PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT
Time Management
1. The 80:20 rule size
a) 80% results are achieved with 20% effort
b) Typically 80% of unfocused effort generates 20% results
c) Both are true
d) Non of above
2. Time management skills does not include
a) Getting a good night sleep
b) Procrastinating
c) Having free time
d) Being flexible
3. A record of how you are spending your time
a) Log book
b) Hand book
c) Time log
d) None of above
4. The keyword of time management
a) Tomorrow
b) Now
c) Practice
d) Today
5. Using a planner or making a “ to do ” list everyday
a) Is a waste of paper
b) Helps keep things in right , in mind
c) Takes too long to fill out
d) All of the above
6. Which activity would belong in the category of “ not urgent ,but important”?
a) Interruptions
b) Busy work
c) Planning
d) Crises
7. In business time management what does the acronym PAY stand for
a) Priority Actions Yard Stick
b) Priority application of Yen
c) Primary attributions of Yeild
d) Prioritize activities by Yiled
8. The best time to make a plan for new task is
a) Mid way through the process
b) Towards the end of the process
c) Before standing
d) None of the above
9. The central principles of time management are based on maximizing all of the following EXPECT
a) Efficiency
b) Productivity
c) Stability
d) Synergy
10. When setting goals for a given project,should one focus on:
a) Medium term goals
b) Short term goals
c) Long term goals
d) All of the above
Coping with Stress and Emotions
11. Which of the following individuals connects to the term ‘emotional intelligence’?
a) Goleman
b) Weschler
c) Stemberg
d) Ekman
12. Which of the following statements is true?
a) In small quantities stress is good
b) Too much stress is harmful
c) All stress is bad
d) Only A & B are right
13. Which of the following are basic sources of stress?
a) The environment
b) Physiological
c) Thoughts
d) All of the above
14. Example of physiological stressors
a) Menopause
b) Relationships problems
c) Divorce
d) Financial problems
15. Which of the following are the physical symptons of anxiety?
a) Racing heart
b) Sweaty palms
c) Flushed cheeks
d) All of the above
16. Who was the first two describe the flight or fight response?
a) Sigmund fraud
b) Atkinson
c) Walter.B.Cannon
d) Muller
17. Ego focused emotions relate to
a) Personal attributes
b) Other people’s needs and wants
c) External traits and abilities
d) Physical and social settings
18. Which of the following is a symptom of short term stress
a) Digestive problem
b) Raped breathing
c) Excessive tiredness
d) Mood changes
19. Which hormone increases when the body is under stress
a) Thyroxine
b) Adrenaline
c) Oestrogen
d) Oxytocin
20. Which of the following factors may affect the bodies capacity to
deal with stress effectively
a) Age
b) Psychological factors
c) Physiological reserve
d) All of the abpve
21. Symptoms such as moodiness, hostility and fearfulness are signs
that stress is affecting the
a) Body
b) Mind
c) Emotions
d) Behavior
22. Taking care of and supporting yourself during stressful times include all of the following except
a) Talking with someone about the stress
b) Providing some down time for yourself
c) Suppressing true feelings
d) Creating an emotional outlet
23. Which of the following does NOT define self-esteem?
a) Positive or negative valuations of your self concept
b) An understanding of what others think of you
c) Sometimes depended on the ideas, morals and values of family, group and culture that the
