WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.1) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Florid
[A] Weak
[B] Pale
[C] Monotonous
[D] Ugly
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word Florid (Adjective) means: rosy; gaudy; ornated; red; having too much
decoration or detail. The word Pale (Adjective) means: light in colour; not strong or bright; having skin
that is almost white because of illness. Hence, the words florid and pale are antonymous.

Q.2) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Verity
[A] Fall
[B] Reverence
[C] Falsehood
[D] Rarity
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The word Verity (Noun) means: a belief or principle about life that is accepted as true:
truth. Hence, the words verity and falsehood are antonymous.

Q.3) Our country is spiritual country, theirs _________ religious.

[A] is
[B] are
[C] to
[D] have
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: When you are speaking of or for yourself, use "am." When you are talking about a
person or a thing (in the singular), use "is." When you are talking to a person, and when you are
talking about other people or things (in the plural), use "are." Here, it is singular as one is compared to
the other. Hence, is will be used.

Q.4) Our sir teaches Mathematics ________ English.

[A] across
[B] besides
[C] beside
[D] both
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Besides means in addition to or apart from. Beside means at the side of or next to.
Other two option i.e., across and both doesn't make sense if put in the sentence. The correct word will
be Besides.

Q.5) The hotel was not too expensive, ______

[A] was it?
[B] wasn't it ?
[C] is it?
[D] isn't it ?
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: was it? — is the correct Answer.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.6) Like humans, zoo animals must have a dentist ______their teeth.
[A] fill
[B] filled
[C] filling
[D] to be filled
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Must have a dentist filling is the correct use of tense.

Q.7) It was very kind of you to do the washing-up, but you

[A] didn't have to do
[B] hadn't to do
[C] havn't to do
[D] mustn't have done
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Correct use of tense in the given context

Q.8) He went _____sea alone.

[A] in
[B] to
[C] into
[D] on
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Alone supports the preposition ‘into’

Q.9) The ______of our civilization from an agricultural society to today's complex industrial
world was accompanied by war.
[A] cultivation
[B] adjustment
[C] route
[D] metamorphosis
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: It means a striking alteration in appearance, character etc.

Q.10) The court ______ cognizance of the criminal's words.

[A] took
[B] made
[C] gave
[D] allowed
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Idiom take cognizance or something means: to understand or consider something to
take notice or something.

Q.11) _________wins this civil war there will be little rejoicing at the victory.
[A] Whichever
[B] Whoever
[C] Whatever
[D] Wherever
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Whoever wins is the correct use
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.12) As he got older his belief in these principles did not ______.
[A] wither
[B] shake
[C] Whatever
[D] dither
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The word wither means: to become less or weaker.

Q.13) Everyone in this world is accountable to God _____his actions.

[A] about
[B] for
[C] to
[D] over
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Accountable to God for his actions is the correct use.

Q.14) Your father used to be the principal of this college

[A] did he ?
[B] does he ?
[C] didn't he ?
[D] doesn't he ?
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Didn't he? - is the correct Answer.

Q.15) In the following questions, our alternatives are given for the meaning of the given Idiom
Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
A bolt from the blue
[A] an unpleasant event
[B] an inexplicable event
[C] an unexpected event
[D] an unpleasant event
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Idiom 'a bolt from the blue' means: an event or a of news which is sudden and
unexpected; a complete

Q.16) In the following questions, our alternatives are given for the meaning of the given Idiom
Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
Cold comfort
[A] absurdity
[B] deception
[C] slight satisfaction
[D] foolish proposal
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: cold comfort (noun) means: the fact that something that would normally be good does
not make you happy because the whole situation is bad.

Q.17) In the following questions, our alternatives are given for the meaning of the given Idiom
Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
To be all at sea.
[A] a family voyage
[B] lost and confused
[C] in the middle of the ocean
[D] a string of islands
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Idiom to be all at sea means: confused and not knowing what to do.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.18 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best
expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
To kick up one’s heels
[A] to walk slowly
[B] have nothing to eat
[C] to march forward
[D] To enjoy oneself

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: To kick up one's heels: It is an idiomatic phrase which means To enjoy oneself
exuberantly; to frolic.
Example: They spent most of their Saturdays kicking up their heels at the various nightclubs around
town.

Q.19) Kiran asked me, "Did you see the Cricket match on television last night?"
[A] Kiran asked me whether I saw the Cricket match on television the earlier night.
[B] Kiran asked me whether I had seen the Cricket match on television the earlier night
[C] Kiran asked me did I see the Cricket match on television the last night.
[D] Kiran asked me whether I had seen the Cricket match on television the last night
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Kiran asked me whether I had seen the Cricket match on television the earlier night.

Q.20) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, chooses the one which can be
substituted for the given words/sentence.
An underhand device resorted to in order to justify misconduct
[A] Subterfuge
[B] Manoeuvre
[C] Stratagem
[D] Complicity
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Deceit used in order to achieve one's goal,

Q.21) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, chooses the one which can be
substituted for the given words/sentence.
Impossible to describe
[A] Miraculous
[B] Ineffable
[C] Stupendous
[D] Appalling
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Too extreme to be described in words,
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.22) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out Of
the four alternatives suggested, select the, One which best expresses the same sentence in
Passive/Active Voice.
They have made a film based on this novel.
[A] A film was based on this novel and made.
[B] A film have been made based on this novel
[C] A film, based on this novel, has been made
[D] A film has been based and made on this novel.
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: A film, based on this novel, has been made

Q.23) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out Of
the four alternatives suggested, select the, One which best expresses the same sentence in
Passive/Active Voice.
The people couldn't move me to the hospital and the doctor operated on me at home.
[A] I couldn't be moved to the hospital and was operated on at home by the doctor.
[B] I couldn't be moved to the hospital and I had to be operated on at home.
[C] I couldn't be moved to the hospital and I was operated at home by the doctor.
[D] I couldn't be moved to the hospital by the people and operated on at home.
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: I couldn't be moved to the hospital and Was operated on at home by the doctor.

Q.24) In the following questions, but of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the
meaning of the given word.
Luxuriant
[A] Luxury loving
[B] Lovely
[C] Rich
[D] Abundant
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The word Luxuriant (Adjective) means: growing thickly and strongly; rich in
something that is pleasant or beautiful; abundant.

Q.25) In the following questions, but of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the
meaning of the given word.
Cantankerous
[A] Cancerous
[B] Ferocious
[C] Quarrelsome
[D] Fissiparous
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The word Cantankerous (Adjective) means: bad tempered and always complaining.
Hence, the words cantankerous and quarrelsome are synonymous.

Q.26) Which among the following is the most unique

feature of Dholavira site of the Indus Valley Civilization?
[A] Its cities were horizontally divided in multiple parts
[B] Its cities were unevenly divided
[C] Its cities were divided into 3 parts
[D] None of these
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The most unique features of Dholavira, an Indus valley site in Gujarat, is its division.
While other Indus Valley sites were divided into two parts viz. Citadel and Lower Town, Dholavira
was divided into three divisions.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.27) Which among the following places have given the earliest
evidence of agriculture in Indian subcontinent?
[A] Pratapgarh
[B] Mehrgarh
[C] Quetta
[D] Kalat
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The earliest evidence of Agriculture in Indian subcontinent is found at Mehrgarh,
which is located in Baluchistan state of Pakistan.

Q.28) Which of the following term is used

for a “school” of learning and teaching the branches of Vedas?
[A] Shakha
[B] Charna
[C] Ratha
[D] Yajna
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Charana refers to the Guru-pupil lineage or school for teaching and learning of Vedas
in ancient India.

Q.29) Which of the following is not a correct feature of Rig-Vedic economy?

[A] Primarily pastoral economy
[B] Cultivation of multiple cereals
[C] Abundance of wage earners
[D] Sedentary agriculture society
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: There are no evidences of wage earners in agriculture in Rig-Vedic Economy.

Q.30) Who among the following was the 23RD Jain Tirthankara ?
[A] Nemi Natha
[B] Mahavira
[C] Parshvanath
[D] Malinath
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Parshvanath was the twenty third Jain Tirthankara. He was a Kshatriya and son of
Ashvasena, King of Banaras (Varanasi).

Q.31) In context with the Mahayana Buddhism faith, the future Buddha is ?
[A] Basistha Muni
[B] Krakuchanda
[C] Maitreya
[D] Kanak Muni
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Maitreya is a future Buddha. . According to scriptures, Maitreya will be a successor of
the historic Sakyamuni Buddha, who in the Buddhist tradition is to appear on Earth, achieve complete
enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma.

Q.32) The Mahasamghika School arose at which among the following places?
[A] Bodha Gaya
[B] Rajagriha
[C] Sravasti
[D] Vaisali
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Also known as Mahasamghika, Mahasanghika, or Mahasanghika. »Great monastic
community. »One of first schools of Nikaya Buddhism »Result of (the first schism at) the Second
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Council at Vaishali where they were outvoted and seceded. »The teachings of this school concerning
the nature of Buddhas and Bodhisattvas.

Q.33) Which of the following is not a correct observation as mentioned by Megasthenes about
India?
[A] There is abundant gold, silver, copper and iron in India
[B] There is a well established caste system in India
[C] There are frequent famines in India
[D] Dionysus has invaded India
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The option C is not correct. Indians did not face famines because of abundant rains and
assured at least one of two seasons of crops; and abundance of fruits and edible roots.

Q.34) Rulers of which of the following dynasties maintained diplomatic

relations with distant countries such as Syria in the West ?
[A] Maurya
[B] Gupta
[C] Pallava
[D] Chola
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Mauryan Emperor Bindusara had friendly relations with the Greek
King Antiochos-I of Syria. Deimachos was a Syrian Ambassador who came in the court of Bindusara.
Mauryan Emperor Ashoka the Great: In his rock edict 13th mentions the names of 5 Hellenic kings–
Antiochus II of Syria, Ptolemy II of Egypt, Antigonus of Messedonia, Magas of Syrina, Alexander of
Epirus .He sent missionaries to all of them. This shows that Mauryan dynasty maintained the diplomatic
relations with distant countries like Syria in the West.

