WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.1) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the
meaning of the given word.
Loquacious
[A] Talkative
[B] Slow
[C] Content
[D] Unclear

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word Loquacious (Adjective) means: talking a lot; talkative. Option (a) is the
right synonym while others have different meanings.

Q.2) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the
meaning of the given word.
Vindictive
[A] Imaginative
[B] Accusative
[C] Spiteful
[D] Aggressive

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The word Vindictive (Adjective) means: trying to harm or upset somebody or showing
that you want to, because you think that they have harmed you; spiteful; revengeful. Option
(c) spiteful is the correct synonym as it means-having or showing a desire to harm, anger or defeat
someone.

Q.3) In the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the word opposite in fallowing to
the given word.
Accord
[A] Disagreement
[B] Welcome
[C] Disrespect
[D] Conformity

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The word Accord (Noun) means: a formal agreement between two organisations,
countries etc.
Its antonym should be disagreement.

Q.4) In the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the word opposite in fallowing to
the given word.
Infirmity
[A] Employment
[B] Indisposition
[C] Strength
[D] Weakness

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The word Infirmity (Noun) means: weakness or illness over a long period.Its antonym
should be strength (Noun) which means: the quality of being physically strong, brave.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.5) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in bold in the
sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
The project is carried over to this year, and we need to keep the ball rolling.
[A] to continue the work
[B] more information
[C] to do better
[D] new strategies

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Idiom get/set/start/keep the ball rolling means: to make something start happening; to
make sure that something continues to happen.

Q.6) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in bold in the
sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
The host team bore the palm in the league matches.
[A] played quite well
[B] was victorious
[C] was defeated
[D] played a very boring match

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Idiom 'bore the palm' means: to win, victory'

Q.7) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in bold in the
sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Just keep your wig on, everything will be alright.
[A] Hold on to your wig, so it won't fall off
[B] Get another hair cut
[C] Calm down
[D] Take off your wig

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Idiom 'keep your wig on' means: to tell someone to calm down

Q.8) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in bold in the
sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Parents pay through the nose for their children‟s education.
[A] by taking loans
[B] an extremely high price
[C] grudgingly
[D] willingly

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Idiom pay through the nose means: to pay too much money for something.

Q.9) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given words/sentence.
A person who writes decoratively
[A] Calligrapher
[B] Collier
[C] Choreographer
[D] Cartographer

Correct Answer:A
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Explanation: Calligrapher

Q.10) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given words/sentence.
Pertaining to cattle
[A] Canine
[B] Feline
[C] Bovine
[D] Verminous

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Bovine

Q.11) Google is one of the most popular search engines, it is _______by the internet users.
[A] utilized
[B] effected
[C] examined
[D] flabbergasted

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Utilize means to use something, especially for a practical purpose

Q.12) Raj was tired of Puja's ________approach, so he asked her to make her final decision by
that evening.
[A] silly-willy
[B] dilly-dally
[C] wasting
[D] dilly-nally

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Dilly-dally means to take too long to do something, go somewhere or make a decision.

Q.13) Ria is ________at speaking languages. It is difficult to _______only one puppy for animal
shelter.
[A] adept, adapt
[B] adapt, adapt
[C] adept, adopt
[D] adapt, adopt

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Adept means good at doing something: skilful. Adopt means to take some-body‟s child
into your family.

Q.14) School days are considered to be the best years of your life. When my ________year in
school began, I began to think of those past enjoyable days and of my future also.
[A] penultimate
[B] absolute
[C] integral
[D] termination

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Penultimate means before the last one.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.15) Being _______the judge gave a favourable verdict.

[A] sagacious
[B] pugnacious
[C] malicious
[D] tenacious

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Pugnacious = having a strong desire to fight with other people
Malicious = having or showing hatred and a desire to harm somebody
Sagacious =showing good judgement
Tenacious = persistent; continuing to exist

Q.16) All is not well _______ the automobile sector.

[A] of
[B] down
[C] in
[D] to

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: All is not well in is the correct use.

Q.17) Many premier educational institutions come forward to have a ______with flourshing
industries
[A] tie-down
[B] tie-up
[C] tie-in
[D] tie-on

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Tie-up = an agreement between two companies to join together.

Q.18) He slipped _______ his old ways and started drinking again.
[A] into
[B] off
[C] by
[D] in

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Slip into= to go in earlier situation.

Q.19) They reached the railway station before the train________.

[A] had left
[B] had been left
[C] left
[D] was leaving

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Here, Past Per. Tense- had left is the right usage.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.20) The information and Communication Technology has _________age and employees very
highly paid technocrats.
[A] come of
[B] come upon
[C] come out of
[D] come through

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Come of = to be the result of something.

Q.21) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active / Passive Voice. Out of the four
alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive /Active
Voice.
She took the dog for a walk
[A] The dog was took for a walk.
[B] The dog took a walk by her.
[C] The dog was taken for a walk by her.
[D] The dog took her for a walk.

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The sentence is in active voice and to convert it in passive voice the predicate of the
sentence becomes the subject.

Q.22) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active / Passive Voice. Out of the four
alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive /Active
Voice.
The waiter filled the glasses with water
[A] The waiter was filled the glasses with water.
[B] The water were fi I led in the glasses by waiter
[C] The glasses filled with water by the waiter.
[D] The glasses were filled with water by the waiter

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Same as above. The predicate of the sentence has become the subject of a sentence
while converting it into passive voice.

Q.23) Three Idiots . . . . . really a watchable movie.

[A] are
[B] is
[C] superb
[D] do

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: When you are speaking of or for yourself, use "am." When you are talking about a
person or a thing (in the singular), use "is." When you are talking to a person, and when you are
talking about other people or things (in the plural), use "are." Here, it is talking about a single thing.
Hence, is will be used.

Q.24) Chirag hardly ever cooks, . . . . . . ?

[A] isn‟t he
[B] he doesn‟t
[C] doesn‟t he
[D] does he
Correct Answer:D
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Explanation: With a negative sentence the interrogative part is always positive. Therefore, does he is
the right option.

Q.25) He said to interviewer, "Could you please repeat the question?"

[A] He requested the interviewer if he could please repeat the question
[B] He requested the interviewer to please repeat the question
[C] He requested the interviewer to repeat the question
[D] He requested the interviewer if he could repeat the question

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: He requested the interviewer to repeat the question.

Q.26) “ is believed to mark the main site of Hastinapur, which was capital of Kauravas and
Pandava The imperial gazetteer of India quotes about which of the following places?
[A] Delhi
[B] Ghaziabad
[C] Meerut
[D] Faridabad

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Meerut will be the correct answer.

Q.27) Which of the following Harappan towns is divided into three parts ?
[A] Kalibanga
[B] Lothal
[C] Chanhudaro
[D] Dholavira

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The Dholavira is the largest Indus Valley Site in independent India. It is located on
Khadir Beyt, an island in the Great Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.It has been excavated by R S Bisht
team of ASI. It had three citadels. Each of these three citadels of Dholavira was improved than
Harappa and Mohen-jo-Daro and had an inner closure as well.

Q.28) Who was the priest of the Bharatas in the battle of Ten Kings ?
[A] Visvamitra
[B] Vasishtha
[C] Atri
[D] Bhrigu

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The battle of ten kings was fought between Sudas, a Bharata king of the Tritsu family
and the confederacy of ten well-known tribes- Puru, Yadu, Turvasa, Anu, Druhyu, Alina, Paktha
,Bhalanas,Shiva and Vishanin. In the bloody and decisive battle on the banks of River Purushni, the
Bharatas emerged victorious. The reason behind the war is the rivalry between Vishwamitra and
Vasishtha.

Q.29) Which of the following rivers was known as “Drishdvati” in Vedic Era?
[A] Ravi
[B] Chenab
[C] Jhelum
[D] Ghagghar
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Ghagghar
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.30) On the bank of which river, Mahavira attained Kaivalaya?

[A] Niranjana
[B] Rijupalika
[C] Yamuna
[D] Jamuna

Correct Answer:B
Explanation:At the age of 42, Mahavira attained Kaivalaya under a Sal tree on the bank of river R
ijupalika near Jrimbhikgrama in Modern Bihar.

Q.31) In which year, Vardhamana Mahavira was born?

[A] 563 BC
[B] 540 BC
[C] 533 BC
[D] 560 BC

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Vardhamana Mahavira was born in 540 BC at Kundaligrama, now in Bihar.

Q.32) First Buddhist Council was held during the reign of which of the following kings?
[A] Ajatsatru
[B] Ashoka
[C] Kanishka
[D] Kalasoka

Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The First Buddhist Council was held at Saptaparni cave near Rajagriha in 72 AD, during the reign
of Emperor Ajatsatru. It was held under the Presidentship of Mahakassapa to compile the Dhamma P
itaka and Vinaya Pitaka.

Q.33) Who presided Second Buddhist Council?

[A] Mahakassapa
[B] Vasumitra
[C] Moggliputra Tissa
[D] Sabakami

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The second Buddhist Council took place at Vaishali in 383
BC. It was presided by Sabakami under Kalasoka of Shisunga dynatsy to settle down dispute
between two opposing groups of monks of Vaishali and Patliputra and monks of Kausambi and
Avanti regarding the code of discipline.

