heat exhaust
d. equal that of a carnot engine with the same intake and exhaust
temperatures

60. The fuel in a diesel engine is ignited by

a. a spark plug
b. being compressed until it is hot enough
c. the hot compressed air into which it is injected
d. exhaust gases remaining from the previous cycle

61. A refrigerator exhausts

a. less heat than it absorbs from its contents
b. more heat than it absorbs from its contents
c. the same amount of heat that it absorbs from its contents
d. any of the above, depending on the circumstances

62. The working substance or refrigerant used in most refrigerators is a

a. gas that is easy to liquefy c. liquid that is hard to solidify
b. gas that is hard to liquefy d. liquid that is easy to solidify

63. If a poor absorber of radiation were a good emitter, its temperature would be
a. lower than that of the surroundings
b. higher than that of the surroundings
c. the same as that of the surroundings
d. not be affected

64. A gas is heated in a closed container. Which of the following explains why the
pressure of the gas increases?
a. the volume of the gas decreases
b. the volume of the gas increases
c. the number of particles of the gas increase in number
d. the particles of the gas collide more often with the walls of the container

65. A gas is heated in a closed container. Which of the following is not likely to
happen?
a. the volume of the gas will increase
b. the pressure of the gas will increase
c. the average speed of the molecules will increase
d. the gas molecules will hit the walls of the container more often

66. What would be the effect on the pressure of the gas if its volume is halved and its
temperature is doubled?
a. halvedb. doubled c. increased three times d. increased four
times

67. What accounts for the cooling effect inside a refrigerator?

 a. the refrigerator is properly insulated
b. the vaporization of the refrigeration liquid
c. compression of the refrigeration gas into liquid
d. the motor converts electrical energy into thermal energy

68. Which of the following phrases correctly describes water at 40C?

a. greatest volume; greatest density
b. smallest volume; smallest density
c. smallest volume; greatest density
d. greatest volume; smallest density

69. Melting snow

a. warms the surrounding air
b. cools the surrounding air
c. neither warms nor cools the surrounding air

ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM

70. Electric charges A and B are attracted to each other. Electric charges B and C
repel each other. If A and C are held close together, they will
a. attract b. repel c. not affect each other

71. Which of the following devices conducts electricity in one direction only?
a. diode b. resistor c. capacitor d. transistor

72. Which of the following is the SI unit of charge?

a. ampere b. tesla c. farad
d. coulomb

73. Compared to the resistance of two resistors connected in series, the same two
resistors connected in parallel will have
a. more resistance b. less resistance c. the same
resistance

74. When one light bulb in a parallel circuit containing several light bulbs burns out
a. the other bulbs burn brighter c. none of the other light bulbs
will light up
b. b. the other light bulbs burn dimmer d. nothing changes in the rest of
the circuit

75. The electron volt is a unit of

a. charge b. energy c. voltage d.
potential

76. Which of the following quantities is a vector quantity?

a. electric field b. capacitance c. inductance d.
current

77. Which of the following devices does not use an electromagnet?

a. electric bell b. telephone c. household light bulb d.
none of them

78. In an electric field region, an electron moves to the right. Which of the following
statements best describes the electric field?
a. the electric field is uniform c. the electric field is directed to
the left
 b. b. the electric field is non – uniform d. the electric field is
directed to the right

79. A system of two charges has a positive potential energy. This signifies that
a. both charges are positive c. both charges are positive or both are
negative
b. b. both charges are negative d. one charge is positive and the
other is negative

80. The junction rule is the direct consequence of

a. Newton’s second law c. conservation of charge
b. conservation of momentum d. conservation of energy

81. Which of the following changes to an ideal plate capacitor connected to an ideal
battery result in an increase in the charge of the capacitor?
a. inserting a dielectric material in between the plates
b. decreasing the area of the plates
c. increasing the separation distance between the plates
d. none of the above