Q.35) Who among the following was the ruler of Kanchi during the time of Samudragupta ?
[A] Hastivarman
[B] Mantaraja
[C] Nilaraja
[D] Vishnugopa
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: King Vishnugopa (Pallava dynasty ) of Kanchi is mentioned in the list of rulers of the
South defeated by Samudra Gupta. It is mentioned in the Allahabad Pillar inscription of Samudra
Gupta.

Q.36) Parnadatta was appointed the Provincial Governor of Saurashtra by______?

[A] Chandragupta Maurya
[B] Rudradaman
[C] Chandragupta II
[D] Skandagupta
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Skandgupta’s Junagarh Inscription: It states that Skandagupta appointed Parnadatta as
goptri (governor) of Surashtra (Saurashtra).
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.37) Which of the following Chola kings was the first to capture Maldives?
[A] Rajaraja Chola I
[B] Rajendra I
[C] Harihar
[D] Rajendra II
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Rajaraja Chola I laid the foundation for the growth of the Chola kingdom into an
empire, by
conquering the kingdoms of southern India and the Chola Empire expanded as far as Sri Lanka in th
e south, and Kalinga (Orissa) in the northeast. He conquered Sri Lanka, the Maldives, Sumatra and
other places in Malay Peninsula. The naval conquest of the ‘old islands of the sea numbering 12,0
00’, the Maldives marked one of the conquests of Rajaraja. Rajaraja I built
a strong navy with the aim of controlling the sea.

Q.38) Which one of the following method of revenue assessment is related to the Vijayanagara
Empire?
[A] Chauth
[B] Ryotwari
[C] Rae Rekho
[D] Sardeshmukhi

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: 'Sardeshmukhi' is an additional 10% tax levied upon the collected 'Chauth'. The reasons
for the additional tax was due to the King claiming hereditary rights upon the tax collection. This
revenue assessment is related to the Vijayanagara Empire.

Q.39) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

[A] Diwan-i-Bandagan - Firoz Shah Tughlaq
[B] Diwan-i-Mustakharaj - Balban
[C] Diwan-i-Kohi – Alauddin Khalji
[D] Diwan-i-Arz – Muhammad Tughlaq

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Diwan-i-Bandagan or the Department of Slaves was created by Feroz Shah Tughlaq.

Q.40) Diwan-i-Arz department was associated with?

[A] Royal correspondence
[B] Foreign
[C] Defence
[D] Finance
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Diwan-i-arz was the Ministry of Defence headed by Arz-i Mamlik. He was responsible
for organization and maintenance of the royal army. The review of the army and branding of the
horses was done by Arz-i-mamlik.

Q.41) Who among the following defeated Babur in the Battle of Sar-e-Pul?
[A] Abdullah Khan Uzbek
[B] Shaibani Khan
[C] Ubaydullah Khan
[D] Juni Beg
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The battle of Sar-e-Pul (April-May 1501) was an early defeat suffered by Babur after
he captured the city of Samarkand. The city then fell to the Uzbek leader Muhammad Shaibani Khan
in 1500, but later in the same year Babur managed to capture the city after a surprise attack made with
only 200 men.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.42) The first battle of Panipat was fought between -

[A] Babur and Rana Sanga
[B] Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
[C] Humayun and Ibrahim Lodi
[D] Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: First battle of Panipat was fought, on 21 April 1526 between the invading forces of
Babur and the Lodi Kingdom. This was one of the earliest artillery used in a battle in the Indian
subcontinent.

Q.43) The policy or 'security cell’ is related with

[A] Warren Hastings
[B] Lord Dalhousie
[C] Lord Caning
[D] Lord Hastings
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The policy of ‘Security Cell” is related to Warren Hastings and Wellesley. Warren
Hastings fought with Mysore and Marathas to achieve status equivalent to other Indian states. During
this time the company tried to form buffer state (also known as Ring Fence) with an aim to protect its
state from Afghans and Marathas. Thus, they agreed to protect Awadh on the condition that the
Nawab of Awadh will bear the expenses. The main aim of Wellesley was to enforce Indian states to
rely on his army power.

Q.44) Ring Fence' policy is associated with

[A] Henry Lawrence
[B] Dalhousie
[C] Warren Hastings
[D] Lord Hastings
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The correct answer is Warren Hastings. The aim of this policy was to defend the
neighbor's frontiers in order to safeguard the British territories. Thus, buffer zones were created to
defend the Company's frontiers.

Q.45) The first Governor-General of India was

[A] Lord William Bentinck
[B] Warren Hastings
[C] Lord Mayo
[D] Lord Cornwallis
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: The first Governor-General of India was a British statesman and soldier, Lord
William Bentick.
Lord William Bentick was the last Governor-General of Bengal.
The office with the title of Governor-General of India came into existence after the Saint Helena
Act 1833 (or Government of India Act 1833).
The first Governor of Bengal (Presidency of Fort William) was Warren Hastings.
Lord Cornwallis introduced the “Zamindari System” and is known as the “Father of Civil
Services in India”.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.46) At the time of the establishment of Asiatic Society in Calcutta, who was the Governor-
General of Bengal?
[A] Lord Cornwallis
[B] Lord warren Hastings
[C] Lord Wellesley
[D] Lord Bentinck
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: The society was founded shortly after his arrival. The Asiatic Society had the support
and encouragement of Warren Hastings, the governor-general (1772–85) of Bengal, though he
declined its presidency.

Q.47) The roots of the 1857 revolt lay in

[A] Blatantly discriminatory policies
[B] Exploitative land revenue policy
[C] The policy of greased cartridges
[D] All of the above
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The British ruled over India for about two centuries. They started interference in the
religious matters and other social practices of Hindus and Muslims and it infuriated the Indians and
their anger resulted in the armed revolt of 1857. The roots of the 1857 revolt lay in Blatantly
discriminatory policies, exploitative land revenue policy and the policy of greased cartridges.

Q.48) Whose statement is that - "If any government director ignores the elements, then it will
surely have to be liable to the public for this"?
[A] Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
[B] Mahatma Gandhi
[C] Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
[D] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: The quote If any government director ignores the elements, then it will surely have
to be liable to the public for this was said by Dr B. R. Ambedkar.

Q.49) Who said "Heavy Industry is a Synonym of development"?

[A] Jawahar lal Nehru
[B] Sardar Vallabh bhai Patel
[C] Prof Mahalanobis
[D] Doctor Bhim Rao Ambedkar
Correct Answer:A
Explanation: Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru said, "Heavy Industry is a Synonym of development".

Q.50) “Sanitation is more important than independence” — Who said this?

[A] C Rajagopalachari
[B] Mahatma Gandhi
[C] Jawaharlal Nehru
[D] Subhash Chandra Bose
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi said “Sanitation is more important than political
independence,” while leading a non-violent movement for India’s independence in 1947.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.51) Census of India was started for the first-time during rule of –
[A] Lord Mayo
[B] Lord Lytton
[C] Lord Ripon
[D] Lord Curzon

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: While it has been undertaken every 10 years, beginning in 1872 under British Viceroy
Lord Mayo, the first complete census was taken in 1881.

Q.52) An important event of Lord Dufferin's tenure as Viceroy was –

[A] establishment of Ramakrishna Mission
[B] establishment of Muslim League in Dhaka
[C] establishment of Indian National Congress
[D] beginning of the first Census

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Establishment of Indian National Congress. Indian National
Congress, a major event of the tenure of Viceroy Lord Dufferin.

Q.53) Who among the following had not participated in the Second Round Table Conference?
[A] Mahadev Desai
[B] Pyarelal Nayyar
[C] Madan Mohan Malaviya
[D] Jawaharlal Nehru

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Gandhi represented the Indian National Congress and Sarojini Naidu represented Indian
women. Jawaharlal Nehru did not participate in the Second Round Table Conference.

Q.54) The resolution of total independence of India passed was during the tenure of –
[A] Lord Chelmsford
[B] Lord Wavell
[C] Lord Irwin
[D] Lord Willington

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In the Lahore session of 1929 which was presided by Jawaharlal Nehru, the congress
passed a Poorna Swarajya Resolution for complete independence. During this time the Governor-
general of India was Lord Irwin.

Q.55) Sir Michael O'Dwyer was shot dead on 13th March, 1940 in London by -
[A] Madan Lal Dhingra
[B] M.P.T. Acharya
[C] V. D. Savarkar
[D] Udham Singh

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: O'Dwyer, aged 75, was shot dead at a joint meeting of the East India Association and
the Central Asian Society (now Royal Society for Asian Affairs) in Caxton Hall in Westminster,
London, on 13 March 1940, by an Indian revolutionary, Udham Singh, in retaliation for the
massacre in Amritsar.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.56) Who was the Prime Minister of England when the Montague-Chelmsford Act was passed
in 1919?
[A] Lloyd George
[B] George Hamilton
[C] Sir Samuel Hoare
[D] Lord Salisbury

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lloyd George was the Prime Minister of England when the Montague-Chelmsford Act
was passed in 1919.

Q.57) First Indian elected to the British House of Commons was Dada-bhai Naoroji who
contested on the ticket of –
[A] Liberal Party
[B] Labour Party
[C] Conservative Party
[D] Communist Party

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In 1892, Naroji was elected to the British Parliament on the leberal ticket from Central
Firsbury. Naoroji moved to Britain once again and continued his political involvement. Elected for the
Liberal Party in Finsbury Central at the 1892 general election, he was the first British Indian MP.

