Nervous System

14.1 Cells and Action Potential

1. Which word correctly completes the statement: “All motor neurons are…”
A. interneurons
B. multipolar
C. bipolar
D. unipolar
2. In the peripheral nervous system, which cells form the myelin sheath?
A. Ependymal cells
B. Schwann cells
C. Astrocytes
D. Oligodendrocytes
3. A difference in the amount and type of ions between the two sides of a plasma
membrane or a charge difference that occurs when ions move along a membrane
is called an “electrical potential”. What does the term “action potential”
refer to?
A. The distribution of ions that results in the inside of the cell being at about
−70 mV compared to outside the cell.
B. A movement of sodium ions into the cell following a stimulus and the ions
spreading out along the inside of the cell membrane.
C. The rapid movement of sodium ions into the cell followed by potassium
ions moving out of the cell, with the movement being repeated along the
length of the neuron.
D. Sodium ions being pumped out of the cell, while potassium ions are moved
into the cell.
4. What is the gap between the plasma membranes of a neuron that conducts an
incoming signal and the cell that is going to receive the signal called?
A. neuromuscular junction
B. intercellular cleft
C. synaptic cleft
D. intercalated disc
5. Which of the following substances CANNOT pass through the “blood-brain
barrier”?
A. steroid hormones
B. O 2 molecules
C. alcohol
D. potassium ions
6. What name is given to the cells in the nervous system that produce nerve
impulses?
A. neurotransmitters
B. nerves
C. neurons
D. neuroglia
7. Which structure carries incoming impulses towards the nerve cell body?
A. axon hillock
B. axon
C. dendrite
D. synaptic knobs
8. Which neurons are unipolar?
A. neurons in the central nervous system
B. neurons in the retina
C. sensory neurons
D. motor neurons
9. Which glial cells are responsible for forming the myelin sheath around peripheral
nerve cells?
A. Astrocytes
B. Schwann cells
C. Satellite cells
D. Oligodendrocytes
10. Inactive muscle and nerve cells maintain a resting membrane potential. This
potential results in:
A. the outside of the cell being negative
B. the inside of the cell being positive
C. the inside and outside of the cell having the same charge
D. the inside of the cell being negative
11. When an action potential arrives at a synapse, what happens first?
A. a neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft
B. extracellular Na + crosses the post-synaptic membrane
C. Choline in the synaptic cleft enters the nerve cell and is converted to acetyl
choline
D. extracellular Ca ++ enters the nerve cell
12. What is the last part of a nerve cell that is involved when a nerve impulse passes
to another cell?
A. synaptic knob
B. axon hillock
C. dendrite
D. axon
13. Which of the following statements is true of neuroglia?
A. they are the cells that link motor neurons to sensory neurons
B. it is the non-cellular material that lies between neurons
C. they have only one dendrite and one axon
D. they produce the myelin sheath
14. What can correctly be said about somatic motor neurons?
A. they are unipolar neurons
B. their cell bodies are in the dorsal root ganglia
C. their cell bodies are located in the central nervous system
D. they are bipolar neurons
15. What is the effect of the movement of Na + into a nerve cell followed very soon
by the movement of K + out of the nerve cell?
A. this establishes the resting membrane potential
B. these movements are known as depolarisation and repolarisation
C. these movements repolarise the cell
D. it changes the membrane potential from about −70 mV to about −50 mV
16. There is a space between a neuron and the cell it stimulates, that is crossed by
a neurotransmitter. What is it called?
A. synaptic cleft
B. voltage-gated channel
C. synapse
D. post-synaptic membrane
17. Which of the following CAN cross the blood-brain barrier to enter the brain?
A. K +

B. O 2

C. proteins
D. most pharmaceuticals
18. What name is used for a nerve cell?
A. neuron
B. neuroglia
C. ganglion
D. astrocyte
19. What is the name of the nerve cell structure that carries incoming impulses
towards the cell?
A. dendrite
B. axon
C. cell body
D. ganglion
20. Which is the major type of nerve cell in the CNS?
A. Anaxonic
B. Unipolar
C. Bipolar
D. Multipolar
21. What is the purpose of the myelin sheath around an axon?
A. To control the chemical environment around the nerve cell.
B. To phagocytose microbes
C. To prevent movement of ions through the nerve cell membrane
D. To form the blood-brain barrier.
22. Which nerve cells carry impulses from the brain to the muscles?
A. Sensory
B. Motor
C. Afferent
D. Association
23. Which of the following describes an “action potential”?
A. The high concentration of Na + and Cl − outside the cell, and of K + inside the
cell.
B. The voltage change that moves along the cell membrane until it reaches the
axon hillock.
C. The movement of a neurotransmitter from the pre-synaptic membrane to
the post-synaptic membrane.
D. The movement of Na + across the cell membrane into the cell, followed by
the movement of K + out of the cell.
24. What part of the neurone carries the “action potential”?
A. the cell body
B. the dendrites
C. the synaptic knobs
D. the axon
25. What type of neurones are motor neurones?
A. Anaxonic
B. Multipolar
C. Bipolar
D. Unipolar
26. What event during the action potential causes the resting membrane potential to
change from about −70 mV to about +30 mV?
A. K + ions moving into the cell
B. K + ions moving out of the cell
C. Na + ions moving into the cell
D. Na + ions moving out of the cell
27. Where are the cell bodies of somatic motor neurones found?
A. in the peripheral nervous system
B. in the central nervous system
C. in the dorsal root ganglia
D. in the spinal cord
28. What is an “action potential”? It is:
A. when the resting potential changes from −70 mV to +30 mV and then back
again.
B. the name given to the difference in electrical charge between the inside and
outside of the plasma membrane of a neurone.
C. the name given to the stimulus that changes the resting potential from −70
to −50 mV.
D. the voltage produced by a stimulus which causes a nerve impulse to be
generated.
29. What does the term “synapse” refer to?
A. the plasma membrane of the axon terminal of a nerve cell.
B. that part of the plasma membrane of the cell being stimulated, that is opposite
the axon terminal.
C. the gap between the stimulating nerve cell and the receiving cell.
D. the place where signal transmission between a nerve cell and the cell it is
stimulating occurs.
30. Which statement is true of a multi-polar neuron?
A. has many axons attached to the cell body
B. is the major type of neuron in the peripheral nervous system
C. all sensory neurons are multi-polar
D. has many dendrites attached to the cell body
31. Which of the following is a true statement about an “action potential”?
A. It refers to the movement of a neuro-transmitter along an axon.
B. It travels away from the cell body along the axon.
C. It causes K + to rush into the cell.
D. It travels between the dendrite and the axon hillock.
32. Complete the sentence. Neuroglia
A. are bundles of axons
B. contain cell bodies outside the central nervous system
C. are a type of neuron
D. include ependymal cells, astrocytes and satellite cells
33. Which of the three structures listed below constitute a nerve cell?
A. dendrites, ganglion, myelin sheath
B. dendrites, cell body, axon
C. neuron, neuroglia, synaptic process
D. cell body, synaptic knobs, efferent fi bre
34. What are the major type of nerve cells in the CNS?
A. multipolar
B. sensory
C. interneurons
D. unipolar
35. Which sequence of ion movements describes the action potential?
A. Na + move out of cell then K + move in
B. K + move in to cell then Na + move out
C. K + move out of cell then Na + move in
D. Na + move into cell then K + move out
36. What is the space between a neuron and the following neuron, muscle or gland
that it stimulates called?
A. Synaptic vesicle
B. Ion channel
C. Synaptic cleft
D. Receptor
37. What feature do the dendrites of a nerve cell have?
A. they transmit an action potential
B. they contain the cell nucleus and organelles
C. they carry incoming impulses to the cell body
D. they are connected to the cell body by the axon hillock
38. Most sensory neurones may be described as which of the following?
A. multipolar
B. bipolar
C. having cell bodies within the CNS
D. unipolar
39. What is the type of neuroglia that forms the myelin sheath on neurons outside
of the CNS?
A. Oligodendrocytes
B. Satellite cells
C. Schwann cells
D. Microglia
40. The action potential occurs when one of the following events occurs. Which
one?
A. Na + rushes into the cell followed by Cl −