individual belongs
d) Evaluations of our personal worthiness
24. Which of the following statements is time of self-concept?
a) We base it on the ways others read and respond to us
b) Our experiences are crtical to our self concept
c) First experiences have great emphasizes on our self concept
d) All of the above
25. What is the cause of anorexia?
a) Sibling rivalry
b) Trying to win over people
c) Social gathering
d) Perfectionism
26. Determining alternative solutions to the problem is related to
a) Refusal skills
b) Critical thinking
c) Problem solving skills
d) Communication skill
27. The ability to imagine what life is like for another person
a) Self awareness
b) Empathy
c) Critical thinking
d) Creative thinking
28. Emotion intelligence involves
a) Mood management
b) Managing relationships
c) Emotional self awareness
d) All of the above
29. The process that chooses a preferred option or a course of actions from a set of alternatives on the
basis of given criteria
a) Decision making
b) Problem solving
c) Conflict management
d) Reasoning
30. Praise,recognition and attention are part of which source of power
a) Legitimate power
b) Expert power
c) Referent power
d) Reward power
31. Anger management skills are an example of managing
a) Anxiety
b) Anger
c) Feelings
d) Stress
32. Seeking out information about someone new to make us feel better about their “unknown” assist us
with
a) Interpretation
b) Dual processing
c) Uncertainty reduction
d) Pattern recognition
33. The process of perception involves three stages. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages?
a) Attend to and select stimuli
b) Reception checking
c) Simplify your conception about the expected behaviours
d) Interpret stimuli
34. A Restaurant server gives you poor service. You summarise that he is lazy and rude when in
actuality, he just found of that his aunt went to the hospital.Your reaction is known as
a) Forced consistency
b) Fundamental attribution error
c) Projection
d) Selective perception
35. The idea of “seeing what someone wants to see” could also be known as
a) Forced consistency
b) Fundamental attribution error
c) Projection
d) Selective perception
36. Behaviour modification is a type of
a) Behavior therapy
b) Congintive behavioral therapy
c) Humanistic therapy
d) Client centred therapy
37. Drugs called benzodiazepines are used to treat
a) Depression
b) Anxiety disorders
c) Schizophrenia
d) Mood disorders
38. Counselling is a profession that aims to
a) Promote personal growth and productivity
b) Provide successful diagnosis in psychopathology
c) Ensure that clients are on correct medication
d) Solely address behavior
39. Emotional intelligence is characterized by
a) Proficient in problem solving
b) Better interpersonal relationships
c) High abstract thinking ability
d) Good sense of humor
40. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of the emotional development during adolescents
a) Jealousy towards family and friends
b) Conflicts in motivations
c) Showing curiosity towards environmental objects
d) Tendency to envince worries
41. In order to assess critical thinking among students, which of the following should be chosen by a
teacher?
a) Open-ended question requiring divergent thinking
b) Questions requiring ‘yes ‘ or ‘no’ answers
c) Questions requiring oneword answers
d) Questions requiring recall of declarative knowledge only
42. Which of the following questions promotes critical thinking rather than mere call of informations ?
a) In which year was the last senses held?
b) Where was Mahatma Gandhi born?
c) Who was the first president of India?
d) How can democratic ideals be promoted in society
43. A teacher should promotes ________ and ________ among students
a) Entity view of ability, performance-oriented goals
b) Incremental view of ability, mastery-oriented goals
c) Entity view of ability, failure-avoidence goals
d) Incremental view of ability, failure accepting goals
44. Inorder to promote critical thinking among students, a teacher should present _______ requiring
_______
a) Open-ended questions, divergent thinking
b) Close-ended questions, convergent thinking
c) Problems from real life contest, covergent thinking
d) Decontextualised scenarios;applications of declarative knowledge
45. _______ Involves thinking reflectively and productively and evaluating the evidence
a) Critical thinking
b) Abstract learning
c) Divergent thinking
d) Reflection
46. Creative thinking is not facilitated by which of the follwong
a) originality
b) tolerance of ambiguity
c) convergent thinking
d) flexibility
47. For developing creative among students which type of questions should be asked
a) Open ended and subjective
b) Multiple choice
c) Short answer
d) Closed-ended
48. A child who posses the need for knowledge and understanding of new things is having
a) Security needs
b) Aesthetic needs
c) Congnitive needs
d) Self actualization needs
49. Judgment should come through a systematic analysis and evaluation.this is known as
a) Insightful thinking
b) Emotional thinking
c) Critical thinking
d) Divergent thinking
50. Which of the following statement is correct
1) Conformity leads to mediocrity
2) The desire for comfort in life does not ends spontaneity
a) Neither 1 or 2
b) Only 1
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Only 1
51. Folds are most often created through what type of stress
a) Compression
b) Tension
c) Shear
d) Confining
52. Relaxation responds technique is a stress reduction technique that combines elements of relaxation
and what else?
a) Eustress
b) Intervention
c) Meditation
d) Reaction
53. Who said, “The intensity and chronicity of human stress is governed largely by perceived control
over the demands of one’s life” ?
a) Sigmund freud
b) Thomas holmes
c) Albert bandhura
d) Richard rahe
54. Developing stomach ulcers during prolonged period of stress exemplifies how stress can have a
negative _____ impact
a) Congnitive
b) Mental
c) Morbid
d) Physiological
55. Which type of appraisal involves judgment about the degree of potential charm or threat to well-
being that a stress or might entail?
a) Alpha
b) Beta
c) Primary
d) Secondary
SELF-AWARENESS
56. What is self-awareness?
a. The ability to understand and recognize oneself
b. The awareness of one's surroundings
c. The ability to empathize with others
d. The awareness of one's physical abilities
57. Self-awareness is an essential component of which type of intelligence?
a. Emotional intelligence
b. Linguistic intelligence
c. Logical-mathematical intelligence
d. Spatial intelligence
58. Which of the following is an example of self-awareness?
a. Recognizing one's strengths and weaknesses
b. Solving complex mathematical problems
c. Creating a work of art
d. Running a marathon
59. True or False: Self-awareness is a fixed trait and cannot be developed.
a) True
b) False
60. How can self-awareness benefit individuals?
a. It improves decision-making skills.
b. It enhances interpersonal relationships.
c. It helps manage stress and emotions effectively.
d. All of the above.