Q.58) Who is known as father of Dyarchy?

[A] Lord Clive
[B] Hector Munaro
[C] Sir Leonil Cartis
[D] Lord Macaulay

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Sir Lionel Curtis.

 Sir Leonil Curtis was a British officer and writer

 Sir Lionel Curtis is known as the father of Dyarchy.
 Dyarchy was an important democratic constitutional reform for British India.

Q.59) 'Hindustan Socialist Republican Army' was founded in the year –

[A] 1919
[B] 1927
[C] 1916
[D] 1928

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: ‘Hindustan Socialist Republican Army’ was founded in 1928. Hindustan Socialist
Republican Association (HSRA) was a revolutionary organisation, also known as the Hindustan
Socialist Republican Army, established at Feroz Shah Kotla in New Delhi by Chandrasekhar Azad,
Ashfaqulla Khan, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee.
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Q.60) Who of the following was the President of ‘All Parties’ Conference held in February
1928?
[A] Motilal Neharu
[B] Dr. M. A. Ansari
[C] Subhaschandra Bose
[D] M.K Gandhi

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: M. A. Ansari was the President of 'All Parties' Conference which was held in February
1928. Dr. Mukhtar Ahmed Ansari was an Indian nationalist and political leader, and former president
of the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.

Q.61) In which of the following year Chhattisgarh became a division of the central provinces?
[A] 1860
[B] 1862
[C] 1863
[D] 1865

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Chhattisgarh became a division of the central provinces in 1862.

Q.62) Who among the following was the President of the Central legislative Assembly in August
1925?
[A] C. R. Das
[B] Motilal Nehru
[C] M. R. Jayakar
[D] Vitthal Bhai Patel

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Vitthal Bhai Patel was an Indian legislator and political leader, co-founder of the
Swaraj Party and elder brother of Sardar Patel in 1923 he was elected to the Central Legislative
Assembly, a Chamber of elected and appointed Indian and British representatives with limited
legislative powers and in 1925 became the Assembly's president, or speaker.

Q.63) The Ghadar Party was formed in

[A] Afghanistan
[B] Burma
[C] England
[D] United States of America

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Ghadar Party was formed in United states of America at Nov. 1, 1913 by Lala Hardayal
and Sohan Singh Bhakna

Q.64) The institution of local self-government got a fillip during the Viceroyalty of
[A] Lord Mayo
[B] Lord Ripon
[C] Lord Dufferin
[D] Lord Dufferin

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The most important work of the period of Lord Ripon was the government at proposal
for local government. He wanted to develop Municipal Boards of the country. According to him the
political education of the country will begin from it. He is also called as the father of local self-
governance.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.65) Who among the following led the agitation against the Partition of Bengal (1905)?
[A] Surendranath Banerjee
[B] C. R. Das
[C] Ashutosh Mukherjee
[D] Rabindra nath Tagore

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Surendranath Banerjee and Krishna Kumar Mitra led the agitation against Bengal
partition in 1905.

Q.66) A Provisional Government of India with Raja Mahendra Pratap as its President was
established during the First World War in
[A] Afghanistan
[B] Germany
[C] Singapore
[D] Turkey

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In 1915 Raja Mahendra Pratap established the first Provisional Goverment of India in
Afghanistan.
He worked as the president while Maulana Barkatullah as Prime Minister, Maulana Ubaidullah
Sindhi as Home Minister.

Q.67) The National Leader who was elected President (Speaker) of the Central Legislative
Assembly in 1925 was
[A] Motilal Nehru
[B] C.R. Das
[C] Vallabhbhai Patel
[D] M.N Roy

Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Vithalbhai Patel was the political leader and co-founder of Swaraj Party with
Chinaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru. He was elected to Central Legislative Assembly in 1925.

Q.68) The Mountbatten Plan became the basis for

[A] Continuity of British rule
[B] Transfer of power
[C] Partition of the country
[D] Solution of communal problems

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Mountbatten Plan became the basis for the Partition of the country. Lord
Mountbatten was the last Viceroy of India and was assigned the task of a speedy transfer of power by
the then British Prime Minister Clement Atlee.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.69) After the formation of ministries in the provinces in 1937, Congress rule lasted for
[A] 28 months
[B] 29 months
[C] 30 months
[D] 31 months

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: As per Government of India Act 1935, elections were held in provinces and congress
emerged victorious. The party remain in the power for nearly 28 months between 1937 to 1939.

Q.70) When were High Courts established in Bombay, Madras and Calcutta?
[A] 1861
[B] 1851
[C] 1871
[D] 1881

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Bombay, Madras, and Calcutta High Courts were established in 1861 by the Indian
High Courts Act of 1861.

Q.71) Who of the following had pleaded from the side of Indian National Army officers in their
Red Fort trial?
[A] C. R. Das
[B] Motilal Nehru
[C] M. A. Jinnah
[D] Sir T. B. Sapru

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru led the defense counsel in Red Fort Trail.

Q.72) Who among the following had resigned from the Viceroy's Executive Council protesting
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
[A] Rabindranath Tagore
[B] Madan Mohan Malviya
[C] Shankaran Nair
[D] All three an above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Former president of Indian National Congress (Amravati, 1897) and a member of
Viceroy's Executive Council, resigned from the council following Jalianwala Bagh massacre on April
13, 1919.

Q.73) In which of his following books did Mahatma Gandhi call British Parliament as sterile
and prostitute?
[A] Sarvodaya or Universal dawn
[B] An Autobiography or the story of my experiments with truth
[C] Hind Swaraj
[D] The Story of a Satyagrahi

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi in his book Hind Swaraj called the British Parliament as sterile and
prostitute. Hind Swaraj was written by Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi in 1909.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.74) The task of drafting Congress Inquiry Committee report on Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
was entrusted to
[A] Jawaharlal Nehru
[B] Mahatma Gandhi
[C] C. R. Das
[D] Fazlul Haq

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi was entrusted the task of drafting Congress Inquiry Committee report
on Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre,
took place on 13 April 1919.

Q.75) Along with Mahatma Gandhi who amongst the following Muslims did lift the bier of Bal
Gangadhar Tilak?
[A] Shaukat Ali
[B] Muhammad Ali
[C] Maulana A.K. Azad
[D] M. A. Ansari

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Among others who shouldered the bier by turn were Mahatma Gandhi, Lala Lajpat Rai,
Shaukat Ali.

Q.76) India is situated between which of the following coordinates?

[A] 37° 17'53" North and 8° 6'28" South
[B] 36° 17'53" North and 8° 6'28" West
[C] 37° 18'53" North and 8° 6'28" East
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: India is situated north of the equator between 8° 04' to 37° 06' North latitude and 68°07'
to 97°25' East longitude. None of the option is correct, hence option (D) is correct.

Q.77) What is the approximate number of total villages in India?

[A] 5 lakh
[B] 6,49,481
[C] 8 lakh
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: As per census 2011, the total number of villages in India is 6 lakh 40 thousand 8
hundred and 67 (6,40,867).
Hence option (D) is correct.

Q.78) The latitude that divides India into almost two equal parts is -
[A] 23° 30' South
[B] 33° 30' South
[C] 0°
[D] 23° 30' North

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer (23°30' N) is an imaginary line that divides India into almost two
equal parts.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.79) The time difference between the western most village of Gujarat and the eastern most
village of Arunachal Pradesh is -
[A] 1 hour
[B] 2 hours
[C] 3 hours
[D] ½ hours

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Gujarat extends 68°16' to 74°48' East Longitude and Arunachal Pradesh extends from
91°30' to 97°30' East Longitude. The longitudinal difference is 97°37'-68°4' = 29°26'. The difference
between each longitude is 4 min thus 29°26' x 4 = 118 minutes (approximately 2 hours).

Q.80) Which of the following Longitude is known as Standard Meridian in India?

[A] 87°30’E
[B] 85°30’E
[C] 84°30’E
[D] 82°30’E

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 82°30' East longitude is defined as the Standard Meridian of India. It passes through
Naini, Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh.

Q.81) In which state of India, the maximum area is irrigated by Tubewell?

[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Bihar
[C] gujrat
[D] Uttar Pradesh

Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Uttar Pradesh has the largest area irrigated by tubewell followed by Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh,
Punjab, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Bihar. Tubewell irrigation is favourable in regions having sufficient
groundwater and fertile soil to make irrigation economic.

Q.82) Who is regarded as the pioneer of Irrigation works in South India?

[A] Sir Arthur Cotton
[B] Col Barid Smith
[C] Lt. Blaine
[D] Col Robert Smith

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Sir Arthur Cotton is regarded as pioneer of irrigation works in South India. He was a
British Engineer who led some irrigation canal project in the Deccan peninsula and landmarks are
named after him in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Q.83) The Ganga river is an example of -

[A] Antecedent Drainage System
[B] Consequent Drainage
[C] Superimposed Drainage System
[D] Subsequent Drainage System

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Antecedent rivers are those that existed before the upheaval of Himalayas. Antecedent
river is a river which follows their own path, without changing their course and pattern. Example:
Ganga, Satluj, Indus.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.84) In Bangladesh, River Ganga is known as -

[A] Meghana
[B] Padma
[C] Bhagirithi
[D] Mahaganga

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: After entering Bangladesh, River Ganga is known as Padma which is joined by Jamuna
river, largest distributary of the River Brahmaputra and Meghna proceeding as Padma Meghna river
system in Bangladesh.

Q.85) Along which of the following rivers bank, famous temple of Badrinath is located?
[A] Alaknanda
[B] Bhagirithi
[C] Mandakini
[D] Ganga

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The sacred Badrinath Temple, which is also the part of major Chardham circuit is
situated along the banks of River Alaknanda at an elevation of 3,133 m in the state of Uttarakhand.