B. Na + rushes out of the cell followed by PO 4 3− rushing in

C. K + rushes into the cell followed by Na + rushing out
D. Na + rushes into the cell followed by K + rushing out
41. A multipolar neuron has more than one what?
A. dendrite attached to the cell body
B. axon attached to the cell body
C. synaptic terminal attached to the axon
D. cell body
42. What is the depolarisation and repolarisation of a nerve cell membrane called?
A. graded potential
B. action potential
C. threshold potential
D. resting membrane potential
43. Which best describes a nerve?
A. dendrites, cell bodies, axons, Schwann cells
B. dendrites, cell bodies, axon hillock, axon terminals, vesicles
C. dendrites, cell bodies, axon hillock, axon terminals, Schwann cells,
neurotransmitters
D. axons, blood vessels, connective tissue, Schwann cells
44. Which of the following would conduct an action potential with the greatest
speed?
A. myelinated, large diameter fi bres
B. myelinated, small diameter fi bres
C. unmyelinated, large diameter fi bres
D. unmyelinated, small diameter fi bres
45. Which of the following is a characteristic of an action potential?
A. The signal is graded
B. It results due to an infl ux of potassium ions
C. it is an all or none response
D. It results from an initial outfl ow of sodium ions
46. What is meant by an absolute refractory period?
A. at least 5 ms must elapse from the time of the fi rst action potential before a
second can be initiated
B. an action potential cannot be initiated during this period regardless of the
strength of the stimulus
C. an action potential can be initiated if the strength of the stimulus is higher
than normal (>70 mV)
D. an action potential can be initiated if the strength of the stimulus is lower
than normal (<70 mV)
47. What is meant by the “absolute refractory period” of a nerve cell membrane?
The time during which:
A. a larger than normal stimulus is required to cause an action potential.
B. a smaller than normal stimulus will produce an action potential.
C. no stimulus will produce an action potential.
D. two stimuli in quick succession are required to add to an above threshold
stimulus.
48. What would happen if a neuron lost its myelin sheath?
A. Na + would leak out of the axon leaving too few ions to stimulate the Na
channels at the next node to open.
B. The neuron would die.
C. More Na + channels would be exposed allowing freer entry so conduction
speed would increase.
D. More K + channels would be exposed allowing freer exit so the cell would
hyperpolarise.
49. Some cells in the body can maintain an electric potential across their cell membrane.
How do they do this?
A. By using the sodium-potassium pump to continually eject positive sodium
and potassium ions from the cell.
B. By allowing negative chloride ions to enter the cell along their concentration
gradient.
C. By trapping large cations inside the cell membrane.
D. By keeping unequal concentrations of various ions on each side of the cell
membrane.
50. In nerve fi bres with myelin sheaths, which of the following is true about the
electrical conduction?
A. It is ‘saltatory’, so propagates at higher speed
B. It requires more energy to send an impulse
C. The conduction between adjacent axons is enhanced (‘cross talk’ is
increased)
D. It is slower due to the separation between the ‘nodes of Ranvier’
Answer is A: The myelin sheath increases the speed of conduction along an
axon as the action potential is regenerated when migrating Na ions reach the
next node. It “jumps” (saltates) from one node to the next.
B. −70 mV, stimulus above the threshold, K + move into cell, depolarisation to
−35 mV, Na + move out of cell, repolarisation to −70 mV.
C. +35 mV, stimulus above the threshold, K + move into cell, depolarisation to
−70 mV, Na + move out of cell, repolarisation to +35 mV.
D. −70 mV, stimulus above the threshold, Na + move into cell, depolarisation to
+35 mV, K + move out of cell, repolarisation to −70 mV.
56. What term refers to the sudden movement of potassium ions across the cell
membrane to the outside of a nerve cell?
A. Repolarisation
B. Depolarisation
C. The action potential
D. The potassium pump

