WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11

(Answers)

Q.1) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the
meaning of the given as your answer.
Nexus
[A] Connection
[B] Distance
[C] Distance
[D] Difference

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word Nexus (Noun) means: a complicated series of connections between different
things; connection.

Q.2) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the
meaning of the given as your answer.
Mammoth
[A] Straight
[B] Huge
[C] Wild
[D] Greedy

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The word Mammoth (Adjective) means: extremely large; huge.

Q.3) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given wont as your
answer
Impeccable
[A] Faulty
[B] Tedious
[C] Flashy
[D] Boring

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The word Impeccable (Adjective) means: without
mistakes or fault: perfect.
Hence, its antonym should be faulty.

Q.4) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given wont as your
answer
Amalgamate
[A] Separate
[B] Combine
[C] Assimilate
[D] Integrate

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The word Amalgamate (Verb) means: merge; to put two or more things together so
that they form one: assimilate.
Its antonym should be separate which means: to divide into different parts or groups: to move
apart.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.5) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined. Choose
the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phase.
Villagers always call a spade a spade.
[A] to speak about spades
[B] to speak in a straightforward manner
[C] to call someone a spade
[D] to speak ill about someone

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Phrase 'call a spade a spade' means: speak frankly and directly.

Q.6) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined. Choose
the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phase.
Marty broke a dining-room window and had to face the music when her father got home.
[A] accept the punishment
[B] listen carefully
[C] ask a lot of questions
[D] listen to music

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Phrase 'face the music means: be confronted with the unpleasant consequences of one's
actions.

Q.7) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined. Choose
the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phase.
To play second fiddle
[A] to be happy, cheerful and healthy
[B] to reduce the importance of one's senior
[C] take a subordinate role
[D] to do back seat driving

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Phrase 'to play second fiddle' means: to have a subordinate role to someone or
something.

Q.8) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined. Choose
the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phase.
Why are you jumping down my throat? I wasn't even in the house when it happened.
[A] running away
[B] making a joke
[C] scolding me
[D] forcing me to eat

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Idiom 'Jumping down my throat' means: to scold someone severely.

Q.9) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given words/ sentence.
Special trial of the Head of State by Parliament
[A] Impingement
[B] Infringement
[C] Impeachment
[D] Impediment

Correct Answer:C
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Explanation: Impeachment

Q.10) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given words/ sentence.
Someone able to use both hands with equal skill
[A] Ambivalent
[B] Amphibious
[C] Ambiguous
[D] Ambidextrous

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Ambidextrous

Q.11) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given words/ sentence.
Cure for all diseases
[A] Curable
[B] Panacea
[C] Incurable
[D] Curative

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Panacea

Q.12) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given words/sentence.
A raised place which offerings to a God are made.
[A] Rostrum
[B] Church
[C] Altar
[D] Mound

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Altar

Q.13) It is raining _______. Do not go out.

[A] heavily
[B] fast
[C] soundly
[D] strongly

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: heavily or massively

Q.14) She tries to adjust ______ her relations.

[A] for
[B] at
[C] so
[D] with

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: with is the right preposition
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.15) She was remarkably _______ in singing and dancing.

[A] accomplished
[B] conducive
[C] fluctuating
[D] cooperative

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: accomplished, proficient or skilful

Q.16) Sheila gained an advantage _______ me.

[A] upon
[B] from
[C] on
[D] over

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Over; Advantage over means to have an edge.

Q.17) Take this medicine regularly and you will get rid ______this disease.
[A] at
[B] from
[C] of
[D] over

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: of, here it means cured of, get rid of to be free

Q.18) Before sometimes, the monkey jumped . . . . . . the river.

[A] on
[B] into
[C] near
[D] upon

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The preposition into will be used because the sentence ends with river.

Q.19) Before you gave answers, sir . . . . . them to us.

[A] sent
[B] will send
[C] had sent
[D] was sending

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Sentence is in past tense. had sent is the correct option.

Q.20) Board . . . . . not . . . . . . this question in the previous exam.

[A] did , ask
[B] was , ask
[C] does , ask
[D] will , ask

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Board did not ask this question in the previous exam.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.21) Columbus was in search . . . . . America.

[A] for
[B] of
[C] about
[D] under

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: You search for something, but you're in search of something. When 'in' is used before
search the preposition 'of' will be used.

Q.22) Could is the past form of . . . . . .

[A] can
[B] can be
[C] cannot
[D] cloud

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Could is the past form of can.

Q.23) Cut this apple . . . . . . that knife.

[A] by
[B] with
[C] in
[D] into

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Cut this apple with that knife.

Q.24) Do you always go to school . . . . . foot?

[A] on
[B] by
[C] with
[D] walking

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: When it comes to using "on foot" or "by foot," either would be correct; however, a
quick google search demonstrated that "on foot" is more commonly used.
Do you always go to school on foot?

Q.25) He said that we are all born to die.

[A] He said, "We are all born to die."
[B] He said, "We have all been born to die."
[C] He exclaimed, "We were all born to die."
[D] He said, "We were all born to die."

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Omit 'that' from the direct speech.

Q.26) The teacher said to the students, "March quietly to the ground. "
[A] The teacher instructed the students that they should march quietly to the ground,
[B] The teacher instructed the students that they must march quietly to the ground.
[C] The teacher instructed the students to march quietly to the ground.
[D] The teacher said to the students that they should march quietly to the ground.

Correct Answer:C
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Explanation: The teacher instructed the students to march quietly to the ground.

Q.27) He said, "I cannot help you at present because I am myself in difficulty."
[A] He said that I cannot help you at present because I myself in difficulty.
[B] He said that he could not help me at present because he was himself in difficulty.
[C] He told that he could not help you at present because he was himself in difficulty.
[D] He asked that he could not help you at present because he was himself in difficulty.

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: He said that he could not help me at present because he was himself in difficulty.

Q.28) Which of the following Indus Valley sites is not a present in India?
[A] Chanhudaro
[B] Farmana
[C] Khirasara
[D] Loteshwar

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Chanhudaro is an archaeological site belonging to the post-urban Jhukar phase of Indus
valley civilization. The site is located 130 kilometers (81 mi) south of Mohenjo-daro, in Sindh,
Pakistan.

Q.29) At which of the following Harappan sites, terracotta female figures were discovered?
[A] Mohenjo-daro
[B] Kot Bala
[C] Kot Diji
[D] Khirasara

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Mohenjo-
daro is an archaeological site in the province of Sindh, Pakistan. Built around 2500 BCE, it was one o
f the largest settlements of the ancient Indus Valley civilization. Various discoveries at Mohenjo-
daro include- Great Bath (the biggest bath ghat), Great granary, Bronze dancing girl,
Bearded man,terracotta toys, Bull seal, Pashupati seal, three cylindrical seals of the Mesopotamian
type, a piece of woven cloth.

Q.30) As per the Hindu Philosophy, what is the number of articles under the restraints and practices
(Yamas and Niyamas)?
[A]5
[B]15
[C]20
[D] 36

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The 10 Yamas are Ahimsa, Satya, Asteya (not stealing), Brahmacharya (marital fidelity
and chastity), Kshama, Dhriti (fortitude), Daya (compassion), Arjava (sincerity and non-hypocrisy),
Mitahara (measured diet).
The 10 Niyamas are Tapas (persistence), Santosa (contentment), Astikya (belief in self and God),
Dana (generosity), Isvarpujana (worship of one's God), Siddhanta Sravana (listening to scriptures),
Mati (thinking and understanding), Japa (reciting prayers), Huta & Vrata. Huta means religious rituals
and Vrata means fulfilling religious vows.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.31) Which among the following was the most important grain grown in the vedic Age?
[A] Wheat
[B] Barley
[C] Maize
[D] Rice

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The the most important grain grown in the Vedic Age was Barley.

Q.32) 1. Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?
1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
[A] 1, 2 and 3
[B] 2 and 4
[C] 3 and 4 only
[D] 1, 3 and 4

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Avanti was not directly related to life of Buddha, so this needs to be opted
out. We have read that Pasenadi (Prasenajit), king of Kosala, was the Buddha‘s contemporary and is
frequently mentioned in Pali texts. Kosala and Magadha were linked through matrimonial ties.
Buddha wandered through the towns and villages in the kingdoms of Kosala and Magadha teaching
his philosophy. Gandhara is not directly associated with the life of Buddha. It
was expansion of Maurya empire that Gandhara received much Buddhist influence, notably during
the reign of Asoka.

Q.33) At which place Mahavira attained Niravana?

[A] Pavapuri
[B] Kundagram
[C] Vaishali
[D] Rajgriha

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: At the age of 72 in 468 BC, Tirthankar Mahavira passed away at Pavapuri, Bihar.

Q.34) Pushkalavati was capital of which of the following acient Kingdoms?

[A] Gandhara
[B] Kosal
[C] Magadha
[D] Kashi

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Pushkalavati was capital of ancient Kingdom of Gandhara. Its ruins are currently
located in Charsadda, Pakistan, located in Peshawar valley in the Khyber Pakhtunkhwa province
(formerly NWFP).

Q.35) In which year, Ashoka invaded Kalinga?

[A] 261 BC
[B] 235 BC
[C] 285 BC
[D] 275 BC
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The Mauryan emperor, Ashoka invaded Kalinga in 261 BC and after
a fierce battle Kalinga was conquered. The 13th rock edict of Ashoka elaborates the Kalinga war.

Q.36) In which rock edict Ashoka mentioned ―Every Human is my child…‖?