61. Which of the following best defines self-awareness?
a) Understanding and recognizing one's own thoughts, emotions, and behaviors.
b) Having extensive knowledge about oneself.
c) Being able to predict future outcomes accurately.
d) Developing a deep understanding of others' perspectives.
62. Self-awareness is an essential component of:
a. Emotional intelligence.
b. Logical reasoning.
c. Physical fitness.
d. Time management skills.
63. Which of the following statements is true about self-awareness?
a. It is a fixed trait that remains constant throughout one's life.
b. It is solely influenced by external factors.
c. It requires introspection and reflection.
d. It can only be achieved through formal education.
64. Which of the following is a potential benefit of developing self-awareness?
a. Decreased empathy and understanding of others.
b. Improved decision-making skills.
c. Increased bias and prejudice.
d. Decreased self-control and emotional regulation.
65. Self-awareness can be enhanced through:
a. Engaging in regular physical exercise.
b. Avoiding self-reflection and introspection.
c. Seeking feedback from others.
d. Limiting exposure to new experiences and perspectives.
EMPATHY
66. What is empathy?
a. The ability to understand and share the feelings of others.
b. The ability to manipulate others' emotions for personal gain.
c. A lack of emotional intelligence.
d. The ability to disconnect from others' emotions.
67. Empathy is different from sympathy because:
a. Empathy involves feeling sorry for someone, while sympathy involves understanding their feelings.
b. Empathy is an innate trait, while sympathy is learned.
c. Empathy involves feeling with someone, while sympathy involves feeling for someone.
d. Empathy is only felt towards close friends and family, while sympathy is felt towards strangers.
68. Which of the following is a characteristic of empathetic individuals?
a. Lack of emotional intelligence.
b. Inability to understand others' perspectives.
c. Tendency to judge and criticize.
d. Willingness to listen and offer support.
69. Empathy can be beneficial in various areas of life, including:
a. Interpersonal relationships.
b. Competitive sports.
c. Political debates.
d. Solo activities.
70. How can empathy be developed?
a. Avoiding interactions with people from different backgrounds.
b. Focusing solely on one's own needs and desires.
c. Actively listening to others and trying to understand their perspectives.
d. Ignoring emotional cues and non-verbal communication.
CRITICAL &CREATIVE THINKING
71. What is critical thinking?
a. Accepting information without questioning its validity.
b. Evaluating and analyzing information in a logical and systematic manner.
c. Forming opinions based on personal biases and assumptions.
d. Following instructions without any independent thought.
72. Which of the following is a characteristic of critical thinking?
a. Jumping to conclusions without sufficient evidence.
b. Relying solely on emotions and intuition.
c. Being open-minded and willing to consider different perspectives.
d. Accepting information without questioning its accuracy.
73. Creative thinking involves:
a. Following established rules and procedures.
b. Replicating existing ideas and concepts.
c. Generating new and innovative ideas.
d. Sticking to traditional and conventional methods.
74. Which of the following is a skill associated with critical thinking?
a. Conforming to societal norms and expectations.
b. Ignoring contradictory evidence and opinions.
c. Applying logical reasoning to solve problems.
d. Relying solely on intuition and gut feelings.
75. How can critical and creative thinking be fostered?
a. Encouraging conformity and discouraging independent thought.
b. Avoiding challenges and difficult situations.
c. Promoting curiosity, questioning, and exploration.
d. Relying solely on memorization and regurgitation of facts.
DECISION MAKING & PROBLEM-SOLVING
76. What is decision making?
a) Selecting the easiest option available.
b) Making choices without considering the consequences.
c) Evaluating alternatives and choosing the best course of action.
d) Relying solely on intuition and gut feelings.
77. Which of the following is a step in the problem-solving process?
a) Ignoring the problem and hoping it goes away.
b) Identifying and defining the problem.
c) Implementing the first solution that comes to mind.
d) Avoiding any input or feedback from others.
78. A decision based on rational thinking involves:
a) Ignoring facts and relying on emotions.
b) Making impulsive choices without considering alternatives.
c) Weighing pros and cons and considering evidence.
d) Following the opinions and preferences of others.
79. The "5 Whys" technique is commonly used for:
a) Generating creative ideas.
b) Identifying the root cause of a problem.
c) Making decisions based on intuition.
d) Avoiding accountability for mistakes.
80. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective problem solvers?
a) Avoiding risks and sticking to familiar solutions.
b) Blaming others for problems and failures.
c) Being flexible and adaptable to change.
d) Relying solely on trial and error without reflection.
81. Which decision-making model involves analyzing the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and
threats?
a) SWOT analysis.
b) Cost-benefit analysis.
c) Rational decision-making model.
d) Incremental decision-making model.