82. An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential difference.
Which of the following statements is true?
a. the electron has a greater KE c. the electron has the
greater speed
b. the proton has the greater KE d. the proton has the greater
speed

83. A wire loop is moved parallel to the magnetic field. The induced emf in the loop
a. is zero c. depends on the shape of the
loop
b. depends on the area of the loop d. depends on the magnitude of
the field

84. A 5 ohm, 6 ohm and 8 ohm resistors are connected in series. Which resistor has
more current passing through it?
a. 5 ohm
b. 6 ohm
c. 8 ohm
d. Each resistor has the same current

85. The same potential difference is applied to a 30 W and a 60 W light bulbs. Which
of the following statements is true?
a. the 30 W bulb carries the greater current and has the higher resistance
b. the 30 W bulb carries the greater current, but the 60 W bulb has the higher
resistance
c. the 30 W bulb has the higher resistance, but the 60 W bulb carries the
greater current
d. the 60 W bulb carries the greater current and has the higher resistance

86. As more lamps are put into a parallel circuit, the overall current in the circuit
a. increases b. decreases c. remains the
same

87. Two particles held near each other are released. As they move, the acceleration
of each decreases. Therefore, the particles
a. have opposite charges c. have the same charge
 b. are electrical neutral d. not enough information is
given

88. The potential energy of a certain system of two charges increases as the charges
are moved farther apart. What does this tell us about the signs of the charges?
a. both charges are positive c. one is positive and the other is
negative
b. both charges are negative d. not enough information is given

89. A conductor is charged by induction with grounding using a positively charged

plastic rod. Which of the following statements is true about the conductor after
the charging process?
a. the conductor will be polarized c. the conductor becomes
positively charged
b. the conductor remains uncharged d. the conductor becomes negatively
charged

90. A 4.0 Ω and 6 Ω resistors are connected to a battery of emf 20 V. The potential
difference across the 6 Ω resistor is
a. 8 V b. 10 V c. 12 V d. 20 V

91. An electroscope is a device that can be used to detect electric charges. Consider
an electroscope that is initially uncharged. Suppose that it is then charged by
conduction using a negatively charged glass rod. When a charged object is
brought close to the metal knob, the leaves of the electroscope diverged more.
What is the charge of the object?
a. positive b. negative c. neutral d. grounded

92. What new concept does Maxwell’s general form of Ampere’s Law include?
a. a magnetic field could be attributed to a changing electric field
b. an electric field can be attributed to a changing magnetic field
c. a magnetic field can be attributed to the motion of charges
d. an electric field can be attributed to a charge distribution

93. In a drawing of magnetic field lines, the stronger the field is,
a. the closer together the file lines are c. the more nearly parallel the
field lines are
b. the farther apart the field lines ared. the more divergent the field lines are

94. The magnetic field lines around a long, straight current – carrying conductor are
in the form of
a. straight lines parallel to the current
b. straight lines that radiate perpendicularly from the current – carrying wire,
like the spokes of a wheel
c. concentric circles centered on the current – carrying wire
d. concentric helixes whose axis is the current – carrying wire

95. All magnetic field originate in

a. iron atoms c. magnetic domains
b. permanent magnets d. moving electric charges

96. A permanent magnet does not exert a force on

a. an unmagnetized iron bar c. a stationary electric charge
b. a magnetized iron bar d. a moving electric charge

97. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

 a. charge b. energy c. momentum d.
none of them

98. The magnetic flux through a wire loop changes by ΔφB in a time Δt. The change
in the flux is proportional to
a. the current in the wire
b. the resistance of the wire
c. the net change that flows across any cross section of the wire
d. the potential difference between any two fixed points in the wire

99. A step-down transformer is designed to work in a 12 V lamp from 220V supply. If

the primary coil has 900 turns. What is the number of turns in the secondary coil?
a. 99 c. 50
b. 98 d. 49