[A] Major Rock Edict V
[B] Major Rock Edict IV
[C] Major Rock Edict VI
[D] Major Rock Edict VII

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: In the major Rock Edict V, Ashoka mentioned ―Every Human is my child‖. He had
concerns about the policy towards slaves. This rock edict also referes to the appointment of Dhamma-
mahamatta for the first time in the twelfth year of his reign.

Q.37) Under whose reign the Chinese traveller Fa-hein came to India?
[A] Samudragupta
[B] Kumargupta I
[C] Skandgupta
[D] Chandragupta II

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Fa-hein, the first Chinese Buddhist traveller and monk, came to India during the reign
of Gupta emperor Chandragupta II and wrote the book ―Si- Yu-Ki‖ that gives the detail account of the
political and social condition of that time.

Q.38) Who among the following foreign traveller came to India during the reign of Chandragupta
II?
[A] Hiuen-Tsang
[B] Fa Hein
[C] Megasthenes
[D] Megasthenes

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Fa-hein, the first Chinese Buddhist traveller and monk, came to India during the reign
of Gupta emperor Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya). And wrote the book ―Si-Yu-Ki‖ that
gives the detail account of the political and social condition of that time.

Q.39) Which among the following are correct about Chola King Rajendra Chola1?
[A] He built a temple for Siva at Gangaikonda Cholapuram
[B] He also built Tanjore Brihadisvara temple
[C] He built Tanjore Brihadisvara temple for a tribute to his father
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Rajendra Chola1 built a temple for Siva at Gangaikonda Cholapuram,Tanjore
Brihadisvara temple was created by father of Rajendra Chola-1 , Rajraja-1
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.40) which among the following sentence is incorrect about Rajadhiraja Chola I?
[A] He was a born fighter son of Rajendra Chola I
[B] He died in the battle of Koppan fighting with Chalukyas
[C] He assumed the title of Parakesari
[D] All are correct

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: He assumed the title of Parakesari Parakesari and Yuddhamalla were the titles of
Rajendra 1 Rajadhiraja Chola assumed the title of Rajakesari.

Q.41) Who among the following sultans of Delhi established an Employment Exchange to help the
unemployed?
[A] Balban
[B] Alauddin Khalji
[C] Muhammad bin Tughlaq
[D] Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Firoz Shah Tughlaq developed an Employment Bureau resembling the modern
Employment Exchange to find out jobs for the unemployed. His other works of public utility include
Diwan-ia-Khairat to help the poor and needy.

Q.42) The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built the biggest network of canals in India was:
[A] Iltutmish
[B] Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
[C] Firoz Shah Tughlaq
[D] Sikander Lodi

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built the biggest network of canals in India
was Firoz Shah Tughlaq . Canal system of Firoz Shah Tughlaq. To support the newly founded city of
Hissar-i-Firoza, in 1355, he constructed a double system of canals from Yamuna to Sutlej.

Q.43) Who of the following Mughal Emperor was coronated twice?

[A] Akbar
[B] Jahangir
[C] Shah Jahan
[D] Aurangzeb

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Aurangzeb coronated himself twice, the first coronation was held on 31 July, 1658 in
Delhi and second time on 15 June, 1659 after the Battle of Devrai.

Q.44) The conquest of Sindh by British was completed during the Period of
[A] Lord Ellenborough
[B] Lord Hardinge
[C] Lord Aukland
[D] Lord Amherst

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The conquest of Sindh by British was completed during the Period of Lord
Ellenborough.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.45) Chhatrapati Sambhaji (1680-1688 AD) was the ruler of which dynasty?
[A] Maratha
[B] Nanda
[C] Haryanka
[D] Maurya

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Chhatrapati Sambhaji was the Maratha ruler (1680-1688 AD). He was the eldest son of
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and Maharani Saibai.

Q.46) Sindh was annexed by the British in

[A] 1843
[B] 1845
[C] 1849
[D] 1854

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The territory was annexed by the Bombay Presidency of British India in 1843,
following a British Indian conquest led by then Major-General Charles Napier in order to quell the
insurrection of Sindhi rulers who had remained hostile to the British Empire following the First
Anglo-Afghan War.

Q.47) The princely state or Baghat was annexed to the British in

[A] 1848
[B] 1850
[C] 1852
[D] 1853

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The correct answer is 1850. The princely state of Bhagat was annexed by the Britishers
in the year 1850 by the application of the Doctrine of Lapse under Lord Dalhousie. Baghat was a
princely state of the British Raj located in modern-day Himachal Pradesh. The first time the State was
annexed was in 1739.

Q.48) Who among the following was the British residence in Awadh at the time of its annexation
into British Dominion?
[A] James Outram
[B] W.H. Sleeman
[C] Bishop R. Heber
[D] General Low

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: James Outram was the British resident in Awadh at the time of its annexation into
British Dominion. He was appointed resident at Lucknow in 1854 and two years later he carried out
the annexation of Oudh and became the first chief commissioner of that province.

Q.49) The immediate cause of India's First War of Independence was -

[A] Doctrine of Lapse by Lord Dalhousie
[B] Suspicion about British interference in religion
[C] Military discontent
[D] Economic exploitation of India

Correct Answer:B
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Explanation: The introduction of enfield rifles in the army was the immediate cause for 1857 Sepoy
Mutiny because to load the rifle, sepoys had to bite the cartidge upon to release powder. The grease
used on their cartidges was rumoured tobe madeofbeef and pork.

Q.50) Who gave the slogan "Dilli Chalo" to the nation ?

[A] Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
[B] Mahatma Gandhi
[C] Jawahar Lala Nehru
[D] None of these

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: NETAJI SUBHASH CHANDRA BOSE. Translation of a Hindi speech by Smt Indira
Gandhi at a meeting to welcome the relics of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, Delhi, December 17,
1967. Many of us assembled here today knew Netaji well, and on this occasion we are overwhelmed
by the memory of one who gave us the slogan Dilli Chalo.

Q.51) Who was the last Maratha chief to accept the Subsidiary Alliance of the British?
[A] Gaikwad
[B] Scindia
[C] Holkar
[D] Bhonsle

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The doctrine of subsidiary alliance was introduced by Marquess (or Lord) Wellesley,
British Governor- General of India from 1798 to 1805 . Under this doctrine, Indian rulers under
British protection surrendered control of their foreign affairs to the British. Hyderabad first signed it.
The five Maratha chiefs entered into subsidiary alliance as follows: Peshava →1802 Scindia →1804
Gaekwa →1805 Bhonsle→1806 Holkar →1818.

Q.52) Who of the following wrote the first Indian poetic work in English?
[A] Kashi Prasad Ghosh
[B] Ramchandra Vidyavagish
[C] Krishna Mohan Banerjee
[D] Hariharanand

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: First Indian poetic work in English, The Shair and Other Poems by Kashi Prasad Ghosh
was published in 1830.

Q.53) Fatehchand (one of the traitors of Plassey) was bestowed with the title of Jagath Seth by ?
[A] Alivardi Khan
[B] Sirajuddaula
[C] Mir Zafar
[D] Muhammad Shah

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Fatehchand was adopted son of Manik Chand. He obtained the title of ―Seth‖ from the
Emperor Farrakhsiyar. Muhammad Shah bestowed him with the title of ―Jagat Seth‖
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.54) Who among the following was not included in the ―Asta Pradhan‖ of Shivaji ?
[A] Sumant
[B] Majmudar
[C] Vakiyanavis
[D] Vakeel

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Ashta Pradhan Pantpradhan or Peshwa – Prime Minister, general administration of the
Empire. Amatya– Finance Minister, managing accounts of the Empire. Sacheev – Secretary,
preparing royal edicts. Mantri – Interior Minister, managing internal affairs especially intelligence and
espionage. Senapati – Commander-in-Chief, managing the forces and defense of the Empire. Sumant
– Foreign Minister, to manage relationships with other sovereigns. Nyayadhish – Chief Justice,
dispensing justice on civil and criminal matters. Panditrao – High Priest, managing internal religious
matters.

Q.55) The most important reason for collection of ―Chauth‖ and ―Sardeshmukhi‖ by Marathas was ?
[A] To increase the source of income
[B] To expand his territories
[C] To consolidate his political influence
[D] Because of the opposition of Muslim rulers

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Shivaji collected the chauth and sardeshmukhi from the territory which was either
under his enemies or under his own influence. The chauth was one fourth part of the income of a
particular territory while the sardeshmukhi was one tenth. Shivaji collected these taxes simply by
force of his arms. These constituted of the primary sources of income of Shivaji and helped in the
extension of the power and territory of the Marathas.

Q.56) In which among the following years, Bombay transferred to the East India Company by Charles
II ?
[A] 1662 A.D.
[B] 1664 A.D.
[C] 1666 A.D.
[D] 1668 A.D.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: On 21 September 1668, the Royal Charter of 27 March 1668, led to the transfer of
Bombay from Charles II to the British East India Company for an annual rent of £10.

Q.57) Which among the following British men tried to obtain a Firman for trade in Gujarat from
Emperor Akbar?
[A] Ralph Fitch
[B] John Mildenhall
[C] Sir Thomas Roe
[D] Thomas Stephens
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: John Mildenhall was a British explorer and adventurer and one of the first to make an
overland journey to India. He was the self-styled ambassador of the British East India Company in
India. His is the first recorded burial of an Englishman in India. He bluffed in Akbar‘s court that he
was Her Britannic Majesty‘s ambassador. Though he was admitted in the Durbar of Akbar, so that he
became the first Englishman privileged to be received by the Great Mughal; yet he could never win
the confidence of the Mughal Emperor. Portuguese Jesuits played to keep him or English away from
the Mughals.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.58) Which among the following was the first establishment of Dutch in current territories of
Odisha?
[A] Calcutta
[B] Chinsura
[C] Pippli
[D] Balasore

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Pippli was the first place where the Dutch had established themselves in current
territories of Odisha. It was soon abandoned for Balasore.