Q.86) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the State of

[A] Kerala
[B] Karnataka
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] Andhra Paradesh

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Mudumalai National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary, now also declared a Tiger
Reserve, lies on the northwestern side of the Nilgiri Hills (Blue Mountains), in Nilgiri District, about
150 km (93 mi) north-west of Coimbatore in the westernmost part of Tamil Nadu, on the interstate
boundaries with Karnataka and Kerala states in South India. Mudumalai, which means ‘first hills’, is
one of the first wildlife sanctuaries established in India.

Q.87) In terms of area, which one of the following Indian States has the largest coverage of
forests?
[A] Arunachal Pradesh
[B] Chhattisgarh
[C] Madhya Pradesh
[D] Orissa

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The forest cover includes all lands which have a tree canopy density of more than ten
percent when projected vertically on the horizontal ground, with a minimum areal extent of one
hectare. Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest area in the country. Forest area of the state constitutes
31 per cent of the total area of the state. The forest area in the state constitutes about 12.44 per cent of
the total forest area of India.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.88) The famous ‘Gir’ forests are located in

[A] Mysore
[B] Kashmir
[C] Gujarat
[D] Kerala

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Gir Forest National Park or Sasan Gir is a forest and wildlife sanctuary in Gujarat. It is
the sole home of the pure Asiatic Lions (Panthera leo persica) and is considered to be one of the most
important protected areas in Asia due to its supported species. The ecosystem of Gir, with its diverse
flora and fauna, is protected as a result of the efforts of the government forest department, wildlife
activists and NGOs. The forest area of Gir and its lions were declared as “protected” in the early 1900s
by the then Nawab of the princely state of Junagadh.

Q.89) The term Monsoon is derived from -

[A] Arabic
[B] Spanish
[C] Hindi
[D] English

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Monsoon has been derived from the Arabic word Mausim which means season. It is a
seasonal reversal of winds of Indian Ocean and Southern Asia blowing from the Southwest in summer
and from Northeast in winter.

Q.90) The river which rises in the Kamarpet hill in Chhotanagpur Plateau of Bihar and called
"The River of Sorrow" is
[A] Mahanadi
[B] Damodar
[C] Krishna
[D] Godavari

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The river which rises in the Kamarpet hill in Chhotanagpur Plateau of Bihar and called
"The River of Sorrow" is Damodar. Damodar River was earlier known as the "River of Sorrows" as it
used to flood many areas of Bardhaman, Hooghly,Howrah and Medinipur districts. Even now the
floods sometimes affect the lower Damodar Valley, but the havoc it wreaked in earlier years is now a
matter of history.

Q.91) Regur is another name for -

[A] Res Soil
[B] Black Soil
[C] Alluvial Soil
[D] Latertic Soil

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Black soil or Regur soil is also called Black cotton soil as its colour is black and is
suitable for cotton cultivation. Black soil is rich in calcium, potassium and magnesium but has poor
nitrogen content. Crops like tobacco, chilli, oilseeds, Jawar, ragi and maize grow well in it.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.92) First Agriculture University in India was established in the year?

[A] 1955
[B] 1960
[C] 1961
[D] 1970

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The first state agriculture university of India was G.B. Pant University of Agriculture
and Technology, established in Pantnagar (then in Uttar Pradesh, now in Uttarakhand) in the year
1960.

Q.93) Stainless steel is an alloy of –

[A] Iron and Copper
[B] Iron and Zinc
[C] Iron and Chromium
[D] Iron and Graphite

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Stainless steel also known as Inox steel contains Iron, Chromium and Nickel. It is most
notable for its corrosive resistance which increases with increasing chromium content.

Q.94) Which of the following state has the longest network of National Highway in India?
[A] Andhra Pradesh
[B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] Rajasthan
[D] Uttar Prades

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh has the longest network of National Highways in India.

Q.95) As per 2011 census, the State in India with the largest rural population ?
[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Punjab
[D] Uttar Pradesh

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh has the largest rural population of 155.11 million (18.62% of the
country's rural population) whereas Maharashtra has the highest urban population of 50.83 million
(13.48% of country's urban population) in the country.

Q.96) Coochbehar was a part of which kingdom of Assam?

[A] Kamarupa
[B] Kamata
[C] Bhuyan
[D] Khen

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: - The name Cooch Behar – derived – name Koch or Rajbanshi tribes
- The word – „Behar‟ – derived from Sanskrit – „vihara‟
- Coochbehar – formed part of – Kamrupa kingdom of Assam
- At that time – Koch tribe – became very powerful – established Koch dynasty
The Koch dynasty ruled parts of eastern Indian subcontinent in present-day Assam and Bengal.
Established by Biswa Singha, the dynasty came to power in the erstwhile Kamata kingdom which
had emerged from the decaying Kamarupa kingdom.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.97) Which river flows to the western side of the town Coochbehar?
[A] Teesta
[B] Torsa
[C] Jaldhaka
[D] Kaljani

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Torsa has been the - „sorrow of Coochbehar‟
The river enters Coochbehar from - north between taluks Latabari in
Mathabhanga and Bakshibos – Putimari in Coochbeharsadar

Q.98) Coochbehar was a part of which kingdom of Assam?

[A] Tenth
[B] Fourth
[C] Second
[D] Fifth

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: According to the provisional results of the 2011 national census, West Bengal is
the fourth-most-populous state in India with a population of 91,347,736 (7.55 per cent of India's
population).

Q.99) Singalila National Park located in which of the districts of West Bengal?
[A] Darjeeling
[B] Alipurduar
[C] Cooch Bihar
[D] Uttar Dinajpur

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Singalila National Park is a national park of India located on the Singalila Ridge at an
altitude of more than 7000 feet above sea level, in the Darjeeling district of West Bengal.

Q.100) The planning of DVC was designed following which of the foreign planning
project?
[A] AFC
[B] TVA
[C] DDC
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: DVC was planning for TVA foreign project.

Q.101) The branch of Biology dealing with the study of cells is known as
[A] Cytology
[B] pedology
[C] Psychology
[D] Physiology

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Cytology is the branch of biology which deals with the study of structure, function and
chemistry of the cell.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.102) Epithelial tissues are

[A] protective
[B] single layered
[C] tightly packed and form a continuous sheet
[D] All of these

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Epithelial tissue cells are tightly packed and form a continuous sheet, They have a
small amount of cementing material between them and almost no intercellular spaces. It is separated
from underlying tissue by an extracellular fibrous basement membrane.

Q.103) What are the main functions of blood?

[A] Transport
[B] Protection
[C] Regulation
[D] All the above

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The three main functions of blood are transport, protection and regulation.

Q.104) Balanced diet

[A] contains all nutrients in proper amounts
[B] is proteinaceous diet
[C] contains vitamins and minerals
[D] contains vitamins only

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The diet which contains all the nutrients, i.e., carbohydrates, fats,
proteins, vitamins and minerals in proper amount, along with water is called balanced diet. A
balanced diet is required for proper growth and maintenance of the body.

Q.105) Nutrient is
[A] a component of excretory system
[B] a substance used in an organism’s metabolism
[C] an essential component of digestive system
[D] a microelement of food

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Nutrient is a substance used in an organism’s metabolism.
Nutrients are essential component of an organism growth and required in an optimum amount, less
than or greater than which cause diseases

Q.106) Reproduction is
[A] production of new offspring
[B] continuation of race of species
[C] a biological process
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Reproduction is the biological process by which new offspring (individual organisms)
are produced from their ‘parents’. It is a fundamental feature of all known life. Each individual
organism exist as the result of reproduction. The two main types of reproduction are sexual and
asexual. In plants, asexual reproduction is called as vegetative reproduction.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.107) Respiration is an reaction.

[A] oxidation
[B] reduction
[C] redox
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Respiration is the process of making energy available to organism by oxidation of
organic molecules. it is of two types

Aerobic Respiration It is the respiration, which uses oxygen as an oxidant. Here release of energy is
much higher than in aerobic respiration.

Anaerobic Respiration It is the respiration, which does not use oxygen to breakdown respiratory
substances. It often occurs in muscles where lactic acid is formed as a product. Lactic acid
accumulates in muscles which is the major cause of muscular cramp. It is also occur in yeast where
ethanol and CO2 are formed.

Q.108) Which of the following is incorrect regarding the endocrine glands?

[A] They are known as ductless glands
[B] Their secretions are called hormones
[C] Hormones are secreted through ducts in the bloodstream
[D] These glands lack ducts

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Endocrine glands lack ducts and are hence, known as ductless glands. Their secretions
are called hormones. As these glands do not have ducts, therefore they release their secretions directly
into the bloodstream.

Q.109) Metabolic activities that produce wastes are removed by the process of
[A] gaseous; respiration
[B] gaseous; photosynthesis
[C] nitrogenous; respiration
[D] nitrogenous; excretion

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Excretion is a process in which metabolic waste is eliminated from an organism. In
vertebrates this is primarily carried out by the lungs, kidneys, and skin. This is in contrast with
secretion, where the substance may have specific tasks after leaving the cell.

Q.110) A physical quantity is one Which

[A] cannot be measured
[B] can be measured
[C] is a scalar quantity
[D] is a vector quantity

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A physical quantity is a property of a material or system that can be quantified by
measurement. A physical quantity can be expressed as the combination of a numerical value and a
unit. For example, the physical quantity mass can be quantified as n kg, where n is the numerical
value and kg is the unit.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.111) Name a mechanical property associate with solid states of matter.

[A] Floatation
[B] Capillarity
[C] Atmospheric pressure
[D] Elasticity

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Mechanical Properties of solids describe characteristics such as their strength and
resistance to deformation. ... Examples of mechanical properties are elasticity, plasticity, strength,
abrasion, hardness, ductility, brittleness, malleability and toughness.