WAVES AND OPTICS

100. Which property of light produces bright and dark bands on a screen after
light from a source passes through two very narrow slits that are near each
other?
a. dispersion b. interference c. refraction d.
polarization

101. Refraction explains

a. how periscope works
b. how images are formed by mirrors
c. why a pool appears shallower than it actually is
d. why some images formed by a mirror are virtual

102. A person standing waist deep in a swimming pool appears to have short
legs because of
a. reflection b. refraction c. diffraction d.
interference

103. The image in a plane mirror is

a. erect but reversed c. inverted but reversed
b. erect but not reversed d. inverted but not reversed

104. A ray of light is reflected from a mirror. The angle of incidence is 200. The
angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray is
a. 100. b. 200. c. 300. d. 400.

105. As the angle of incidence increases, the index of refraction of the

substance
a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same

106. Sound travels faster through warm air than cold air. This is to be expected
because the faster – moving air molecules in the warm air bump into each other
more often and therefore
a. can transmit wave in less time
b. increases the temperature of the molecules
c. create regions of compression and rarefaction
d. passes the energy of the sound in a longer period
107. What must be the minimum length of a plane mirror in order for you to see
a full view of yourself?
a. One-fourth of your height
b. One half of your height
c. Your full height
d. Three-fourths of your height

108. What states that light always takes a path that requires the least time as it
moves from one point to another?
a. Snell’s law b. Fermat’s principle c. Huygen’s principle
d. De Broglie pronciple

109. The sun appears to be more reddish at sunset than at noon. Which of the
following light phenomena is responsible for this?
a. dispersion b. reflection c. interference d.
scattering

110. Diffraction of light means

a. light is a transverse wave c. light bends as it passes through a small
opening
b. light is reflected from a film d. light bends as it enters a different medium

111. Interference of waves occurs when

a. two or more waves combine
b. they bend around corners or opening
c. they slow down as they pass another medium
d. all of the above

112. An echo is produced by

a. reflection of sound c. refraction of sound
b. superposition of beats d. diffraction of sound

113. A piece of charcoal appears black when viewed in sunlight because

a. it absorbs all the light that fall on it c. it reflects all the light
that falls on it
b. it disperses all the light that falls on it d. it transmits all the light
that fall on it

114. Radio waves, infrared waves, ultraviolet waves and gamma rays are
arranged in the order of increasing frequency in the electromagnetic spectrum.
How will the waves be listed in the order of increasing wavelength?
a. radio, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma c. radio, gamma, ultraviolet,
infrared
b. gamma, ultraviolet, infrared, radio d. infrared, radio, gamma,
ultraviolet

115. When rays parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror are reflected,
they pass through
a. any point on the axis c. the principal focus
b. the center of curvature d. the point halfway between the focus
and the mirror

116. A young lady is 180 cm tall. She wishes to buy a mirror large enough so
that she can look at herself from the head to toes at the same time. What is the
shortest mirror that she can use?
 a. 40 cm b. 80 cm c. 90 cm d. 180 cm

117. Why some sound is louder than others?

a. greater amplitude c. higher frequency
b. longer wavelength d. lower pitch

118. Which of the following phenomena best supports the hypothesis that light
is a form of transverse wave motion?
a. dispersion b. reflection c. polarization d.
refraction

119. The visible light portion of the electromagnetic spectrum falls between
a. radio waves and microwave c. radio waves and infrared rays
b. x – rays and gamma rays d. infrared rays and ultraviolet rays

120. What kind of mirror is used in automobile and trucks to give the driver a
wider area and smaller image of the traffic behind him?
a. convex mirror b. concave mirror c. plane mirror
d. any of these

121. The term refraction refers to

a. bending of light rays when they strike a mirror
b. facts that white light is made up of different colors
c. bouncing back of waves when it encounters an obstacle
d. fact the light travels in a straight line in a uniform medium

122. We can raise the pitch of a guitar by using

a. long and fine string c. short and fine string
b. long and thick string d. short and thick string

123. When you are looking on a fish under water, in what direction should you
aim your spear to hit it?
a. above the fish c. directly to the fish
b. below the fish d. either below or above the fish

124. When will a concave mirror produce an image larger than the object?
a. d0 > 2f b. d0 < 2f c. d0 = 2f d. for all values of d0

125. Which of the following best describes a real image?

a. Real images are erect. c. Real images cannot appear on a
screen.
b. Real images are inverted. d. Real images are formed by apparent rays of
light.