14.2 Brain and Spinal Cord Anatomy

1. Which of the lists of structures include all of the central nervous system?
A. cerebellum, cerebrum, spinal cord, diencephalon, brainstem
B. midbrain, spinal cord, autonomic nerves, pons, diencephalon
C. midbrain, cerebellum, special sense organs, medulla oblongata
D. cerebrum, sensory neurons, motor neurons, cerebellum
Answer is A: There are five distinct structures in the CNS. Autonomic nerves,
motor and sensory neurones and special sense organs are not part of the CNS.
2. What are the three meninges and two named “spaces” that surround the brain,
in order from superficial to deep (outermost to innermost)?
A. pia, arachnoid, sub-arachnoid, dura, septa
B. sub-arachnoid, epidural, dura, pia, arachnoid
C. arachnoid, sun-arachnoid, pia, epidural, dura
D. epidural, dura, arachnoid, sub-arachnoid, pia
3. Which of the following is NOT composed of “gray matter”?
A. spinothalamic tract
B. cerebral cortex
C. basal nuclei
D. post-central gyrus
4. Where in the brain is the “primary motor area”?
A. Midbrain
B. Thalamus
C. Basal nuclei
D. Pre-central gyrus
5. The hypothalamus does ALL of the following EXCEPT one. Which one?
A. It is the autonomic control centre.
B. It directs lower CNS centres to perform actions.
C. It produces the rigidly programmed, automatic behaviours necessary for
survival
D. It performs many homeostatic roles.
6. Which of the following structures together make up the brainstem?
A. medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, cerebellum
B. medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain
C. medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, thalamus
D. medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, pineal gland
7. In which of the following places would you NOT find cerebrospinal fluid?
A. the sub-arachnoid space
B. the third ventricle of the brain
C. the epidural space
D. the central canal of the spinal cord
8. What is the name of the lobe of the brain that is immediately superior to the
cerebellum?
A. dorsal
B. occipital
C. posterior
D. parietal
Which of the following statements about the blood-brain barrier (BBB) is
correct?
A. The BBB prevents fluctuations of hormone and ion concentrations in blood
from affecting the brain.
B. It is formed by Schwann cells wrapping around capillaries.
C. The brain is supported by (it floats in) the BBB.
D. The BBB is formed by the choroid plexus.
10. In which part of the brain is the thalamus found?
A. diencephalon
B. cerebrum
C. cerebellum
D. brainstem
11. Where is the autonomic control centre for most of body homeostasis located?
A. In the limbic system
B. In the brainstem
C. In the hypothalamus
D. In the cerebellum
12. Which four structures together make up the brain?
A. cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem and cerebellum
B. cerebrum, thalamus, brainstem and cerebellum
C. cerebrum, diencephalon, meninges and cerebellum
D. spinal cord, diencephalon, brainstem and medulla oblongata
13. Which of the following are NOT part of the cerebral cortex?
A. motor areas, sensory areas and association areas
B. pre-central gyrus and post-central gyrus
C. white matter and basal nuclei
D. the lateral ventricles and the thalamus
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14. Which part of the brain allows us to control skilled voluntary muscle
movements?
A. basal nuclei
B. cerebellum
C. pre-central gyrus
D. thalamus
15. Which of the following roles is NOT performed by the hypothalamus?
A. autonomic control of heat activity and blood pressure
B. relaying visual and auditory information to the cerebral cortex
C. production of hormones for the posterior pituitary
D. body temperature regulation
16. Cortico-spinal pathways cross-over from one side of the brain to the other side.
Where does this cross-over occur?
A. In the medulla oblongata
B. In the cerebellum
C. In the hypothalamus
D. In the reticular formation
17. Which layer of membrane around the brain is the most superficial?
A. Dura mater
B. Meningeal mater
C. Arachnoid mater
D. Pia mater
18. Which of the following substances is prevented from entering the brain by the
blood-brain barrier?
A. glucose
B. nicotine
C. pharmaceuticals
D. alcohol
19. What part of the brain contains the motor areas and the sensory areas?
A. cerebrum
B. diencephalon
C. brainstem
D. cerebellum
20. What part of the brain contains the main visceral control centre of body
homeostasis?
A. cerebrum
B. diencephalon
C. brainstem
D. cerebellum
21. What part of the brain subconsciously provides precise timing for the movements of
learned skeletal muscle contraction?
A. cerebrum
B. diencephalon
C. brainstem
D. cerebellum
22. Where does the spinal cord start and finish?
A. It extends from the foramen magnum to L1 – L2
B. It extends from the foramen magnum to the sacrum
C. It starts at the superior part of the medulla oblongata and extends to the
inferior part of the cauda equina.
D. It extends from C7 to L5
23. Where is the cerebral spinal fluid found?
A. Between the pia mater and the brain
B. Between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
C. Between the dura mater and the pia mater
D. Between the arachnoid mater and the brain
24. Which of the following substances CANNOT cross the blood-brain barrier?
A. metabolic wastes, toxins, K+
B. O2, CO2 and H2O
C. fats, fatty acids, fat soluble substances
D. alcohol, nicotine, anaesthetics
25. What part of the brain contains the midbrain, the pons and the medulla
oblongata?
A. the diencephalon
B. the cerebrum
C. the cerebellum
D. the brainstem
26. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The pituitary gland dangles from the hypothalamus by the infundibulum
B. The post-central gyrus houses the primary motor cortex
C. The thalamus surrounds the third ventricle
D. White matter consists of myelinated axons of neurons
27. What is true about the spino-thalamic tract?
A. it is a descending pathway that carries sensory information
B. it is a descending pathway that carries motor instructions
C. it is an ascending pathway that carries sensory information
D. it is an ascending pathway that carries motor instructions
28. What is linked to the posterior gray horn of the spinal cord?
A. the dorsal root of the spinal nerve that carries motor fibres
B. the dorsal root of the spinal nerve that carries sensory fibres
C. the ventral root of the spinal nerve that carries sensory fibres
D. the ventral root of the spinal nerve that carries motor fibres
29. What is the blood-brain barrier?
A. It is the inner two meninges that surround the brain.
B. It is formed by the capillaries of choroid plexus and ependymal cells.
C. It is the endothelial cells of capillaries that supply the brain, and their
astrocytes.
D. It is the cerebrospinal fluid that bathes the brain.
30. What part of the brain is known as the cerebrum?
A. it is that part of the diencephalon that surrounds the third ventricle.
B. it makes up the majority of the brain stem
C. the superficial part consisting of sulci and gyri
D. the dorsal inferior part adjacent to the occipital bone
31. What and where is the pre-central gyrus?
A. It is the site of sensory function and is in the frontal lobe.
B. It is the site of sensory function and is in the parietal lobe.
C. It is the site of motor function and is in the frontal lobe.
D. It is the site of motor function and is in the parietal lobe.
32. What part of the brain receives sensory input before passing it on to another
part of the brain for interpretation or action?
A. pons
B. hypothalamus
C. post-central gyrus
D. thalamus
33. What part of the brain contains the autonomic control centre whose orders regulate
food intake, water balance and body temperature?
A. hypothalamus
B. thalamus
C. medulla oblongata
D. cerebellum
34. What are the “ascending tracts” of the spinal cord and what do they do?
A. They are white matter and they transmit sensory information to the brain.
B. They are gray matter and they transmit sensory information to the brain.
C. They are white matter and they transmit motor information to the brain.
D. They are gray matter and they transmit motor information to the brain.
35. In what part of the brain is the “decussation of the pyramids” found
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. midbrain
D. hypothalamus
36. What is the likely result of an injury that severs the spinal cord between C5 and
C6?
A. respiratory failure and death.
B. paraplegia
C. hemiplegia
D. quadriplegia
37. To what does the “blood-brain barrier” refer?
A. the three meninges that surround the brain and spinal cord.
B. the tight junctions between endothelial cells of the capillaries that serve the
brain.
C. the structures that prevent fat-soluble molecules from entering the brain
from the blood.
D. the structure that produces cerebrospinal fluid from blood.
38. What functions are controlled from the pre-central gyrus of the frontal lobe?
A. automatic visceral functions
B. conscious perception of many sensory inputs
C. subconscious timing and co-ordination of skeletal muscle.
D. voluntary control of skeletal muscle