Q.112) A body is said to be in motion, it its position changes continuously w.r.t. a fixed reference
point called
[A] Positive
[B] negative
[C] origin
[D] axis

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A body is said to be in motion when it changes its position with reference to a fixed
reference point called the origin. Uniform Motion is a motion in which equal distance is covered in
equal time intervals.

Q.113) The product of the magnitude of force applied on a body and the distance by which the
body is moved because of the force applied, is called
[A] motion
[B] energy
[C] work
[D] power

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Work is defined as the force which is required to cause a displacement in the object. It
is the product of force acting and the displacement caused in the direction of the force. The unit
of work is Newton meter of Joule.

Q.114) An object when thrown upwards reaches a certain height and then falls downward. Give
the reason behind it.
[A] Centripetal force
[B] Gravitational force of the earth
[C] Mass of the object
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Gravitational force of the earth acts on every object having mass. When an
object is thrown upwards the gravitational force of the earth acts against the velocity of the
object and pulls the object downwards, i.e, towards itself. thus the object returns back towards the
earth.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.115) A body is said to be source of light. if it light

[A] illuminates
[B] reflects
[C] proceted
[D] disperses

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The objects that we see can be placed into one of two categories: luminous objects
and illuminated objects. Luminous objects are objects that generate their own
light. Illuminated objects are objects that are capable of reflecting light to our eyes.

Q.116) What type of waves are Sound Waves?

[A] Latitudinal waves
[B] Longitudinal waves
[C] Latitudinal mechanical waves
[D] None of the Above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sound Waves are longitudinal mechanical waves. Sound waves in air (and any fluid
medium) are longitudinal waves because particles of the medium through which the sound is
transported vibrate parallel to the direction that the sound wave moves.

Q.117) Firstly Thales, a Greek philosopher, rubbed a glass rod with a cat's skin, then the small
paper pieces were attracted by both of them. This is called
[A] electrostatic charge
[B] magnetism
[C] Both a and b
[D] neutral

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Electrostatic charges. Static electricity or an electrostatic charge is a deficiency or
excess of electrons which occurs on ungrounded or insulating surfaces. It is produced by
triboelectric charges, charges that are generated by friction between two surfaces

Q.118) The nucleus of an atom

[A] has very bigger size and shares negligible mass of the atom
[B] has negligible size and shares most of the mass of the atom
[C] has negligible size and shares negligible mass of the atom
[D] occupies most of the space and shares most of mass of the atom

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The nucleus of an atom has negligible size and shares most of the mass of the
atom

Q.119) The acid is a substance which

[A] accepts (gains) proton
[B] donates electron
[C] provides (donates) proton
[D] donates OH- ion

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An acid is a substance that donates protons (in the Brønsted-Lowry definition)
or accepts a pair of valence electrons to form a bond (in the Lewis definition). A base is
a substance that can accept protons or donate a pair of valence electrons to form a bond. Bases can be
thought of as the chemical opposite of acids.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.120) The first metal used by man was

[A] gold
[B] silver
[C] copper
[D] iron

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Copper was first used by man over 10,000 years ago. A copper pendant discovered in
what is now northern Iraq has been dated about 8700 B.C. For nearly five millennia copper was the
only metal known to man, and thus had all the metal applications.

Q.121) Tetrahedral nature of bonding in carbon atom was first shown by

[A] Kekule
[B] Lewis
[C] Kolbe
[D] van't Hoff and Le-Bel

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Tetrahedral nature of bonding in carbon atom was first shown by van't Hoff and
Le-Bel .

Q.122) What happens when a chemical bond is

[A] Energy is always absorbed
[B] Energy is always released
[C] More energy is released than is absorbed
[D] Energy is neither released nor absorbed

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The attractive force which holds various constituents (atoms! molecules/ions) of a
substance together is called a chemical bond. Bond formation is always exothermic (energy is
released) while bond breaking is always endothermic (energy is absorbed). It is because, whenever
two atoms approach each other, they experience two types of forces

(i) Force of attraction between the nucleons of one and electrons of other.
(ii) Force of repulsion between two nuclei or between electrons of two atoms.

Attractive forces always decrease energy and stabilise the system while repulsive forces
increase energy and destabilise the system. Generally, for bond formation, attractive force must be
larger than repulsive force.

Hence net energy of the system must be decreased, i. e., excess energy must be liberated.
Hence, bond formation is exothermic. On the other hand, while breaking any bond, we need to supply
energy equal to bond dissociation energy, i. e., system absorbs energy, hence is endothermic.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.123) In which group and period does hydrogen exist?

[A] Group 2 and period 1
[B] Group 1 and period 2
[C] Group 2 and period 2
[D] Group 1 and period 1

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Although hydrogen is placed at the top of Group 1A in most versions of the periodic
table, it is very different from the other members of the alkali metal group. In its elemental form,
hydrogen is a colorless, odorless, extremely flammable gas at room temperature, consisting of
diatomic molecules of H2.

Q.124) The early attempt to classify elements as metals and non-metals was made by
[A] Mendeleev
[B] Newlands
[C] Lavoisier
[D] Henry Moseley

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The earliest attempt to classify the elements was in 1789, when Antoine
Lavoisier grouped the elements based on their properties into gases, non-metals and metals.

Q.125) Which of the following is not a chemical reaction?

[A] Burning of paper
[B] Digestion of food
[C] Conversion of water into steam
[D] Burning of coal

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: One way to think about physical changes is that they are reversible since they do not
affect a substance's chemical identity. These include changes in size, shape, texture or state. A good
example of physical change is ice melting into water.

Q.126) In the context of recruitment of civil servants during British rule in India, the open
competition for selection and recruitment of civil servants was started by:
[A] Charter Act of 1833
[B] Charter Act of 1853
[C] Indian Council Act of 1861
[D]Government of India Act 1858

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Charter Act of 1853 introduced the open competition for selection and recruitment of
civil servants. The higher posts in civil service was thus thrown open to the Indians also.

Q.127) The Constituent Assembly of India was set up under the provision of
[A] Indian Independence Act, 1947
[B] Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
[C] August offer 1940
[D] Cripps mission 1942

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly of India came into existence as per the provisions of Cabinet
Mission Plan of May 1946. Its task was to formulate constitution/s for facilitating appropriate transfer
of sovereign power from British authorities to Indian hands.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.128) Which of the following Constitutional Amendment gave precedence to Directive

Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights?
[A] 42nd Constitutional Amendment
[B] 44th Constitutional Amendment
[C] 52nd Constitutional Amendment
[D] 62nd Constitutional Amendment

Correct Answer:A
Explanation: TheFortys-2ndAmendmentofConstitution of India, enacted in 1976, attempted to
reduce power of Indian Supreme Court & High Courts to pronounce upon constitutional validity of
laws. The Amendment established beyond doubt supremacy of Parliament over other wings of
Government; gave Directive Principles precedence over Fundamental Rights; enumerated for 1st time
a set of ten Fundamental Duties.

Q.129) The inspiration of 'Liberty, Equality and Fraternity' was derived from:
[A] American revolution
[B] French revolution
[C] Russian revolution
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble were borrowed from the French
revolution. The French Revolution refers to the period that began with the Estates General of 1789
and ended in November 1799 with the formation of the French Consulate. Many of its ideas are
considered fundamental principles of Western liberal democracy.

Q.130) In 1953, the Government created the first linguistic state in India, this state was
[A] Gujarat
[B] Andhra Pradesh
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] Bombay

Correct Answer:B
Explanation: In October, 1953, the Government of India was forced to create the first linguistic state,
known as Andhra state, by separating the Telugu speaking areas from the Madras state. This followed
a prolonged popular agitation and the death of Potti Sriramulu, a Congress person of standing, after a
56-day hunger strike for the cause.

Q.131) The concept of single citizenship has been borrowed from which country?
[A] England
[B] U.S.A
[C] Canada
[D] France

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Indian Constitution borrowed such features as parliamentary form of government,
introduction of Speaker & his role, concept of single citizenship, Rule of law, procedure of
lawmaking, etc from England. The Indian citizenship& nationality law & Constitution of India
provide single citizenship for all of India.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.132) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth is
mentioned in which Article?
[A] Article 12
[B] Article 15
[C] Article 17
[D] Article 16

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: ARTICLE 15 has the provision of Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion,
race, caste, sex, and place of birth. According to Article 15, the State shall not discriminate against
any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth or any of them.

Q.133) Which Articles of Indian Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights?

[A] Articles 12-35
[B] Articles 12-50
[C] Articles 13-35
[D] Articles 15-35

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Articles 12-35 of Indian Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights. Right to Life,
Right to Dignity, Right to Education etc. all come under one of the six main fundamental rights.

Q.134) There were how many Fundamental Duties in original Indian Constitution?
[A] Nine
[B] Ten
[C] Eleven
[D] None of these

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Fundamental Duties were not the part of original Constitution which was adopted in
1950. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to Constitution by 42nd Amendment in 1976,
upon recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee that was constituted by government earlier that
year. Originally ten in number, Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by 86th Amendment in
2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided
opportunities for education amid ages of six & fourteen years.

Q.135) The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy has been borrowed from which
country?
[A] Ireland
[B] USA
[C] Japan
[D] Australia

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with Directive Principles of State Policies.
Our Constitution makers borrowed this concept from Irish Constitution (Article 45); it has its genesis
in Spanish Constitution. To understand the meaning of the directive principle of state policy, we need
to understand the meaning of each word i.e. Directive + Principle + State + Policy which suggest that
these are the principles that direct the state when it makes policies for its people. These DPSPs act as
a guideline for the state and are needed to be taken into consideration while coming up with any new
law but a citizen cannot compel the state to follow DPSPs.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.136) The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in which Part of Indian
Constitution?
[A] Pan VI
[B] Part IV
[C] Part III
[D] Part VII

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution
from Articles 36 to 51. The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution
of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.