126. When will a concave mirror produce an erect image?

a. d0 > f b. d0 < f c. d0 = f d. f < d0 < 2f

127. A nearsighted person needs a concave lens. This lens makes the image
fall
a. beyond the retina of the eye c. on the retina of the eye
b. before the retina of the eye d. on the eyeball

128. The image formed by a diverging lens is always

a. real b. inverted c. smaller than the object d. larger than the object

129. To use a convex lens as a simple magnifier, the object must be placed
a. between F and the lens c. between F and 2F
 b. at F d. beyond 2F

130. Which of the following best describes the order of decreasing speed of
sound in the given media?
1. wood 2. sea water 3. copper 4. glass
5. air

a. 12345 b. 34125 c. 54321 d. 41325

131. The speed within which sound travels depends on

a. volume of the medium c. mass of the medium
b. weight of the medium d. elasticity and density of the medium

132. As light wave passes from a medium whose index of refraction is 1.5 into
a medium whose index of refraction is 1.2, its
a. frequency increases c. wavelength increases
b. frequency decreases d. wavelength decreases

133. Which of the following is/ are true?

I. A convex lens will always form a real image.
II. A diverging lens can never form a real image.
III. The focal length of a diverging lens is positive.

a. I only b. II only c. I & II d. I, II, & III

134. A concave mirror served as a casing of the bulb of a car’s headlight.

Where should the bulb be located to produce a parallel beam of reflected light?
a. at the principal focus of the mirror
b. at the center of curvature of the mirror
c. between the principal focus and the mirror
d. beyond the center of curvature of the mirror

135. What happens when white light strikes a black object?

a. Blue light is reflected. c. No light is reflected.
b. Red light is reflected. d. All of the light is reflected.

136. A person is nearsighted if he or she _______.

a. can see far away things very well. c. has eyeballs that are a little
too long.
b. has eyeballs that are a little too short. d. sees nearby objects as
blurry.

137. Farsightedness can usually be corrected using _______.

a. convex mirrors. c. convex lenses.
b. concave mirrors. d. concave lenses.

138. An object is 0.080 m tall is placed 0.20 m in front of a convex lens. If the
distance of the image to the lens is 0.40 m, how tall is the image?
a. 0.010 m b. 0.040 m c. 0.08 m d. 0.16 m

139. Materials are classified according to transmission of light. A material that

reflects and absorbs any light that strikes it is _______.
a. concave b. opaque c. translucent d.
transparent

140. If you look at the pool of still water your face is clearly seen. Which of the
following best explains this?
 a. scattering of white in different directions
b. regular reflection of light by the surface of still water
c. irregular reflection of light by the surface of still water
d. light is reflected from the surface of still water in different directions

141. What occurs when parallel rays of light hit a rough or bumpy surface?
a. Diffuse reflection c. Regular reflection
b. Diffraction d. Refraction

142. When the surface of a mirror curves inward, like the inside of a bowl, it is
called a
a. concave mirror. c. diffuse mirror.
b. convex mirror. d. plane mirror.