Q.34) Mudra Rakshas is a work of Vishakhadutta. This work was depicted which of the following?
[A] Chadragupta Maurya & Dhruva Devi
[B] Mauryas & Nandas
[C] Campaigns of Chandragupta Maurya
[D] Campaigns of Ashoka

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The Mudrarakshasa is a Sanskrit-language play by Vishakhadatta that narrates the
ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya. It is dated variously from the late 4th century to the 8th
century CE. This work depicted Mauryas and Nandas.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.35) Which among the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? (Traveler – During reign of
King)
[A] Megasthenes – Chandragupta Maurya
[B] Deimachos – Asoka
[C] Hsuan -Tsang – Harshavardhana
[D] Fa-Hien – Chandragupta II

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Deimachos was a Greek ambassador who visited the court of Bindusara

Q.36) Which of the following was capital of Guptas?

[A] Taxila
[B] Pataliputra
[C] Ujjain
[D] Mathura

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Patliputra was the capital city of Gupta dynasty.

Q.37) Which the following rulers is known as the „Napoleon of India‟?

[A] Samudragupta
[B] Ashoka
[C] Chandragupta I
[D] Skandgupta

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Samudragupta believed in the policy of war and conquest and because of his bravery
and generalship he is known as the “Napoleon of India” by historian Vincent. A. Smith.

Q.38) In which of the following cities of India is located world‟s first complete granite temple?
[A] Varanasi
[B] Mathura
[C] Thanjaur
[D] Madurai

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjaur (in Tamil Nadu) was the world‟s first complete
granite temple

Q.39) After consolidating his power, Balban assumed the title of -

[A] Tuti-e-Hind
[B] Kaiser-i-Hind
[C] Zil-i-Ilahi
[D] din-i-Ilahi

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Balban took the title of Zil-i-Ilahi meaning Shadow of God. He also started Iranian
customs of Sijda and Paibos to Sultan in India. He also introduced the Persian festival Navroz. He
propounded the Niyabat-i-Khudai.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.40) Which dynasty of Delhi Sultanate ruled for the shortest period?
[A] Khalji
[B] Tughlaq
[C] Maurya
[D] Lodi

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Khalji dynasty ruled for the shortest period (1290-1320) of only 30 years. The other
dynasties of Sultanate period - Mamluk dynasty (1206-90), Tughlaq Dynasty (1320-1414), the Sayyid
dynasty (1414-51) and Lodi dynasty (1451-1526).

Q.41) Zabti system was introduced by -

[A] Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
[B] Sikander Lodi
[C] Sher Shah
[D] Akbar

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Akbar introduced the Dahasala or Zabti System of land revenue collection in 1580-82
to alleviate the problems arising due to fixing prices every year and doing settlements of revenues of
previous years.

Q.42) Akbar launched Din-i-llahi in the year -

[A] 1570
[B] 1578
[C] 1581
[D] 1582

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Din-i-llahi was a syncretic religion propounded by the Mughal emperor Akbar in 1582
AD, intending to merge some of the elements of the religions of his empire and reconcile tolerance of
faith and he also encouraged debate on philosophical and religious issues. This led to creation of
Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri.

Q.43) Shivaji's Agra Adventure was planned by

[A] Afzal Khan
[B] Shayista Khan
[C] Jai Singh
[D] Mir Jumla

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Jai Singh advised Shivaji to proceed to Agra and meet the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb
to ratify the treaty. Jai Singh assured Shivaji that he would not be harmed during his journey to and
stay at Agra. Shivaji saw the truce as an opportunity for respite and to consolidate his strength.

Q.44) The Governor of Madras presidency at the time of Vellore sepoy mutiny was?
[A] Wellesley
[B] Lord Minto
[C] Lord Cornwallis
[D] William Bentinck.

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The Governor of Madras presidency at the time of Vellore sepoy mutiny was William
Bentinck. He was also the first governor-general of British India.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.45) Anglo-Nepal war took place during the reign of

[A] Lord Cornwall is
[B] Lord Hastings
[C] Lord Wellesley
[D] Lord Bentik

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The war was fought between 1st November 1814 to 4th March 1816. ... The war
began with the capture of Butwal and Sheoraj by the Gurkhas during the tenure of Marquess of
Hastings (1813-23) and it ended with the signing of the Sugauli Treaty in 1816, which gave away
some Nepalese held territories to the East India Company.

Q.46) The Treaty of Sigauli rook place in the year

[A] 1800A.D.
[B] 1803 A.D.
[C] 1805A.D.
[D] 1816A.D.

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Treaty of Sagauli, (March 4, 1816), agreement between the Gurkha chiefs of Nepal
and the British Indian government that ended the Anglo-Nepalese (Gurkha) War (1814–16).

Q.47) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

[A] Hector Munro - Battle of Buxar
[B] Lord Hastings - Anglo-Nepal War
[C] Lord Wellesley - Fourth Anglo-Myoore war
[D] Lord Cornwallis - Third Anglo - Maratha war

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The Third Anglo-Maratha War was the final and decisive conflict between the
British East India Company and the Maratha Empire in India. The war left the Company in control
of most of India. It began with an invasion of Maratha territory by British East India Company
troops, and although the British were outnumbered, the Maratha army was decimated. The troops
were led by Governor General Hastings, supported by a force under General Thomas Hislop.
Operations began against the Pindaris, a band of Muslim mercenaries and Marathas from central
India.

Q.48) Who was the organizer of revolt of 1857 in Bihar?

[A] Bahadur Shah
[B] Nana Sahib
[C] Maulvi Ahmadullah
[D] Kunwar Singh

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Singh led the Indian Rebellion of 1857 in Bihar. At the age of 80, he led a select band
of armed soldiers against the troops under the command of the British East India Company. He was
the chief organizer of the fight against the British in Bihar. He is popularly known as Veer Kunwar
Singh.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.49) Which of the following was the first book published in India by Portuguese?
[A] Jesuit of Goa
[B] Jesus of Pondicherry
[C] The Christian Monarch
[D] The Scheme of William Bolts

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The Portuguese were the first Europeans, who brought a printing press to India and the
first book published in India was by the Jesuit of Goa in 1557 AD. Hence, A is the correct option.

Q.50) Who gave the slogan "Inquilab zindabad" to the nation ?

[A] Chandra sekhar Azad
[B] Bhagat singh
[C] Subhash chandra bose
[D] Lala lajpat roy

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: This slogan was coined by the Urdu poet, Indian freedom fighter and a leader of the
Indian National Congress Maulana Hasrat Mohani in 1921. It was popularized by Bhagat
Singh (1907–1931) during the late 1920s through his speeches and writings.

Q.51) Who gave the slogan "Dams are the temples of modern india"?
[A] K L Rao
[B] Dr.A P J Kalam
[C] Jawaharlal Nehru
[D] Sardar Vallabhai patel

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: "Dams are the temples of modern India" is one of the famous quotes of Jawaharlal
Nehru.

Q.52) Who was the first Governor General of India?

[A] Warren Hastings
[B] William Bentick
[C] Lord Delhousie
[D] Lord Canning

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Warren Hastings (6 December 1732 – 22 August 1818), an English statesman, was the
first Governor of the Presidency of Fort William (Bengal), the head of the Supreme Council of
Bengal, and thereby the first de facto Governor-General of India from 1773 to 1785. The first
governor-general in India (of Bengal) was Warren Hastings, the first official governor-general of
British India was Lord William Bentinck, and the first governor-general of the Dominion of India was
Lord Mountbatten.

Q.53) Who was the first Governor General of Bengal?

[A] Robert Clive
[B] William Bentinck
[C] Warren Hasting
[D] Col. Sanders

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Warren Hastings is the first British Governor General of Bengal. He took the charge as
a Governor General on 20th October,1773.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.54) The first Viceroy of India was

[A] Lord Canning
[B] Lord Hardinge
[C] Lord Dalhousie
[D] Lord Elgin

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lord Canning was the first Viceroy of India. The title of Viceroy was created in 1858
after the mutiny of 1857. Before 1858, East India Company was ruling large parts of India and the
head of administration of the East India Company was called Governor General.

Q.55) After the year 1853, a substantial amount of British capital had been invested in
[A] Tea Plantations
[B] The Railways
[C] Coal Mining
[D] Jute Mills

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: After the year 1853, a substantial amount of British capital had been invested in the
railways.

Q.56) The British Governor General and Viceroy who served for the longest period in India was
[A] Lord Irwin
[B] Lord Dalhousie
[C] Lord Curzon
[D] Lord Linlithgow

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The British Governor General and Viceroy who served for the longest period in India
was Lord Dalhousie.

Q.57) When the East India Company was formed, the Mughal emperor in India was
[A] Jahangir
[B] Humayun
[C] Aurangzeb
[D] Akbar

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The East India Company was incorporated by royal charter on December 31, 1600. It
was an English company formed for the exploitation of trade with East and Southeast Asia and India
during the reign of Mughal Emperor Akbar (1556-1605).

Q.58) The British India Society was formed in __________

[A] 1832
[B] 1833
[C] 1839
[D] 1874

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The British India Society (1839): Founded in London with the efforts of William
Adam, one of the friends of Raja Ram Mohan Roy. He along with George Thompson, William Ednis,
and Major General Briggs organised meetings and enlightened people about the miserable conditions
in India.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.59) When the Congress Ministries were formed in the provinces in June 1937, the Viceroy of India
was
[A] Lord Willingdon
[B] Lord Irwin
[C] Lord Linlithgow
[D] Viscount Wavell

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The All-India Muslim League failed to form the government in any province. The
Congress ministries resigned in October and November 1939, in protest against Viceroy Lord
Linlithgow's action of declaring India to be a belligerent in the Second World War without consulting
the Indian people.