39. What is the primary function of the cerebellum?

A. it regulates such things as body temperature, water balance and emotional
responses
B. it refines/adjusts learned motor movements so that they are performed
smoothly.
C. it controls our automatic functions such as breathing, digestion and cardiovascular
functions
D. it is the origin of our conscious thoughts and intellectual functions
40. What do the descending tracts of the spinal cord contain?
A. white matter and transmit sensory information
B. white matter and transmit motor commands
C. gray matter and transmit sensory information
D. gray matter and transmit motor commands
41. Which of the following lists all of the main sections of the brain?
A. cerebrum, brainstem, midbrain, medulla oblongata
B. cerebrum, cerebral cortex, cerebellum, mesencephalon
C. cerebellum, diencephalon, brainstem, cerebrum
D. cerebral cortex, midbrain, diencephalon, cerebellum
42. One of the following is not a meninge. Which one?
A. Pia mater
B. Alma mater
C. Arachnoid mater
D. Dura mater
43. Where is that part of the brain that allows us to consciously control voluntary
muscle movements located?
A. post-central gyrus of parietal lobe
B. pre-motor cortex of frontal lobe
C. pre-central gyrus of the frontal lobe
D. arbour vitae of the cerebellum
44. What part of the brain subconsciously provides the appropriate pattern of
smooth co-ordinated skeletal muscle contraction for movements that we have
learned?
A. the cerebellum
B. the brainstem
C. the cerebrum
D. the diencephalon
45. In what respect does “gray matter” differ from “white matter”
A. gray matter refers to the CNS while white matter refers to the PNS.
B. white matter makes up the autonomic nervous system, gray matter does not.
C. gray matter is found in the cerebrum, while white matter occurs in the cerebellum and
the diencephalon.
D. gray matter contains the cell bodies of nerve cells white matter contains
axons.
46. Which of the following is NOT a meninge?
A. cerebra mater
B. pia mater
C. dura mater
D. arachnoid mater
47. What is the most superficial part of the brain called?
A. diencephalon
B. cerebral cortex
C. cerebellum
D. mesencephalon
48. What do neurones in the pre-central gyrus do?
A. they receive information from general sense receptors in muscle and skin
B. they communicate with motor, sensory and multi-modal association areas
C. they allow conscious control of skilled voluntary muscle movements
D. they process and relay auditory and visual input
49. What is the role of the hypothalamus?
A. it receives sensory input and relays it to the cerebral cortex
B. it is the autonomic control centre which directs the function of the lower
CNS
C. it uses past experience to analyse and act on sensory input
D. it integrates sensory information from association areas and performs
abstract intellectual functions
50. With respect to the spinal cord, where is the epidural space?
A. external to the dura mater
B. between the arachnoid and pia maters
C. between the arachnoid and dura maters
D. between the two layers of the dura
51. Which part of the brain controls breathing, heart function, vasoconstriction and
swallowing?
A. mesencephalon
B. cerebellum
C. diencephalon
D. brainstem
52. An image of the cross-section of a spinal cord would show “anterior (or ventral)
horns”. What is in that region?
A. spinal nerves
B. ascending tracts
C. cell bodies of motor neurons
D. white matter
53. The blood brain barrier functions to protect the brain from
A. lipid soluble drugs, alcohol and nicotine
B. fluctuations in oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations
C. neurotransmitters, bacteria and neurotoxins
D. dehydration and fluctuating blood glucose level
54. The precentral gyrus is the area of brain which houses
A. the primary motor cortex
B. our association areas
C. the primary somatosensory area
D. our higher intellectual functions
55. In the spinal cord, the ascending tracts contain
A. white matter and transmit sensory information
B. white matter and transmit motor commands
C. gray matter and transmit sensory information
D. gray matter and transmit motor commands
56. What is found between the arachnoid and pia mater?
A. adipose tissue
B. venous sinuses
C. choroid plexus
D. cerebrospinal fluid
57. What is found in the epidural space?
A. adipose tissue
B. venous sinuses
C. choroid plexus
D. cerebrospinal fluid
58. One of the functions of the prefrontal cortex is:
A. making conscious decisions
B. controlling motor functions
C. detecting and integrating sensory information
D. enabling word recognition
59. What does the term ‘decussation’ mean and where does it occur?
A. decussation = span. It occurs between the superior part of the brain and the
inferior
B. decussation = cross. It occurs between the anterior part of the brain and the
posterior
C. decussation = cross over. It occurs between the pons and the spinal cord
D. decussation = associate. It occurs between the sensory area and the sensory
association area
60. The central sulcus separates gyri involved with which two major functions?
A. vision and taste
B. vision and hearing
C. motor and sensory
D. emotion and memory
61. What type of nerves are found in the dorsal root?
A. only afferent nerves
B. only efferent nerves
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374

C. both afferent and efferent nerves

D. only ganglionic nerves
62. In a cross-section view of the spinal cord, there is a butterfly-shaped structure.
What would the posterior gray horn of this structure primarily consist of?
A. the axons of motor neurons
B. the cell bodies of interneurons
C. the cell bodies of motor neurons
D. the cell bodies of sensory neurons
63. An epidural block involves injecting anaesthetic into the epidural space. What
is the main reason for this?
A. Anaesthetic in this space only affects spinal nerves in the immediate vicinity of the
injection.
B. The anaesthetic will be readily distributed along the spinal cord by the cerebral spinal
fluid from this space.
C. There is less chance of damaging the spinal cord when inserting the needle
into this space.
D. The epidural space is highly vascularised and so will the anaesthetic will be
quickly absorbed.
64. The central sulcus of the brain lies between which two lobes?
A. parietal and occipital
B. temporal and occipital
C. frontal and temporal
D. frontal and parietal
65. If a person suffers a stroke and damage occurs to the occipital lobe of the brain
which function is the most likely to be affected?
A. the ability to write
B. speech
C. hearing
D. vision
66. If a person had a pre-frontal lobotomy what would be the physiological
consequences?
A. Movement would be impaired
B. Sensory function would be impaired
C. The ability to assess the consequence of actions would be impaired
D. Speech would be impaired
67. What is the function of the thalamus?
A. connects two cerebral hemispheres
B. connects cerebellum to midbrain
C. connects areas within same hemisphere
D. it is a relay centre
68. What is the function of the corpus callosum?
A. connects two cerebral hemispheres
B. connects cerebellum to midbrain
C. connects areas within same hemisphere
D. it is a relay centre
69. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the cerebral spinal fluid?
A. to produce hormones
B. to transport nutrients around the brain
C. to protect the spinal cord
D. to cushion the brain
70. Which best describes the function of the association area of the temporal lobe?
A. It perceives of movement
B. It interprets the meaning of sound patterns
C. It recognises of geometric shapes and faces
D. It perceives meaningful information from different senses
71. What is the blood-brain barrier? An adaptation of the capillaries serving the
brain that:
A. prevents fat-soluble molecules from entering the brain.
B. inhibits all substances from passing from the blood stream into the brain
C. selectively inhibits many substances from passing from the blood stream
into the brain
D. operates from birth to prevent foreign molecules entering the brain.
72. What is the purpose of inserting a needle into the epidural space? It:
A. Allows access to the cerebro-spinal fluid
B. Enables the cerebro-spinal fluid pressure to be measured
C. Enables permanent drainage of cerebro-spinal fluid to treat hydrocephalus
D. Allows access to administer analgesia and anaesthesia
73. Which of the following statements about the blood-brain barrier is TRUE? It
A. consists of the meninges which surround the brain
B. is a protective mechanism which limits entry of alcohol into the brain
C. is poorly developed in the newborn who are therefore less sensitive to drugs
which act on the brain
D. is unable to prevent entry of lipid-soluble toxins into the brain
74. Spinal nerves are formed from a dorsal root and a ventral root. What is true of
the ventral root?
A. they contain sensory neurons carrying afferent impulses
B. they contain sensory neurons carrying efferent impulses
C. they contain motor neurons carrying afferent impulses
D. they contain motor neurons carrying efferent impulses