Q.137) Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the Uniform Civil
Code?
[A] Article 43
[B] Article 44
[C] Article 45
[D] Article 46

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Uniform Civil Code (Article 44) has been a point of debate for decades with a view to
replace personal laws based on the scriptures and customs of each major religious community in India
with a common set of rules for every citizen. It expects the state to apply these rules while formulating
policies for the country.

Q.138) In which part of the Indian Constitution are centre-state relations mentioned?
[A] Part IV (Article 227 to 234)
[B] Part XI (Article 245 to 255)
[C] Part X (Article 234 to 240)
[D] Part XII (Article 265 to 277)

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The centre-state relations are divided into three parts, which are as follows:
(A) Legislative Relations (Article 245-255)
(B) Administrative Relations (Article 256-263)
(C) Financial Relations (Article 268-293)

Q.139) Balance of Payments (BoP) refers to —

[A] Transactions in the flow of capitals
[B] Transactions relating only to export and import
[C] Transaction relating to receipts and payment of invisibles
[D] Systematic record of all economic transactions a between residents and the rest of the world in a
certain period

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Balance of Payment is a systematic record of all economic transactions between
residents of a country and the rest of the world in a certain period.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.140) The term Mixed Economy denoted existence of both

[A] Rural and Urban Sector
[B] Private and Public Sector
[C] Heavy and Small Industry
[D] Developed and Under Developed Sector

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The concept of Mixed Economy evolved from the ideas of Keynes. The concept of
Mixed Economy means that both private enterprises and public enterprises coexist. However the
condition attached is that the private enterprises must work for serving the society rather than having
only self interest. Further the private enterprises may not be allowed in every sector of the Economy
like area of national importance.
There are 3 types of Economic System
a. Capitalism: The Private ownership of the means of production (Capital) and a Market Economy
for co-ordination as Corporate Capitalism.
b. Mixed Economy Example- American System, Japanese System, North Model, Social
Corporation etc

c. Socialism- In this Economic subtend two co-ordinating mechanism (Planning and Market)
subtend into planned Socialist and Market Socialist System.

Q.141) Which of the following leads to Inflation?

[A] Increase in money supply
[B] Increase in money supply and fall in production
[C] Fall of production
[D] Decrease in money supply and fall in production

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Inflation means there is a sustained increase in the price level. The main Causes of
inflation are either excess aggregate demand (economic growth being too fast) or cost push factor
(supply side factor or fallin production).

Q.142) Who issues metallic coins in India?

[A] RBI
[B] Government of India
[C] Banks and financial institutions
[D] Any of the above can issue it

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Government of India issues metallic coins in India. Coins, paper currenc y
and deposits are the components of money supply in India

Q.143) Which of the following functions are being performed by the Reserve Bank of India?
[A] Regulation of Banks in India
[B] Regulation of Foreign Direct Investment in India
[C] Foreign Currency Management in India
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: All of the above are functions of Reserve Bank of India.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.144) During which Five Year Plan the price level in Indian Economy showed a decline?
[A] Plan I
[B] Plan II
[C] Plan IV
[D] Annual Plans

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: During First Five Year Plan (1951-56) the price level in Indian Economy showed a
decline because of rapid agricultural development and measures to control inflation as there was
disequilibrium due to Second World War and partition of Economy.

Q.145) Fiscal Policy in India is laid down and executed by -

[A] Ministry of Finance
[B] ASSOCHAM
[C] Reserve Bank of India
[D] FICCI

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Fiscal policy is an estimate of taxation and spending by the government for
stabilization or growth of the economy.
The fiscal policy is formulated by the Ministry of Finance.
The objective of fiscal policy is to maintain the condition of full employment level, economic stability
and to stabilize the rate of growth.

Q.146) Economic survey is published by which of them?

[A] Ministry of Finance
[B] RBI
[C] CSO
[D] Indian Statistical Institute

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Department of Economic Affairs, Finance Ministry presents the economic survey.
It is prepared under the guidance of chief economic adviser. It is a flagship annual document of
Ministry of Finance which reviews the developments in the Indian economy over the past financial
year, summarizes the performance on major development programmes and highlights the policy
initiatives of the government and the prospects of the economy in the short to medium term.

Q.147) In the context of Indian economy, Open Market operations refers to?
[A] Borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
[B] Lending by commercial banks to Industry and Trade
[C] Purchase & sale of government securities by the RBI
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Open Market Operations (OMO) is the sale and purchase of the government securities
by RBI.OMO is one of the monetary policy tools that RBI uses to smoothen liquidity conditions
through the year and regulate money supply in the market.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.148) The main objective of the Monetary policy in India is?

[A] Growth and stability
[B] Reduce poverty and achieve stability
[C] Overall Monetary Stability
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The main objective of the Monetary policy in India is rapid economic growth and to
maintain price stability. The other objectives of the monetary policy are exchange rate stability, to
maintain Balance of payment equilibrium, to generate employment, equal income distribution etc.

Q.149) In India Agriculture Income is calculated by

[A] Output Method
[B] Input Method
[C] Expenditure Method
[D] Commodity Flow Method

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In India Agriculture Forestry and Logging Fishing Mining and Quarrying registered
manufacturing and construction units are included in Category A. The Output Method is applied to
Category A. The Value Added by this category is found by subtracting the value of raw materials and
other inputs from the aggregate of commodity wise output.
Expenditure Method: This method measure National Income sum total of final expenditure incurred
by household business firm Government and Foreigners.
Commodity Flow Method- This method is used to estimate purchase of commodity by intermediate or
final users. This method generally begins with an estimate of the total supply of a commodity
available for domestic users.

Q.150) Which of the following Countries is NOT a member of the World Trade Organization?
[A] Israel
[B] Iran
[C] Guinea
[D] Norway

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Iran has an observer status at the World Trade Organization (WTO) since 2005. The
United States has consistently blocked Iran's bid to join the WTO.All other are the member of the of
WTO Israel is a member since 21 april Guinea is a member since 25 october 1995And Norway has
been a member Since 1 january 1995.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.151) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given
words on one side of (: :) and one word is given on another side (: :) while another word is to be
found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the word of the
given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative.
King : Throne : : Judge : ?

[A] Lawyer
[B] Bench
[C] Court
[D] Trial

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: As 'king' is related to 'Judge' in the same way 'Throne' is related to 'Bench'.

Q.152) Three of the four numbers/words/letters of the following question belong to the same group or
class. Pick up the one does not belongs to that group.
[A] 531
[B] 243
[C] 413
[D] 612

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Except 413, the sum of the digits of each number = 9

Q.153) Three of the four numbers/words/letters of the following question belong to the same group or
class. Pick up the one does not belongs to that group.
[A] Orange, Apple, Guava
[B] Brinjal, Pomegranate, Wheat
[C] Rice, Pulses, Cotton
[D] Cumin Corriander, Millet

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Option (a) having correct group because all are juicy fruits.

Q.154) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on
one side of (: :) and one word is given on another side (: :) while another word is to be found from the
given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the word of the given pair bear. Choose
the correct alternative.
Lion : Roar : : Ass : ?

[A] Bark
[B] Trumpet
[C] Howl
[D] Bray

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'Roar' is the sound produced by 'Lion' similarly 'Bray' is the sound produced by 'Ass'.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.155) Pointing toward a girl in the picture, Sunita said, "She is the mother of Renu, whose father is
my son ." How is Sunita related to that girl in the picture?
[A] Mother
[B] Aunt
[C] Cousin
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sunita is Mother - in - law

Q.156) Nandini is the only daughter of Madan's sister Sangita's brother. How is Nandani related to
Madan?
[A] Daughter
[B] Niece
[C] Cousin
[D] Niece or Dughter

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: either Madan's daughter or Daughter of madan's daughter i.e Niece

Q.157) I am facing east. I turn 100° in the clockwise direction and then 145° in the anti clock wise
direction. Which direction am I facing now?
[A] East
[B] North-east
[C] North
[D] South-west

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: North east direction.

Q.158) Meena correctly remember that her father's birthday is after 18th May but before 22nd May.
Her brother correctly remembers that their father's birthday is before 24th May but after 20th May .
On which date in May was definitely their father's birthday ?
[A] 20th
[B] 19th
[C] 18th
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Days by Menna, 19th, 20th or 21st May.
Days by her brother, 21st , 22nd or 23rd May.
Clearly, 21st may is common in both the groups and hence it is the required day.

Q.159) The following question, consist of two words each that have a certain relationship to each
other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship
as the original pair of words:
Mango : Fruit :: Potato : ?
[A] Fruit
[B] Stem
[C] Flower
[D] Root

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Biologically, mango is a fruit, while potato is a modified stem.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.160) Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship
among pen, pencils, stationery?

[A]

[B]

[C]

[D]

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: From the given above question , we have
Pen is different from Pencil. But both are stationery items.
Therefore , option ( C ) is correct answer .
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.161) If '+' means 'minus', '-' means 'multiply', '÷' means 'plus' and 'x' means 'divide', then 10 x 5 ÷ 3
-2+3=?
[A] 5
[B] 53/3
[C] 21
[D] 36

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: ? = 10 x 5 ÷ 3 - 2 + 3
= 10 ÷ 5 + 3 x 2 - 3
Apply the rule BODMAS
Do things in Brackets First
(Powers, Roots) before Multiply, Divide, Add or Subtract.
Multiply or Divide before you Add or Subtract
= 10 ÷ 5 + 3 x 2 - 3
=2+3x2-3
Addition
=2+6-3
Subtraction
=8-3=5

Q.162) In a gathering seven members are sitting in a row. 'C' is sitting left to 'B' but on the right to 'D'
. 'A' is sitting right to 'B' . 'F' is sitting right to 'E' but left to 'D' . 'H' is sitting left to 'E' . Find the
person sitting in the middle.
[A] C
[B] D
[C] E
[D] F

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: According to the question,
arranging the seven members in row,
HEFDCBA
Hence, D is sitting in the middle.