Q.60) The first Mysore War Fought between the British and Hyder Ali in 1767- 1769 A.D., came to
an end by the
[A] Treaty of Pondicherry
[B] Treaty of Madras
[C] Treaty of Mysore
[D] Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In 1767 Mysore was a powerful state under Hyder Ali. In 1769, the first Anglo-Mysore
war was fought in which Haider Ali defeated the British and Treaty of Madras was signed between
them. Haider Ali occupied almost the whole of Carnatic.

Q.61) The British Government intervened in the affairs of the Company and passed an Act in 1773
A.D., known as the
[A] Regulating Act
[B] Pitt's India Act
[C] Charter Act
[D] Company Act

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Regulating Act, (1773), legislation passed by the British Parliament for the regulation
of the British East India Company's Indian territories, mainly in Bengal. The act was amended and the
government of India was recast by Prime Minister William Pitt's India Act of 1784.

Q.62) The Vernacular Press Act was repealed by __________

[A] Lord Ripon
[B] Lord Lytton
[C] Lord William Bentic
[D] Gladstone

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Vernacular Press Act, in British India, law enacted in 1878 to curtail the freedom of the
Indian-language (i.e., non-English) press. The law was repealed in 1881 by Lytton's successor as
viceroy, Lord Ripon (governed 1880–84).

Q.63) By which Charter Act, the East India Company's monopoly of trade with China come to an
end?
[A] Charter Act of 1793
[B] Charter Act of 1813
[C] Charter Act of 1833
[D] Charter Act of 1853
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Charter Act of 1813. The Charter Act of 1813 ended the commercial trade
monopoly of the East India Company except for trade in tea and trade with China.

Q.64) Which of the following is not among the regions where the Britishers had first set up trading
posts?
[A] Bengal
[B] Goa
[C] Coromandel Coast
[D] Gujarat

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Goa is not among the regions where the Britishers had first set up trading posts

Q.65) Who propounded the theory of 'Economic Drain of India' during British imperialism?
[A] W.C. Bannerji
[B] Dadabhai Naroji
[C] Gopalkrishna Gokhale
[D] Gandhiji

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Dadabhai Naoroji's work focused on the drain of wealth from India to England during
colonial rule of British in India. One of the reasons that the Drain theory is attributed to Naoroji is his
decision to estimate the net national profit of India, and by extension, the effect that colonisation has
on the country.

Q.66) According to the terms of the treaty of Srirangapattanam, . . . . . . was ceded to the British
[A] Malabar
[B] Cochi
[C] Travancore
[D] Mysore

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: According to the terms of the treaty of Srirangapattanam, Malabar was ceded to the
British.

Q.67) The Treaty between Ranjit Singh and the British was signed at
[A] Allahabad
[B] Amritsar
[C] Kashmir
[D] Agra

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Treaty of Amritsar, (April 25, 1809), pact concluded between Charles T. Metcalfe,
representing the British East India Company, and Ranjit Singh, head of the Sikh kingdom of Punjab.
The British wanted a defensive treaty against the French and control of Punjab to the Sutlej River.

Q.68) When the East India Company came into existence, England was ruled by the__________
[A] Hanoverians
[B] Stuarts
[C] Normans
[D] Tudors

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: When the East India Company came into existence, England was ruled by the Stuarts.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.69) _________ , the viceroy of India decided to partition Bengal for administrative purposes,
creating a new province of East Bengal and Assam, with a population of 31 million people and with
its capital at Dhaka
[A] Lord Curzon
[B] Lord Rippon
[C] Lord Hastings
[D] Wellesley

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lord Curzon, the viceroy of India decided to partition Bengal for administrative
purposes, creating a new province of East Bengal and Assam, with a population of 31 million people
and with its capital at Dhaka.

Q.70) Indian Mutiny began in __________

[A] 1557
[B] 1657
[C] 1857
[D] 1957

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Indian Rebellion of 1857 is also called the Indian Mutiny, the Sepoy Mutiny, North
India's First War of Independence or North India's first struggle for independence. It began on 10 May
1857 at Meerut, as a mutiny of sepoys of the British East India Company's army.

Q.71) An ambassador of the British King James I, who secured favorable privileges for the East India
Company from Emperor Jahangir, was
[A] Hawkins
[B] Henry Middleton
[C] Thomas Roe
[D] Josiah Child

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: From 1615 to 1618, he was ambassador to the court at Agra, India, of the Great Mughal
Ruler, Jahangir. The principal object of the mission was to obtain protection for the East India
Company`s factory at Surat. At the Mughal court, Roe allegedly became a favorite of Jahangir and
may have been his drinking partner

Q.72) In which region did Birsa Munda operate against the British?
[A] Punjab
[B] Chhota Nagpur
[C] Tarai
[D] Manipur

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Birsa Munda was a great tribal leader belonging to the Munda Adivasi, the movement
operate against British in Chhota Nagpur (Jharkhand) region.

Q.73) The single biggest item of British capital investment in India was
[A] Railways
[B] Plantations and mines
[C] Banking and insurance
[D] Shipping

Correct Answer: A
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Explanation: The single biggest item of British capital investment in India was Railways

Q.74) Which of the Act made the governor General of Bengal as Governor General of India?
[A] Pitt's India Act, AD 1784
[B] The charter Act, 1833 AD
[C] Charter Act, 1793 AD
[D] The Regulating Act, AD 1773

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Until 1833, the title of the position was "governor-general of the Presidency of Fort
William in Bengal". The Government of India Act 1833 converted the title into "governor-general of
India", effective from 22 April 1834.

Q.75) British Crown assumed sovereignty over Indian from the East Indian Company in the year
[A] 1857
[B] 1858
[C] 1859
[D] 1860

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The government of India Act (1858) also known as the act for Good Government of
India transferred the power to the British crown from East India company.

Q.76) Which state has proposed to set up the first "Blockchain District' in India?
[A] Gujarat
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Telangana
[D] Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Telangana has proposed to set up the first "Blockchain District" in India

Q.77) The Sunauli Border is a well-known transit point between India and _________
[A] Myanmar
[B] Nepal
[C] Pakistan
[D] Bhutan

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Sunauli Border is a well-known transit point between India and Nepal. It is a town
area in Maharajganj district Uttar Pradesh.

Q.78) Which is the coldest place in India?

[A] Amarnath
[B] Drasis
[C] Leh
[D] Srinagar

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The village of Drasis located in the Kargil district of Jammu and Kashmir. It is India's
coldest inhabited place, Temperatures here drop to aslowas -22?C. Dras is often called the 'Gateway
to Ladakh'
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.79) Chhattisgarh does NOT share its boundary with:

[A] West Bengal
[B] Uttar Pradesh
[C] Madhya Pradesh
[D] Telangana

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The border of Chhattisgarh is shared by Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Odisha, Telangana,
Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. West Bengal doesn't share any border with Chhattisgarh.

Q.80) When was the constitution of Pakistan enforced?

[A] 1973
[B] 1947
[C] 1965
[D] 1952

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: After nine years of efforts, Pakistan was successful in framing a constitution. The
Constituent Assembly adopted it on 29 February 1956, and it was enforced on 23 March 1956,
proclaiming Pakistan to be an Islamic republic. The 3rd Constitution of Pakistan was enforced on
23rd March 1973.

Q.81) In which state is Sambhar, the largest inland salt water lake of India located?
[A] Maharashtra
[B] Odisha
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Rajasthan

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sambhar Salt Lake of Rajasthan is the largest inland salt lake of India and an extensive
saline wetland. The Sambhar lake is India‟s largest saline lake and designated as a Ramsar site due to
thousands of pink flamingos and waterfowl birds.

Q.82) In which state is Sasthamcotta Lake located?

[A] Tamil Nadu
[B] Telangana
[C] Kerala
[D] Karnataka

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sasthamkotta or Sasthamcotta is a village in the Kunnathoor Tehsil of Kollam district
in the state of Kerala, India. Kunnathoor taluk headquarters is located at Sasthamkotta. Sasthamkotta
freshwater lake is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala. The lake is named after the ancient Sastha
temple located on its banks.

Q.83) Indira Sagar Dam which is a concrete gravity dam is located in which of the following states of
India?
[A] Uttar Pradesh
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Chattisgarh
[D] Madhya Pradesh

Correct Answer: D
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Explanation: Indira sagar dam built on the Narmada river with a height of 92m. is concrete gravity
dam, located in Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh. The Indira sagar project was the key project on
Narmada river providing an excellent storage site of water.

Q.84) Which of the following states has one of the richest monazite deposits in India?
[A] Kerala
[B] Gujarat
[C] Jharkhand
[D] Rajasthan

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kerala has one of the richest monazite deposits in India.

Q.85) The Jharia and Chandrapura coal fields are located in the state of________________ .
[A] Jharkhand
[B] Uttarakhand
[C] Nagaland
[D] Gujarat

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Jharia and Chandrapura coalfields are located in the state of Jharkhand.

Q.86) Pin Valley National Park is situated in :

[A] Andhra Pradesh
[B] Arunachal Pradesh
[C] Himachal Pradesh
[D] Madhya Pradesh

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pin Valley National Park is a National park of India located within the Lahaul and Spiti
district, in the state of Himachal Pradesh.

Q.87) Dugong is a main animal of which biosphere reserve ?