COMMUNICATION SKILLS
82. What is communication?
a. The process of sending messages via email or text.
b. The exchange of information, ideas, and thoughts between individuals.
c. Talking without listening to others' perspectives.
d. Manipulating and controlling others through speech.
83. Active listening involves:
a. Interrupting others and dominating the conversation.
b. Focusing solely on one's own thoughts and opinions.
c. Paying full attention and understanding the speaker's message.
d. Ignoring nonverbal cues and body language.
84. Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication?
a. Speaking clearly and concisely.
b. Using appropriate body language and facial expressions.
c. Sending a text message.
d. Writing a formal report.
85. Effective communication requires:
a. Using complex and technical language.
b. Avoiding eye contact and physical gestures.
c. Tailoring the message to the audience's needs and preferences.
d. Using jargon and acronyms to sound more professional.
86. Which of the following is a barrier to effective communication?
a. Active listening and empathy.
b. Clear and concise language.
c. Noise and distractions.
d. Mutual understanding and respect.
87. Which communication skill involves expressing one's thoughts and ideas clearly and effectively?
a. Nonverbal communication.
b. Active listening.
c. Verbal communication.
d. Empathy.
88. What is the purpose of feedback in communication?
a. Ignoring others' perspectives and opinions.
b. Establishing hierarchy and power dynamics.
c. Evaluating and improving the effectiveness of communication.
d. Manipulating and controlling others.
89. What does it mean to be assertive in communication?
a. Aggressively imposing one's opinions and ideas on others.
b. Being passive and avoiding conflict at all costs.
c. Expressing one's thoughts and opinions respectfully and confidently.
d. Focusing solely on others' needs and ignoring one's own.
90. Which of the following is an example of written communication?
a. Conducting a face-to-face meeting.
b. Sending an email.
c. Participating in a group discussion.
d. Delivering a presentation.
91. Emotional intelligence is important in communication because it involves:
a. Ignoring others' emotions and focusing solely on facts.
b. Manipulating and controlling others' emotions.
c. Understanding and managing one's own emotions and empathizing with others.
d. Avoiding any emotional expressions in communication.
PUBLIC SPEAKING
92. What is the importance of public speaking skills?
a. It helps in entertaining the audience with jokes and humor.
b. It enables effective communication and expression of ideas.
c. It encourages dominating and interrupting others during conversations.
d. It limits self-confidence and self-esteem.
93. Which of the following is a key element of effective public speaking?
a. Using complex jargon and technical terms to impress the audience.
b. Reading from a script without making any eye contact with the audience.
c. Delivering a well-structured and organized speech with clear messages.
d. Focusing solely on self-promotion and boasting achievements.
94. How can a speaker engage the audience during a public speaking session?
a. By speaking in a monotone and monotonous voice.
b. By ignoring the importance of body language and facial expressions.
c. By using storytelling, humor, and interactive elements.
d. By rushing through the speech without pauses or breaks.
95. What is the purpose of effective speech delivery techniques?
a. To confuse and mislead the audience.
b. To distract the audience from the main message.
c. To enhance the speaker's credibility and influence.
d. To discourage the audience from paying attention.
96. Which of the following is a recommended approach to handle stage fright or nervousness during
public speaking?
a. Avoiding eye contact with the audience and speaking softly.
b. Using excessive gestures and movements to distract from nervousness.
c. Practicing the speech beforehand and using relaxation techniques.
d. Ignoring the audience's reactions and feedback.
97. What is the role of body language in public speaking?
a. To create barriers and distance between the speaker and the audience.
b. To distract the audience from the main message.
c. To convey confidence, engagement, and enthusiasm.
d. To encourage a confrontational and aggressive environment.
98. How can a speaker effectively handle questions and answers during a public speaking session?
a. Avoiding any interaction with the audience.
b. Providing vague and incomplete responses.
c. Listening actively and answering questions with clarity and confidence.
d. Rejecting or dismissing any challenging or critical questions.
99. What is the importance of understanding the audience in public speaking?
a. To ignore the audience's needs and preferences.
b. To deliver a speech without considering the audience's background and interests.
c. To adapt the speech content and delivery style to connect with the audience.
d. To focus solely on the speaker's personal agenda and goals.
100. How can a speaker effectively use visual aids in a public speaking session?
a. By using small and unreadable fonts in the visual aids.
b. By relying solely on visual aids without verbal explanation.
c. By using clear and visually appealing graphics to support key points.
d. By overcrowding the visual aids with excessive text and information.
101. What is the importance of practicing and rehearsing before a public speaking session?
a. To increase anxiety and nervousness.
b. To avoid preparation and rely solely on spontaneity.
c. To ensure a smooth and confident delivery of the speech.
d. To discourage personal growth and improvement.