143. Negative magnification indicates an image which is

a. inverted b. upright c. erect d. none of
them

144. A boy walks towards a large plane mirror at a speed of 50 cm/s. At what
rate does he approach his image?
a. 25 cm/s b. 50 cm/s c. 75 cm/s d. 100 cm/s

145. An unpolarized beam of transverse waves is one whose vibrations

a. occur in all directions
b. are confined to a single plane
c. occur in all directions perpendicular to their direction of motion
d. none of them.
146. The energy of an electromagnetic wave resides in its _____.
a. Velocity c. Wavelength
b. Electric and magnetic fields d. Frequency
147. What is the speed of light in a clear plastic material for which the index of
refraction is 2.00?
a. 6.0 x 108 m/s c. 2.0 x 108 m/s
b. 1.5 x 108 m/s d. 3.0 x 108 m/s

148. Consider the four pairs of sunglasses below. Which pair of glasses is
capable of eliminating the glare resulting from sunlight reflecting off the calm
waters of a lake?

a. b. c. d.

149. A ray of light is incident on a plane surface separating two transparent

substances of refractive indices 1.70 and 1.50. The angle of incidence is 30
degrees and the ray originates in the medium of higher index of refraction. The
angle of refraction is
a. 34.5 degrees b. 26.2 degrees c. 79.0 degrees
d. 45.0 degrees
 150. From the previous number, total internal reflection will occur when the
angle of incidence is
a. less than 61.90 degrees c. greater than 35.0 degrees
b. greater than 61.90 degrees d. total internal \reflection will not
occur

MODERN PHYSICS

151. The Michelson – Morley experiment was able to show that

a. the speed of light is invariant.
b. the speed of light can only be determined in an inertial reference frame.
c. the speed of light differs depending on whether the source approaches or
recedes.
d. the speed of light is affected by the relative motion between its source and
the observer.

152. Which of the following observations made by an observer in a moving

inertial frame of reference is consistent with the postulates of the special theory
of relativity?
a. Moving clocks run fast.
b. Moving sticks oriented parallel to the direction of motion become longer.
c. Simultaneous events happening at two different places will always be
simultaneous to another observer.
d. Light always travel at the same speed in vacuum regardless of the relative
motion between the source and the observer.

153. If you consider a blinking light source that approaches an observer, what
happens to its speed?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same

154. If you consider a blinking light source that approaches an observer, what
happens to its frequency?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same

155. If you consider a blinking light source that approaches an observer, what
happens to its wavelength?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same

156. For a spaceship moving very fast with respect to the earth, the clocks on
board are perceived to run slow when viewed from _____.
a. the earth
b. the space ship
c. both places
d. none of them

157. According to the special theory of relativity, all laws of nature are the same
in reference frames that _____.
a. accelerate
b. move at constant speed
c. both a and b
d. none of them
158. There is an upper limit on the speed of a particle. This means that there is
also an upper limit on its _____.
a. momentum
b. kinetic energy
c. both of them
d. none of them

159. Under what condition do relativity equations for length, mass, and time
hold true?
a. Relativistic speeds
b. Everyday low speeds
c. Both of them
d. None of them

160. John and Paul are identical twins. One day, John embarked on a high –
speed deep space travel into a distant star. When he gets back home, who is
older than the other twin?
a. John
b. Paul
c. none of them because they are still of the same age

161. While the spaceship is still at rest on earth, a woman on board finds that a
wooden rod she is carrying is 1 meter long. When the spaceship is moving very
fast deep into the outer space, what will the woman find out about the length of
the same wooden rod she is still carrying?
a. It will be longer.
b. It will be shorter.
c. It will still be of the same length.

162. How does the relativistic momentum of a fast moving body compare to the
momentum (mv) of the same body according to classical physics?
a. Smaller
b. Greater
c. The same

163. According to the well – known equation E =mc2,

a. mass and energy are related.
b. mass and energy travel at the same speed, the speed of light.
c. when mass travels at the speed of light, it is converted to energy.
d. when energy travels at the speed of light, it is converted to mass.