[A] Simlipal
[B] Bay of Mannar
[C] Manas
[D] Great Rann of Kutch

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Dugong is a vulnerable marine mammal, which is a flagship mammal of the
biosphere reserve. However, Gulf of Mannar is an important habitat for the Cetaceans:
Indo-Pacific bottlenose dolphin, Finless porpoise, Spinner dolphin, Common dolphin, Risso's
dolphin, Melon-headed whale, and Dwarf sperm whale.

Q.88) Kishtwar National Park is located in :

[A] Jharkhand
[B] Jammu and Kashmir
[C] Himachal Pradesh
[D] Uttrakhand

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Kishtwar National Park is located in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir,
India. It is bounded to the north by Rinnay river, south by Kibar Nala catchment, east by main divide
of Great Himalaya and west by Marwa river.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.89) Consider the following statements about Climate in India:

1. Area north of the Tropic of Cancer being away from the equator experiences extreme climate
2. Such areas experience low daily and annual range of temperature.
Which of the above is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both
[D] None

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Tropic of Cancer passes through the central part of India in east-west direction. Thus,
northern part of the India lies in sub-tropical and temperate zone and the part lying south of the Tropic
of Cancer falls in the tropical zone. The tropical zone being nearer to the equator, experiences high
temperatures throughout the year with small daily and annual range Area north of the Tropic of
Cancer being away from the equator, experiences extreme climate with high daily and annual range of
temperature

Q.90) The main river flowing in the state of Jammu and Kashmir is ________
[A] Jhelum
[B] Indus
[C] Chenab
[D] Nubra

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The main river flowing in the state of Jammu and Kashmir is Jhelum. The Jhelum River
is the only major Himalayan river which flows through the Kashmir valley. The Indus, Tawi, Ravi
and Chenab are the other major rivers flowing through the state.

Q.91) Mosses, Lichens and small shrubs are found in which type of vegetation?
[A] Mangrove
[B] Tundra
[C] Tropical Evergreen Forest
[D] Coral Reefs

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Only mosses, lichens and very small shrubs are found in the polar regions, and this type
of vegetation is called Tundra.

Q.92) Which of the following states is the biggest Jute producer in India?
[A] West Bengal
[B] Nagaland
[C] Karnataka
[D] Rajasthan

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: West Bengal is thelargest producer of Jute in India, followed by Bihar, Assam and
Andhra Pradesh

Q.93) Which of the following is NOT a nuclear power station?

[A] Ramagundam
[B] Rawatbhata
[C] Naraura
[D] Kalpakkam

Correct Answer: A
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Explanation: Apart from its culture, Ramagundam is also known for its sightseeing attractions like
the temple of Lord Rama, National Thermal Power Corporation, etc.

Q.94) Which of the following is the largest container port of India?

[A] Jawaharlal Nehru Port
[B] Ennore Port
[C] Chhatrapati Shivaji Port
[D] Paradip Port

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru port (Mumbai) is the largest container port in India and is also known
by Nhava Sheva. It accounts for more than half of total container volumes handled at India's 12 public
ports and around 40 percent of the nation's overall contain erizedocean trade.

Q.95) According to 2011 census, the literacy rate among men in India ?
[A] 82.14
[B] 84.14
[C] 85.14
[D] 86.14

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: As per the census of 2011, the literacy rate of India is 74.04%. Literacy rate among the
males is 82.14% and among females is 65.46%.

Q.96) „Tin Bigha Corridor‟ links

[A] India and Pakistan
[B] India and China
[C] India and Bhutan
[D] India and Bangladesh

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: „Tin Bigha Corridor‟ links India and Bangladesh.

Q.97) Name the ending point for Singalila Ridge

[A] Rimbik
[B] Sandakphu
[C] Tiger Hill
[D] Falut

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Rimbick is a small settlement located in the Darjeeling district. It is an ending point
for Singalila Ridge, Sandakphu Trek. Rimbick lies at an altitude of 2280m above sea level and is
famous for oranges.

Q.98) The Digha Beach of West Bengal is the most famous beach of West Bengal.
Lord Hastings referred to is as:
[A] Pride of Bengal
[B] Brighton of the East
[C] Pearl of Bengal
[D] Diamond of East

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Digha originally known as Beerkul during the time of Warren Hastings, was
discovered in the late 18th century by the British. It was mentioned as the "Brighton of the East" in
one of the letters of Warren Hastings (1780 AD) to his wife.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.99) The Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda in

[A] 1885
[B] 1887
[C] 1890
[D] 1897

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The society was founded near Calcutta (now Kolkata) by Vivekananda in 1897 with a
twofold purpose: to spread the teachings of Vedanta as embodied in the life of the Hindu saint
Ramakrishna (1836–86) and to improve the social conditions of the Indian people.

Q.100) In Coochbehar every year a fair took place which is the oldest fair. What is the name of the
fair?
[A] Ras Purnima
[B] Ras Mela
[C] Jaydeb Mela
[D] Gajol

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Raas Mela is the most ancient and traditional of all fairs. Every year even when the
festive mood of the bygone Durga Puja still lingers in our minds, people of Cooch Behar get set to
celebrate the Raas Yatra of Sri Sri Madan Mohan Thakur.

Q.101) Which among the following bears smallest living cell?

[A] Bacterium
[B] Mycoplasma
[C] Virus
[D] Yeast

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mycoplasma is the smallest cell which does not possess cell wall as an outer covering
but has cell membrane as an outer covering.

Q.102) The pigment which gives colour to the human skin is

[A] melanin
[B] rhodopsin
[C] iodopsin
[D] anthocyanin

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Melanin pigments are derivative of the amino acid tyrosine, which is primarily
responsible for the colour of the human skin, skin colour ranges from black to white with a pinkish
line due to the presence of blood vessels under it.

Q.103) Which part of the pituitary is under the direct control of the hypothalamus?
[A] Posterior part
[B] Anterior part
[C] Dorsal part
[D] Ventral part

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The posterior pituitary is under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus. The
pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity called Sella turcica and is attached to the hypothalamus by a
stalk.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.104) Which of the following statement is/are correct about Red Blood Cells (RBC)?
[A] RBC carries oxygen from the lungs to all the cells of the body.
[B] It contains a pigment called Haemoglobin
[C] RBCs lack nucleus
[D] All the above are correct

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: RBC carries oxygen from the lungs to all the cells of the body. It lacks the nucleus and
contains a pigment called Haemoglobin.

Q.105) Which one of the following is considered as the easily digestible source of protein?
[A] Egg albumin
[B] Soybean
[C] Fish flesh
[D] Red meat

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: When it comes to animal protein sources, you may be wondering what meat is the
easiest to digest. Lean animal proteins (like chicken breast or fish), egg protein and milk proteins like
whey protein are all easily digestible protein.

Q.106) Autotroph includes

[A] blue-green algae and green plants
[B] fungi and mushroom
[C] slime moulds
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: They prepare their own food by utilizing solar energy, water, and carbon dioxide by the
process of photosynthesis. This results in the formation of glucose. Plants like blue-green algae and
bacteria such as cyanobacteria are considered to be examples of autotrophs.

Q.107) Gemmule is a
[A] structure
[B] divided cell
[C] vegetative structure in sponge
[D] bud

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Gemmules are internal buds found in sponges and are involved in asexual
reproduction. It is an asexually reproduced mass of cells, that is capable of developing into a new
organism i.e., an adult sponge.

Q.108) The release of energy in the aerobic process is, than in the anaerobic process.
[A] lesser
[B] greater
[C] May be lesser or greater
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A major advantage of aerobic respiration is the amount of energy it releases. Without
oxygen, organisms can split glucose into just two molecules of pyruvate. ... This releases
enough energy to produce up to 38 ATP molecules. Thus, aerobic respiration releases much
more energy than anaerobic respiration
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.109) Excretory products of mammalian embryo are eliminated out by

[A] placenta
[B] amniotic fluid
[C] allantois
[D] ureter

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The placenta is an organ that connects the developing fetus to the uterine wall to allow
nutrient uptake, waste elimination, and gas exchange via the mother's blood supply.

Q.110) Kelvin is the unit of

[A] length
[B] temperature
[C] Time
[D] mass

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The kelvin is the SI unit of thermodynamic temperature, and one of the seven
SI base units. Unusually in the SI, we also define another unit of temperature, called the degree
Celsius (°C). Temperature in degrees Celsius is obtained by subtracting 273.15 from the numerical
value of the temperature expressed in kelvin.

Q.111) A body suffering from external deforming force develops an internal opposing force. In
this case, stress is
[A] magnitude of the internal restoring forces per unit area of the section.
[B] magnitude of the external forces per unit area of the section
[C] direction of the internal forces at each unit area of the section
[D] direction of the external forces at each unit area of the section.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In physics, elasticity is a physical property of materials which return to their original
shape after the stress that caused their deformation is no longer applied. For very small deformations,
most elastic materials, such as springs, exhibit linear elasticity. This means that they are characterised
by a linear relationship between stress and strain (the relative amount of deformation). To describe
elastic properties of linear objects like wires, rods or columns which are stretched or compressed, a
convenient: parameter is the ratio of the strain, a parameter is the ratio of the stress to the strain called
the „Young‟s modulus‟ or „Modulus of Elasticity' of the material.