TIME MANAGEMENT
102. What is time management?
a. The process of avoiding work and procrastinating.
b. The practice of allocating and utilizing time effectively.
c. The act of stretching tasks and projects indefinitely.
d. The practice of multitasking and working on multiple tasks simultaneously.
103. Why is time management important?
a. To create unnecessary stress and pressure.
b. To increase inefficiency and delay project completion.
c. To prioritize tasks and meet deadlines.
d. To disregard the importance of planning and organization.
104. What are the benefits of effective time management?
a. Decreased productivity and accomplishment of tasks.
b. Increased stress and burnout.
c. Improved productivity, efficiency, and reduced stress.
d. Delayed project completion and missed deadlines.
105. What are some common time management techniques?
a. Randomly assigning tasks without any prioritization.
b. Constantly checking social media and email notifications.
c. Using to-do lists, prioritization, and scheduling.
d. Delaying tasks until the last minute.
106. How can one prioritize tasks effectively?
a. By randomly choosing tasks without considering their importance.
b. By focusing solely on urgent tasks and neglecting important ones.
c. By evaluating tasks based on importance and urgency.
d. By avoiding any planning and simply going with the flow.
107. What is the role of goal setting in time management?
a. To increase confusion and lack of direction.
b. To set unrealistic and unattainable goals.
c. To provide a clear focus and direction for tasks.
d. To avoid any form of planning and organization.
108. How can one effectively handle interruptions and distractions?
a. By indulging in distractions and giving in to interruptions.
b. By ignoring urgent matters and avoiding any form of multitasking.
c. By setting boundaries, managing distractions, and staying focused.
d. By allowing interruptions to derail the entire workflow.
109. What is the importance of delegation in time management?
a. To increase workload and overwhelm oneself.
b. To avoid responsibility and accountability.
c. To allocate tasks to others and free up time for important activities.
d. To discourage collaboration and teamwork.
110. How can one effectively utilize breaks and downtime for time management?
a. By avoiding breaks altogether to maximize productivity.
b. By using breaks to engage in unproductive activities.
c. By taking regular breaks to recharge and maintain focus.
d. By neglecting self-care and rest.
111. What is the importance of self-discipline in time management?
a. To encourage procrastination and lack of accountability.
b. To prioritize personal preferences over work responsibilities.
c. To maintain focus, follow schedules, and meet deadlines.
d. To disregard the importance of punctuality and commitment.
Miscellaneous
112. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Introverts?
A. introverts have lower level of arousal than extraverts for the same stimulus.
B. introverts can become overstimulated.
C. introverts are more easily conditioned to emotional stimuli than those high in neuroticism.
D. introverts are more impulsive than extraverts.
113. At what time of life does Erikson stage Industry vs. Inferiority occur?
A. old age
B. adolescence
C. infancy
D. school age
114. If a young adult sees stealing as wrong because of the harm it brings to someone, which of
Kolberg?s stages are they displaying?
A. punishment and obedience orientation
B. good boy?good girl orientation
C. legalistic orientation
D. social order orientation
115. Bob hasn’t missed a day of work since he started his job three years ago. Every morning he comes
in with a smile on his face that remains there until he leaves. He works for a charity and it gives him great
satisfaction to know that he’s helping others. He loves his job. Bob is most likely
A. a workaholic
B. driven by protestant work ethic
C. burned out
D. work enthusiast
116. A relationship based on a previous friendship that developed into lovers is characteristic of what love
style?
A. agape
B. storge
C. ludus
D. pragma
117. A mother and her infant son are being tested by A is worth? Strange Situation procedure. After the
mother has left and comes back onto the room the child acts like he is mad at the mother. This child is said
to be?
A. secure
B. anxious
C. highly neurotic
D. avoidant
118. Some people crave high levels of arousal through high levels of stimulation. They are said to be
A. sensation seekers
B. excitation transfers
C. securely attached
D. inhibited
119. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Protestant Work Ethic?
A. hard work
B. high in delay of gratification
C. do not value leisure
D. spend a lot of money
120. James Marcia’s 4 identity stages are:
A. diffusion, foreclosure, achievement, longitudinal achievement
B. diffusion, foreclosure, moratorium, longitudinal achievement
C. identity diffusion, identity foreclosure, moratorium, identity achievement
D. identity diffusion, identity foreclosure, identity achievement, identity attachment
121. According to Erikson’s eight stages of psychosocial development, during which age does the
psychological stage of trust vs. mistrust develop?
A. early childhood
B. infancy
C. adolescence
D. adulthood
122. Which one(s) is (are) myths about heredity?
A. if the heritability of a trait is high, it shows that society has had little influence on the trait
B. heredity means that the person will not change
C. if a trait is inherited, it will have similar effects in the various people who inherit it.
D. all of the above
123. Which love style does this example fir? "I try to keep lover a little uncertain about my commitment to
him/her".