Q.59) Under which among the following treaties Bitish East India Company secured the Diwani right
of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa ?
[A] Alinagar
[B] Faizabad
[C] Allahabad
[D] Benaras

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Treaty of Allahabad ( 16 August 1765), it was the outcome of the Battle of Buxar
(1764). Robert Clive (Governor General of Bengal) made a separate treaty with Mughal Emperor
Shah Alam II and Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-daullah. A/c to this treaty, Mughal Emperor granted
Fiscal Rights (Diwani) to the East India Company at Bengal, Bihar and Orissa

Q.60) The Peshwa accepted the Subsidiary Alliance with the British via which among the following
treaties?
[A] Treaty of Purandhar
[B] Treaty of Bassein
[C] Treaty of Salbai
[D] Treaty of Surji Arjungaon

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Treaty of Bassein was signed on 31 December 1802 between the British East
India Company and Baji Rao II. It was a decisive step towards the dissolution of the Maratha Empire.

Q.61) The first victim of the British policy of Subsidiary Alliance was ?
[A] Avadh
[B] Mewar
[C] Mysore
[D] Hyderabad

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A subsidiary alliance is an alliance between a dominant nation and a nation that it
dominates. The 1st victim of the policy of subsidiary alliance of Lord Wellesley was the Nizam of
Hyderabad

Q.62) Who said that British established a robber state in Bengal between 1765 and 1772 ?
[A] G. W. Forrest
[B] Lord Macaulay
[C] K. M. Panikkar
[D] Nand Lal Chatterji

Correct Answer: C
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Explanation: K.M. Panikkar was an Indian scholar, journalist, historian, administrator and diplomat.
He wrote that between 1765-1772, British had ―established a robber state where, without reference to
the rights of the others, they freely plundered and looted under the cover of thier rights‖.

Q.63) Avadh was annexed into the British East India territories on which ground?
[A] Doctrine of Lapse
[B] Alleged misgovernment
[C] Failure to pay subsidy
[D] Maintenance of relations with foreign powers

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The kingdom of Oudh was the only great Indian state W| hose ruler Nawab Wajid Ali
Shah was dispossessed on the ground of ―intolerable misgovernment‖. Awadh was annexed in
February 1856 via a proclamation.

Q.64) Which one of the following native states was NOT annexed by the British on the basis of the
Doctrine of Lapse?
[A] Satara
[B] Punjab
[C] Jhansi
[D] Karauli

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Doctrine of Lapse: formula devised by Lord Dalhousie, governor-general of India
(1848–56), to deal with questions of succession to Hindu Indian states.
Satara was annexed in 1848. Sambalpur was annexed in 1849. Karauli was annexed in 1852.
Jhansi was annexed in 1854.

Q.65) The British East India Company ceased to be a trading Company via which among the
following legislation?
[A] Pitts India Act of 1784
[B] Charter Act of 1833
[C] Charter Act of 1813
[D] Government of India Act 1858

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The charter act 1833: It is considered to be an attempt to codify all Indian Laws. The
Governor General of Bengal now became the The Governor General of India. One of the Provision of
this act – ―the East India Company now lost its trading privilege i.e., tea and monopoly in China
,henceforth it became a purely administrative body under the crown.‖

Q.66) What is the correct chronological order of setting up of the following Commissions ?
1. Macdonell Commission
2. First Industrial Commission
3. First Fiscal commission
[A] 1, 2, 3
[B] 2, 3, 1
[C] 2, 1, 3
[D] 1, 3, 2

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Correct Answer: A [1, 2, 3]
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.67) Mahalwari System of Revenue Settlement was introduced in which of the following?
[A] Bengal
[B] Bombay
[C] Madras
[D] North west provinces

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Land revenue system Permanent settlement introduced in Bengal,Bihar ,Orissa and
districts of Benaras and Northern districts of Madras by Lorrd Cornwallis in 1793. Ryotwari System
introduced in Bombay and Madras . Mahalwari system was introduced in the North West Provinces,
the Punjab, Delhi, Parts of Central India and Uttar Pradesh In this system, the land was not owned by
an individual be it zamindar or any cultivator but by a group of estates or villages called Mahal. The
Mahal was collectively known as the landlord and revenue was collected from the head of the Mahal,
also known as Talukdar

Q.68) Which among the following regions was most affected by the Revolution of 1857 ?
[A] Punjab
[B] Maharastra
[C] Avadh
[D] Madras

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Revolt of 1857: Awadh, one of the main centers of the Revolt, was annexed by
Lord Dalhousie, Governor General of India, in 1856. Begum Hazrat Mahal also known as Begum of
Awadh , during the national liberation uprising of 1857-59 in India headed the rebels

Q.69) Kumaran Asan is associated with the social renaissance in which among the following current
states?
[A] Kerala
[B] Tamil Nadu
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kumaran Asan (1873–1924), also known as Mahakavi Kumaran Asan, was one of the
triumvirate poets of Kerala, South India. He was also a philosopher, a social reformer and a disciple
of Sree Narayana Guru

Q.70) The first Indian woman to preside a session of Indian National Congress was ?
[A] Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
[B] Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
[C] Aruna Asaf Ali
[D] Sarojini Naidu

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sarojini Naidu, popularly known as ‗Nightingle of India‘ was the second woman (After
Annie Besant) and first Indian woman to become congress president. The Presided the Kanpur session
in 1925. She was also the first woman governor of an Indian state ( United Provinces of Agra and
Oudh). She was also a great poetess whose romanticism charmed people in India and Europe. Some
of her literary works include the Golden Threshold (1905), The Broken Wing (1917), The Bird of
Time and The Magic Lute
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.71) Consider the following events of Indian National Movement.

1. Gandhi Irwin Pact
2. Poona Pact
3. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress.
4. Individual Satyagraha
Select the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below. Codes :

[A] 1, 3, 2, 4
[B] 2, 3, 4, 1
[C] 3, 4, 2, 1
[D] 4, 3, 2, 1

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Gandhi Irwin Pact signed on March 5,1931.
Karachi Session of Indian National Congress held on March 26-31,1931. Poona Pact: agreement
between Gandhi And BR Ambedkar on September 25,1932. Individual Satyagraha was started on
1940-41.

Q.72) ―Springing Tiger: A Study of a Revolutionary‖ is a biographical work on ?

[A] Bhagat Singh
[B] Chandrashekhar Azad
[C] Subhas Chandra Bose
[D] Shyamji Krishna Verma

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Springing Tiger is the work of Hugh Toye about Subhash Chandra Bose. This book
presents the little known facts about the World War II and the Anglo-Indian relations during those
periods. The author vividly describes the life, philosophy, idealism, nationalism and political
astuteness of Subhash Chandra Bose.

Q.73) Which among the following was the venue of the Second Round Table Conference at London?
[A] St. James Palace
[B] Kingsley Palace
[C] Buckingham Palace
[D] 10, Downing Street

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Second Round Table Conference 1931 : It was held in London during the viceroyalty of
Lord Willingdon during Sept- Dec. 1931 and Gandhi ji attended as the soul representative of
Congress. But the conference was failed because Gandhiji didn‘t‘ agree on the policy of communal
representation. Gandhi at the Second Round Conference, St. James Palace London.

Q.74) Who among the following was the French explorer who visited court of Emperor Shah Jahan
and left a detailed account of Takht-i-Taus (Peacock throne) ?
[A] Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
[B] Geronimo Verroneo
[C] Pierre-Jean Grosley
[D] Jean-Paul Dubois

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Jean-Baptiste Tavernier,a French jeweller and traveller of the Mughal period has left a
detailed account of Takht-i-Taus (Peacock throne). Peacock throne was a dazzling and spectacular
display of Mughal architecture. Its construction was undertaken by the Emperor Shah Jahan and he
personally spent a great deal of time and energy in the designing of the Throne
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.75) On which among the following occasions, Bombay was handed over to Britishers by the
Portuguese ?
[A] Freedom of Portuguese from the control of Spain
[B] Marriage of Charles II with the Portuguese princess Catherine of Braganza
[C] Crushing of Spanish Armada by British in 1588
[D] The Treaty of Madrid in 1630

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Marriage of Charles II with the Portuguese princess Catherine of Braganza was the
occasion of handing over of Bombay to Britishers by the Portuguese (as part of dowry ). On 21
September 1668, the Royal Charter of 27 March 1668, led to the transfer of Bombay from Charles II
to the British East India Company for an annual rent of £10.

Q.76) Nathu la and Jelep la Passes are located in which mountain range ?
[A] Sahyadri
[B] Himalayas
[C] Aravalli
[D] Vindhya Hills

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Jelep La or Jelep Pass (also spelled Jelap), elevation 4,267 m or 13,999 ft, is a high
mountain pass in Sikkim and connects India with Tibet Autonomous Region, China. Nathu La is a
mountain pass in the Himalayas in East Sikkim district. It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with
China's Tibet Autonomous Region. The pass, at 4,310 m above sea level, forms a part of an offshoot
of the ancient Silk Road. Nathu means "listening ears" and La means "pass" in Tibetan.

Q.77) Southernmost point of the Peninsular Plateau is marked by which of the following hills ?
[A] Velikonda
[B] Girnar
[C] Nilgiri
[D] Anaconda

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The southernmost point of the peninsular plateau is formed by the Nilgiri Hills which
is the conjunction point of the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats.

Q.78) Which Indian State/Union Territory has the shortest coastline?