Q.112) In which of the following cases of motions, the distance moved and the magnitude of
displacement are equal?
[A] If the car is moving on straight road
[B] If the car is moving in circular path
[C] The pendulum is moving to and fro
[D] The Earth is revolving around the Sun

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The distance moved and magnitude of displacement are equal only in the case of
motion along a straight line. Because displacement is the shortest path between initial and find path.
So, for car moving on straight road, distance moved and magnitude of displacement are equal.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.113) A girl is carrying a school bag of 3 kg mass on her back and moves 200 m on a levelled
road. The work done against the gravitational force will be (g = 10ms -2)
[A] 6X103 J
[B] 6J
[C] 0.6 J
[D] zero

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The work done against gravity is zero as she is moving forward not upward so she
overcomes the frictional force not the gravitational force.
Normal work done is 6000j but work against gravity is zero.

Q.114) As we go from equator to North pole, the value of g, the acceleration due to gravity
[A] remains the same
[B] decreases
[C] increases
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The acceleration due to gravity of Earth is the rate of increases of velocity of a body
falling freely towards the Earth. At a given place, the value of acceleration due to gravity is constant
but it varies from one place to another place on the Earth surface. It is due to this fact that Earth is not
a perfect sphere. It is flattened at the poles and bulges out at the equator. The value of g is minimum at
the equator and maximum at the poles

Q.115) The laws of reflection hold good for,

[A] plane mirror only
[B] concave mirror only
[C] convex mirror only
[D] all mirrors irrespective of their shapes

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The laws of reflection hold good for all reflecting surfaces irrespective of their shapes
whether plane or curved.

Q.116) Due to which phenomena sound is heard at longer distances in nights than in day?
[A] Reflection
[B] Refraction
[C] Interference of sound
[D] Diffraction of sound

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Due to refraction, sound is heard at longer distances in nights than in day.

Q.117) Any body having, mobile free electrons to conduct electricity is called
[A] charged body
[B] conductors
[C] insulators
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Materials with high electron mobility (many free electrons) are called conductors,
while materials with low electron mobility (few or no free electrons) are called insulators. Here are
a few common examples of conductors and insulators: Conductors. silver.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.118) The strongest force in nature is

[A] electrical force
[B] gravitational force
[C] nuclear force
[D] magnetic force

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The nuclear force (or nucleon-nucleon interaction or residual strong force) is the force
between two or more nucleons. It is responsible for binding of protons and neutrons into atomic
nuclei. The energy released causes the masses of nuclei to be less than the total mass of the protons
and neutrons which form them; this is the energy used in nuclear power and nuclear weapons. The
force is powerfully attractive between nucleons at distances of about 1 femtometre (fm) between their
centres, but rapidly decreases to insignificance at distances beyond about 2.5 fm.

Q.119) The vinegar is a solution of

[A] 5% acetic acid in water
[B] 25% acetic acid in water
[C] 50% acetic acid in water
[D] 40% acetic acid in water

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Vinegar is an aqueous solution of acetic acid and trace chemicals that may include
flavorings. Vinegar typically contains 5–8% acetic acid by volume. Usually the acetic acid is
produced by the fermentation of ethanol or sugars by acetic acid bacteria. There are many types
of vinegar, depending on source materials.

Q.120) Which of the following properties is generally not shown by metals?

[A] Electrical conduction
[B] Sonorous in nature
[C] Dullness
[D] Ductility

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Metals have shiny appearance and not dull. Thus property of dullness is not shown by
metals.

Q.121) Non-metals are generally bad Conductor of electricity. Which of the following is a good
conductor of electricity?
[A] Diamond
[B] Graphite
[C] sulphur
[D] Fullerene

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Graphite is a non-metal and it is the only non-metal that can conduct electricity. You
can find non-metals on the right side of the periodic table and graphite is the only non-metal that is a
good conductor of electricity.

Q.122) Which of the following is not a cyclic compound?

[A] Anthracene
[B] Pyrrole
[C] Phenol
[D] Neo-pentane
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The organic compounds are very large in number on account of the self linking
property of carbon called catenation. These compounds have been further classified as open chain and
cyclic compounds.

Q.123) The octet rule is not valid for which one of the following molecules?
[A] CO2
[B] H2S
[C] NH3
[D] BF3

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: According to octet rule an atom whose outermost shell contains 8 electrons (octet), is
stables. This rule, however, does not hold good in case of certain small atoms like helium (He) in
which presence of 2 electrons (duplet) in the outermost shell is considered to be the condition of
stability. Atoms combine with one another to achieve the inert gas electron arrangement and become
stable. An atom can achieve the inert gas electron arrangement in three ways
(i) by losing one or more electrons
(ii) by gaining one or more electrons
(iii) by sharing one or more electrons
In case of BF3, electronic configuration of B is 2, 3. After sharing 3 electrons with three F atoms, it
has 6 electrons, and not 8 electrons. Hence, it does not achieve inert gas electronic arrangement.
Therefore, octet rule is not valid for BF 3 molecule.

Q.124) Hydrogen is not found in atmosphere because

[A] it is highly inflammable
[B] it is the tightest gas
[C] it is absorbed by plants
[D] it immediately combines with oxygen to form water

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The reason there is not much hydrogen in the atmosphere is because it is lighter than
air, and so can easily escape the Earth's gravity.

Q.125) Modern periodic table is based on atomic number of the elements. The significance of
atomic number was proved by the experiment of
[A] Moseley's work on x-ray spectra
[B] Bragg's work on X-ray diffraction
[C] Mullikan's oil drop experiment
[D] Discovery of X-ray by Roentgen

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The experiment which proved the significance of the atomic number was. Solution :
Moseley's work on X-ray spectra proved the significance of the atomic number.

Q.126) The reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions to form two new compounds
is
[A] a displacement reaction
[B] a decomposition reaction
[C] an addition reaction
[D] a double displacement reaction

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Double displacement reaction: If two reactants exchange their constituents chemically
and form two products then the reaction is called double displacement reaction.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.127) Which Act was accepted as the Provisional constitution of India, After
Independence?
[A] Indian Councils Act 1909
[B] Government of India act 1919
[C] Government of India Act 1935
[D] Indian Independence Act 1947

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Government of India Act 1935 was an Act of the Parliament of the United
Kingdom. It originally received Royal assent in August 1935. It was the longest Act of
(British) Parliament ever enacted until Greater London Authority Act 1999 surpassed it.
Because of its length, the Act was retroactively split by the Government of India Act, 1935
into two separate Acts:

Q.128) Who among of the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly
of India?
[A] Dr. B. N. Rao
[B] Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
[C] Sachindra Nath Sanyal
[D] Mahatma Gandhi

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Sir Benegal Narsing Rao (B N Rau), was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent
Assembly. He was an Indian civil servant, jurist, diplomat and statesman known for his key role in
drafting the Constitution of India. He was also India's representative to the United Nations Security
Council from 1950 to 1952.

Q.129) The 10th Schedule to Indian Constitution, that is popularly referred to as 'Anti-
Defection Law' was inserted by
[A] 42nd Amendment Act
[B] 25th Amendment Act
[C] 52nd Amendment Act
[D] 1st Amendment Act

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The 10th Schedule to Indian Constitution, that is popularly referred to as 'Anti-
Defection Law' was inserted by 52nd Amendment to Constitution in 1985. It has as provisions for
Members of Parliament & Members of State Legislatures.

Q.130) The source of political power in India lies in:

[A] The Constitution
[B] The Parliament
[C] The Parliament and State Legislatives
[D] We, the People of India

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The source of political power in India lies in people of India. India is a democratic
country. People of India elect their representative through direct franchise & representatives elect
government to make or amend rules & regulations & to carry out day to day functioning of
governance.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.131) According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the phrase 'Union of States' has been preferred to
'Federation of States' because
(1) The Indian Federation is the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation
(2) The states have no right to secede from the federation.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both
[D] None

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the phrase 'Union of States' has been preferred to
'Federation of States' for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement
among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the
federation.

Q.132) In which year provisions of citizenship became applicable?

[A] 1950
[B] 1949
[C] 1951
[D] 1952

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The majority of constitutional provisions came into force on 26 January 1950. Unlike
other provisions of the Constitution, which came into being on January 26, 1950, the articles of
citizenship were enforced on November 26, 1949 itself, when the Constitution was adopted.

Q.133) According to which article of Indian Constitution no citizen of India shall accept any
title from any foreign state?
[A] Article 17
[B] Article 18
[C] Article 19
[D] Article 20

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: According to Article 18, No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign
state. It also contains;
No person who is not a citizen of India shall, while he holds any office of profit or trust under the
State, accept without the consent of the President any title from
any foreign State. No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State shall, without the
consent of the President, accept any present emolument or office of any kind from or under any
foreign State.
Q.134) Which article prohibits the state to impose tax proceeds of which are meant for payment
o promotion or maintenance of any particular religion?
[A] Article 26
[B] Article 27
[C] Article 28
[D] Article 29

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Article 27 prohibits the state to impose tax proceeds of which are meant for payment of
promotion or maintenance of any particular religion. It means that the state cannot raise a religious tax
and also that the state cannot spend its secular taxes on any particular religion as it would go against
its secular character.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.135) Consider the following . statements about Fundamental Duties :

(1) Fundamental Duties were added on the recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee.
(2) The Fundamental Duties are dealt with Article 51 under Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] 1 & 2
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Swaran Singh Committee recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the
Indian Constitution. Fundamental duties are non-enforceable in nature. There is no legislative process
to enforce citizens to do their duties. Hence statement 1 is not true.

Q.136) Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the Directive Principles Of
State Policy?
[A] Some of the DPSPs are justiciable
[B] All the DPSPs are justiciable
[C] No DPSPs are justiciable
[D] None of the Above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution
from Articles 36 to 51. The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not
legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Therefore, the government (Central, state and
local) cannot be compelled to implement them. Nevertheless, the Constitution (Article 37) itself says
that the principles are fundamental in the government of the country and it shall be the duty of the
State to apply these principles in making laws.