A. pragma
B. agape
C. storge
D. ludus
123. Bill Clinton displays what form of political personality?
A. paranoid
B. passive-independent
C. active-independent
D. active-dependent
124. Which of the following would be true of birth order?
A. first born and only children are higher in achievement motivation
B. young children are more relation oriented.
C. having younger siblings increases power motivation.
D. all of the above
125. Which of the following would be an evolved trait(s)?
A. tendency to overeat
B. quick response to danger
C. aggression in men
D. all of the above
126. A "strange-situation" setting is developed in a lab. After a mother and her young child are playing
and interacting with each other as they so often do, the mother suddenly leaves. The observer witnesses the
child becoming hysterical and upset, and when the mother returns, the child will not let go of her. The child is
said to be
A. securely attached
B. anxiously attached
C. avoidantly attached
D. completely attached
127. Which of the following is a way to measure activity level in an infant?
A. how often they smile
B. how much they sleep
C. how much they want to be held
D. all of the above
128. Ever since Roxanne could remember, she had always wanted to be an Olympic Gymnast never
once had she suggested anything else! In grade school, she asked parents to send her to gymnast team.
When her friend asked her to go to "career day", Roxanne said that she didn?t need to. According to Marcia,
she is demonstrating
A. identity achievement
B. identity diffusion
C. identity foreclosure
D. moratorium
129. John and Jane have two children? Billy, 21 and Jerome who’s only 10. Which of the following
statement is probably true?
A. billy has low n affil and high n ach
B. birth order has no impact on personality
C. jerome has high n ach and high n power
D. jerome?s personality will drastically change as he becomes older
130. According to James Marcia, a person who has never doubted what they wanted to become and so
never explored other options is considered to be
A. in moratorium
B. identity achieved
C. identity foreclosed
D. in identity diffusion status
131. Which one of the following descriptions is best associated with Protestant Work Ethic?
A. always attributes success to ability
B. tends to spend money a lot
C. belief in the value of hard work
D. take credit for the work of others
132. The identity status that Marcia came up with that involved the early acceptance of choice is what?
A. identity diffusion
B. identity foreclosure
C. moratorium
D. identity achievement
133. Which would stress the idea of delay of gratification?
A. workaholic
B. work enthusiast
C. protestant work ethic
D. perfectionist
134. Which style of love matches this statement "I try to keep my lover a little uncertain about my
commitment to him/her"?
A. eros
B. ludus
C. storge
D. pragma
135. Kathryn Mazzaferro Of the following, which is not considered a delay of gratification?
A. receiving a decent job, but holding out for a job with more pay and better hours
B. going to college
C. wanting to buy an article of clothes, but instead waiting for it to go on sale
D. buying a national enquirer in the check out line at the grocery store
135. What aspect(s) of personality are believed to have evolved in humans?
A. overeating
B. quick response to danger
C. aggression in men
D. all of the above
136. People high in the trait of ________ are more easily conditioned with emotional stimuli.
A. neuroticism
B. extraversion
C. psychoticism
D. agreeableness
137. The research strategy for assessing personality stability that studies two or more groups assumed to be
at different stages of development is
A. stratification
B. cross-sectional
C. binominal
D. longitudinal
138. _________ vs. _________ achieved a high .75 on the heritability of Cattell?s 16 PF.
A. relaxed vs. tense
B. conservative vs. liberal
C. concrete vs. abstract
D. sober vs. enthusiastic
139. Which of the following is NOT one of the Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development?
A. industry vs. inferiority
B. intimacy vs. isolation
C. trust vs. mistrust
D. life vs. death
139. A baby being measured for attachment using Ainsworth’s Strange-situation procedure appears to be
extremely clinging and attached to the mother’s side when she comes back into the room. This baby would
be classified as
A. secure
B. anxious
C. happy
D. avoidant
142. Generativity is best described as
A. part of Erikson’s later adulthood stage
B. a desire to help others
C. the ability to make general observations
D. both a and b
143. Ainsworth’s three types of attachment in an infant’s "strange situation" are
A. secure, avoidant, anxious
B. secure, avoidant, achievement
C. generativity, avoidant, achievement
D. secure, active, anxious
144. The part of personality development where one seems to have no evidence of exploration and also
does not have a clear identity is
A. identity diffusion
B. identity foreclosure
C. moratorium
D. identity achievement
145. According to James Marcia?s identity statuses, which of the following is NOT an identity status?
A. identity foreclosure
B. identity association
C. moratorium
D. identity diffusion
146. George is in preschool. His teachers notice that he is hyper likes to jump around a lot and cannot sit
still during nap time. George is probably
A. high in sociability
B. anxious attached child
C. introvert
D. high in activity level
147. Dennis always wanted to be a doctor. His parents pushed him in biology and chemistry. When he
applied for college, he declared his major as pre-medical and only took classes that would help him to get
into Medical School. According to the identity status paradigm, Dennis is in which stage?