14.3 Autonomic System, Neurotransmitters, Reflexes

1. Which of the following sends sensory information to the brain?
A. The afferent division of the peripheral nervous system.
B. The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system.
C. The somatic nervous system.
D. The autonomic nervous system.
2. What part of the nervous system prepares the body for action during extreme
situations?
A. the limbic system
B. the sympathetic division
C. the efferent system
D. the parasympathetic division
3. To what does the following description apply? “An unlearned and involuntary
but predictable motor response to a stimulus, that is rapid and does not involve
any processing by the brain.”
A. spinal reflex
B. autonomic reflex
C. cranial reflex
D. learned reflex
4. Which statement about the sympathetic and/or parasympathetic divisions is
correct?
A. All sympathetic neurons release ACh as a neurotransmitter.
B. Sympathetic division fibres emerge from brain & sacral spinal cord.
C. Parasympathetic division stimulates adrenal gland to release norepinephrine &
epinephrine.
D. Some organs are innervated by both sympathetic division and parasympathetic
division.
5. Which one of the following parts of the nervous system carries impulses
towards the brain?
A. peripheral nervous system
B. somatic nervous system
C. autonomic nervous system
D. parasympathetic division
6. Which statement about efferent impulses in the spinal cord is correct?
A. They travel along the spino-thalamic and spino-cerebellar tracts.
B. They pass along tracts that are located in the gray matter of the spinal cord.
C. The nerve cells that they travel through have their cell bodies located in the
dorsal root ganglia.
D. The axons carrying these impulses pass through the ventral root of the spinal nerves.
7. What statement is true about spinal reflexes?
A. They cannot be inhibited or reinforced by the brain.
B. They do not involve processing by the brain.
C. They involve processing by the brainstem.
D. They are all simple monosynaptic pathways.
8. One of the statements below about the autonomic nervous system is correct.
Which one?
A. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is part of the
somatic nervous system.
B. The parasympathetic division contains the neurons responsible for spinal
reflexes.
C. The sympathetic division prepares the body for vigorous exercise, or emergency
situations.
D. The parasympathetic division uses nerves that emerge from the spinal cord
between the T1 and L2 vertebrae.
9. The nervous system is divided into two divisions. What are they called?
A. somatic and autonomic
B. central and peripheral
C. afferent and efferent
D. sympathetic and parasympathetic
10. What do “sympathetic” and “parasympathetic” divisions refer to?
A. the central nervous system
B. the efferent neurons of the peripheral nervous system
C. the autonomic nervous system
D. the somatic nervous system
11. Which of the following neural pathways or tracts carry sensory information?
A. cortico-bulbar tracts
B. spino-thalamic tracts
C. cortico-spinal tracts
D. reticulo-spinal tracts
12. Nerve impulses carried by the parasympathetic division travel along which
nerve fibres?
A. cranial nerves I and II
B. the spino-cerebellar pathway
C. the spinal nerves
D. the vagus nerves
13. A motor pathway in the autonomic nervous system consists of two neurons.
Where does the second neuron start and finish?
A. starts in the CNS and runs to the effector organ
B. starts in a ganglion and runs to the CNS
C. starts in a ganglion and runs to the effector organ
D. starts in the CNS and runs to a ganglion
14. Which of the following is true of parasympathetic neurons?
A. they emerge from the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
B. they all release ACh as a neurotransmitter
C. they all release NE as a neurotransmitter
D. they have short pre-ganglionic fibres and long post-ganglionic fibres
15. Adrenergic receptors are so named because they:
A. are located in the adrenal glands
B. bind epinephrine and norepinephrine
C. are located in the kidneys
D. bind acetylcholine
16. What is the purpose of a neurotransmitter?
A. To pass a nerve impulse along a nerve cell axon
B. To pass a nerve impulse onto another cell
C. To pass a nerve impulse onto a muscle cell
D. To pass a nerve impulse onto another nerve cell
17. What innervates the diaphragm?
A. The spinal nerves from T6 to T12
B. The vagus nerve
C. The phrenic nerve
D. The sciatic nerve
18. Consider the following pairs of terms. Which pair has a term that refers to a part
of the nervous system that carries sensory information to the brain, and a term
that refers to a part that carries motor commands to the peripheral tissues?
A. parasympathetic division; sympathetic division
B. somatic nervous system; autonomic nervous system
C. afferent division; efferent division
D. central nervous system; peripheral nervous system
.
19. Which statement about the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) is NOT
correct?
A. ACh is released by all autonomic nervous system pre-ganglionic fibres.
B. ACh is released by all sympathetic division post-ganglionic fibres.
C. ACh is released by all parasympathetic division post-ganglionic fibres.
D. ACh is released by all somatic division motor nerve fibres.
20. Which organisational entity of the brain is divided into an afferent and an efferent
division?
A. the central nervous system
B. the peripheral nervous system
C. the somatic nervous system
D. the autonomic nervous system
21. Which neurotransmitter do all motor neurons release at their synapses with
skeletal muscle cells?
A. ACh
B. ATP
C. GABA
D. norepinephrine
22. Which muscle(s) are NOT controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
A. cardiac muscle
B. the diaphragm
C. skeletal muscle
D. smooth muscle
23. Which type of receptor always produces stimulation of the post-synaptic cell
when bound by a neurotransmitter?
A. nicotinic
B. muscarinic
C. alpha adrenergic
D. beta adrenergic
24. What is one effect that the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
have?
A. increases gut motility and digestive secretions
B. causes bronchioles to constrict
C. decreases heart rate
D. stimulates sweating from sweat glands
25. To what part of the nervous system does the somatic nervous system belong?
A. efferent, central nervous system
B. efferent, peripheral nervous system
C. afferent, peripheral nervous system
D. afferent, central nervous system
26. What is the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system responsible
for?
A. rapid predictable motor responses without processing by the brain
B. conserving energy and maintaining body activities without conscious brain
control.
C. preparing the body for energetic activity without conscious brain control.
D. gathering sensory information from the viscera that is not interpreted by the
brain.
27. The following receptors for neurotransmitters may be stimulatory or inhibitory
EXCEPT for one of them. Which One?
A. nicotinic receptors
B. muscarinic receptors
C. adrenergic alpha receptors
D. adrenergic beta receptors
28. What do “sympathetic” and “parasympathetic” refer to? Divisions of:
A. the central nervous system
B. the efferent neurons of the peripheral nervous system
C. the autonomic nervous system
D. the somatic nervous system
29. What structure(s) does a neurotransmitter molecule cross?
A. synaptic cleft
B. synaptic cleft and the post-synaptic membrane
C. pre-synaptic membrane and the synaptic cleft