[A] Gujarat
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Puducherry
[D] Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The total coastline of India measures about 7,517 km, which is distributed among nine
coastal states and four Union Territories; and almost the entire coast of India falls within the tropics.
Gujarat is strategically located with the largest share in India's coastline with 1915.29 km.
Puducherry has a coastline of 45 km. which is the shortest coastline in India
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.79) Which mountains are on India's Eastern border with Myanmar?

[A] Satpura
[B] Vindhya
[C] Karakoram
[D] Purvanchal

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Purvanchal Mountains, or Eastern Mountains, are sub-mountain range of the
Himalayas in northeast India. Purvanchal Range The Purvanchal hills lie in the north
easternmost part of India lying near Myanmar . They are the eastern extension of himalayas they
cover the states of assam, manipur, tripura, Nagaland.

Q.80) In which of the following states is Ashtamudi Lake situated?

[A] Tamil Nadu
[B] Odisha
[C] Kerala
[D] Andhra Pradesh

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Ashtamudi Lake (Ashtamudi Kayal) is in the Kollam District of the Indian state of
Kerala. It is the most visited backwater and lake in the state.

Q.81) What Is The Vedic Name Of Ravi River?

[A] Kalindi
[B] Parushni
[C] Shatudri
[D] Askini

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Rig-Vedic
name - Modern name
Sindhu - Indus
Vitasta - Jhelum
Askini – Chenab
Purushni - Ravi

Q.82) Which of the following is NOT a Peninsular river?

[A] Alaknanda
[B] Krishna
[C] Narmada
[D] Mahanadi

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Peninsular Rivers are seasonal rivers because their flow primarily depends on the
rainfall. Most of the peninsular rivers arise from the Western Ghats and flow towards the east and
drain into the Bay of Bengal. However, The Alaknanda is a Himalayan river in the state of
Uttarakhand.

Q.83) Indian sovereignity in sea extends upto ________ nautical miles.

[A]8
[B]10
[C]12
[D] 14
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Indian sovereignty in sea extends upto 12 nautical miles. Each coastal state may claim a
territorial sea that extends seaward up to 12 nautical miles (nm) from its baselines. The coastal state
exercises sovereignty over its territorial sea, the airspace above it, and the seabed and subsoil beneath
it.

Q.84) Which of the following is not correctly matched?

[A] Nathpajhakari Project - Project on Sutlej in Himachal Pradesh
[B] Mayurakshi Project - Cana da Dam
[C] Indira Gandhi Project - Longest canal
[D] Hirakund Dam - Narmada River

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hirakund Dam is constructed near Sambalpur in Odisha, on the river Mahanadi. It is
the longest dam in the world. Hence, D is the correct option.

Q.85) What percent of solar energy is absorbed by the terrestrial ecosystem ?

[A] 2%
[B] 0.1%
[C] 0.5%
[D] 1%

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Most solar energy occurs at wavelengths unsuitable for photosynthesis. Between 98 and
99 percent of solar energy reaching the Earth is reflected from leaves and other surfaces and absorbed
by other molecules, which convert it to heat. Thus, only 1 to 2 percent is available to be captured by
plants.

Q.86) Tiger reserve in Karnataka is home to the largest number of Asian elephants in the
world.
[A] Nagarhole Tiger reserve
[B] Ranthambore Tiger Project
[C] Kanha National Park
[D] Bandhvagarh National Park

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Nagarhole National Park (also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park), is a national
park located in Kodagu district and Mysore district in Karnataka, India. It is one of India's premier
Tiger Reserves.

Q.87) Gir National Park is known for its .

[A] Orangutan
[B] Cherry blossom
[C] Red silk Cotton
[D] Asiatic Lions

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Gir Forest National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary, also known as Sasan-Gir, is a wildlife
sanctuary and protected forest area in Gujarat, India. It is majorly known for the pure breed of Asiatic
Lions (Panthera leo).
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.88) In terms of area, which state has the largest forest cover in India?
[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Odisha
[C] Maharashtra
[D] Kerala

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Area-wise MadhyaPradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by
Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra. Arunachal Pradesh is the state with
maximum percentage (79.63%) of forest cover. According to a report by the Union Environment
Ministry in December 2019, Total Forest and Tree Cover rises to 24.56 percent of the total
geographical area of the Country.

Q.89) Which one the following is a correct sequence of rivers in terms of their total basin area,
in the descending order?
[A] Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra, Godavari
[B] Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra, Godavari
[C] Brahmaputra, Indus, Ganga, Godavari
[D] Indus, Ganga Godavari, Brahmaputra

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Brahmaputra, Indus, Ganga and Godavari is a correct sequence of rivers in terms of
their total basin area, in the descending order.

Q.90) Which of the following river is known as India's River of Sorrow?

[A] Hooghly
[B] Damodar
[C] Ghaghara
[D] Kosi

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Kosi river in India situated in Bihar and Jharkhand is known as ―Sorrow of Bihar‖ or
―River of Sorrow" in India. Some times Brahmaputra is also called ―River of Sorrow" as Kosi river
changes its course while Brahmaputra overflows and causes floods during rainy season.

Q.91) The Chipko movement is associated with:

[A] Transparency in public life
[B] Afforestation
[C] Preventing the felling of trees
[D] Sustainable development

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Chipko Movement was an Afforestation movement. This was done by farmers in
Uttarakhand state of India (then part of Uttar Pradesh) to protest against the felling of trees. They
were opposing deforestation by the state forest department contractors and asserting their traditional
rights over them.

Q.92) First cotton mill in India was set up in which city?

[A] Ahmedabad
[B] Nashik
[C] Bombay
[D] Madras

Correct Answer: C
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Explanation: The first Indian cotton mill, "The Bombay Spinning Mill", was opened in 1854 in
Bombay by Cowasji Nanabhai Davar.

Q.93) According To The Lloyds Report, Which Is The Only Port In India That Has Got Listed
Amongst The Top 30 Container Ports Globally?
[A] Port Blair
[B] Tuticorin Port
[C] Panambur Port
[D] Jawaharial Nehru Port

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) got listed amongst the top 30 container ports
globally, as per the latest Lloyds Report. This is a validation of all the efforts and strategic initiatives
being implemented at JNPT in order to enhance overall port efficiency. Various new processes
activated under the 'ease of doing business' initiative have not only helped in overall growth of the
port business, but also allowed the EXIM trade to save time and cost which in turn have accentuated
the growth story.

Q.94) As compared to Census 2001, which are the 3 states to have recorded major decline in the sex
ration ?
[A] J & K, Bihar, Gujarat
[B] J & K, Bihar, UP
[C] Punjab, Haryana, Asom
[D] Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Increase in sex ratio has been recorded in 29 states and UTs while three major states -
Bihar, Gujarat and Jammu and Kashmir - have shown a decline in sex ratio as compared to
Census 2001.

Q.95) 201-2011 is the first decade, with the exception of , to add lesser population compared to the
previous decade ?
[A] 1900-1910
[B] 1870-1880
[C] 1911-1921
[D] 1921-1931

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The 2001-2011 period is the first decade -- with exception of 1911-1921 -- which has
actually added lesser population compared to the previous decade, Registrar General of India and
Census Commissioner of India C Chandramauli said in presence of Home Secretary Gopal K Pillai.

Q.96) Singalila National Park is in -

[A] Cooch behar
[B] Darjeeling
[C] Alipurduar
[D] Kalimpong

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Singalila National Park is a national park of India located on the Singalila Ridge at an
altitude of more than 7000 feet above sea level, in the Darjeeling district of West Bengal.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.97) What is the population of Uttar Dinajpur as per 2011 Census?

[A] 3,007,134
[B] 3,005,135
[C] 3000,111
[D] 2,004,114

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: As per 2011 census of India, Uttar Dinajpur has a population of 3,007,134 in 2011 out
of which 1,551,066 are male and 1,456,068 are female. Literate people are 1,489,667 out of 853,495
are male and 636,172 are female.

Q.98) Which is the only highway connects with this district?

[A] NH 500
[B] NH 212
[C] NH 512
[D] NOTA

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Dakshin Dinajpur is a "non-large scale industry" but there are a number of medium and
small hand loom industries especially Gangarampur block. Internet access is available from most of
the cities, even broadband connections are available. There is one State Highway with only 77 km of
National Highway No. 512 in the district.

Q.99) Which river separates Kalimpong from the state of Sikkim?

[A] Torsa
[B] Teesta
[C] Kaljan
[D] NOTA

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Through its course, the Teesta river has carved out ravines and gorges in Sikkim
meandering through the hills with the hill station of Kalimpong lying just off the river.

Q.100) Jalpaiguri falls under which administrative division of West Bengal?

[A] Malda
[B] Darjiling
[C] Jalpaiguri
[D] Coochbehar

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Jalpaiguri is a city in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is the largest city and the
headquarters of the Jalpaiguri district as well as of the Jalpaiguri division of West Bengal, covering
the jurisdiction of the five districts of North Bengal .

Q.101) Which one of the following type of cells have the ability to develop into any type of cell?
[A] Endodermal cells
[B] Ectodermal cells
[C] Stem cells
[D] Muscle cells

Correct Answer: C
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Explanation: Stem cells are the cells that have an ability to become various types of cells. They are
present both during embryonic development (embryonic stem cells) and in the adult body (adult stem
cells).

Q.102) Blood transports

[A] food
[B] waste and hormones
[C] gases
[D] All of these

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Blood is a connective tissue of the circulatory system, transporting absorbed
nutrients to cells like O2, glucose, and amino acids, and waste products from cells like CO 2 and
urea. ... Additionally, it transports molecules, such as hormones, allowing for communication
between organs.