A. identity foreclosure
B. moratorium
C. identity diffusion
D. identity lease
148. An identity that results in an individual exploring different options before making a decision is said to be
A. identity diffusion
B. identity foreclosure
C. moratorium
D. negative identity
149. The idea that you can assess someone’s personality by studying their face is called:
A. phrenology
B. physiology
C. somatology
D. physiognomy
150. Humanistic psychologists explained
A. human traits
B. humanity
C. sociology
D. can’t say
151. Extraverts have ________ participation
A. mental
B. social
C. physical
D. none of these
152. traits could be organized into three levels:
A. primary, secondary, tertiary
B. cognitive, emotional, physiological
C. id, ego, superego
D. cardinal, central, secondary
153. Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five traits?
A. sense of humour
B. openness to experience
C. conscientiousness
D. extraversion
154. The ________ approach to understanding human behaviour.
A. palliative
B. psychodynamic
C. patronymic
D. psychedelic
155. The influence of parents on the personality of their children is:
A. non-existent
B. weakest in early childhood
C. strongest in early childhood
D. consistent across the lifespan
156. A good command over a ……..is need of speech
A. practice
B. language
C. gestures
D. activity
157. Few…. traits can not changed.
A. new
B. inborn
C. adopted
D. natural
158. Which of the following characteristics describe someone who, according to
Maslow, is self-actualized?
A. creativity
B. confidence
C. spontaneity
D. all of the above
159. One can express through…….
A. oral
B. writtien
C. gesture
D. all the above
160. Psychometric tests claim give information about:
A. career interest
B. intellectual attainment
C. unconscious passion
D. all the above
161. People with different body types have different personalities has been:
A. supported by research
B. discredited
C. shown to be accurate for thin people but not overweight people
D. shown to be accurate for women but not for men
162. Which of the following is not a defence mechanism?
A. projection
B. regression
C. ingratiation
D. sublimation
163. Rohan is self-disciplined, focused on achievement and keen to do his duty. He would be expected to
score highly on:
A. neuroticism
B. agreeableness
C. extraversion
D. conscientiousness
164. ________ are the basic biological units that transmit characteristics from one generation to the next:
A. genes
B. neurons
C. glia
D. instincts
165. Which of the following would NOT be useful to a behavioural geneticist?
A. family studies
B. case studies
C. adoption studies
D. twin studies
166. Thinking oneself very different is…..
A. superego
B. self motivation
C. pleasure
D. reality,
167. Lana is friendly, always willing to help others and compassionate. We would expect Lana to score
highly on:
A. extraversion
B. agreeableness
C. neuroticism
D. openness to experience
168. A syllogism is a form of
A. inductive reasoning
B. illogical reasoning
C. independent reasoning
D. deductive reasoning
169. Most people categorize most rapidly at the _____ level of hierarchy
A. hyper-ordinate
B. superordinate
C. subordinate
D. basic
170. Humans think using
A. emotions and feelings
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B. emotions and images
C. mental images and concept
D. feelings and concept
171. Which of the following is the smallest unit within a language system?
A. sentence
B. grapheme
C. morpheme
D. phoneme
172. What is the nature of the relationship between language and thought according to the strong version of
linguistic relativity hypothesis?
A. there is two directional interaction between language and thought
B. language interacts with thought
C. thought is required for language
D. language determines thought
173. What is the nature of the relationship between language and thought according to the weak version of
linguistic relativity hypothesis?
A. there is two directional interaction between language and thought
B. language only interacts with thought
C. there is two directional interaction between language and thought
D. language determines thought
174. Damage to which area of brain can impair general planning ability according to Owen?
A. hippocampus
B. cerebellum
C. prefrontal cortex
D. hypothalamus
175. Reasoning involving moving from specific facts to a conclusion is also known as
A. conditional reasoning
B. ill-defined problem
C. deductive reasoning
D. inductive reasoning
176. All of the following represent components of natural language use except
A. syntax
B. pragmatics
C. mnemonics
D. semantics
177. When related sentences are put together to make a sensible message, this is referred to as
A. context
B. semantics
C. pragmatics
D. discourse
178. The common term used to describe all types of language loss is
A. dyslexia
B. aphasia
C. dysphasia
D. lexphasia
179. Which of the following is an example of people's reliance on the representativeness heuristics to make
decisions or judgements?