D. post-synaptic membrane
30. What is a spinal reflex?
A. it involves rapid processing by the brain and a predictable response
B. it involves stimulation of a motor neurone by a sensory neurone without a
synapse
C. it is a rapid, predictable, learned and involuntary motor response
D. it is a predictable, unlearned and involuntary motor response
31. A “post-ganglionic cholinergic fibre” refers to a neuron that
A. runs from CNS to a ganglion and releases noradrenaline
B. synapses with an effector cell and whose neurotransmitter stimulates alpha
and beta receptors.
C. runs from a ganglion to an effector cell and releases norepinephrine
D. synapses with an effector cell and releases acetylcholine (ACh)
32. Which part of the nervous system prepares you for vigorous activity (“to fight
or flee”)?
A. sympathetic
B. parasympathetic
C. somatic
D. autonomic
A. somatic nervous system
B. autonomic nervous system
C. central nervous system
D. sympathetic division
34. Which neurotransmitter do all motor neurons release at their synapses?
A. acetylcholine
B. norepinephrine
C. dopamine
D. adenosine triphosphate
35. Which neurotransmitter is released by all parasympathetic neurons?
A. norepinephrine
B. acetylcholine
C. nicotine
D. muscarine
36. Which choice correctly ends the following sentence? The parasympathetic division is
part of the:
A. autonomic nervous system
B. somatic nervous system
C. afferent division of the peripheral nervous system
D. central nervous system
37. What may accurately be said of the post-synaptic membrane?
A. It is attached to the transmitting axon
B. It has receptors for a neurotransmitter
C. It is before the synaptic cleft
D. It is part of a neurone
38. Which statement about the vagus nerve is true?
A. it lies within the cerebrospinal tract
B. it arises from the pons
C. it has a sensory function in vision and olfaction
D. it carries parasympathetic motor impulses
39. One thing that could NOT be correctly said of the sympathetic division is that:
A. it stimulates the adrenal gland to release adrenaline and noradrenaline
B. its fibres emerge from the spinal cord at the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
C. it promotes the conservation of the body’s energy
D. it supplies the smooth muscle of blood vessels
40. Choose the true statement.
A. a spinal reflex does not involve processing in the brain
B. spinal reflexes are rapid predictable learned responses to stimuli
C. spinal reflexes are used to diagnose brain death
D. spinal reflexes are voluntary but unlearned
41. If the term “cholinergic” is applied, to a synapse what does it mean?
A. the target organs are innervated by the sympathetic nervous system
B. the receptors are nicotinic
C. the result is always stimulatory
D. acetylcholine is released at the synapse
42. What determines the response of the post-synaptic cell to autonomic impulses?
A. the neurotransmitter that binds to the cell
B. the type of receptor on the cell
C. whether the innervation is sympathetic or parasympathetic
D. whether the fibre is pre-ganglionic or post-ganglionic
43. What is the nerve that that carries most of the parasympathetic signals?
A. phrenic
B. vagus
C. sciatic
D. trigeminal
44. Which is an example of a cholinergic receptor?
A. nicotinic receptor
B. adrenergic receptor
C. alpha receptor
D. beta receptor
45. Which statement about neurotransmitters and/or receptors is correct?
A. all somatic motor neurons release ACh at their synapse.
B. noradrenalin is the major neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic division
C. nicotinic receptors when bound by ACh are always inhibitory
D. noradrenalin binds to nicotinic and muscarinic receptors
46. The peripheral nervous system is divided into
A. sympathetic division and parasympathetic division
B. brain and spinal cord
C. somatic system and autonomic system
D. motor division and sensory division
47. A neurotransmitter is a molecule that crosses the
A. synaptic cleft
B. synaptic cleft and the post-synaptic membrane
C. presynaptic membrane and the synaptic cleft
D. post-synaptic membrane
48. What characterises a spinal reflex?
A. It involves rapid processing by the brain and a predictable response.
B. It is a predictable, unlearned and involuntary motor response.
C. It is a rapid, predictable, learned and involuntary motor response.
D. It involves stimulation of a motor neurone by a sensory neurone that originates within
the CNS.
49. When their neurotransmitter binds to them, which of the following receptors is
always stimulatory?
A. muscarinic
B. cholinergic
C. nicotinic
D. adrenergic
50. Two ways that cells can communicate within the body are by synaptic
communication or by endocrine communication. A difference between the two is:
A. endocrine communication involves a chemical messenger whereas synaptic
communication does not.
B. the action caused by synaptic communication may persist for several hours
whereas that caused by endocrine communication persists for several
minutes.
C. endocrine communication controls cellular activities in distant tissues
whereas synaptic communication affects the adjacent cell.
D. synaptic communication occurs between adjacent cells whereas endocrine
communication occurs between cells of the same tissue.
51. Which of the following is NOT indicative of the stimulation of the parasympathetic
system?
A. constriction of skeletal muscle blood vessels and vasodilation of renal blood
vessels
B. excitation of the blood flow to the kidneys and smooth muscles of the GI
tract
C. inhibition of heart rate and smooth muscles of the urinary bladder
D. excitation of the smooth muscles of the urinary bladder and GI tract
52. Sensory receptors convert stimuli into what?
A. neurotransmitters
B. action potentials
C. graded potentials
D. voltage-gated channels
53. What is the function of a spinal nerve?
A. transmit sensory information
B. transmit both sensory and motor information
C. connect sensory and motor neurons
D. transmit autonomic nervous system information
54. Sensory receptors convert stimuli that are above threshold into what?
A. graded potentials
B. neurotransmitters
C. action potentials
D. motor activity in muscles
55. What is the function of an efferent neuron?
A. transmit sensory information
B. transmit motor information
C. connect sensory and motor neurons
D. transmit both sensory and motor information
Answer is B: Efferent means “outgoing”. Outgoing information travels from
14.4 Special Senses (Eye & Ear)
1. Choose the correct statement about the eye:
A. Bipolar and ganglion cells occur in the retina except at the fovea.
B. Rod and cone cells occur in the retina except at the fovea.
C. Bipolar and ganglion cells occur in the choroid except at the optic disc
D. Rod and cone cells occur in the choroid except at the optic disc.
2. Which part of the retina has the greatest sensitivity to light?
A. the optic disc
B. macula lutea
C. the choroid
D. fovea centralis
3. The deterioration of sight with age is known by which term?
A. protanopia
B. presbyopia
C. hyperopia
D. scotopia
4. What is the place where the blood vessels and nerve fibres come together and
leave the posterior chamber of the eye called?
A. macula lutea
B. optic disc
C. fovea centralis
D. choroid
5. Accommodation refers to the eye’s ability to focus light from objects whatever
their distance from the eye. How is this achieved?
A. by altering the distance between the cornea and the eye’s lens
B. by altering the distance between the lens and the retina
C. by altering the shape of the eye’s lens