164. According to the special theory of relativity, what will you notice about your
own pulse rate if you travel at a very high speed?
a. Smaller
b. Greater
c. Just the same

165. Which of the following statements is consistent with the general theory of
relativity?
a. Clock at the bottom of a skyscraper ticks faster than the clock at the top.
b. Light always travels along a straight line path even in the vicinity of a very
strong gravitational field.
c. Gravity is the manifestation of the warping of curved space – time.
d. Time and space are two closely – related concepts that are dependent on
each other.
166. Which clock ticks faster, the clock at the bottom of a skyscraper or another
clock at the top?
a. The clock at the top.
b. The clock at the bottom.
c. None because they tick at the same rate.

167. You are in a room with no windows. Which simple experiment would show
whether you are on earth or in a space station that rotates to produce artificial
gravity?
a. Release a ball on the floor.
b. Drop a ball from above the floor.
c. Observe a body hanging from a spring, oscillating up and down.
d. No experiment such as these could distinguish the two possibilities.

168. When does light behave as if it were composed of particles?

a. When it propagates in space.
b. When it interacts with matter.
c. Under all conditions.

169. When does light behave as if it were a wave phenomenon?

a. When it propagates in space.
b. When it interacts with matter.
c. Under all conditions.

170. The photoelectric effect best demonstrates ______.

a. the wave nature of light
b. the particle nature of light
c. both of them
d. none of them

171. In photoelectric effect, what quantity determines work function?

a. Applied voltage
b. Frequency of the incident light
c. Light intensity
d. Metal that the light strikes

172. Which of the following assertions of classical theories is inconsistent with

the photoelectric effect?
a. A photocurrent is observed immediately.
b. No photoemission can occur below the threshold frequency.
c. The photocurrent is proportional to the light intensity.
d. The kinetic energy of the emitted electron is dependent on the intensity,
but not on the frequency.

173. The quantum theory was first proposed in an attempt to account

theoretically for experimental results in connection with _____.
a. Relativity
b. Radioactivity
c. Radio transmission
d. Blackbody radiation

174. In the photoelectric effect, what quantity is determined by the frequency of

the illuminating light on the photosensitive surface?
a. The number of ejected electrons
b. The speed of the ejected electrons
c. Both of them
d. None of them
175. A photosensitive surface is illuminated with both red and blue light. Which
light will cause the most electrons to be ejected?
a. Red light
b. Blue light
c. Both will eject the same number of electrons
d. Not enough information is given

176. When blue light is used to illuminate the smooth surface of a sodium
metal, photoelectrons are emitted. If the intensity of the blue light is increased,
which of the following will also increase?
a. The number of electrons ejected per second.
b. The threshold frequency of the ejected electrons.
c. The maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons.
d. The time lag between the absorption of blue light and the emission of the
electrons.

177. A surface emits photoelectrons only when the light shone on it exceeds a
certain _____.
a. speed
b. wavelength
c. frequency
d. intensity

178. Light falling on the surface of a metal such as potassium can liberate
electrons from the metal. Which of the following can increase the kinetic energy
of the photoelectrons emitted?
a. Using light of lower frequency.
b. Using light of higher frequency.
c. Increasing the intensity of the incident light.
d. Using a metal with a greater work function.

179. When two light atoms fuse together, mass _____.

a. is converted to energy
b. is created from energy
c. remains the same

180. The reason nuclear fission works is that _____.

a. uranium has less mass per nucleon than either of the two fragments
b. uranium has more mass per nucleon than either of the two fragments
c. uranium has exactly the same mass per nucleon as the two fragments

181. Suppose a hydrogen bomb were exploded in a box that could contain all
the energy released by the explosion. The weight of the box after the explosion
would be _____.
a. more
b. less
c. the same

182. Nuclear fission and fusion reactions give off energy because _____.
a. they result in the production of protons
b. they result in the production of neutrons
c. the binding energy per nucleon is least for nuclei of intermediate size
d. the binding energy per nucleon is greatest for nuclei of intermediate size