A. people report that they did more than 50% of the work in domestic situations
B. people tend top overestimate car accidents
C. people are more likely to attribute a case of heartburn to spicy food than bland food
D. people tend to underestimate death from diabetes
180. All of the following qualities describe reasoning by intuition except
A. occurs automatically
B. fast analysis of information
C. strong feeling of conviction
D. logical analysis
181. The temporary inability to retrieve a word that is well known to us is referred to as
A. recency effect
B. tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon
C. wernicke’s aphasia
D. broca’s aphasia
182. Availability heuristic is not
A. influenced by imagination
B. influenced by information stored in memory
C. subject to hindsight bias
D. influenced by the underlying possibilities
183. Chomsky proposed that children learn a language
A. because they possess learnt words
B. because they possess an innate language acquisition device
C. language and thought are separate and independent processes
D. one\s thought determines the nature of one\s language
184. The term cognition includes
A. thinking, problem solving, reasoning and dreaming
B. classical and instrumental conditioning
C. attention and perception
D. use of memory systems
185. A student taking multiple choice test by reading the stem of each item, generating the correct response
closest to the answer is using
A. vicarious problem solving
B. semantics
C. heuristics
D. ideal solution
186. Set of rules for structuring sentences is called
A. grammar
B. linguistic determinants
C. morphemes
D. phonemes
187. ______ thinking goes from general principles to specific facts
A. divergent
B. inductive
C. deductive
D. convergent
188. A perceptual set that causes one to become hung up on wrong solutions or remain blind to alternatives
is called
A. fixation
B. incubation
C. creative thinking
D. conditional thinking
189. General 'mental short cuts' or quick decision making rules could be considered what type of problem
solving strategy?
A. heuristics
B. ideal strategy
C. brainstorming
D. graphical representations
190. Which of the following is the final step in problem solving?
A. identify the problem
B. selecting one effective solution
C. generate potential solution
D. evaluation of each solution
191. Which of the following is the first step in problem solving?
A. identify the problem
B. selecting one effective solution
C. generate potential solution
D. evaluation of each solution
192. In order for something to be creative, it should be useful,
A. self-explanatory and clever
B. original and surprising
C. flexible and inspiring
D. valuable and unique
193. Creativity includes
A. convergent thinking
B. divergent thinking
C. deductive thinking
D. inductive reasoning
194. Unconscious thought process involved in creative thinking is at work in this stage
A. illumination
B. evaluation
C. incubation
D. preparation
195. Incoming sensory information must go through this sequence in order to be remembered
A. storage, encoding, retrieval
B. storage, encoding, retrieval
C. encoding, storage, retrieval
D. encoding, retrieval, storage
196. Which of the measures of retention is considered the most sensitive?
A. recognition
B. free recall
C. recall
D. relearning
197. How to measure explicit memory?
A. recalling method
B. recognition method
C. relearning method
D. all of the above
198. The entry point of memory- the initial stage of the memory system in which all of the stimuli that
bombard our senses are retained in their original sensory form for a very brief time
A. sensory memory
B. long term memory
C. short term memory
D. implicit memory
199. Rehearsal is the process of actively manipulating information so that it can be retained in memory.
There are two main types of rehearsal, they are
A. sustenance and maintenance rehearsal
B. specific and non-specific rehearsal
C. maintenance and elaborative rehearsal
D. elaborative and specific rehearsal
200. The process of linking new information in a meaningful way with information already stored in memory
or with other new information; to aid in its storage and retrieval from long term memory
A. maintenance rehearsal
B. elaborative rehearsal
C. non-specific rehearsal
D. sustenance rehearsal
201. The relatively permanent memory system that holds vast amount of information for a long period of
time
A. sensory memory
B. long term memory
C. short term memory
D. iconic memory
202. Psychologists have distinguished between two types of long term memory storage. They are called
A. assertive and procedural memory
B. declarative and assertive memory
C. assertive and interrogatory memory
D. declarative and non-declarative memory
203. The declarative memory system that holds information about specific events or personal experiences;
the declarative memory system that stores the information we have about the world
A. episodic; semantic
B. semantic; episodic
C. procedural; explicit
D. explicit; procedural
204. A clear memory of an emotionally significant moment or event
A. echoic memory
B. flash bulb memory
C. implicit memory
D. explicit memory
205. The persistence of learning over time through the encoding, storage and retrieval of information
A. memory
B. learning
C. serial position effect
D. semantic learning
206. Unconscious encoding of incidental information
A. effortful processing
B. rehearsal processing
C. chunking processing
D. automatic processing
207. The most common effortful processing technique where information is repeated
A. mnemonics
B. recall
C. recognition
D. rehearsal
208. Encoding information from its sound
A. iconic
B. echoic
C. semantic
D. recall
209. Encoding information by picturing it in our mind
A. echoic
B. semantic
C. iconic
D. deja
210. Organizing items into familiar, manageable units
A. mnemonics
B. chunking
C. relearning
D. recall