D. by altering the shape of the cornea
6. What does the ciliary muscle do when accommodation (focussing) in the eye
occurs?
A. It contracts and the tension on the ciliary fibres increases making the eye
lens less convex.
B. It relaxes and the tension on the ciliary fibres decreases allowing the eye
lens to become more convex.
C. It contracts and the pull of the ciliary fibres decreases allowing the lens to
become more convex.
D. It relaxes and the pull of the ciliary fibres increases to make the lens less
convex.
7. Which cells of the retina are responsible for detecting light in scotopic (i.e. low
light) conditions?
A. bipolar cells
B. rod cells
C. ganglion cells
D. cone cells
8. Accommodation refers to our ability to bring objects at any distance into sharp
visual focus by altering which of the following?
A. the distance between our eye and the object to be viewed
B. the curvature of our cornea
C. the curvature of the eye’s lens
D. the distance between the lens and retina
9. What is the purpose of the optic chiasma?
A. to allow images from each eye to cross over to the other side of the brain
prior to crossing back at the decussation of pyramids.
B. to allow fibres from the medial aspect of one eye to join fibres from the
lateral aspect of the other eye to form an optic tract.
C. to allow the fibres from the lateral aspect of each eye to come together as an
optic tract.
D. to allow light entering the left eye to be interpreted by the right hand side of
the occipital lobe (and vice versa).
10. What is presbyopia (old-age vision) due to?
A. the loss of elasticity of the lens of the eye
B. the change in the curvature of the cornea
C. the gradual loss of cone cells from the retina
D. the deviation from a spherical eye-ball shape with aging.
11. In which region of the eye does the most detailed vision occur? The
A. fovea centralis
B. optic disc
C. macula lutea
D. ciliary body
12. How does accommodation in the eye occur? When our ciliary muscle
A. contracts and the tension on the ciliary fibres increases allowing a rounder
lens
B. relaxes and the tension on the ciliary fibres decreases allowing a rounder
lens
C. relaxes and the pull of our ciliary fibres flattens the lens
D. contracts and the pull of our ciliary fibres flattens the lens
13. What is the name of the structure that allows nerve fibres from the medial aspect
of each retina to join fibres from the lateral aspect of the retina of the other eye?
A. optic chiasma
B. optic nerve
C. optic radiation
D. lateral geniculate body
14. What is the light sensitive cell in the retina that responds to colour called?
A. macula
B. macula lutea
C. cone
D. rod
15. People over 45 years of age eventually require reading glasses. This condition
(known as presbyopia) is the result of which of the following conditions?
A. the loss of elasticity in the lens
B. the development of cataracts in the lens
C. the decrease in the refractive index of the cornea
D. the degeneration of the cone cells of the retina.
16. Which of the following statements about the structure of the eye is
INCORRECT?
A. The retina converts light energy into electrical nerve impulses that are sent
to the brain.
B. All detailed vision occurs in a very small area called the fovea centralis.
C. At the blind spot, nerve fibres of the ganglion cells come together and leave
the eye as the optic nerve.
D. The black pupil is a sphincter muscle under parasympathetic nerve
control.
17. What is meant by the term “accommodation” when referring to our vision? It
refers to the ability of our eye to:
A. alter the thickness of the lens to focus on objects whatever their distance
from us.
B. alter the amount of refraction occurring in the cornea.
C. alter the diameter of the pupil to cope with situations of different light
intensity.
D. use either rods or cones for vision depending on whether we are viewing
during daylight or at night.
.
18. Choose the answer that correctly completes the sentence. The “lens” of the
human eye
A. is a biconcave lens.
B. produces more refraction than the cornea.
C. can have its focal length altered.
D. consists of rods and cones.
19. Which statement about refraction of light in the human eye is correct?
A. Most of it occurs in the lens.
B. Its extent is governed by the size of the iris opening to the eye.
C. Most of it occurs as light enters the cornea from air.
D. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of refraction.
20. The process of adjusting the eye’s lens to view objects at different distances
from the eye is called:
A. accommodation.
B. presbyopia.
C. refraction.
D. hyperopia.
21. Glaucoma is an eye disease which affects vision. It is caused by:
A. blockage of the flow of aqueous humor through the canal of Schlemm and
loss of intraocular pressure in the vitreous humor.
B. detachment of the retina and subsequent loss of vision in this part of the eye.
C. cataracts that form in the eye’s lens which prevent light from reaching the
retina.
D. increased intraocular pressure which collapses the blood capillaries that
perfuse the retina so part of it dies.
22. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. A convex lens causes light rays to converge.
B. The fluid between the cornea and the eye’s lens is a lens.
C. The cornea is a lens.
D. The eye’s lens is a convex lens.
23. In the human eye where does the greatest refraction occur?
A. in the lens of the eye.
B. at the retina.
C. as light passes from air into the cornea.
D. as light passes from the lens into the vitreous humor.
24. In order to focus on objects that are very close to the eye, what must happen to
the human lens? It must:
A. increase its focal length
B. increase the amount of refraction it causes
C. be stretched to a thinner shape
D. decrease its dioptre value
25. When the human eye is accommodated to make the image of a distant object
focus on the retina, which of the following is true? The ciliary muscles are:
A. relaxed, the ciliary fibres are taut and the lens is nearly spherical.
B. contracted, the ciliary fibres are slack and the lens is nearly spherical
C. contracted, the ciliary fibres are slack and the lens is thin.
D. relaxed, the ciliary fibres are taut and the lens is thin.
26. Myopia may be corrected with a lens that is
A. bifocal.
B. concave.
C. cylindrical.
D. convex.
27. The change in vision that occurs with ageing is called
A. protanopia.
B. hyperopia.
C. deuteranopia.
D. presbyopia.
28. As part of the normal ageing process, our eyes deteriorate because
A. the ciliary muscles gradually lose their tone.
B. the lens loses its flexibility.
C. parts of the retina detach from the underlying blood vessels.
D. the distance between the lens and the retina gradually changes.
29. In which colour ranges do the three pigments in the retina have their major
sensitivities?
A. red, green and blue.
B. red, blue and yellow.
C. green, yellow and red.
D. green, yellow and blue.
30. the human eye is able to alter its focal length in a process called accommodation.
Choose the best description of accommodation from the ones below.
When the ciliary muscle:
A. relaxes, the ciliary fibres are loosened and the eye lens is stretched into a
long focal length.
B. contracts, the ciliary fibres are pulled taut and the eye lens is stretched into
a long focal length.
C. relaxes, the ciliary fibres are pulled taut and the eye lens oozes into a short
focal length.
D. contracts, the ciliary fibres are loosened and the eye lens oozes into a long
focal length.