183. The element whose nuclei contain the most tightly bound nucleons is
_____.
 a. helium
b. iron
c. carbon
d. uranium

184. The binding energy per nucleon is _____.

a. the same for all nuclei
b. greatest for very large nuclei
c. greatest for very small nuclei
d. greatest for nuclei of intermediate size

185. Relative to the sum of the masses of its constituents, the mass of a
nucleus is _____.
a. smaller
b. greater
c. the same

186. The sun’s energy comes from _____.

a. radioactivity
b. nuclear fission d. the conversion of helium to hydrogen
c. the conversion of hydrogen to helium

187. Which of the following correctly describes chain reaction as it applies to

nuclear processes?
a. The joining together of light nuclei to form heavy ones.
b. The joining together of protons and neutrons to form atomic nuclei.
c. The burning of uranium in a special type of furnace called the nuclear
reactor.
d. The successive fissions of heavy nuclei induced by neutron emitted in the
fissions of the other heavy nuclei.

188. Which of the following produces more fuel than it uses?

a. Fission reactor
b. Fusion reactor
c. Breeder reactor
d. Moderator reactor

189. What is the main purpose of a moderator in a nuclear reactor?

a. Absorb the neutrons the thereby decrease the reaction rate.
b. Absorb the neutrons the thereby increase the reaction rate.
c. Slow the neutrons thereby decreasing the reaction rate.
d. Slow the neutrons thereby increasing the reaction rate.

190. The control rods in a nuclear reactor are used to _____.

a. produce neutrons
b. all fuel to the reactor
c. absorb neutrons
d. fragment elements by fission

191. What do you call the nuclear reaction process in which a heavy nucleus
splits into two roughly equal parts?
a. Fusion
b. Fission
c. Radioactive decay
d. Nuclear transmutation
192. About 200 MeV of energy is released in the average fission reaction. What
happens to most of this energy released?
a. It becomes the kinetic energy of fission neutrons.
b. It becomes the kinetic energy of the fission fragments.
c. It is carried off as energy of the alpha and beta radiation
d. It is released as electromagnetic radiation in the visible portion of the
spectrum.

193. Nuclear fusion takes place when _____.

a. small nuclei combine to form larger one
b. an α particle is ejected from the nucleus
c. a positive β particle is ejected from the nucleus
d. a large nucleus splits into two fragments with the release of a few
neutrons

194. In a nuclear power plant the nuclear reactor itself is used to supply _____.
a. electricity
b. heat
c. neutrons
d. steam

195. Enriched uranium is a better fuel for nuclear reactors than natural uranium
because it has a greater proportion of _____.
a. deuterium
b. slow neutrons
c. U – 235
d. U – 238

196. A fusion reactor for commercial production of energy has not yet been
developed. Which of the following best explains why this is so?
a. Fusion occur only at extremely low temperatures.
b. Fusion needs fuel that is unavailable on Earth.
c. Fusion forms highly radioactive products.
d. Fusion requires very high energies.

197. What is the function of the moderator in a fission reactor?

a. The moderator absorbs radiation from the core.
b. The moderator absorbs fast and slow moving neutrons.
c. The moderator decreases the speeds of fast moving neutrons.
d. The moderator prevents the reactor from reaching a meltdown.

198. The energy of a photon depends on which of the following?

a. Frequency
b. Mass
c. Temperature
d. Wave amplitude

199. Which of the following event is true based on the special theory of
relativity?
a. Clocks that are moving run slower than when they are at rest.
b. Clocks that are moving run faster than when they are at rest.
c. Clocks run at the same rate regardless of whether they are moving or not.
d. Clocks run at rates that depend on an observer’s inertial frame of
reference.
200. When blue light is used to illuminate the smooth surface of a sodium
metal, photoelectrons are emitted. If the intensity of the blue light is increased,
which of the following will also increase?
a. The number of electrons ejected per second.
b. The threshold frequency of the ejected electrons.
c. The maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons.
d. The time lag between the absorption of blue light and the emission of the
electrons.