Q.163) Five boys A, B, C, D, and E are standing row, D is on the right of E. B is on the left of E, but
on the right of A, B is on the left of C, who is standing on the extreme right . Who is standing in the
middle?
[A] B
[B] C
[C] D
[D] E

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The sequence of boys in a queue is
A→B→E→D→C
(left end)........(right end)
So, E is in the middle
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.164) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing towards North. C is sitting between
A and E, D is not at the end, B is sitting at immediate right of E, F is not at the right end, but D is
sitting at 3rd left of E. Which of the following is sitting to the left of D?
[A] A
[B] F
[C] E
[D] C

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: According to the question, arrangement of A, B, C, D, E, and F is as follows
FDACEB
Thus, F is sitting to the left of D.

Q.165) Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden ?

[A]

[B]

[C]
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

[D]

Correct Answer: D
Explanation:

Q.166) Pramod started a business with Rs. 40000. After 4 months Vikas also joined him with Rs.
60000. If at the end of the year, the profit is Rs. 16000, what is the share of Vikas in the profit ?
[A] Rs. 8000
[B] Rs. 4000
[C] Rs. 12000
[D] Rs. 10000

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Ratio between the investment of Pramod and Vikas = 40000 x 12 : 60000 x 8
= 480000 : 480000 = 1 : 1
Total profit = Rs. 16000
share of Vikas in profit = 16000/2 = Rs. 8,000
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.167) A man, on tour travel first 160 km, at 64 km/hr. and the next 160km at 80km/hr. the
average speed for the first 320 km. of the tour is ?
[A] 35.55km/hr.
[B] 71.11km/hr.
[C] 36km/hr.
[D] 72km/hr.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Average speed = 2t1 x t2/( t1 + t2)
= (2x64x80)/(64+80)km
= (2 x 64 x 80 ) / 144 km/hr.
=71.11km/hr.

Q.168) If a train runs at 5/6 of its original speed, then it reaches the station 10 min late. Then
find out the usual time taken by train to cover the distance.
[A] 40 min
[B] 45 min
[C] 50 min
[D] 55 min

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Let the actual speed of train be x and actual time taken be y
Then new speed of train = 5x/6
Therefore, new time taken = 6y/5 (as distance is same in both case)
Given, 6y/5 - y = 1/6 hr , therefore actual time = 50 min

Q.169) Total number of students in a class is 95. if the total number of girls in the class is 45,
then the ratio of total number if boys to total number girls is
[A] 9:10
[B] 7:8
[C] 10:9
[D] 9:11

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Let the total number of boys in the class be x.
Then, according to the question,
x + 45 = 95
x = 95 - 45 = 50
Hence, the required ratio of total number of boys to total number of girls = B:G = 50:45 = 10:9

Q.170) The selling price and cost price of an article differs by 480. What is the selling price in
case the profit percentage is 20%?
[A] 2400
[B] 2880
[C] 2600
[D] 2000

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: SP - CP = 480
1.2x - x = 480
⇒0.2x = 480
⇒x = 2400

So selling price SP = 2400 + 480 = 2880

 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.171) If cost of 15 eggs be 75 rupees, then find out the cost of 5 dozen eggs.
[A] 300
[B] 400
[C] 500
[D] 600

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Cost of 15 eggs = 75 rupees
Cost of 1 egg = 75/15 = 5 rupees,
Cost of 5 dozens, i.e. 5 x 12 = 60 x 5 = 300

Q.172) The sum required to earn a monthly interest of Rs 400 at 10 % per annum at simple
interest is
[A] Rs 2000
[B] Rs 12000
[C] Rs 24000
[D] Rs 48000

Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Total interest needed in a year = Rs 400 × 12
= Rs 4800
Principal = (100 × SI)/R × T
where, R = Rate
T = Time
SI= Simple Interest

Q.173) The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on a certain sum
at 5% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 1.50. The sum is ?
[A] Rs. 600
[B] Rs. 500
[C] Rs. 400
[D] Rs. 300

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Let the sum be Rs . 100 then
S.I. = Rs.(100 x 5 x 2/100)= Rs. 10
C.I = Rs. [{100 x (1 + 5/100)2} - 100] = Rs. 41/4

∴ Difference between C.I and S.I = Rs. (41/4 - 10) = Re. 0.25
⇒ 0.25 : 150 : : 100 : P
∴ P = (1.50 x 100) / 0.25 = Rs. 600

Q.174) What is the greatest number that divides 263, 935 and 1383 leaving a remainder of 7 in
each case ?
[A] 30
[B] 31
[C] 32
[D] 35

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The required greatest number is the HCF of 263-7, 935-7, 1383-7
i.e. 256, 928 and 1376 HCF = 32
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.175) The average of 8, 9, 12, 13, 15, 9 is

[A] 11
[B] 6
[C] 16
[D] 18

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Average = (8 + 9 + 12 + 13 + 15 + 9)/6
= 66 / 6
= 11

Q.176) When was the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment held?
[A] 1988
[B] 1986
[C] 1999
[D] 1972

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: UNEP was founded in June 1972 as a result of the Stockholm Conference on the
Human Environment.

Q.177) Which state government recently (in Jan 2021), launched „DHARA‟, an anti-land mafia
software?
[A] Odisha
[B] Karnataka
[C] Maharashtra
[D] Uttar Pradesh

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: With an aim to eliminate land mafia, the Uttar Pradesh government has developed an
anti-land mafia software called ‗DHARA‘. The software will help in prevention of duplication of
revenue records, which will prevent manipulation of records by officers. Government plot numbers
can be viewed spatially by stamp officials so wrong benamas can be prevented at the initial stage
itself.

Q.178) Which organisation developed the “Union Budget Mobile App” that will provide
information‟s about the Union Budget?
[A] NITI Aayog
[B] Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (CDAC)
[C] National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO)
[D] National Informatics Centre (NIC)

Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
On 23rd January 2021, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman launched the ―Union Budget
Mobile App‖ which will provide access to Union Budget Information to all the stakeholders. For the
first time in History the Budget will be delivered in paperless form. The app was developed by the
National Informatics Centre (NIC) under the guidance of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA).
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.179) Which was the National Migration Support Portal, that was launched by Tribal Affairs
Minister Arjun Munda in January 2021?
[A] Shramshakti
[B] Srijan
[C] ASEEM portal
[D] E-Sampada

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: On January 22, 2021, Union Minister Arjun Munda, Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA)
virtually launched a National Migration Support Portal namely ―Shramshakti‖ from New
Delhi. Originally, the launch programme was held at Panjim, Goa. The focus of the portal is the
smooth formulation of state and national level programs for migrant workers. He also released a
booklet titled ‗Margadarshika‘. The portal will also help the government for linking the migrant
population with the existing Welfare Scheme under Atam Nirbhar Bharat.

Q.180) Which region is a home to 428 species of birds, as per the recent (as of Jan 2021) data of
Zoological Survey of India (ZSI)?
[A] Dr. Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary
[B] Sundarbans
[C] Naga Hills
[D] Eastern Himalayas

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Indian Sundarbans, which is part of the largest mangrove forest in the world, is home to
428 species of birds, a recent publication of the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI). The Indian
Sundarbans, which covers 4,200 sq km, comprises of the Sundarban Tiger Reserve of 2,585 sq km is
the home to about 96 Royal Bengal Tigers (as per last census in 2020) is also a world heritage site and
a Ramsar Site.

Q.181) Where was the new species of Fruit Fly named „Euphranta Siruvani‟ recently got
discovered?
[A] Eastern Ghats
[B] Aravalli Range
[C] Eastern Himalayas
[D] Western Ghats
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A New Species of Fruit Fly has been named ‗Euphranta Siruvani‘ after it was
discovered in Siruvani, Coimbatore district of Tamil Nadu. The discovery has been published in the
Zootaxa Journal, which has been authored by K.J. David and K. Sachin from National Bureau of
Agricultural Insect Resources, Bengaluru. The fruit fly ‗Euphranta Siruvani‘ belongs to family
Tephritidae and was identified by researchers from a non-forest area near Siruvani. Siruvani is an
ecological hotspot in the Western Ghats.

Q.182) The year 2020 was recorded as the 8th warmest year in India as per the „Statement on
Climate of India during 2020‟ report, which organisation released the report?
[A] World Meteorological Organization
[B] Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology
[C] National Weather Service
[D] India Meteorological Department
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The ‗Statement on Climate of India during 2020‘ issued by Climate Research and
Services (CRS) of India Meteorological Department (IMD), Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government
of India mentioned that 2020 was the 8th warmest year in India since nation-wide records commenced
in 1901. But, this is substantially low than the highest warming observed over India during 2016
(+0.71⁰C).
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.183) Which National Park recently got notified from central government for 0-1 Km area
around its boundary declared as Eco-Sensitive Zone, on January, 2021?
[A] Mathikettan Shola National Park
[B] Mouling National Park
[C] Saddle Peak National Park
[D] Nagarhole National Park

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: On January 1, 2021 The central government notified a zero to 1 km area around the
boundary of Mathikettan Shola National Park in Idukki district, Kerala as an Eco-sensitive zone. The
area of the Eco-Sensitive Zone is 17.5 square kilometers. The notification was issued by the Union
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. This will conserve the uniqueness of Shola
forest in Mathikettan and its importance as an elephant corridor.