14.4.2 Ear
1. By which of the following pathways does sound entering the ear reach the
organ of Corti?
A. basilar membrane, middle ear, oval window, endolymph,
B. tympanic membrane, ossicles, oval window, cochlear fluid
C. tectorial membrane, Eustachian tube, ossicles, cochlear fluid
D. oval window, ear canal, auditory tube, endolymph
2. Which part of the ear contains the apparatus that we use to distinguish between
different frequencies of sound?
A. The cochlea
B. The Eustachian (or auditory) tube
C. The tensor tympani
D. The auditory meatus
3. What is the range of frequencies that the human ear is most sensitive to?
A. 50 Hz to 500 Hz
B. 12,000 Hz to 20,000 Hz
C. 500 Hz to 6000 Hz
D. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
4. Which one of the following statements is WRONG?
A. the middle ear lies between the tympanic membrane and the oval and round
windows
B. the outer ear is vented by the Eustachian (or auditory) tube
C. the stapes is located in the middle ear
D. the tectorial membrane and the basilar membrane are located in the inner
ear
5. The ossicles of the ear pass on sound vibrations to the fluid in the inner ear. In
what structure is this fluid located?
A. the organ of Corti
B. the cochlea
C. the Eustachian tube
D. the saccule and utricle
6. Sound produces vibrations in the cochlear fluid of the inner ear. The movement
of the fluid then produces motion in which of the following?
A. tectorial membrane
B. basilar membrane
C. otolithic membrane
D. crista ampullaris
7. What is the function of the middle ear ossicles?
A. To protect the cochlea from excessively loud noises.
B. To increase the sound intensity by resonating for sounds of frequencies near
3000 Hz
C. To amplify the sound intensity that reaches the tympanic membrane.
D. To cause the sound energy of waves in air to be transmitted into the cochlear
fluid
8. Sound waves are conducted from the air outside the ear to the inner ear by the
processes of:
A. absorption, transmission and refraction.
B. reflection, transmission and scattering.
C. resonance, leverage and amplification.
D. resonance, diffraction and refraction.
9. Sound level (measured in decibels, dB) is a subjective measure of the loudness
of a sound. A sound of 90 dB
A. will produce hearing damage if the ear is subjected to it chronically.
B. is beyond the normal audible frequency range of human hearing.
C. cannot be heard by the human ear even though it carries energy.
D. will be perceived to be the same loudness at all audible frequencies.
10. Of the following lists of four anatomical features, which one has them in the
correct order of the path taken by sound energy as it is transmitted through the
ear?
A. tectorial membrane, malleus, oval window, cochlear fluid.
B. tectorial membrane, incus, round window, organ of Corti.
C. tympanic membrane, malleus, oval window, cochlear fluid.
D. tympanic membrane, stapes, round window, organ of Corti.
11. Which of the following is NOT a small bone involved in hearing?
A. Meatus
B. Malleus
C. Stapes
D. Incus
A. Tympanic membrane, malleus, oval window, cochlear fluid.
B. Basilar membrane, incus, round window, fluid of Corti.
C. Tympanic membrane, stapedius, round window, fluid of Corti.
D. Basilar membrane, malleus, oval window, cochlear fluid.
13. What is the function of the tensor tympani and stapedius muscles in the middle
ear?
A. To protect the tympanic membrane and ossicles from excessively loud
noises.
B. To increase sound intensity by resonating for sounds with frequencies near
3000 Hz.
C. To amplify the sound intensity that reaches the oval window.
D. To cause the sound energy of waves in air to be transmitted into the cochlear
fluid.
14. The loudness of a sound wave as perceived by the human ear, depends on which
of the following pairs of wave properties?
A. speed and frequency.
B. intensity and frequency.
C. amplitude and phase.
D. speed and intensity.
15. If the frequency of a sound wave is increased from 50 Hz to 3000 Hz, its loudness
also increases. This occurs because:
A. the ear is more sensitive to 3000 Hz than to 50 Hz.
B. sounds of higher frequency carry higher energy.
C. as frequency increases the sound intensity also increases.
D. loudness is proportional to frequency.
16. Our ears are most sensitive to sounds with frequencies that lie between about
3000 Hz and 3500 Hz. The reason for this is that
A. sounds with these frequencies have the largest decibel rating
B. the majority of human speech sounds are composed of frequencies that lie
in this range
C. the external ear canal has dimensions that allow it to resonate with a frequency that is
in this range
D. the largest part of the basilar membrane is receptive to this range of
frequencies
17. What can be said about noise-induced hearing loss?
A. It affects sound frequencies near 4000 Hz most.
B. It is also called presbycusis.
C. It is likely to be caused by sounds above 65 dB.
D. It is due to otosclerosis.
18. For which condition is a hearing aid most successful at treating?
A. conductive hearing loss.
B. perceptive deafness.
C. nerve deafness.
D. sensorineural hearing loss.
19. What is the purpose of the diaphragm on the bell of a stethoscope? To:
A. prevent external sounds from interfering with auscultation.
B. eliminate any air gap between the skin and stethoscope.
C. resonate with the sound being listened to.
D. transmit the body sounds to the earpieces.
20. Which structure lies on the boundary between the middle and inner ear and has
the stapes bound to it?
A. Ampulla
B. Oval window
C. Round window
D. Tympanic membrane
21. Which membrane lies over the hair cells found in the organ of Corti?
A. Basilar
B. Tectorial
C. Vestibular
D. Cochlear
22. The inner ear (or internal ear) maybe described as a series of tubes. What are
the tubes filled with?
A. air
B. perilymph
C. endolymph
D. perilymph and endolymph
23. What are the cells found in the maculae of the utricle and saccule that are
responsible for our sense of equilibrium?
A. Supporting cells
B. Otoliths
C. Hair cells
D. Epithelial cells
24. Which of the following auditory structures are filled with fluid?
A. The inner ear
B. The middle ear
C. The external meatus
D. the Eustachian tube