Q.103) Which of the following hormones regulate the growth of mammary glands?
[A] Prolactin
[B] TSH
[C] FSH
[D] ACTH

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Prolactin regulates the growth of the mammary glands and the formation of milk in
them. ACTH stimulates the synthesis and steroid hormones called glucocorticoids from the adrenal
cortex.

Q.104) Graveyard of RBC is ________

[A] Spleen
[B] Liver
[C] Kidney
[D] Thymus

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Old red blood cells are recycled in the spleen. Platelets and white blood cells are stored
there. Spleen also helps fight certain kinds of bacteria that cause pneumonia and meningitis.

Q.105) Loss of water from the human body is called

[A] hydration
[B] dehydration
[C] evaporation
[D] transpiration

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: dehydration, loss of water from the body; it is almost invariably associated with some
loss of salt (sodium chloride) as well.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.106) In photosynthesis
[A] light energy is converted into chemical energy
[B] chemical energy is converted into light energy
[C] chemical energy is converted into electrical energy
[D] Light energy is converted into mechanical energy

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Photosynthesis is the process of taking CO2 and water and convert it into glucose in the
presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
Sunlight
6CO2 + 12H20 C6H1205+ 602+ 6H20
Chlorophyll (Glucose)

The events that take place during photosynthesis are

(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy and splitting of water into hydrogen and oxygen.
(iii) Reduction of CO2 to carbohydrates.

Q.107) Vegetative structure of ginger is

[A] runner
[B] rhizome
[C] sucker
[D] tuber

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ginger has low genetic diversity because it reproduces asexually by vegetative
propagation.Zingiber officinale primarily produces from spreading the rhizome. The stem generated
from the plants' rhizome forms a bud that becomes a complete plant, a clone of the original plant.

Q.108) In the air passage from throat to lungs, which of the following avoids collapse of air
passage?
[A] Pharynx
[B] Larynx
[C] Rings of cartilage
[D] Thymus

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The trachea is supported by c-shaped rings of cartilage which hold them in place
when there is less air inside it. Due to this, the walls of trachea do not collapse even when
there is a little air. So, the correct option is 'cartilaginous rings'.

Q.109) In kidney, the high capillary bed is found

[A] in Bowman's capsule
[B] around anterior tubules
[C] around loop of Henle
[D] in collecting duct

Correct Answer: A
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Explanation: The high capillary bed is found in Bowman's capsule in the kidney because of the
occurrence of glomerulus in it. Which needs to be at high pressure in order to force out all the waste
products and other molecules (small enough to fit through) If normal pressure would be there, it
would not be able to push everything through it and only water and CO 2 molecules can pass through.
Everything that pushes through the glomerulus with high pressure gets into Bowman's capsule where
it can be processed and removed from the body.

Q.110) Kilowatt-hour is the unit of

[A] potential difference
[B] electric power
[C] electric energy
[D] electric potential

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: That's a measure of power. If you use one kilowatt of power for an hour, you have used
1 kilowatt-hour, abbreviated kWh, of energy. One kilowatt-hour is equivalent to the energy of 1,000
joules used for 3,600 seconds or 3.6 million Joules. In equation form: 1 kWh = 3.6 million J.

Q.111) The modulus of rigidity is the ratio of

[A] longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain
[B] volume stress to volume strain
[C] shearing stress to shearing strain
[D] tensile stress to tensile strain

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Shear Modulus Of Rigidity. Shear modulus also known as Modulus of rigidity is the
measure of the rigidity of the body, given by the ratio of shear stress to shear strain.

Q.112) A person is sitting in a moving train and is facing the engine. He tosses up a coin and the
coin falls behind him. It can be concluded that the train is moving
[A] forward and loosing speed
[B] forward and gaining speed
[C] forward and uniform speed
[D] backward and uniform speed

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: backward with uniform speed

Q.113) In which of the following cases, kinetic energy is being used in performing work?
[A] Paddling the bicycle to cover a distance
[B] Driving a car to cover a distance
[C] windmill grinding wheat grain
[D] Rowing a boat in the lake

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The work done on any object goes into changing the kinetic energy of that object.
Since, the work done by the car engine is equal to the change in kinetic energy being used in
performing work. Kinetic energy can be defined as the work needed to accelerate a body of a given
mass from rest to its stated velocity. Having gained this energy during its acceleration, the body
maintains this kinetic energy unless its speed changes.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.114) The mass of a body on Earth is 100 kg (acceleration due to gravity, g e = 10 m/s2). If
acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is ge / 6, then the mass of the body on the Moon is
[A] 100/6 kg
[B] 60 kg
[C] 100kg
[D] 600 kg

Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Given,mass on the earth=100kg
since,mass of a body does not change anywhere in the universe
Therefore, mass on the moon=100kg

Q.115) The radius of Curvature of a plane mirror

[A] is zero
[B] is infinity
[C] can be anywhere between zero and infinity
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Radius of curvature of a plane mirror is infinite. The plane mirror is a part of sphere
with infinite radius . It's every part is a part of sphere.

Q.116) A man standing in between two parallel cliffs, he produces a sound and first echo is
heard from cliff-2 after 2 seconds and second echo is heard from cliff-1 after 3 seconds. If the
speed of sound in air 340 m/s. Find the distance between two cliffs.
[A] 425 m
[B] 170 m
[C] 850 m
[D] 340 m

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is 850 m. Echo: If we shout or clap near a suitable reflecting object
such as a tall building or a mountain, we will hear the same sound again a little later.

Q.117) The force experienced by a unit positive test charge placed at a point is called
[A] magnetic field at that point
[B] gravitational field at that point
[C] electrical field at that point
[D] nuclear field at the point

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The force experienced by a unit positive test charge placed at a point is called electric
field at that point.

Q.118) Radioactivity is due to

[A] unstable nucleus
[B] stable nucleus
[C] stable electronic configuration
[D] unstable electronic configuration

Correct Answer: A
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Explanation: What causes atoms to be radioactive? ... Instability of an atom's nucleus may result
from an excess of either neutrons or protons. A radioactive atom will attempt to reach stability by
ejecting nucleons (protons or neutrons), as well as other particles, or by releasing energy in other
forms.

Q.119) Hydrocyanic acid is very

[A] explosive
[B] bright
[C] light
[D] poisonous

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hydrocyanic acid is the solution of hydrogen cyanide in water. It is a highly poisonous
chemical, also called as prussic acid.

Q.120) Electric wires have a coating of an insulating material. The material generally used is
[A] sulphur
[B] graphite
[C] PVC
[D] All of these

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The material, generally used is. PVC is an insulating substance. It does not allow
electric current to pass through it. The electrical wires have a covering of PVC around them.

Q.121) Compounds having same number and kind of atoms but different arrangement of
atoms in their molecules are called
[A] allotropes
[B] isotopes
[C] isomers
[D] polymers

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: These compounds are known as isomers. Isomers are molecules with the same
molecular formulas, but different arrangements of atoms.

Q.122) A bond formed by the transfer of electrons between atoms of the elements is called
[A] ionic bond
[B] covalent bond
[C] coordinate bond
[D] hydrogen bond

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Electrovalent or ionic bonding : The transfer of electrons takes place in such a way
that ions obtained after electron transfer has an inert gas electronic structure.
Electrovalent compounds have high melting point and boiling point because of the presence of
strong intermolecular forces of attraction.
These compounds are generally soluble in water. The fused states of these electrovalent
compounds are also good conductor of electricity because of the presence of free ions, Ionic
compounds are bad conductors of electricity in solid state.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.123) Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the following as 'exhaust‟
[A] NH3
[B] CH4
[C] H20
[D] H202

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The hydrogen vehicle uses hydrogen fuel cells for the generation of motive power.
These fuel cells in which hydrogen serves as a fuel and oxygen as an oxidant emits exhaust of water.

Q.124) Elements of d-block are called

[A] transition elements
[B] transuranic elements
[C] metals
[D] metalloids

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The d-block elements are found in groups 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, and 12 of the
periodic table; d-block elements are also known as the transition metals. The d orbital is filled with
the electronic shell ―n-1.‖

Q.125) Right to Property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights from which
constitutional Amendment?
[A] 26th Amendment Act
[B] 62nd Amendment Act
[C] 44th Amendment Act
[D] 1st Amendment Act

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Constitution originally provided for right to property under Articles 19 & 31. The
44 constitutional Amendment of 1978 deleted right to property from list of fundamental rights.

Q.126) A redox reaction is a/an

[A] proton transfer reaction
[B] ion combination reaction
[C] reaction in solution
[D] electron transfer reaction

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: An oxidation-reduction (redox) reaction is a type of chemical reaction that involves a
transfer of electrons between two species. An oxidation-reduction reaction is any chemical reaction
in which the oxidation number of a molecule, atom, or ion changes by gaining or losing an electron.

Q.127) What is the minimum age to be appointed as the Chief Minister of a state?
[A] 25 years
[B] 30 years
[C] 35 years
[D] 18 years

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The minimum age to contest for the post of Chief Minister is 25 years as per the
Constitution.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.128) The Prime Minister is appointed by which one of the following?

[A] Attorney general of India
[B] President
[C] Vice-president
[D] Chief justice of India

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be
appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Q.129) Panchayati Raj system was given constitutional status by which Amendment Act?
[A] 72nd Constitutional Amendment
[B] 73rd Constitutional Amendment
[C] 74th Constitutional Amendment
[D] 75th Constitutional Amendment

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The philosophy of Panchayat Raj is deeply steeped in tradition & culture of rural India
& is by no means a new concept. Panchayati Raj provided a structure of self-governance at village
level, however, it did not have a constitutional status. The Constitutional status to Panchayati Raj was
first time given by 73rd constitutional amendment act.