Q.184) India Martyrs‟ Day is annually observed on 30th January. Which Indian leader‟s death
anniversary coincides with Martyrs‟ Day?
[A] Bhagat Singh
[B] Chandra Shekhar Azad
[C] Subhas Chandra Bose
[D] Mahatma Gandhi

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Martyrs‘ Day which is also
known as ―Shaheed Diwas‖ is annually observed across India on 30th January to pay respect to the
martyrs who lost their lives during India‘s freedom struggle. The day will also mark the death
anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. The 30th January 2021 marks the 73rd Martyrs Day or

Shaheed Diwas. As a tribute to the Father of Nation Mahatma Gandhi, the film
divisions streamed ―Gandhi Rediscovered‖, a
27 minutes‘ documentary in Both Hindi and English, which discuss the scope of Swadeshi

Q.185) When was the United Nations(UN)‟s International Day of Commemoration in memory
of the victims of the Holocaust observed annually?
[A] 24th January
[B] 26th January
[C] 27th January
[D] 25th January

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: United Nations(UN)‘s International Day of Commemoration in memory of the victims
of the Holocaust (International Holocaust Remembrance Day) is annually observed across the globe
on 27th January to commemorate the victims of the Tragedy of Holocaust during the World War
II. The theme of 2021 International Holocaust Remembrance Day is ―Facing the Aftermath:
Recovery and Reconstitution after the Holocaust‖.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.186) What was the theme of 2021‟s National Voters Day that was annually observed on
January 25th?
[A] Empowering Young and Future Voters
[B] Making Our Voters Empowered, Vigilant, Safe and Informed
[C] Accessible Elections
[D] No Voter to be left behind

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The National Voters Day is annually celebrated across India on 25th January to spread
awareness among the voters and to promote informed participation in the electoral process by
Election Commission of India (ECI). The theme of the National Voters Day
2021 is ―Making Our Voters Empowered, Vigilant, Safe and Informed‖. President
Ram Nath Kovind launched ―Hello Voters‖, the web radio of ECI which can be accessed
through the ECI‘s website. He also launched the e-EPIC (Elector Photo Identity Card) programme and
distributed e-EPCI.

Q.187) Which state celebrates 'Missionary Day' annually on January 11?

[A] Kerala
[B] Assam
[C] Nagaland
[D] Mizoram

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'Missionary Day', anniversary of the arrival of two Welsh Christian missionaries was
today observed and celebrated across the Christian-dominated north eastern state of Mizoram. They
arrived in the then Lushai country (Mizoram) by boat from Assam on January 11, 1894 and spread
Christianity.

Q.188) What was the theme of 16th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, that was celebrated on January 9,
2021?
[A] 100 years of Gandhi‘s return from South Africa
[B] Apna Bharat, Apna Gaurav
[C] Redefining engagement with the Indian diaspora
[D] Contributing to Aatmanirbhar Bharat

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) 2021 was celebrated on January 9, 2021.The Day is
celebrated once in every two years. During this day, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated PBD
Convention 2021 virtually in New Delhi, a flagship event of the Ministry of External Affairs to
strengthen the participation of the overseas Indian community. H.E. President Santokhi of Suriname
was the chief guest of the PBD Convention 2021. Theme of the 16th PBD Convention
2021– ―Contributing to Aatmanirbhar Bharat‖.

Q.189) What is the maximum permissible limit for contactless payments?

[A] Rs. 2000
[B] Rs. 10,000
[C] Rs. 50,000
[D] Rs. 5000

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India has hiked the limit for contactless payments from ₹2,000
to ₹5,000 effective from January 1, 2021
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.190) On April 1, 2020, Allahabad Bank was amalgamated with .

[A] Indian Bank
[B] Canara Bank
[C] Bank of Baroda
[D] Syndicate Bank

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: On April 1, 2020, Allahabad Bank was amalgamated with Indian Bank.

Q.191) Which state govt. launched „Mo-Chhatua App‟ for real time monitoring & efficient
supply chain management of Take Home Ration?
[A] Rajasthan
[B] Odisha
[C] Gujarat
[D] Chhattisgarh

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In February 2021, Odisha CM Naveen Patnaik launched several online services of the
Department of
Women & Child Development (WCD) & Mission Shakti (MS) under the 5T Initiatives.
• „Mo-Chhatua App‟ – For Real time monitoring & efficient supply chain management of Take
Home Ration (Chhatua).
• „e-Kalika‟ – For Real-time monitoring of functioning creches (Children 0-3 years) track
infrastructure and health & nutrition of every child.

• „Mo Sishu Portal‟ – An information management & monitoring system created exclusively for
child protection services.

Q.192) Which technology is used in Contactless payment system?

[A] Serverless Computing
[B] Blockchain
[C] Internet of Things
[D] Radio-Frequency Identification

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The term contactless payment refers to a secure method for consumers to purchase
products or services using a debit, credit or another payment device with Near-Field Communication
(NFC) using Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology.

Q.193) Which state/ UT became the 1st in India to launch “Carbon Watch”, to monitor Carbon
footprint?
[A] Punjab
[B] Chandigarh
[C] Gujarat
[D] New Delhi

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Chandigarh, the joint capital of Punjab and Haryana became the first state/UT to launch
“Carbon Watch”, a mobile application to assess the carbon footprint of individual users. The
application was developed by the Department of Environment and Forest, Union Territory (UT) of
Chandigarh. The application collects data form its users to evaluate the carbon foot print of the
individual.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.194) Which app/web portal was (in Feb‟21) integrated into „Aarogya Setu‟ app?
[A] e-Sampada App
[B] Mera Covid Kendra
[C] Jeevan Seva App
[D] Co-WIN portal

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: India has integrated its COVID-19 Tracing App „Aarogya Setu‟ & COVID-19 Vaccine
Registration platform „Co-WIN portal (COVID Vaccine Intelligence Network)‟. The integration will
enable Users to download Vaccination certificates after they have received at least one dose of
COVID-19 Vaccination. With the Integration, users can now access the CoWIN portal on Aaroga
Setu app through a dedicated section. The Portal has 3 sections at present namely – Vaccine
Information, Vaccination Certificate and Vaccination Dashboard.

Q.195) Which state govt. launched the „LoumiConnect App‟, enabling farmers‟ to produce
organic products with inputs from Horticulture and Agriculture experts?
[A] Assam
[B] Manipur
[C] Gujarat
[D] Karnataka

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: On February 7, 2021 Manipur CM N. Biren Singh launched a new range of packaged
organic products and Loumi Connect App under Manipur Organic Mission Agency (MOMA) &
Mission Organic Value Chain Development for North Eastern Region (MOVCDNER). Loumi
Connect App helps to connect farmers with Horticulture and Agriculture experts. It also empowers
the farmers of the state to produce organic products. He also released an Illustrative guide booklet on
organic farming and MOVCDNER.

Q.196) Which state became the 1st in India to launch “e-Cabinet” app making the cabinet
proceedings paperless?
[A] Kerala
[B] Himachal Pradesh
[C] Gujarat
[D] Maharashtra

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: On 5th February 2021, Jai Ram Thakur, Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh
inaugurated the first e- cabinet at Shimla. The state became the first to implement e-cabinet and make
the end-to-end processing of cabinets paperless. This is the first of its kind electronic platform in
India. Features – Environment Friendly, Efficient Processing, Time Saving, Beforehand Access to
Ministers, Refined Decision Making, Better Record Keeping and Access, OTP Based Signing of
Documents & Ensuring of Implementation
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.197) When was the World NGO day annually observed?

[A] 28th February
[B] 25th February
[C] 23rd February
[D] 27th February

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: World NGO (Non-Governmental Organization) day is annually observed across the
globe on 27th February to create awareness about the importance of social work and to recognise and
honour the contributions of the Social workers, NGO founders, employees, volunteers, members and
supporters who are working towards the betterment of the society. The first World NGO day was
observed on 27th February 2014. The term Non-Governmental Organisation was created in Article 71
of the Charter of the United Nations in 1945.

Q.198) When is the UN‟s World Day of Social Justice observed annually?
[A] 19th February
[B] 15th February
[C] 21st February
[D] 20th February

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The United Nations(UN)‟s World Day of Social Justice is annually observed across the
globe on 20th February to promote and ensure Social justice in letter and spirit in the world where the
social inequality persists. The day recognises that social development can be ensured in the absence of
Social Justice. The theme of the 2021 World Day of Social Justice is “A Call for Social Justice in the
Digital Economy” which highlights the basic rights of the workers who have shifted to the digital
platform and whose lives were affected by the lack of digital infrastructure.

Q.199) In India, National Women‟s Day is annually celebrated on 13th February. It is

Celebrated to mark the birth anniversary of which freedom fighter?
[A] Annie Besant
[B] Sarojini Naidu
[C] Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
[D] Matangini Hazra

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: National Women‟s Day is annually celebrated across India on 13th February to honour
Sarojini Naidu, the “nightingale of India”, on her birth anniversary. The National Women‟s day is
celebrated to recognise the social, cultural, political and economic achievements of Women. 13th
February 2021 marks the 142nd birth anniversary of Sarojini Naidu. She was one of the 15 women in
the Constituent Assembly and she was the first woman to become the president of INC and the first
female governor of India.
 WBCS 2022 ( Prelims) Mock Test-1

Q.200) Who authored the book, “The Presidential Years: 2012-2017”?

[A] Ahmed Patel
[B] Pranab Mukherjee
[C] Venkaiah Naidu
[D] A K Antony

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Late Former President of India Pranab Mukherjee‟s memoir (Authored by Pranab
Mukherjee) titled

„The Presidential Years: 2012-2017‟ has been released in January 2021. The book gives an account
of how Pranab Mukherjee reshaped the functioning of Rashtrapati Bhavan. During his presidency,
he worked with 2 Prime Ministers(PMs), Dr Manmohan Singh and Narendra Modi.