Q.137) Choose the correct answer with respect to Directive Principles of State Policy
[A] They are non-enforceable in courts of law
[B] They are quasi-enforceable
[C] They are partly non-enforceable
[D] They enforceable in courts of law

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to central & state government of
India, to be kept in mind while framing laws & policies. These provisions, contained in Parts IV of
Constitution of India, are not enforceable by any court, but principles laid down therein are considered
fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these
principles in making laws.

Q.138) Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is associated with the election
of the President of India?
[A] Article 103
[B] Article 78
[C] Article 74
[D] Article 54

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Article 54:It states that the President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the
elected members of both Houses of Parliament and of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
Article 103 : It deals with the decision on question as to disqualification of the member
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Article 78 : T o communicate to the President all decisions of the council of Ministers relating to the
administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation
Article 74: t here shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise
the President in the exercise of his functions".

Q.139) Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of a
Finance Commission?
[A] Article 300
[B] Article 290
[C] Article 320
[D] Article 280

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Article 280 of Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of a Finance
Commission. It is constituted by the President. its recommendationson distribution of tax
revenuesbetween the Union and the States andamongst the States themselves

Q.140) Import substitution means which of these?

[A] Gradual reduction of imported goods to save foreign exchange
[B] Importing new items in terms of old items of import
[C] Replacing import items by domestic production of such items
[D] Increasing domestic supply of goods by imposing Import restrictions

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Import Substitution is a trade and economic policy which advocates replacing foreign
imports with domestic production, Import substitution is based on the premise that “country should
attempt to reduce its foreign dependency through the local production of industrialized products.

Q.141) Net National Product (NNP) of a country is

[A] GDP minus Depreciation Allowances
[B] GDP plus Net Income from abroad
[C] GNP minus Net Income from abroad
[D] GNP minus Depreciation Allowances

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Net National Product (NNP) of a country is GNP minus Depreciation Allowances.
NNP is actual addition to year‟s wealth. While calculating GNP, we ignore depreciation of assets but
in reality the process of production uses up the fixed assets or there is some wear and tear or fixed
assets by process of depreciation. In order to arrive at NNP we deduct depreciation from GNP.

Q.142) The effect of inflation on tax revenue results in a situation known as?
[A] Stagflation
[B] Fiscal drag
[C] Reflation
[D] Disinflation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Fiscal dragis the tedency of revenue from taxation to rise as a share of GDPin a
growing economy. Fiscal dragmay happen due to inflation or fiscal policies of the government. Fiscal
drag is normally associated with progressive tax rates.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.143) Which of the following about money supply measures adopted in 1998 is wrong?
[A] M1= currency with public +demand deposits with banking system + other deposits with
RBI
[B] M2= M1 + savings deposits of post office savings bank
[C] M3= M1+ time deposits with banking system
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: M4= M3+ all deposits with post office savings banks excluding National Savings
Certificate

Q.144) Which of the following institutions is/are responsible for the supervision of RRBs?
[A] RBI
[B] SEBI
[C] NABARD
[D] Both A and C

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: NABARD has been sharing with the Reserve Bank of India certain supervisory
functions in respect of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Cooperative Banks.

Q.145) The period of plan holiday in India was

[A] 1962-65
[B] 1966-69
[C] 1970-73
[D] 1973-76

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Due to miserable failure of 3rd Plan the Government was forced to declare plan holidays
(from 1966-67, 1967-68, 1968-69) the target growth rate was 5.6% but the actual was 2.4%

Q.146) What kind of Tax is GST?

[A] Direct Tax
[B] Indirect Tax
[C] Depends on the type of goods and service
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Goods and Services Tax (GST) is the biggest Indirect tax reform of India, GST is a
single tax on the supply of goods and services. It 1s a destination based tax. GST subsurned Central
Excise Law, Service Tax Law, VAT, Entry Tax, Octroi, etc.

Q.147) Many times we read in newspapers that the RBI has revised certain Rates-Ratios under
LAF. What is the full form of LAF?
[A] Liquidity Adjustment Facility
[B] Legal Adjustment Facility
[C] Longterm Achievement Facility
[D] Legal Adjustment Facility

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is a tool used in Monetary Policy, primarily by the
RBI, that allows banks to borrow money through repurchase agreements (repos) Of for banks to make
loans to the RBI through reverse repo agreements.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.148) RBI Act has been amended by which act to provide 4 Monetary Policy Committee for
the maintenance of price stability?
[A] Finance Act, 2016
[B] Finance Act, 2001
[C] Financial Policy Act, 2016
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 has been amended by Finance Act, 2016 to
provide an institutionalised and statutory framework for price stability through the monetary policy
committee.

Q.149) The impact of the Green Revolution was felt most in production of
[A] Rice
[B] Pulses
[C] Oilseeds
[D] Wheat

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The introduction of high yielding varieties of seeds and the increased use of chemical
fertilizers and irrigation are known collectively as the Green Revolution. The impact of the Green
Revolution was felt most in the production of wheat. India saw annual wheat production rise from 10
million tons in the 1960s to 73 million in 2006.

Q.150) Which of the following is NOT one of the main functions of the Reserve Bank of
India?
[A] Formulating policies to facilitate external trade and payments
[B] Supervising the entire tax system
[C] Maintaining accounts of central and state governments
[D] Regulating Payment Systems

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: TAX system is controlled and supervised by the central and state governments

Q.151) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on
one side of (: :) and one word is given on another side (: :) while another word is to be found from the
given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the word of the given pair bear. Choose
the correct alternative.
Hongkong : China : : Vatican : ?
[A] France
[B] Mexico
[C] Canada
[D] Rome

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: As, 'Hongkong' is in 'China ' in the same way 'Vatican' is situated in Rome.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.152) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on
one side of (: :) and one word is given on another side (: :) while another word is to be found from the
given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the word of the given pair bear. Choose
the correct alternative.
Giant : Dwarf : Genius : ?
[A] Wicked
[B] Gentle
[C] ldiot
[D] Tiny

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 'Dwarf' is the antonym of 'Giant' in the same way 'Genious' is the antonym of 'ldiot'.

Q.153) In each of the following questions, a group of four words are given. Choose the word which is
odd.
[A] Mile
[B] Centimetre
[C] Litre
[D] Yard

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: All others are units to measure distance.

Q.154) In each of the following questions, a group of four words are given. Choose the word which is
odd.
[A] Eyes
[B] Ears
[C] Throat
[D] Skin

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Except 'Throat' all words having four letter.

Q.155) Pointing to a boy, Urmila said, "He is the son of my grandfather's only daughter." How is the
boy related to Urmila?
[A] Mother
[B] Maternal Aunt
[C] Paternal Aunt
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Brother

Q.156) Pointing to a girl, Mihir said, "She is the only daughter of my grandfather's only child." How
is the girl related to Mihir?
[A] Daughter
[B] Niece
[C] Sister
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: sister
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.157) A river flows from west to east and on the way turns left and goes in a semi-circle round a
hillock, and then turns left at right angle. In which direction is the river finally flowing?
[A] West
[B] East
[C] North
[D] South

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: There is two possibilities for drawing a figure for the river.
First possibilities,
First draw a figure for the river in the direction west to east then move to left in circle facing West to
East direction and made half circle. Next turn to left at right angle.
Second possibilities,
First draw a figure for the river in the direction west to east then move to left in circle facing East to
West direction and made half circle. Next turn to left at right angle.

Q.158) Pratap correctly remembers that his mother's birthday is before 23rd April but after 19th April,
whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mother's birthday is not on or after 22nd April. On
which day in April is definitely their's mother's birthday?
[A] 20th
[B] 21st
[C] 20th or 21st
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Days by Pratap - [20,21 or 22] in April
Days by his sister, not on or after 22 April
Clearly, the answer is [20 or 21] in April.

Q.159)
24 20 37
31 25 ?
26 36 19

[A]26
[B]30
[C]25
[D] 23

Correct Answer: C
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Explanation: The sum of the numbers in each column is same.

i.e., 24 + 31 + 26 = 81
Similarly, 81 + 37 + ? + 19
→ ? = 81 - 56 = 25

Q.160) Select the venn diagram that correctly shows the relationship. Continent , City and Country
[A]

[B]

[C]

[D]

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: According to question , we can say that
City and Country belong to Continent .
From above it is clear that option D is required answer .
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.161) If '@' means 'x', 'c' means '÷' % means (+) and '$' means '-', then 6%12C3@8 $ 3 = ?
[A] 37
[B]35
[C]36
[D] 39

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: ∵ 6%12C3@8 $ 3 = ?
After replacing the sign according to the question
⇒ 6 + 12 ÷ 3 x 8 - 3 = ?
Apply the BODMAS Rule
⇒ 6+4x8-3=?
⇒ 6 + 32 - 3 = ?
⇒ 38 - 3 = ?
∴ ? = 35

Q.162) Five birds are sitting on a tree. The Pigeon is to the right of the Parrot. The Sparrow is above
the Parrot. The Crow is next to the Pigeon. The Crane is below the Crow. Which bird is at the centre?
[A] Crow
[B] Pigeon
[C] Parrot
[D] Sparrow

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: According to question,
The Pigeon is to the right of the Parrot. The Sparrow is above the Parrot. The Crow is next to
the Pigeon. The Crane is below the Crow.
It shows that Pigeon is at the centre .
Sitting arrangement :-

Q.163) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing East, „C‟ is between „A‟ and „E‟,
„B‟ is just to the right of „E‟ but left of „D‟, „F‟ is not at the right end. Who is between 'B' and „C‟?
[A]A
[B]D
[C]E
[D] F

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Draw a figure on the basis of above given question ,
C is between A and E, B is just to the right of E but left of D , F is not at the right end.
As shown in figure , E is between B and C
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Sitting sequence :-

Q.164) Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden.