Q.130) How many sessions of the Lok Sabha take place in a year?
[A] 2
[B]3
[C]4
[D] 5

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Lok Sabha must meet 3 times a year for the Budget session, the monsoon session
and the winter session.

Q.131) According to the Constitution who is empowered to remove the judges of the Supreme
Court and High Courts in India?
[A] The President
[B] Parliament
[C] Union Council of Ministers
[D] Chief Justice of Supreme Court

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A judge of Supreme Court can be removed by President of India from his position only
on ground of proven misbehavior or incapacity if a resolution in this regard is passed by Parliament
supported by 2-3rd of members present and voting in each House and majority of total membership of
each House. The President may remove a judge of a High Court on the ground of "proven
misbehavior" or "incapacity."

Q.132) Consider the following statements Fundamentals Rights:

(1) Fundamentals Rights are justiciable.
(2) They are sacrosanct or permanent.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] None of these
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Fundamentals Rights are justiciable. It means they are defended and guaranteed by the
Supreme Court (Article 32) and High court (Article 226). They are not sacrosanct or permanent (it
means it can be amended by Parliament).

Q.133) A fundamental Right guaranteed in the Indian Constitution can be suspended only by
[A] a proclamation of national emergency
[B] an Act passed by the Parliament
[C] an amendment of the Constitution
[D] the judicial decision of the Supreme Court

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A fundamental Right guaranteed in the Indian Constitution can be suspended only by a
proclamation of national emergency.

Q.134) Fundamental Duties were added under which part of the Indian Constitution?
[A] Part IV
[B] Part IVA
[C] Part V
[D] Part VI

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Fundamental Duties are added under Part-IV-A of the Constitution by the
recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee. Swaran Singh's Committee recommended more than
10 Fundamental Duties; however not all were included in the Constitution. Those duties
recommended by the committee which were not accepted were:
1. Citizens to be penalized/punished by the parliament for any non-compliance with or refusal to
observe any of the duties.
2. The punishments 'penalties decided by the Parliament shall not be called in question in any court on
the ground of infringement of any of Fundamental Rights or on the ground of repugnancy to any
other provision of the Constitution.
3. Duty to pay taxes.

Q.135) Who is the Executive Head of State in India?

[A] President
[B] Prime Minister
[C] Leader of the opposition
[D] Chief Secretary, Government of India

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Under the Indian Constitution same position as the King/ Constitution. He is the
Executive State According to the Article 53(1), the Executive power of the Union shall be vested in
the President.

Q.136) President of India exercises his powers-

[A] Either directly or through officers subordinate to him
[B] Through Ministers
[C] Through Prime Minister
[D] Through Cabinet

Correct Answer: A
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Explanation: According to Article 53(1), the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the
President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in
accordance with the Constitution.

Q.137) The Joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha under Article 108 is summoned by-
[A] Chairman of Rajya Sabha
[B] Speaker of Lok Sabha
[C] Prime Minister
[D] President

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Article 108(1) the President shall summon the Houses sitting. However, the Speaker
presides to meet in a joint over the Joint sitting,

Q.138) which of the following is incorrect about the powers of the President of India?
[A] The President should accept the advice of Supreme Court
[B] Emergency Powers
[C] Power of extension of President's Rule in State
[D] President can accept or reject the advice of the Supreme Court.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Under Article 143 of the Constitution, the President can seek opinion of the Supreme
Court, However, the opinion expressed by Supreme Court is only advisory and not binding on the
President. He may or may not follow the opinion.

Q.139) The portfolio investment by foreign institutional investor is called?

[A] FDI
[B] FII
[C] Balance of payment
[D] Capital Gain

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Fill or Foreign Institutional Investor pools money to purchase securities, real property
and other investment assets. It includes banks, hedge funds, mutual funds, pension funds etc.

Q.140) National Income estimates in India are prepared by

[A] Planning Commission
[B] Reserve Bank of India
[C] Central Statistical Organisation
[D] Indian Statistical Institute

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) prepares the estimates of National Income in
India. The first official estimates of the national income prepared by the CSO at constant prices with
base year 1948-49 as well as at current prices were brought out in 1956.Planning Commission- It was
an institution of Government of India which formulated India‘s Five year plans.
Headquarters- New Delhi , Reserve Bank of India- India‘s Central Banking Institution which
formulated the Monetary Policy of Indian Rupee. Indian Statistical Institute- Institution devoted to
research, teaching and application of statistics, natural science and social science.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.141) Who release Consumer Price Index in India?

[A] Central statistics office
[B] Department of economic affairs
[C] Reserve Bank of India
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Central Statistics Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation releases Consumer Price Index in India. CPI measure changes over time in general
level of prices of goods and services that households acquire for the purpose of consumption. CPI is
widely used as a macroeconomic indicator of inflation.

Q.142) Regional Rural Banks work at

[A] Hobli level
[B] Taluk level
[C] District level
[D] All levels

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The SBI and its subsidiaries, 14 nationalised banks as well as 3 private banks
were given the responsibility of development of districts.

Q.143) Which of the following is not classified as a commercial bank?

[A] Public Sector Banks
[B] Foreign Banks
[C] Private Sector Banks
[D] Urban Cooperative Banks

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: All of the above except Urban Cooperative Banks are commercial banks in India.

Q.144) Under which Five Year Plan did the Government introduce an Agricultural Strategy which
gave rise to Green Revolution in India?
[A] Second Five Year Plan
[B] Third Five Year Plan
[C] Sixth Five Year Plan
[D] Seventh Five Year Plan

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Under the Third Five Year Plan the Government introduced an Agricultural Strategy
which gave rise to Green Revolution in India. Under the Third Plan the goal was to establish self
reliance and self generating Economy. But the earlier plans had shown that the Agricultural
production was the limiting factor so agriculture was given top priority.

Q.145) If we deduct grants to states for the creation of capital assets from revenue deficit, we arrive at
[A] Primary defecit
[B] Net fiscal deficit
[C] Budgetary deficit
[D] Effective revenue deficit

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 4th option is correct. Or If we deduct grants for creation of capital assets from revenue
deficit, we arrive at the concept of Effective revenue deficit.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.146) Which one of the following is the largest item of expenditure of the Government of India on
revenue account?
[A] Defence
[B] Subsidies
[C] Pensions
[D] Interest payments

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A revenue account includes all the revenue receipts also known as current receipts of
the government. These receipts include tax revenues and other revenues of the government. Revenue
expenditure includes expenses which are not used for the creation of assets or repayment of liabilities.
These basically include the current expenses of the government. For example, pensions, giving
subsidies, interest payments are instances of revenue expenditure. Out of these, interest payments
which include interest payments on government debt-including long-term bonds, long-term loans, and
other debt instruments--to domestic and foreign residents, is the most important.

Q.147) How much is the CPI inflation projection indicated by RBI for 2021-22?
[A] 2.2%
[B] 5.3%
[C] 6.6%
[D] 9.1%

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: RBI has retained CPI inflation projection at 5.3% for the year 2021-22

Q.148) Who is the Central monetary policy Authority in India?

[A] RBI
[B] Finance Ministry
[C] Parliament
[D] Prime Minister

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In India, the central monetary authority is the Reserve Bank of India

Q.149) The Minimum Support Price and Procurement prices for agriculture products are fixed by the
Government on the recommendation of
[A] Competition Commission of India
[B] National Development Council
[C] Planning Commission
[D] Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) came into existence in
January 1965.Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of
India to ensure agricultural products against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support
prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain
crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
(CAP).
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.150) Why was the World Bank established?

[A] To promote the International Trade
[B] To reconstruct the economies damaged during the Second World War
[C] To improve the adverse Balance of Payment situation of the nonmember countries
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The prime motive behind the establishment of the World Bank was to provide long-run
capital to member countries for economic reconstruction and development of the economies ruined by
world war II.

Q.151) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on
one side of (: :) and one word is given on another side (: :) while another word is to be found from the
given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the word of the given pair bear. Choose
the correct alternative.
Knife : Cut : : ? : Guard

[A] Dig
[B] Shield
[C] Oar
[D] Bore

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A ' Knife' is used to 'Cut' in the same way a 'Shield' is used to 'Guard'

Q.152) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on
one side of (: :) and one word is given on another side (: :) while another word is to be found from the
given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the word of the given pair bear. Choose
the correct alternative.
Cobbler : Leather : Tailor : ?

[A] Thread
[B] Cloth
[C] Shirt
[D] Draper

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: As 'Cobbler' use leather to mend 'shoes' similarly 'Tailor' uses clothes to make 'Dresses'.

Q.153) Three of the four numbers/words/letters of the following question belong to the same group or
class. Pick up the one does not belongs to that group.
[A] Tomato
[B] Patato
[C] Rice
[D] Rose

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: All others are food items.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.154) Three of the four numbers/words/letters of the following question belong to the same group or
class. Pick up the one does not belongs to that group.
[A] Sitar
[B] Flute
[C] Violin
[D] Santoor

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: All others are string insturments.

Q.155) D said, "A's father is the only brother of my sister' son." How is A's father related to D?
[A] Cousin
[B] Nephew
[C] Aunt
[D] Data inadequate

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Nephew

Q.156) If 'A x D' means 'A is the sister of D', 'A + D' means 'D is the daughter of A' and 'A ÷ d' means
'A is the mother of D', then how will 'N is the aunt of M' be denoted?
[A] M + L X N
[B] M ÷ L + N
[C] L X N ÷M
[D] N X L ÷ M

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: N X L ÷ M

Q.157) Going 50 m to the South of her house, Radhika turns left and goes another 20 m. Then,
turning to the North, she goes 30 m and then starts walking to her house. In which direction is she
walking now?
[A] North - West
[B] North
[C] South - East
[D] East

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Let us assume her house is situated at point A.
Draw a figure of movement of Radhika.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.158) There are 25 boys in horizontal row. Rahul was shifted by three places towards his right side
and he occupies the middle position in the row. What was his original position from the left end of the
row?
[A] 15th
[B] 16th
[C] 13th
[D] 10th

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: When Rahul was shifted by three places towards his right side, then he occupies the
middle position, i.e., 13th position.

Q.159) Surbhi ranks 18th in a class of 49 students. What is her rank from the last?
[A] 31
[B] 28
[C]35
[D] 37

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Surbhi's rank from last = (49 + 1 - 18) = 37
Q.160) Madhu and Shobha are good in Dramatics and Computer Science. Anjali and Madhu
are good in Computer Science and Physics. Anjali, Poonam and Nisha are good in Physics and
History. Nisha and Anjali are good in Physics and Mathematics. Poonam and Shobha are good
in Dramatics and History.
Who is good in History, Physics, Computer Science and Mathematics?

[A] Poonam
[B] Nisha
[C] Anjali
[D] Madhu

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Anjali is good in given four subjects.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.161) If the number indicates the number of persons, then how many youth graduates are there?

[A]20
[B]30
[C]40
[D] 50

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: As per the given above question , we can see that
There are 20 youth graduates .
Hence , required answer will be option A .

Q.162) In the following question, * stands for any of the mathematical signs at different places, which
are given as choices under each question. Select the choice with the correct sequence of signs which
when substituted makes the question as a correct equation.
24 * 4 * 5 * 4
[A] x + =
[B] = x +
[C] + x =
[D] = + x

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: From option (b),
24 = 4 x 5 + 4
⇒ 24 = 20 + 4 ⇒ 24 = 24

Q.163) Five children are standing in a row. O is third from M who is standing left of N, and P is on
the left of Q who is fourth from N. What is the position of P from right?
[A] Third
[B] First
[C] Fourth
[D] Second

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: According to question,
O is third from M who is standing left of N, and P is on the left of Q who is fourth from N.
As shown in figure , the position of P from right is Second .
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Sitting arrangement :-

Q.164) In a row of 15 children, when Raju was shifted three places towards right, he became 8th from
the right end. What was his earlier position from the left end of the row?
[A]14
[B]12
[C]6
[D] 5

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: According to question,we have
Raju was shifted three places towards right
Raju's position = 3 + 8th from the right end = 11th
Total number of children = 15
∴ Earlier position from left = Total number of children - Raju's position + 1
Earlier position from left = 15 – 11 + 1 = 5th

Q.165) In a row in East-West direction, Dipika is on 11th position from West and Sudesh is on 15th
position from East end. If they exchange their positions, Sudesh will be on 9th position from East end.
How many persons are there in the row?
[A]16
[B]19
[C]20
[D] 24

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: According to question,we have
Dipika's position = 11th from West
Sudesh's position = 15th from East end.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

After interchanging their positions ,

Sudesh's current position = 9th from East end.
∴ Total number of persons in the row = Dipika's position + Sudesh's current position - 1
Total number of persons in the row = 11 + 9 – 1
Hence ,total number of persons in the row = 20 – 1 = 19

Q.166) From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/
embedded.

[A] (a)
[B] (b)
[C] (c)
[D] (d)

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Correct Option: B

Q.167) A, B and C contract a work for Rs. 550. Together A and B are supposed to do 7/11 of the
work. The share of C should be ?
[A] 1831/3
[B] Rs. 200
[C] Rs. 300
[D] Rs. 400

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: C's share = Rs. 550 x (4/11) = Rs. 200

Q.168) 20 persons completed 1/3rd of the work in 12 days. How many more person are required to
finish the rest work in next 12 days?
[A] 20
[B]12
[C]18
[D] 42

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Work done = 1/3
Remaining work = 2/3
So for double work in same days we need double number of people i.e. 40.

So, 20 men will be increased.

 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.169) Rahim covers a certain distance in 14 hrs 40 min. He covers one half of the distance by train
at 60 km/hr. and rest half by road at 50 km/hr. The distance travelled by him is ?
[A] 960 km.
[B] 720 km.
[C] 1000 km.
[D] 800 km.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Let the total distance be y km.
Then, (y/2) x (1/60) + (y/2) x (1/50) = 44/3
⇒ y/120 + y/100 = 44/3
⇒ 5y + 6y = 8800
⇒ y = 800
∴ Required distance = 800km.

Q.170) The weight of a 13 m long iron rod is 23.4 kg. The weight of 6 m long of such rod wiil be ?
[A] 7.2 kg
[B] 12.4 kg
[C] 10.8 kg
[D] 18 kg

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Less length, less weigth
From question, 13 : 6 : : 23.4 : W
⇒ 13 x W = 6 x 23.4
∴ W = (6 x 23.4) /13 = 10.8 kg

Q.171) If 16% of 40% of a number is 8, the number is ?

[A] 200
[B] 225
[C]125
[D] 130

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Let the required number be N.
Then, (16/100) x (40/100) x N = 8
Then, N = (8 x 100 x 100) / (16 x 40)
= 125

Q.172) A single discount equivalent to three successive discounts of 5% , 10% , 20% is :

[A] 68.4 %
[B] 35 %
[C] 31.6 %
[D] 32 %

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Let the original price be 100 Rs.
So reduced price = 100 X 0.95 X 0.90 X 0.80 = 68.40

∴ Single discount = (100 — 68.4) % = 31.6%

 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.173) A certain sum at simple interest amounts to Rs 1040 in 3 Yr and to Rs 1360 in 7 yr.Then the
sum is ?
[A] Rs 750
[B] Rs 800
[C] Rs 900
[D] Rs 1000

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Simple Interest for 4 yr = Rs(1360 - 1040 ) = Rs 320
so, Simple Interest for 3 yr= Rs [(320/4) x 3]= Rs 240

Sum = Rs (1040-240)= Rs 800

Q.174) What will be the approximate compound interest on Rs. 101005 at 10% p.a. for 3 years ?
[A] Rs. 4500
[B] Rs. 3000
[C] Rs. 3300
[D] Rs. 3600

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Compound interest = P {(1 + r/100)t - 1}
= 10105 { (1 +10/100)3 - 1}
=10105 {(11/10)3 - 1}
=10105 {1331/1000 - 1}
=10105(331/1000)
= 3344.755
= Rs. 3300(app.)

Q.175) H.C.F . of 23, 32 and 15 is ?

[A] 23
[B] 32
[C]1
[D] 360

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Clearly, 1 is the highest common factor of 23, 32, and 15.

Q.176) Where is the Indian Air Force planning to establish the „Air Force Heritage Center‟?
[A] Chandigarh
[B] Ladakh
[C] Jammu & Kashmir
[D] New Delhi

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Chandigarh Administration has signed an Agreed In Principle (AIP) with the
Indian Air Force (IAF) to establish the Air Force Heritage Center in the Government Press
Building, Chandigarh.

Q.177) Name the organization that recently (in Sept‟ 21) signed a contract from the Indian Navy
for manufacture & supply of the Naval Anti Drone System (NADS) that was developed by
DRDO.
[A] Ordnance Factory Board
[B] Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
[C] National Informatics Center
[D] Bharat Electronics Limited
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Indian Navy signed a contract with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) for the
manufacture and supply of India‘s 1st indigenously developed Naval Anti Drone System (NADS),
developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), with both ‗hard kill‘
and ‗soft kill capabilities.

Q.178) Where was India's 1st Atal Community Innovation Center launched by Government of India‘s
‗Atal Innovation Mission‘ & NITI Aayog?
[A] Jaipur, Rajasthan
[B] Indore, Madhya Pradesh
[C] Kolkata, West Bengal
[D] Patna, Bihar

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: India‟s 1st Atal Community Innovation Center (ACIC) launched at Vivekananda
Global University(VGU), Jaipur, Jagatpura, Rajasthan.It will be set up by the Government of
India, Atal Innovation Mission. (AIM) and NITI Aayog.

Q.179) Name the world‟s largest & tallest observation wheel that is set to open in Dubai, United
Arab Emirates.
[A] Bin Dubai
[B] Ain Dubai
[C] Win Dubai
[D] Go Dubai

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The World‘s largest and tallest observation wheel named „Ain Dubai‘ is set
to be opened in Dubai, United Arab Emirates on 21st October 2021. The ‗Ain Dubai‘ is
located at Bluewaters Island.
i. The Ain Dubai is around 2 times taller than the London Eye, which will take the visitors
to a height of 250 meters.

Q.180) In October 2021,________ along with Oxford Poverty and Human Development
Initiative (OPHI) released „Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)‟ which highlighted
that___________ has a maximum number of people living in multidimensional poverty.