[A]

[B]

[C]

[D]

Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.165) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing East. „C‟ is between „A‟ and „E‟,
„B‟ is just to the right of „E‟ but left of „D‟, „F‟ is not at the right end. Which pair is sitting by the side
of, „D‟?
[A] CE
[B] FA
[C] EB
[D] FD

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Draw a figure on the basis of above given question ,
C is between A and E. B is just to the right of E but left of D. F is not at the right end.
As shown in figure , B and E are sitting by the side of D.
Sitting sequence :-

Q.166) Jayant started a business, investing Rs. 6000. Six months later Madhu joined him, investing
Rs. 4000. If they made a profit of Rs. 5200 at the end of the year. How much must be the share of
Madhu ?
[A] Rs. 2080
[B] Rs. 1300
[C] Rs. 1800
[D] Rs. 2600

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ratio of their shares = (6000 x 12) : (4000 x 6) = 3 : 1
∴ Madhu's share = Rs.5200 x (1/4)
=RS. 1,300
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.167) 2 men or 5 women or 7 boys can finish a work in 469 days, then the number of days taken by
7 men, 5 women and 2 boys to finish the work is :
[A] 134
[B] 106
[C] 100
[D] 98

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 2 men = 7 boys
⇒ 1 man = 7/2 days

5 women = 7 boys
⇒ 1 women = 7/5 boys

7 men + 5 women + 2 boys = 7 x 7/2 + 5 x 7/5 + 2 = 67/2 boys

Now, B1 x D1 = B2 x D2
7 X 469 = 67/2 x D2
D2 = 98 days

Q.168) A train cover a distance in 50 minutes, if it runs at a speed of 48 km per hour on an average.
The speed at which the train must run to reduce the time of journey to 40 minutes ?
[A] 50 km/hr.
[B] 55 km/hr.
[C] 60 km/hr.
[D] 70 km/hr.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Total Distance = 48 x (50/60) km.
= 40 km

Required speed = [40 / (40/60)] km.

= (40 x 60 )/ 40 km/hr.
= 60 km/hr.

Q.169) In a class, the number of boys is more than the numbers of girls by 12% of the total strength.
The ratio of boys to girls is ?
[A] 11 : 14
[B] 14 : 11
[C] 25 : 28
[D] 28 : 25

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Let the number of boys and girls be x and y respectively. Then
From question, (x - y ) = 12% of (x + y)
⇒ x/y = 3/25 (x + y )
⇒ 25x - 25y = 3x + 3y
⇒ 22x = 28y
∴ x / y = 28 / 22 = 14 / 11
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.170) The price of a product is increased by 20%. If the original price is Rs. 300, what is the final
price of the product?
[A] 350
[B] 360
[C] 365
[D] 370

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Final Price = Initial price + Initial price x 20/100
= Initial price x (1+20/100)
= Rs.300x(1.2)
= Rs.360

Q.171) 6 % more is gained by selling a coat for Rs.1425 than by selling it for Rs. 1353. The cost price
of the coat is ?
[A] Rs. 1000
[B] Rs. 1250
[C] Rs. 1500
[D] Rs. 1200

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 6% of cost price (CP) = 1425 - 1353 = 72
∴ CP = ( 72 x 100 ) / 6 = 1200

Q.172) Find the sum of money will amount to Rs 900 in 4 years at 5 % per annum on simple interest?
[A] Rs 750
[B] Rs 650
[C] Rs 500
[D] Rs 550

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Let the sum of money be Rs y
So Amount = y +[( y x 5 x 4 )/100]
But Amount = Rs 900
⇒ 900 = y +(20y)/100
⇒ 900 = 6y / 5
⇒ y = ( 900 x 5) /6
= Rs 750

Q.173) If Rs. 7500 are borrowed at compound interest at the rate of 4% per annum, then after 2 years
the amount to be paid is ?
[A] Rs. 8082
[B] Rs. 7800
[C] Rs. 8100
[D] Rs. 8112

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Amount = Rs. 7500(1 + 4/100)2
= Rs. 7500 x 26/25 x 26/25
= Rs .8112
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.174) L.C.M of 3/4, 6/7, 9/8 is ?

[A] 18
[B]3
[C] 3/56
[D] 9/28

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: L. C . M = ( L.C.M of 3, 6, 9 ) / (H.C.F of 4, 7, 8)
= 18 / 1
= 18

Q.175) The Average of 100, 200, 300, 400, ... , 1000 is 550. If each number is divided by 5, then the
new average will be equal to
[A] 450
[B] 45
[C] 55
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Actual average
=( 100 + 220 + 300 + ... + 1000 ) / 10
=550

New Average = 550 / 5

=110

Q.176) Where was India‟s 1st Manned Ocean Mission „Samudrayan‟ launched by the Ministry of
Earth Science?
[A] Gurugram, Haryana
[B] Noida, Uttar Pradesh
[C] Mumbai, Maharashtra
[D] Chennai, Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Jitendra Singh, Minister of State (Independent Charge) – Ministry of Earth
Science, launched India‟s 1st Manned Ocean Mission „Samudrayan‟ from the National
Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
MATSYA 6000, has a capability to reach upto 6000 m depth, will start the sea trails by the
second quarter of 2024.
Q.177) ______________ addressed the “Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue” (IPRD) 2021, where he
highlighted the importance of maintaining the rules under United Nations Convention on the
Law of Seas (UNCLOS),________________ .
[A] Rajnath Singh; 1975
[B] Narendra Modi; 1982
[C] Rajnath Singh; 1947
[D] Rajnath Singh; 1982

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Union Defence Minister Rajnath Singh addressed the “Indo-Pacific Regional
Dialogue” (IPRD) 2021, where he highlighted the importance of protecting the maritime
interest of countries & maintaining a rule-based maritime system as per the United Nations
Convention on the Law of Seas (UNCLOS), 1982. 2021‟s IPRD was held under the theme
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

“Evolution in Maritime Strategy during the 21st Century: Imperatives, Challenges

and Way Ahead”

Q.178) In November 2021, the Government of the United Kingdom launched its 1st commemorative
coin on Mahatma Gandhi (a £5 coin). What is the Quote used in the Coin?
[A] My Experiment with Non-Voilence
[B] My Life is my message
[C] My Experiment with Truth
[D] My Life is experiment with truth

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Government of the United Kingdom (UK) revealed a £5 coin to
commemorate Mahatma Gandhi on Diwali. This is the 1st time the UK government is releasing
a coin on Mahatma Gandhi. Rishi Sunak, Chancellor of UK, chose the final design for the coin.
 Quote in Coin – „My Life is my message‟.

Q.179) Which Country collaborated with India to launch the World‟s 1st „Green Grids‟ Initiative - the
One Sun One World One Grid (GGI-OSOWOG)?
[A] Paris
[B] Germany
[C] United Kingdom
[D] Japan

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: India and the United Kingdom jointly launched the world‟s 1st „green Grids‟
Initiative, the One Sun One World One Grid (GGI-OSOWOG) on the sidelines of the COP26
summit.

Q.180) Which state launched the “Mukhyamantri Awasiya Bhu-dhikar Yojana” to construct houses
for the state's homeless citizens?
[A] Gujarat
[B] Telangana
[C] Uttar Pradesh
[D] Madhya Pradesh

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Under Mukhyamantri Awasiya Bhu-dhikar Yojana, the state government will
provide plots of land to families who do not have land to build their homes. The scheme was launched
by the government of Madhya Pradesh to construct houses under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana.

Q.181) Identify the bank that recently (in Oct‟21) approved a USD 250 million loan to support India‟s
National Industrial Corridor Development Program (NICDP).
[A] Asian Development Bank
[B] World Bank
[C] International Monetary Fund
[D] European Development Bank

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Asian Development Bank (ADB) approved the 250 million USD (~Rs 1873 crore) loan
to support the National Industrial Corridor Development Program (NICDP) of India. This is the first
subprogram of the programmatic USD 500 million loan to develop 11 industrial corridors across 17
states.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.182) In November 2021, Starlink registered itself in India under the name „SSCPL – Starlink
Satellite Communications Private Limited‟. Starlink is a satellite internet division of which company?
[A] SpaceX
[B] OneWeb
[C] Vodafone
[D] Intelsat

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Starlink registered its business in India with name „SSCPL – Starlink Satellite
Communications Private Limited‟ to launch telecommunication services‟ including satellite
broadband internet services, content storage and streaming, multimedia communication, among
others focusing on rural development.
 Starlink is the satellite internet division of billionaire Elon Musk‟s rocket company SpaceX.

Q.183) Which organization signed an MoU with the UP government to manage the Varanasi Milk
Union for a period of 5 years?
[A] NABARD
[B] FSSAI
[C] National Dairy Development Board
[D] Indian Council of Agriculture Research

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The NDDB, Anand signs a pact with Uttar Pradesh government to manage Varanasi
Milk Union for a period of 5years.

Q.184) Who recently (in Oct‟21) got appointed as the Chairperson of the National Company Law
Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) for a period of 4 years?
[A] Ashok Bhushan
[B] Ramalingam Sudhakar
[C] Yogeshwar Dayal
[D] S. Mohan

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet(ACC) has approved the proposal to
appoint Justice Ashok Bhushan, former Judge of the Supreme Court of India, as the
Chairperson of National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) for a period of 4 years.
 While Justice Ramalingam Sudhakar, former chief justice(CJ) of Manipur High Court(HC)
as the
President of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).

Q.185) What is the theme of 14th Edition of Urban Mobility India (UMI) Conference 2021?
[A] Accessible and Liveable Cities
[B] Mobility for All
[C] Green Urban Mobility
[D] Intelligent, Inclusive and Sustainable Mobility

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Union Minister of Housing & Urban Affairs and Ministry of Petroleum and Natural
Gas Hardeep Singh Puri virtually inaugurated the 14th Edition of Urban Mobility India (UMI)
Conference 2021 with the theme of “Mobility for All” for achieving the 2030 Agenda for
Sustainable Development Goals (SDG).
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.186) Which Country chaired the 13th Meeting of Heads of National Statistical Offices (NSO) of
BRICS that was held virtually in October 2021?
[A] Brazil
[B] Russia
[C] India
[D] China

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The 13th Meeting of Heads of National Statistical Offices (NSO) of BRICS
(Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) Countries was held virtually under the Chairship
of India.
 The meeting was chaired by G. P. Samanta, Chief Statistician of India
 Rao Inderjit Singh is the Minister of State (I/C) for the Ministry of Statistics and
Programme Implementation

Q.187) As per the „State of the Global Climate 2021‟ report, 7-years from 2015 to 2021 witnessed the
Warmest years on Record. Name the organisation that released the report.
[A] Indian Institute Of Tropical Meteorology
[B] United Nations Environment Programme
[C] World Meteorological Organization
[D] International Union for Conservation of Nature

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: As per the provisional „State of the Global Climate 2021 report‟ released by the
World Meteorological Organization (WMO), the past seven years from 2015 to 2021 (1st 9-months)
are set to be witnessed the Warmest years on record.

Q.188) Identify the Indian Cricketer who was selected (in Oct‟21) for the MCC awards Honorary Life
Membership of the Club along with Indian Bowler Javagal Srinath.
[A] Mithali Raj
[B] Harbhajan Singh
[C] Jhulan Goswami
[D] Gautam Gambhir

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In October 2021, the Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) released the list of 18 Cricketers
who were selected for the MCC awards Honorary Life Membership of the Club. The list witnessed
the names of 2 former Indian cricketers – Harbhajan Singh and Javagal Srinath.

Q.189) In November 2021, Alternative Mechanism approved the acquisition of 100% Government
stake in Central Electronics Ltd to for Rs 210 crore.
[A] Deccan Finance & Leasing
[B] Intrepid Finance & Leasing
[C] Melker Finance & Leasing
[D] Nandal Finance & Leasing

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Alternative Mechanism approved the acquisition of 100% GOI stake of Central
Electronics Ltd to Nandal Finance and Leasing Pvt. Ltd for worth of Rs 210 Crore.
 This is the second strategic stake sale by GoI after Air India.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Q.190) Which Country is developing the „World's 1st Sustainable Floating City‟ along with
OCEANIX & UN-Habitat?
[A] Philippines
[B] Maldives
[C] South Korea
[D] New Zealand

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: South Korea is set to get the World‟s first floating city, a joint effort
by OCEANIX & the United Nations Human Settlement Programme (UN-Habitat), which is
likely to be completed by 2025.
· The floating city will be developed on the coast of Busan, South Korea, to tackle the
problem of rising sea levels.

Q.191) Which Ministry launched the „Shreshtha Yojna‟ & National Fellowship Management and
Grievance Redressal Portal at Dr Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi?
[A] Ministry of Rural Development
[B] Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
[C] Ministry of Home Affairs
[D] Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Union Minister for Social Justice & Empowerment (SJE), Dr Virendra
Kumar launched the „Shreshtha Yojna‟ and National Fellowship Management and
Grievance Redressal Portal at Dr Ambedkar International Center, New Delhi campus on
the occasion of the Mahaparinirvana Diwas 2021.
· The Shreshtha Yojana will support the socio-economic upliftment and overall
development of the Scheduled Caste(SC) students by providing quality residential education in
reputed private schools.
· The Fellowship Management & Grievance redressal Portal software aims to
enable an area- based development approach.

Q.192) RBI superseded the Board of (in Nov‟21) for exercising its power conferred to the Section
45-IE (1) of the RBI Act, 1934 & also appointed as the new Administrator of the company.
[A] Muthoot Finance Ltd; Shanti Lal Jain
[B] Reliance Capital Ltd; Nageswar Rao Y
[C] Tata Capital Financial Ltd; Shanti Lal Jain
[D] Tata Capital Financial Ltd; Nageswar Rao Y

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) superseded the Board of Directors of Reliance
Capital Ltd (RCL), a Non- Banking Financial Company (NBFC), by exercising its power conferred
under Section 45-IE (1) of the RBI Act, 1934 & also Nageswar Rao Y was appointed as the
Administrator of the company under Section 45-IE (2) of the RBI Act.

Q.193) In November 2021, India Ratings and Research (Ind-Ra) estimated India's GDP to grow
at ___________ in FY 2022.
[A] 8.9 %
[B] 10.2 %
[C] 9.4 %
[D] 8.2 %

Correct Answer: C
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

Explanation: India Ratings and Research (Ind-Ra) expects India‟s Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
in FY22 at 9.4% & in Second Quarter of Financial Year-2022 (Q2 FY22) at 8.3 percent.

Q.194) Which company collaborated with Indian Railway Catering & Tourism Corporation (in
Nov‟21) to launch „redRail‟, a rail ticket booking service through app?
[A] Ease My Trip
[B] Abhibus.com
[C] Ola Cabs
[D] RedBus

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Online bus ticketing platform RedBus has collaborated with Indian Railway Catering
& Tourism Corporation (IRCTC) to launch „redRail‟, a rail ticket booking service that can be
accessed through the redBus mobile app.

Q.195) Who was recently (in Nov‟21) appointed as the new Chief Executive officer(CEO) of Twitter?
[A] Parag Agrawal
[B] Satyanarayana nadella
[C] Ravi Chaudhary
[D] Shantanu Narayen

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Indian American, Parag Agrawal appointed as the new Chief Executive
officer(CEO) of Twitter & he also led to the resignation of Jack Dorsey, the co-founder of Twitter,
from the post of CEO.

Q.196) On 1st December 2021, the Presidency of G20 changed to from Italy, thereby India which will
host the G20 Presidency from entered the G20 Troika.
[A] Canada; 2022-23
[B] Brazil; 2023-24
[C] Indonesia; 2022-23
[D] Brazil; 2024-25

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Indonesia assumed the Presidency of G20 from the outgoing Italy, which held the
presidency for the last 1-year. With this Presidency change, India will hold the G20 Presidency
from 1st December 2022 to 31st November 2023 has entered the G20 Troika.
· Theme for G20 Leaders Summit 2022 – “Recover Together, Recover Stronger”.
· G20 Troika – Italy (December 2020-2021); Indonesia (December 2021-
2022); India (December 2022-2023).

Q.197) In December 2021, the Meeting of the India-Central Asia Dialogue 2021 was held in
New Delhi under the chairmanship of ______________.
[A] 3rd; Narendra Modi
[B] 2nd; S Jaishankar
[C] 4th; Narendra Modi
[D] 3rd; S Jaishankar

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The 3rd meeting of the India-Central Asia Dialogue 2021 was held in New
Delhi under the chairmanship of Dr S Jaishankar, External Affairs Minister (EAM) of India,
that saw the participation of Foreign Ministers of Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Tajikistan,
Turkmenistan & Uzbekistan.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-6

i. The Ministers also emphasized the optimum usage of the International North-South
Transport Corridor (INSTC), as well as the Ashgabat Agreement & inclusion
of Chabahar Port within the framework of INSTC.

Q.198) Which Bank invested 9.5 % stake in Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) Limited
to become its Promoter?
[A] Indian Overseas Bank
[B] State Bank of India
[C] Canara Bank
[D] Punjab National Bank

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Punjab National Bank (PNB) will become the promoter of Open
Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) limited by investing over 9.5 % stake in the
company.
· ONDC is yet to be incorporated by the Companies Act 2013.

Q.199) Which company signed a contract (in Dec‟21) with the Indian Army worth Rs 471.41 crore to
supply IGLA-1M missiles?
[A] Defence Research and Development Organisation
[B] Bharat Electronics Limited
[C] Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
[D] Bharat Dynamics Limited

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) and the Indian Army signed a contract worth
Rs 471.41 crore in New Delhi for the refurbishment of IGLA-1M missiles. After the Refurbishment,
the missile will get a fresh lease life of ten years.

Q.200) Who became the 1st Indian to win Malaysian Open Squash Championships 2021 that was
held in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia?
[A] Mahesh Mangaonkar
[B] Saurav Ghosal
[C] Miguel Rodriguez
[D] Ramit Tandon

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Indian Squash player Saurav Ghosal won the Malaysian Open Squash Championships
2021, defeating Colombia‟s Miguel Rodriguez in the men‟s singles final held in Kuala Lumpur,
Malaysia and became the 1st Indian to win the Malaysian Open Squash Championships.