[A] United Nations Development Programme; India

[B] United Nations Development Programme; Nigeria
[C] United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization; India
[D] United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization; Nigeria

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A new analysis on global multidimensional poverty namely „Multidimensional
Poverty Index (MPI)‟ 2021 was released which was produced by the United Nations
Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative
(OPHI).
i. It Highlighted that India has a maximum number of people, 381 million, living in
multidimensional poverty.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.181) Which organization recently (in Oct‘ 21) recognised ‗Access to a Clean and Healthy
Environment‘ as a fundamental right?
[A] Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
[B] United Nation Human Rights Council (UNHRC)
[C] Global Alliance on Health and Pollution (GAHP)
[D] Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: High Commissioner for United Nation Human Rights
Council (UNHRC), Michelle Bachelet addresses the Human Rights Council and
recognised access to a clean and healthy environment as a fundamental right.
About United Nation Human Rights Council (UNHRC):
Headquarters – Geneva, Switzerland
President – Nazhat Shameem Khan

Q.182) Who recently (in Sept' 21) became the 1st Indian to win „International Lifetime
Achievement Award in Neurosurgery‟ from the American Association of Neurological Surgeons
(AANS)?
[A] Tahera Qutbuddin
[B] Jurgen Habermas
[C] Mizouni Bannani
[D] Basant Kumar Misra

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Odisha born neurosurgeon Basant Kumar Misra received the ‗‘International
Lifetime Achievement Award in Neurosurgery ‗‘ by American Association of Neurological
Surgeons (AANS).

Q.183) Which is the only Indian PSU to win the prestigious global “Association for Talent
Development (ATD) 2021 BEST Award”?
[A] Steel Authority of India Limited
[B] Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited
[C] Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
[D] Power Grid Corporation of India Limited

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Power Grid Corporation of India Limited, a Maharatna Central Public Sector
Undertaking under Ministry of Power won the prestigious global “Association for Talent
Development (ATD) 2021 BEST Award”

Q.184) Who recently (in Oct‘ 21) became the world's richest person as per the ‗Bloomberg
Billionaires Index‘?
[A] Elon Musk
[B] Jeff Bezos
[C] Bernard Arnault
[D] Mukesh Ambani

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: According to the Bloomberg Billionaires Index, Elon Musk, CEO of Tesla,
overtook Jeff Bezos, founder of Amazon to become the world‟s richest person.
i.Mukesh Ambani topped among Indians & ranked 11th globally. Gautam Adani followed him
& ranked 14th globally.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.185) Which Indian state/UT topped the Forbes India Report on the „Most Surveilled Cities in
the World‟ with 1,826.6 CCTV cameras per square mile?
[A] Chandigarh
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Delhi
[D] Pondicherry

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Delhi topped the Forbes India Report on the Most Surveilled Cities in the
World with 1,826.6 CCTV cameras per square mile. Delhi is followed by London with
1,138. Maharashtra has secured 18th spot with 157.4 cameras per sq miles.
Q.186) As per the 2021’s ‘Henley Passport Index (HPI)’, India was ranked at__________ place in
Q4 of 2021 while along with Singapore topped the ranking.

[A] 84; Japan

[B] 84; Germany
[C] 90; Japan
[D] 90; Germany

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: According to the ‗Henley Passport Index (HPI) 2021‘ released by Henley and
Partners, India‟s ranking has slipped by 6 places to 90th from 84th in Q4 2021 allowing its
passport holders to travel 58 countries without visa.
i. The index has been topped by Japan and Singapore as they allow visa-free travel to 192
countries to their passport holders.

Q.187) Which Space agency (in Aug‟21) launched consignments of Ants & Avocados to the
International Space Station?
[A] NASA
[B] SpaceX
[C] ISRO
[D] Blue Origin

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The SpaceX‟s Dragon spacecraft was launched from a recycled Falcon 9 rocket from
the NASA‘s (National Aeronautics and Space Administration) Kennedy Space Center on Merritt
Island, Florida carrying shipment of ants, avocados and a human-sized robotic arm toward the
International Space Station (ISS).

Q.188) Identify the country that recently (in Sept‘ 21) launched ‗Landsat 9‘ to monitor the Earth‘s
land surface?
[A] US
[B] Sweden
[C] Australia
[D] France

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The United States (US) satellite, Landsat 9, was launched to monitor the Earth‟s land
surface by taking the orbital track of Landsat 7, which will be decommissioned. It is a project
of NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration) and the US Geological
Survey (USGS) launched in 1972.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.189) Who won the 6th Noisiel International Chess Open, 2021 that was held in Noisiel,
France?
[A] Adhiban Baskaran
[B] Nihal Sarin
[C] Arjun Erigaisi
[D] P. Iniyan

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Indian GrandMaster (GM) Iniyan.P has won the 6th Noisiel International Chess Open,
2021 that was held at Noisiel, France.

Q.190) Who won 2021‘s ‗Ostrava Open women‘s doubles‘?

[A] Kaitlyn Christian & Erin Routliffe
[B] Barbora Krejcikova & Shuai Zhang
[C] Sania Mirza & Shuai Zhang
[D] Sania Mirza & Barbora Krejcikova

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: India‘s Sania Mirza and her Chinese partner Shuai Zhang won the 2021 Ostrava
Open women‟s doubles title in the women‘s doubles final of the Ostrava Open held in Ostrava,
Czech Republic.

Q.191) Who authored the book “The Murderer, The Monarch And The Fakir: A New
Investigation of Mahatma Gandhi‟s Assassination”?
[A] Appu Esthose Suresh
[B] Priyanka Kotamraju
[C] Manan Bhatt
[D] Both A & B

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Investigative journalist Appu Esthose Suresh and Gates Cambridge scholar Priyanka
Kotamraju co- authored a new book titled ―The Murderer, The Monarch And The Fakir: A New
Investigation of Mahatma Gandhi‟s Assassination‖.

Q.192) Who authored the book “Know Your Rights and Claim Them: Guide for Youth”?
[A] Twinkle Khanna
[B] Kalki Koechlin
[C] Angelina Jolie
[D] Sylvester Stallone

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The book ‗‗Know Your Rights and Claim Them: Guide for Youth‖ is written by the
Hollywood actress Angelina Jolie in collaboration with Human Right lawyer Geraldine Van Buren
and Amnesty International.

Q.193) Who authored the book titled ―Jungle Nama: a Story of the Sundarban‖?
[A] Amish Tripathi
[B] Roopa Pai
[C] Partha Mukherjee
[D] Amitav Ghosh

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: “Jungle Nama: a story of the Sundarban‖ authored by Jnanpith Awardee Amitav
Ghosh was released as an audiobook voiced by Ali Sethi, US-based Singer-writer. The illustrations of
the book were done by New York-based artist Salman Toor.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.194) In September 2021, Author Buddhadeb Guha passed away. He belongs to which state?
[A] Maharashtra
[B] Gujarat
[C] Karnataka
[D] West Bengal

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Eminent Bengali Author Buddhadeb Guha, a professional chartered
accountant and a noted classical singer and a proficient illustrator had passed away in Kolkata,
West Bengal.
i. He is well known as the creator of the fictional characters in Bengali literature – Rijuda.

Q.195) In September 2021, Bala V Balachandran passed away. He was the founder of which
Institute?
[A] Goa Institute of Management
[B] SP Jain Institute of Management and Research
[C] International Management Institute
[D] Great Lakes Institute of Management

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Padma Shri Professor Bala V Balachandran, the management guru and the founder
of Great Lakes Institute of Management (GLIM), who is fondly known as ―Uncle Bala‖ passed
away in Chicago, USA. He was born in Pudukkottai, Tamil Nadu.

Q.196) In 2021, India observed „National Nutrition Week‟ from___________ , & the theme of
„National Nutrition Week‘ 2021 is ______ .
[A] 1st to 7th September; Feeding smart right from start
[B] 1st to 7th September; Har Ghar Poshan Vyavahar
[C] 1st to 7th August; Feeding smart right from start
[D] 1st to 7th August; Har Ghar Poshan Vyavahar

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: National Nutrition Week‟ has been annually observed across India in the first
week of September
since 1982. It was observed from 1st to 7th September 2021.
i. The theme of National Nutrition Week 2021 is ‗feeding smart right from start‟.

Q.197) When was the first-ever „International Day for the people of African Descent‟ observed
by the United Nations across the globe?
[A] 29th August 2021
[B] 30th August 2021
[C] 31st August 2021
[D] 1st September 2021

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The UN‘s first-ever „International Day for the people of African Descent‟ was
observed across the globe on 31st August 2021. 31st August marks the end date of the first
International Convention of the Negro Peoples of the World 1920.
i. Costa Rica led the efforts to establish the International Day for People of African Descent.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-11
(Answers)

Q.198) ________ was the theme of 2021‘s ‗International Translation Day‘ which is annually
observed across the globe on_____________ by the UN.

[A] Translation and Indigenous Languages; 30th September

[B] United In Translation; 30th September
[C] Translation and Indigenous Languages; 29th September
[D] United In Translation; 29th September

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The UN‘s International Translation Day is annually observed across the globe
on September 30th as a tribute to the language professionals who play a major role in
connecting nations through dialogue, understanding and cooperation.
i. The theme of International Translation day 2021 is ―United In Translation‖

Q.199) Where was the new species of swamp eel named ‗Rakthamichthys Mumba‘ recently (in Oct‘
21) discovered?
[A] Ahmedabad, Gujarat
[B] Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
[C] Chandigarh, Punjab
[D] Mumbai, Maharashtra

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A new species of swamp eel was discovered in Mumbai, Maharashtra. It was named
as the Rakthamichthys Mumba (Mumbai blind eel). This is the fifth species from the genus
Rakthamicthys to be described from India.

Q.200) Where did researchers discover a new species of Gecko Named „Hemiphyllodactylus
Goensis‟ in September 2021?
[A] Chandigarh
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Kerala
[D] Goa

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Scientists of the Department of Zoology, Goa University & the Thackeray
Wildlife Foundation, Mumbai discovered a new species of slender gecko in Goa. It was given
a scientific name after Goa – ‗Hemiphyllodactylus goaensis‟.
i. It is the smallest known species of the Hemiphyllodactylus genus.